BMS PROFESSIONAL EXAMS.

HAEMATOLOGY - MCQS

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM A - E

1 One of the following can cause spurious MCV:

a) Cryofibrinogen
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Autoagglutination
d) High WBC count
e) Reduced red cell deformity

2 One of these terms is used to describe the suppression of entire full blood count:

a) Erythroplasia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Pancytopenia
d) Leucocytopenia
e) Neutropenia

3 What is the major metabolically active storage form of Iron in the body

a) Haemosiderin
b) Ferritin
c) Transferin
d) Globulin
e) Haemoglobin

4 Hb A2 consists of

a) 3 alpha and 2 gamma chains

b) 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
c) 2 alpha and 2 delta chains
d) 2 alpha and 3 delta chains
e) 3 alpha and 2 delta chains

5 The most Hgb found in adult is:

a) Hb A
b) Hb A2
 c) Hb F
d) Hb C
e) Hb S

6 The leucocyte responsible for parasite infection and allergic reaction is:

a) Lymphocyte
b) Monocyte
c) Basophil
d) Neutrophil
e) Eosinophil

7 The type of WBC that often arrives at the site of infection first is a granulocyte and contains
granules that stain light purple is a:

a) Macrocyte
b) Basophil
c) Eosinophil
d) Neutrophil
e) Monocyte

8 The largest cells in the blood that leave the blood stream to become macrophages are the:

a) Eosinophils
b) Large lymphocyte
c) Neutrophils
d) Monocytes
e) Basophils

9 One of these blood cells can be described as being biconcave disc:

a) Platelets
b) Neutrophil
c) Eosinophil
d) Erythrocyte
e) Lymphocyte

10 The liquid portion of blood is reffered to as:

a) Whole blood
b) Haematocrit
 c) Plasma
d) Serum
e) Clotted blood

11 Which of the following directly defines the transportation of oxygen?

a) Haemoglobin
b) Oxyhaemoglobin
c) Reduced haemoglobin
d) Deoxyhaemoglobin
e) Red cell count

12 What is the average life span of the RBC

a) 120 days
b) 240 days
c) 10 days
d) 365 days
e) 90 days

13 Which of the following indicates a normal WBC count

a) 1 miilion/mm3
b) 15,000/ mm3
c) 10,000/ mm3
d) 3,000/ mm3
e) 1.5million/ mm3

14 Which of the following cell types should not be grouped with the others?

a) Neutrophil
b) Lymphocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Basophil
e) Segmented Neutrophil

15 One of these white cells is not phagocytic

a) Neutrophil granulocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Monocyte
d) Lymphocyte
 e) Eosinophil

16 A skin puncture can be done in all the following situations except:

a) A child younger than 1 year

b) A patient with difficult vein
c) When a performing a coagulation test
d) When small volume of blood is needed
e) When only thick film is requested

17 Which of the following anticoagulants is mostly used for routine haematology tests

a) EDTA
b) Sodium citrate
c) Sodium fluoride
d) Lithium heparin
e) Sodium oxalate

18 Mostly a full blood count blood is collected into one of the following stopper colours

a) Purple
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Yellow
e) Gray

19 All are Romanowsky stains except

a) Leishman
b) Jenners
c) Giemsa
d) Wrights
e) Mason Fontana

20 Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for

a) Reticulocyte count
b) Platelets count
c) Malaria parasites
d) Howell-jolly bodies
e) Differential count

21 One of the following conditions will not give high ESR result:
 a) Multiple myeloma
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Tuberloculosis
d) Pregnancy
e) Sickle cell disease

22 Which of the following organizes and directs light through the specimen?

a) Ocular
b) Objective lens
c) Condenser
d) Optical tube
e) Stage

23 How many days can blood be stored with CPDA?

a) 21 days
b) 28 days
c) 35 days
d) 42 days
e) 120 days

24 A smear that is prepared from equal parts of methylene blue and whole blood will be used
for:

a) WBC count
b) Platelet count
c) RBC count
d) Reticulocyte count
e) Trophozoeite count

25 The concentration of sodium chloride in isotonic solution is:

a) 8.5%
b) 0.85%
c) 85%
d) 0.6%
e) 1 molar

26 Platelet for transfusion is best store at what temperature?

 a) 1 – 6 oC
b) 20 – 25 oC
c) 34 – 37 oC
d) 40 – 45 oC
e) 0 – 10 oC

27 During the crossmatch procedure, a negative result on the addition of Coombs control cells
indicate that the :
a) Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused
b) Crossmatch is incompatible
c) Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test
d) Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during
the crossmatch procedures
e) The recipient does not need blood transfusion

28 MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters?

a) Hgb and RBC count
b) RBC histogram
c) RBC count and Hct
d) RBC count and MCHC
e) MCH and Hb

