PH8151 - Engineering Physics MCQ PDF

Department of Science and Humanities MCQ for Regulations 2017
2. The property of a material by which it can

be beaten or rolled into thin plates is called
PH8151 - __________
a) Malleability
Engineering Physics b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
Dept. of Physics
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Answer: a
Explanation: A material can be beaten into
Multiple Choice thin plates by its property of malleability.
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3. Which law is also called as the elasticity
Questions (MCQ)
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law?
a) Bernoulli’s law
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b) Stress law
Regulations 2017 c) Hooke’s law
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d) Poisson’s law
(Common to All)
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Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke”s law is valid under
the elastic limit of a body. It itself states that
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stress is proportional to the strain within the
elastic limit.
UNIT I PROPERTIES OF
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MATTER 4. The materials which have the same elastic

properties in all directions are called
__________
.B
TOPIC 1.1 ELASTICITY a) Isotropic

b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
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1. The property by which a body returns to its

original shape after removal of the force is d) Hard
called __________
Answer: a
a) Plasticity
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Explanation: Same elastic properties in all

b) Elasticity
direction is called the homogenity of a
c) Ductility
material.
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d) Malleability
5. A member which does not regain its
Answer: b
original shape after removal of the load
Explanation: When an external force acts on
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producing deformation is said __________

a body, the body tends to undergo some
a) Plastic
deformation. If the external force is removed
b) Elastic
and the body comes back to its original shape
c) Rigid
and size, the body is known as elastic body
d) None of the mentioned
and this property is called elasticity.
Answer: a
Explanation: A plastic material does not
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regain its original shape after removal of load. c) Hyper elastic materials
An elastic material regain its original shape d) None of the mentioned
after removal of load.
Answer: c
6. The body will regain it is previous shape Explanation: The hyper elastic materials are
and size only when the deformation caused derived from a strain energy density function.
by the external forces, is within a certain A model is hyper elastic if and only if it is
limit. What is that limit? possible to express the cauchy stress tensor as
a) Plastic limit a function of the deformation gradient.
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b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit 10. What the number that measures an
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d) None of the mentioned object’s resistance to being deformed
elastically when stress is applied to it?
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Answer: b a) Elastic modulus
Explanation: The body only regain its b) Plastic modulus
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previous shape and size only upto its elastic c) Poisson’s ratio
limit. d) Stress modulus
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7. The materials which have the same elastic Answer: a
properties in all directions are called Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio
__________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
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of stress to strain.
TOPIC 1.2 STRESS-STRAIN

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c) Homogenous
d) Hard DIAGRAM AND ITS USES
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Answer: a 1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the

Explanation: Isotropic materials have the elastic deformation region is ____________
same elastic properties in all directions.
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a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
8. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain c) Poisson’s ratio
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__________ d) None of the mentioned

a) Increases more rapidly
b) Decreases more rapidly Answer: a
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
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Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio

d) Decreases in proportion to the stress of stress and strain. So on the stress strain
curve, it is the slope.
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Answer: a
Explanation: On reaching the tensile stress to 2. What is the stress-strain curve?
the elastic limit after the proportionality limit, a) It is the percentage of stress and stain
the stress is no longer proportional to the b) It is the relationship between stress and
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strain. Then the value of strain rapidly strain

increases. c) It is the difference between stress and
strain
9. What kind of elastic materials are derived d) None of the mentioned
from a strain energy density function?
a) Cauchy elastic materials Answer: b
b) Hypo elastic materials Explanation: The relationship between stress

and strain on a graph is the stress strain curve. a) Last point

It represents the change in stress with change b) Breaking point
in strain. c) Elastic limit
d) Material limit
3. Which point on the stress strain curve
occurs after the proportionality limit? Answer: b
a) Upper yield point Explanation: After the ultimate point the
b) Lower yield point value of stress will reduce on increasing of
c) Elastic limit strain and ultimately the material will break.
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d) Ultimate point
7. Elastic limit is the point ____________
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Answer: c a) up to which stress is proportional to strain
Explanation: The curve will be stress strain b) At which elongation takes place without
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proportional upto the proportionality limit. application of additional load
After these, the elastic limit will occur. c) Up to which if the load is removed,
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original volume and shapes are regained
4. Which point on the stress strain curve d) None of the mentioned
occurs after the lower yield point?
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a) Yield plateau Answer: c
b) Upper yield point Explanation: The elastic limit is that limit up
c) Ultimate point
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to which any material behaves like an elastic
material.
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Answer: a 8. What is the point P shown on the stress
Explanation: The points on the curve comes strain curve?
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in the given order,

A. proportionality limit
B. elastic limit
C. upper yield point
.B
D. lower yield point

E. yield plateau
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F. ultimate point
G. breaking point.

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occurs after yield plateau?

a) lower yield point
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b) Upper yield point a) Upper yield point

c) Ultimate point b) Yield plateau
d) Breaking point c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
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Answer: c
Explanation: After the yield plateau the Answer: d
curve will go up to its maximum limit of Explanation: It is the point showing the
stress which is its ultimate point. maximum stress to which the material can be
subjected in a simple tensile stress.
occurs after the ultimate point?

9. What is the point P shown in the stress- 11. Where is the necking region?
strain curve? a) The area between lower yield point and
upper yield point
b) The area between the plastic limit and
elastic limit
c) The area between the ultimate point and
initial point
d) The area between the ultimate point and
rupture
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Answer: d
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Explanation: Necking is a tensile strain
deformation which is cased in after the
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ultimate amount of stress occurs in the
a) Lower yield point material.
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b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point TOPIC 1.3 FACTORS
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AFFECTING ELASTIC
Answer: d MODULUS AND TENSILE
Explanation: The breaking point is the point
where the material breaks. The breaking point
will be the last point on the stress strain
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STRENGTH
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curve. 1. What is the elastic modulus of steel?
a) 69-79 GPa
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10. What is the point shown in the stress b) 41-45 GPa

strain curve? c) 190-217 GPa
d) 330-360 GPa
.B
Answer: c
Explanation: Steel has an elastic modulus of
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190-217 GPa. It has E higher than aluminum

and magnesium alloys. But lower than
tungsten and molybdenum alloys.
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2. What is the elastic modulus of titanium

alloys?
a) 150-170 GPa
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b) 180-214 GPa
a) Elastic limit c) 80-130 GPa
b) Lower yield point d) 41-45 GPa
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c) Yield plateau
d) Lower strain point Answer: c
Explanation: Titanium alloys have the elastic
Answer: b modulus in the range of 80 to 130 GPa. It is
Explanation: It is the lower yield point at greater than aluminum and magnesium alloys
which the curve levels off and plastic but lesser than steel.
deformation begins.

3. What is the order of elastic modulus for Answer: c

Nickel alloys, Lead alloys, Molybdenum Explanation: When the type of stress applied
alloys, alumina? is shear, E is known as shear modulus. It is
a) Pb < Mo < Ni < Al2O3 also known as modulus of rigidity. Stiffness is
b) Ni < Pb < Mo < Al2O3 measured in terms of E.
c) Pb < Ni < Mo < Al2O3 7. Which of the following tensile property is
d) Pb < Ni < Al2O3 < Mo dimensionless?
a) Tensile stress
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Answer: c b) Elastic modulus
Explanation: Lowest elastic modulus is of c) True strain
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Lead and its alloys of 14-18 GPa. Ni and Mo d) Toughness
alloys have elastic modulus of 180-214 and
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330-360 GPa respectively. Al2O3 has highest Answer: c
E among the four of 415 GPa. Explanation: True strain is dimensionless
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property. Tensile strength and elastic modulus
4. What property enhances with a decrease in are measured in MPa and GPa respectively.
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E?
a) Flexibility 8. What is a factor which controls the elastic
modulus?
b) Stiffness
c) Hardness
d) UTS
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a) Alloying
b) Heat treatment
c) Interatomic forces
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Answer: a d) Cold working
Explanation: The lower the elastic modulus
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of material, the more flexible it is. Bending of Answer: c

material becomes easier. On the other hand, Explanation: On a constant temperature and
stiffness decreases. pressure, E only is function of two factors.
First is type of interatomic forces. Second is
.B
5. What is the unit of elastic modulus? arrangement of atoms or crystal structure.

a) Mohs
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b) GPa 9. Stress should not exceed ___ when in

c) Kg service.
d) N a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
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Answer: b c) Fracture strength

Explanation: Elastic modulus is expressed in d) Toughness
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GPa. Mohs is the unit used for hardness.

