Forensic Medicine & Toxicology QB

Forensic medicine & Toxicology
Question bank
Forensic
Identification of age
The first permanent tooth to erupt is :
A- central incisor.
B- first premolar.
C- first molar.
D- lateral incisor
The age of obtaining a driving license in a female is diagnosed by an X-ray on :

A- sternal end of clavicle.
B- metacarpals and phalanges.
C- lower end of femur.
D- lower end of radius.
In a crime of rape, one suspected assailant was excluded because the epiphyses
LAS
at the following sites were still opened :

A- lower end of femur.
B- heads of metacarpals.
C- head of femur.
D- between trochlea and capitulum.
A healthy 9kg body wt. infant has the following teeth erupted :
A- milk central incisor
B- milk lateral incisor.
C- milk canine.
D- milk first molar.
The age of marriage in the male is identified by the union of :

A- bases of phalanges
B- head of humerus
C- head of femur
D- Upper end of tibia.
Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

A 2 years old child shows the following Except:
A- ossification centre appears in the lower end of radius
B- Eruption of the second milk molar.
C- Body wt. about 12kg.
D- opened anterior fontanels
In a female at the age of full civil rights, the following epiphyses are found to be
closed :
A- Lower end of femur.
B- Iliac crest.
C- sternal end of clavicle.
D- Upper end of tibia.
E- b&c
Types of finger prints include the following Except :

A- loops
B- Arches.
C- Whorls.
D- Circles.
E- Composite
LAS
At age of 3 years which of the following occurs:

A- Appearance of ossific center in femur head.
B- Appearance of ossific center in Upper end of radius
C- Appearance of ossific center in Lower end of radius.
D- closure of frontal suture
How to identify the age of full criminal responsibility?

A- Fusion of lower end of femur with shaft
B- Fusion of head of femur with shaft
C- Fusion of lower end of humerus with shaft
D- Fusion of lateral epicondyle of humeurs with shaft
What is the most reliable method for personal identification?

A- Anthropometry
B- Dactylography
C- Handwriting
D- Photography

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Mention ossific centers that appear at six months intrauterine?
A- Clavicle
B- Humerus
C- Calcaneus
D- Manubrium sterni
The age of obtaining full civil rights in female is diagnosed by an x-ray on……
A- Lower end of femur.
B- Head of humerus
C- Iliac crest of hip bone
D- Acromial end of clavicle.
At the age of discrimination :
A- Second permanent molar erupts. LAS
B- Permanent canine erupts.
C- Trochlea units with capitulum
D- Permanent central incisor erupts
A 30 years old negroid male has the following sutures closed :
A- Sagittal suture.
B- Coronal suture.
C- Inter frontal suture.
D- Lambdoid suture
At what age ossific center of the head of humerus appears?
A- 2nd month intrauterine
B- 3rd month intrauterine
C- Full term
D- 5th month intrauterine

Identification of sex
In which case sexing is negative?
A- Turner's syndrome.
B- Klienfilter's Syndrome.
C- Gonadal agenesis.
D- Hermaphrodite cases.
What is the suitable sample for sex chromatin test?

A- Semen
B- Buccal mucosa
C- Nail
D- Blood
What is the type of gonads in cases of Feminine Hermaphrodite?

A- testes.
B- Ovaries
C- Abdominal testes LAS
D- Ovotestes
In which case Barr body test is positive?

A- Turner's Syndrome
B- Male peudohermaphrotide
C- Klienfilter's Syndrome
D- Gonad agenesis
What is the cause of testicular hermaphrodite?

A- Undesceded testis
B- Extra Y chromosome
C- Androgen insensitivity
D- Excessive androgen secretion
What is conclusive in identification of sex in clinical examination?

A- Body fat distribution
B- Body hair distribution
C- Prostate / Uterus
D- Testes / Ovaries.

What is conclusive in identification of sex on cellular level?
A- Barr Body
B- Davidson's body
C- X chromosome
D- Y chromosome
At What age Ossific center of the bodies of the vertebrae appears?

C- 5th month intrauterine
At what age the sex of the fetus is differentiated ?

C- 4th month intrauterine
What are the ossific centers a five months intrauterine fetus has
A- Clavicle
LAS
B- Lower jaw
C- Calcaneus
D- All of the above
What are the ossific centers a seven months intrauterine fetus has ?
A- Clavicle
B- Lower jaw
C- Talus
D- All of the above
What is the length of a normal 7 months fetus ?

A- 25 cm
B- 35cm
C- 45 cm
D- 55 cm

What is the weight of a normal 7 months fetus?
A- 1.0 - 1.5 kg
B- 1.5 -1.75 kg
C- 2.0 – 2.5 kg
D- 2.5 – 2.75 kg
Why the fetus is is considered viable at 7 months intrauterine age?

A- It can exist separately
B- It Can exist in an incubator
C- Its weight is suitable
D- It can exist separately provided normal uterine growth
What is the weight of a normal full term fetus?

A- 1.0 - 1.5 kg
B- 1.5 -1.75 kg
C- 2.0 – 2.5 kg
D- 2.5 – 3.5 kg
What is the length of a normal full term fetus?

A-35- 45 cm LAS
B- 45-50 cm
C- 50-55 cm
D- 55-60 cm
At what age ossific center of the head of humerus appears ?

C- Full term
At what age the anterior fontanelle closes ?
A- Full term
B- One year
C- Two years
D- 1-2 years

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Which of the following best describes cases of gonad dysgenesis?
A- Absence of gonads
B- Presence of both types of gonads in one body.
C- Developmental abnormality due to chromosomal problems
D- Behavioral abnormalities
Types of finger prints include the following EXCEPT:
A- Loops
B- Arches.
C- Whorls.
D- Circles.
E- Composite
Which type of cells is used to determine sex on examining hair root cells?
LAS
A- Barr body
B- Davidson
C- Golgi body.
D- Medullary index
What is the cause of ovarian hermaphrodite?
A- Extra X chromosome
B- Extra ovary
C- Estrogen insensitivity
D- Adrenal hyperplasia
In which case there is chromosomal abnormalities?
A- Male pseudo-hermaphrodite
B- Female pseudo-hermaphrodite
C- Turner’s syndrome
D- True hermaphrodite

E-Learning
Concerning karyotyping the following is true EXCEPT:
a. It could be carried out by examination of hair stem
b. It is carried out by light microscope
c. It is beneficial in case of intersex
d. It depends uon detection of X chromosome
Hair stem at the edge of contused wounds is

a. Clubbed
b. Crushed
c. Sharply cut
d. Tapering
One of the following denotes the age of the legal rights for voting in males :
a. Eruption of second premolar teeth
b. Eruption of second permanent molar teeth LAS
c. Union of trochlea and capitulum

d. Union of metacarpals with their distal ends
In a female before the age of full civil rights, the following epiphyses are found to
be closed except:
a. lower end of femur
b. head of humerus
c. sternal end of clavicle
d. upper end of tibia
Teeth examination can be useful in the following conditions except :

a. Age identification
b. Sex identification
c. Personal identification
d. Acute poisoning

Davidson body can be detected in :
a. Male hepatocytes
b. Female polymorphs
c. Female buccal mucosal cells
d. Male neutrophils
Hair examination is essential in in the following assaults except :

a. drowning
b. Fire arm injury
c. Burn
d. Rape
To identify the age of marriage of a female from a plain X-ray, you look at :
a. lower end of radius
b. distal ends of metacarpals
c. head of humerus LAS
d. lower end of ulna
On dissecting a male body , 35 years old and 160 cm height the examiner detects
all the following except :
a. humerus is 40 cm
b. closed saggital suture
c. non unionunion between body and manubrium
d. deep narrow great sciatic notch
Pelvic X ray of a female 21 years old shows the following except :

a. Wide greater sciatic notch
b. union between ischial tuberosity and ischium
c. United iliac crest with iliac bone
d. narrow sacrum

which of the following associations is incorrect :
a. male pubic arch – obtuse angle
b. female greater sciatic notch – wide and shallow
c. female obturator foramen – triangular
d. female pubic body – short and broad
data obtained from chest X ray of 45 years old male include all of the following
EXCEPT :
a. Sternal body is more than double the manubrium in length
b. Union between sternal body and xiphoid process
c. Union between sternal body and manubrium sterni
d. Union between sternal end of clavicle and shaft
A healthy 9kg body wt. infant has the following teeth erupted :
a. milk central incisor
b. milk lateral incisor LAS
c. milk canine
d. milk first molar
The origin of tissue protein is identified by :

a. Reinsh test
b. Teichman test
c. Microscopical test
d. Precipitin test

Wound
Which of the following conditions will lead to cut wound with irregular edges?
A- Wound in redundant skin.
B- If the instrument is a knife.
C- If the instrument is a stick
D- Impact abrasion
Which of the following items fits with a wound with beveled descent at its
starting edge and heaped epidermis at its finishing edge?
A- Cut wound
B- Lacerated wound
C- Impact abrasion
D- Tangential abrasions
What is the most reliable sign for dating of bruises?

A- Color changes LAS
B- Presence or absence of associated abrasions

C- Presence or absence of swelling
D- Impact abrasion
A man came to the emergency medicine with multiple abrasions covered by dry
brown scab he asked for primary medicolegal report what should you do?(give
reason for your answer)
A- Examine the wounds and write the report.
B- Refer him to the surgery department for treatment.
C- Don't write the report
D- Impact abrasion
Which of the following is considered a patterned wound?

A- Trame line bruises
B- A tangential abrasion.
C- Finger nails abrasions
D- Impact abrasion

Which of the following best characterizes a contused wound?
A- It has cleanly cut edges.
B- It has irregular edges
C- Profuse bleeding.
D- Bridging of tissue
Which of the following best differentiates cut from stab wound?

A- The causative instrument is sharp pointed.
B- The depth of the wound
C- The way of wound infliction
D- Impact abrasion
Which one of the following is considered the most diagnostic feature of bruises?
A- The causative instrument is heavy blunt instrument with rough surface.
B- The force of infliction exceeds skin elasticity
C- The overlying skin is intact while the subcutaneous vessels are ruptured
D- Impact abrasion
Which of the following is considered a point of similarity between cut and

LAS
contused wound in the scalp?

A- Both have profuse bleeding.
B- Both may have bruises around the edges.
C- Both are longitudinal
D- The causative instrument is sharp pointed.
Which of the following is considered a must for establishing causality between

trauma and infirmity?
A- The affected part is not lost.
B- The affected part was diseased before trauma
C- The effect is incurable
Which of the following is correct for cut wound?

A- It is induced by thrusting the instrument
B- little force is required to induce it.
C- Never associated by bridging of tissues at the base.

In which of the following trauma site examination using UV lamp is helpful?
A- Foreign body in the wound
B- Bruises in black people
C- Abrasions in axilla
D- The causative instrument is sharp point
Which of the following is considered the mechanism of cut wound infliction?

A- The force is concentrated over a very narrow striking surface
B- The force of its induction is always high.
C- It is induced by thrust
D- Moving body sticking a blunt object.
Which of the following mechanisms lead to blunt force wounds?

A- Moving object striking the body.
B- The force is concentrated over a narrow striking surface
C- Moving body sticking a blunt object.
D- It is induced by thrust
LAS
In which of the following conditions the assailant who is charged with inducing
wound will be condemned to the criminal court?
A- If the wound leads to infection.
B- If the wound leads to disfiguring scar
C- If the wound leads to limitation of a joint movement.
D- It is induced by thrust

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Which of the following characterizes Linear nail abrasion?
A- One of the patterned wounds.
B- A tangential abrasion.
C- A blunt wound that may reflect the force of infliction
D- Impact abrasion
Which of the following is correct for contused wound?
A- Never associated with bruises
B- Always associated with bruises
C- May be associated with bruises
Which of the following is best diagnostic of stab wound?
A- Regular edges.
B- Profuse bleeding LAS
C- More deep than long
Which of the following differentiate hypostasis from a bruise?
A- Site.
B- Size
C- Pressure test.
D- Color changes
Which of the following information can be obtained depending on healing changes of abrasion?
A- Mechanism of infliction
B- Type of crime
C- Time of infliction
D- Pattern of causative instrument.

Regional Injures
Where is blunt trauma more likely to produce incised like wounds?
A- Chest
B- Hand
C- Neck
D- Scalp
Where is the lesion in contrecoup impact?

