IN HAEMATOLOGY - DIPLOMA LEVEL

Select one best answer for the following multiple choice questions.

Q1. A haemoglobin electrophoresis result of adult haemoglobin (HbA) or HbA2

means the patient has:
a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. Foetal haemoglobin
c. Normal haemoglobin
d. Haemolytic anaemia
e) Thalassaemia

Q2. An extremely large cell with an irregular lobed, ring or doughnut shaped
nucleus that stains blue purple is:
a) Haemoglobin
b) Recticulocyte
c) Rubricyte
d) Megakaryocyte
e) None of the above

Q3. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how blood cells with
anticoagulant aggregate in a Westergren or Wintrobe tube in 1 hour because of
changes in plasma proteins, which is known as:
a. Recticulosis
b. Serendipity
c. Fibrinolysis
d. Rouleaux formation
e. None of the above
Q4. Neutrophil count is high in:
a) Parasitic infection
b) Anaemia
c) Acute bacterial infection
d) Iron deficiency anaemia
e) Megaloblastic anaemia

Q5. HbA2 is consisting of:

a) 3 ά chains and 2 γ chains
b) 2 ά chains and 2 β chains
c) 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
d) 2 ά chains and 3 δ chains
e) 3 ά chains and 2 δ chains

Q6. Detection of malaria parasite is by:

a) Finger prick
b) Thick blood film
c) Full blood count
d) RBC analysis
e) None of the above

Q7. A Leukocyte that is involved in Adaptive and Acquired immunity is:

a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Monocyte
d) Basophile
e) Eosinophil
Q8. Normal range of leukocyte is:
a) 1 - 9 X 10^9
b) 2 - 6 X 10^9
c) 3 - 8 X 10^9
d) 2 - 8 X 10^9
e) 4 - 11 X 10^9

Q9. Reticulocyte is:

a) Immature RBC
b) Immature WBC
c) Mature RBC
d) Immature platelet
e) Mature platelet

Q10. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:

a) T-lymphocyte
b) B- lymphocyte
c) Monocyte
d) Basophile
e) Eosinophil

Q11. Malaria infection is transmitted by:

a) Male anopheles mosquito
b) Female anopheles mosquito
c) Both male and female anopheles mosquito
d) All the above
e) None of the above
Q12. One stage prothrombin time is used to detect (diagnose) disorders in:
a) Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
b) Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
c) Both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
d) All the above
e) None of the above

Q13. Thrombin time is:

a) Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
b) Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
c) The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin
d) All the above
e) None of the above

Q14. Most sever (serious) malaria infection is caused by:

a) Plasmodium Falciparum
b) Plasmodium Malaria
c) Plasmodium Ovale
d) Plasmodium Vivax
e) All of the above

Q15. Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection is:
a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Monocyte
d) Basophil
e) Eosinophil
Q16. The following cell stains with Romanowsky stain, have 2- 5 lobes and give violet or
pinkish granules:
a) Neutrophil
b) Eosinophil
c) Basophil
d) Monocyte
e) Lymphocyte

Q17. Lymphocyte is elevated in:

a) Viral infection
b) Acute bacterial infection
c) Iron deficiency anaemia
d) Megaloblastic anaemia
e) None of the above

Q18. In presence of clotting defect one of this is not measured:

a) APTT
b) Thrombin
c) Fibrinogen
d) D-dimer
e) Leukocyte count

Q19. Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in:

a) Defect in vessels and platelets
b) Defect in RBC aggregation
c) Defect in WBC aggregation
d) All the above
e) None of the above
Q20. Haemoglobin S is the same defect as thalassaemia but the different is:
a) A long Beta chain
b) Glutamic acid on beta chain is substituted with valine
c) Valine on beta chain is substituted with Glutamic acid.
d) A long alpha chain
e) Glutamic acid on alpha chain is substituted with valine.

Q21.Hormone that cause replication of RBC:

a) Erythrin
b) Insulin
c) Erythropoietin
d) Myopoietin
e) Recticulin

Q22. Which of the following White blood cell give immunoglobulin?

a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Basophile
d) Monocyte
e) Eosinophil

Q23. The percentage of Neutrophil in blood is about:

a) 90%
b) 15%
c) 75%
d) 58%
e) 60%
Q24. Normal range of erythrocyte in blood is:
a) 2.5 – 5.0 X 10^9
b) 2.0 – 4.5 X 10^9
c) 3.5 – 9.5 X 10^9
d) 4. 5 – 6.5 X 10^9
e) 5.5 – 7.5 X 10^9

Q25. One of these cells is the largest leukocyte:

a) Neutrophil
b) Basophil
c) Monocyte
d) Lymphocyte
e) Eosinophil

Q26. Malaria chizonts are present in?

a) Reticulo-endothelial
b) RBCs
c) Leukocyte
d) Hepatocytes
e) Chondrocytes

Q27. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is?

