Six Monthly Exam 1st year (Haematology)

1. In adult life haemopoiesis is confined to: Answer: D

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. All bones
d. Vertebra and ribs
e. Spleen& liver
2. Haemopoietic cells are: Answer: A
a. CD 34+ ,CD38-
b. CD34- ,CD38+
c. CD34- , CD38-
d. CD34+,CD38+
e. CD34+, CD4-
3. Apoptosis is the process during which: Answer: D
a. Cell divides
b. Cell proliferates
c. DNA replicates
d. Programme cell death occurs
e. Cell multiplies
4. Most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemia is: Answer: A
a. Iron deficiency
b. Folate deficiency
c. B12 deficiency
d. Pernicious anaemia
e. B 6 deficiency
5. Hemolytic anemias are caused by: Answer: D
a. Blood loss
b. Deficiency of vitamin B12
c. Faulty absorption
d. Excessive destruction of blood cell
e. Folate deficiency
6. Reagent used to measure PT is: Answer: A
a. Thromboplastin
b. Kaolin
c. Thrombin
d. Leishman
e. Calcium chloride
7. Following are the good cytogenetic marker in AML: Answer: A
a. t (8:21)
b. t (16;11)
c. t (10;11)
d. t (9;22)
e. t(6:9)
8. For routine CBC examination which anticoagulant is used: Answer: B
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
 c. ACD
d. Sodium citrate
e. Lithium Heparin
9. Shelf life for tubes containing trisodium citrate as anticoagulant, in 9:1 ratio is : Answer: A
a. 3 months
b. 2 months
c. 1 month
d. 15 days
e. 45 days
10. Person having blood group O have following antigen of surface of RBC: Answer: D
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. No antigen
e. Both A &B antigen
11. Person having blood group AB have following Antibody in plasma: Answer: D
a. A antibody
b. B antibody
c. Both AB antibodies
d. No antibody
e. All of above
12. Severe hemophilia is typically associated with what percentage of factor VIII in Answer: A
the plasma?
a. Less than 1%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 3%
e. Less than 2%
13. Which of the following lab investigation is a feature of hemophilia? Answer: B
a. The prothrombin time is prolonged
b. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) time is prolonged
c. The thrombin time is prolonged
d. The bleeding time is prolonged
e. D.Dimer are increased
14. Fibrinogen deficiency is indicated by a prolonged:- Answer: C
a. Prothrombin time
b. APTT
c. Thrombin time
d. Bleeding time
e. Clotting Time
15. Protein C and S deficiency is type of: Answer: A
a. Herediatary thrombophilia
b. Acquired thrombophilia
c. Haemophilia
d. Von Willebrand Disease
e. Rare bleeding disorder
16. Which cell agglutinate most strongly with ulex Europeus lectin? Answer: B
 a. O and A2
b. A 1 and A2
c. O and A1B
d. B and A2B
e. All of above
17. Which ABH substance would you expect to find in the saliva of a group A Answer: B
secretor?
a. H only
b. H and A
c. H and B
d. H and O
e. All of above
18. A newborn with ABO incompatibility, the characteristic feature on peripheral Answer: D
smear is the presence of:
a. Polychromasia
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Elliptocytosis
d. Microsperocytes
e. Ovalocytes
19. Cause of Vit B12 deficiency Megaloblastic anaemia is: Answer: B
a. Gastrectomy
b. Fish tape worm infestation
c. Decreased ferritin level
d. Dilantin therapy
e. Duodenostomy
20. If peripheral blood film is made from heparinized blood, slide will be: Answer: A
a. Too blue
b. Too pink
c. Too red
d. Too green
e. Too Purple
21. Following is used for staining iron: Answer: C
a. Leishman stain
b. H&E
c. Prussian blue
d. Gram stain
e. Sudan Black
22. Fixative used in leishman stain: Answer: A
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Ether
d. Zenker solution
e. Sorensor Buffer
23. ZN stain is used for staining: Answer: B
a. Parasites
b. Mycobacteria
c. Fungi
 d. RBCs
e. Retics
24. Sudan black is used for: Answer: C
a. Differentiating β-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