A- At site of impact
B- At a site opposite to impact
C- At a site tangential to impact
D- Middle cerebral artery
What type of intracranial hemorrhage commonly results from rupture of berry

aneurysm?
A- Extradural bleeding
LAS
B- Intracerebral bleeding
C- Subarachnoid bleeding
D- Subdural bleeding
What is polar fracture?

A- Comminuted fracture
B- Cut fracture
C- Depressed fracture
D- Fissure fracture
What is the characteristic sign in concussion?

A- General flaccidity
B- Slow deep respiration
C- Slow full pulse
D- Unequal pupils

Which type of fracture caused by a man sustained upper cut in the head of
mandible after boxing match?
A- Cut fracture
B- Depressed fracture
C- Diastatic fracture
D- Ring fracture
What is needed for inflicting fissure fracture?

A- High momentum with large surface area
B- High momentum with localized surface area
C- Low momentum with large surface area
D- Low momentum with localized surface area
What is pachymeningitis haemorrhagica?

A- Extradural hemorrhage
B- Subdural hemorrhage
C- Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D- Intracerebral hemorrhage
Which type of fracture is produced by a handle of an axe?

A- Chipped fracture
LAS
B- Cut fracture
C- Fissure fracture
D- Localized depressed fracture
What is the most common type of intracranial hemorrhage seen in child abuse?
A- Extradural hemorrhage.
B- Subdural hemorrhage.
C- Subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D- Intracerebral hemorrhage.
What is the most common cause of death in extradural haemmorhage?

A- Cardiac failure
B- Haemorrhagic shock
C- Neurogenic shock
D- Respiratory failure

What is the most characteristic description of ring fracture?
A- Circular fracture
B- Direct facture
C- Fissure fracture
D- Indirect fracture
In which of the following conditions, contrecoup injuries are seen?

A- Hit by hard blunt object
B- Hit by sharp weapon
C- Road traffic accident
D- Indirect fracture
Who are the most vulnerable to diastatic fractures?

A- Old persons
B- Young persons
C- Adolescents
D- Small children
A 23-year aged man was hit on his head, he complained of sense of giddiness for
few seconds. On examination: his pulse was 120 b/min, blood pressure was
LAS
90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate was 20/min and temperature was 36 °C. What is
the diagnosis of this patient's condition?
A- Concussion
B- Compression
C- Brain laceration
D- Brain contusion
A woman was brought to the ER with head trauma since 3 hrs , she was
conscious with normal vital signs. Her daughter gave history of unconsciousness
for seconds immediately after trauma. What is the best management?
A- Morphine for pain
B- Observation for 24 hrs
C- Sedation
D- Take care of blood pressure

A patient was brought to hospital with head injury. On examination of the eyes,
one pupil was constricted and the other was dilated. What do you expect?
A- The head injury is on the same side of constricted pupil.
B- The reflexes are exaggerated on the side of constricted pupil.
C- The muscles are paralyzed on the side of dilated pupil.
D- Muscle twitches are noticed on the side of dilated pupil.
Which of the following is an immediate cause of death in a case of cut throat?

A- Arterial air embolism
B- Aspiration pneumonia
C- Edema of the glottis
D- Hemorrhage
A man suffered from a blow to the chest and abdomen. Two days later, he
presented with hemoperitoneum. What is the most likely cause?
A- Hematoma of renal cortex
B- Intraperitoneal rupture of urinary bladder
C- Subcapsular tear and hematoma of liver
D- Tear and rupture of the stomach
LAS
Which of the following is an immediate cause of death in a case of cut throat

B- Aspiration pneumonia
C- Edema of the glottis
D- Parasympathetic shock
Which of the following body organs are liable to have contre-coup injuries?
A- Brain, heart and liver
B- Brain, lung and heart
C- Brain, lung and spleen
D- Brain, spleen and liver
If an elderly man suffered from a fracture of femur then after 22 hours he
suffered from chest pain, cyanosis and dyspnea. Which of the following is the
most likely complication that occurred?
A- Decubitus ulcer
B- Fat embolism
C- hemorrhage
D- Hypostatic pneumonia

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What is meant by pachymeningitishaemorrhagica?
A- Extradural haemorrhage
B- Subdural heamorrhage
C- Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D- Intracerebralhaemorrhage
A person with a head injury can talk normally and tell about the circumstantial evidence. What is the case?
A- Automatism
B- Concussion
C- Lucid interval
D- Retrograde amnesia
Which of the following fractures can occur by striking with a head of hammer?
A- Chipped
LAS
B- Cut
C- Fissure
D- Localized depressed
Which of the following is a delayed cause of death in a case of cut throat?
A- Aspiration pneumonia
B- Blocking trachea with blood
C- Hemorrhage
D- Venous air embolism
What is the characteristic sign in early stage of brain compression?
A- Irregular breathing
B- Low blood pressure
C- Slow full pulse
D- Subnormal temperature

What is the characteristic feature in diagnosing brain compression?
A- High blood pressure
B- Low temperature
C- Rapid and weak pulse
D- Shallow and rapid respiration
Which type of fracture could occur as a result of falling on breech from a height?
A- Cut
B- Hinge
C- Localized depressed
D- Ring
If an elderly man suffers from a fracture of femur. Which of the following is a delayed complication that may occur?
A- Bone marrow embolism LAS
B- Fat embolism
C- hemorrhage
D- Hypostatic pneumonia
Which of the following is a probable complication of chest injury?
B- Crush syndrome
C- Hematogenic shock
D- Venous air embolism

A 23-year aged man was hit on his head, he complained of sense of giddiness for fewseconds. On examination: his pulse
was 120b/min, blood pressure was 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate was 20/min and temperature was 36⁰C. What is the
diagnosis of this patient's condition?
A- Concussion
B- Compression
C- Brain laceration
D- Brain contusion
Inter cerebral Hemorrhage is fatal in amount of :
A- 250 cc blood
B- 100 cc blood.
C- Few cc blood
Where does diastatic fracture occur?
A- Inner table
B- Outer table LAS
C- Sutural line
Which vessel is commonly ruptured in extradural hemorrhage?
A- Middle cerebral artery
B- Middle meningeal artery
C- Circle of Willis
D- Vertebral artery
Which of the following conditions could be complicated by arterial air embolism?
A- Artificial pneumothorax
B- Criminal abortion
C- Cut throat
D- Tubal insuflation

Firearm Injures
At The Inlet Of Firearm Injury, Homogenization Of Dermal Collagen Fiber Was
Found, What Is The Probable Cause?
A- It Is Due To Hot Gases And Flame.
B- It Is Due To Carbon Monoxide Gases.
C- It Is Due To Greasy Substance
During Examination Of A Patient, Doctor Found Multiple Circular Wounds With

Greasy Collar, What Is The Probable Diagnosis?
A- Partial Dispersion Of Non-Rifled Weapon.
B- Full Dispersion Of Non-Rifled Weapon.
C- Multiple Inlets Of Rifled Weapon.
D- Multiple Puncture Wounds.
A Man Was Shot In His Head By Automatic Service Rifled Weapon, Which One Of
The Following Is The Most Diagnostic Internal Sign Of Firearm Injury?
A- Redness Of Tissue.
B- Beveling Of The Skull Bone. LAS
C- Presence Of Two Wounds.

D- Presence Of Powder Marks.
A Man Had A Fabricated Firearm Wound In His Chest, How To Diagnose This
Case?
A- By Presence Of Powder Marks at The Wound.
B- By False Story About The Type And Direction Of Firing.
C- Clothes Show Tear And Burn Corresponding To The Skin Lesion.
A Firearm Case Was Brought To The Hospital With Minimal Amount Of Tattooing
Around The Inlet, What Is The Best Method For Diagnosis Of This Minimal
Amount?
A- Microscopic Examination Of The Skin.
B- Naked Eye Examination.
C- Swab From Residuethat Surround The Inlet.

During Examination Of A Patient In Emergency Room ,Multiple Injuries Was
Found, What Is The Character Of These Firearm Injuries?
A- Beveling Of Any Bone.
B- Gapping Of The Tissues.
C- Bridging Of The Tissue.
D- Loss Of Substance.
In Firearm Injuries, Ricocheting Bullet Means That:

A- The Bullet Hits Another Surface Before Entering The Body.
B- Two Bullets Enter The Body By One Inlet
C- Many Defects In The Jacket Of The Bullet.
D- Bullet Penetrate More Than One Part Of The Body.
A Man Was Brought To Hospital With Rapid Weak Pulse, Blood Pressure Was 80
/40, Shallow Rapid Respiration And Inlet Of Firearm Injuries, Why Does This
Patient Need A Rapid Surgical Interference?
A- To Remove The Retained Bullet Or Shots.
B- To Treat Massive Internal Hemorrhage.
C- Help Forensic Pathologist For Diagnosis.

D- For Estimation Of The Distance Of Firing. LAS
During Examination Of A Case Of Firearm Injuries, Surgeon Found More Than

One Inlet , What Is The Probable Cause Of This Case?
A- Dum-Dum Bullet. B- Tandem Bullet
C- Dum-Dum and Ricocheting Bullet
D- Fragmented Bone.
During Examination Of The Inlet Of Firearm Injury, Loss Of Substance,

Blackening, Tattooing Around The Inlet And Redness Of The Tissue Were Found,
Why Does Redness Occur In The Tissue?
A- It Is Due To The Effect Of Carbon Monoxide Gases.
B- It Occurs With Soiling Ring.
C- It Is Due To The Effect Of Carbon Dioxide Gases.

Man Was Found Dead In His Flat. His Skull Was Shattered And Brain Matter Was
Coming Out. During Autopsy, The Forensic Pathologist Found A Small Rounded
Opening In His Mouth. What Is The Type Of Lesion In This Case?
A- Multiple Cut Comminuted Fractures.
B- Multiple Localized Depressed Comminuted Fractures.
C- Depressed Comminuted Fracture.
D- Firearm Injuries.
If You Find A Rounded Inlet Of Firearm Injury During Examination, What Is The
probable Cause?
A- Firing Was Near.
B- Firing Was Oblique.
C- Firing Was Perpendicular.
A Woman Was Brought To Emergency Room Suffering From Multiple Openings,

What Is The Importance Of Powder Marks To Emergency Doctors?
A- To Differentiate Inlet From Exit.
B- To Estimate The Distance Of Firing.
C- To Determine The Direction Of Firing.
D- To Evaluate The Type Of Powder.
LAS
A Man Was Shot In His Abdomen, During Examination The Doctor Found An Exit
With No Eversion Of Its Edges, What Is The Probable Cause?
A- The Body Was Supported By A Tight Belt
B- A Man Was Obese.
C- Firing Was Near.
A Woman Was Shot In Her Abdomen By Automatic Pistol, What Is The Best
Evidence in This Case?
A- Clothes
B- Swab From The Skin
C- Retained Shots
D- Retained Inner Wad
In Firearm Injuries, In Which One Of The Following Bone, Beveling Occurs?

A- Humerus.
B- Tibia.
C- Fibula.
D- Scapula.

During Examination Of The Inlet Of Firearm Injury, The Forensic Pathologist
Found A White Paint At The Edge Of The Inlet, What Is The Cause Of This White
Paint?
A- The Bullet Was Dum-Dum
B- The Bullet Hit wall And Ricochet.
C- The Distance Of Firing Was Near
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Which of the following swab is needed for detection of gunshot residue?
A- Moist swab by distilled water
B- Carbon coated stub
C- Alcohol swab
D- a and c
E- b and c
LAS
What is the most characteristic of an inlet of firearm?
A- Everted edges
B- External beveling
C- Powder marks
D- Soiling ring
A man was shot by sporting gun from a near distance and brought to hospital, what is the best method to identify the
retained inner wad inside the body?
A- Exploration.
B- Plain x ray.
C- MRI (magnetic resonance imaging).

