Test ID : 509

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.CUMULATIVE TEST.
Std : Long Term Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 06.12.2020 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. A) Collision doesn’t require physical contact v (m/s)
B) Collision between sub atomic particles is 20
elastic
C) Collision between macroscopic bodies is 2 t(s)
generally inelastic 1) 400 J 2) – 400 J
1) A and C are true 2) A & B are true 3) – 200 J 4) 200 J
3) A, B, C are true 4) A, B, C are false 5. A bag P (mass M) hangs by a long thread and
2. The ratio of the potential energy of the bob a bullet (mass m) comes horizontally with
when it is at B and C as shown is velocity ‘V’ and gets caught in the bag. Then
for the combined (bag + bullet) system be
mVM
1) momentum is
M+m
mV 2
2) kinetic energy is
1) 1 : 2 (
2) 1: 2 − 3 ) 2
mV(M + m)
3) momentum is
3) 1 : 3 4) 1: 3 M
3. Two blocks each of mass ‘m’ moving with m2V 2
equal speeds v in opposite directions strike the 4) kinetic energy is
2(M + m)
opposite ends of massless spring placed
between them. If k is force constant of the 6. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which
spring, the maximum compression of the causes displacement in it which is given by
spring is t2
s = m , where ‘t’ is time. The work done by
4
2mv 2 2mv 2
1) 2) t2
k k the force in 2s i s = m s
4
mv 2 mv 2 1) 12 J 2) 9 J
3) 4)
k k 3) 6 J 4) 3 J
4. Velocity – time graph of a particle of mass 2 7. A 5 kg sphere is projected vertically upward
kg moving in a straight line is as shown in with a speed of 20 ms-1. It rises to a height of
figure. Work done by all the forces on the 12 m. The energy used up in over coming the
particle is air resistance is
 2 Test ID : 509
-1
1) 412 J 2) 588 J 1) 7 rad s 2) 14 rad s-1
-1
3) 206 J 4) 294 J 3) 3.5 rad s 4) 25.6 rad s-1
8. An empty car moving with certain velocity on 13. A body of mass 1 kg collides with a wall with
a frictionless road can be stopped in a distance speed 8 m/s and rebounds on the same line
‘s’. If the passengers add 40% of its weight with the same speed. If mass of the wall is
and same breaking force is applied, the taken as infinite, the work done by the ball on
stopping distance for the same velocity will be the wall is
1) 1.4 s 2) 1.4 s 1) 6 J 2) 8 J
s 3) 9 J 4) zero
3) (1.4)2 s 4) 14. If the kinetic energy of a moving body is
1.4
9. A slab of mass M is released from a height H reduced to 81%, its momentum becomes
on the top of a spring of force constant K. The 1) 19 % 2) 10 %
maximum compression of the spring is y. 3) 90 % 4) 81 %
Then, 15. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a
1 certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain twice
1) MgH = Ky 2 as much water from the same pipe in the same
2
1 time, power of the motor has to be increased
2) Mg(H − y) = Ky 2 H
to
2
1) 2 times 2) 4 times
1
3) MgH = K (H + y) 2 3) 8 times 4) 16 times
2
16. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity
1
4) Mg (H + y) = Ky 2 V1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving
2 with a velocity V2. Both of them have the same
10. A ball strikes a horizontal floor at an angle θ = momentum but their different kinetic energies are
45o with the normal to floor. The coefficient of E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then
restitution between the ball and the floor is E m
1 1) E1 < E2 2) 1 = 1
e = . The fraction of its kinetic energy lost in E 2 m2
2
3) E1 > E2 4) E1 = E2
collision is
17. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of mass
1 5
1) 2) m in travelling a certain distance starting from
8 8 rest, under a constant force is
3 1) directly proportional to m
3) 4) 1
8
2) directly proportional to m
11. An inclined track ends in a circular loop of
diameter D. From what height on the track a 3) inversely proportional to m
particle should be released so that it complete 4) independent of m
that loop in the vertical plane? 18. Two springs have their force constants K1 and
5D 2D K2. Both are stretched till their elastic energies
1) 2)
2 5 F
are equal. Then ratio of stretching forces 1
5D 4D F2
3) 4)
4 5 equal to
12. A 1 kg ball is rotated in a vertical circle by K
using a string of length 0.1 m. If the tension in 1) 1 2) K2 : K1
K2
the string at the lowest point is 29.4 N, its
angular velocity at that position is 3) K1 : K 2 4) K12 : K 22
 3 Test ID : 509
19. A particle of mass ‘m’ describes a circle of 25. Consider an oblique elastic collision between
4 a moving ball and a stationary ball of the same
radius ‘r’. The centripetal acceleration is 2 .
r mass. Both the balls move with the same
What is the momentum of the particle? speed after the collision. After the collision the
4m 2m angle between the direction of motion of two
1) 2) balls is
r r
4m 2m 1) 0o 2) 30o
3) 4) 3) 60o 4) 90o
r r
20. A block of mass ‘m’ moving at speed v 26. A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving in a
compresses a spring through a distance d horizontal circle of radius r, under a
before its speed is halved. Then spring K
centripetal force equal to −  2  , where K is
constant of the spring is r 
mv 2 mv 2 constant. What is the total energy of the
1) 2)
2d 2 4d 2 particle?