b. Differentiating neutrophils and eosinophils
c. Differentiating myeloblasts and lymphoblasts
d. Differentiating RBCs from lymphocytes
e. Differentiating myeloblasts from monoblasts
25. Leishman stain is composed of: Answer: C
a. Methylene blue
b. Methyl violet
c. Azure B, Eosin Y
d. Hematoxylin
e. Eosin
26. For Cytogenetic analysis which of the following anticoagulant is used: Answer: A
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. ACD
d. Sodium citrate
e. Potassium citrate
27. Normal Bleeding Time by Dukes method is: Answer: C
a. 4 – 7 minutes
b. 5 – 7 minutes
c. 2 – 7 minutes
d. 1 – 2 minutes
e. 5-6 minutes
28. Normal range of Haemoglobin in an adult male is: Answer: B
a. 11 - 15 g/dl
b. 13 – 17 g/dl
c. 15 – 19 g/dl
d. 10 – 13 g/dl
e. 13-15g/dl
29. For optimal staining the required pH of leishman stain is: Answer: A
a. 6.8
b. 6.0
c. 7.9
d. 8.5
e. 7.2
30. Normal percentage of lymphocytes in peripheral blood of an adult is: Answer: B
a. 40 – 75%
b. 20 – 45%
c. 2 – 10%
d. 1 – 6%
e. 20- 40 %
31. Measuring Haemoglobin concentration by Automated method is based on: Answer: B
a. Oxyhaemoglobin
b. Manual cynomethaemoglobin
 c. Sulphhemoglobin
d. Deoxyhaemoglobin
e. Fluorescence Method
32. In hypersegmented neutrophil there are: Answer: D
a. 1or 2 lobes
b. 2 or 3 lobes
c. 3 or 4 lobes
d. 5 or more lobes
e. 4 or more lobes
33. The largest cell in Peripheral blood circulation is: Answer: D
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Platelet
d. Monocyte
e. Basophil
34. The cytochemical stain which distinguish myeloblast from lymphoblast is: Answer: C
a. TRAP
b. PAS
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. Leuko Alkaline Phosphatese(LAP)
e. ACP
35. The cytochemical stain which shows block positivity is: Answer: A
a. PAS
b. Sudan block
c. Non specific esterase
d. Myelopenoxidase
e. TRAP
36. CD maker positive for AML is: Answer: C
a. CD2 and CD3
b. CD5 and CD7
c. CD13 and CD33
d. CD19 and CD22
e. CD4 and CD 8
37. In ALL prognosis is unfavorable: Answer: D
a. When the total WB is low
b. In a female child
c. Patient age between 2-10 years
d. Philadelphia chromosomes is present
e. When Platelets are 50 x 109/L
38. Auer rods are found in the cytoplasm of: Answer: A
a. Myeloblast
b. Monoblast
c. Lymphocyte
d. Myelocytes
e. Neutrophil
39. Confirmation of myelofibrosis is usually done by: Answer: B
a. Bone marrow aspiration
 b. Bone marrow biopsy
c. Splenic aspiration
d. Immunophenotyping
e. Immunohistochemistry
40. Best method to diagnose malaria is:- Answer: C
a. Electrophoresis
b. Blood culture
c. Thick and thin film
d. PCR
e. ICT Method
41. Following is the cause of decrease ESR:- Answer: B
a. Pregnancy
b. Sickle cell disease
c. T.B
d. Chronic liver disease
e. Rheumatoid Arthritis
42. Medium commonly used for electrophoresis:- Answer: B
a. Agar gel
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Cellulose citrate
d. Loefflers medium
e. Agarose gel
43. Normal range of platelets in adult blood is:- Answer: B
a. 100 – 350 x 109/L
b. 150 – 450 x 109/L
c. 80 – 300 x 109/L
d. 150 - 250x 109/L
e. 150_ 460 x 109 /L
44. EDTA inhibits blood from clotting by:- Answer: B
a. Binding chloride
b. Binding calcium
c. Binding plasma
d. Binding red blood cells
e. Binding citrate
45. The type of staining we use to stain reticulocytes is called: Answer: A
a. Supra-vital
b. Ultra-vital
c. Giemsa Stain
d. Counter staining
e. Wright Staining
46. Pseudo thrombocytopenia is caused by which of the following anticoagulants:- Answer: B
a. Sodium citrate
b. EDTA
c. Heparin
d. Alcohol
e. Potassium citrate
 Prolong thrombin time is due to deficiency of which of the following clotting Answer: D
47.
factor:-
a. Factor V deficiency
b. Factor VII deficiency
c. Factor VIII deficiency
d. Fibrinogen deficiency
e. Factor IX deficiency