To identify the site of retained bullet inside the body, which one of the following must be done by the surgeon?
A- Exploration.
B- Plain x ray.
C- MRI (magnetic resonance imaging).
A doctor found an inlet with everted edges in a case of firearm injuries, what is the probable cause?
A- Firing was far
B- Firing was in the female breast.
C- Firing was in a female back.
D- The bodywassupported by a tight belt
LAS

Physical injures
A superficial partial thickness burn can be diagnosed as it:

A- Has thin walled blister
B- Heals in 4 to 6 weeks
C- has a great scarring risk
D- has just erythema
A fire breaks up at 6 A.M., one victim died at 11 P.M., the most possible cause of
death is:
A- Neurogenic shock
B- Suprarenal hemorrhage
C- Hematogenic shock. LAS
D- Multi-organ failure
Wilson classified burns into 3 degrees depending on :

A- The depth of damage in the skin
C- The extent of burnt skin
D- The presence of desquamation
E- The presence of blisters
Increased body temperature is a significant feature of which type of heat

injuries?
A- Heat collapse
B- Heat stroke
C- Heat cramp
D- Neurogenic shock

In cases of burned human body, which of the following is the most diagnostic
feature for differentiation between ante mortem and post mortem burn in real
life cases ?
A- The presence of Erythema
B- The Vesicles content
C- The presence of heamoconcentration
D- The level of Co HB.
In electrocution, examination of a body died in a bath by an electric current

revealed:
A- Blisters
B- Desquamation
C- Hold on effect
D- No evidence
LAS
In electrocution death, asphyxia may occur due to:

A- Contraction of chest muscles.
B- Relaxation of chest muscles.
C- Paralysis of chest muscles.
D- None of the above
A fire break up at 5 P.M., one victim died at 7 P.M., the possible cause of death
is:
A- Fat embolism.
B- Neurogenic shock.
C- Suprarenal hemorrhage.
D- Hemoconcentration

When a body is burnt post mortem, a thermal skull fracture may occur, can you
describe it?
A- Takes the shape of fissure fracture.
B- Depressed in character.
C- Accompanied by brain edema.
D- All of the above.
A man died 2 days after being exposed to burn, what is the most possible cause
of death?
A- Neurogenic shock.
B- Bronchopneumonia.
C- Hematogenic shock.
D- None of above.
LAS
In a case exposed to heat stroke, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
A- Normal body temperature.
B- High body temperature.
C- The affected system is CNS.
D- Low blood pressure and rapid pulse.
The ' hold on ' effect of electrocutionis due to :

A- The effect of the direct current on the extensor muscles.
B- The effect of the alternative current on the flexor muscles.
C- The effect of the direct current on the flexor muscles.
D- The effect of the alternative current on the extensor muscles.

In electrocution,The majority of body resistance to electric current is present in:
A- Wet skin
B- Dry skin
C- Thick Skin
D- Thin skin
In electrocutions, hold on effect is due to:

A- Alternating current
B- Direct current
C- High voltage current
D- Low voltage current
Scald is one type of burn, which of the following agents can cause scald?
A- Hot metal
B- Flame
C- Boiled liquid LAS
D- Sun burn
A 50 year old female was found burned in her house. She was transported to
hospital. Four days later she died. What is the most likely cause of her death?
A- Hematogenic shock
B- Fat embolism
C- Edema of glottis
D- Bronchopneumonia

Online Bank
In a case exposed to heat collapse, all of the followingare correct EXCEPT:
A- Normal body temperature.
B- The affected system is CNS.
C- Decreased urinary output.
D- Low blood pressure and rapid pulse.
Which of the following is an immediate cause of death from electrocution?
A- Laryngeal edema
B- Hemorrhage
C- Transverse myelitis
D- Ventricular fibrillation
32 year-old farmer received abdominal trauma, after 2 hours the pulse reached 136/min, blood pressure 70/40. What is
the possible diagnosis of his condition?
A- Air embolism LAS
B- Internal hemorrhage
C- Sympathetic shock
D- Parasympathetic shock
Hold on effect In electrocutionsis due to:
A- Alternating current
B- Direct current
C- High voltage current
D- Low voltagecurrent
According to Wilson's classification of burns, a superficial partial thickness burn is characterized by:
A- Involving the reticular dermis.

B- Healing in about 2-3 weeks.
C- Great risk of disfiguring scar.
D- Healing without scarring

Child Abuse
In what type of child abuse contusions is present?
A- Emotional abuse
B- Sexual abuse
C- Physical abuse
E- b and c
Radiologically ''Spiral fracture of the humerus'' indicates what?

A- Fall from height
B- Rickets
C- Child abuse
D- All of the above
LAS
What are the diagnostic radiological signs in child abuse?

A- Spiral fracture
B- ''String of beads appearance''
C- Subdural hemorrhage
D- Chipped epiphysis
E- All of the above
What is The most common fatal lesions in physical child abuse ?

A- Skin lesions
B- Skeletal lesions
C- Head lesions
D- Spiral fracture

In examining a case of child abuse we look specifically for what?
A- Lacerated lips
B- Torn frenulum
C- Fracture teeth
D- All of the above
What is the most common cause of death of the following injuries in child
abuse?
A- Visceral injuries
B- Severe eye injuries
C- Mouth injuries
D- a and b
What is the most common feature of physical child abuse?

A- Single
B- Fatal LAS
C- Multiple and non fatal

How you can diagnose physical child abuse?

A- Radiological examination
B- The presence of different types of injuries with different ages of healing
C- The presence of different types of injuries with different ages of healing in multiple sites of
the body
D- a & c
What is the most common type of brain hemorrhage in child abuse?

A- Subdural
B- Extradural
C- Subarachnoids
D- a and b.

Radiologically ''String of beads appearance'' is diagnostic of what?
A- Strangulation
B- Infanticide
C- Child abuse
D- All of the above
Radiologically ''String of beads appearance'' indicates what?

A- Multiple rib fractures
B- Healing rib fractures following squeezing of infant's chest by adult hands
C- Calcium deficiency
Swab of saliva can be obtained in which of the following?

A- Sexual child abuse
B- Physical child abuse
C- a &b
D- Burns LAS
What is the most frequent cause of death in child abuse?

A- Bruises
B- Burns
C- Head injury
D- Visceral injuries

Online Bank
What are the common forms of bruises in child abuse?
A- Pinch marks
B- Fingertip discoid marks
C- Black eye
D- Knuckle marks
E- All of the above
How can you diagnose physical child abuse?
A- Radiological examination
B- b- The presence of different types of injuries with different ages of healing
C- The presence of different types of injuries withdifferent ages of healing in multiple sites of the body
D- a&c
E-Learning
(Wounds, Regional, Physical, firearm, child)
LAS

LAS

LAS

LAS

Death and post-mortem changes
A man commits suicide by taking cyanide. On arrival to ER, he was dead and
hypostasis was completed on the back. What is expected color of hypostasis in
this case?
A- Violet.
B- Deep blue.
C- Dark blue.
D- Red.
When does hyostasis start?

A- At the moment of death.
B- One hour postmortem.
C- Two hours postmortem.
D- Six to eight hours
LAS
How many hours have been passed since death in the above mentioned case?
A- One hour.
B- Two hours
C- Four hours.
D- Six hours
Which of the following is considered an early sign of deaths?

A- Rigor mortis.
B- Hypostasis all over the body.
C- Segmentation of retinal vessels.
D- Cooling of the body.

What is the mechanism of Cadaveric spasm?
A- Loss of muscle tone.
B- Excessive muscle tone.
C- Ante mortem stress.
D- Increased reflexes
Which of the following weather helps in mummification of a dead body?

A- Dry and cold.
B- Moist and hot.
C- Moist and cold.
D- Dry and hot .
Which of the following is the best for the diagnosis of death?

A- Hypostasis.
B- Rigor mortis. LAS
C- Cold pale skin.

D- Loss of reflexes.
How many hours have been passed since the death of a cold and stiff body?
A- Less than one hour
B- Two to eight hours.
C- Ten hours.
D- More than ten hours.
Which of the following is most likely an earliest sign of death?

A- Corneal clouding
B- Cooling of body
C- Loss of skin elasticity
D- Postmortem lividity

Which type of muscle rigor mortis is first evident?
A- Eyelids
B- Interstitial muscle
C- Intestine
D- myocardium
Online Bank
Where does putrefaction starts?
A- Chest wall
B- Left iliac fossa
C- Right iliac fassa
D- umblicus
Which of the following may be mistaken with rigor mortis?

LAS
A- Cold stiffness.
B- Heat stiffening.
C- Cadaveric spasm.
D- Any of the above.
In vegetative state, all of the following sensations are lost, EXCEPT:
A- Visual sensation
B- Pain sensation
C- Auditory sensation
D- Tactile sensation

Brain Death
Which of the following is among the precautions that should be taken before
certifying brain death?
A- The tests should be carried out by two specialists, neurologist and anesthetist.
B- The tests should be done only once before confirmation of the diagnosis
C- In case of doubt about diagnosis, declare death
D- After confirmation of brain death, death certificate can be issued
In vegetative state, the patient loses all of the following EXCEPT:

A- Awareness of the surroundings
B- Spontaneous respiration
C- Visual tracking of an object
D- Expression and comprehension
Causes of reversible coma include all of the following EXCEPT:

LAS
A- Renal failure
B- Cerebral laceration
C- Hypothermia
D- CNS depressant toxicity
Six hours after severe head injury, the patient was not respiring spontaneously,
unresponsive even to painful stimuli. What is your provisional diagnosis?
A- Cortical death
B- Molecular death
C- Somatic death
D- Brain stem death
What does a patient in vegetative state need?

A- Mechanical ventilation
B- Resuscitation C- Nutritional support

How many hours should pass before repeating the testes for brain stem reflexes
in an infant?
A- 6 hours
B- 12 hours
C- 24 hours
D- 48 hours
After diagnosis of brain death, when could the death certificate be issued?
A- After disconnection of the ventilator
B- Just after diagnosis without disconnection of the ventilator
C- None of above
recautions that should be taken before certifying brain death include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A- The tests should be repeated after certain time before confirmation of the diagnosis
LAS
B- The tests should be carried out by three specialists, neurologist, neurosurgeon and
anesthetist.
C- One of the physiciansof the transplantation team should be involved in diagnosis of brain
death.
D- If there are any doubts about diagnosis, patient support must be continued.
Which of the following could be a candidate for brain death diagnosis?

A- The patient is in coma due to hypoglycemia and is breathing spontaneously
B- The patient is in coma due to brain laceration and is breathing spontaneously
C- The patient is in coma due to subarachnoid hemorrhage and is connected to a ventilator
D- The patient is in coma due to benzodiazepine toxicity and is connected to a ventilator

Online Bank
Who can diagnose brain death?
A- Three specialists of neurosurgery, internal medicine and cardiology
B- Three specialists of neurology, forensic pathology and anesthesia.
C- Three specialists of intensive care, anesthesia and neurosurgery
D- Three specialists of neurology, internal medicine and intensive care
How many hours should pass before repeating the testes for brain stem reflexes in an adult?
A- 6 hours
B- 12 hours
C- 24 hours
D- 48 hours
LAS

E-Learning
Brain death, death,
pregnancy
LAS

LAS

LAS

Sexual offences and pregnancy
Rape Is Sexual Intercourse Between Male And Female Which Is
A- Illegal
B- Without Her Consent
C- By Force
D- All Of Above
Conditions Of Consent In Rape: Which Is Wrong

A- Female Is Not Mentally Retarded
B- Female Is Not Under Threat
C- Female Is Fully Conscious
D- Female Is Not Under 21 Years
Suction Bite Is
A- Abrasion
B- Contusion
C- Intradermal Peticheal hemorrhage
D- None Of Above
LAS
The Common Site Of Suction Bite In

A- Neck
B- Face
C- Abdomen
D- Genetalia
Sperms Remain Intact For:

A- One Hour After Emission Of Semen
B- 6 Hours After Emission Of Semen
C- 48 Hours After Emission Of Semen
D- 6 Days After Emission Of Semen
Sperms Keep Motile For:

A- 1-6 Minutes After Emission Of Semen
B- 1-6 Hours After Emission Of Semen
C- 1-6 Days After Emission Of Semen
D- 1-6 Weeks After Emission Of Semen

The Most Common Type Of Hymen Is
A- Cribriform
B- Annular
C- Imperforate
D- Semilunar
Imperforate Hymen Is A Hymen With:

A- One Central Hole
B- Multiple Holes
C- Septum
D- None Of The Above
Elastic Dilatable Hymen

A- Not Bleed With First Intercourse
B- Elastic Not Torn With First Intercourse
C- Torn At The Date Of Delivery
D- Both A And B
The Most Reliable Sign Of Virginity Is:

A- Firm Rounded Labia Majora
B- Pink Rugose Vagina
LAS
C- Narrow Vestibule
D- Intact Hymen
Sexual Intercourse Between Two Males Through Anus Is :
A- Buggery
B- Sodomy
C- Incest
D- None Of Above
Sodomy Is:
A- Oral Sex Between Male And Female
B- Anal Sex Between Two Males
C- Anal Sex Between Male And Female
D- Oral Sex Between Two Males
The Most Reliable Sign In Habitual Sodomist Is