3mv 2 4mv 2 k k
3) 4) 1) − 2)
r r
4d 2 3d 2
k k
21. Consider ‘n’ number of identical cubes each of 3) − 4)
mass ‘m’ and side ‘a’ lying on a level ground. 2r 2r
Find the work done in piling them one above 27. A motor is supplied 600 KW, of which 30% is
the other. lost. This motor is used to operate a crane
mga mga whose efficiency is 70%. If this crane lifts a
1) n(n + 1) 2) n(n − 1)
2 2 box of 20 tons, velocity of that box is
mga mga 1) 3 ms-1 2) 2 ms-1
3) n(2n + 1) 4) n(2n − 1)
2 2 3) 1.5 ms-1 4) 1 ms-1
22. A 1 kg block moving with a velocity of 4 m/s 28. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5
collides with a stationary 2 kg block. The m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides
lighter block comes to rest after the collision. with a nearly weightless spring of force
The loss of kinetic energy of the system is constant K = 50 N/m. The maximum
1) 1 J 2) 2 J compression of the spring would be
3) 3 J 4) 4 J
23. A mass of 0.1 kg is rotated in a vertical circle
using a string of length 20 cm. When the
string makes an angle 30o with the vertical, the
speed of the mass is 1.5 ms-1. The tangential 1) 0.15 m 2) 0.12 m
acceleration of the mass at that instant is 3) 1.5 m 4) 0.5 m
1) 4.9 ms-2 2) 9.8 ms-2 29. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of
3) 2.45 ms-2 4) 19.6 ms-2 radius r with uniform speed. The force on the
24. A ball of mass ’m’ is rotated in a vertical mv 2
body is and is directed towards the
circle with constant speed. The difference in r
tension at the top and bottom would be centre. What is the work done by this force in
1) 6 mg 2) 5 mg moving the body over half the circumference
of the circle?
3) 2 mg 4) mg
 4 Test ID : 509
 mv 2  3l l
1)  πr 1) 2)
 r 
2) zero 5 5
 
2l 2l
3) 4)
mv 2 πr 2 5 3
3) 4)
r2 mv 2 35. Two identical cars A and B are moving at 36
30. If the speed of a vehicle increases by 2 ms-1, kmph. A goes on a bridge, convex upward and
its kinetic energy is doubled, then original B on concave upward. If the radius of
speed of the vehicle is curvature of bridge is 20 m, the ratio of
normal forces exerted on the cars when they
1) ( 2 + 1)ms −1 2) 2( 2 −1)ms −1 are at the middle of bridges (g = 10 ms-2)
3) 2( 2 + 1)ms −1 4) 2( 2 + 1)ms −1 1) 1 : 3 2) 1 : 2
31. In a hydroelectric power station, the height of 3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 5
the dam is 10 m. How many kg of water must 36. A ball of mass ‘m’ approaches a moving wall
fall per second on the blades of a turbine in of infinite mass with speed v along the normal
order to generate 1 MW of electrical power? to the wall. The speed of the wall is u towards
(g = 10 ms-2) the ball. The speed of the ball after an perfect
elastic collision with the wall is
1) 103 Kgs-1 2) 104 Kgs-1
1) v – 2u away from the wall
3) 105 Kgs-1 4) 106 Kgs-1
2) 2u + v away from the wall
32. Two bodies of different masses are dropped
3) u – v away from the wall
from heights h1 and h2 above the ground
respectively. On reaching the ground if they 4) u + v away from the wall
have equal momenta, then the ratio of their 37. An object has a displacement from position
kinetic energies on reaching the ground will be vector r1 = (2iˆ + 3j)m
ˆ to r2 = (4iˆ + 6ˆj)m under
1) h1 : h2 2) h2 : h1 a force F = (3x 2ˆi + 2yj)N
ˆ . Find the work done
3) h1 : h 2 4) h 2 : h1 by this force
33. A beed starts sliding from A on a frictionless 1) 83 J 2) 46 J
wire with initial velocity of 4 ms-1. On 3) 58 J 4) 32 J
reaching C its velocity will be (g = 10 ms-2) 38. A man weighing 60 kg lifts a body of 15 kg to
the top of a building 10 m high in 3 minutes.