a) Sliding
b) Phagocytosis
c) Chemo taxis
d) Diapedesis
e) Marginalization
Q28. Malaria does not grow in?
a) EDTA blood
b) Heparinised blood
c) Plasma
d) Blood
e) RBCs

Q29.Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is?
a) Carrier male
b) Diseased female
c) Carrier female
d) Diseased male
e) None of the above

Q30. The IVY method of bleeding time is for?

a) For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function)
b) Defect in RBC aggregation
c) Defect in WBC aggregation
d) All the above
e) None of the above

Q31. HbA is seen in the following stage of development

a) Embryonic stage
b) Foetal stage
c) Adult stage
d) Foetal and adult stage
e) All the above
Q32.HbF is seen in the following stage of development:
a) Embryonic stage
b) Foetal stage
c) Adult stage
d) Foetal and adult stage
e) All the above

Q33. Prolonged application of tourniquet may lead to;

a) Venous stasis and increased calcium level
b) Venous stasis and decreased calcium level
c) Venous stasis m and decreased sodium level
d) Venous stasis and decreased potassium level
e) All the above

Q34.Best time for collection of blood for malaria is :-

a) Before and after paroxysm
b) Shortly after paroxysm
c) Later paroxysm
d) Just before paroxysm
e) None of the above

Q35.In folic acid deficiency what happens to RBCs:-

a) Enlarged RBCs
b) Crenated RBCs
c) Haemolysed RBCs
d) RBCs are Microcytic
e) All the above
Q36.In iron deficiency anaemia what happens to RBCs:
a) Enlarged RBCs
b) Crenated RBCs
c) Haemolysed RBCs
d) RBCs are Microcytic
e) All the above

Q37.The malarial sporozoite in man invades:-

a) White blood cells
b) RBCs
c) Reticulo-endothelial cells
d) Chondrocytes
e) All of the above

Q38. The defect of thalassaemia occurs in:

a) Cycle of haem
b) All globin chains
c) Cycle of haem and globin chain
d) Only alpha and beta globin chains.
e) None of the above

Q39. All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:-

a) Lymph
b) Monocytes
c) RBCs
d) Neutrophil
e) Basophils
Q40. Romanowsky stain consists of:
a) Eosin + acidic methylene blue
b) Eosin only
c) Methylene blue only
d) Indian Ink
e) Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue

Q41. The Blood medium commonly used in blood bank:

a) Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A)
b) EDTA anticoagulant
c) Heparin anticoagulant
d) Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM)
e) All the above

Q42.Indirect anti-antibody test (Indirect Combs Test) is used to detect:

a) Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) Sensitized antibody in patient serum
e) Non of the above

Q43. Direct anti-antibody test (Direct Combs Test) is used to detect:

a) Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) Sensitized antibody in patient serum
e) Non of the above
Q44. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is:
a) Coombs reagent
b) Anti-Ab
c) IgG
d) All of the above
e) Non of the above

Q45. An Rh -ve patient means he/she does not have:

a) E antigen
b) D antigen
c) B antigen
d) C antigen
e) R antigen

Q46. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body) is:
a) 80 days
b) 120 day
c) 130 day
d) 20 day
e) 5- 7 days

Q47. Sensitized O cells are used in the lab for:

a) As control
b) To detect Ag
c) To detect Ab
d) All the above
e) None of the above
Q48. FFPs stored at - 80oC can last for:
a) 1year
b) 1month
c) 4 year
d) 2 year
e) 6year

Q49. The following is seen in an O+v e person

a) No presence of Ag
b) No presence of Ab
c) Presence o f Ag + Ab
d) All the above
e) None of the above

Q50. CPD -A anticoagulant is used to store blood for:

a) 45 days
b) 35 days
c) 5 days
d) 15 days
e) Non of the above

Q51. In Anti human globulin test we do wash RBCs because all serum contains:
a) Albumin
b) Alpha globulin
c) Beta globulin
d) Fibrinogen
e) Immunoglobulin
Q52. In O blood group the Ab in serum is :
a) Anti A/B
b) Anti A
c) Anti B
d) All of the above
e) Non of the above

Q53. Blood transfusion can transmit?

a) HIV
b) CMV
c) Hepatitis
d) Malaria
e) All the above

Q54. The following may cause false positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching
a) Cold Agglutinin
b) Warm agglutinin
c) Plasmin
d) Thrombus
e) Fibrin

Q55. You do the following in Major Cross-Match.

a) Donor Serum + Patient Cells
b) Donor Cells + Patient Serum
c) Donor cells + anti human globulin
d) Patient cells + anti human globulin
e) Donor and Patient cells + anti human globulin
Key
1 C
2 D
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 B
7 A
8 E
9 A
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 E
16 A
17 A
18 E
19 A
20 B
21 C
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 B
27 C
28 C
29 C
30 A
31 C
32 D
33 A
34 B
35 A
36 D
37 B
38 B
39 C
40 E
41 A
42 D
43 A
44 D
45 B
46 B
47 C
48 A
49 A
50 B
51 E
52 D
53 E
54 A
55 B