A- Feminine Gait
B- Feminine Manner Of Speech
C- Weak Anal Reflex
D- Old Healed Scars In Anal Mucosa

Habitual Sodomist Is Characterized By , Which Is False :
A- Feminine Manner Of Speech
B- Piles And Fissures
C- Weak Anal Reflex
D- Signs Of General Resistance
Among Sure Signs Of Pregnancy The Most Reliable Sign Is:

A- Auscultation Of Fetal Heart Sounds
B- Inspection Of Fetal Parts
C- Palpation Of Fetal Movment
D- Ultrasonography
At 24 Weeks Of Gestation The Uterine Fundus Is :

A- At Umbilicus
B- Midway Between Umbilicus And Symphysis Pubis
C- 2-3 Fingers Breadth Below Umbilicus

D- Midway Between Umbilicus And Xyphoid Process
LAS
One Of The Following Is Considered A Sure Sign Of Pregnancy:

A- Positive Pregnancy
B- Amenorrhea
C- Dark Areola Around Nipple
D- Ultrasonography

Online Bank
Virginity Means :
A- Narrow Vestibule
B- Intact Hymen
C- Intact Fourchette
D- All Of Above
At 24 weeks of gestation, the level of the uterine fundus will reach:
A- At Umbilicus
B- Midway Between Umbilicus And Symphysis Pubis
C- 2-3 Fingers Breadth Below Umbilicus
D- Midway Between Umbilicus And Xyphoid Process
If fetal length is 21 cm, gestational period is:
A- Between 4 and 5 months
B- Less than 4 months LAS
C- More than 5 months
Uterus is still pelvic organ till the end of:
A- Second Lunar Month Of Gestation
B- Third Lunar Month Of Gestation
C- Fourth Lunar Month Of Gestation
D- Fifth Lunar Month Of Gestation
Buggery is
A- Anal intercourse between male and female
B- Anal intercourse between two males
C- Oral intercourse between two males
D- Oral intercourse between male and female

Conditions Of Consent In Rape all are true EXCEPT
A- Female Is Not Mentally Retarded
B- Female Is Not Under Threat
C- Female Is Fully Conscious
D- Female Is Not Under 21 Years
The Following Are Sure Signs Of Pregnancy Except :
A- Ultrasonography
B- Palpation Of Fetal Parts
C- Inspection Of Fetal Movement
D- Pregnancy Test
If Fetal length is 16 cm, uterine fundus is
A- At symphysis pubis
B- At umbilicus
C- At xyphoid process LAS
What are the ossific centers a five months intrauterine fetus has?
A- Clavicle
B- Lower jaw
C- Calcaneus
D- All of the above
Period Of Gestation Can Be Determined By the following EXCEPT
A- Length Of Fetus
B- Palpation Of Uterus
C- Radiography
D- Ultrasonography

At The 12th Week Of Gestation, The Fetal Length Is About :
A- 20 Cm
B- 9 Cm
C- 16 Cm
Fundus of uterus can be palpated at following periods of gestation EXCEPT:
A- 14 weeks
B- 13 weeks
C- 16 weeks
D- 10 weeks
LAS

Delivery and Abortion
Lochia, Which Is Wrong?
A- Is Normal Vaginal Discharge.
B- Has Offensive Odor.
C- Is Bloody For First 5 Days After Delivery
D- Disappears 40 Days After Delivery
External Cervical Os Immediately After Delivery Which Is Correct?

A- Admits 2 Fingers
B- Admits One Finger
C- Is Closed
Signs Of Previous Delivery, Which Is Wrong?

A- External Os Is Rounded
B- External Os Is Transverse Slit
C- Pendulous Breast
D- Linea Albicans
LAS
Caruncle Myrtiformes, Which Is True?

A- Hymen With Serrated Edge
B- Remnants Of Torn Hymen
C- Hymen With Fimbriated Edge
D- Hymen With Multiple Holes
Period Of Gestation Is
A- 40 Weeks
B- 10 Lunar Months
C-240 Days
D- All Of The Above
Abortifacient Drugs Include The Following Except

A- Ergot
B- Atropine
C- Oxytocin
D- Quinine

Therapeutic Abortion, Which Is True?
A- Illegal Abortion
B- Justifiable Abortion
C- Non Justifiable Abortion
D- Inevitable Abortion
Protoplasmic Poisons, Which Is True?

A- Indicated In Legal Abortion
B- Include Colocynth
C- Include Arsenic
D- Cause Indirect Uterine Contraction
To Induce Criminal Abortion The Following Protoplasmic Poison Is Used. Which

Is True?
A- Colocynth
B- Oxytocin
C- Arsenic
D- Jalap
The Most Dangerous Method In Criminal Abortion, Which Is True?

LAS
A- General Violence
B- Local Violence
C- Abortificient Drugs
In The First 12 Weeks Of Gestation The Best Method To Induce Therapeutic

Abortion Is
A- Hysterectomy
B- Tubal Insertion
C- Dilatation And Curettage
D- Abortificient Drugs
Therapeutic Abortion In Woman With 8 Months Gestation. Which Is True?

A- Dilatation And Curettage
B- Tubal Aspiration
C- Hystrotomy
D- Injection Of Glycerin

Local Violence In Criminal Abortion Includes, All Are Wrong Except:
A- Injection Of Glycerin
B- Jumping
C- Ecbolic
D- Drastic Purgatives
Glycerin In Criminal Abortion. Which Is True?

A- Irritant
B- Protoplasmic Poison
C- Hygroscopic
D- Stimulant Of Uterine Contraction
In Criminal Abortion , The Following Emboli Can Occur Except:

A- Air
B- Fat
C- Amniotic Fluid
D- Thrombus
Indications Of Therapeutic Abortion, All Are True Except :

LAS
A- Preeclampsia And Eclampsia

B- Uncontrolled Diabetes
C- Decompensated Heart Failure
D- Illegitimate Pregnancy
At The 12 th Week Of Gestation, The Fetal Length Is About :

A- 20 Cm
B- 9 Cm
C- 16 Cm
Palpating The Level Of Fundus Of Uterus, It Was Found To Be At The Umbilicus,

So The Fetal Length Was About
A- 20 Cm
B- 25 Cm
C- 30 Cm
D- 35 Cm

Period Of Gestation Can Be Determined By: Which Is Wrong?
A- Length Of Fetus
B- Palpation Of Uterus
C- Radiography
D- Ultrasonography
Induced Abortion: Which Is Correct?

A- Illegal And Spontaneous Abortion
B- Spontaneous And Justifiable Abortion
C- Non Justifiable And Legal Abortion
D- Illegal And Inevitable Aborion
Online Bank
Abortion Is Termination Of Pregnancy before
A- Before 24 Weeks
B- Before 28 Weeks
LAS
C- Before 36 Weeks
D- Before Full Term
Ecbolic Drugs
A- Causes Indirect Uterine Contraction
B- Cause Direct Uterine Contraction
C- Include Protoplasmic Poisons
D- Include Croton And Castor Oil
To Induce Criminal Abortion The Protoplasmic Poison Used is
A- Colocynth
B- Oxytocin
C- Arsenic
D- Jalap

Criminal Abortion Is Done To:
A- Save Mother's Life
B- Save Infants Life
C- Both A And B
In criminal abortion local violence is done by all the following EXCEPT:
A- Insertion Of Piece Of Wood
B- Injection Of Soap And Water
C- Carrying Heavy Objects
D- Introducing Plastic Catheters
Induced Abortion Is Done For
A- Saving Mother's Life
B- Other Causes Not Saving Mother's Life

LAS
C- Both A And B
Abortion Is Expulsion Of Uterine Contents Before
A- 24 Weeks
B- 28 Weeks
C- 30 Weeks
D- 40weeks
Shock In Criminal Abortion
A- Sympathetic
B- Parasympathetic
C- Heamatogenic
D- Anaphylactic

Complications Of Criminal Abortion , All Are True Except:
A- Thrombo Embolism
B- Amniotic Fluid Embolism
C- Arterial Air Embolism
D- Venous Air Embolism
Abortificient drugs causing indirect uterine contraction include the following EXCEPT :
A- Colocynth
B- Castor
C- Jalap
D- Apiol
Lochia Is:
A- Abnormal Vaginal Discharge

B- Normal Vaginal Bleeding
C- Normal Vaginal Discharge
D- Abnormal Vaginal Bleeding
LAS
2 Weeks After Delivery The External Cervical Os
A- Admits One Finger

B- Admits 2 Fingers
C- Is Closed
D- Is Transverse Slit
Expulsion Of Fetus At 8 Months Of Gestation Is
A- Premature Labour
B- Abortion
C- Post Mature Labour
D- Still Birth
Drugs which cause direct uterine contraction are called:
A- Protoplasmic poisons
B- Ecbolics
C- Drastic purgatives
D- Irritants

E-Learning
(Sexual, pregnancy, delivery, abortion)
LAS

LAS

LAS

Asphyxia
The Color Of Hypostasis In Violent Asphyxia Is:
A- Faint In Color
B- Chocolate Brown In Color
C- Dark Blue In Color
D- Crimson Red In Color
Cyanide Poisoning Is A Type Of:

A- Anemic Hypoxia
B- Histotoxic Hypoxia
C- Stagnant Hypoxia
D- Hypoxic Hypoxia
Atypical Drowning Includes:

A- Wet Drowning LAS
B- Dry Drowning
C- Near Drowning
D- B & C
Probable Signs Of Drowning Include:

A- Cutis Anserica
B- Peeling Of Epidermis Of The Hand And Feet
C- Dark Blue Hypostasis
D- All Of The Above

Co Poisoning is a type of:
A- Anemic Hypoxia
B- Histotoxic Hypoxia
C- Stagnant Hypoxia
D- Hypoxic Hypoxia
Secondary Drowning Syndrome Is Due To:

A- Sudden Submersion In Very Cold Water
B- Submersion Of The Epileptic Person
C- Obstruction Of Air Passages By A Fluid
Traumatic Asphyxia Is Due To compression Of:

A- The Chest
B- The Abdomen
C- The Head And Neck LAS
D- A&B
Accidental Strangulation By Umbilical Cord Is Due To:

A- Compression On The Neck
B- Collapse Of The Cord
C- A&B
D- None of above
Asphyxia In Hanging Is Due To:

A- Compression Of Larynx
B- Compression Of Trachea
C- Backward Fall Of The Tongue
D- All Of The Above

Diagnosis Of Drowning Depends On:
A- Probable Signs
B- Highly Suggestive Signs
C- Exclusion Diagnosis
D- All Of The Above
Demarcation Line Helps In Diagnosis Of:

A- Hanging
B- Strangulation
C- Traumatic Asphyxia
D- All Of The Above
In Hanging With Fixed Note Cerebral Anemia Is Due To:

A- Compression Of Carotid Artery
B- Collapse Of Carotid Artery LAS
C- Compression Of Carotid Body

D- All Of The Above
In Death From Cyanide There Is Accumulation Of:

A- Oxyhb
B- Reduced Hb
C- CarboxyHb
D- All Of The Above
Neck Tissue Destruction Is More Manifest In:

A- Hanging
B- Ligature Strangulation
C- Manual Strangulation
D- All Of The Above

When Choking Is Caused By Vomitus, Food Particles Will Be Present In:
A- Upper Airway
B- Terminal Bronchioles
C- A&B
D- None of above
Causes Of Death Of Victim Recovered From Water Include:

A- Natural Disease
B- Atypical Drowning
C- Asphyxia
D- All Of The Above
E- B&C
Diagnosis Of Asphyxia Depends On:

A- History
B- General And Local Exam LAS
C- Autopsy Findings
D- Toxicological Exam.
E- All Of The Above

Online Bank
Silvery spots start to appear in stage of:
A- Dyspnea
B- Convulsion.
C- Apnea
D- Final stage
Ant mortem suspension is verified by:
A- Dribbling of saliva
B- Congested neck L.N
C- Vital reactions
D- All of the above
Nail abrasions and bruises found in the region of nose and mouth are usually seen in:
A- Throttling.
LAS
B- Smothering.
C- Strangulation.
D- Traumatic asphyxia
Tardieu spots are due to:
A- Rupture of unsupported capillaries.
B- Alveolar rupture.
C- Increase respiratory rate.
D- Diatoms.