His efficiency is
1) 10 % 2) 20 %
3) 30 % 4) 40 %
39. The potential energy of a body of mass ‘m’ is
U = ax + by, where x and y are position
co-ordinates of the particle. The acceleration
1) 8 ms-1 2) 4 ms-1 of the particle is
3) 2 ms-1 4) zero
34. A nail is located below the point of suspension (a 2 + b 2 ) a 2 + b2
1) 2)
of a simple pendulum of length l. The bob is m m
released from horizontal position. If the bob a+b a+b
3) 4)
loops a vertical circle with nail as centre, find m m
the distance of nail from point of suspension
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40. A uniform beam of length 6m and mass 20 kg 46. If water samples are taken from sea, rivers or
is lying on horizontal floor. The work done in lake, they will be found to contain hydrogen
Joules to make it stand vertical on the floor is and oxygen in the approximate ratio of 1 : 8.
1) 1176 2) 882 This indicates the law of
3) 588 4) 294 1) multiple proportion
41. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of 2) definite proportion
mass M, a distance d at a constant downward 3) reciprocal proportion
g 4) none of these
acceleration of . The work done by the
4 47. Which of the following pair does not obey law
tension in the cord on the block is of multiple proportion?
d d 1) CO and CO2 2) N2O and NO
1) Mg 2) 3Mg
4 4 3) CH4 and CO2 4) SO2 and SO3
d 48. Law of conservation of mass is not applicable
3) −3Mg 4) Mgd
4 in
42. If P, V and E denote the momentum, velocity 1) Physical change
and K.E of a particle respectively then, 2) Chemical reaction
dE d 2E 3) Nuclear reaction
1) P = 2) P = 4) Both (1) and (3)
dV dV 2
49. One of the following combinations illustrate
dV d2V law of reciprocal proportions
3) P = 4) P =
dE dE 2 1) N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 2) NaCl, NaBr, NaI
43. When a spring is compressed by 3 cm, its 3) CS2, CO2, SO2 4) PH3, P2O3, P2O5
potential energy is U. When it is compressed 50. How much volume of concentrated 1M NaOH
by 6 cm, its potential energy will be solution be taken, which contains 0.2 moles of
1) U 2) 2U NaOH.
3) 3 U 4) 4U 1) 200 ml 2) 5 ml
44. A projectile is fired from the top of a tower of 3) 20 ml 4) can’t prepared
height h with an initial speed of u at an 51. Which of the concentration term independent
unknown angle. On reaching the ground its on temperature
speed would be 1) w/v% 2) molarity
1) u 2 − 2gh 2) u + 2gh 3) molality 4) all of these
52. The density of 3M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g
3) u + 2gh 4) u 2 + 2gh mL-1. Calculate the molality of the solution
45. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a 1) 3.00 m 2) 2.10 m
velocity of 10 m/s undergoes a head on 3) 2.50 m 4) 2.79 m
collision with a stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If 53. What is the concentration of sugar (C12H22O11)
after the collision both the balls move in mol lit-1. If its 3.42 g are dissolved in
together, then loss in kinetic energy due to enough water to make a final volume upto 2
collision is lit.
1) 60 J 2) 80 J 1) 0.005 2) 0.01
3) 120 J 4) 160 J 3) 0.015 4) 5.8
 6 Test ID : 509
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54. If the density of methanol is 0.793 kg lit , 64. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. Its
what is its volume needed for making 2.5 lit of vapour density is 70. The value of x must be
its 0.25M solution? 1) 7 2) 4
1) 0.025 ml 2) 25 ml 3) 5 4) 6
3) 0.25 ml 4) 2.5 ml 65. The number of atoms of Cr and O are
55. Molarity of 3N H3PO3 is 4.8 x 1010 and 9.6 x 1010 respectively.
1) 1 M 2) 1.5 M Empirical formula of the compound is
3) 3 M 4) 6 M 1) Cr2O3 2) CrO2
56. Which one of the following has no units 3) CrO 4) CrO3
1) molarity 2) normality 66. The relative number of atoms of different
3) molality 4) mole fraction elements in a compound are as follows:
57. Equivalent weight of H2SO4 is A = 1.33, B = 1 and C = 1.5. The empirical
1) 98 2) 49 formula of the compound is
3) 64 4) 32 1) A2B2C3 2) ABC
58. Equivalent weight of NaOH is 3) A8B6C9 4) A3B3C4
1) 20 2) 10
67. Molarity of pure water is
3) 40 4) any of these
1) 5.56M 2) 55.6M
59. Which one of the following is not fixed
3) 0.556M 4) 5.65M
quantity?
