Situation2 : Ken, a 4-year old boy was immediately rushed by her mother to a nearby hospital after

developing high-grade fever, discrete rashes on his face, and conjunctivitis. A diagnosis of Rubeola was
made by the attending pediatrician.
1. Which of the following statements INAPPROPRIATELY describe the above disease?
a. Immunity from the disease is long lasting
b. It has teratogenic potential on the fetuses of pregnant women who are infected on the first
trimester of pregnancy - only in Rubella
c. It is the one of the most common and most serious of all childhood diseases
d. None of the above
2. The nurse notes that the physician has documented the presence of Koplik spots. Based on this
documentation, which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the child?
a. petechiae spots that are reddish and pinpoint on the soft palate. - Rubella
b. Whitish vesicles located across the chest
c. Small, blue-white spots with a red base found in the inner cheek - opposite 2nd molar
d. Pinpoint petechiae noted on both legs
3. One of the distinct features of the disease is its rashes. When asked by Ken’s mother how do
measles’ rashes usually look like, you would correctly respond by saying:
a. “It is vesiculopapular, distributed centrifugally, starting from the trunk spread into the
extremities” - Chicken pox/Varicella
b. “It is maculopapular, distributed cephalocaudally, appearing first on the bridge of the nose and
hairline, forehead progressing into the extremities and does not leave a branny desquamation” -measles/Rubella
German

c. “It is maculopapular, distributed centrifugally, and usually leaves a dirty brown pigmentation”
d. “It is maculopapular, distributed cephalocaudally, appearing first on the bridge of the nose and
hairline, forehead progressing into the extremities and usually leaves a dirty brown
pigmentation
4. You are assigned to take care of Ken. In order to speed up his recovery, you would particularly
perform the following nursing interventions except:
a. Keep Carlo in an adequately ventilated room but free from drafts and chilling
b. Position the patient where there is a direct glare of light to absorb sunshine - (+) photophobia
c. During the febrile stage, limit the diet to fruit juices, milk and water.
d. Providing him a daily cleansing bed bath.
5. Ken is most contagious in which of the following period?
a. 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash
b. Until the 5th day of illness
c. 1 day before and 5 days after the appearance of rash
d. All throughout the prodromal period
6. Which of the following signs or symptoms of Ken is exhibited before the appearance of the rash?
a. diarrhea intestinal cramps, and lack of appetite c. runny nose, sneezing and coughing
b. ithching, fever, and cold sores d. sore throat and swollen lymph nodes
7. The nurse is aware that the most common and dreaded complication of Measles that Ken would
most probably have is:
a. Bronchopneumonia c. Otitis media
b. Reye’s syndrome d. Encephalitis
Situation 3: AA, 34- year old client developed fever accompanied by lymphadenopathy in various parts
of her body. Prior to consulting a doctor, she has been experiencing body weakness, anorexia, and sore
throat. Diagnosis revealed Rubella.
8. If AA is pregnant during the time of the disease, what can be the possible sequelae to the fetus?
a. If it occurs, during the third trimester, there is no risk for the baby
 b. The baby will not be affected at all
c. The baby can have mental retardation, cataracts and blueberry-muffin skin
d. All of the above scenarios are possible
9. The disease is usually transmitted through the following ways except:
a. Direct contact through contaminated secretions c. Vehicle-borne transmission
b. Vector-borne transmission d. None of the above
10. You know as a nurse that which of the following manifestations is not typically observed in a patient
who developed German Measles? rube”LL”a
a. Enlargement of the lymph nodes c. Rashes that leave a branny desquamation
b. Low grade fever, mild coryza d. None of the above
11. German Measles is most contagious:
a. 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash - Measles
b. 1 week before and 5 days after the onset of lymphadenopathy
c. During the appearance of Forscheimer’s spot
d. 2-3 weeks after exposure to infected patients
e. None of the above
12. An infant with congenital rubella shows which of the following manifestations:
a. Intrauterine growth restriction
b. Blueberry muffin skin and hypothermia
c. Mental retardation and retinal detachment - it should be cataracts & glaucoma
d. Low birth weight and hyperthermia
13. A child with Rubella should be isolated from a/an:
a. 20-yo brother living in the same house c. 12-yo sister who had rubeola during childhood
b. 3-year-old girl who lives next door d. 18-year-old female cousin who recently got married
SITUATION 4 : Frans, 14 yo -year old developed fever and rash on the skin and mucous membranes. The
maculopapular rash rapidly became vesicular. The mother was told that several children in the same
classroom manifested the same symptoms 2 weeks earlier. Diagnosis: Chicken pox.