48. Neubauer chamber is used for:-

a. Hb electrophoresis
b. DLC
c. Coagulation studies
d. Staining
e. Retic Staining

Correct answer: b

49. Following are the causes of raised ESR except:-

a. Anaemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Polycythemia
d. Infection
e. T.B

Correct answer: c

50. To Measure the ESR, ratio of blood to trisodium citrate is:-

(a) 9:1
(b) 4:1
(c) 5:1
(d) 8:1
(e) 1:9
Correct Answer: b
51. ESR can be performed by:-
(a) Westergren / Wintrobes method
(b) IVY Method
(c) Duke’s Method
(d) Leishman Stain
(e) Micro hematocrit method

Correct answer: a

52. Dye reduction test is done for screening of :-

(a) G6PD deficiency
 (b) Thalassemia
(c) Sickle Cell
(d) Leukemia
(e) Hereditary Spherocytosis

Correct answer: a

53. For antibody detection in transfusion medicine by heat elution method, temp of water
bath is kept at:
(a) 37oC
(b) 40oC
(c) 20oC
(d) 56oC
(e) 38oC

Correct answer: d

54. PT measure activity of

(a) Intrinsic pathway
(b) Extrinsic pathway
(c) Common pathway
(d) Protein c pathway
(e) Protein S pathway

55. The final step in aPTT procedure to form the clot is addition of
(a) Calcium chloride
(b) Calcium phosphate
(c) Calcium oxalate
(d) Calcium gluconate
(e) Calcium Citrate

56. Platelets have a life span of

a. 12 days
b. 10 days
c. 8 days
d. 15 days
e. None of above

57. Osmotic fragility test is used for diagnosis of

a. G6PD deficiency
b. Iron deficiency anaemia
 c. Megaloblastic anaemia
d. Herediatary Spherocytosis
e. Immune haemolysis

58. HbF is found normally is:-

(a) Adult
(b) Children under 6 month
(c) Old age
(d) Women
(e) At 3 years of age

Correct answer: b

59. Thalassemia is due to defect in:-

(a) Globin synthesis
(b) Haem synthesis
(c) Iron
(d) WBC
(e) Haemoglobin Synthesis

Correct answer: a

60. Increased in number of platelets is called:-

(a) Anaemia
(b) Leukocytosis
(c) Thrombocytosis
(d) Erythrocytosis
(e) Thrombocytopenia

Correct answer: c

61. Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway?

a. PT
b. aPTT
c. TT
d. Closure time
e. Clotting Time

62. A defect in which of these coagulation factors would result in abnormal PT and aPTT:
a. Factor II
b. Factor VII
 c. Factor XI
d. Factor IX
e. Factor VIII
63. Which of the following translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML-M3)?
a) t(9;22)
b) t(11;14)
c) t(15;17)
d) t(8;14)
e) t (8:21)

Answer : C

64. A 5 years old boy presented with progressive pallor and easy fatigability. His CBC
shows, TLC: 5x 10 9 /L, platelets 234 x 10 9/ L and Hb of 7 g/dl with MCV of 61fl and
MCH of 21pg. His DLC include 30% neutrophils, 52% lymphocytes, 2% monocytes and
16% eosinophils. What is the most likely cause of his anaemia?

a) Worm infestation
b) Blood loss
c) Strict vegetarian diet
d) Bone marrow failure
e) Acute leukemia
Key: A
65. A 10 year old male, known patient of thalassemia major with history of recurrent Red
cell transfusions. Monitoring of iron overload should be assessed with which of the
following test:
a) Serum iron
b) Serum ferritin
c) TIBC
d) Serum transferrin saturation
e) Perls stain of bone marrow fragment
Key: B

