MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENCE PROFESSIONAL LICENSURE

SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMS- MAY 2015

BSC DEGREE HOLDERS (MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENTISTS)
INSTRUCTION: CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER ONLY

HAEMATOLOGY QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following cells does not undertake phagocytosis?

a) Neutrophils
b) Dendritic cells
c) Macrophages
d) T lymphocytes
e) B Lymphocytes

2. Which of the following organs contain resident macrophages?

a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes
e) All of the above

3. All Myeloproliferative Disorders arise from precursors of the:

a) Lymphoid lineage in the bone marrow

b) Myeloid lineage in the bone marrow
c) Both lymphoid and myeloid lineages
d) Erythroid lineage in the bone marrow
e) None of the above

4. One symptom shared by all Myeloproliferative disorders (with the exception of

essential thrombocytosis) is

a) An enlarged Liver
b) Leukocytosis
c) An enlarged spleen
d) An enlarged lungs
e) An enlarged heart

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organs?

a) Foetal Liver in the foetus
b) Lymph nodes
c) Payer’s patches
d) Spleen
e) mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues

6. Which of the following is not used in parental testing?

a) Red cell estimation

b) ABO blood group typing
c) Analysis of some proteins and enzymes
d) Using human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antigens
e) Genetic testing
7. In the examination of red blood cell morphology, the abnormal erythrocytes differ from normal
erythrocytes in their:

a) Shape only
b) Size only
c) Colour only
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

8. Which of the following specimen types is not used in cytogenetic testing?

a) Venous blood/ Cord blood

b) Bone Marrow and tumour tissue
c) Seminal fluid
d) Products of conception and foetal tissue
e) Skin biopsies

9. Which of the following component measurements is not part of FBC test

a) RBC count
b) Haematocrit
c) Platelet function test
d) WBC and differential count
e) Platelet count

10. Anaemia is generally considered when haemoglobin concentrations fall below;

a) 11 g/dL for pregnant women

b) 12 g/dL for pregnant women
c) 15 g/dL for men
d) 14g/dl for men
e) 13g/dl for non-pregnant women

11. In intravascular haemolysis, the Hb released into the blood is immediately bound
by which of the following proteins for clearance in the liver.

a) Haemojuvelin
b) Haemosiderin
c) Haptoglobin
d) Myoglobin
e) Stercoglobin

12. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, the antigen-antibody reactions are dependent on the following
EXCEPT:

a) Class of Antibody.
b) Number and spacing of antigenic sites on cell.
c) Unavailability of complement.
d) Environmental temperature.
e) Functional status of reticuloendothelial system.

13. Which of the following is not used to treat cold agglutinin diseases?

a) Folic acid supplementation

b) Cytotoxic drugs
c) β-interferon
d) Plasmapheresis
e) Rituximab

14. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, splenectomy does the following?

a) It act as a second line of treatment

b) It has multiple benefits
c) It removes site of haemolysis
d) It decreases antibody production
e) All of the above

15. Which of the following statements about the H antigen is true?

a) The H antigen is not such an essential precursor to the ABO blood group antigens.
b) The H locus is located on chromosome 9
c) The H antigen is a carbohydrate sequence with carbohydrates linked mainly to proteins.
d) The H antigen contains 6 exons that span more than 5 kb of genomic DNA
e) All of the above

16. Which of the following statements about the Lewis antigen system is false?

a) Lewis antigens are expressed on the surface of the endothelium.

b) Lewis blood group is a minor blood group that relates to salivary secretor status.
c) Salivary ABH secretor determination is based on testing for your blood group antigens in your saliva.
d) Finding your Lewis blood group will tell your ABH secretor status irrespective of your blood group.
e) Most ABH secretors have a Lewis group of Lea-, Leb+.