14. Frans’s mother asks how she might have gotten the disease. What is the most appropriate reply?
a. "Chickenpox is an expected childhood illness that everyone gets."
b. "It is transmitted from direct contact, droplet spread and contaminated objects."
c. "It is inherited and transmitted through the genes"
d. "It is possibly a side effect of recent immunization
15. Frans 's mom is concerned when she learns that chickenpox is contagious. The nurse informs her
that the child could pass on the disease 1-2 days before the eruptions of lesions to 6 days after the
first crop of vesicles when crusts have formed. When is Frans NOT contagious?
a. When the vesicles are still visible c. When trunk vesicles have crusted but not those face
b. When all the vesicles have crusted d. When there are still water like blisters
- dry
16. In taking care of Frans with varicella, the nurse would NOT perform which of the following nursing
interventions?
a. Advise patient to Increase oral fluid intake
b. Administering aspirin for fever - Reye’s syndrome (liver complication)
c. Apply calamine lotion to the lesions to decrease pruritus
d. Soap is omitted to prevent irritation
17. One of the distinct features of the disease is its rashes. Frans ’s mother, very curious about the
disease, asked you again regarding the appearance and the distribution of the rashes. You would
allay her anxiety by telling her that:
a. “It is maculopapular, distributed cephalocaudally, appearing first on the bridge of the nose and
hairline, forehead progressing into the extremities and does not leave a branny desquamation”
 b. “It is vesiculopapular, distributed centrifugally, starting from the trunk spreading to the
extremities”
c. “It is maculopapular, distributed centrifugally, and usually leaves a dirty brown pigmentation”
d. “It is vesiculopapular, distributed cephalocaudally, appearing first on the bridge of the nose and
hairline, forehead progressing into the extremities and usually leaves a dirty brown
pigmentation
18. Under certain circumstances the virus that causes chickenpox can also cause: - Varicella Zoster virus
a. Athlete's foot c. German measles
b. Herpes zoster d. Infectious hepatitis
19. A mother tells the nurse that one of her children has chicken has chickenpox and asks what she
should do to care for that child. When teaching the mother, which of the following would be most
important to prevent?
a. Acid-base imbalance c. Skin infection
b. Malnutrition d. Dehydration
20. A community health nurse teaches a mother comfort measures for her six-year-old child who has
varicella-zoster virus. Which of the following actions, if taken by the mother, requires further
intervention?
a. Applying cortisone-based cream to the child’s lesion - Steroid
b. Patting the child’s lesions with calamine lotion
c. Bathing the child with tepid sponge bath
d. Trimming the child’s fingernails very short
Situation 5 : A 7 year old girl developed fever and bilateral swelling of the pre-auricular area. The
attending pediatrician gave a diagnosis of Mumps.
21. What is usually targeted and damaged by the pathogen?
a. Peripheral nerves c. Lymph nodes
b. Salivary glands d. Tonsillar membrane
22. The nurse admits the patient with a diagnosis of mumps. The infectious agent of the disease is:
a. Paramyxovirus c. Togavirus - Rubella
b. Adenovirus - Colds d. Arbovirus - Encephalitis
23. The nurse plans which of the following diet in the care of the patient admitted due to parotitis:
- (+) pain at front & back of the ear & jaw area
a. Soft, bland diet c. NPO
b. Clear liquids d. Fruit diet
24. The 7-year girl probably acquire the infection due to:
a. Eating contaminated food c. Vector-borne Transmission
b. Through trauma and inoculation d. Droplet Transmission
25. The nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding respiratory isolation
procedures. The mother asks the nurse about the length of time required for the respiratory
isolation. The most appropriate nursing response is:
a. respiratory isolation is not necessary
b. mumps is not transmitted by the respiratory system
c. respiratory isolation is indicated for 9 days following the onset of parotid swelling
d. respiratory isolation is indicated for 18 days following the onset or parotid swelling
26. A nursing student asks the pediatric nurse specialist to describe the signs and symptoms associated
with the most common complication of mumps. Which of the following signs or symptoms is
indicative of the most common complication of this communicable disease?
a. A red, swollen testicle - Rare c. Pain
b. Nuchal rigidity d. Deafness
27. A mother is worried because her child acquired mumps infection. She asks about the most severe
complication of this infection. The best response of the nurse should be:
a.“You don’t have to worry because there is no known complication of mumps.”
b.“Although rare, the most severe complication of mumps is encephalitis.” - most correct: sterility
c.“Your son will become sterile for life.”
d“Your child may develop pneumonia.