66. A 55 year old male has developed progressive weakness of both limbs, easy
fatigability and pallor. His Hb was 9.5 g/dl with MCV 112 fl, MCH 34 pg. He had
 history of partial gastrectomy and oesophagectomy 10 years back. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a) Hemolytic anaemia
b) Megaloblastic anaemia
c) MDS
d) Anaemia of chronic disease
e) Iron deficiency anaemia
Key: B
67. A woman of 32 years age developed shortness of breath and easy fatigability.
Her Hb was 10.5 g/dl. What will be the first sign on peripheral film if she has iron
deficiency anaemia?
a) Hypochromia
b) Anisocytosis
c) Poikilocytosis
d) Microcytosis
e) Target cells
Key: B

68. A patient has been diagnosed as a case of megaloblastic anemia. Which of the
following form is used in the treatment of megaloblastic anaemia:
a) Methycobalamin
b) Ado cobalamin
c) Hydroxy cobalamin
d) Methyl tetrahydrofolate
e) Methotrexate
Key: A

69. A 27 year female, gravida 3 and para 2, presented with iron deficiency anaemia.
Her daily requirement of iron is:
a) 0.5 mg/day
 b) 1 mg/days
c) 2 mg/day
d) 0.6 mg/day
e) 1.5- 3 mg/day
Key: E
70. VwF is synthesised in:

a. Endothelial cells

b. Megakaryocytes

c. Platelets

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

Key: d
71. A 58 year old lady, known case of Hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus type II for last
two years presented with Hb of 9.1 g/dl with MCV of 112fl. O/E she has vitiligo, no
visceromegaly. Peripheral blood shows macro-ovalocytes. What will be the most likely
diagnosis:
a) Iron deficiency anaemia
b) Pernicious anaemia
c) Hemolytic anaemia
d) Aplastic anemia
e) Anaemia of chronic disorder
Key: B

72. A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of easy fatigability, pallor and
breathlessness on exertion. O/E he has lemon tinged skin and no visceromegaly. His
CBC reveal TLC 2.3 x 10 9/L, Platelet 35 x 10 9 /L, Hb 6.7 g/dl with retics of 0.3 %. All
of the following can cause megaloblastic anaemia except:
a) Colectomy
b) Ileal resection
c) Pernicious anaemia
d) Fish tapeworm infestation
e) Methotrexate
Key: A
73. A 42 years old female, a known patient of rheumatoid arthritis, presented with pallor for
the last 6 months. Her Hb was 9.0 g/dl with MCV of 73fl and ESR 98 mm at end of 1 st
hour. Further workup shows serum ferritin 85 ug/L (14 – 150 ug/L), total iron binding
capacity is 30 umol /L (40- 75 umol/L) and serum iron is 8 umol/L (10- 30 umol/L). Her
most likely diagnosis is :
a) Iron deficiency anaemia
b) Anaemia of chronic disease
c) Thalassemia major
d) Thalassemia minor
e) Sideroblastic anaemia
Key: B
74. A 25 year old man presented with complaints of generalized weakness. He has
undergone laparotomy and illeal resection was done 6 months back. His peripheral
smear revealed anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and macro-ovalocytes. What is the most
likely cause of these morphological findings:
a) Iron deficiency
b) Vit K deficiency
c) Vitamin B12 deficiency
d) Intrinsic factor deficiency
e) Hepcidin excess
Key: C

75. A 14 year old female presented with complaints of High grade fever, drowsiness and
vomiting for last 7 days. On examination: A sick looking young female with multiple
bruises on body. CBC showed WBC of 13.0 x 10 9/L, Hb 5.6 g/dl. On peripheral
smear examination there was marked fragmentation and leucoerythroblastic blood
picture with decrease platelet count. Coagulation profile is normal. LDH is 999 IU/.
Direct coombs test is negative. What is your most likely diagnosis?

a) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
c) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
e) Malaria
Key: C
76. A 18 years old girl develops massive bleeding from a wound site 4 week after a large
cyst is removed from her right thigh. Local measures to control bleeding were
unsuccessful. She also has past history of delayed wound healing. There is no family
history of increased bleeding. Her PT, aPTT, TT, platelet count and bleeding time are
normal. Which of the following test to be ordered for further evaluation of bleeding
disorder?
a) VWF levels
b) Factor XII
c) Urea clot lysis test
d) Mixing studies
e) D-dimers
Key: C
77. A new born baby, delivered full term at home presented at 3rd day of life with petechiae
and bruises. He is exclusively breast fed. His lab investigations shows prolong PT and
aPTT, which is corrected with mixing with normal control plasma. Most likely he is
suffering from:
a) Vitamin K deficiency
b) Haemophilia A
c) Haemophilia B
d) Sickle cell disease
e) Haemolytic anaemia
Key: A
78. A 60 years old patient had pulmonary embolism. He is given intravenous Heparin. How
will we check the response to treatment:
a) aPTT
b) Anti Xa assay
c) PT
d) Hess test
e) VWF level
Key: B
79. A 45 years old male presented with myocardial infarction in emergency department.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for arterial thrombosis?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Male sex
c) Hyperhomocysteinemia
d) Folic acid intake
e) Hypertension
Key: D
80. A 15 years old girl had heavy menstrual flow and occasional epistaxis. Physical
examination was unremarkable. Blood tests showed Hb 10.0 g/dl, RBC 3.8 x 10 12/l,
MCV 68fl, MCH 22.6 pg, WBC 6.2 x 10 9 /L and platelets 220 x 10 9 /L. She is
suspected to have vWD. Which of the following would be initial test to help in the
diagnosis
a) Bleeding time
b) PFA 100
c) Clotting time
d) Serum fibrinogen
e) D Dimer
Key: B
81. A 5 year old male patient presented with history of gum bleeding and epistaxis on and
off since birth. CBC revealed WBC: 5.6 X1O 9/l, Hb 9.5 g/dl and Platelet count 34 X10
9/L with giant platelets on peripheral smear. Bleeding time is more than 15 mins. What
is your most likely diagnosis:
a) Von Willebrand disease.
b) Bernard – Soulier syndrome
c) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
d) Immune thrombocytopenia
e) Hemophilia A
Key: B
82. A 27 year old pregnant woman referred to haematology clinic for low platelet count. She
is diagnosed as gestational thrombocytopenia. What is the most important
confirmatory investigation in this case.
a) Bone marrow examination
b) Review of the peripheral blood film
c) Renal function tests
d) Serum Ferritin levels
e) Ultrasound abdomen
Key: B
83. A 62 years old female presented to emergency department with marked pallor, bruises
and bleeding from gums. Physical examination was normal. CBC revealed Hb 8.5 g/dl,
MCV 70 fl, WBC 7 x 10 9/L and platelets 5 x 10 9/L. What investigation will be most
helpful in diagnosis
a) Bleeding time
b) Bone marrow examination
c) Coagulation profile
d) Thrombophilia screening
e) Platelet function studies
Key: B
84. A newborn male child born to a multiparous and healthy woman, presented with
purpuric spots on the scalp, abdomen and lower limbs. He is afebrile and there is no
organomegaly. CBC revealed WBC: 10 X10 9/l, Hb: 14 g/dl and platelet count of 14 x
10 9/l. There is passage of fresh blood in the stool. What is the most likely cause of
thrombocytopenia in this case:
a) Maternal hypertension
b) Acute leukaemia
c) Sepsis
d) Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
e) TTP
Key: D
85. A two year old child has been admitted due to 3 days history of fever and bloody
diarrhea. On examination he was pale and lethargic. His initial workup shows Hb 7.2
g/dl, Platelets 45 x 10 9/L and RBC fragments on peripheral blood film. What is the
most likely cause of this illness:
a) Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
b) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
c) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
d) Von Willebrand Disease
e) Intussusception
Key: A
86. A 76 year old woman presented with small purpuric spots on her hands and forearms
for the last three weeks. On physical examination she is afebrile and has no
organomegaly. Her laboratory investigations show PT 14 / 14 sec, aPTT 32/ 32 sec.
CBC shows Hb 12.7 g/dl, Platelet 276 x 10 9/l, TLC 5.6 x 10 9/l, Fibrinogen level is 4
g/l and no FDPs are detectable. Which of the following condition best explains this
finding?
a) Disseminated Intravascular coagulation
b) Chronic Renal failure
c) Meningococcemia
d) Senile Purpura
e) Metastatic carcinoma
Key: D
87. A 32 years old male patient presented with history of pallor, fever and generalized
weakness. On CBC Hb was 7 g/dl. Red cell indices were normal and reticulocyte
count was 5%. Peripheral blood smear revealed spherocytes. All of the following are
the signs of extravascular hemolysis except:
a) Jaundice
b) Splenomegaly
c) Hepatomegaly
d) Haemoglobinuria
e) Urobilinogen
Key:D
88. A known patient of systemic lupus erythematosis presents with fever and fatigue.
Physical examination reveals malar rash, pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. CBC
reveals normochromic, normocytic red cell morphology with Hb 6 g/dl and raised
reticulocytes. Which of the following test would confirm the cause of patient’s low
Haemoglobin levels:
a) Heinz body preparation
b) Enzyme assays of RBC’s
c) BM aspirate
 d) Osmotic fragility
e) Direct coombs test
Key: E
89. A 12 years male child presented with high grade persistent fever associated with chills
and rigors, dyspnea, dizziness and back pain. He also gives history of an episode of
reddish brown urine. On CBC Hb is 7 g/dl, red cell indices were normal. On peripheral
film there were polychromasia, Heinz bodies and RBC fragmentation. Coombs test
was negative. The most likely cause of these findings:
a) Malarial infection
b) Hereditary spherocytosis
c) Sickle cell anaemia
d) Thalassaemia trait
e) G6PD deficiency
Key: E
90. Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except:
a. Phenytoin
b. Methotrexate
c. Primthamine
d. Amoxycilline
e. Paracetamol
Key: d