17. The following are true about reticulocytes:

a. they are young anucleate red cells which retain RNA

b. they are stainable by special stains
c. they stain well by the Romanowsky stains
d. they are young non-nucleate red cells containing remnants of DNA
e. They decrease in number following acute haemorrhage

18. The earliest recognizable granulocyte precursors are:

a. myelocytes
b. promyelocytes
c. metamyelocytes
d. blast cells
e. megakaryocytes

19. In Megaloblastic anaemia:

a. the blood film shows oval macrocytes and neutrophil left shift
b. the underlying cause of the anaemia is unknown
c. there is significant decrease in mean cell volume
d. pancytopenia is rare in this condition
e. The most widely used screening tests for the deficiencies are the serum vitamin B12 and folate assays.

20. The human haemoglobins (Hb):

a. Hb F has a lower O2 affinity than Hb A

b. fetal haemoglobin (HbF) is present from early through late fetal life till after birth.
c. A complete switch of HbF to normal adult haemoglobin occurs at the first month in the neonatal period
d. Hb A2 is replaced by adult haemoglobin HbA sometime after birth
e. Low levels of Hb F and HbA2 are present in normal adults.
21. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency:

a. is sex linked and affects males predominantly

b. is sex linked and affects females predominantly
c. Primaquine is the most recommended antimalarial for patients with G6PD deficiency
d. is a red cell membrane defect
e. causes haemolytic responses to haematinics

22. The usual peripheral blood findings in chronic myeloid leukaemia at diagnosis include the ff. except:

a. pancytopenia
b. raised white blood cell count (30-400 X 109/L).
c. granulocytes at all stages of development
d. increased numbers of basophils and eosinophils
e. blast cells of up to 10%

23. Routine investigations to confirm a case of suspected chronic myeloid leukaemia

a. Full blood count only

b. Full blood count including G6PD screening
c. Full blood count including blood film picture
d. Full blood count including WBC differentials
e. Full blood count including coagulation screening

24. Platelets

a. produced predominantly by the lymphoid megakaryocytes

b. its production is stimulated by unknown cytokines
c. their normal lifespan is 7-10 weeks
d. the normal platelet count for all age groups is 150-450X106/L.
e. Giant granular platelets in peripheral blood film is seen in May Hegglin anomaly

25. Blood sample in sequestrene (ethylenediaminetetra-acetate, EDTA) anticoagulant tested by an automated

haematology analyser provide the following, except:

a. haemoglobin concentration, haematocrit, red cell count, red cell indices

b. white cell count and differential
c. enumerate immature (nucleated) red cells
d. reticulocyte counts
e. platelet count and size

HISTOPATHOLOGY QUESTIONS

26. Tissue must be placed in a suitable fixative as soon as it is removed from the body to:

a. Prevent decomposition due to enzymatic activity

b. Permit various dehydrants to function properly
c. Prevent the rupture of cell membranes
d. Stabilise tissue carbohydrates
e. None of the above
27. Decalcification occurs with all of the following methods EXCEPT:

a. Simple acids
b. Reducing agents
c. Chelation
d. Ion-exchange
e. None of the above

28. The following procedure was performed on a mounted tissue slidet: dipped in xylene, followed by
absolute alcohol, 1% HCl and 1.5% NH4OH in 70% ethanol before hydration in water. This
procedure is to:

a. Blue the tissue again

b. Destain the tissue
c. Stain with a different stain
d. Remove cover slip and re-mount
e. None of the above

29. Formalin pigment is generally formed in tissues in formaldehyde when the pH:

a. Rises above 6
b. Falls below 6
c. Is buffered to neutrality
d. All the above
e. None of the above

30. Differential staining of nuclei and cytoplasm with Geimsa solution is an example of:

a. Polychromasia
b. Metachromasia
c. Hyperchromasia
d. Metaplasia
e. None of the above

31. The selectivity for nuclear staining with Harris haematoxylin can be increased by adding:

a. Excess aluminium salts

b. Excess glycerol
c. Excess mercury
d. 50% alcohol
e. 100% alcohol

32. Which of the following is not a constituent of 10% neutral buffered formalin?

a. Sodium phosphate trihydrate

b. Picric acid
c. Sodium phosphate
d. 37% - 40% formaldehyde
e. None of the above

