Professional Documents
Culture Documents
C. Antipyrine A. Promyelocyte
D. Chloramphenicol B. Band neutrophils
E. Pituitrin C. Myelocytes
Vasodilation and bronchoconstriction would D. Metamyelocyte
be associated with which blood cells?
E. Myeloblast
A. Eosinophils
What is the anticoagulant of choice if there
B. Monocytes is pseudoleukocytosis?
C. Neutrophils A. EDTA
D. Basophils B. Sodium citrate
E. Lymphocytes C. Double oxalate
D. Heparin
E. Acid citrate dextrose Hgb F determination
In the myeloid series, the first appearance of Diagnose H spherocytosis
cytoplasmic granules is seen in what cell?
E Test for PNH
A. Myelocyte
A. Dithionite solubility
B. Metamyelocyte
B. Singer test
C. Promyelocyte
C. EOFT
D. Myeloblast
D. Schilling’s test
E. Band cell
E. Sucrose hemolysis test
Which of the following diluting fluids contain
Which of the following is true regarding
substances that will NOT lyse RBCs?
erythrocyte maturation?
A. Turk’s fluid
A. These are four cell division takes places
B. 2% acetic acid place from blast to mature RBC
C. Hayem’s B. RBC maturation takes place approximately
72 hours
D. 3% HCl
C. Multiple nucleoli are present in rubriblast
E. C and D
D. A and B
Basophils contain large amounts of which of
the following secretory products? E. A,B,C
A. Histamine Which of the following maturing red cell is
capable of hemoglobin synthesis?
B. Acid phosphatase
A. Basophilic normoblast
C. Immunoglobulins
B. Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte
D. Myeloperoxidase
C. Metarubricyte
E. A and B
D. A and B
This abnormal RBC shape develops from
excess cell membrane or a decrease in Hgb E. A,B,C
that results in a relative membrane increase
Extrusion of nuclear material occurs in what
A. Acanthocyte stage of maturing RBC?
B. Codocyte A. Rubriblast
C. Spherocyte B. Metarubricyte
D. Schistocytes C. Basophilic rubricyte
Which of the following RBC abnormalities What is the actiom oh phloxine in the diluting
are seen in the blood smear of a patient with fluid for direct eosinophil count?
megaloblastic anemia?
A. Acts as accentuator
A. Schistocyte
B. Stains eosinophils red
B. Macroovalocyte
C. Lyses RBC
C. Microcyte
D. Prevents clumping of cells
D. Spherocyte
In the HiCN method, these forms of
What is the anticoagulant of choice for hemoglobin are converted to
platelet counting? hemoglobincyanide?
A. EDTA A. Hgb
D. Heparin D. HbCO
Which of the following conditions is E. ALL
associated with the presence of
Which of the following is NOT a diluent in
hypersegmented neutrophils in the
manual WBC count?
peripheral blood smear?
A. Glacial acetic acid
A. Severe infection
B. Drabkin’s reagent
B. Allergy
C. Turk’s fluid
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. 1% HCl
D. Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid Deficiency
Total WBC count times % of each type of
Red blood cells in hereditary spherocytosis
leukocyte in the differential count is for the
are
A. Corrected cell count
A. Normocytic
B. Direct relative cell count
B. Microcytic
C. Absolute count
C. Hyperchromic
D. Indirect relative count
D. Normochromic
Which of these will shift the oxygen curve to B. Protein Band 4.1
the right?
C. Glycophorin A
A. Acidosis
D. Glycophorin B
B. Alkalosis
E. Protein Band 3
C. Hypothermia
Which of the following integral proteins
D. Decrease 23DPG Level transports the negatively charged
neuraminic acid within the red cell
C Pelger huet
membrane?
B Alder relly
A. Alpha and Beta spectrin
A Chediak Higashi
B. Protein band 3
E Dohle bodies
C. Glycophorins
D May Heglin Anomaly
D. RH antigens
A. With giant lysosomal inclusion
E. ICAM-4
B. Associated with mucopolysaccharidoses
Which of the following membrane protein if
C. Neutrophilic inclusion caused by injury defective is associated with paroxysman
nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
D. Blue spindle inclusion with >5um in diameter
A. Spectrin
E. Halted nuclear lobulation
B. Protein band 4.1
Which of the following statement/s is/are
TRUE regarding RBC metabolic system? C. Protein band 3
B. vWD A. 1:9
C. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia B. 4:1
C. Heparin C. Culling
D. Potassium Lithium Oxalate D. Transit
Which of the following is the effect in a Process of replacing the active marrow by
patient who some 5 cigarette sticks before adipose tissue during development:
blood collection:
A. Kinetics
A. Increase WBC and cortisol level
B. Progression
B. Increase potassium and sodium level
C. Retrogression
C. Increase RBC and cortisol level
D. Culling
D. Decrease hemoglobin and RBC level
All of the following are compositions of
Muscle activity such as exercise elevates yellow marrow EXCEPT:
which of the following values:
A. Fat cells
A. Hemoglobin and RBC count
B. Differentiated mesenchymal cells
B. Creatinine and protein
C. Macrophages
C. Protein and glucose level
D. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
D. Platelet and sodium level
Macrophages that remove cellular and
Change from supine position to sitting foreign debris from the blood that circulates
position results in; through the liver:
D. Promyelocyte A. Promyelocyt
This stimulates the granulocyte release from B. Promonocyte
the bone marrow
C. Myelocyte
A. GM-CSF
D. Myeloblast
B. IL-3
High nuclear to cytoplasm ratio, with
C. G-CSF prominent nucleoli and presence of 20
visible azurophilic granules:
D. HSC
A. Promyelocyte
This is used to differentiate HSC from CMP:
B. Neutrophil
A. Wright’s stain
C. Type I myeloblast
B. Giemsa stain
D. Type II myeloblast
C. Romanowsky stain