Stress is measured in MPa. Answer: a
Explanation: Above yield strength, material
6. When applied stress is of shear type, the starts to deform plastically. It causes a change
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modulus of elasticity is known as ___ in dimensions and properties of a material. So

a) Bulk modulus material should be used below it.
b) Modulus of resilience
c) Shear modulus 10. Stress should not exceed ___ when in
d) Stiffness mechanical working
a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength

c) Fracture strength 2. What is the use of weight head in a torsion

d) Toughness testing equipment?
a) Holding the job only
Answer: b b) Holding the job and applying twisting
Explanation: Mechanical working process moment
consists of plastic deformation. So it is c) Holding the job and measuring the twisting
performed above yield strength. But it is moment
limited below tensile strength so as to avoid d) It is not a part of torsion testing equipment
fracture.
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Answer: c
11. Ductility of material is its ability to flow Explanation: The main job of weight head is
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plastically under compressive load. to hold the job and measure the twisting
a) True moment.while twisting head holds the other
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b) False end of job and applies twisting moment.
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Answer: b 3. Which of the following is used to measure
Explanation: Ductility is a tensile property. It how much the specimen is twisted?
is studied under tensile loading. It is the a) Micrometer
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ability to plastic flow without rupture. b) Clinometer
c) Troptometer
12. Work per unit volume of the material is a
known modulus of toughness.
a) True
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d) Tropometer
Answer: c
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b) False Explanation: Troptometer is an instrument
which is used for measuring the angular
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Answer: a distortion of the material. Mocrometer and

Explanation: Toughness is measured by the vernier callipers are used to measure length.
amount of work per unit volume of the Tropometer measures amount of torsion for a
material under static loading. Work per unit
.B
bone.
volume of material is called modulus of
toughness. 4. Torsional stress multiplied with original
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cross sectional are is:

TOPIC 1.4 TORSIONAL STRESS a) Maximum twisting load
b) Minimum twisting load
AND DEFORMATIONS
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c) Minimum shear load

d) Yield shear load
1. Which of the following cannot be
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determined using a torsion test? Answer: a

a) Modulus of elasticity in shear Explanation: Torsional stress is given by the
b) Torsion yield strength ratio of maximum twisting load and original
c) Modulus of rupture are of cross section of the material. Therefore,
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d) Young’s modulus torsional stress multiplied with original cross

sectional gives us maximum twisting load.
Answer: d
Explanation: Modulus of elasticity in shear, 5. Plastic deformation can only occur in case
torsion yield strength and modulus of rupture of torsional force.
can all be determined by performing torsion a) True
test on material. b) False

Answer: b the material becomes soft at hot working

Explanation: The above given statement is temperature.
false as plastic deformation can occur in case
of tensile, compressive and torsional load
after a point. After this point, the body cannot
TOPIC 1.5 TWISTING COUPLE
recover its original shape.
1. Torque is __________ moment.
6. What is the unit of polar moment of a) Twisting
inertia? b) Shear
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a) m2 c) Bending
d) Couple
b) m5
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c) m3 Answer: a
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d) m4 Explanation: A cylindrical shaft is subjected
to twisting moment or torque when a force is
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Answer: d acting on the member tangentially at some
Explanation: Polar moment of inertia radius in a plane of its cross section.
denoted by J, is given by integration of radius
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square with respect to small area of cross- 2. Twisting moment is a product of
section. Hence the unit is (m)(m)(m)2 which __________ and the radius.
is equal to m4. SP
a) Direction
b) Velocity
c) Force
7. Shear stress on a solid bar and hollow bar
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is same for given dimension. d) Acceleration
a) True
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Answer: c
b) False
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal
Answer: b to the product of force and radius. When a
shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every
.B
Explanation: Shear stress for a hollow bar

and a solid bar are different dimensions as the cross section of the shaft will surely
hollow bar has two dimensions, outer and experience shear stress.
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inner radius because of which calculation is

3. Torsion is denoted by __________
different than the solid bar which has only
a) R
one diameter.
b) Q
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8. In which of the following the angle of twist c) T

increases fast for a small amount of torque? d) N
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a) Cold working condition

Answer: c
b) Hot working condition
Explanation: If the moment is applied in a
c) Warm working condition
plane perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of
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d) The increase is the same for cold working,

the beam (or) shaft it will be subjected to
hot working and warm working
torsion. Torsion is represented or denoted by
Answer: b T.
Explanation: When the torsion test is
4. The SI units for torsion is __________
conducted in hot working, it is observed that
a) N m
for a slight change in torque on the given
b) N
specimen the angle of twist increase fast as

c) N/m Answer: b
d) m Explanation: The coefficient of contraction
may be determined experimentally by
Answer: a measuring the radius of jet as vena contact
Explanation: As torsion is a product of with the help of micro meter contraction
perpendicular force and radius, the units will gauge. This method is not accurate because it
be N m. is very difficult to measure the correct radius
Torque is also known as torsion or twisting of jet.
moment or turning moment.
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8. What is the general value for coefficient of
5. _____________ torsion is produced when contraction?
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twisting couple coincides with the axis of the a) 0.64
shaft. b) 0.67
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a) Exact c) 0.66
b) Pure d) 0.7
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c) Nominal
d) Mild Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of the area of a jet at
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Answer: b vena contracta to the area of orifice is known
Explanation: When a member is subjected to as the coefficient of contraction. The value of
the equal and opposite twisting moment at its
ends, then the member is said to be subjected
under pure torsion. Pure Torsion is often
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Cc varies from 0.61 to 0.69 for different
orifices. Generally, for sharp edged orifice the
value of Cc may be taken as 0. 64.
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produced when the axis of the twisting couple
coincides with the axis of the shaft. 9. The Cd value for internal mouthpiece
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running free is __________

6. Which of the following is known as Re- a) 0.6
entrant mouthpiece? b) 0.5
a) External Mouthpiece
.B
c) 0.7
b) Convergent Mouthpiece d) 0.8
c) Internal Mouthpiece
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d) Cylindrical Mouthpiece Answer: b

Explanation: The Cd value for internal
Answer: c mouthpiece running free is 0.5.
Explanation: According to the position,
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Value of
mouthpieces are classified as an external Type Of Mouthpiece
Cd
mouthpiece and internal mouthpiece. If the
External cylindrical
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tube projects inside the tank, it is called an 0.855

mouthpiece
internal mouthpiece or re-entrant or borda’s
mouthpiece. Internal mouthpiece running
0.5
free
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7. Micrometre contraction gauge is used to Internal mouthpiece running

determine ___________ 0.707
full
a) Cv
b) Cc 10. _______ is the velocity with which water
c) Ca reaches the notch or before it flows over it.
d) Cd a) Velocity of contact
b) Velocity of moment

c) Velocity of approach c) Triangular

d) Velocity of head d) Sharp edged
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of approach is Explanation: A triangular notch also called a
defined as the velocity with which water v notch is of triangle shape with apex down.
reaches the notch or weir before it flows over The expression of the discharge over
it. This velocity of approach creates an triangular notch or weir is Q = 8/15 Cd (2g)
additional head “ha” equal to Va2 / 2g and 1/2 × H 5/2.
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effect head over the notch is increased to
H+ha. 14. Calculate the discharge over rectangular
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Weir of 3 metres length under the head of
11. Which of the following formula was 400mm.Use Francis formula.
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proposed by Bazin?
a) 1.268 m3/s
a) m(2g)1/2×LH3/2
T.
b) 1.396 m3/s
b) m(2g) 1/2×H3/2
c) 1.475 m3/s
c) n(2g) 1/2×LH4/3
d) 1.528 m3/s
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d) n(2g)1/2×LH3/2
Answer: b
Answer: a
Explanation: Bazin proposed the following
formula for the discharge over rectangular
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Explanation: Francis formula for discharge
Q = 1.84 LH3/2.
Given L = 3m & H = 0.4m
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weir:
Q = 1.84 × 3 × (0.4)3/2.
Q = m(2g) 1/2× L H3/2.
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Where m = 0.405 + 0.003/H. Q = 1.396 m3/s.
12. For measuring low discharges 15. _____ converts mechanical energy into
hydraulic energy.
.B
_____________ notch is preferred.

a) Rectangular a) Dynamo
b) Stepped b) Pump
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c) Trapezoidal c) Turbine
d) Triangular d) Generator
Answer: b
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Answer: d
Explanation: A triangular notch is preferred Explanation: A pump is a mechanical device
to a rectangular notch due to which converts the mechanical energy into
hydraulic energy. The hydraulic energy is in
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i. The nappe emerging from a triangular notch

has the same shape for all heads. As such the the form of pressure energy. The pumps are
value for the triangular notch is constant for generally used for lifting liquid from a lower
all heads. level to a higher level.
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ii. The expression for discharge for right

angle triangle law not is very simple. TOPIC 1.6 TORSION
13. Which of the following is also known as
PENDULUM: THEORY AND
V notch? EXPERIMENT
a) Trapezoidal
b) Stepped

1. Torsional sectional modulus is also known Where T = Torque in Nm

as _________ L = Length of shaft
a) Polar modulus CJ = Torsional rigidity.
b) Sectional modulus
c) Torsion modulus 5. The power transmitted by shaft SI system
d) Torsional rigidity is given by __________
a) 2πNT/60
Answer: a b) 3πNT/60
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of c) 2πNT/45
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inertia to radius of section is called Polar d) NT/60 W
modulus or Torsional section modulus. Its
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units are mm3 or m3 (in SI). Answer: a
Explanation: In SI system, Power (P) is
C
2. ________ is a measure of the strength of measured in watts (W) ; P = 2πNT/60
shaft in rotation. Where T = Average Torque in N.m
T.
a) Torsional modulus N = rpm
b) Sectional modulus = 2πNT/ 45 1 watt = 1 Joule/sec = 1N.m/s.
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c) Polar modulus
d) Torsional rigidity 6. Area of catchment is measured in
___________
Answer: c
Explanation: The polar modulus is a measure
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a) mm3
b) Km2
of the strength of shaft in rotation. As the
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c) Km
value of Polar modulus increases torsional d) mm
strength increases.
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Answer: b
3. What are the units of torsional rigidity? Explanation: Catchment area can be defined
a) Nmm2 as the area which contributes the surplus
.B
b) N/mm water present over it to the stream or river. It

c) N-mm is an area which is responsible for
d) N maintaining flow in natural water bodies. It is
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expressed in square kilometres.