33. The main rationale for cervical cytology screening in asymptomatic population is to detect:

a. Cervical metaplasia
b. Cervical infections
c. Cervical tumour diathesis
d. Cervical cancer precursors
e. None of the above
34. The importance of control preparations in histological staining includes:

i. To determine if the stains work

ii. To assess the degree of non-specificity
iii. To determine if the reagent is still active
iv. To determine if the substance to stain is present

a. i, ii, iv
b. i, ii, iii
c. ii, iii & iv
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

35. In the smear of a 56-year-old woman, which cellular pattern is most likely?

a. Superficial, intermediate and basal cells

b. Intermediate, more parabasal cells
c. Basal cells, more superficial and few intermediate cells
d. Few parabasal cells, many intermediate and few basal cells

36. Proteolytic digestion antigen retrieval method uses the following enzymes to cleave the formalin-
induced crosslinks EXCEPT:

a. Trypsin
b. Diastase
c. Chymotrypsin
d. Protease
e. Proteinase K

37. To protect the exposed tissue during storage, paraffin blocks may need to be:

a. Sealed
b. Filed
c. Stacked
d. Trimmed
e. None of the above

38. Which of the following underpins microwave - oven fixation of tissue?

a. Rapid molecular movement of fixative into tissue

b. Reaction between protein molecules
c. Ionising radiation
d. Rupture of hydrogen bonds
e. All of the above

39. In an immunoperoxidase procedure for the demonstration of estrogen –progesterone receptor status
of breast cancer cells, the primary antibody was optimized at a dilution factor 1:100. How much
primary antibody would be required to prepare a total volume of 2ml?

a. 2 uL
b. 10uL
c. 20uL
d. 100uL
e. 1000uL
40. When polyethylene glycol coating fixative is used in a cervical smear, the coating must be
completely removed because:

a. The nuclear membrane will be distorted

b. The cell will be enlarged
c. The nuclear staining will be impaired
d. The cells become “rounded up”
e. Cytoplasm will stain eosinophilic

41. Determining the end - point of decalcification is very important because:

a. Calcium remaining in the tissues interferes with staining

b. Under-decalcification causes processing problems
c. Over-decalcification results in denaturation of cellular proteins
d. Prolonged treatment may compromise quality of nuclear staining.
e. None of the above

42. You received a batch of cytology slides for reporting. On screening you find that there is no
differential staining of slides and all cells appear pink. The problem is due to:

a. Use of greater concentration of alcohol fixative than recommended

b. The slides remaining for too long in alcohol rinses during staining
c. Failure to remove excess Haematoxylin from the cytoplasm with HCl
d. Slides being allowed insufficient time in the haematoxylin
e. The EA solution being too weak from prolonged usage

43. For adequate clearing in xylene during routine processing, tissue should have a maximum thickness of:

a. 1-2mm
b. 2-4mm
c. 4-6mm
d. 6-8mm
e. 8-10mm

44. Prolonged dehydration in the higher grades of alcohol will render the specimen:

a. Hard
b. Macerated
c. Porous
d. Toxic
e. Soft

45. The time needed for infiltration of paraffin wax is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT the:

a. Fixative used
b. Thickness of the specimen
c. Tissue type
d. Use of vacuum
e. None of the above

46. The choice of xylene as a clearing agent is because of its miscibility with:

a. Fixative and dehydrants

b. Fixatives and infiltrating media
c. Universal solvents
d. Dehydrants and infiltrating media
e. None of the above

47. In regressive staining:

a. Lower concentration of haematoxylin is used

b. More concentrated haematoxylin is used
c. Timing is a very important factor
d. Nucleus is stained to desired intensity
e. Periodic examination of slides is important

48. In cytocentrifugation:

a. Cells are spanned directly into tubes

b. Mucinous samples are appropriate
c. Cells cover most of the slide
d. Monolayer of cells is prepared
e. Romanowsky stain cannot be used

49. In membrane filtration:

a. Positive pressure cannot be used

b. Suitable samples include very cellular fluids
c. Papanicolaou stain produces poor result
d. Fixed fluid samples can be used
e. Cell loss is quite high

50. Which of the following is a Papanicoloau stain?

a. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 75
b. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 25
c. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 50
d. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 45
e. None of the above

CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY QUESTIONS

51. When flow of blood is obstructed in the large veins by tourniquet, the increased filtration pressure
will cause the following effects in the parameters indicated.

a. reduced Aspartate Transaminase

b. reduced Total Bilirubin
c. decreased Potassium
d. reduced Total Protein
e. increased Total Iron

52. Hyponatraemia

A. Is usually due to excessive sodium losses

B. Is not commonly seen after surgery or trauma
C. In the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH is associated with low urine osmolality
D. May be due to hyperemesis
E. May be a feature of hyperthyroidism

53. Estimated GFR (eGFR)

A. Is valid in all age groups
B. Is a useful assessment of the progress of acute renal failure
C. Can be used to assess renal function in pregnancy
D. Is the basis for the classification of chronic kidney disease
E. In the normal range rules out chronic kidney disease

54. In order to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), one must estimate the following:

A. the plasma volume

B. the plasma [BUN]
C. the blood volume over a specified period of time
D. the urine [creatinine]
E. plasma albumin

55. Plasma creatinine

A. Is a useful screening test for the presence of renal tubular disease

B. Is often reduced in patients with hepatic failure
C. Is unaffected by changes in diet
D. Tends to rise with age
E. Assays may be subject to interference

56. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?

A. Starvation
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Severe diarrhoea
D. Loss of bicarbonate from the body
E. Antacid overdose

57. Which of the following substance can be used in the measurement of Glomerular filtration rate?

A. Insulin
B. Albumin
C. Creatinine
D. Bilirubin
E. Potassium

58. The following color-coded sample collection tubes contain the additives indicated by them

a. Yellow Top color-coded tube contain no additive

b. Red top contains fluoride oxalate
c. Blue top contains EDTA
d. Gray top contains Heparin
e. Lavender contains Citrate

59. Factors to consider in selecting a plasma enzyme for diagnosis include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Half life of the enzyme
D. Molecular weight of the enzyme
E. Rate of release of the enzyme

60. Low levels of alkaline phosphatase are found in

A. Hepatocellular diseases.
B. Cretinism.
C. Hyperparathyroidism.
D. Paget's disease.
E. Cholestasis.

61. Which of the following statements about Lactate dehydrogenase is TRUE?

A. Catalyses the irreversible conversion of lactate to pyruvate.

B. There are at least ten (10) isoenzymes.
C. It is found in mainly in smooth muscles.
D. Exists in body tissues as a tetramer consisting of four polypeptide chains.
E. Has a molecular weight of 88,000 KDa.

62. Which of the following can be classified as a Tumour marker?

A. Glucagon
B. CA 125
C. C peptide
D. HbA1c
E. Cystacin C

63. Which of the following tumour marker is correctly match to its associated tumour?

A. CEA -breast cancer.

B. CA19-9- pancreatic cancer.
C. 2-microglobulin- Adenocarcinoma .
D. carcino-embryonic antigen- Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
E. CA15-3- colon cancer.

64. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

A. A marker of germ cell tumors and trophoblastic disease.

B. it’s a glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 450KD.
C. It is composed to two similar subunits.
D. Is synthesized by the gonads.
E. Shows 10 % sensitivity for choriocarcinoma.

65. Unconjugated bilirubin

A. Is water soluble
B. Gives direct Jendrassik-Grof reaction
C. Is not bound to proteins in plasma
D. Is decreased in haemolytic anaemia
E. Is increased in post hepatic jaundice.

66. In the diagnosis of diabetes

A. An elevated HbA1c is very diagnostic

B. Patients with results demonstrating impaired glucose tolerance are at increased cardiovascular risk
C. A single elevated plasma glucose result is sufficient in itself
D. Absence of glucose in urine is not diagnostic
E. An oral glucose tolerance test is always required

67. Monitoring diabetes control

A. Can be adequately achieved using urine tests for glucose
B. By HbA1c measurement can be unreliable in patients with anaemia
C. Using fructosamine reflects control over the previous 40 – 50 days
D. Using home blood glucose measurement is essential in all patients
E. By HbA 1c measurement can give artefactually elevated results in patients with haemoglobinopathies

CASE STUDY
A 23 year old female had her fasting plasma lipid checked by her family doctor because her father had been
admitted at the hospital and diagnosed of myocardial infarction, aged 44years. Her lipid profile results are as
follows:

Analyte Results Reference ranges

Cholesterol 9.40 mmol/l 3.50-5.0 mmol/l

HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.0-1.8 mmol/l
Triglycerides - 0.5-.0.75 mmol/l

The biomedical scientist had the optical density of her triglycerides as 0.09, mean standard absorbance 0.20
and standard concentration of 2.28mmol/l.