Measures 14-16um, 20-30% in the bone
D. Flow cytometry
marrow, with indented kidney-bean shaped
All of the following are present in the primary nucleus, and more clumpled chromatin:
azurophilic granules EXCEPT:
A. Promyelocyte
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Myelocyte
B. Cathepsins
C. Metamyelocyte
C. Elastase
D. Band
D. Beta-2-microglobulin
32% in the bone marrow, no cytoplasmic
Contains secondary specific granules: basophilia, highly clumped nucleus with
indentation greater than ½ of its diameter
A. Myeloblast and promyelocyte
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte D. 18 hours
C. Metamyelocyte Monocytic series from the earliest
progenitor:
D. Band
A. Monoblast-monocyte
Round nucleus with immature chromatin
containing charcot-leyden crystals: B. Promyelocyte-metamyelocyte-myelocyte-
band-monocyte
A. Neutrophilic promyelocyte
C. Monoblast-promyelocyte-metamyelocyte-
B. Eosinophilic promyelocyte
monocyte
C. Basophilic myelocyte
D. Monoblast-promonocyte-monocyte
D. Neutrophilic myeloblast
Macrophage found in the skin:
Absolute normal value of neutrophils found
A. Type A cell
in the peripheral blood:
B. Dendritic cells
A. 50-75%
C. Langerhan cells
B. 45-60%
D. Microglia
C. 2.3-8.7 x 109/L
Spleen filters how many mL of blood:
D. 1.3-5.7 x 109/L
A. 100 mL blood/minute
The transit time for myeloblast to become
myelocyte: B. 350 mL blood/hour
A. 1 day C. 100 mL blood/hour
D. Hb A1 A. Fibronectin
A. Alpha2beta2 C. Laminin
B. Alpha2gamma2 D. Collagen
A Which of the following is part of the first C. Ferrochelatase reduce and inserts iron in the
phase of glucose metabolism under EMP PIX ring
pathway?
D. ALA synthetase is located in the cytosol of a
E Which of the following statement is FALSE developing RBC
regarding EMP pathway?
E. Protophorhyrinogen oxidase is responsible
D Which of the following is part of the for forming the heme ring
second phase of glucose metabolism in the
C Which of the following curves represents
EMP pathway?
the gamma globin chain production
C Which among reactions below where
D Which curve is for beta globin chain?
lactate dehydrogenase will react to
eventually form lactic acid B Which of the curves represents the alpha
polypeptide chain?
B Which of the following is part of the third
phase of glucose metabolism in the EMP E Which of these curves represents the delta
pathway? polypeptide chain?
A. Hexokinase catabolizes glucose forming G6P Timeline of globin chain production from
and ADP intrauterine to adulthood (graph)
C. Phosphoenol pyruvate is acted upon by A. An increase of H+ ion in the plasma may lead
pyruvate kinase forming pyruvate and ADP to increase binding of 2,3DPG to the globin
chain to favour T-formation
D. Biphosphoglycerate phosphatase is the
enzyme responsible for forming 3PG and G3P B. A decrease in the plasma pH may
consequently increase the release of oxygen to
E. Enolase converts 2-PG to PEP
the tissue
The glycolipids of the RBC membrane:
C. Shifting of the curve to the left may happen if
A. Provides flexibility the blood pH reaches 7.6
A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. MCHC
B. Carbaminohemoglobin C. MCV
C. Sulfhemoglobin D. RDW
C. Cell number
D. Antigenic identification
A WBC count is done on an automated The demarcating membrane system (DMS)
impedance cell counter from a patient with begins to form in what stage of platelet
leukoerythroblastosis. The WBC count is maturation?
most likely:
A. Megakaryoblast
A. Falsely increased due to nRBCs
B. Promegakaryocyte
B. Falsely increased due to RBC fragments
C. Megakaryocyte
C. Falsely decreased due to nRBCs
D. Metamegakaryocyte
D. Accurate; no error with this methodology
Stem cell marker:
Automated cell counters should be
A. CD16
calibrated:
B. CD56
A. At least every 6 months
C. CD34
B. After replacement of any major part
D. CD10
C. Using commercially available controls
A well-defined hof and a cart-wheel like
D. All of the above
pattern of chromatin are characteristics of:
On automated hematology analyzers,
A. Macrophages
marked red blood cell fragments will cause
an abnormal histogram and/or scatterplots B. Plasma cells
for:
C. Megakaryocytes
A. WBCs and RBCs
D. Mast cells
B. RBCs and Platelets
A single megakaryocyte can produce how
C. WBCs and Platelets many platelets?
A. 0-18mm C. May-Grunwald
B. 0-50mm D. Giemsa
C. 10-20/OIO A. 4:1
D. 20-50/OIO B. 1:5
D. TIBC C. Drepanocyte
In which of the following conditions does D. Dacryocyte
LAP show the least activity?
According to FAB, to establish the diagnosis
1. Leukemoid reaction for leukemia, the percentage of blasts found
in the bone marrow should be:
2. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
A. ≥ 20%
3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. ≥ 30%
4. Polycythemia vera
C. ≥ 15%
A. 1, 2, and 4
D. ≥ 40%
B. 2, 3, and 4
Stage in the myelocytic series wherein a
C. 3 only
given granulocyte can be identified:
D. 1 only
A. Promyelocyte
Cells exhibiting a positive stain with tartrate-
B. Myeloblast
resistant acid phosphatase are
characteristically seen in: C. Metamyelocyte
A. Infectious mononucleosis D. Myelocyte
B. Hairy cell leukemia A term that describes a plasma cell with red
to pink cytoplasm is known as:
C. Sezary syndrome
A. Grape cell
D. Gaucher’s disease
B. Morula cell
Auer rods may be seen in which of the
following: C. Flame cell
1. Acute myeloblastic leukemia D. Plasmacytoid lymphocyte
2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia Faggot cells are predominantly seen in
which type of leukemia?
3. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
A. M1
4. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
B. M2
A. 1, 2, and 3
C. M3
B. 2, 3, and 4
D. M4 Hemoglobin configuration characteristic of
Hemoglobin H:
Which of these tests will determine the
inability of phagocyte to kill ingested A. Gamma4
microorganisms?
B. Alpha2-Gamma2
A. LAP score
C. Beta4
B. NBT dye test
D. Alpha2-Delta2
C. Boyden chamber assay
Which of the following match(es) is/are
D. All of these incorrect?
Oval macrocytes, Howell-Jolly bodies and 1. Stomatocyte- Mouth cell
hypersegmented neutrophils are associated
2. Spherocyte- Bronze cell
with what condition?
3. Schistocyte- Fragmented cell
A. Broadfish tapeworm infection
4. Elliptocyte- Pear shaped cell
B. Cyanocobalamin deficiency
5. Acanthocyte- Burr cell
C. Pteroylglutamic acid deficiency
6. Ovalocyte- Mexican hat cell
D. All of these
A. 1, 2, and, 3
Which of the following stains are most often
positive in ALL but are negative in AML? B. 4, 5, and 6
D. Sulfhemoglobin
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Ehler- Danlos, von Willebrand and Bernard
aplastic anemia? Soulier are all qualitative platelet disorders
that have abnormalities of:
A. May be due to drugs such as
chloramphenicol, or chemicals such as benzene A. Adhesion
D. Cyclooxygenase
Contents of platelet dense granules: A. Prolonged PT
1. Serotonin B. Prolonged APTT
B. Endothelial cells C. V
C. Thrombocytes D. X
B. Values are outside the numerical limits preset B. Hairy cell leukemia
by the user
C. Burkitt type
C. Analysis error
D. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Distribution error
Anemia is a feature in this/these leukemia(s)
The size threshold range used by electrical in its early stage(s):
impedance methods to count particles as
A. CML
platelets is:
B. AML
A. 0-10 fL
C. CLL
B. 2-20 fL
D. A and B only
C. 15-40 fL
Auer bodies are seen in the following:
D. 35-90 fL
A. M1
High levels of basophils is seen in this type
of leukemia: B. M2
C. M3 Blast cell with irregular cytoplasm and slight
indentation of nucleus:
D. All
A. Rubriblast
This WBC has the capacity of destroying
helminthic larvas: B. Myeloblast
A. Neutron C. Lymphoblast
B. Eo D. Monoblast
A. May-Hegglin A. CML
B. Promyelocyte B. Eo
C. Myelocyte C. Monocyte
A. Coagulation A. Embolus
B. Hemostasis B. Thrombus
C. Vasoconstriction C. Platelet
C. Heparin D. Earlobe
The bleeding time test measures: The PTT test is a good measure of quantity
and function of which of the following
A. The ability of platelets to stick together
factors except:
B. Platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally
A. VIII and IX
injured vascular subendothelium
B. VII and XIII
C. The quantity and quality of platelets
C. I and II
D. Antibodies against platelets
D. V and X
If a protime or PTT cannot be run
immediately, it is best to:
A. Wait to centrifuge the whole blood Thrombine test measures:
B. Clotting time A. BT
C. Clot Retraction time B. Ristocetin assay
A. S, A, F C. nRBC
B. A, A2, C D. Reticulocytes
C. A2, F The cyanmethemoglobin procedure
measures all hemoglobins except:
D. A, A2
A. Methemoglobin
In the improved Neubauer ruling, the 400 sm
sqs are composed of: B. Sulfhemoglobin
A. 25 grps of 16 sqs C. Deoxyhemoglobin
93. What hemoglobin is NOT present during 100. What is the rationale why the blue tube is
the adult stage? filled first with blood before the green tube?
a. Hgb A1 a. To prevent hemodilution of blood
b. Hgb A2 sample
c. Hgb F b. To ensure that hemolysis
d. A and B c. To prevent the possible error in
e. None of the choices coagulation studies
d. To prevent the possible error in gas
94. The stage of the red cell maturation where analysis
the Hgb is admixed with the basophilic
property of the cytoplasm, giving a red-blue 101. The reason why should a phlebotomist
color: not to prolong the application of the torniquet:
a. Rubricyte a. Prevent possible increase WBC ct
b. Prorubriblast b. Prevent RBC lysis
c. Metarubricyte c. To ensure blood will be free from
d. None possible tissue fluid contamination
d. All of the above
95. The reticulocyte resides for how many
days in the marrow before it will gain exit and 102. Anticoagulant that prevents clotting by
goes to circulation? chelation process
a. 3-4 days a. EDTA
b. 3 days b. Sodium citrate
c. 5 days c. Heparin
d. 2 days d. Double oxalate
96. The RBC precursor cell that is usually 103. Anticoagulant ideal to prevent platelet
mistaken with myeloblast stage satellitism
a. Rubriblast a. Anticoagulant in a black tube
b. Prorubricyte b. Heparin
c. Metarubricyte c. Anticoagulant in a yellow tube
d. Sodium citrate c. Protein rich in arginine and lysine
d. A and B
104. The following statements are true e. A, B, C
regarding venipuncture except
a. Avoid areas with hematomas, burns, 110. A positive acid elution slide test indicates
scars, amd edema the presence of:
b. Cephalic vein is the ideal site for a. Hemoglobin A1
puncture b. Hemoglobin A2
c. Draw blood below IV sites after the c. Hemoglobin F
infusion was stopped for 120 secs. d. Hemoglobin 5
d. torniquet application should be applied
no longer than 2 mins, 111. Which of the following is only
demonstrated by supravital staining?