Answer: a
Explanation: The product of modulus of 7. ______ catchment area is a sum of free
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rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is catchment area and intercepted catchment
called torsional rigidity. Torsional rigidity is a area.
torque that produces a twist of one radian in a a) Total
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shaft of unit length. b) Additional

c) Combined
4. The angle of twist can be written as d) Overall
C
________
a) TL/J Answer: c
b) CJ/TL Explanation: Combined catchment area is
c) TL/CJ defined as the total catchment area which
d) T/J contributes the water in to stream or a tank.
Combined Catchment area = Free catchment
Answer: c area + intercepted catchment area.
Explanation: The angle of Twist = TL/CJ

8. ___________ has steep slopes and gives a) Lacey

more run off. b) Darcy
a) Intercepted Catchment Area c) Khosla
b) Good Catchment Area d) Ingli
c) Combined Catchment Area
d) Average Catchment Area Answer: d
Explanation: Run off can be estimated by
Answer: b R= 0.85P-30.48
Explanation: Good catchment area consists Where R = annual runoff in mm
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of hills or rocky lands with steep slopes and P = annual rainfall in mm.
little vegetation. It gives more run off.
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12. Monsoon duration factor is denoted by
9. How many number of rain gauge stations ________
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should be installed an area between 250 to a) P
500 km2. b) S
T.
a) 2 c) F
b) 4 d) T
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c) 3
d) 5 Answer: c
Explanation: Monsoon duration factor is
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 number of rain gauge stations
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denoted by F.
Class of
Monsoon
Monsoon Duration
Factor (F)
should be installed an area between 250 to
G
500 km2. Very Short 0.5
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Area of Number of Rain gauge Standard

1.0
Basin(Km ) 2 stations length
< 125 1 Very long 1.5
.B
125 – 250 2
13. Runoff coefficient is denoted by _______
250 – 500 3 a) P
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b) N
10. Trend of rainfall can be studied from c) K
_______ d) H
a) Rainfall graphs
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b) Rainfall records Answer: c

c) Rainfall curves Explanation: The runoff coefficient can be
d) Rainfall cumulatives
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defined as the ratio of runoff to rainfall.

Rainfall and runoff can be interrelated by
Answer: b runoff coefficient.
Explanation: Rainfall records are useful for R = KP
C
calculating run off over a basin. By using K = R/P [K = is a runoff Coefficient

rainfall records estimate of design parameters depending on the surface of the catchment
of irrigation structures can be made. The area].
maximum flow due to any storm can be
calculated and predicted. 14. _________ is a graph showing variations
of discharge with time.
11. Estimation of run off “R” is 0.85P-30.48. a) Rising limb graph
The above formula was coined by _____

b) Crest graph 2. What is the maximum shear force, when a

c) Hydraulic graph cantilever beam is loaded with udl
d) Gauge graph throughout?
a) w×l
Answer: c b) w
Explanation: Hydrograph is a graph showing c) w/l
variations of discharge with time at a d) w+l
particular point of the stream. The
hydrograph shows the time distribution of Answer: a
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total run off at a point of measurement. Explanation: In cantilever beams, the
Maximum flood discharge can also be maximum shear force occurs at the fixed end.
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calculated by using hydrograph. In the free end, there is zero shear force. As
we need to convert the udl in to load, we
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15. Calculate the torque which a shaft of 300 multiply the length of the cantilever beam
mm diameter can safely transmit, if the shear with udl acting upon. For maximum shear
T.
stress is 48 N / mm2. force to obtain we ought to multiply load and
a) 356 kNm distance and it surely occurs at the fixed end
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b) 254 kNm (w×l).
c) 332 kNm
3. Sagging, the bending moment occurs at the
d) 564 kNm
Answer: b
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_____ of the beam.
a) At supports
b) Mid span
Explanation: Given, the diameter of shaft D
G
= 300 mm c) Point of contraflexure
Maximum shear stress fs = 48 N/mm2. d) Point of emergence
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Torque = T = π/16 fs D3 Answer: b

= 254469004.9 Nmm Explanation: The positive bending moment
= 254 kNm.
.B
is considered when it causes convexity

downward or concavity at top. This is
TOPIC 1.7 BENDING OF BEAMS. sagging. In simply supported beams, it occurs
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BENDING MOMENT at mid span because the bending moment at

the supports obviously will be zero hence the
positive bending moment occurs in the mid
1. What is the bending moment at end
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span.
supports of a simply supported beam?
a) Maximum 4. What will be the variation in BMD for the
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b) Minimum diagram? [Assume l = 2m].

c) Zero
d) Uniform
C
Answer: c
Explanation: At the end supports, the
moment (couple) developed is zero, because
there is no distance to take the perpendicular
acting load. As the distance is zero, the
moment is obviously zero. a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal

c) Triangular Answer: c
d) Square Explanation: According to BIS, the standard
symbols used for sketching SFD are
Answer: c Point load = ———–
Explanation: At support B, the BM is zero. Udl load = \
The beam undergoes maximum BM at fixed
end.
By joining the base line, free end and
maximum BM point. We obtain a right angled
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triangle.
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C
T.
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7. ________ curve is formed due to bending
of over hanging beams.
a) Elastic
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b) Plastic
c) Flexural
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5. What is the maximum bending moment for

d) Axial
simply supported beam carrying a point load
“W” kN at its centre? Answer: a
a) W kNm
.B
Explanation: The line to which the

b) W/m kNm longitudinal axis of a beam bends or deflects
c) W×l kNm or deviates under given load is known as
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d) W×l/4 kNm elastic curve on deflection curve. Elastic

curve can also be known as elastic line or
Answer: d
elastic axis.
Explanation: We know that in simply
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supported beams the maximum BM occurs at 8. The relation between slope and maximum
the central span. bending moment is _________
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Moment at A = Moment at B = 0 a) Directly proportion

Moment at C = W/2 × l/2 = Wl/ 4 kNm b) Inversely proportion
(Sagging). c) Relative proportion
C
d) Mutual incidence
6. How do point loads and udl be represented
in SFD? Answer: b
a) Simple lines and curved lines Explanation: The relationship between slope
b) Curved lines and inclined lines and maximum bending moment is inversely
c) Simple lines and inclined lines proportional because, For example in simply
d) Cant represent any more supported beams slope is maximum at
supports and zero at midspan of a

symmetrically loaded beam where as bending Maximum BM at A = – 105 kNm

moment is zero at supports and maximum at = 105 Nm (hogging).
mid span. Hence we conclude that slope and
maximum bending moment are inversely
proportional to each other in a case of the
TOPIC 1.8 CANTILEVER:
simply supported beam. THEORY AND EXPERIMENT.
9. What is the SF at support B? 1. The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam

to its ___________ is called stiffness of the
M
beam.
a) Load
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b) Slope
c) Span
C
d) Reaction at the support
T.
a) 5 kN Answer: c
b) 3 kN Explanation: The stiffness of a beam is a
c) 2 kN
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measure of it’s resistance against deflection.
d) 0 kN The ratio of the maximum deflection of a
Answer: d
Explanation: Total load = 2×2 = 4kN
Shear force at A = 4 kN ( same between A
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beam to its span can be termed as stiffness of
the beam.
2. Stiffness of the beam is inversely

G
and C ) proportional to the _____ of the beam.
Shear force at C = 4 kN a) Slope
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Shear force at B = 0 kN b) Support reaction

Maximum SF at A = 4 kN. c) Deflection
d) Load
10. Where do the maximum BM occurs for
.B
the below diagram. Answer: c

Explanation: Stiffness of a beam is inversely
17
proportional to the deflection. Smaller the

deflection in a beam due to given external
load, greater is its stiffness.
-R
3. The maximum ____ should not exceed the

permissible limit to the span of the beam.
a) -54 kNm
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a) Slope
b) -92 kNm b) Deflection
c) -105 kNm c) Load
d) – 65 kNm dl Bending moment
C
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Moment at B = 0 Explanation: The maximum deflection of a
Moment at C = – (10 × 3) × (3/2) loaded beam should not exceed the
= – 45 kNm permissible limit in relation to the span of a
Moment at A = – (10 × 3) × (1.5 + 2 ) beam. While designing the beam the designer

should be keep in mind that both strength and c) Tensile

stiffness criteria. d) Compressive
4. In cantilever beam the deflection occurs at Answer: b

______ Explanation: An ideal fluid is a fluid where
a) Free end there is no resistance to the deformation. Ideal
b) Point of loading Fluids are those Fluids which have no
c) Through out viscosity surface tension. The shear stress is
d) Fixed end also absent. This fluid is also called as perfect
M
fluid.
Answer: a
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Explanation: Deflection can be defined as 7. Air and water are the examples of
the perpendicular displacement of a point on ___________
C
straight access to the curved axis. In a) Non Newtonian fluids
cantilever beams, the maximum deflection b) Vortex fluids
T.
occurs at free end. c) Real fluids
d) Ideal fluids
5. The maximum deflection in cantilever
O
beam of span “l”m and loading at free end is Answer: d
“W” kN. Explanation: The ideal Fluids are imaginary
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fluids in nature, they are incompressible.
These fluids possess low viscosity. Air and
water are considered as ideal fluids.
G
8. _______ fluids are practical fluids
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a) Ideal
b) Real
c) Vortex
d) Newtonian
.B
a) Wl3/2EI Answer: b
b) Wl3/3EI
17
Explanation: These fluids possess properties

c) Wl3/4EI such as viscosity, surface tension. They are
d) Wl2/2EI compressible in nature. The certain amount of
resistance is always offered by the fluids, they
-R
Answer: b also possess shear stress. They are also

Explanation: Maximum deflection occurs at known as practical fluids.
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free end distance between centre of gravity of

bending moment diagram and free end is x = 9. Specific weight of water at 4°C is
2l/3. ____________ N/m3.
As deflection is equal to the slope × “x”. The a) 9810
C
slope = Wl2/2EI radians b) 9760

Maximum deflection (y) = Ax/EI = Wl3/3EI. c) 9950
d) 9865
6. In an ideal fluid, the ____________
stresses are pretend to be absent. Answer: a
a) Bending Explanation: The specific weight (weight
b) Shearing density) of a fluid is weight per unit volume.