29 This cell is the precursor of platelet and is commonly found in the bone marrow:

a) Myelocyte
b) Metamyelocyte
c) Metakaryocyte
d) Megakaryocyte
e) Erythroblast

30 In adults haemopoeisis occur in

a) Vertebrae
b) Skull
c) Proximal end of long bone
d) Ribs
e) All of the above
31 A simple check which can be employed to verify that haemoglobin and haematocrit values
match would be:

a) Hct * 3 = Hb
b) Hb * 3 = Hct
c) Hct / Hb = 3
d) Hb + 3 = Hct
e) Hb + Hct = 3

32 Which needle gauge corresponds with the smallest needle size?

a) 18
b) 20
c) 21
d) 22
e) 23

33 The tourniquet is:

a) Applied very tight to the arm

b) Used to increase venous fill
c) Applied 6 – 8 inches above the elbow
d) Tied in a knot to keep it on securely
e) Released after the needle is withdrawn

34 The test procedure that uses a Westergren tube is:

a) Hct
b) Retic count
c) ESR
d) WBC count
e) Differential count

35 Which of the following best describes a minor cross match?

a) Reaction of donor cells with recipient serum

b) Reaction of recipient cells with AHG
c) Reaction of donor cells with AHG
d) Reaction of donor serum with recipient cells
e) Reaction of recipient serum with AHG

36 Total magnification of a microscope can be determined by:

 a) Multiplying power of objective by the power of ocular
b) Dividing the power of objective by the power of the ocular
c) Adding the power of the ocular and the objective together and multiply by 10
d) Dividing the power of the ocular by the power of the objective
e) Measuring the length of the microscope and multiply by 100

37 The best action to take if a patient refuses to go through venipuncture is:

a) Tear up the requisition

b) Politely ask the patient to come back next week
c) Collect urine sample
d) Restrain the patient and proceed with the venipuncture
e) Notify the patients physician

38 If a patient faints during venipuncture, you should:

a) Call the patients physician at once

b) Remove the needle and attend to patient
c) Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
d) Continue the procedure until blood is collected
e) Check if patient has epilepsy

39 The liquid portion of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:

a) The buffy coat

b) Serum
c) Plasma
d) Lymph
e) Tissue fluid

40 What vein/veins is not used to obtain a venous blood sample:

a) Basilica vein
b) Cephalic
c) Medial cubital vein
d) Edematous vein
e) Veins on the back of the hand

41 A blood specimen collected in a heparinised tube is centrifuged, it will separate into:

 a) Serum and clot
b) Plasma and clot
c) Serum, plasma and clot
d) Plasma and whole blood
e) Plasma, buffy coat, RBCs

42 Gloves protect the lab employee from:

a) Accidental needle puncture

b) Knife cut
c) Patient aerosols
d) Body fluids
e) All of the above

43 The purpose of doing differential count is to:

a) Determine the proportion of RBCs in whole blood

b) Count the number of WBCs in whole blood
c) Determine the proportion of WBCs in whole blood
d) Diagnose anaemia
e) C and D

44 By the age of 7 months, the primary site of haemopoeisis in a foetus is:

a) Thymus
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Reticuloendothelial system
e) Red marrow

45 The most abundant cells of the blood are:

a) Platelets
b) Granulocytes
c) Erythrocytes
d) Leukocytes
e) Reticuloendothelial cells

46 Iron deficiency anaemia:

 a) Is of hypochromic, macrocytic type
b) Is commonly associated with chronic blood loss
c) Is common cause of anaemia in infants below 1 year
d) May increase the number of megaloblasts
e) Is more in males

47 The following results were obtained on a patient sample: RBC- 3.72*1012/L, Hb- 12.0g/dl,
Hct- 0.36. What would the red cell indices be?

a) MCV = 96, MCH = 29, MCHC = 32,0

b) MCV = 97, MCH = 32, MCHC = 33.3
c) MCV = 103, MCH = 31, MCHC = 30.0
d) MCV = 105, MCH = 28, MCHC = 31.0
e) MCC = 100, MCH =38, MCHC = 40.1

48 When doing a manual WBC count, BMS counts an average of 102 cells in the white cell
squares of haemocytometer, if the dilution factor was 1:20, what would the calculated WBC
count be?

a) 2.6*109/L
b) 10.7*109/L
c) 20.4*109/L
d) 5.1*109/L
e) 102*109/L

49 If the centrifuge is not properly balanced, which of the following may occur?

a) Causes undue wear on rotor

b) Causes excessive vibration which could lead to the centrifuge to move off counter top.
c) Cause unbalanced tube to break
d) Causes red blood cells to float on top
e) Causes the lid of centrifuge to open

50 The first drop of blood is wiped away after performing a skin puncture to:

a) remove any pathogens that are present

b) increase blood flow to the area
c) remove the last traces of alcohol
d) remove any excess tissue fluid
e) c&d