105. Rearrange the order of draw if multiple a. Heinz bodies
tests such as CBC, FBS, PTT, and serum b. Hemoglobin H
enzyme test should be done c. Reticulocytes
a. Red, gray, lavender, blue, green top d. A and B
b. Red, blue, lavender, gray top
c. Blue, red, green, lavender, gray top 112. This is the characteristic red cell
d. Red, blue, green, gray top abnormality associated with G6DP deficiency
a. Acanthocyte
106. True regarding EDTA as anticoagulant b. Echinocyte
I. The optimal concentration is c. Heinz bodies
1.25mg/ml d. A and B
II. Preserves cellular morphology
when blood smears are made 113. Imerslund Grasbek Syndrome results to
within 2 hrs an anemia with a ____ blood picture.
III. Inhibits ccoagulatiiion by chelation a. Macrocytic hypochromic
IV. Prevents platelet aggregation, b. Macrocytic normochromic
thus it is preferred for platelet ct c. Microcytic hypochromic
a. I, II, III d. Normocytic hypochromic
b. II, III, IV e. Normocytic normochromic
c. I, III, IV
d. II, IV 114. Which of the following can help
distinguish between anemia of chronic
107. Hemolysis is not corrected after adding disease and iron deficiency anemia?
ATP and glucose in autohemolysis test is a. Serum ferritin
indicative of: b. TIBC
a. PNH c. Serum iron
b. G6PD deficiency d. A and B
c. PK deficiency e. A,B,C
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
115. Washington monument crystals are seen
108. Which of the following is not an antigen in
presenting cell? a. Hemoglobin CC disease
a. B-cell b. Hemoglobin SC disease
b. Kupffer cell c. Sickle cell disease
c. Dendritic cell d. A and B
d. PMN e. A, B, C
109. The inner core of eosinophilic granules 116. Which of the following is associated with
contains the following dehydration?
a. Melanin a. Primary absolute erythrocytosis
b. MBP b. Relative erythrocytosis
c. Secondary absolute appropriate b. Hereditary spherocytosis
erythrocytosis c. PK deficiency
d. Secondary absolute inappropriate d. A and B
erythocytosis
e. A and D only
B. Target cell
C. Codocyte
D. Elliptocyte
46. A non-cellular defect of the RBC
A. Sickle cell
B. Microangiopathic syndrome
C. G-6PD deficiency
D. Thallsemia
47. Which of the following abnormalities are
seen in patients with HIV/AIDS?
A. Neutropenia
B. Lymphopenia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Eosinophenia
48. Macrocytic anemia is not seen in which of
the following conditions?
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. latum infection
C. Thalassemia
D. Vit. B12 deficiency
49. Which of the following stains will
demonstrate ringed sideroblasts in a bone
marrow?
A. Wright’s
B. Peroxidase
C. Sudan Black
D. Prussian blue
C. Schilling’s test
D. Hb electrophoresis
HEMATOLOGY 1 FINAL EXAM b. Gaucher's disease
1. This induces B-cells to synthesize IgE. It is also c. Myeloperoxidase deficiency
involved in control of Helminth infection. d. All of the above
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
2. It is a degeneration, dysfunction or atrophy of several 10. In connection with no. 9, the defect originates in
tissues or organs mutation of what gene
a. Polydystrophy a. SLC35C1
b. Agranulocytosis b. Kindlin-3 protein
c. Netosis c. All of the above
d. None of the above d. None of the above
3. It is a marked decrease in the number of granulocytes 11. It is characterized by deficient activity of enzyme
a. Polydystrophy necessary for degradation of dermatan sulfate, heparin
b. Agranulocytosis sulfate, keratin sulfate.
c. Netosis a. Mucopolysaccharidoses
d. None of the above b. Gaucher's disease
c. Myeloperoxidase deficiency
4. It is a congenital disease characterized by reticular skin d. None of the above
pigmentation, nail degeneration, and leukoplakia on the
mucous membranes 12. It is a disease wherein lipid metabolism is defective
a. Dyserythropoiesis a. Niemann-pick
b. Dysgranulocytosis b. Digeorge syndrome
c. Dyskeratosis c. Wiskott-aldrich
d. None of the above d. None of the above (Gaucher disease and
Tay-sachs disease lumalabas sa google please
5. It is a rare inherited disorder characterized by decreased double check)******
ability of phagocytosis to produce superoxide
a. Chronic Granulomatous Disease (sinearch ko 13. It is the most common of the lysomal lipid storage
sagot ito lumalabas please double check)***** disease in which the cells has an abundant blue-green
b. Leukocyte Adhesion Disorder cytoplasm with striated or wrinkled appearance
c. Myeloperoxidase Deficiency (onion-like).
d. None of the above a. Niemann-pick
b. DiGeorge syndrome
6. In connection to no. 5, what test is used to diagnose this c. Wiskott-aldrich
disorder d. NOTA
a. Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test***
b. Esterase Test 14. It is also a lipid storage disease that is caused by
c. Myeloperoxidase stain mutation in the SMPD1 gene (sphingomyelin
d. None of the above phosphodiesterase 1)
a. Gaucher’s disease
7. It is a subtype of LAD that is caused by mutation of b. Niemann-pick
exons 5 to 9 in the genes responsible for beta 2 integrin c. Wiskott-aldrich
subunits d. AOTA
a. LAD I
b. LAD II 15. It is a type of SCID that results in excess amount of
c. LAD III adenosine and 2’deoxyadenosine which causes
d. None of the above lymphocyte depletion.