68. What is the triglycerides concentration from the above case study?

A. 5.03 mmol/L
B. 4.03 mmol/L
C. 1.03 mmol/L
D. 3.03 mmol/L
E. 4.50 mmol/L

69. Calculate the [LDL] of the above patient

A. 7.93mmol/L
B. 8.20 mmol/L
C. 8.79mmol/L
D. 7.73 mmol/l
E. 7.03 mmol/L

70. Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) concentration of the patient is

A. 1.67 mmol/L
B. 1.03 mmol/L
C. 1.20 mmol/L
D. 0.47 mmol/L
E. 0.84 mmol/L

71. Biochemical changes and pre-analytical variations that may result from poorly stored or stale Urine
include.
 a. Lower pH
b. no effect on urine protein results
c. False negative glucose results
d. Falsely Increased bilirubin
e. Falsely increased urobilinogen

72. Plasma differs from Serum in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. that plasma lacks the clotting factors
b. that the colour of plasma is more intense
c. that they are obtained from the same source
d. It generally contains higher electrolytes than Serum
e. plasma is usually more jaundiced

73. The most useful laboratory tests for investigating suspected iron deficiency include

A. Serum [iron]
B. Serum [ferritin]
C. Serum [transferrin]
D. Faecal occult blood
E. Serum transferrin receptor

74. Uric acid:

A. Is highly soluble in urine, especially under acidic conditions

B. Is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
C. Undergoes neither secretion nor reabsorbtion in the distal tubule
D. Is the end - product of metabolism of both pyrimidine and purine bases of DNA
E. Can be converted in vivo in man naturally to allantoin

75. Which of the following statement is TRUE about CSF?

A. CSF glucose ranges from 2.1-3.3 mmol/l

B. The entire volume of CSF is replaced within 4-6 hours
C. A lumber puncture for CSF glucose analysis should only be obtained after the patient has fasted.
D. CSF glucose ranges from 100-200mmol/l
E. CSF glucose may be low in patients with acute me

MICROBIOLOGY QUESTIONS

76. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the
concentration of antibiotic is:

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Unchanged
d. inoculum dependent

77. An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically.
At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n):
a. nonfermenter
b. obligate anaerobe
c. aerobe
d. facultative anaerobe

78. The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is:

a. 0 CFU/Ml
b. 100 CFU/mL
c. 1,000 CFU/mL
d. 100,000 CFU/mL

79. Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts confirms that the patient has a urinary
tract infection?

a. 101 CFU/mL
b. 103 CFU/mL
c. 105 CFU/mL
d. no growth

80. A sheep agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. How
many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported?

a. 70 CFU/ml
b. 700 CFU/ml
c. 7000 CFU/ml
d. 70000 CFU/ml
81. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from ova in fecal specimens include:

a. Metagonimus yokogawai, Heterophyes heterophyes

b. Paragonimus westermani, Hymenolepis nana
c. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale
d. Taenia solium, Taenia saginata

82. A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam
of the nodule is:

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Loa loa

83. The lab has been using latex agglutination assay to detect Clostridium difficile in stools, which identifies a
nontoxin cell wall antigen. The lab is considering adoption of an EIA method that detects Clostridium
difficile toxin A. Which of the following would provide the best comparison?

a. latex agglutination vs culture on cycloserine cefoxitin-egg-fructose agar

b. latex agglutination vs EIA vs cell culture cytotxin assay
c. EIA vs culture on cycloserine cefoxitin-egg-fructose agar
d. EIA vs cell culture cytotoxin assay