68. Equal masses of H2, O2 and CH4 have been
1) formula weight 2) molecular weight
taken in a container of volume V at
3) equivalent weight 4) atomic weight
temperature 27°C in identical conditions. The
60. Gram equivalent weight of Na2CO3 is
ratio of the volume of gases H2 : O2 : CH4
1) 53 2) 106
would be
3) 100 4) 50
1) 8 : 16 : 1 2) 16 : 8 : 1
61. Equivalent weight of MnO4- in acidic, strongly
basic and neutral medium is in the ratio of 3) 16 : 1 : 2 4) 8 : 1 : 2
1) 3 : 5 : 15 2) 5 : 3 : 1 69. In a compound C, H and N are present in the
3) 5 : 1 : 3 4) 3 : 15 : 5 ratio of 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. If molecular
+ weight of the compound is 108, then the
62. Cr2 O 7−2 
H
→ Cr2 O3 , in the reaction, The
molecular formula of the compound is
equivalent weight of Cr2 O 7−2 is -------- 1) C5H6N3 2) C3H2N5
(M = mol. wt) 3) C6H8N2 4) C7H10N
M M 70. The mass composition of universe may be
1) 2)
3 1 given as 90% H2 and 10% He. The average
M M molecular mass of universe should be
3) 4)
6 2 1) 2.20 2) 2.10
63. The equivalent weights of an element of 3) 3.80 4) 3.64
variable valency are 21 and 14. The atomic 71. Total mass of 1 mole of electrons is
mass of the element may be (me = 9.11 x 10-28 g)
1) 35 2) 42 1) 0.55 g 2) 0.55 mg
3) 70 4) 126 3) 0.44 g 4) 0.44 kg
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72. The number of molecules present in 1 mL of 81. How many total atoms are present in 1mole of
an ideal gas at STP is sucrose (C12H22O11)?
1) 1.66 x 1024 2) 6.023 x 10-23 1) 12NA 2) 45NA
3) 1.66 x 1027 4) 2.689 x 1019 3) 22NA 4) 36NA
73. 22.4 L of water vapour at STP, when 82. Which of the following has the empirical
condensed to water occupies an approximate
formula as CH2O?
volume of (Density of water = 1g/mL)
1) C2H5OH 2) CH3OH
1) 1 mL 2) 1 L
3) 18 mL 4) 18 L 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3COCH3
74. 1L of a certain gas weighs 1.965g at STP. The 83. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% sulphur,
gas may possibly be what will be the empirical formula?
1) N2 2) H2O 1) SO 2) SO2
3) N2O 4) CO 3) SO3 4) S2O3
75. 3.011 x 1022 atoms of an element weighs 1.15 84. Two elements X(At. Wt. 75) and Y(At.wt. 16)
gm. The atomic mass of the element is composes to give a compound having 75.8%
1) 2.3 g 2) 23 g of X. The formula of compound
3) 230 g 4) 0.23 g 1) XY 2) X2Y
76. A protein contains 5.6% of Fe by weight. The 3) XY2 4) X2Y3
approximate minimum molecular mass of the
85. Weight ratio of oxygen in equal moles of
protein will be
Fe2O3 and FeO is
1) 1000 u 2) 1200 u
3) 1400 u 4) 1600 u 1) 3 : 2 2) 1 : 2
77. Total number of protons, electrons and 3) 2 : 1 4) 3 : 1
neutrons present in 1g of hydride ion is 86. A hydrocarbon contains 14.3% of hydrogen
1) NA 2) 2NA and 85.7% of carbon. Its empirical formula is
3) 3NA 4) 4NA 1) CH 2) CH2
78. O2, N2 are present in the ratio of 1 : 4 by 3) CH3 4) C2H3
weight. The ratio of number of molecules is 87. The percentage of oxygen present in C6H12O6
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 is (approximately)
3) 7 : 32 4) 7 : 2 1) 40% 2) 53%
79. The volume of CO2 that contains the same
3) 7% 4) 11%
number of molecules as in 5 gm of CH4 is
(STP) 88. Find the mass percent of ‘2’ g of a solute
1) 3L of CO2 2) 5L of CO2 added into 18 ml of water (d H2O = 1g / cc)
3) 7L of CO2 4) 9L of CO2 1) 11.1 2) 10
80. From 200 mg of CO2, of 1021 molecules are 3) 0.1 4) 0.11
removed. How many moles of CO2 is left? 89. If the mass ratio of water and glucose in the
1) 2.885 x 10-3 moles solution is 1 : 10, then the mole fraction of
2) 1.737 x 102 moles glucose in the solution is
3) 127 x 103 moles
1) 5.0 2) 0.5
4) 1.27 x 10-3 moles
3) 0.05 4) 1
 8 Test ID : 509
90. 4 g of NaOH present in ‘1’ lit of the solution is 95. Cell theory is not applicable to
called 1) Viroids 2) Viruses
1) semi molar solution 3) Prions 4) All the above
2) deca molar solution 96. A prokaryotic cell is differing from a
3) deci molar solution eukaryotic cell by having ---
4) molar solution 1) Ribosomes 2) Nucleus
91. The major contribution of G.N. Ramachandran
3) Naked DNA 4) Centrioles
to the structural biology is
97. These are responsible for unique phenotypic
1) Discovery of double helical structure of
character of bacteria
DNA
1) Cell wall 2) Plasmids
2) Discovery of α- helix and β- sheets
3) Mesosomes 4) Flagella
3) Discovery of triple helical structure of 98. Select an incorrect match from the following
collagen
1) Mycoplasmas – 0.3 µm in length
4) Discovery of tertiary structure of proteins 2) Human RBC – 7.0 µm in diameter
92. Statement –I:Cell is the fundamental 3) Bacteria – 3 to 5 µm
structural and functional unit of all living 4) PPLO – 5 to 10 µm
organisms. 99. Which of the following prokaryotic structure
Statement –II:Unicellular organisms are is similar structurally to that of the
capable of independent existence. eukaryotes?