It is represented by symbol w & it is the numerator and denominator are same. The
expressed in Newton per metre cube (N/m3). value is 1.
The specific weight of water at 4 degree
13. Compute the maximum deflection at free
centigrade is 9810 N/m3or 9.81 kN/m3. end of a cantilever beam subjected to udl for
entire span of l metres.
10. The inverse of specific weight of a fluid is
__________ a) wl4/8EI
a) Specific gravity b) wl4/4EI
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b) Specific Volume c) wl3/8EI
c) Compressibility d) wl2/6EI
d) Viscosity
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Answer: a
Answer: b
C
Explanation: The slope at free end = A/EI =
Explanation: Specific volume is the volume
of the fluid by Unit Weight it is the reciprocal wl3/6EI
T.
of specific weight is denoted by “v”. SI units Maximum deflection at free end is Ax/EI; [x=
are m3/N. ¾ l] y= wl3/6EI × ¾ l = wl4/8EI.
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v= 1/specific weight.
14. Calculate the maximum deflection of a
11. Calculate the specific gravity of mercury.
a) 12.5
b) 14.7
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cantilever beam with udl on entire span of 3m
the intensity of you udl be 25 kN/m. Take EI
as 4000 kN/m2.
G
c) 13.6 a) 0.052m
d) 11.8 b) 0.063m
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c) 0.076m
Answer: c d) 0.09m
Explanation: The specific gravity of any
fluid is the ratio of the specific weight of fluid Answer: b
.B
by specific weight of water. For mercury, the Explanation: For cantilever beams with udl
specific weight is 133416 N/m3. For water, w on entire span, the maximum deflection =
wl4/8EI
17
= 9810 N/m3.
S = 133416/9810 y = wl4/8EI = 25 × 34/ 8 × 4000 = 0.063m.
S= 13.6.
15. Which of the following is not an example
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12. Specific gravity of water is __________ of Malleability?

a) 0.8 a) Wrought Iron
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b) 1 b) Ornamental silver
c) 1.2 c) Torsteel
d) 1.5 d) Ornamental gold
C
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity is also Explanation: Torsteel is an example of
called as relative density. It is dimensionless mechanical property ductility. The ductility is
quantity and it has no units. The specific a property of a material by which material can
gravity of water is the ratio of specific weight be fractured into thin wires after undergoing a
of fluid to specific weight of water, as both considerable deformation without any
rupture.

TOPIC 1.9 UNIFORM AND NON- beam cross section. It is a function of width-
thickness ratio and can be prevented by
UNIFORM BENDING: THEORY limiting width-thickness ratio.
AND EXPERIMENT
4. Which of the following is true?
a) in case of rolled section, less thickness of
TOPIC 1.10 I-SHAPED GIRDERS plate is adopted to prevent local buckling
b) for built-up section and cold formed
1. A beam section is provided on the basis of section, longitudinal stiffeners are not
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(i) section modulus, (ii) deflection, (iii) shear provided to reduce width to smaller sizes
a) i, ii c) local buckling cannot be prevented by
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b) ii, iii limiting width-thickness ratio
c) i, iii d) in case of rolled section, high thickness of
C
d) i, ii and iii plate is adopted to prevent local buckling
T.
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: A beam section is provided on Explanation: In case of rolled section, higher
thickness of plate is adopted to prevent local
O
the basis of (i) section modulus, (ii)
deflection, (iii) shear. The beam should be buckling. Local buckling cannot be prevented
by limiting width-thickness ratio. For built-up
economical with furnishing required modulus
of section.
2. Which of the following is not correct?

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section and cold formed section, longitudinal
stiffeners are provided to reduce width to
smaller sizes.
G
a) Angles and T section are strong in bending
b) Channels can be used only for light loads 5. Which of the following is not true?
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c) I sections are most efficient and a) only plastic section can be used in
economical shapes intermediate frames
d) I section with cover plates are provided b) slender sections are preferred in hot rolled
.B
when large section modulus is required structural steelwork

c) compact sections can be used in simply
Answer: a supported beams
17
Explanation: Angles and T section are weak d) semi-compact sections can be used for
in bending. Channels can be used only for elastic designs
light loads. I sections (rolled and built-up) are
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most efficient and economical shapes. I Answer: b

section with cover plates are provided when Explanation: Only plastic section can be
large section modulus is required. Generally, used in intermediate frames which form
SE
ISLB or ISMB are provided in such cases. collapse mechanism. Compact sections can be
used in simply supported beams which fail
3. Local buckling can be prevented by after reaching Mp at one section. Semi-
a) limiting width-thickness ratio compact sections can be used for elastic
C
b) increasing width-thickness ratio designs where section fails after reaching My

c) changing material at extreme fibres. Slender sections are not
d) changing load on member preferred in hot rolled structural steelwork,
but they are extensively used in cold formed
Answer: c members.
Explanation: Local buckling of compression
members of beam causes loss of integrity of

6. As per IS specification, the beam sections Answer: a

should be Explanation: For optimum bending
a) not symmetrical about any principal axes resistance, beam material should be far away
b) at least symmetrical about one of the from neutral axis and web area of beam has to
principal axes be adequate for resisting shear. Maximum
c) symmetrical about all principal axes bending and maximum shear usually occur at
d) unsymmetrical about all principal axes different cross section. in continuous beams,
they may occur at same cross section near
Answer: b interior supports, but interaction effects are
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Explanation: The beam sections should be at normally neglected.
least symmetrical about one of the principal
O
axes as per IS specification. Angle and T-
sections are inherently weak in bending while TOPIC 1.11 STRESS DUE TO
C
channels can only be used for light loads. BENDING IN BEAMS.
Rolled I0section is generally preferred as
T.
beam. 1. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
____________
7. Which of the following is the design
O
a) B.M. is same throughout the beam
criteria for beams? b) Shear stress is the same through the beam
(i) Strength in bending (ii) stiffness
(iii)economy
a) ii only
b) i and iii
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c) Deflection is the same throughout the beam
d) Bending stress is the same at every section
along its longitudinal axis
G
c) ii and iii Answer: d
d) i, ii and iii Explanation: Beam is said to be uniform
LO
strength if at every section along its

Answer: d longitudinal axis, the bending stress is same.
Explanation: Beams should be proportioned
.B
for strength in bending keeping in view the 2. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is
lateral and local stability of compression ____________
flange. beam should have adequate strength a) Directly proportional
17
to resist applied bending moments and b) Inversely proportional

accompanying shear forces. Beams should be c) Curvilinearly related
proportioned for stiffness, keeping in mind d) None of the mentioned
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the deflections and deformations under

service condition. Beams should be Answer: a
proportioned for economy. Member should be Explanation: The stress is directly
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safe against buckling. proportional to the load and here the load is in
terms of bending. So the stress is directly
8. Which of the following is not true? proportional to bending.
a) for optimum bending resistance, beam
C
material should be near neutral axis 3. Which stress comes when there is an
b) for optimum bending resistance, beam eccentric load applied?
material should be far away from neutral axis a) Shear stress
c) for optimum bending resistance, web area b) Bending stress
of beam has to be adequate for resisting shear c) Tensile stress
d) maximum bending and maximum shear d) Thermal stress
usually occur at different cross section

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: When there is an eccentric load Explanation: From the bending equation M/I
it means that the load is at some distance = σ/y = E/R
from the axis. This causes compression in one Here stress is directly proportional to the
side and tension on the other. This causes distance of layer from the neutral layer.
bending stress.
7. Consider a 250mmx15mmx10mm steel bar
4. What is the expression of the bending which is free to expand is heated from 15C to
equation? 40C. what will be developed?
M
a) M/I = σ/y = E/R a) Compressive stress
b) M/R = σ/y = E/I b) Tensile stress
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c) M/y = σ/R = E/I c) Shear stress
d) M/I = σ/R = E/y d) No stress
C
Answer: a Answer: d
T.
Explanation: The bending equation is given Explanation: If we resist to expand then only
by M/I = σ/y = E/R stress will develop. Here the bar is free to
where expand so there will be no stress.
O
M is the bending moment
I is the moment of inertia 8. The safe stress for a hollow steel column
y is the distance from neutral axis
E is the modulus of elasticity
R is the radius.
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which carries an axial load of 2100 kN is 125
MN/m2. if the external diameter of the
column is 30cm, what will be the internal
G
diameter?
5. On bending of a beam, which is the layer a) 25 cm
LO
which is neither elongated nor shortened? b) 26.19cm

a) Axis of load c) 30.14 cm
b) Neutral axis d) 27.9 cm
.B
c) Center of gravity
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: Area of the cross section of
17
Answer: b
column = π/4 (0.302 – d2) m2
Explanation: When a beam is in bending the Area = load / stress.
layer in the direction of bending will be In
So, π/4 ( 0.302 – d2) m2 = 21 / 125
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compression and the other will be in tension.