Situation: The patient has a sore that does not heal. Upon examination it reveals leprosy.
28. Mode of transmission of leprosy
a.Sharing food b. Borrowing utensils c.respiratory droplet d. Prolonged skin to skin contact
29. Late sign of leprosy in male patients is enlargement of the breast known as
a. Clawing b.. Madarosis c.. Lagopthalmos d. Gynecomastia
30. Your role in prevention of leprosy is
a. Health Education b. Personal Hygiene c. Proper nutrition d. BCG vaccination
31. Multi-drug therapy is being implemented by DOH. Where is the initial treatment done?
a. Midwife residence b. barangay captain office c. barangay health center d. rural health unit
32. Which of the following is/are mild leprae reaction?
1. Edema 2. Sudden increase in the number of lesions 3. Tenderness on the nerve 4. Sudden
paralysis
a. 1, 2 & 3 are correct b. 1 & 3 are correct c. 2 & 4 are correct d. 4 only e. all of the above

Situation: MJ is a 16 years old is on vacation. A week before returning to abroad, he developed fever,
diarrhea and rose petecchial rashes on his abdomen. Diagnosis: Typhoid fever.
33. The nurse provided the family with health education to prevent transmission of infection to other
family members as the disease can be transmitted through the following except:
a. Casual contact with the infected patient c. Ingestion of unpasteurized milk
b. Contaminated food and water d. None of the above
34. Nurse A examined MJ, He was trying to look for the pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever which is:
a. Maculopapular rashes on the trunk c. Bluish discoloration on the periumbilical area
b. Rose spots on the trunk and abdomen d. Migratory painless nodules
35. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of the disease. This microorganism is commonly found in the following
EXCEPT:
a. Unpasteurized milk b. Fruits and vegetables c. Poultry products d. Shellfish
36. Melena in typhoid fever is one symptom a nurse should report to the doctor as a sign of
a. ulceration of the peyers patches c. irritation of mucosa of large bowel
b. rupture of the ileum d. stomach and rectal bleeding
37. As a preventive control measure for typhoid fever, which of the following must be discussed in your
health education program for the public?
A. Sanitary disposal of human feces and maintenance of fly proof latrine
B. Proper food handling and preparation
C. Elimination of stagnant waters as in empty cans, flower pots and water drums - for vector borne (dengue)
D. Avoid contact with the patient’s respiratory infections
a. A and C b. B and C c. C and D d. A and B
38. Which of the following statements concerning Salmonella typhi is false?
a. Typhidot test involves detection of antibodies
b. Poultry products can also transmit the disease
c. It can destroy Peyer’s patches and become disseminated in the blood
d. Salmonella typhi is pathogenic both to humans and animals - humans only
39. “The stool culture of a child with profuse diarrhea reveals Salmonella bacilli. After teaching the mother
about the course of Salmonella enteritis, which of the following statements by the mother indicates
effective teaching?
a. “Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time”
b. “After the acute stage passes the organism is usually not present in the stool.”
c. “Although the organism may be alive indefinitely, in time it will be of no danger to anyone.”
d. “If my child continues to have the organism in the stool, an antitoxin can help destroy the
organism.”
Situation: Poliomyelitis is an acute infectious disease caused by any of the three types of poliomyelitis
virus which affects chiefly the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and the medulla, cerebellum and
other midbrain.
40. Which one of the following statements about poliomyelitis is true?
a. Nerves of sensation are usually involved
b. The disease is transmitted through direct contact with oropharyngeal secretions
c. The disease can have congenital transmission
d. The virus destroys the receptors of excitatory neurotransmitters
e. None of the above
41. Which of the following statements if made by the patient indicates how he acquired polio?
a. “ I waded in the floody streets of Divisoria last month to find a ride”
b. “I bought lemonade in a sidewalk store because I was thirsty then” - fecal-oral
c. “I used to walk barefooted when at home”
d. “I engaged in a sexual intercourse with my boyfriend who has poliomyelitis”
42. Which of the following manifestations least likely occur during the nonparalytic type of major
poliomyelitis?
a. Poker’s spine b. Pain in the back and arms c. Paresis d. Hoyne’s sign
43. In caring for a patient suffering from major poliomyelitis, paralytic, the nurse knows that one of the
following is contraindicated in this condition:
a. Procaine penicillin c. Morphine sulfate - respiratory depressant
b. Diazepam (Valium) d. Lactulose
44. Following administration of OPV, your nursing instruction to the mother would include the
following:
a. Give infant formula to mask the unpleasant taste of the vaccine.
b. NPO for 20-30 minutes after administration
c. Place the infant in a flat position to prevent from moving
d. Give water instead of milk for better absorption.