1) Statement –I only correct 1) Ultra structure of flagella
2) Statement –II only correct 2) Cell membrane
3) Both the statements are correct 3) Chemical composition of cell wall
4) Both the statements are incorrect 4) Membrane bound organelles
93. Select a correct match from the following 100. Envelope of a bacterial cell consists of

1) A.V. Leeuwenhoek – Nucleus 1) Cell wall and Plasma membrane only

2) Robert Brown – Discovered a cell 2) Slime layer and cell wall only
3) Schleiden – Plasmamembrane 3) Glycocalyx, Cell wall and Plasma
4) Singer – Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
membrane 4) Capsule and cell wall only
101. Identify the correct option w.r.t the given
94. The proposition of Rudolf Virchow is
microscopic image of gram staining technique
1) Plants are composed of cells and products
of cells
2) Animals are composed of cells and
products of cells
3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
4) Unicellular organisms are capable of
performing the essential functions of the
life
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1) Gram positive bacteria and it retains 107. Gas vacuoles are found in
primary stain in the cell wall a) Cyanobacteria
2) Gram negative bacteria and it retains b) Purple bacteria
counter stain in the cell wall
c) Green bacteria
3) Gram positive bacilli and it retains primary
stain in the cell wall d) All heterotrophic bacteria
4) Gram negative cocci and it retains counter 1) a, b and d 2) a, b and c
stain in the cell wall 3) a, c and d 4) a, b, c and d
102. Which of the following provides a strong 108. Tubular and lamellar structures in the
structural support two prevent the bacterium cytoplasm are
from bursting or collapsing?
1) Mesosomes 2) Plasmids
1) Glycocalyx 2) Cell membrane
3) Inclusions 4) Ribosomes
3) LPS 4) Cell wall
109. Inbacteria respiratory enzymes are mainly
103. Select a false statement from the following
1) Glycocalyx protects the bacteria from associated with
desiccation 1) Glycocalyx
2) Mesosome is the characteristic of 2) Genome
prokaryotes 3) Cell wall
3) Plasmamembrane interacts with the outside 4) Plasma membrane
world
110. Statement – I: In eukaryotic cell membrane,
4) Cytoskeleton is absent in prokaryotes
peripheral proteins are partially or completely
104. The chief components of eubacterial cell wall
buried in the membrane.
are —
1) NAT and NAG Statement – II: Chromatophores are found in
2) NAM and NAG cyanobacteria
3) NAM and LPS 1) Statement –I only correct
4) NAM, NAG and Pectin 2) Statement – II only correct
105. Slime layer of a bacterial cell is – 3) Both the statements are correct
1) Loosely associated extracellular material 4) Both the statements are incorrect
2) Tightly associated intracellular material 111. Genetic material is naked in bacterial cells
3) Selectively permeable membrane because
4) Unorganised dry layer
1) Histones are absent
106. Select a miss-match from the following
2) Chromosomal organisation is absent
1 Streptococcus 3) Nuclear envelope is absent
4) Nucleosomes are absent
2 Staphylococcus 112. In bacteria, transformation of genetic material
is generally aided by
3 Streptobacillus 1) Fimbriae 2) Flagella

4 Sarcina 3) Sex pili 4) Cilia

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113. Prokaryotic flagella differs from eukaryotic 121. Cell wall materials found in the algal cells are
flagella by not having A. Galactans B. Mannans
1) Proteinaceous filaments C. Cellulose D. Few minerals
2) Hook and filaments
1) A, B and C only 2) A, B and D only
3) Basal body
3) A, B, C and D 4) B, C and D only
4) 9+2 organisation of microtubules
122. In plants neighbouring cells are adjoining by
114. The scientists who first proposed that the
presence of cell wall is a unique character of 1) Middle lamellum 2) Cell walls
the plant cell is 3) Plasma membrane 4) Glycocalyx
1) R. Brown 2) T. Schwann 123. Saturated hydrocarbons are present in
3) M.J. Schleiden 4) R. Virchow 1) Hydrophobic heads
115. Mesosomes help in
2) Hydrophilic heads
A. Cell wall formation B. DNA replication
3) Hydrophobic tails
C. Secretion
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 4) Hydrophilic tails
3) A and B only 4) A, B and C 124. Identify the given picture.
116. Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are
stored in the form of
1) Polyribosomes 2) Vacuoles
3) Mesosomes 4) Inclusion bodies
117. Glycocalyx differ in
1) composition among different bacteria a. It is a selectively permeable membrane
2) thickness among different bacteria b. It allows the molecules to pass through,
3) position among different bacteria either passively or actively
4) Both (1) and (2) c. Extrinsic proteins are only carrier proteins in
118. The lipid component of cell membrane is the membrane
mainly consists of d. Polar molecules can pass through the non-
1) Glycerol 2) Lipoprotein polar bilipid layer
3) Phosphoglycerides 4) Carbohydrates How many statements are correct?
119. The approximate content of lipids and proteins
1) 5 2) 3
in the cell membrane of human RBC
respectively is 3) 4 4) 2
1) 40 and 52 2) 52 and 35 125. Statement– I: Active transport is an energy
3) 40 and 60 4) 52 and 40 independent process.
120. In eukaryotic cell membrane, lateral Statement – II: Molecules move against the
movement of proteins was enabled by concentration gradient in active transport.
1) integral proteins 1) Both the statements are correct
2) carbohydrates 2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) quasi-fluid nature of lipid 3) Statement –I only correct
4) forming intercellular junctions 4) Statement – II only correct
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126. Middle lamellum is mainly composed of 131. Statement –I: Movement of water by

1) Calcium and Magnesium pectates diffusion is called osmosis and it is a passive

transport
2) Galactans and Mannans
Statement –II: Fluid nature of the membrane
3) Cellulose and Pectin
is important for secretion and endocytosis.
4) Hemicellulose 1) Both the statements are correct
127. Whichof the cell wall layer is capable of 2) Both the statements are incorrect
growth? 3) Statement –I only correct
1) Primary cell wall 4) Statement – II only correct
2) Secondary cell wall 132. Primary stain and counter stain respectively in
3) Tertiary cell wall gram staining process are
4) Middle lamellum 1) Safranine and crystal violet
128. Match the following cells with their shapes. 2) Safranine and Iodine
3) Crystal violet and Safranine
1) WBC A) Elongated
4) Crystal violet and Iodine
2) Epithelial Cells B) Round to oval 133. Omnis cellula-e cellula explains
3) Mesophyll C) Amoeboid 1) Cell inheritance
cells 2) Defence mechanism in bacteria
4) Tracheid D) Long and 3) Composition of cells
narrow 4) Immune response by host
134. Select a correct statement from the following
1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
1) Cyanophycean granules are reserve
2) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
materials in all prokaryotes.
3) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
2) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the
4) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A mRNA into proteins in eukaryotic
129. Neutral
solutes may move across the cytoplasm.
membrane by 3) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
1) Simple diffusion activities in both plants and animals.
2) Facilitated diffusion only 4) Chromatophores are found in all bacterial
cells.
3) Active transport only
135. Statement –I: Prokaryotic cells are generally
4) Co-transport
+
smaller and multiply more rapidly than the
130. Na and K+ pumps are eukaryotic cells.
1) Transport the molecules along the Statement –II: In prokaryotes, ribosome are
concentration gradient associated with the plasma membrane of the
2) Transport the ions against the concentration cell.
gradient without any requirement of ATP 1) Both the statements are correct
3) Passive symport and antiport respectively 2) Both the statements are incorrect
4) Transport ions from lower concentration to 3) Statement –I only correct
higher concentration, by utilising ATP 4) Statement – II only correct
 12 Test ID : 509
136. Both tricuspid and bicuspid valves are kept 143. Duration of joint diastole / cardiac diastole is
open during _____. 1) 0.1 sec 2) 0.3 sec
1) ventricular systole 2) atrial systole 3) 0.4 sec 4) 0.5 sec
3) joint diastole 4) both 2 and 3 144. In healthy man the end systolic volume is ___
137. Percent of the blood that flows into ventricles
1) 120 ml 2) 70 ml
during atrial systole is ____.
