CD- RESPI

1. Which of the following is the best preventive measure or method of control?

a. Living in none crowded areas c. Nurse to educate the public
b. RHU outreach health services d. BCG vaccination of newborn
2. Why is Isoniazid combined with Pyridoxine?
a. So the drug can be better absorbed by the body
b. To prevent adverse effects of the drug
c. For its synergistic effect - mechanism of the drug combine together
d. To prevent development of resistance to Isoniazid
3. The client, positive with PTB, begins taking INH. The nurse, taking care of the client, should evaluate
for what kind of toxicities? R - red orange secretions; *no soft contact lense
I - peripheral neuritis; *with B6 Pyridoxine
a. Ototoxicities -Strep b. Hepatotoxicities P - gout: uric acid
E - yes; optic neuritis
c. Nephrotoxicities -Strep d. Visual disturbances -Etham S - sensory hearing loss; nephrotoxic
4. The client, newly diagnosed with PTB, is about to start his treatment regimen. What regimen is given
for new smear-positive TB patients? Cat 1 - 2 RIPE; 4 RI
Cat 1A - 2 RPE; 10 RI
a. 2 HRZE / 5 HR b. 2 HRZE / 4 HR Cat 2 - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 5 RIE
c. 2 HRZES/4 HRE d. 2 HRZES / 1 HRZE / 5 HRE Cat 2A - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 9 RIE

5. How long is the intensive phase of the treatment regimen for category 1 patients?
a. 2 months b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 6 months
6. Primary diagnostic tool in NTP case finding:
a. direct sputum smear microscopy
b. sputum culture - Confirmatory
c. chest x-ray - Extent of disease
d. tuberculin testing - Exposure
7. If the patient is considered as treatment AFTER lost to follow up . He will fall on what category of the
short course chemotherapy? Cat 1 - 2 RIPE; 4 RI
Cat 1A - 2 RPE; 10 RI
a. category I c. category II Cat 2 - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 5 RIE
b. category IA d. category II A Cat 2A - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 9 RIE

8. Which among the following test for TB is used and detects rifampicin resistant case?
a. PPD test c. GENE EXPERT
b. Sputum culture d. Chest xray
9. The client should be screened for levels of BUN, Crea before starting this medication that is used in TB - Hepatotoxic (RIP)
a. Streptomycin b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Rifampicin
10. In providing follow-up instruction to a patient who received Mantoux test in the physician’s office
on Monday. The nurse tells the patient to return to have the results (reading) on which of the following
days? *check the test after 48-72hrs
a. Thursday c. Friday
b. Tuesday d. Sunday
11. The nurse was asked to interpret the results of the PPD administered. The reading was on induration
measuring 13mm in diameter. Which of the following actions would nurse do next?
a. document the normal finding in the client’s record - not normal
b. ask the client for permission to repeat the test
c. Notify the physician
d. instruct the client to make an appointment with a pulmonologist
12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can damage 8th cranial nerve? - vestibulocochlear nerve (auditory)
a. streptomycin c. RIF
b. INH d. EMB
13. The nurse understand that category 2 for TB treatment includes
 a. 2HRZE, 4HR c. 3 HRZE, 2HR Cat 1 - 2 RIPE; 4 RI
b. 2HRZES/1HRZE, 5 HRE d. 4 HRZE, 2HRE Cat 1A - 2 RPE; 10 RI
Cat 2 - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 5 RIE
14. Treatment regimen for patients under category I: Cat 2A - 2 RIPES/1 RIPE; 9 RIE
a. 2HRZE, 4HR c. 3 HRZE, 2HR
b. 2HRZES/1HRZE, 5 HRE d. 4 HRZE, 2HRE
Situation: Ms. D, a 56-yrs old lady is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of pneumonia. She
complains of pain in the chest when coughing.
15. What action should the nurse take to be of assistance to this patient?
a. encourage her to cough, then give her pain medication as ordered
b. turn Ms. D to the unaffected lung and ask her to cough
c. splint the patient’s chest while she coughs
d. recognize that the patient is too sick to cough at this time
16. A sputum specimen is collected from Ms. D to culture and sensitivity studies. This is to ascertain
which of the following facts?
a. the patient’s sensitivity to antibiotics
b. the patient’s probable reaction to the causative organism
c. the virulence of microorganism involved
d. the antibiotic that would be most appropriate and useful
17. Upon discharge, the health teaching of the nurse to Ms. D should include the following except:
a. avoid exposure to drafts c. maintain usual daily exercises
b. maintenance of hygiene d. avoid fatigue
18. A client with a bacterial pneumonia is to be started on IV antibiotics. Which of he following diagnosis
test must be completed before antibiotic therapy begins?
a. Urinalysis c. chest x-ray
b. sputum culture d. RBC count
19. If a patient coughs out sputum which color resembles that of currant jelly, the cause of pneumonia
may be attributed:
a. staphylococcus - Mucoid c. klebsiella
b. streptococcus - Rusty d. pseudomonas
20. Which of the following is the fatal type of diphtheria?
a. nasal c. laryngeal - Need to do Tracheostomy
b. pharyngeal - Pseudomembrane d. none of the above
21. Appropriate management of diphtheria includes the following except:
a. Performing Moloney test to determine hypersensitivity to antidiptheria antitoxin
b. removal of pseudomembrane to decrease the toxic effects of diphtheria toxin - only treated with antibiotic
c. performing emergency tracheostomy for suspected airway obstruction
d. Aerosol inhalations and postural drainage of pulmonary secretion upon doctor’s orders
22. The most fatal type of diphtheria is the one that is associated with the following clinical
manifestation:
a. psuedomembrane formation and bull neck appearance
b. aphonia and hoarness of voice
c. foul smelling nasal discharge
d. cough and hemoptysis
23. The following are diagnostic exams used in diphtheria except:
a. Western blot test - for AIDS c. nasal and throat swab
b. moloney test - hypersensitivity test d. Schick’s test - susceptibility
24. All of the following are true of diphtheria anti-toxin, except:
a. it is given in fractional doses
 b. each doses has an interval of 15 minutes
c. the total dose of the anti-toxin in 3ml - it should be 1mL
d. skin-testing is needed prior to administration
Situation: A 12 yo child was brought to the ER of a private hospital with a history of fever and colds that
were eventually followed by 5-10 successive forceful coughing ending with an inspiratory whoop. Dr. B
eventually diagnosed for having pertussis.
25. Based on the findings, the child is already at what stage of the disease?
a. paroxysmal - (+) inspiratory whoop c. eruptive
b. catarrhal d. convalescent
26. An appropriate diagnostic examinations for this kind of disease include the following, except.
a. nasal swab c. bordet-gengou test
b. cough plate d. moloney test - For Diptheria
27. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the nursing care plan?
a. take vital signs every 30 minutes
b. decrease environment stimuli - to prevent coughing
c. monitor temperature - same with A; part of VS
d. encourage the parents to hold the patient tightly
28. Which of the following is caused by a virus:
a. pertussis b. diphtheria c. herpes zoster d. whooping cough
29. School children with measles should be kept out of school for at least:
a. 4 days before rashes disappear
b. a week before recovery
c. 5 days after appearance of rashes
d. 5 days before onset of rash
30. School children with chicken pox should be kept out of school for at least:
a. 1 week before appearance of rashes
b. Until vesicles become dry
c. 1 week before recovery
d. 2 to 3 weeks after 1st eruption first appeared