a. x-linked SCID (severe combined
8. This subtype has the same presentation of LAD I with immunodeficiency syndrome)
molecular defects in 5L35C1 that codes for fucose b. adenosine deaminase deficiency
transporter c. sex-linked agammaglobinnemia
a. LAD I d. NOTA
b. LAD II
c. LAD III 16. it is a common type of SCID wherein the mutation in
d. None of the above gene encoding the IL-2 receptor gamma chain results in
decrease T cells and dysfunctional B cells and lack of
9. It is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by NK cells
deficiency of myeloperoxidase in the primary granules of a. x-linked SCID
neutrophils b. adenosine deaminase deficiency
a. Mucopolysaccharidoses c. sex-linked agammaglobinnemia
d. NOTA 25. It is a type of AML with no clear evidence of cellular
maturation, auer rods, not present
17. It is characterized by severe neutropenia wherein 50% a. AML minimally differentiated = M0
have mutations in ELANE/ELA2 b. AML without maturation = M1
a. Congenital Severe Neutropenia Kostmann c. AML with maturation = M2
Syndrome d. None of the above
b. Infantile genetic agranulocytosis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above For the next 3 numbers, use the choices below for the blood
picture:
18. It is an X-linked inherited disorder with peripheral A. Normocytic, Hypochromic
cytopenias due to gene mutation that causes bone B. Normocytic, Normochromic
marrow failure C. Microcytic, Hypochromic
a. Dyskeratosis congenital D. Macrocytic normochromic
b. Fanconi anemia
c. Aplastic anemia 26. Iron Deficiency: C
d. None of the above 27. Thalassemia: C
28. Sickle cell disease: C
19. A sex-linked autosomal recessive inherited disorder with
mucocutaneous abnormalities, abnormal skin For the next 5 numbers, choose what is being described from the
pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia image below:
a. Dyskeratosis congenital
b. Fanconi anemia
c. Infantile genetic agranulocytosis
22. It is characterized by proliferation of natural killer 29. High surface to volume ratio: A
lymphocytes. The virus infects B lymphocytes through 30. Decreased osmotic fragility: A
attachment of viral envelope glycoprotein 360/220 to 31. Defective protein band 4.1: D
CD21 32. RNA remnants:
a. Infantile genetic agranulocytosis 33. Abetalipoproteinemia: B
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. All of the above 34. Which of the following is true about PNH?
d. None of the above a. Increased hemolysis in Ham’s Test
b. Increased expression of CD 55 marker
23. In connection with no. 29, what rapid test can you use to c. Increased expression of CD 59 marker
identify this kind of infection d. A and B
a. Monospot test e. A, B, and C
b. Heterophil antibody test 35. Characteristic findings in thalassemia include:
c. All of the above a. Codocytes
d. None of the above b. Hypochromia
c. Increased RDW
24. It is a type of leukaemia that is common in children d. A and B
between 2-5 years of age e. A, B, and C
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 36. Which of the following hemoglobinopathies does not
b. Acute myelogenous leukemia involve substitution?
c. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia a. Hb Gun hill
d. None of the above b. Hemoglobin CC Disease
c. Sickle cell disease
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C WBC - 7 x 10 9L
MCV - 92 fl
37. All of the following are associated finding with RBC 3.5 x 10 12L
hemolytic anemia EXCEPT: MCH 39.4 pg
a. A decreased haptoglobin Hb 138 g/L
b. Decreased LDH MCHC - 41 g/dl
c. High RPI HCT - 0.34
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C Which of the following group tests would probably be in
the error?
38. A qualitative abnormality in hemoglobin may involve all A. WBC, RBC, MCV
of the following EXCEPT: B. RBC, HCT, MCV
a. Replacement of one or more amino acids in a C. RBC, HB, HCT
globin chain D. HB, MCH, MCHC
b. Addition of one or more amino acids in a E. A and B
globin chain
c. Deletion of one or more amino acids in a
globin chain 46. A blood sample from a patient with high titer cold
d. Decreased globin chain production agglutinins analyzed at room temperature with an
e. A and B electronic particle would cause error in the:
a. RBC, MCV
For the next 2 numbers, use the choices below: b. WBC, RBC
c. MCH, MCHC
A. Decreased serum iron d. A and B
B. Decreased TIBC e. A, B and C
C. Decreased ferritin 47. Which of the following principles are used by Beckman
D. A and B Coulter principle machines?
E. A and C a. Conductivity
b. Impedance
39. Anemia of chronic inflammation: D c. Light scatter
40. Iron deficiency anemia: E d. A and B
41. The characteristic cell in disseminated intravascular e. A, B, and C
coagulation: 48. In optical scatter techniques, forward angle light scatter
a. Siderocyte correlates with:
b. Codocyte a. Cell granularity
c. Schistocyte b. Cell lobularity
d. Anulocyte c. Cell size
e. A and B d. A and B
42. The following abnormal RBCs with their corresponding e. A, B, and C
disease states are correct EXCEPT: 49. Which of the following is true regarding hemoglobin
a. Codocyte-thalassemia electrophoresis?
b. Drepanocyte-sickle cell disease a. Cellulose acetate hemoglobin electrophoresis is
c. Acanthocyte-abetalipoproteinemia done at pH 6 - 6.2
d. Schistocyte-microangiopathic hemolytic b. Citrate agar hemoglobin electrophoresis can
anemia differentiate hemoglobin S form D
e. Microspherocyte-Rh Null syndrome c. Serum samples collected in plain tubes are
43. Hepcidin elevation is associated with needed for the test
a. Anemia of chronic disease d. A and B
b. Iron deficiency anemia e. A, B and C
c. Sideroblastic anemia 50. Which of the following tests will be useful in the
d. A and B investigation of thalassemia?
e. A, B, and C a. CBC
44. A cellulose acetate hemoglobin electrophoresis revealed b. TIBC
a positive result for Hbs. What should be the next step? c. Schilling test
a. Perform citrate agar hemoglobin d. A and B
electrophoresis e. A, B and C
b. Perform Dithionite tube test
c. Report as positive for sickle cell disease 51. How much volume of blood is needed for
d. A and B cyanmethemoglobin method?