One side of the neutral axis will be shortened d = 26.19cm.
and the other will be elongated.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning
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6. The bending stress is ____________ Series – Strength of Materials.

a) Directly proportional to the distance of
layer from the neutral layer
C
b) Inversely proportional to the distance of

layer from the neutral layer
c) Directly proportional to the neutral layer UNIT II WAVES AND
d) Does not depend on the distance of layer FIBER OPTICS
from the neutral layer

TOPIC 2.1 OSCILLATORY U2=1/2×k(x2)2=1/2×800×0.152=9J

MOTION W=U2-U1=9-1=8J.
4. A simple pendulum is attached to the roof

1. The motion of the earth about its axis is
of a lift. If the time period of oscillation,
periodic and simple harmonic.
when the lift is stationary is T, then the
a) True
frequency of oscillation when the lift falls
b) False
freely, will be ___________
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Answer: b a) Zero
Explanation: The earth takes 24 hours to b) T
O
complete its rotation about its axis, but the c) 1/T
concept of to and fro motion is absent, and d) ∞
C
hence the rotation of the earth is periodic and
Answer: a
not simple harmonic.
T.
Explanation: In a freely falling lift,
2. An object of mass 0.2kg executes simple g=0
v=1/2π×√(g/l)=1/2π×√(0/l)=0.
O
harmonic motion along the x-axis with a
frequency of (25/π)Hz. At the position x =
5. There is a simple pendulum hanging from
0.04, the object has kinetic energy of 0.5J and
potential energy 0.4J. The amplitude of
oscillation is?
a) 6cm
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the ceiling of a lift. When the lift is standstill,
the time period of the pendulum is T. If the
resultant acceleration becomes g/4, then the
G
new time period of the pendulum is?
b) 4cm
a) 0.8T
c) 8cm
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b) 0.25T
d) 2cm
c) 2T
Answer: a d) 4T
.B
Explanation: Total energy,

Answer: c
E=2π2 mv2 A2 Explanation: T=2×√(l/g)
0.5+0.4=2π2×0.2×(25/π)2 A2
17
T‘=2π×√((l/g)/4)
A2=0.9/(0.4×252) T‘=2T.
A=3/(2×25)=3/50 m=6cm.
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6. A lightly damped oscillator with a

3. A spring of force constant 800N/m has an frequency v is set in motion by a harmonic
extension of 5cm. The work done in driving force of frequency v’. When v’ is
extending it from 5cm to 15cm is?
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lesser than v, then the response of the

a) 8J oscillator is controlled by ___________
b) 16J a) Spring constant
c) 24J b) Inertia of the mass
C
d) 32J c) Oscillator frequency

d) Damping coefficient
Answer: a
Explanation: At x1 = 5 cm, Answer: a
U1=1/2×k(x1)2=1/2×800×0.052=1J Explanation: Frequency of driving force is
At x2=15cm, lesser than frequency v of a damped
oscillator. The vibrations are nearly in phase

with the driving force and response of the a=-ω2 y that is a∝y
oscillator is controlled by spring constant. This satisfies the condition of simple
harmonic motion.
7. Statement: In simple harmonic motion, the
velocity is maximum, when the acceleration 10. The displacement of a simple harmonic
is minimum. motion doing oscillation when kinetic energy
Reason: Displacement and velocity in simple = potential energy (amplitude = 4cm) is?
harmonic motion is differ in phase by π/2. a) 2√2cm
a) Both statement and reason are true and the
M
b) 2cm
reason is the correct explanation of the c) 1/√2 cm
statement d) √2 cm
O
b) Both statement and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the Answer: a
C
statement Explanation: When kinetic energy =
c) Statement is true, but the reason is false potential energy,
T.
d) Statement and reason are false y=a/√2=4/√2=2√2 cm.
Answer: b
O
Explanation: Both statement and reason are TOPIC 2.2 FORCED AND
true but the reason is not the correct DAMPED OSCILLATIONS:
explanation of the statement, In fact, the
phase difference between velocity and
acceleration is π/2.
SP
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
AND ITS SOLUTION
G
8. What is the time period of a pendulum TOPIC 2.3 PLANE
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hanged in a satellite? (T is the time period on

earth) PROGRESSIVE WAVES
a) Zero
.B
b) T 1. The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen

c) Infinite and oxygen at STP is __________
d) T/√6 a) 16:1
17
b) 8:1
Answer: c c) 4:1
Explanation: In a satellite, g= 0 d) 2:1
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T=2π√(l/g)=2π√(l/0)=∞.
Answer: c
9. Which of the following functions Explanation: vH/vO = √(MO/MH)
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represents a simple harmonic oscillation? =√(32/2)=4:1.

a) sinωt-cosωt
b) sinωt+sin2ωt 2. It takes 2 seconds for a sound wave to
c) sinωt-sin2ωt travel between two fixed points when the day
C
d) sin2 ωt temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises

to 30°C, the sound wave travels between the
Answer: a same fixed parts in __________
Explanation: y=sinωt-cosωt a) 1.9s
dy/dt=ωcosωt+ωsinωt b) 2s
(d2 y)/dt2 =-ω2 sinωt+ω2 cosωt c) 2.1s
=-ω2 (sinωt-cosωt) d) 2.2s

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: v∝√T Explanation: y=5sin(π/2) (100t-x)
t∝1/v y=Asin(ωt-kx)
t∝1/√T ω=2π/T=π/2×100
t2/t1 = T=2/50=0.04s.
√(T1/T2)=√((273+10)/(273+30))=√(283/303) 6. If wave y=Acos(ωt+kx) Is moving along x-
t2=√(283/303)×2s=1.9s. axis, the shapes of a pulse at t=0 and t=2s.
a) Are different
M
3. The disc of a siren containing 60holes b) Are same
rotates at a constant speed of 360rpm. The c) May not be the same
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emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork d) Unpredictable
of frequency.
C
a) 10Hz Answer: b
b) 360Hz Explanation: The shapes of y-x graph
T.
c) 216Hz remains the same at t=0 and t=2s.
d) 60Hz
7. y1=4sin(ωt+kx), y2=-4cos(ωt+kx), the
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Answer: b phase difference is __________
Explanation: Frequency of revolution of
disc=360rpm=360/60rps=60rps
Frequency of emitted sound=6×No.of holes
=6×60=360Hz.
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a) π/2
b) 3π/2
c) π
d) Zero
G
4. The quantity which does not change, when Answer: b
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sound enters from one medium to another Explanation: y1=4sin(ωt+kx)

__________ y2=-4cos(ωt+kx)
a) Wavelength
=-4sin(ωt+kx+3π/2)
.B
b) Speed
∆φ=3π/2.
c) Frequency
d) Velocity
8. A wave equation is y=0.1sin[100πt-kx] and
17
wave velocity is 100m/s, its number is equal

Answer: c
to __________
Explanation: Frequency remains unchanged
a) 1/m
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when sound travels from one medium to

b) 2/m
another.
c) π/m
d) 2π/m
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5. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is

given by
y=5sin(π/2) (100t-x) Answer: c
Where x and y are in metre and time is in Explanation: y=0.1sin[100πt-kx]
C
second. The period of the wave in second will y=Asin(ωt-kx)

ω=100π
be __________
Wave number=ω/v=100π/100=π/m.
a) 0.04
b) 0.01 9. A particle on the trough of a wave at any
c) 1 instant will come to the mean position after a
d) 5 time (T=time period).
a) T/2

b) T/4 b) 8πv h
3
2
c
c) T
c)
2
8πv h
d) 2T c
2
d) 8πhv
c
3
Answer: b
Explanation: Time taken by a particle to Answer: a
move from trough to the mean position=T/4. Explanation: The expression 8πv h
3
3
is the
c
correct expression for the relation between

10. A string is tied on a sonometer, second
M
the two Einstein’s coefficients. This
end is hanging downward through a pulley
expression is known as the Einstein’s relation.
with tension T. The velocity of the transverse
O
wave produced is proportional to __________ 2. What is the relationship between B21 and
a) 1/√T
B12?
C
b) √T
c) T a) B12 > B21
T.
d) 1/T b) B12 < B21
c) B12 = B21
Answer: b
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d) No specific relation
Explanation: v=√(T/m)
v∝√T.
11. The fundamental frequency of a

sonometer wire is n. If the tension is made 3
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: B21 is the coefficient for the
stimulated emission while B12 is the
G
times and length and diameter are also coefficient for stimulated absorption. Both the
increased 3 times, the new frequency will be processes are mutually reverse processes and
LO
__________ their probabilities are equal. Therefore, B12 =

a) 3n B21.
b) n/3√3
.B
c) n/3 3. Which of the following Einstein’s

d) √3 n coefficient represents spontaneous emission?
a) A12
17
Answer: b
b) A21
Explanation: n=1/LD×√(T/πρ)
c) B12
n‘=1/(3L×3D)×√(3T/πρ)=√3/9×n=1/(3√3) n.
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d) B21
TOPIC 2.4 WAVE EQUATION. Answer: b
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LASERS : POPULATION OF Explanation: A21 represents the spontaneous

ENERGY LEVELS, EINSTEIN'S emission of photons. A12 signifies
A AND B COEFFICIENTS spontaneous absorption.B12 is for stimulated
C
DERIVATION absorption while B21 is for stimulated

emission.
1. Which of the following is the correct
expression for the relation between Einstein’s 4. The correct expression for the rate of
coefficients A and B? stimulated emission is _______________
a) 8πv h
3
3
a) Rse = A21N2
c
b) Rse = A21uN2

c) Rse = B21N2 c) 5.177 X 10-51

d) Rse = B21uN2 d) 6.177 X 10-51
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: The stimulates emission is Explanation: We know Einstein’s relation =
directly proportional to the energy density u,
3
8πv h
3
c
of the external radiation field. Also,
v = 10 Hz, h = 6.63 X 10-34 Js, c = 3 X
stimulated emission rate increases with the
108m/s
M
increase in number N2 of exited atoms.
Therefore, the ratio of Einstein’s coefficients
is: 6.177 X 10-51.
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5. Which law is used for achieving the
relation between the Einstein’s coefficients?
8. What is the unit of the coefficient of
C
a) Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
b) Planck’s radiation law spontaneous emission?
T.
c) Einstein’s equation a) s-1
d) Quantum law b) s
c) J-1
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Answer: b d) J
Explanation: Planck’s radiation law, which
gives the energy density u = π8 hv
3
c α
3
, is
1
e −1
used as the formula resembles the one for the

energy density of the external radiation field
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Answer: a
Explanation: For spontaneous emission, the
expression for the rate is = A21N2, where N2
G
in stimulated emission, u = A21
B
. is the number of particles in exited state. As
α
the unit of rate is Number of particles per
12
B21( e −1)
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B
21
second, the unit of A21 is s-1.