What is the most common cause of death in hanging?
A- Asphyxia
B- Cerebral anemia
C- Cerebral congestion
D- Reflex vagal inhibition
Causes of death of a victim recovered from water include:
A- Natural disease
B- Atypical drowning
C- Typical drowning
D- All of the above
General signs of asphyxia include:
A- Swollen face with prominent eye balls
B- Petechial hemorrhages
LAS
C- Blood stained froth from mouth and nostrils
D- All of the above
No asphyxial signs are found in:
A- Gagging
B- Café coronary
C- Throttling
D- Smothering
In death from cold there is accumulation of:
A- OxyHb
B- Reduced Hb
C- CarboxyHb

E-Learning
An evidence of increase lung size in drowning is:
a. Increased surface area.
b. Ribs indentations
c. The rounded lung borders
d. Any of the above
Classic signs of asphyxia include the following except:

a. Petechial hemorrhages
b. congestion
c. cyanosis
d. silvery spots
Asphyxia is best characterized by:

LAS
a. Well defined hypostasis
b. Dark hypostasis
c. Dark blue hypostasis
d. Slow hypostasis
e. Blue hypostasis
Mechanism of Petechial formation in asphyxia is:

a. Rise in venous pressure
b. Rise in arterial pressure

c. Rupture of capillaries
d. Rupture of arterioles

The Petechial hemorrhage of asphyxia is easily seen in:
a. Heart
b. Lung
c. Eye
d. None of the above.
Diatoms are most useful in cases of:

a. Wet drowning
b. Dry drowning
c. Extensive Putrefaction
d. Drowning with Putrefaction
Froth in drowning has the following characters:

a. It is fine
b. It increases in amount with compression of the chest

LAS
c. It is white or rarely stained blood

d. All of the above
Two of the following are true as regards froth in the air passages:
a. It is an important sign of drowning
b. It is enough to diagnose drowning even without history

c. It is always present in deaths from drowning
d. It is associated with overinflation of lungs in drowning
Strangulation is best described as:

a. An accidental death.
b. An asphyxial death.
c. A Homicidal death.
d. Caused by rope.
The mechanism of death in dry drowning is:
a. Laryngeal spasm.
b. Laryngeal occlusion.
c. Laryngeal edema.
d. all of the above
Strangulation rope mark is:

a. Oblique in position.
b. Incomplete
c. Caused by blunt instrument
d. Any the above.
Chocking is most commonly caused by:

a. Food impaction
b. Suicidal trials LAS
c. angioneurotic edema
d. Laryngeal spasm
A truck runs over the chest of a man. which of the following is a possible
mechanism of death:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Respiratory failure
c. Shock
d. Traumatic asphyxia
Throttling injuries are caused by:

a. A rope
b. Hands
c. Nails d. Finger pads e. Nails & finger pads
‫‪In fresh water drowning, one of the following is true:‬‬
‫‪a. hyperkalemia & hypernatremia‬‬
‫‪b. Hemoconcentration‬‬
‫‪c. Right ventricular failure‬‬
‫‪d. Non of the above‬‬
‫‪e. All of the above‬‬
‫‪Medical Ethics‬‬
‫‪ -1‬إفشاء رس المريض بعد وفاته لبث الطمأنينة يف األهل ‪:‬‬

‫يعتب افشاء لرس المهنة‬
‫‪-‬ال ر‬
‫يعتب افشاء لرس المهنة‬
‫‪ -‬ر‬
‫‪-‬مصلحة الطبيب‬
‫‪LAS‬‬
‫‪ -2‬الموافقة الطبية الصحيحة البد أن تكون ‪:‬‬
‫‪-‬كتابية فقط‬
‫الطب وما يصاحبه من مضاعفات‬
‫‪-‬مبنية عىل المعرفة التامة باإلجراء ر ي‬
‫‪-‬بأمر مدير المستشف‬
‫ه مسئولية ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -3‬الملفات الطبية الخاصة بالمرض بالمستشف العام ي‬
‫‪-‬الطبيب المعالج‬
‫‪-‬مدير المستشف‬
‫‪-‬أرشيف المستشف‬
‫‪ -4‬رس المريض ال يمكن أن ينتهك من أجل ‪:‬‬
‫‪-‬مصلحة المريض‬
‫‪-‬مصلحة زمالء المريض‬
‫‪-‬مصلحة الطبيب‬
‫‪Mohamed G. Taha‬‬ ‫‪E-learning by Linda A. Silem‬‬

‫الطب عليه يف أحد الحاالت اآلتية ‪:‬‬
‫ي‬ ‫‪ -5‬ال بد من الموافقة الكتابية من المريض للكشف‬
‫‪-‬طلب المحكمة‬
‫‪-‬التدخالت الجراحية‬
‫الطب يف العيادة الخارجية‬
‫‪-‬الكشف ر ي‬
‫‪ -6‬ال يجوز للطبيب أن يبلغ السلطات أو المسئولي عن المريض إال بعد موافقة المريض يف أي من‬
‫الحاالت اآلتية ‪:‬‬
‫‪-‬حاالت الوفاة أو الوالدة يف عيادته‬
‫‪-‬سائق المرافق العامة المريض بالرصع‬
‫يعان من ارتفاع ضغط الدم‬
‫‪-‬الخادم الذي ي‬
‫‪ -7‬أحد هذه األنواع من الموافقات الطبية ال يعتد به يف اإلجراءات الطبية ‪:‬‬
‫‪-‬موافقة كتابية‬
‫‪-‬موافقة كتابية بشهود‬
‫‪LAS‬‬
‫‪-‬ايماء المريض بالموافقة‬
‫‪ -8‬البد من موافقة المريض يف أحد الحاالت اآلتية ‪:‬‬
‫الصح‬
‫ي‬ ‫‪-‬الحجر‬
‫‪-‬التطعيم اإلجباري‬
‫الطب بأمر ضابط البوليس‬
‫‪-‬توقيع الكشف ر ي‬
‫‪Mohamed G. Taha‬‬ ‫‪E-learning by Linda A. Silem‬‬

Collection of evidence
Which of the following samples is used as patient reference samples?
A- Bloody hair
B- Loose hair
C- Pulled hair
D- Stained hair with semen
Which of the following is specimen of choice for identification of drug after 4 hours post ingestion?
A- Blood sample on purple topped tube
B- Blood sample on gray topped tube
C- Urine sample with fluoride preservative
D- Gastric lavage sample without preservative
If any evidence is to be presented in court. Which of the following character is needed?

LAS
A- The names of all potential suspects involved in the crime

B- The continuity of chain of custody
C- All victims that were harmed as a result of the crime
D- The particular type of test that was used when testing evidence gathered from victim.
A likelihood of getting sperm from the oral cavity is up to:
A- 8 hours
B- 12 hours
C- 24 hours
D- 72 hours

Toxicology
General Toxicology
One example of adsorption of poisons is:
A- Hemodialysis
B- Hemoperfusion
C- Forced diuresis
D- Peritoneal dialysis
A patient came to emergency room with acute toxicity. He needed multiple

doses activated charcoal. Determine the doses of activated charcoal should be
given to that patient who weighted 70 kg?
A-35 gm/4hours.
B- 70 gm/4hours
C- 100 gm/2 hours
D- 70 gm/2 hours.
A 16-year old patient with acute isoniazide toxicity presented to hospital with
repeated convulsions. What is the most proper treatment for this convulsion?
LAS
A- Barbiturates
B- Diazepam
C- Phenytoin
D- Pyridoxine
A 6-year old boy acutely intoxicated with oxalic acid. What is the most properly
house –hold antidote used in this case?
A- Cold Milk
B- Egg white
C- Ice powder
D- Olive oil
What is the role of urine alkalinization in treatment ofacute barbiturates

toxicity?
A- Convert barbiturates to less toxic substance
B- Decrease barbiturates absorption
C- Increase barbiturates clearance
D- Prevent barbiturates metabolism

What is the accurate method to determine the level of the poison in blood:
A- Color test
B- Spectrophotometry
C- Radioimmunoassay
D- GC or HPLC
Activated charcoal is used for :

A- elimination of corrosives
B- elimination of inhaled poisons
C- gastrointestinal dialysis
D- gastric lavage in hydrocarbons
Passage of blood in a charcoal cartridge to adsorb poison is called:

A- hemodiuresis
B- hemodialysis
C- hemoconcentration
D- hemoperfusion
Which of the following is not immunologically created antidote

A- snake antivenin
B- botulinum antitoxin LAS
C- naloxone
D- FAB fragment
Diagnosis can be made by smell in poisoning by :

A- acetic acid
B- phenol
C- hydrocyanic acid
D- all of the previous poisons
A poisoned patient came to emergency department but the effect of the poison
is delayed as he ate a fatty meal, the poison may be:
A- Organophosphorus
B- DDT
C- Arsenic
D- Cyanide

Which is false:
A- Activated charcoal used in corrosives.
B- Activated charcoal used in morphine toxicity.
C- Activated charcoal used in anticholinergics.
D- Cumulative effect of the drug
A comatosed patient came to ED, history of barbiturate intake was proved but
the grade of coma not coincide with the dose of barbiturate the most likely
diagnosis is:
A- Kidney impairment
B- Synergism with alcohol
C- Cumulative effect of the drug
D- Organophosphorus
The best line of treatment in resistant convulsion is :
A- Diazepam
B- Treatment of the cause
C- General anesthesia
D- Arsenic
Whole bowel irrigation is done by

A- syrup of ipecac LAS
B- activated charcoal
C- polyethelene glycol
D- apomorphine
A person can stand big dose of a drug without ill effect this is called :
A- idiosyncrasy
B- tolerance
C- synergism
D- hypersensitivity
Activated charcoal cannot be given in the following conditions:

A- corrosives
B- intestinal obstruction
C- organophosphate
D- A&B

Multiple dose activated charcoal could be given in toxicities with all of the
following except:
A- digoxin
B- potassium hydroxide
C- phenoparbitone
D- theophylline
Which of the following overdose does not respond well to activated charcoal
A- diazepam
B- opioids
C- tricyclic antidepressant
D- iron
What is the dose of activated charcoal given to a patient weighed 70 kg:

A- 70 mg
B- 90 gm
C-70 gm
D- 100 gm
Differential diagnosis of constricted pupils includes all of the following except:

A- ergot LAS
B- heroin
C- organophosphorus
D- atropine
Which one of the following poison can't be seen by x-ray abdomen:

A- Cocaine condoms
B- Heavy metals
C- Alcohol
D- Phenothiazine
Which of the following can be used as a household antidote?

A- egg white
B- mustard water
C- concentrated salt solution
D- sodium bicarbonate solution

A 30-year old unconscious patient with acute opioid toxic ingestion presented to
hospital within 1 hr. What is the proper method of decontamination?
A- Emesis
B- Gastric lavage after intubation
C- Multiple doses activated charcoal
D- Whole bowel irrigation
Sudden appearance of toxic manifestation in a group of persons taking certain

food the manner of death is:
A- Suicidal
B- Accidental
C- Homicidal
D- Emesis
A patient poisoned by cyanide but he is not affected by the poison because of :

A- Full stomach
B- Achlorydria
C- Deficiency of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D- Tolerance
To decontaminate GIT in comatosed patient: LAS
A- emesis
B- gastric lavage
C- whole bowl irrigation
D- gastric lavage with cuffed endotracheal tube

Online Bank
Which of the following is an example of adsorption of poisons?
A- Hemodialysis
B- Hemoperfusion
C- Forced diuresis
D- Peritoneal dialysis
Which of the following overdose does not respond to activated charcoal?
A- Diazepam
B- Opioids
C- Tricyclic antidepressant
D- Iron
Activated charcoal CAN NOT be given in which of the following poisons?
A- Salicylate
LAS
B- Barbiturate
C- Corrosive
D- Organophosphate
Which of the following is Not immunologically created antidote?
A- Snake antivenin
B- Botulinum antitoxin
C- Naloxone
D- FAB fragment
Which one of the following poison can't be seen by x-ray abdomen?
A- Cocaine condoms
B- Heavy metals
C- Alcohol
D- Phenothiazine

Severe Crushed wound in Road traffic accident can lead to
A- Acute hepatic Failure.
B- Chronic renal failure
C- Acute renal Failure.
D- Chronic hepatic failure.
LAS

E-Learning
LAS

LAS

LAS

Corrosives
A male child ingest 1/4 cup of dissolved( NaoH) in water: -In this case, what is
the most common site to be affected by liquifactive
A- Stomach
B- pylorus
C- eosophagus
What is the first line of treatment in a case of inorganic acid ingestion?