91. A 1 year old child presented with severe macrocytic anemia with sub-nephrotic range
protienuria. His Vit B12 levels are low. The diagnosis is
a. Imerslund-grasbeck disease
b. Thiamine deficiency
c. Roger syndrome
d. Pearson syndrome
e. DIDMOD Syndrome
Key: a

92. Which of the following is not true about tropical sprue

a. Not corrected by folate treatment
b. Corrected by antibiotic treatment
c. More severely affect the distal ileum
d. Have both folate and cobalamins deficiency
e. It causes megaloblastic anaemia
Key: a
93. The earliest specific indicator of folate deficiency is:
a. Serum folate level
b. Red cell folate level
c. Anemia
d. Elevated homocysteine level
e. Serum Vit B12 levels
Key: a

94. Macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:

a. Acute blood loss
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. B12 deficiency
d. Folate deficiency
e. Combine Vit B12 and Folate deficiency
Key: a

95. A 60 year old patient presented with anemia requiring blood transfusion, there is also
associated mild thrombocytosis. The most likely diagnosis is
a. GI bleed
b. MDS 5q
c. Both of above
d. Acute Leukaemia
e. Aplastic Anaemia
Key: c

96. Earliest neurological sign of megaloblastic anemia is:

a. Loss of position sense
b. Loss of vibration sense
c. Dysdiadochokinesia
d. Rombergs sign positive
e. Exaggerated ankle jerk
Key: a
97. Cobalamin defciency is characterised by all of the following except
a. Esophageal webs
b. Glossitis
c. Cognitive impairment
d. Jaundice
e. Red beefy tongue
Key: a
98. Which of the following may be associated pernicious anemia
a. Ileal resection
b. Anti-thyroid antibodies
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Malabsorption
e. SLE
Key: b

99. Folate deficiency during pregnancy can cause

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Neural tube defect
c. Phocomelia
d. Duodenal atresia
e. Thrombocytopenia in new born
Key: b

100. For coagulation studies, blood sample of a patient is taken in anti- coagulant as:
a. Heparin
b. Tri sodium citrate
c. EDTA
d. CPD
e. Coumarin
Key: b