e. A, B, and C a. 10 uL
45. The following CBC results were obtained from an b. 20uL
automated cell counter on a patient sample with lipemic c. 30uL
plasma: d. 40uL
52. Used as an index of the presence of active diseases like 2.) Using more than 3 hour EDTA specimen
tuberculosis, rheumatoid diseases and other 3.) Presence of macrocytic RBC
inflammatory processes: 4.) Under centrifuged capillary tubes
a. HCT a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. HgB ct b. 2, 3, 4
c. ESR c. 3, 4
d. EOFT d. 1, 4
e. 2, 4
2. Which of the following test is used to diagnose
paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
53. Which of these anticoagulants is NOT used for PBS a. HAMs test
staining due to giving off bluish discoloration of the b. Donath-Landsteiner Test
smears? c. EOFT
a. Heparin d. Isopropanol precipitation test
b. EDTA e. Sugar water test
c. Citrate 3. What additional special test can be requested if the med
d. All of them tech observed a “shift to the right” differential count?
e. A and C a. Fluorescent spot test
b. EOFT
Use the figure below to answer questions no. 120- 122 c. Microbiological assay
d. A and C
e. A, B, C
4. If the medical technologist noticed that the red cell pallor
size is approximately ⅔ of the total diameter of the red
cell, the proper grade for this would be:
a. 4+
b. 3+
54. Which among the patient's hgb pattern shows a sickle c. 2+
cell trait? d. 1+
a. 2 e. 0
b. 3 5. If around 20 among the 100 red cells observed per oil
c. 8 immersion field exhibit polychromasia, this should be
d. 7 graded or reported as:
e. 4 a. 4+ polychromasia
55. Which of the hgb pattern shows a beta thalassemia b. 3+ polychromasia
patient? c. 2+ polychromasia
a. 2 d. 1+ polychromasia
b. 4 e. Normal
c. 3 6. The stem cell committed to the production of
d. 7 granulocytes is the:
e. 6 a. HSC
56. Which among the patterns shows sickle cell anemia? b. CFU-S
a. 3 c. CFU-E
b. 4 d. CFU-g
c. 6 7. The presence of major basic protein in the cytoplasm
d. 3 confirms that the cell is:
e. 7 a. Basophilic
57. Which of the following may increase the ESR value? b. Eosinophilic
c. Neutrophilic
1.Cachexia 2. Clotted blood sample 3. Menstruation d. Monocytic
4.Low room temp 5. Sickle cell 8. Vasoactive compounds are the principal components of
the granules
A. 1,2,3,4,5 a. Basophil
B. 2,3,4 b. Eosinophils
C. 3 only c. Monocytes
D. 5 only d. Neutrophils
E. 3 and 4 9. Which cell is characterized by having 15 to 29 um in
diameter, delicate nucleus with prominent nucleoli and
stains positive for myeloperoxidase?
HEMATOLOGY FEU-NRMF - MIDTERM EXAM (APRIL 2018) a. Monocyte
. b. Myelocyte
1. Which of the following action/factor(s) will false elevate c. Myeloblast
the micro hematocrit value? d. Lymphocyte
1.) Prolong tourniquet application
10. A cell with round to oval nucleus with no visible
nucleoli, evident golgi apparatus, and the presence of
secondary granules would be classified as:
a. Reactive lymphocyte
b. Monoblast
c. Myelocyte
d. Promyelocyte
11. For neutrophil to defend against infection, they must be
capable of all the following, except:
a. Chemotaxis Figure 1. Hgb Electrophoresis using cellulose Acetate agar at pH
b. Mobility 8.6
c. Adhesion (Note: 1 and 5 are standard Hgb Patterns)
d. Cell division 1. Which among the patients hgb patterns shows a sickle
12. Allergic reactions frequently are associated with an cell trait?
increase in the presence of: a. 2
a. Lymphocytes b. 3
b. Neutrophils c. 8
c. Monocyte d. 7
d. Basophil e. 4
13. Which of the following cells may develop in sites other 2. Which of the hgb pattern shows as beta thalassemia
than bone marrow? patient?
a. Monocyte a. 2
b. Lymphocyte b. 4
c. Megakaryocyte c. 3
d. Neutrophil d. 7
14. Which one is not a function of WBCs? e. 6
a. Provides the surface for assembly of 3. Which among the pattern shows sickle cell anemia?
coagulation factors a. 3
b. Contains major histocompatibility complex b. 4
(MHC) for “SELF” ID c. 6
c. Leave blood vessels and enter tissue space d. 3
d. Produce antibodies against specific antigens e. 7
(foreign body)
15. Characteristics of a proper wedge EXCEPT:
a. At least ⅓ the slide length
b. Gradual transition from thick to thin
c. Narrower than the slide
d. Has a feathered end
16. Blue-gray cytoplasm, horseshoe nucleus; account for 3 to FINAL EXAM SY. 2014-2015
8% of WBCs
a. Monocyte NON-NEOPLASTIC WBC DISORDERS (Dr. F. F. Dematera)
b. Lymphocyte 1. Which condition will cause increase in bone marrow
c. Eosinophil production of neutrophils resulting to neutrophils?
d. Neutrophil a. Strenuous exercise
17. Contains alkaline phosphatase and muramidase; for b. Pregnant woman in labor
non-specific phagocytosis and are destined to die c. Acute infection
a. Basophils d. Tachycardia
b. Neutrophil 2. Which finding is not consistent with leukemoid reaction?