A- Stabilize ABC
B- Pain killer
C- Demulcent
What is a classical example of a poison that can give both systemic and local
effects is:
A- Oxalic acid
B- Sulfuric acid.
C- Alkali
LAS
What is the most specific antidote for oxalic acid- induced seizures?
A- Calcium gluconate
B- Calcium hydroxide
C- Diazepam
What is the most characteristic local sign in phenol ingestion toxicity
A- Transient vomiting
B- Diarrhea.
C- Miosis.
What is the most common sign in corrosive inhalation?

A- Dripling of saliva
B- Vomiting
C- Bronchospasm
Which of the following is most characteristic for systemic phenol poisoning?

A- Transient vomiting
B- Diarrhea.
C- Dark green urine

Online Bank
Which type of necrosis does alkaline agent produce?
A- Liquifactive necrosis
B- Coagulative necrosis
What is the most common site affected by acidic agents?
A- Esophagus
B- Colon
C- Stomach
What is the best method for treating a corrosive poison inhalation?
A- Induction of emesis
B- Carrying out a gastric lavage.
C- O2 inhalation
What is the most common sign in corrosive ingestion?

LAS
A- Vomiting
B- Bronchospasm
C- drippling of saliva

E-Learning
All of the following are acidic corrosive EXCEPT
a. Sulphuric
b. Hydrochloric
c. Caustic potash
d. Carbolic
All of the following are inorganic acids EXCEPT

a. nitric
b. sulphuric
c. hydrochloric
d. Carbolic
LAS

Pesticides
Main rout of organophosphate absorption is:
A- Skin
B- Inhalation
C- G.I.T
In treatment organophosphate poisoning, response to oxime therapy can be

assessed by follow up of:
A- Pupil size
B- Muscle power
C- Bronchial secretion
In treatment of organophosphate poisoning, atropine therapy aim to control :

A- Central manifestation
B- Excessive secretions LAS
C- Cardiac arrhythmias
In cases of organophosphate poisoning, the first manifestation to appear is:

A- Nicotinic manifestation
B- Muscarinic manifestation
C- Central manifestation
In treatment of organophosphate poisoning, best guide for atropinization is:

A- Pupil size
B- Pulse rate
C- Muscle power

Paraquate is mainly absorbed through:
A- Skin
B- Inhalation
C- G.I.T
The first organ to be affected in paraquate poisoning is

A- Heart
B- lung
C- liver
Multiple organ failure can occur in cases of:

A- Organchlorine poisoning
B- Paraquate poisoning
C- Organophosphate poisoning
In paraquate poisoning, the most common cause of death is

A- Renal failure LAS
B- Liver injury
C- Pulmonary fibrosis
In organophosphate poisoning, the most common cause of death is :

A- Pancreatitis
B- Cardiac arrhythmias
C- Respiratory failure
In organophosphate poisoning, increased pulse rate may result from

A- Atropine therapy
B- Stimulation of sympathetic ganglia
C- both

In organophosphate poisoning, intermediate syndrome may result from
A- Severe poisoning
B- Improper treatment
C- Repeated poisoning
Toxicity of anticoagulant rodentcide can be assessed by follow up of

A- Bleeding time
B- Clotting time
C- Prothrombin time
Antidote of warfarin is :
A- Vitamin K
B- Vitamin C
C- Vitamin E
The main toxic effect of pyrethroids: LAS
A- Allergic effect
B- Cardiac effect
C- Pulmonary effect
The main health hazard of Organochlorine result from

A- Persistence in soil
B- Acute effect
C- Persistence in the body
Concerning zinc phosphide all are correct EXCEPT

A- Toxicity result from ingestion or inhalation
B- cause multiple organ failure
C- Sodium bicarbonate act as specific antidote

The safest insecticide is:
A- Carbamates
B- Organochlorines
C- Pyrethroids
In cases of pesticide poisoning, the highest mortality is reported among case of:
A- Organophosphate poisoning
B- Phosphide poisoning
C- Organochlorine poisoning
Online Bank
What is the main route of paraquat absorption?
A- Skin
B- Inhalation
C- G.I.T
LAS
In paraquat poisoning, what is the most common cause of death?
A- Renal failure
B- Liver injury
C- Pulmonary fibrosis
What is the safest insecticide?
A- Carbamates
B- Organochlorines
C- Pyrethroids

In treatment of acute organophosphate poisoning, atropine therapy aims to control which of the following?
A- Central manifestation
B- Excessive secretions
C- Cardiac arrhythmias
E-Learning
Respiratory muscle paralysis can occur with two of the following

a. Organophosphate
b. Botulism
c. Acetaminophen
d. a&b
e. b&c
LAS
What agent reverses the neuromuscular junction acetylcholinesterase inhibition

caused by organic phosphorus agents:
a. Atropine
b. Diazepam
c. Hyoscine
d. Pralidoxime
e. Lorazepam
Which of the following is a symptom of organophosphate poisoning?
a. Diarrhea
b. Bradycardia
c. Excessive salivation
d. Muscle weakness
e. All of the above

Which of the following is a nicotinic symptom of organophosphate poisoning?
a. Muscle fasciculation
b. Lacrimation
c. Salivation
d. Defecation
e. Diaphoresis
Which of the following statements about pralidoxime is correct?

a. It should be administered by rapid IV push
b. The initial adult dose is 2-5 grams

c. In severe cases it can be repeated every 8 hours
d. Its main action is to block muscarinic receptors
e. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor
LAS
Miosis occur with toxicity with the following except

a. Phenol
b. Organophosphate
c. Barbiturate
d. Cocaine
Botanic insecticides include
a. Pyrethrins
b. Cyanide
c. Nicotine
d. a & c

Zinc phosphide is an
a. Herbicide
b. Fungicide
c. Rodenticide
d. Insecticide
Warfarin is classified as
a. Moderately toxic rodenticides
b. Highly toxic rodenticides

c. Low toxicity rodenticides
d. Highly toxic insecticide
Zinc phosphide is
a. Grey powder LAS
b. Dark gray powder

c. Dark gray granules
d. Grey granules
Rotten fish odor, hypotension, pulmonary edema, renal failure and coma are
characteristic of
a. Phenol
b. Zinc phosphide
c. Opiate
d. Organophosphate

What is the most common clinical finding in organic phosphorus poisoning that
is not effectively treated with atropine?
a. Bronchorrhea
b. Miosis
c. Muscle weakness
d. Diarrhea
e. Bronchoconstriction
Which of the following medications is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase and

may have enhanced effects or toxicity in cholinesterase-inhibited patients?
a. Succinylcholine
b. Atropine
c. Lidocaine
d. Meperidine
e. Diazepam LAS
All of the following are acidic corrosive EXCEPT

a. Sulphuric
b. Hydrochloric
c. Caustic potash
d. Carbolic
All of the following are inorganic acids EXCEPT

a. nitric
b. sulphuric
c. hydrochloric
d. Carbolic

Drug dependence
A person become drug dependent when he :
A- has the desire to take the drug
B- has irritable behavior, uncoordinated actions and emotional detachment
C- developed withdrawal symptoms when stop the drug
D- take the same dose of the drug every day
Drug tolerance occurs when :

A- drug produces effects more than it did previously B- the sensitivity of CAMP is reduced
C- it requires a smaller dose to repeat the initial drug effect
D- it requires to decrease the interval between the doses to reach the initial effect
The active substance in hashish is :

A- morphine
B- LSD LAS
C- mescaline
D- tetrahydrocannabinol
All of the following are features of opioids withdrawal except :

A- diarrhea
B- lacrimation
C- rhinorrhea
D- miosis
Disulfiram acts by :
A- inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase
B- inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase
C- increasing inhibitory (GABA) neurotransmission
D- blocks opioid receptors that are involved in the rewarding effects of drinking

Delirium tremens can occur after withdrawal from :
A- cocaine
B- cannabis
C- alcohol
D- opioids
The treatment of drug dependence is focused on :

A- dealing with detoxification and withdrawal effects
B- substitutional therapy
C- giving the antidote
D- hospitalization for long period
Which of the following increases the chances for drug dependence?

A- family history of addiction
B- mood disorders like depression , anxiety ,and bipolar disease
LAS
C- antisocial personality disorder

D- all of the above
Morphine is a drug of dependence with the following criteria:

A- No medical use& Very high abuse potential
B- Has Medical use and high abuse potential
C- Has Medical use and low abuse potential
Clonidine in the management of opioids dependence acts as :

A- Opioid agonist
B- Opioid antagonist
C- Opioid partial agonist antagonist
D- Alpha2 adrenergic agonists

Online Bank
When does a person become drug dependent?
A- Has the desire to take the drug
B- Has irritable behavior , uncoordinated actions and emotional detachment
C- Has developed withdrawal symptoms when stop the drug
D- Has taken the same dose of the drug every day
Which of the following is seen in korsakoff's syndrome?
A- Amnesia to recent events
B- Hallucination
C- Inability to learn new things
D- Tendency to violence
Which of the following substances are naturally found in the human body?
A- Endorphins
LAS
B- Amphetamines
C- Cocaine
D- Cannabis

E-Learning
(Plant, substance)
LAS

LAS

LAS

Volatile
Skin in mild ethanol toxicity is
A- Flushed hot dry
B- Flushed warm sweaty
C- Pale and sweaty
D- Hyperkeratotic
Ethanol coma is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A- Pale and clammy skin
B- subnormal temperature
C- Dilated fixed pupil
D- Hypotension
E- Absent reflexes
Kerosene toxicity causes all of the following EXCEPT:

LAS
A- Abdominal pain and diarrhea

B- Coughing& chocking
C- Constricted pupils
D- Tachycardia &Arrhythmia
E- None of the above
Ethyl alcohol in the treatment of poisoning by methanol has this type of action
A- competitive
B- synergistic
C- chemical
D- none of the above

In kerosene poisoning chemical pneumonitis is due to
A- High volatility of kerosene
B- Aspiration following cough
C- Secretion of kerosene through lung
D- All of the above mechanisms
The aim of treatment of acute methanol poisoning is to:

A- oxidize it to formaldehyde
B- Form acetic acid
C- Prevent its oxidation
D- Form formic acid
The preferred antidote for methyl alcohol is:

A- Deferoxamine
B- Desferal
C- Ethyl alcohol LAS
D- 4 methyl pyrazol
Aspiration pneumonia is most common after vomiting due to poisoning by:

A- Oxalic acid
B- Kerosene
C- organophosphate
D- phenol

Noxious Gases
Two men, 60 and 47 years old had been brought to the ER by their employer
with disturbed consciousness. Their employer said that while he passed on his
farm, he found them at their room with sluggish response and he mentioned
that there was an engine for electric generation in the room. On examination
both pts. were cyanosed, hypotensive, weak rapid pulse, and normal
temperature. ECG revealed ischemia to one of them. The 60 old man died
shortly after arrival in spite of the resuscitation and mask ventilation. What is
your professional diagnosis?
A- Carbon monoxide poisoning
B- Carbon dioxide poisoning
C- Hydrogen cyanide poisoning
Two men, 60 and 47 years old had been brought to the ER by their employer
with disturbed consciousness. Their employer said that while he passed on his
LAS
farm, he found them at their room with sluggish response and he mentioned
that there was an engine for electric generation in the room. On examination
both pts. were cyanosed, hypotensive, weak rapid pulse, and normal
temperature. ECG revealed ischemia to one of them. The 60 old man died
shortly after arrival in spite of the resuscitation and mask ventilation. What is
the immediate cause of death?
A- Neurogenic shock
B- Respiratory failure
C- Myocardial ischemia
D- Renal failure

Sources of non toxic level of carbon monoxide DOES NOT INCLUDE:
A- Catabolism of protoporphyrin ring of hemoglobin.
B- Closed system anesthesia.
C- In hemolytic anemia.
D- Second hand cigarette smokers.
The following gas is known as the silent killer:

A- Carbon monoxide
B- Carbon dioxide
C- Hydrogen Cyanide
D- Nitrogen
In winter, commonly the following poisoning occur:

A- Snake bite
B- Scorpion sting
LAS
C- Co poisoning
D- Co2 poisoning
Hypoxia caused by co poisoning is due to:

