Bahir Dar University

Bahir Dar Institute of Technology (BiT)

Faculty of ________________________
Holistic Examination for __________ Engineering
Regular/ Extension/Summer Program students
Exam date: September 16/2012 E.C
Time Allowed: 1:10 hrs.

Student full name: _______________________________________________

ID No.__________________ Section: ________ Signature: _______________

General Instructions:
1. Turn off your Mobile before you start the exam
2. Any attempt to cheat will lead to disciplinary measures stated in the legislation.
3. Write your Full Name, ID No, Section and put your signature both on the cover page of your
question paper and answer sheet.
4. Write your answers in CAPITAL LETTERS only.
5. Make sure that the exam contains xx Pages and 60 /75 questions (mention the number of questions
from the stated range).

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1. Which of the following is true about a rotating uniform thickness solid disc.
A. The maximum radial stress is at the center of the disc.
B. The maximum radial stress is at the tip of the disc.
C. The maximum hoop stress is at the tip of the disc.
D. The hoop stress is zero at the tip of the disc.
2. Which of the following represents the flexural stiffness of a material? (i.e. y = center distance)
A. yE
B. EI
C. E
D. σI
3. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as
A. Resilience
B. Proof Resilience
C. Modulus of Resilience
D. Strain Energy
EId 2 y
4. If the bending moment of a beam is related by M = , then what can be the shearing force
dx 2
𝑑𝑦
A. 𝑑𝑥
𝐸𝐼𝑑4 𝑦
B. 𝑑𝑥 4

𝐸𝐼𝑑3 𝑦
C. 𝑑𝑥 3
𝐸𝐼𝑑𝑦
D. 𝑑𝑥

5. Offset command can be used for drawing

A. Infinite long lines
B. Intersecting lines
C. Parallel lines
D. Perpendicular bisector
6. The advantages of the V-belt drive over flat belt drive are
A. The V-belt drive gives compactness due to the small distance between the centres of pulleys.
B. The drive is positive, because the slip between the belt and the pulley groove is negligible.
C. Since the V-belts are made endless and there is no joint trouble, therefore the drive is smooth.
D. All of the mentioned

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7. Status bar do not contain ?

A. Snap
B. Grid
C. Erase
D. Polar
8. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft.
This arrangement is called
A. Spur gearing
B. Helical gearing
C. Bevel gearing
D. Spiral gearing
9. The velocity ratio of two pulleys connected by an open belt or crossed belt is
A. Directly proportional to their diameters
B. Directly proportional to the square of their diameters
C. Inversely proportional to the square of their diameters
D. Inversely proportional to their diameter
10. To ensure self-locking in a screw jack, it is essential that the helix angle is
A. Larger than friction angle
B. Equal to friction angle
C. Such as to give maximum efficiency in lifting
D. Smaller than friction angle
11. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have _____________ coefficient of
friction.
A. Medium
B. Low
C. High
D. None of the mentioned
12. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?
A. Damped vibrations
B. Undamped vibrations
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

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13. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum potential
energy at extreme position?
A. Raylegh’s Method
B. Dunkerly’s Method
C. Holzer’s Method
D. Jacobi’s Method
14. The wire rope is subjected to ?
A. Tensile Stress
B. Bending Stress
C. Both bending and tensile stress
D. None of the list
15. In elastic collisions,
A. Both of the momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved.
B. Only the total momentum of the colliding objects is conserved.
C. Only the total kinetic energy is conserved.
D. Neither momentum of the colliding bodies nor the total kinetic energy is recoverable.
16. A rigid body in space has ___ degrees of freedom.
A. Two
B. Six
C. Three
D. Eight
17. If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other, the length of spring is
called as?
A. Solid length
B. Compressed length
C. Free length
D. None of the mentioned
18. The crests of the thread are shown by a ______ continuous line and roots by ______ continuous line.
A. Thin, thick
B. Thick, thin
C. Single, thin
D. Double, thick

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19. The system in which variation in size is accepted is termed as ___________

A. Limit system
B. Tolerance System
C. Limit and tolerance system
D. Variable system
20. In cantilever beams, the slope is _____________ at fixed end.
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Uniform
21. The method in which the series of dimensions are applied from one point to other is called
A. Parallel dimension
B. Combined dimensioning
C. Tabular dimensioning
D. Chain dimensionin
22. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its young’s modulus will be
A. Doubled
B. Halved
C. One-fourth
D. Remain unaffected
23. ______ is the study to know the displacement, velocity and acceleration of a part of the machine.
A. Kinematics
B. Kinetics
C. Statics
D. All of the above
24. Which of the following mechanism is used to connect two parallel shaft when distance between them is
small?
A. Scotch yoke mechanism
B. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
C. Elliptical trammel
D. Oldham,s coupling