c. Monocytes a. Absence of eosinophils
d. Eosinophils b. LAP score of more than 100
18. Known to capable kill virally infected cell c. Absence of basophils
a. Lymphocyte d. Few neutrophils with bilobed nuclei
b. Monocyte 3. The following are performed to determine the LAP score,
c. Eosinophil except:
d. Neutrophil a. 100 neutrophils are counted
19. Hemolysis is NOT corrected after adding ATP and b. Grading the staining reaction from 0-4+
glucose in autohemolysis test is indicative if: c. Band forms are also counted to complete 100
a. PNH cells
b. G6PD Deficiency d. None of the choice
c. PK Deficiency 4. Severe chronic neutropenia is defined as
d. Hereditary spherocytosis a. Agranulocytosis for at least 6 months
b. Neutrophil count of <2 x 10^9/L for 1 month
Use this figure below to answer the next questions (1-4): c. Neutrophil count of <2 x 10^9/L for at least 6
months
d. None of these a. >20% of neutrophils are with bilobed
5. Frequently this is the first sign of recovery from an acute b. >80% of neutrophils are with bilobed nuclei
overwhelming infection with agranulocytosis c. <50% of neutrophils are with bilobed nuclei
a. Absolute monocytosis d. >40% of neutrophils are with bilobed nuclei
b. Relative monocytosis 16. Hypersegmented neutrophils may be seen in the
c. Toxic granules following cases, except in:
d. Absolute count of < 1.1 x 10^9/L a. Myelokathesis
6. Lymphocytosis with morphologic alteration will be seen b. WHIM syndrome
in the following cases except in c. Megaloblastic anemia
a. Infectious mononucleosis d. None of these
b. Viral influenza 17. Reiley bodies in Alder- Reiley anomaly are found in:
c. Pertussis a. Nuclei of the involved cells
d. CMV Infection b. Cytoplasm of the involved cells
7. Eosinophils may be seen in the following cases except in c. Both A and B
a. CML d. Neither A nor B
b. Parasitic infection 18. This condition is brought about by abnormality in fusion
c. Allergic conditions of lysosome and phagosome which are the following
d. None of these findings in the blood smear of the patient :
8. A patient who is on steroid therapy will have a. Giant neutrophilic
a. Monocytopenia b. cytoplasmic granules
b. Lymphocytosis c. Decreased in the number of neutrophils
c. Monocytosis d. Giant monocytic cytoplasmic granules
d. B and C e. All of the above
9. Small, oval, pale blue structures that are peripherally 19. MYH9 gene mutation will result to prominent, pale-blue
located in the cytoplasm and seen only in neutrophils are cytoplasmic inclusions in:
most probably a. Neutrophils
a. Dohle inclusion bodies b. Eosinophils
b. Inclusions in May-hegglin anomaly c. Basophils
c. Phagocytic vacuoles d. All of the above
d. Autophagocytic vacuoles 20. Test/s that can be used in the diagnosis of chronic
10. True of toxic granulations except: granulomatous disease:
a. They are peroxidase positive a. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Test
b. Inversely proportional to CRP level b. Flow cytometry
c. Seen also in band form and metamyelocytes c. Both A and B
d. Should be differentiated from Reiley bodies d. Neither A nor B
11. A Blood smear with myeloid cells that are seen in 21. The defect in leukocyte Adhesion Disorder I is in:
various stages of maturation from the most immature a. Margination
composed of occasional blasts to the most mature has b. Rolling
what degree of left shift? c. Adhesion
a. Mild left shift d. Transmigration
b. Moderate left shift 22. What type of leukocyte adhesion disorder is caused by
c. Marked left shift mutation in genes encoding for G-protein coupled
d. No left shift receptors?
12. Vacuoles in neutrophils that are formed due to effect of a. Leukocyte Adhesion Disorder IV
EDTA are b. Leukocyte Adhesion Disorder III
a. Smaller than phagocytic vacuoles c. Leukocyte Adhesion Disorder II
b. Usually 6 um in size d. Leukocyte Adhesion Disorder I
c. Formed only in patients with spesis 23. What is the cause of the poor function of neutrophils
d. None of these among patients with diabetes mellitus?
13. Reactive lymphocytes appear with increased basophilia a. Abnormal oxidative burst
of the cytoplasm due to: b. Abnormal actin and myosin filaments
a. Increased cytoplasmic RNA c. Dysregulated cytokine production
b. Engulfed bacteria in the cytoplasm d. None of these
c. Defective fusion of phagosome and lysosome 24. In sex-linked agammaglobulinemia, the block in B cell
d. None of these development is due to:
14. Pince nez appearance in Pelger_huet anomaly is due to a. 22q11.2 microdeletion
mutation in: b. Absence of the thymus
a. LYST gene c. Blk gene mutation
b. Lamin B receptor gene d. None of these
c. NADPH oxidase gene 25. Nuclei of reactive lymphocytes are seen:
d. IL-2 receptor gene a. With prominently clumped chromatin
15. Which finding will favor Pelger-Huet anomaly over other b. Hypersegmented
conditions that will cause neutrophils t ohave pince-nez c. With less clumping of chromatin
appearance? d. B and C
b. Lymphocytic
NEOPLASTIC WBC DISORDERS (Dr. F. F. Dematera) c. Granulocytic
26. What is the term used for neoplasms that presents with d. Plasmacytic
wide spread involvement of the bone marrow and 37. Of the myeloproliferative neoplasms provided in the
sometimes with involvement of the peripheral blood? choices below which one is not expected to have MPL
a. Left shift point/mutation?