6. The probability of spontaneous emission
increases rapidly with the energy difference
9. What is the unit for the coefficient of
between the two states.
.B
stimulated emission?
a) True
b) False a) s-2
17
b) m3 s-2
Answer: a c) J−1 m3
Explanation: From Einstein’s relation we
d) J−1 m3 s-2
know that the ratio of Einstein’s coefficients
-R
is8πv h
c
3 . Thus, the ration of Einstein’s Answer: d
coefficients is proportional to the cube of the Explanation: For stimulated emission, the
SE
frequency. Hence, the probability of expression for the rate is B21uN2 where u
spontaneous emission increases rapidly with stands for the energy density and N is the
the energy difference between the two states. number of exited atoms. Therefore, the unit
C
7. If the frequency of emitted photon is 10 of B turns out to be J−1 m3 s-2.

Hz, the ratio of Einstein’s coefficient is
10. Which Einstein’s coefficient should be
_____________
used in this case?
a) 2.177 X 10-51
b) 3.177 X 10-51

cylindrical resonator, the mode of

propagation depends on the length of the
cavity.
3. Circular cavities are used for microwave

a) A12 frequency meters.
b) A21 a) true
b) false
c) B12
M
d) B21 Answer: a
Explanation: Circular cavities are used for
O
Answer: d microwave frequency meters. The cavity is
Explanation: The given figure shows constructed with a movable top wall to allow
C
stimulated emission. Hence, the Einstein the mechanical tuning of the resonant
coefficient for stimulated emission is B21. If frequency.
T.
it had been spontaneous emission, then A21
4. The mode of the circular cavity resonator
would have been used.
used in frequency meters is:
O
a) TE011 mode
TOPIC 2.5 RESONANT CAVITY,
OPTICAL AMPLIFICATION
(QUALITATIVE)
SP
b) TE101 mode
c) TE111 mode
d) TM111 mode
G
1. A cylindrical cavity resonator can be Answer: a
LO
constructed using a circular waveguide. Explanation: Frequency resolution of a

a) shorted at both the ends frequency meter is determined from its
b) open at both the ends quality factor. Q factor of TE011 mode is
c) matched at both the ends
.B
much greater than the quality factor of the

d) none of the mentioned dominant mode of propagation.
17
Answer: a 5. The propagation constant of TEmn mode

Explanation: A cylindrical cavity resonator of propagation for a cylindrical cavity
is formed by shorting both the ends of the resonator is:
cylindrical cavity because open ends may
-R
a) √ (k2-(pnm/a)2)
result in radiation losses in the cavity.
b) √ pnm/a
2. The dominant mode in the cylindrical c) √ (k2+(pnm/a)2)
SE
cavity resonator is TE101 mode. d) none of the mentioned

a) true
b) false Answer: a
C
Explanation: The propagation constant for a

Answer: b circular cavity depends on the radius of the
Explanation: The dominant mode of cavity, and the wave number. If the mode of
propagation in a circular waveguide is TE111 propagation is known and the dimension of
mode. Hence, the dominant mode of the cavity is known then the propagation
resonance in a cylindrical cavity made of a constant can be found out.
circular waveguide is TE111 mode. In a

6. A circular cavity resonator is filled with a 9. A circular cavity resonator has a wave
dielectric of 2.08 and is operating at 5GHz of number of 151, radius of 2.74 cm, and surface
frequency. Then the wave number is: resistance of 0.0184Ω. If the cavity is filled
a) 181 with a dielectric of 2.01, then unloaded Q due
b) 151 to conductor loss is:
c) 161 a) 25490
d) 216 b) 21460
c) 29390
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
M
Explanation: Wave number for a circular
cavity resonator is given by the expression Answer: c
O
2πf011√∈r/C. substituting the given values in Explanation: Unloaded Q of a circular
the above expression; the wave number of the resonator due to conductor loss is given by
C
cavity resonator is 151. ka/2Rs. is the intrinsic impedance of the
medium. Substituting the given values in the
T.
7. Given that the wave number of a circular equation for loaded Q, value is 29390.
cavity resonator is 151 (TE011 mode), and the
O
length of the cavity is twice the radius of the 10. If unloaded Q due to conductor loss and
cavity, the radius of the circular cavity unloaded Q due to dielectric loss is 29390 and
operating at 5GHz frequency is:
a) 2.1 cm
b) 1.7 cm
SP
2500 respectively, then the total unloaded Q
of the circular cavity is:
a) 2500
b) 29390
G
c) 2.84 cm
d) insufficient data c) 2300
d) 31890
LO
Answer: d
Explanation: For a circular cavity resonator, Answer: c
Explanation: The total unloaded Q of a
wave number is given by √( (p01/a)2 +(π/d)2).
.B
circular cavity resonator is given by the

P01 for the given mode of resonance is 3.832.
expression (Qc-1+ Qd-1)-1. Substituting the
Substituting the given values the radius of the
17
given values in the above expression, the total

cavity is 2.74 cm.
unloaded Q for the resonator is 2300.
8. The loss tangent for a circular cavity
-R
resonator is 0.0004.Then the unloaded Q due TOPIC 2.6 SEMICONDUCTOR

to dielectric loss is: LASERS: HOMOJUNCTION
a) 1350
AND HETEROJUNCTION
SE
b) 1560
c) 560
d) 2500 1. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing
no impurities or lattice defects is called as
C
Answer: d __________
Answer: Unloaded Q due to the dielectric a) Intrinsic semiconductor
loss in a circular cavity resonator is the b) Extrinsic semiconductor
reciprocal of the loss tangent. Hence, taking c) Excitation
the reciprocal of the loss tangent, unloaded Q d) Valence electron
due to dielectric loss is 2500.

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is Explanation: The impurities can be either
usually un-doped. It is a pure semiconductor. donor impurities or acceptor impurities.
The number of charge carriers is determined When acceptor impurities are added, the
by the semiconductor material properties and excited electrons are raised from the valence
not by the impurities. band to the acceptor impurity levels leaving
positive charge carriers in the valence band.
2. The energy-level occupation for a Thus, p-type semiconductor is formed in
semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is which majority of the carriers are positive i.e.
M
described by the __________ holes.
a) Boltzmann distribution function
O
b) Probability distribution function 5. _________________ is used when the
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function optical emission results from the application
C
d) Cumulative distribution function of electric field.
a) Radiation
T.
Answer: c b) Efficiency
Explanation: For a semiconductor in thermal c) Electro-luminescence
equilibrium, the probability P(E) that an
O
d) Magnetron oscillator
electron gains sufficient thermal energy at an
absolute temperature so as to occupy a Answer: c
particular energy level E, is given by the
Fermi-Dirac distribution. It is given by-
P(E) = 1/(1+exp(E-EF/KT))
SP
Explanation: Electro-luminescence is
encouraged by selecting an appropriate
semiconductor material. Direct band-gap
G
Where K = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute semiconductors are used for this purpose. In
temperature, EF = Fermi energy level. band-to-band recombination, the energy is
LO
released with the creation of photon. This

3. What is done to create an extrinsic emission of light is known as
semiconductor? electroluminescence.
.B
a) Refractive index is decreased

6. In the given equation, what does p stands
b) Doping the material with impurities
for?
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
17
d) Stimulated emission p = 2πhk
Answer: b a) Permittivity
-R
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is a b) Probability

pure semiconductor. An extrinsic c) Holes
semiconductor is obtained by doping the d) Crystal momentum
SE
material with impurity atoms. These impurity

atoms create either free electrons or holes. Answer: d
Thus, extrinsic semiconductor is a doped Explanation: The given equation is a relation
C
semiconductor. of crystal momentum and wave vector. In the

given equation, h is the Planck’s constant, k is
4. The majority of the carriers in a p-type the wave vector and p is the crystal
semiconductor are __________ momentum.
a) Holes
b) Electrons 7. The recombination in indirect band-gap
c) Photons semiconductors is slow.
d) Neutrons

a) True direct band-gap material. The introduction of

b) False nitrogen as an impurity into gallium
phosphide makes it an effective emitter of
Answer: a light. Such conversion is only achieved in
Explanation: In an indirect band-gap materials where the direct and indirect band-
semiconductor, the maximum and minimum gaps have a small energy difference.
energies occur at different values of crystal
momentum. However, three-particle 10. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n
recombination process is far less probable junction by __________
M
than the two-particle process exhibited by a) Heavy doping of p-type material
direct band-gap semiconductors. Hence, the b) Heavy doping of n-type material
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recombination in an indirect band-gap c) Light doping of p-type material
semiconductor is relatively slow. d) Heavy doping of both p-type and n-type
C
material
8. Calculate the radioactive minority carrier
T.
lifetime in gallium arsenide when the Answer: d
minority carriers are electrons injected into a Explanation: Population inversion at p-n
p-type semiconductor region which has a hole junction is obtained by heavy doping of both
O
concentration of 1018cm-3. The p-type and n-type material. Heavy p-type
doping with acceptor impurities causes a
recombination coefficient for gallium
arsenide is 7.21*10-10cm3s-1.
a) 2ns
SP
lowering of the Fermi-level between the filled
and empty states into the valence band.
Similarly n-type doping causes Fermi-level to
G
b) 1.39ns
enter the conduction band of the material.
c) 1.56ns
LO
d) 2.12ms
11. A GaAs injection laser has a threshold
Answer: b current density of 2.5*103Acm-2 and length
Explanation: The radioactive minority carrier and width of the cavity is 240μm and 110μm
.B
lifetime ςrconsidering the p-type region is respectively. Find the threshold current for
given by- the device.
a) 663 mA
ςr = [BrN]-1 where Br = Recombination
17
b) 660 mA
coefficient in cm3s-1 and N = carrier c) 664 mA
concentration in n-region. d) 712 mA
-R
9. Which impurity is added to gallium Answer: b

phosphide to make it an efficient light Explanation: The threshold current is
SE
emitter? denoted by Ith. It is given by-

a) Silicon Ith = Jth * area of the optical cavity
b) Hydrogen
Where Jth = threshold current density
c) Nitrogen
C
d) Phosphorus Area of the cavity = length and width.
Answer: c 12. A GaAs injection laser with an optical