45. Poliomyelitis can be prevented through the use of polio vaccines. This is accomplished through
administration of:
a. Live attenuated Oral Polio vaccine c. Oral Inactivated Polio Vaccine
b. Intramuscular Sabin vaccine d. All of the above
46. In the event that the virus affects the motor neurons of the brainstem, which of the following
manifestations is not expected?
a. Difficulty in taste c. Cardiac irregularities
b. Asymmetric flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities d. Respiratory paralysis
47. Before the virus spread in the bloodstream and invade the CNS, it usually first enters into the
alimentary tract and multiplies in the:
a. Lower intestinal tract b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Liver
A 14-year old child was admitted to the hospital after manifesting severe watery diarrhea, sunken
eyeball, and colicky abdominal pain. Diagnosis revealed cholera infection.
48. Which of the following stool characteristics would most likely confirm presence of cholera in a
patient?
a. Non-mucoidal and voluminous c. Blood-streaked
b. Rice watery stools d. Foul odor and greasy
49. When asked by the mother what causes her child’s infection, you would correctly respond which of
the following?
a. wet garbage from food establishments c. poor handling of fresh fruits and vegetables
b. feces of infected individuals d. dirty water from faucet
50. There are three principal deficits that could possibly occur in a cholera infection. These are the following
except:
a. Extracellular fluid volume deficit c. Metabolic acidosis
b. Hyperkalemia - Hypokalemia d. None of the above choices
51. You are asked what are the possible measures to prevent acquisition of cholera. You would NOT
mention which of the following options:
a. Thoroughly cook foods c. Hand washing before and after defecation
b. Proper disposal of excreta d. Screening of blood donors
52. The following should be taught to a client with cholera, except:
a. report any bleeding from the rectum, abdominal pain and restlessness - No bleeding in Cholera
b. teach family members to report all symptoms if patient is on home care
c. teach family members necessary enteric precautions
d. advise to replace fluids volume per volume
53. For a patient with cholera, you do not expect to observe which of the following manifestations?
a. Sunken eyeballs c. Poor skin turgor
b. Rapid pulse rate and breathing d. Weight gain
Situation: A 35 year old female had her pre-employment medical examination done and was diagnosed
to have hepatitis A infection.
54. Hepatitis A is differentiated from hepatitis B by their mode of transmission. Hepatitis B is
transmitted through: - Blood borne/body secretions
a. insect bites c. transfusion and injection
b. urine d. fecal waste
55. Which of the following statements about viral hepatitis is TRUE?
a. The risk of getting hepatitis B in needle stick injuries are far lower than HIV
b. If you are infected with hepatitis A, it can later on develop into hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis D can also occur if you have a superinfection or coinfection with hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis B can also be transmitted by mosquito bites
56. Which of the following would be least stressed to the client?
a. Use a condom during sexual intercourse c. Refrain from donating blood
b. Wash your hands before and after bowel movements d. Avoid getting pregnant
57. Which statement indicates the need for further health teaching?
a. “My wife can also get the infection through blood transfusion.” - MOT: fecal-oral
b. “I cannot donate blood or organs.”
c. “I should abstain from alcohol to avoid further damage to my liver.”
d. “My wife should be screened for the disease and be vaccinated if she is not infected.”
58. Which of the following diets will most probably be prescribed for the patient?
a. High calorie, low fat diet c. High calorie, high fat diet
b. Low sodium, high calorie d. Low carbohydrate, low fat diet
59. The nurse would expect the client to exhibit which of the following symptoms during icteric phase of hepatitis:
a. Tarry stools c. Yellowish sclera - Jaundice
 b. Shortness of breath d. Frothy urine
60. A client with hepatitis is given instructions on how to control fatigue. The nurse determines that the client
needs additional instructions if the client states that:
a. Plan rest periods between meals c. Rest between activities
b.Perform personal hygiene if not fatigued d. Complete all daily activities in morning when client is most
rested