b. Lymphoma a. Primary myelofibrosis
c. Leukemia b. Essential thrombocythemia
d. Leukocytosis c. Polycythemia vera
27. For pathologists to come up with a diagnosis of acute d. None of these
leukemia, the cellularity of the bone marrow should be 38. Philadelphia chromosome is a fusion of
composed of at least _____. a. ABL gene from chromosome 9 with BCR gene
a. 20% leukocytes in chromosome 22
b. 20%blasts b. ABL gene from chromosome 22 with BCR
c. 50% blasts gene in chromosome 9
d. 30% plasmacytoid cells c. The translocated BCR gene from chromosome
28. The subtyping of B cell ALL is based on: 22 with ABL gene in chromosome 9
a. Genetic abnormality d. None of these
b. Morphology of the cells 39. A CML patient who is not in blast crisis is expected to
c. Age group affected have _________ LAP score
d. None of these a. Increased
29. Involved cells in T cell ALL are expected to be positive b. Decreased
for c. Slightly increased
a. CD3 d. None of these
b. CD19 40. In polycythemia vera, there is increased production of
c. CD20 this/these cell/s in the marrow.
d. CD79a a. Granulocytes
30. Smudge cells are usually seen in: b. Red cells
a. Burkitt lymphoma c. Platelets
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. All of these
c. Plasma Cell myeloma 41. The hemoglobin level among patients with polycythemia
d. Follicular lymphoma vera would be:
31. Involved cells in hairy cell leukemia exhibit the a. Men- >15.5 g/dL ?????????
following features except: 42. In patients with essential thrombocythemia, there should
a. Abundant fine hairy projections be a sustained platelet count of at least
b. Positivity for CD19 and CD20 a. 450 x 10^9/L
c. Trap (+) b. 400 x 10^9/L
d. None of these c. 500 x 10^9/L
32. The most specific test for hairy cell leukemia is d. None of the above
a. Annexin 1 43. Leukocytosis with marked left shift in the blood and a
b. TRAP blast count of <20% in the marrow and persistent
c. DBA-44 monocytosis of >1 x 10^2/L are findings compatible with
d. CD19 and CD22 immunohistochemistry a. CML
33. Bone marrow plasmacytosis should be at least ____ in b. AML
plasma cell myeloma c. CMML
a. 20% d. ALL
b. 30% 44. Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia will have the
c. 10% following features except:
d. 40% a. Philadelphia chromosome
34. Reed-Sternberg cells are seen in: b. Basophilia
a. Burkitt lymphoma c. Multilineage dyspoeisis
b. Hodgkin lymphoma d. None of the above
c. Follicular lymphoma 45. The bone marrow blast count of patients with refractory
d. ALL anemia with excess blast 2 should be:
35. Promyelocytes with prominent cytoplasmic rods in cases a. <20% but at least 10%
of AML are known as: b. <5% but 1%
a. Faggot cells c. >20%
b. Reed-Sternberg cells d. None of these
c. Smudge cells 46. Myelodysplastic syndromes have the ff. General features
d. None of these except:
36. The below stated staining profile is compatible with this a. Cellular bone marrow
cell lineage: (+) MPO (+) Alpha-naphthyl acetate (-) b. Peripheral cytopenias
AS-D chloroacetate esterase c. Dyspoiesis
a. Monocytic d. None of these
47. Which is not a mature B cell neoplasm a. Serum ferritin assay
a. CLL b. Vit B12 and folate serum assay
b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Serum electrophoresis
c. Mycosis fungoides d. DAT test
d. Hairy cell leukemia e. EOFT
48. An AML patient who was previously diagnosed to have a 66. Which of the ff. Parameter can be used to evaluate
myelodysplastic syndrome will be under what class (in anisocytosis
the new classification)? a. MCV
a. Class I b. MCHC
b. Class II c. PBS
c. Class III d. A and C
d. Class IV e. A.B.C
49. Which is not true about the TRAP test in the laboratory 67. Which of the ff. Poikilocyte is associated with
diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia? myelofibrosis
a. In general, all cells stain positive for acid a. Dacrocyte
phosphatase before addition of tartrate b. Acanthocyte
b. Upon addition of tartrate, staining of normal c. Echinocyte
cells for acid phosphatase will be inherited d. schistocyte
c. Hairy cells stain positive for acid phosphatase 68. Which of the ff is associated with abetalipoproteinemia?
even after addition of tartrate a. Dacrocyte
d. None of these b. Acanthocyte
50. Which is not a B cell marker? c. Echinocyte
a. CD19 d. schistocyte
b. CD8
c. CD20 69. Which the ff. Is consistent with patient suffering from
d. None of these Polycythemia Vera?
51. Given the following test???????????? 1. Hyperuricemia
52. Using the above data on #51 2.pancytopenia
53. 3. High LAP score
54. Given the result below of female patient 4. Thrombotic episode
RBC ct. 3.2 x?????? 5. High WBC count
a. 1,2
55. The above data on #54 has ________ blood picture b. 1,2,3,4
a. Macrocytic, normochromic c. 1,3,4
b. Microcytic, hypochromc d. 1,2,4
c. Macrocytic, hyperchromic e. 1,3,5
d. Microcytic, normochromic 70. Which of the following is not consistent with
56. megaloblastic anemia?
57. 1. Presence of Howell-jolly bodies inclusion
58. 2. Hypersegmented body on PBS
59. 3. High WBC ct.
60. 4. Low platelet count
61. 5. High iron load
62. a. 1,2,3,4,4
63. b. 3,2,1,5(?)
64. Given the following data below: c. 2 only
RBC ct. 3.0x1012/L d. 1,2,4,5
Hgb:10 g/dL e. 1,4,5 only
Hct: 31% 71. This abnormal inclusion is commonly associated with:
WBC ct. 2000/uL
Platelet decreased
RDW: High
MCW; High
MCH: High
MCHC:normal
106. Erythrocyte: E
107. Granulocyte: C Which of the Following is indicated by the above
108. Lymphocyte: A histogram?
109. Refer to the illustration below a. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
b. Granulocytosis
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Sickle cell disease