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25. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin cylindrical shell, if the ratio of the wall thickness of the shell to its
diameter is
A. Less than 1/10
B. Equal to 1/10
C. More than 1/10
D. None of these
26. In case of thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder is
A. Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
B. Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
C. Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
D. Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
27. What are discrete parameter systems?
A. Systems which have infinite number of degree of freedom.
B. Systems which have no degree of freedom.
C. Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom.
D. None of the above
28. Resonance can be occurred when_________________.
A. The frequency ratio becomes unity
B. The natural frequency is greater than the operating frequency
C. The natural frequency is less than the operating frequency
D. The frequency ratio becomes zero
29. The following types of material are usually the most ductile
A. Body-centered cubic lattice
B. Hexagonal close- packed lattice
C. All of the above
D. Face-centered cubic lattice
30. The crystal structure of gamma iron is
A. Body centered cubic
B. Hexagonal close packed
C. Face centered cubic
D. Cubic structure

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31. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

A. Sulphur, phosphorus and lead
B. Vanadium and aluminum
C. Tungsten and molybdenum
D. Chromium and nickel
32. Which one of the following is correct statement?
A. Boiling point, toughness and hardness are all thermal properties
B. Conductivity, ductility and melting point are all physical properties
C. Toughness, strength and ductility are all mechanical properties
D. Density ,specific heat and melting point are all mechanical properties
33. Ductility of a material can be defined as
A. Ability of material undergo large permanent deformation in compression
B. Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in tension
C. Ability to recover its original form
D. The ability of material to resist heat at large temperature
34. Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness?
A. Carbide
B. Steel
C. Diamond
D. Ceramic
35. Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity:
A. Silver
B. Aluminum
C. Copper
D. Gold
36. When a surface of an object is inclined to the plane of projection it will appear .
in a view?
A. As a surface but it foreshortened
B. As a point
C. As a surface in true size and shape
D. As line

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37. Which statement is true about the precedence of lines

A. A center line has precedence over visible line
B. A center line has precedence over a hidden line
C. A hidden line has precedence over a visible line
D. A hidden line has precedence over a center line
38. When a point is above horizontal plane and behind vertical plane, the point is resting which quadrant?
A. First quadrant
B. Third quadrant
C. Second quadrant
D. Fourth quadrant
39. The milling operates on the principle of ?
A. The cutter revolving against the work piece and the work piece is fixed.
B. The work piece rotating against the cutting tool, which can be controlled.
C. The cutting tool rotates and the work piece has some translation.
D. Both cutter and work piece rotating.
40. Which of the following casting processes all are permanent mold operations
A. Die casting process, vacuum casting, centrifugal casting
B. Centrifugal casting, die casting process, sand casting process
C. Die casting process, expanded polystyrene process, shell molding
D. Shell molding, vacuum, die casting process
41. The purpose of a riser in sand casting is to ?
A. Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
B. Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
C. Control the flowablity of the molten metal
D. Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
42. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawal from the mould is known as
A. Machining allowance
B. Shrinkage allowance
C. Draft allowance
D. Distortion or shaking allowance

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43. The Permeability is the property of a sand due to which

A. The ability of the sand grains to stick together
B. The ability of the sand to cling to the sides of a moulding box
C. Ability to give way and allow casting to shrink without cracking the casting
D. The ability to allow hot air and gases to pass through voids in sand
44. Which one of the following is different from the others
A. Metal inert gas welding
B. Tungsten inert gas welding
C. Shielded metal arc welding
D. Oxy Acetylene welding
45. Which TWO bottled gases are used for the MIG welding process?
A. Argon and carbon monoxide
B. Acetylene and oxygen
C. Oxygen and argon
D. Argon and carbon dioxide (CO2)
46. From the figure below, what are the names that indicated by number 1, number 2 and number 3
consequently?

1 2 3

A. Spindle, sleeve and thimble

B. Sleeve, thimble and spindle
C. Thimble, anvil and spindle
D. Spindle, thimble and anvil
47. Which of the following is different from the others
A. V-block
B. Center punch
C. Bench Vice
D. C-clamp

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48. Which one of the following component is an element of complex measuring system
A. Variable conversion element
B. Signal processing element
C. Sensor
D. All
49. Which one of the following is not correct about systematic errors of an instrument
A. It can be caused by unpredictable variations in the measurement system
B. Recalibration is a solution to the problem
C. Can be caused by variation of environmental factors
D. It appears on one side of the correct reading
50. Which one of the following sensor works on the principle of piezo-electricity
A. Strain gauge
B. Ultrasonic sensor
C. Potentiometer
D. All
51. With the same cross-sectional area and immersed in the same turbulent flow, the largest drag will be on:
A. Plate hold normal to the flow
B. Blade at zero angle of attack
C. Cylinder
D. Plate hold parallel to the flow
52. An instrument which offers no obstruction to the flow, offers no additional loss and is suitable for flow
measurement is
A. Orifice plate
B. Magnetic flow meter
C. Flow Nozzle
D. Venturi-meter
53. Match the following:
a. Newton-Raphson 1. Integration
b. Runge-kutta 2. Root finding
c. Gauss-seidel 3. Ordinary Differential Equations
d. Simpson’s Rule 4. Solution of system of Linear Equations
The correct match is
A. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
B. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
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C. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

D. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
54. Which of the following is an example of steady state heat transfer?
A. Electric bulb cools down by the surrounding atmosphere
B. Chilling effect of cold wind on a warm body
C. Cooling of I.C engine
D. Boilers and turbines
55. During a cold winter season, a person prefers to sit near a fire. Which of the following modes of heat
transfer provides him the maximum heat?
A. Radiation will provide quick warmth
B. Convection and radiation together
C. If it is near the fire, convection sounds good
D. Conduction from the fire
56. Some examples of heat exchanger are
i. Condensers and evaporators in refrigeration units
ii. Evaporator of an ice plant and milk chiller of a pasteurizing plant
iii. Automobile radiators and oil coolers of heat engines
Identify the correct answer
A. i and ii
B. i, ii and iii
C. ii and iii
D. i only
57. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics?
A. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher temperature, without
the aid of an external source.
B. There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given quantity of
heat energy.
C. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to
convert work into heat energy.
D. all of the above

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58. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to another. This
statement is known as
A. Third load of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Zero law of thermodynamics
59. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A. Isentropic compression
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isothermal compression
D. Isothermal expansion
60. The air-standard ideal cycle approximation for the gas turbine engine is
A. Stirling cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Diesel cycle
61. A closed system is one in which
A. Neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the
system
B. Both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the
system
C. Heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working substance does
not crosses the boundary of the system
D. Mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and work does not
crosses the boundary of the system
62. In centrifugal compressor which types of blade shape transfers maximum energy for a given tip speed?
A. Forward curved blade
B. Radial blade
C. Backward curved blade
D. A &C
63. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Pelton is an example of reaction turbine
B. Francis turbine is an example of impulse turbine

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C. In reaction turbine only kinetic energy is available at the inlet of the turbine and pressure energy
is the same at inlet and outlet of the turbine
D. In impulse turbine only kinetic energy is available at the inlet of the turbine and pressure energy
is the same at inlet and outlet of the turbine
64. The type of pump for a specific purpose is selected based on ______________ heads
A. Monomeric head
B. Euler head
C. Static head
D. A and C
65. The figure shown below is the hydrostatic-pressure distribution of different points and which of the
following statement is incorrect.

A. Point D has a different pressure from A, B and C

B. Points A, B, and C and have identical pressures which is less than a, b, c, and d
C. Points A, B, and C and have identical pressures which is higher than a, b, c, and d.
D. Points a, b, c and d have identical pressures.
66. A liquid, being unable to expand freely, will form an interface with a second liquid or gas and such
property of the fluid is called
A. Surface tension
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Viscosity
D. A &C
67. Among the four basic laws of fluid mechanics continuity equation is derived from Conservation of
A. Mass equation
B. Angular momentum equation
C. Linear momentum equation
D. Energy equation

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68. Air flows isentropically through the converging duct shown below

If the flow at location 1 is subsonic, then the flow at location 2 can be

A. Sonic
B. Supersonic
C. Subsonic
D. A or C
69. Which one of the following is not an assumption of potential flow theory?
A. The boundary layer effect is present
B. It satisfies the basic law of fluid mechanics
C. It follows the contours of the solid surface
D. It is incompressible, inviscid and irrotational flow
70. Consider the following statements pertaining to the boundary layer
i. Boundary layer is a thin layer adjacent to the surface where significant viscous energy
dissipation takes place
ii. Boundary layer doesn’t exist in ideal flow
iii. Separation of boundary layer is caused by the presence of adverse pressure gradient
iv. A free stream undisturbed flow has a uniform velocity U_uniform in the X direction only
Which of these statements are correct?
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, ii, iii
C. i, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iii, iv

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71. Question?
A. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
B. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
C. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
D. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
72. Question?
A. xxxxxxxxxxx C. xxxxxxxxxxx
B. xxxxxxxxxxx D. xxxxxxxxxxx

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 ANSWER SHEET Code (try to make it with different unknown
identity)

Student Full Name: ________________________________ ID No.: ________________

Section: _______ Signature: _________________

1. _______ 26. _______ 51. _______

2. _______ 27. _______ 52. _______
3. _______ 28. _______ 53. _______
4. _______ 29. _______ 54. _______
5. _______ 30. _______ 55. _______
6. _______ 31. _______ 56. _______
7. _______ 32. _______ 57. _______
8. _______ 33. _______ 58. _______
9. _______ 34. _______ 59. _______
10. _______ 35. _______ 60. _______
11. _______ 36. _______ 61. _______
12. _______ 37. _______ 62. _______
13. _______ 38. _______ 63. _______
14. _______ 39. _______ 64. _______
15. _______ 40. _______ 65. _______
16. _______ 41. _______ 66. _______
17. _______ 42. _______ 67. _______
18. _______ 43. _______ 68. _______
19. _______ 44. _______ 69. _______
20. _______ 45. _______ 70. _______
21. _______ 46. _______ 71. _______
22. _______ 47. _______ 72. _______
23. _______ 48. _______ 73. _______
24. _______ 49. _______ 74. _______
25. _______ 50. _______ 75. _______

_____ _____
Total Marks (75%): 75 % Total Marks (100%): 100 %

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