3) 50 ml 4) 80 ml
1) 70 2) 30
145. What would be the heart rate of a person if the
3) 40 4) 20
cardiac output is 5 liters, blood volume in the
138. Atrial systole is caused by the action potentials
ventricle at the end of diastole is 110 mL and
that are generated from the ____.
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
1) SA node 2) AV node
1) 72 times per minute
3) AV bundle 4) Purkinje fibres
2) 84 times per minute
139. During ventricular systole _____.
3) 92 times per minute
1) tricuspid valve is only closed
4) 100 times per minute
2) bicuspid valve is only closed
146. In humans which heart sound is high pitched
3) first tricuspid and bicuspid valves are closed
and last for about short duration?
then/ later semilunar valves are opened
1) First heart sound
4) semilunar valves are closed
140. The first heart sound is produced by
2) Second heart sound
1) closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves 3) DUB sound
during atrial systole 4) Both 2 and 3
2) closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves 147. During ventricular systole in human heart
during ventricular systole 1) blood enters ventricles from atria
3) closure of semilunar valves during 2) closure of semilunar valves occurs
ventricular systole 3) opening of cuspid valves takes place
4) closure of semilunar valves during 4) pressure within the ventricles increases
ventricular diastole
148. Select the incorrect match among given
141. Cardiac output is
options in context of healthy humans.
1) the volume of the blood pumped out by
1) Stroke volume → 70 mL
each ventricle for each heart beat
2) Average cardiac output → 5 litres
2) the volume of the blood pumped out by
each ventricle per minute 3) Aorta → semilunar valves
3) the volume of the blood contained in the 4) End diastolic volume → 150 mL
entire heart 149. Electric activities of heart are measured by an

4) the volume of the oxygenated blood instrument known as

pumped out by each ventricle for each heart 1) electrocardiogram
beat 2) electrocardiograph
142. Duration of ventricular diastole 3) stethoscope
1) 0.1 sec 2) 0.7 sec 4) electromyogram
3) 0.3 sec 4) 0.5 sec
 13 Test ID : 509
150. Read the following statements and select the 154. The instrument that used for hearing heart
correct option/s. sounds is _____.
i) Sino-atrial node comprises of auto 1) spirometer 2) stethoscope
excitable tissue. 3) sphygmomanometer 4) respirometer
ii) Semilunar valves are open when intra 155. Which of the following valves get closed with
ventricular pressure exceeds. the decrease of pressure in the ventricles?
iii) 70% ventricular filling takes place when 1) Tricuspid valve 2) Bicuspid valve
atria are in diastole and A.V valves remain 3) Mitral valve 4) Semilunar valves
closed.
156. In adult humans, heart valves that allow the
iv) Duration of each cardiac cycle in healthy flow of oxygenated blood are ____.
human is 0.8 seconds which can be altered
1) Eustachian valve and pulmonary valve
in fear or fight condition.
2) Mitral valve and pulmonary valve
1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only
3) Mitral valve and aortic valve
3) iii and iv only 4) all except iii
4) Tricuspid valve and aortic valve
151. Which of the following event is not possible
157. What would be the cardiac output of a person
during cardiac cycle?
1) simultaneous contraction of both atria having 70 heart beats per minute and a stroke
volume of 60 mL?
2) simultaneous contraction of both ventricles
1) 3600 mL 2) 4200 mL
3) simultaneous relaxation of atria and
ventricles 3) 5000 mL 4) 7200 mL
4) simultaneous contraction of atria and 158. The correct pathway of initiation and passing

ventricles route of conduction of impulse is ___

152. In cardiac cycle, which sequence of events is 1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → AV node →
correct when the stimuli originate from SA AV bundle
node? 2) SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibres →
A : Ventricular systole, B : Joint diastole / AV bundle
cardiac diastole, C : Atrial systole 3) SA node → AV node → AV bundle →
1) B → A → C 2) C → A → B Purkinje fibres
3) C → B → A 4) A → C → B 4) SA node → AV bundle → AV node →
153. Match the columns. Purkinje fibres
159. Ventricular systole occurs
Column - I Column - II
i) return of ventricles from 1) after the atrial systole
A) P - wave 2) after the atrial diastole
excited state
B) QRS ii) electrical excitation of 3) when tricuspid and bicuspid valves closed
complex atria 4) both 1 and 3
iii) depolarization of 160. A patient is hooked up to a monitoring
C) T- wave machine that shows voltage traces on a screen
ventricles
and makes the sound “... pip ...pip…pip…
1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i
peeeeeeeee” as the patient goes into the ___
2) A - i, B - iii, C - ii
1) heart attack 2) heart failure
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
3) cardiac failure 4) cardiac arrest
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii
 14 Test ID : 509
161. To obtain the standard ECG, patient is 166. Which of the following layer is commonly
connected to the machine with 3 electrical present in the walls of all arteries, veins and
leads that are attached to___ capillaries?