A- Decrease O2 utilization by cells.
B- Replacement of O2 in air
C- Decrease hemoglobin binding capacity to O2.
Cherry red skin is a bad prognostic sign that could be seen in toxicity by:
A- Opioids
B- Carbon monoxide
C- Cyanide
D- B & C

Delayed cognitive disorders could occurs in:
A- Organophosphates toxicity
B- Acute Mercury poisoning
C- Carbon monoxide poisoning
D- Cyanide toxicity
Using of hyperbaric as antidotal treatment for co poisoning because it:

A- Decreases halve life of co down to 30 mins.
B- Hastens the dissociation of O2 from hemoglobin to tissue.
C- A&B
It is much safer to use the following drug if you are suspected in cyanide toxicity
and you are not sure:
A- Amyl nitrite
B- Sodium nitrite
LAS
C- Sodium thiosulphate
D- All of the above
Online Bank
A patient poisoned by cyanide but he is not affected by the poison, why?
A- Because of full stomach
B- Because of achlorydria
C- Because of deficiency of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D- Because of tolerance
What is the preferred antidote for acute methyl alcohol toxicity?
A- Deforrexamin
B- Desferal
C- Ethyl alcohol
D- 4 methyl pyrazol

What is the silent killer?
A- Carbonmonoxide
B- Carbondioxide
C- HydrogenCyanide
D- Nitrogen
Cherry red skin is a bad prognostic sign that could be seen in which of the following?
A- Opioids
B- Carbon monoxide
C- Cyanide
D- B&c
In winter, which of the following poisoning is common to occur?
A- Snake bite
B- Scorpion sting LAS
C- Co poisoning
D- Co2 poisoning
How is ethanol eliminated from the body?
A- renal excretion
B- respiratory excretion
C- hepatic oxidation to Co2 and H20
D- A&B

E-Learning
(Volatile, noxious)
In Kerosene poisoning the following are true except:
a. chemical pneumonitis
b. chest x ray is usefull

c. corticoseroid is a line of ttt
d. renal failure is commom
Pancreatitis is common with
a. Morphine
b. Salicylate
c. Alcohols
d. Non of the above
Back pain in a case of ethonal toxicity may be due to
LAS
a. achlorohydria
b. Munich beer heart

c. Neuropathy
d. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
Peripheral neuritis in ethanol is due to decrease of
a. Methionine
b. Vit B6
c. HCl level of the stomach
d. Vit B1 (thiamine)

MC Ewans sign mean
a. Constricted pupil
b. Pin apoint pupil

c. Dilated
d. Changeable pupil
Which of the following statements about ethanol is not correct
a. Metabolized mainly in the liver.
b. Metabolized to CO2 + H2O

c. CNS depressant
d. Cause blindness
Acidosis and optic atrophy due to methanol overdose is mainly due to

a. Acetic acid
LAS
b. Formic acid
c. Acetaldehyde
d. Formaldehyde
Rabdomyolysis can occur with two of the following
a. benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Cyanides
d. CO
Kerosene is
a. of low viscosity and low volatility
b. of high viscosity and low volatility

c. of low viscosity and high volatility
d. of high viscosity and high volatility

choose the poisons in which x ray can help in diagnosis
a. Lead
b. Mercury
c. Corrosives
d. Organophosphorus
e. Iron
f. kerosene
RED ASPHYIA IN CYANIDE IS

a. dilated facial blood vessels
b. oxyhemoglobin
c. treatment by 100% oygen
d. all of the above
LAS
The main line of treatment in cyanide pt

a. 100% O2 inhalatin
b. ttt of convulsions
c. Antidote
d. all of the above
Male pt ate large quantities of apricot seeds MANIFESTED sudden cry, dilated
pupil, froth and characteristic odor. This picture may be toxicity of:
a. Co
b. cyanide
c. kerosene
d. organophosphate

Fastest poison ever known is
a. cyanide
b. sulphuric acid
c. phenol
d. all of the above
care of respiration in a case of kerosene toxicity can be done by:

a. 100% O2
b. CO2 5% + O2 inhalation
c. Respiratory stimulant
d. Hyperbaric O2
e. Intermittent +ve pressure respiration
Condition of poisoning by kerosene is mainlyLAS
a. accidental
b. suicidal
c. homicidal
d. Environmental pollutant

Animal Poisons
Egyptian copra mainly produces:
A- Neurotoxic effect
B- Necrotoxic effect
C- Myotoxic effect
D- Hemotoxic effect
Viper is most commonly endemic in:

A- rural areas
B- desert areas
C- not in Egypt
D- non of the above
The most common snakes endemic in Egypt are: LAS
A- Mamas
B- Rattle snake
C- Vipers
D- A dry bite
A patient presented in the emergency department with history of a snake bite

and he was normal. what are you going to do for him:
A- Give him immediately the antivenin
B- Make a sensitivity test before giving the antivenin.
C- Put him under observation and give the antivenin when indicated
D- Transform blood

When a poisonous snake bites a victim without producing toxic manifestations,
this could be explained by:
A- A dry bite
B- Delayed manifestations could appear.
C- Appearance of unnoticed early sign like loss of wrinkles of the forehead
D- All of the above
A patient presented with an unknown animal poisoning and he was complaining

of blurred vision, dysphagia, involuntary movements and hyperthermia. The
diagnosis most probably is:
A- A neurotoxic snake bite
B- A bee sting
C- A scorpion sting
D- A Viper
LAS
Petechial hemorrhage commonly occurs following poisoning with:

A- Organophosphates
B- Paracetamol
C- Viper venom
D- Scorpion venom
The sign (s ) that could make you take the decision of giving antivenin could be:
A- Ptosis
B- Bleeding from the site of the bite.
C- a & b
D- none of the above

Neurotoxic cobra venom produces;
A- Blockade of post synaptic nicotinic receptors.
B- Act on voltage dependent Na, K and Ca channels.
C- Massive release of peripheral neurotransmitters.
D- Beeding from the site of the bite
Rhabdomyolysis caused by the following component in animal venom:

A- Hemorrhagin
B- Mellitin
C- Phospholipase A2
D- Histamine release
Online Bank
LAS
What is the main toxic effect of Egyptian copra?
A- Neurotoxic effect
B- Necrotoxic effect
C- Myotoxic effect
D- Hemotoxic effect
What is the most common snake endemic in Egypt?
A- Mangrove snake
B- Rattle snake
C- Vipers

Food Poisoning
Botulinum toxin is :
A- Extremely potent, one taste contaminated food may be Fatal
B- Heat-labile
C- Neurotoxin
D- All of the above
Clinical presentation of infant botulism is not characterized by:

A- Hypotonia.
B- diarrhea
C- Tachycardia
D- It is rarely fatal.
Botulinum toxin is: LAS
A- Thermo stable
B- Mono antigenic
C- 0.1 mg is fatal
D- Primarily neurotoxin
Human BIG is recommended in :

A- Adult botulism
B- Infant botulism less than one year
C- Floppy infants
D- All of the above

In what dose Human BIG is given by slowly I.V. infusion?
A- 25-35 mg/k body wt
B- 50-65 mg/k body wt
C- 25-50 mg/k body wt
The following lines of treatment are necessary in the treatment of botulism

EXCEPT:
A- Gastric lavage
B- Mechanical ventilation
C- Forced diuresis
D- Trivalent antitoxin
Botulism is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

A- Progressive descending bulbar and skeletal muscle paralysis .
B- Diplopia, blurred vision and photophobia.
LAS
C- Dysphonia, dysarthria, dysphagia.

D- Visual hallucination
Online Bank
In which of the following human botulism immunoglobulin(BIG) is recommended?
A- Adult botulism
B- Infant botulism
C- Wound botulism

E-Learning (Animal & Food)
LAS

LAS

LAS

Analgesics
Which of the following is an indication for hemodialysis for acute salicylate
poisoning?
A- Metabolic acidosis
B- Hematemesis
C- Renal failure
D- Tinnitus followed by deafness
A 16 year old female was brought to the emergency department; her mother
told the physician that she ingested three strips of her analgesic. The patient was
oriented and complained only from nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, dyspnea,
and tinnitus. Vital signs; blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 110 b/min., 30
breaths/min, oral temp. 38.5C. ABG analysis revealed metabolic acidosis.
Elevated body temperature in this case is attributed to:
A- Stimulation of respiratory center.
B- Stimulation of heat regulating center
C- Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation
LAS
A 16 year old female as brought to the emergency department; her mother told
the physician that she ingested three strips of her analgesic. The patient was
oriented and complained only from nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, dyspnea,
and tinnitus. Vital signs; blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 110 b/min., 30
breaths/min, oral temp. 38.5C .ABG analysis revealed metabolic acidosis. To
decontaminate the stomach in this case, you should give:
A- Single dose of activated charcoal.
B- Multiple doses of activated charcoal
C- Single dose syrup of ipecac
D- Multiple doses of syrup of ipecac
Which of the following is the reason of delayed hepatotoxic effect of

paracetamol overdose?
A- Delayed absorption from the stomach.
B- High plasma protein binding
C- Presence of glutathione stores in the liver
D- High volume of distribution

Activated charcoal is recommended in repeated doses in cases of acute salicylate
poisoning due to:
A- Enterohepatic circulation
B- Enteroenteric circulation
C- Delayed absorption of from the stomach
D- Poor adsorption to charcoal
Which of the following is true about N-acetyl-p-benzo-quinone-imine

metabolite?
A- It inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzyme
B- It is formed by the action of glutathione transferase
C- It is formed after acetaminophen overdose
D- It increases glutathione stores
To prevent occurrence of hepatotoxicity in acute paracetamol overdose, N-

acetylcysteine should be given within:
A- 4-6 hours.
B- 6-8 hours
C- 8-12 hours.
D- 12-24 hours. LAS
Which of the following is the role of N-acetylcysteine in acute paracetamol

overdose?
A- Bind to paracetamol
B- Prevent paracetamol absorption.
C- Act as a glutathione precursor.
D- Help excretion of paracetamol.
When intravenous N- acetyl cysteine is indicated in acute paracetamol

poisoning?
A- Persistent vomiting
B- Patients aged less than 18 years
C- Severe abdominal pain
D- Metabolic acidosis

Alkalinization of urine in acute salicylate toxicity is done to:
A- Treat metabolic acidosis.
B- Enhance excretion of salicylic acid in urine
C- Treat renal failure
D- Enhance salicylate metabolism
Which of the following is a diagnostic laboratory finding in acute salicylate

poisoning?
A- Elevated Serum Potassium
B- Elevated Blood Glucose Level
C- Elevated liver enzymes
D- Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
Which of the following is undesired effect of oral N-acetyl cysteine?

A- Drowsiness.
B- Allergy
C- Vomiting
D- Itching
Online Bank
LAS
Which of the following is true about N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine metabolite?
A- It inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzyme
B- It is formed by the action of glutathione transferase
C- It is formed after acetaminophen overdose
D- It increases glutathione stores
What is the role of urinary alkalinizationin acute salicylate toxicity?
A- Treat metabolic acidosis.
B- Enhance excretion of salicylic acid in urine
C- Treat renal failure
D- Enhance salicylate metabolism

A 16 year old female was brought to the emergency department; her mother told the physician that she ingested three
strips of her analgesic. The patient was oriented and complained only from nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, dyspnea,
and tinnitus. Vital signs; blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 110 b/min., 30 breaths/min, oral temp. 38.5 c. ABG analysis
revealed metabolic acidosis.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Acute paracetamol toxicity.
B- Acute salicylate toxicity
C- Acute nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory toxicity.
Which of the following is the cause of early respiratory alkalosis in acute salicylate toxicity?
A- Inhibition of respiratory center
B- Hyperventilation due to CO2 accumulation.
C- Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation
D- Stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone
Which of the following is an early diagnostic symptom of acute salicylate poisoning?
A- Vomiting
B- Diarrhea LAS
C- Abdominal pain
D- Tinnitus

Plant Poisons
In case of morphine toxicity, what is the best method of decontamination?
A- Gastric lavage
B- Gastric lavage followed by activated charcoal
C- Emesis
 A female patient aged 89 years; she takes digitalis for treatment of congestive heart
failure, Which of the following is the most likely an early manifestation of digitalis
toxicity?
A- Vomiting
B- Nausea
C- Anorexia
D- Abdominal pain
 What is the total dose of naloxone that can be administered to opoid intoxicated
patient?
A- 0.4 mg LAS
B- 0.8 mg
C- 5 mg
D- 10 mg
 In acute digitalis toxicity, what is the mechanism of hyperkalemia?