84. Acceptable specimens for culture of anaerobic bacteria that cause disease include:

a. abscesses
b. gingival swabs
c. skin swabs
d. vaginal swabs

85. Anaerobic infections differ from aerobic infections in which of the following?
a. they usually respond favorably with aminoglycoside therapy
b. they usually arise from exogenous sources
c. they are usually polymicrobic
d. Gram stains of specimens are less helpful in diagnosis

86. The best procedure to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:

a. catalase
b. motility at 25 oC
c. motility at 35 oC
d. Gram stain

87. An organism recovered from a sputum has the following characteristics: Culture: growth at 7days on
Lowenstein-Jensen agar, incubated under aerobic conditions with CO2 at 35oC Gram stain: delicate branching
gram-positive bacilli Z-N stain: branching, filamentous, “partially” acid-fast bacterium These results are
consistent with which of the following genera?

a. Norcadia
b. Mycobacterium
c. Actinomyces
d. Sreptomyces

88. An organism previously thought to be nonpathogenic, Moraxella catarrhalis, is now known to be

associated with opportunistic respiratory infection and nosocomial transmission. Characteristic identification
criteria include:
a. oxidase negative
b. carbohydrates negative (asaccharolytic)
c. beta lactamase negative
d. gram-negative bacilli

89. A gram-negative diplococcus that grows on modified Thayer-Martin medium can be further confirmed as
Neisseria gonorrhoeae if it is:

a. oxidase positive, glucose positive, and maltose positive

b. oxidase positive and glucose positive, maltose negative
c. oxidase positive and maltose positive, glucose negative
d. glucose positive, oxidase negative and maltose negative

90. Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria
meningitides? a. acid from maltose b. growth on modified Thayer-Martin agar c. lactose degradation d. nitrite
reduction to nitrogen gas

91. A high vaginal smear is submitted for a Gram stain for Neisseria gonorhoeae. The biomedical scientist
finds the following results on the Gram stain: many white blood cells; few epithelial cells; many gram-
positive bacilli; few gram-negative diplococcic; few gram-positive cocci in chains The The biomedical
scientist should:

a. report out smear positive for gonorrhea

b. report out smear negative for gonorrhea
c. request a new specimen due to number of white blood cells
d. not read or report on gonorrhea in Gram stain on a vaginal specimen

92. All species of the genus Pseudomonas have the enzyme to oxidize:

a. naphthylamine
b. dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
c. glucopyranoside
d. tetramethyl-para-phenylenediamine

93. A Gram stain performed on a sputum specimen revealed gram-negative diplococcic within PMNs.
Oxidase testing is positive and carbohydrate degradation tests are inert. The organism is:

a. Neisseria lactamica
b. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Neisseria meningitides
d. Klebsiella pneumonia

94. An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is:

a. penicillin
b. cycloheximide
c. streptomycin
d. amphotericin B

95. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on inoculated
media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation?

a. the antibiotic would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone
b. zones of smaller diameter would result
c. zones of larger diameter would result
d. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter

A 35 year old AIDS patient presents to the clinic with chronic intractable bloody diarrhea after a trip to the
country side. He admits to drinking untreated water from a river. Laboratory examination was negative for
malaria and helmith infections. With this information answer the following question.

96. What is the likely organism responsible for this condition?

a. Giardia lamblia
b. Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Chilomastix mesnili
d. Entamoeba histolytica

97. As a medical laboratory scientist responsible for screening blood for transfusion, which of the following
parasites when found in blood will render the sample unsuitable for transfusion?

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Balantidium coli
c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
d. Onchocerca volvulus

98. Where a patient’s urine has a chylous appearance, what kind of parasite may be suspected?

a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Leishmania donovani

99. The following serological tests are applied in the diagnosis of parasitic infections except:

a. Complement fixation
b. Enzyme linked immunoassay
c. Indirect fluorescent antibody test
d. Formalin-ethyl-acetate test
100. The concentration methods for diagnosis of blood parasites include all of the following except

a. Cellulose Tape Preparation

b. Microhaematocrit centrifugation technique (Woo method)
c. Triple centrifugation technique
d. Knott’s concentration technique