1) left wrist and each ankle 1) Tunica externa 2) Tunica media
2) right wrist and each ankle 3) Tunica interna 4) both 1 and 2
3) each wrist and left ankle 167. Tunica interna of blood vessels is made up of
4) each wrist and right ankle 1) muscular tissue 2) connective tissue
162. In a given period, one can determine the heart 3) nervous tissue 4) epithelial tissue
beat rate of an individual by counting the 168. The blood pumped by right ventricle enters the
number of ____ pulmonary artery is A , whereas the left
1) P-wave 2) QRS complex ventricle pumps the blood into the aorta is B .
3) T-wave 4) Q-wave 1) A - oxygenated blood, B - deoxygenated
163. Study the given figure and give appropriate blood
labeling from given option. 2) A - deoxygenated blood, B - oxygenated
blood
3) A - oxygenated blood, B - oxygenated
blood
4) A - deoxygenated blood, B - deoxygenated
blood
169. An unique vascular connection exists between
1) A - Pulmonary artery, B - Pulmonary vein, the digestive tract and liver is ____
C - Vena cava, D - Dorsal aorta
1) renal portal system
2) A - Pulmonary artery, B - Vena cava,
2) hepatic portal system
C - Pulmonary vein, D - Dorsal aorta
3) lymphatic system
3) A - Pulmonary vein, B - Pulmonary artery,
4) both 1 and 2
C - Dorsal aorta, D - Vena cava
170. Coronary system of our body is exclusively
4) A - Pulmonary vein, B - Dorsal aorta,
for the circulation of blood to and from the
C - Pulmonary artery, D - Vena cava
____.
164. In which of the following tunica media is thin?
1) hepatic musculature
1) Artery 2) Vein
2) renal musculature
3) Capillary 4) both 1 and 2
3) gastric musculature
165. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
4) cardiac musculature
171. Number of coronary arteries and coronary
veins of coronary system in humans
respectively is ____.
1) 2 and 4 2) 4 and 2
3) 2 and 2 4) 4 and 4
172. Systemic circulation helps
1) in oxygenation of blood at lungs
1) A - Artery, B - Capillary, C - Vein
2) to provide blood circulation to heart muscles
2) A - Vein, B - Artery, C - Capillary
3) to provide nutrients and O2 to the tissues
3) A - Vein, B - Capillary, C - Artery
4) to provide blood circulation from gastro
4) A - Capillary, B - Artery, C - Vein intestinal tract to liver
 15 Test ID : 509
173. Components that participate in pulmonary Statement-II: Blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg
circulation are ____ is considered an hypertension and requires
1) right ventricle, left atrium, pulmonary treatment.
arteries and pulmonary veins 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) left ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
arteries and pulmonary veins incorrect
3) right and left atria, pulmonary veins and 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
arteries correct
4) right and left ventricles, pulmonary veins 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
and arteries 178. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often
174. Correct pathway of circulation in systemic
referred to as ____
circulation is _____
1) angina pectoris
1) left ventricle → aorta → dorsal aorta →
2) atherosclerosis
arteries → tissues → veins → vena cava →
left atrium 3) myocardial infarction
2) right ventricle → aorta → dorsal aorta → 4) coronary thrombosis
arteries → tissues → veins → vena cava → 179. A symptom of acute chest pain appears due to
right atrium inadequate O2 reaching the heart muscles is
3) left ventricle → aorta → dorsal aorta → the symptom of _____.
arteries → tissues → veins → vena cava → 1) atherosclerosis
right atrium 2) myocardial infarction
4) left ventricle → pulmonary artery → dorsal 3) angina pectoris
aorta → arteries → tissues → veins → vena 4) CAD
cava → right atrium 180. Match the columns.
175. Normal activities of the heart are regulated
intrinsically by Column - I Column - II
1) Endocrine system i) When the heart stops
A) Heart failure
2) Nervous system beating
3) Nodal tissue ii) When the heart muscle
B) Cardiac arrest
4) Autonomic nervous is suddenly damaged
176. Neural centre that can moderate the cardiac iii) When heart is not
function is located in _____. C) Heart attack
pumping enough blood
1) cerebrum
1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii
2) medulla oblongata
2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii
3) pons
3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii
4) epithalamus
4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
177. Statement-I: When blood pressure of an
individual is 190/110 mm Hg it may harm
vital organs like brain and kidney.
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