A- Inhibition of Na/K ATPase pump
B- Stimulation of Na/K ATPase pump
C- Stimulation of vomiting
 A male patient aged 28 years, he takes an overdose of cocaine and complaining of

fever, what is the most likely mechanism of fever?
A- Inhibition of sweating
B- Decrease heat production
C- Increase heat production

 A male patient came to the toxicology center showing occupational purposeless
movement, what is the most likely causative poison?
A- Benzodiazepine toxicity
B- Opiate toxicity
C- Atropine toxicity
D- Ethanol toxicity
 What is the active principle of marijuana?

A- Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol
B- Atropine
C- Morphine
D- Hyoscine
 Which of the following is a characteristic sign to atropine toxicity?

A- Hypertension
B- Hypotension
C- Tachycardia
D- Bradycardia
 What is the most likely metabolic disturbance occur in acute cocaine toxicity?
A- Hyperkalemia LAS
B- Hypokalemia
C- Hypoglycemia
 A female patient showing hypertension after an overdose of cocaine, what is the most
likely first line of treatment?
A- benzodiazepine
B- beta blockers
C- calcium channel blockers
 What is the specific antidote of acute opioid toxicity?

A- Naloxone
B- Nalmefene
C- Naltrexone
 What is the most likely essential test used to diagnose digitalis toxicity?
A- Digitalis level
B- Potassium level
C- Renal function test
D- Liver function test

 What is the mechanism of mydriasis in cocaine toxicity?
A- inhibition of pupilloconstrictor center
B- Presynaptic inhibition of catecholamine reuptake
C- Acetyl choline release
D- Inhibition of catecholamine release
 What is The most likely treatment of opioid non cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A- Oxygen
B- Diuretics
 A female patient aged 44 years came to the poison center after intake of tablets
containing antihistaminic, what is the best method of decontamination?
A- Gastric lavage and activated charcoal
B- activated charcoal
C- Emesis
 What is best method of naloxone administration?

A- Oral
B- Intramuscular
C- Intravenous LAS

Online Bank
Which of the following is a cause of dilated pupils?
A- Ergot
B- Heroin
C- Organophosphorus
D- Atropine
What is the most likely gastrointestinal symptom in opioid toxicity?
A- Nausea
B- Vomiting
C- Constipation
D- Diarrhea
What is the total dose of naloxone that can be administered to opioid intoxicated patient?
A- 0.4 mg
B- 0.8 mg
LAS
C- 5mg
D- 10 mg
In chronic digitalis toxicity, what is the usual type of arrhythmia?
A- Tachyarrhythmia
B- Bradyarrhythmia
C- Combined arrhythmia
What is the characteristic visual presentation in digitalis toxicity?
A- Blurring of vision A male patient aged 33 years intoxicated

by atropine, what is the most likely
B- Pupil constriction
character of his pupil?
C- Altered color perception A- Constricted
D- Double vision B- Dilated reactive
C- Dilated fixed

Psychotropics
Acute dystonia is characteristic of:
A- Morphine toxicity
B- Alcohol toxicity
C- Antipsychotic toxicity
What is the first drug of choice treating wide QRS complex in tricyclic
antidepressant?
A- Na bicarbaonate
B- Mg
C- Lidocain
Which is most beneficial in treating phenothiazine overdose?

A- Gastrointestinal decontamination
B- Physostigmine
C- Hemoperfusion
In which of the following syndrome dantrolene is indicated?

A- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome LAS
B- Neuroleptic-induced tardive dyskinesia

C- Serotonin syndrome
What is the most effective treatment for acute dystonic reaction seen in
antipsychotic overdose?
A- Diphenhydramine
B- Benzodiazipine
C- Methysergid
What is the most effective treatment if serum lithium level is above 4 meq/L?
A- Alkaline diuresis
B- Hemodialysis
C- Multiple dose activated charcoal
What is the first drug of choice treating wide QRS complex in antipsychotic
drugs?
A- Lidocain
B- Magnesium
C- Na bicarbaonate

Online Bank
For which of the following drugs, multiple dose activated charcoal is indicated?
A- Paracetamol
B- Methanol
C- Tricyclic antidepressants
What is the most specific ECG change in antipsychotic poisoning?
A- Widening of QRS complex
B- Depression of ST segment
C- Abnormal T wave
What is the most characteristic clinical picture in lithium poisoning?
A- Seizure
B- Diabetes insipidus
C- Arrhythmia
A patient with renal failure acutely intoxicated with lithium, what is the best method to eliminate this poison?
LAS
A- Osmotic diuresis
B- Acidic diuresis
C- Hemodialysis
D- Alkaline diuresis

Sedative Hypnotics
Which is true of flumazenil?
A- It reverses the effects of alcohol on the CNS
B- It increases the metabolism of benzodiazepines
C- It enhances the elimination of benzodiazepines
D- It competitively inhibits the activity of benzodiazepines at the GABA receptors
The following are clinical manifestations of hypnotic overdose except:

A- Respiratory depression
B- Lethargy & confusion
C- Increased bowel sounds
D- Hypothermia
Barbiturates act through stimulation of:

A- GABA receptors
B- Glutamate receptors
C- Opiate receptors
D- All of the above
LAS
The emergency management of a comatose patient suspected of being poisoned

by a sedative hypnotic drug is:
A- Urine screen
B- Diazepam
C- Care of respiration
D- Gut decontamination
Benzodiazepines are preferred to barbiturates because:

A- Benzodiazepines cause profound coma.
B- Barbiturates cause respiratory depression
C- Benzodiazepines cause significant hypotension
D- Death from isolated benzodiazepine overdose is common
Unmasking of dysrhythmia may occur as a side effect of antidotal therapy in:
A- Barbiturate
B- Benzodiazepines
C- Opiate
D- Ethanol

Alkaline diuresis:
A- Increases phenobarbitone clearance
B- Decreases phenobarbitone clearance
C- Increases Benzodiazepines clearance
D- Decreases benzodiazepines clearance
Online Bank
Which of the following should NOTbe a form of treatment for the patient with acute benzodiazepines intoxication?
A- Mechanical ventilator
B- Activated charcoal
C- Emesis
D- Flumazenil
What acid-base disorder is predicted in patient with acute barbiturate poisoning?
LAS
B- Metabolic alkalosis
C- Respiratory acidosis
D- Respiratory alkalosis
Benzodiazepines and barbiturates share which of the following?
A- Both act through GABA transmitter

B- Both are treated by alkalinization of urine
C- Both are sedative hypnotics
D- Both are treated with flumazenil
E- a&c
A comatosed patient came to ED, history of barbiturate intake was proved but the grade of coma is not coinciding with the dose
of barbiturate, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Personal hypersensitivity
B- Synergism with alcohol
C- Cumulative effect of the drug

E-Learning
(Analgesics, Psychotropics, Sedatives)
LAS

LAS

LAS

Metallic irritants and Miscellaneous
poisoning
Who are exposed to accidental acute iron toxicity?
A- Adults and geriatrics
B- New borne and adults
C- Children and geriatrics
D- New borne and infants
Liver cirrhosis is characteristic for which stage of acute iron toxicity?

A- First stage
B- Second stage
C- Third stage
D- Forth stage
Which is the target organ affected by iron?LAS
A- Liver
B- kidney
C- brain
D- Bone marrow
Which of the following may be required in acute iron toxicity with renal failure?
A- hemoperfusion
B- Hemodialysis
C- Alkaline diuresis
D- Acidic diuresis
What is the specific antidote of iron?

A- NAC
B- BAL
C- Desferral
D- naloxone

Which of the following can cause severe acute iron toxicity?
A- >60 mg/kg elemental iron
B- >60 mg/kg ferric iron
C- >60 mg/kg ferrous iron
D- >60 mg/kg iron glutamate
Which of the following is characteristic for first stage of severe acute iron
toxicity?
A- Multisystem failure
B- Liver cirrhosis
C- Shock & metabolic acidosis
D- Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Which of the following is characteristic for third stage of acute iron toxicity?
A- Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
B- Liver cirrhosis
C- Multisystem failure LAS
D- Gastrointestinal improvement
Neonates metabolize 20-30 Theophylline to:

A- Caffeine
B Aminophilline
C- Xanthine
All of the following are mechanism of Theophylline EXCEPT

A- cAMP
B- Release of epinephrine & norepinephrine
C- HR
D- CNS depressant
E- Bronchodilator

Extracorporeal removal by use of "in-series" hemodialysis and hemoperfusion is
indicated for severe intoxications of:
A- Theophylline
B- Cocaine
C- Morphine
The following are clinical presentation of Theophylline EXCEPT:

A- Vomiting
B- HR & initial BP
C- Hypothermia
D- Rhabdomyolysis.
What is the most common cause of drug induced seizures?
A- INH
B- Theophylline
C- Salicylates
D- Any of the above LAS
Which of the following causes a triad of repetitive seizures, metabolic acidosis refractory
to NaHCo0 and coma?
A- Theophylline toxicity
B- INH toxicity
C- Acetaminophen toxicity
INH toxicity causes all of the following EXCEPT
B- Hyperthermia
C- Dizziness
D- Hypoglycemia
E- Increase heart rate
How to control convulsion in INH overdose?
A- Diazepam
B- Barbital
C- Pyridoxine

Online Bank
Which of the following is characteristic for second stage of acute iron toxicity?
A- Multisystem failure
B- Liver cirrhosis
C- Gastrointestinal improvement
What is the specific antidote of iron?
A- NAC
B- BAL
C- Desferral
D- naloxone
Which of the following is characteristic for forth stage of acute iron toxicity?
A- Multisystem failure LAS
B- Healing of gastrointestinal damage
C- Improvement of gastrointestinal manifestation
Who are most likely to be exposed to accidental acute iron toxicity?
A- Adults and geriatrics
B- New borne and adults
C- Children and geriatrics
D- New borne and infants

E-Learning
Iron induced metabolic acidosis is due to
a. Disruption of mitochondrial function
b. Release of H+ from conversion of ferrous to ferric FC

c. Tissue hypoperfusion
d. All of the above
LAS

Forensic Medicine &amp; Toxicology QB

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Forensic medicine & Toxicology

The age of obtaining a driving license in a female is diagnosed by an X-ray on :

at the following sites were still opened :

The age of marriage in the male is identified by the union of :

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

Types of finger prints include the following Except :

At age of 3 years which of the following occurs:

How to identify the age of full criminal responsibility?

What is the most reliable method for personal identification?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

A- Lower end of femur.

C- Iliac crest of hip bone

D- Acromial end of clavicle.

At the age of discrimination :

A- Second permanent molar erupts. LAS

B- Permanent canine erupts.

C- Trochlea units with capitulum

D- Permanent central incisor erupts

A 30 years old negroid male has the following sutures closed :

C- Inter frontal suture.

At what age ossific center of the head of humerus appears?

A- 2nd month intrauterine

B- 3rd month intrauterine

D- 5th month intrauterine

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

What is the suitable sample for sex chromatin test?

What is the type of gonads in cases of Feminine Hermaphrodite?

In which case Barr body test is positive?

What is the cause of testicular hermaphrodite?

What is conclusive in identification of sex in clinical examination?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

At What age Ossific center of the bodies of the vertebrae appears?

At what age the sex of the fetus is differentiated ?

What is the length of a normal 7 months fetus ?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

Why the fetus is is considered viable at 7 months intrauterine age?

What is the weight of a normal full term fetus?

What is the length of a normal full term fetus?

At what age ossific center of the head of humerus appears ?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

B- Presence of both types of gonads in one body.

C- Developmental abnormality due to chromosomal problems

Types of finger prints include the following EXCEPT:

What is the cause of ovarian hermaphrodite?

In which case there is chromosomal abnormalities?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

Hair stem at the edge of contused wounds is

c. Union of trochlea and capitulum

Teeth examination can be useful in the following conditions except :

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

Hair examination is essential in in the following assaults except :

d. lower end of ulna

Pelvic X ray of a female 21 years old shows the following except :

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

The origin of tissue protein is identified by :

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

What is the most reliable sign for dating of bruises?

B- Presence or absence of associated abrasions

Which of the following is considered a patterned wound?

Mohamed G. Taha E-learning by Linda A. Silem

Which of the following best differentiates cut from stab wound?

Which of the following is considered a point of similarity between cut and

contused wound in the scalp?

Which of the following is considered a must for establishing causality between

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology QB

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology QB