Explanation: An indirect band-gap cavity has refractive index of 3.6. Calculate
semiconductor may be made into an electro- the reflectivity for normal incidence of the
luminescent material by the addition of plane wave on the GaAs-air interface.
impurity centers which will convert it into a a) 0.61

b) 0.12 b) GaSb
c) 0.32 c) GaAs/GaSb
d) 0.48 d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: The reflectivity for normal Explanation: For DH device fabrication,
incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air materials such as GaAs, Alga AS are used.
interface is given by- The band-gap in this material may be tailored
r = ((n-1)/(n+1))2 where r=reflectivity and to span the entire wavelength band by
M
n=refractive index. changing the AlGa composition. Thus, GaAs/
Alga As DH system is used for fabrication of
O
13. A homo-junction is an interface between lasers and LEDs for shorter wavelength
two adjoining single-crystal semiconductors region (0.8μm-0.9μm).
C
with different band-gap energies.
a) True
T.
TOPIC 2.7 FIBER OPTICS:
b) False
PRINCIPLE, NUMERICAL
APERTURE AND ACCEPTANCE
O
Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-emissive properties ANGLE
of a single p-n junction fabricated from a
single-crystal semiconductor material are
called as homo-junction. A hetero-junction is
SP
1. What is the principle of fibre optical
communication?
an interface between two single-crystal
G
a) Frequency modulation
semiconductors with different band-gap
b) Population inversion
energies. The devices which are fabricated
LO
c) Total internal reflection

with hetero-junctions are said to have hetero-
d) Doppler Effect
structure.
Answer: c
.B
14. How many types of hetero-junctions are

Explanation: In optical fibres, the light
available?
entering the fibre does not encounter any new
a) Two
17
surfaces, but repeatedly they hit the same

b) One
surface. The reason for confining the light
c) Three
beam inside the fibres is the total internal
d) Four
reflection.
-R
Answer: a
2. What is the other name for a maximum
Explanation: Hetero-junctions are classified
external incident angle?
SE
into an isotype and an-isotype. The isotype

a) Optical angle
hetero-junctions are also called as n-n or p-p
b) Total internal reflection angle
junction. The an-isotype hetero-junctions are
c) Refraction angle
called as p-n junction with large band-gap
C
d) Wave guide acceptance angle

energies.
Answer: d
15. The ______________ system is best
Explanation: Only this rays which pass
developed and is used for fabricating both
within the acceptance angle will be totally
lasers and LEDs for the shorter wavelength
reflected. Therefore, light incident on the core
region.
within the maximum external incident angle
a) InP

can be coupled into the fibre to propagate. a) Graded index fibre

This angle is called a wave guide acceptance b) Multimode step-index fibre
angle. c) Single step-index fibre
d) Glass fibre
3. A single mode fibre has low intermodal
dispersion than multimode. Answer: a
a) True Explanation: The light travels with different
b) False speeds in different paths because of the
variation in their refractive indices. At the
M
Answer: a outer edge it travels faster than near the centre
Explanation: In both single and multimode But almost all the rays reach the exit end at
O
fibres the refractive indices will be in step by the same time due to the helical path. Thus,
step. Since a single mode has less dispersion there is no dispersion in the pulses and hence
C
than multimode, the single mode step index the output is not a distorted output.
fibre also has low intermodal dispersion
T.
compared to multimode step index fibre. 7. Which of the following loss occurs inside
the fibre?
4. How does the refractive index vary in a) Radiative loss
O
Graded Index fibre? b) Scattering
a) Tangentially c) Absorption
b) Radially
c) Longitudinally
d) Transversely
SP
d) Attenuation
Answer: b
G
Explanation: Scattering is a wavelength
Answer: b dependent loss. Since the glass used in the
LO
Explanation: The refractive index of the core fabrication of fibres, the disordered structure
is maximum along the fibre axis and it of glass will make some vibrations in the
gradually decreases. Here the refractive index refractive index inside the fibre. This causes
varies radially from the axis of the fibre.
.B
Rayleigh scattering.
Hence it is called graded index fibre.
8. What causes microscopic bend?
17
5. Which of the following has more a) Uniform pressure

distortion? b) Non-uniform volume
a) Single step-index fibre c) Uniform volume
b) Graded index fibre
-R
d) Non-uniform pressure
c) Multimode step-index fibre
d) Glass fibre Answer: d
SE
Explanation: Micro-bends losses are caused

Answer: c due to non-uniformities inside the fibre. This
Explanation: When rays travel through micro-bends in fibre appears due to non-
longer distances there will be some difference uniform pressures created during the cabling
C
in reflected angles. Hence high angle rays of fibre.

arrive later than low angle rays. Therefore the
signal pulses are broadened thereby results in 9. When more than one mode is propagating,
a distorted output. how is it dispersed?
a) Dispersion
6. In which of the following there is no b) Inter-modal dispersion
distortion?

c) Material dispersion √ n12 − n22
d) Waveguide dispersion Numerical aperture = 0.55677.

Answer: b 13. A step-index fibre has a numerical
Explanation: When more than one mode is aperture of 0.26, a core refractive index of 1.5
propagating through a fibre, then inter modal and a core diameter of 100micrometer.
dispersion will occur. Since many modes are Calculate the acceptance angle.
propagating, they will have different a) 1.47°
wavelengths and will take different time to b) 15.07°
M
propagate through the fibre. c) 2.18°
d) 24.15°
O
10. A fibre optic telephone transmission can
handle more than thousands of voice Answer: b
C
channels. Explanation: sin i = (Numerical aperture)/n
a) True sin i = 15.07°.
T.
b) False
Answer: a TOPIC 2.8 TYPES OF OPTICAL
O
Explanation: Optical fibre has larger FIBRES (MATERIAL,
bandwidth hence it can handle a large number REFRACTIVE INDEX, MODE)
of channels for communication.
11. Which of the following is known as fibre

SP
TOPIC 2.9 LOSSES
G
optic back bone? ASSOCIATED WITH OPTICAL
a) Telecommunication
FIBERS
LO
b) Cable television
c) Delay lines
d) Bus topology 1. Multimode step index fiber has
___________
.B
Answer: d a) Large core diameter & large numerical

Explanation: Each computer on the network aperture
17
is connected to the rest of the computers by b) Large core diameter and small numerical
the optical wiring scheme called bus aperture
topology, which is an application known as c) Small core diameter and large numerical
fibre optic back bone.
-R
aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical
12. Calculate the numerical aperture of an aperture
SE
optical fibre whose core and cladding are

made of materials of refractive index 1.6 and Answer: a
1.5 respectively. Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has
a) 0.55677 large core diameter and large numerical
C
b) 55.77 aperture. These parameters provides efficient

c) 0.2458 coupling to inherent light sources such as
d) 0.647852 LED’s.
Answer: a 2. A typically structured glass multimode step

Explanation: Numerical aperture = index fiber shows as variation of attenuation
in range of ___________

a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm c) No impurity

d) Impurity as same as multimode step index
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.59μm
fibers.
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.90μm Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers
Answer: c have higher purity than multimode step index
Explanation: A multimode step index fibers fiber. To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have
show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 more impurity.
M
to 50dBkm-1. The wide variation in
attenuation is due to the large differences both 6. The performance characteristics of
O
within and between the two overall multimode graded index fibers are
preparation methods i.e. melting and ___________
C
deposition. a) Better than multimode step index fibers
b) Same as multimode step index fibers
T.
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
diameter of range is ___________ d) Negligible
O
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
Answer: a
SP
use a constant grading factor. Performance
characteristics of multimode graded index
fibers are better than those of multimode step
G
Explanation: A multimode step index fiber index fibers due to index graded and lower
has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. attenuation.
LO
This is to facilitate efficient coupling to

inherent light sources. 7. Multimode graded index fibers have
overall buffer jackets same as multimode step
index fibers but have core diameters
.B
4. Multimode step index fibers have a

bandwidth of ___________ ___________
a) 2 to 30 MHz km a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
17
b) 6 to 50 MHz km b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers

c) 10 to 40 MHz km c) Same as that of multimode step index
d) 8 to 40 MHz km fibers
-R
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode step index fibers Answer: b
SE
have a bandwidth of 6 to 50 MHz km. These Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers
fibers with this bandwidth are best suited for have smaller core diameter than multimode
short -haul, limited bandwidth and relatively step index fibers. A small core diameter helps
low-cost application. the fiber gain greater rigidity to resist
C
bending.
5. Multimode graded index fibers are
manufactured from materials with 8. Multimode graded index fibers with
___________ wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical
a) Lower purity aperture of 0.29 have core/cladding diameter
b) Higher purity than multimode step index of ___________
fibers. a) 62.5 μm/125 μm

b) 100 μm/140 μm Answer: a

c) 85 μm/125 μm Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to
d) 50 μm/125μm produce polarization maintaining fibers which
make them expensive. Also the alternative to
Answer: b them are multimode fibers which are complex
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers but accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not
with numerical aperture 0.29 having a generally utilized in optical fiber
core/cladding diameter of 100μm/140μm. communication.
They provide high coupling frequency LED’s
M
at a wavelength of 0.85 μm and have low 12. Single mode fibers allow single mode
cost. They are also used for short distance propagation; the cladding diameter must be at
O
application. least ___________
a) Twice the core diameter
C
9. Multimode graded index fibers use b) Thrice the core diameter
incoherent source only. c) Five times the core diameter
T.
a) True d) Ten times the core diameter
b) False
Answer: d
O
Answer: b Explanation: The cladding diameter in single
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers mode fiber must be ten times the core
are used for short haul and medium to high
bandwidth applications. Small haul
applications require LEDs and low accuracy
SP
diameter. Larger ratios contribute to accurate
propagation of light. These dimension ratios
must be there so as to avoid losses from the
G
lasers. Thus either incoherent or incoherent vanishing fields.
sources like LED’s or injection laser diode
LO
are used. 13. A fiber which is referred as non-

dispersive shifted fiber is?
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most a) Coaxial cables
beneficial index profile?
.B
b) Standard single mode fibers

a) Step index c) Standard multimode fibers
b) Graded index d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers
17
c) Step and graded index

d) Coaxial cable Answer: b
Explanation: A standard single mode fiber
Answer: b
-R
having step index profile is known as non-

Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded dispersion shifted fiber. As these fibers have a
index profile is more beneficial as compared zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm and so
SE
to step index. This is because graded index are preferred for single-wavelength
profile provides dispersion-modified-single transmission in O-band.
mode fibers.
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are
C
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for utilized mainly for operation in ___________
optical fiber communication system are a) C-band
___________ b) L-band
a) Single mode fibers c) O-band
b) Multimode step fibers d) C-band and L-band
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers

Answer: c 3. Fluoride glass is used with __________

Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for a) IR waves
operation in O-band only. It shows high b) UV rays
dispersion in the range of 16 to 20ps/nm/km c) Normal light
in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in d) All of the mentioned
O-band.
Answer: a
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength Explanation: Flouride glass is suitable for IR
transmission in O-band is? rays of wavelength upto 3200 nm.
M
a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted
fibers 4. Silica glass of hydroxyl concentration can
O
b) Standard single mode fibers be used for ___________ of wavelength.
c) Low minimized fibers a) 100 nm to 250 nm
C
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers b) 250 nm to 800 nm
c) 800 nm to 1500 nm
T.
Answer: b d) 100 nm to 3400 nm
Explanation: Standard single mode fibers
with a step index profile are called non Answer: b
O
dispersion shifted fiber and it is particularly Explanation: Silica glass with hydroxyl
used for single wavelength transmission in O- concentration is used for wavelength 250 nm
band and as if has a zero-dispersion
wavelength at 1.31μm.
SP
to 800 nm.
5. General spectral range for silica glass is

G
_______________
TOPIC 2.10 FIBRE OPTIC a) Less than 200 nm
LO
SENSORS: PRESSURE AND b) Between 200 nm to 2200 nm

DISPLACEMENT. c) Between 2000 nm to 5000 nm
d) Greater than 3000 nm
.B
1. OTDR stands for _______________ Answer: b

a) Optical time domain reflectometer Explanation: General spectral range of silica
b) Optical transfer data rate
17
glass is 200 nm to 2200 nm.

c) Optical time data registers
d) None of the mentioned 6. Epoxy material in fibre optics is intended
for ________________
-R
Answer: a a) Better optical properties

Explanation: OTDR is the short form of b) Better reflection
optical time domain reflectometer.
SE
c) Better sealing
d) Reducing noise
2. Which of the following is not correct for
fibre optic sensors? Answer: c
C
a) Immune to electro magnetic interference Explanation: Polished epoxy seal provides

b) Immune to radiation hazard liquid and air tight seal.
c) Can be used in harsh environments
d) None of the mentioned 7. Plastics optical cables can be used for
________________
Answer: d a) Short range
Explanation: All of the mentioned are b) Medium range of distance
qualities of fibre optic sensors.

c) Long range of distance 1. The transfer of heat between two bodies in

d) Very high range of distance direct contact is called
a) radiation
Answer: a b) convection
Explanation: Plastic optical cables are c) conduction
manufacturing for short range purposes. d) none of the mentioned
8. Which of the following represents loss Answer: c
associated with glass fibres? Explanation: This is the definition of
M
a) 3 dB/Km conduction.
b) 10 dB/Km
O
c) 0 dB/Km 2. Heat flow into a system is taken to be
d) 50 dB/Km ____, and heat flow out of the system is taken
C
as ____
Answer: a a) positive, positive
T.
Explanation: Glass fibres have a net loss of 3 b) negative, negative
dB on every single kilometre. c) negative, positive
d) positive, negative
O
9. Loss associated with plastic fibre is less
than glass fibres. Answer: d
a) True
b) False SP
Explanation: The direction of heat transfer is
taken from the high temperature system to the
low temperature system.
G
Answer:b
Explanation: Loss associated with plastic 3. In the equation, dQ=TdX
LO
fibre is about 100-1250 dB/Km and it is a) dQ is an inexact differential

several times larger than glass fibres. b) dX is an exact differential
c) X is an extensive property
10. Cladding in glass fibre have high d) all of the mentioned
.B
refractive index than the core.

a) True Answer: d
17
b) False Explanation: This is because heat transfer is

a path function.
Answer: b
Explanation: Cladding in glass fibre is 4. The transfer of heat between a wall and a
-R
always kept at a low refractive index than the fluid system in motion is called
core. a) radiation
SE
b) convection
c) conduction
d) none of the mentioned
C
UNIT III THERMAL Answer: b

PHYSICS Explanation: This is the definition of
convection.
TOPIC 3.1 TRANSFER OF HEAT 5. For solids and liquids, specific heat
ENERGY a) depends on the process
b) is independent of the process

c) may or may not depend on the process heat.

10. Heat transfer and work transfer are
Answer: b a) boundary phenomena
Explanation: It is the property of specific b) energy interactions
heat. c) energy in the transit
d) all of the mentioned
6. The specific heat of the substance is
defined as the amount of heat required to Answer: d
M
raise a unit mass of the substance through a Explanation: It is an important point to
unit rise in temperature. remember regarding heat and work transfer.
O
a) true
b) false
TOPIC 3.2 THERMAL
C
Answer: a EXPANSION OF SOLIDS AND
T.
Explanation: c=Q/(m*Δt). LIQUIDS
7. Heat and work are
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1. A faulty thermometer has its fixed points
a) path functions
marked as 5° and 95°. The temperature of a
b) inexact differentials
c) depend upon the path followed
d) all of the mentioned SP
body as measured by the faulty thermometer
is 59°. Find the correct temperature of the
body on a Celsius scale.
a) 60°C
G
Answer: d
Explanation: It is an important point to b) 40°C
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remember regarding heat and work transfer. c) 20°C

d) 0°C
8. Latent heat is taken at
a) constant temperature Answer: a
.B
b) constant pressure Explanation: (TC-0)/(100-0)=(Temperature

c) both of the mentioned on faulty scale-Lower fixed point)/(Upper
fixed point-Lower fixed point)
17

(TC-0)/100=(59-5)/(95-5)=54/90
Answer: c TC=60°C.
Explanation: The latent heat is heat transfer
-R
required to cause a phase change in a unit 2. Temperature is a microscopic concept.

mass of substance at a constant pressure and a) True
temperature.
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b) False
9. Which of the following is true? Answer: b
a) latent heat of fusion is not much affected Explanation: Temperature is a macroscopic
C
by pressure concept. It is related to the average kinetic

b) latent heat of vaporization is highly energy of a large number of molecules
sensitive to pressure forming a system. It is not possible to define
c) both of the mentioned the temperature for a single molecule.
3. The thermometer bulb should have
Answer: c ___________
Explanation: It is a general fact about latent

a) High heat capacity Answer: a

b) No heat capacity Explanation: Heat gained by ice = Heat lost
c) Small heat capacity by water at 80°C
d) Varying heat capacity 540×80+540×1×θ=540×1×(80-θ)
θ=0°C.
Answer: c
Explanation: The thermometer bulb having 7. An ideal black body is thrown into a
small heat capacity will absorb less heat from furnace. The black body is room temperature.
the body whose temperature is to be It is observed that ___________
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measured. Hence the temperature of that body a) Initially, it is darkest body and at later
will practically remain unchanged. times the brightest
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b) At all times it is the darkest body
4. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat c) It cannot be distinguished at all times
C
required to raise the temperature of 1g of d) Initially, it is the darkest body and at later
water by 1°C and it is defined under which of it cannot be distinguished
T.
the following conditions?
a) From 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 760mm of Hg Answer: a
b) From 98.5°C to 99.5°C at 760mm of Hg Explanation: Initially at lower temperature, it
O
c) From 13.5°C to 14.5°C at 76mm of Hg absorbs the entire radiations incident upon it.
d) From 3.5°C to 4.5°C at 76mm of Hg So, it is the darkest body. At later times, when
Answer: a
Explanation: One calorie is defined as the
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it attains the temperature of the furnace, the
black body radiates maximum energy. It
appears brightest of all bodies.
G
heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of
water from 14.5°C to 15.5° at 760mm of Hg. 8. If the sun were to increase in temperature
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from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R,

5. Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a then the ratio of the radiant energy received
burn due to steam at 100°C is ___________ on earth to what it was previously, will be
a) More dangerous
.B
___________
b) Less dangerous a) 4
c) Equally dangerous b) 16
17
d) Not dangerous c) 32
d) 64
Answer: a
Explanation: Compared to burn due to air at
-R
Answer: d
100°C, a burn due to steam at 100°C is more Explanation: Energy radiated by the sun per
dangerous due to the additional heat second,
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possessed by steam. E = σAT4= σ×4πR2×T4

When its radius and temperature change to
6. 540g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540g of
2R and 2T respectively,
water at 80°C. What is the final temperature
C
of the mixture? E‘=σ×4π(2R)2×(2T)4

a) 0°C E‘/E=64.
b) 40°C
c) 80°C 9. On a hilly region, water boils at 95°C.
d) Less than 0°C What is the temperature expressed in
Fahrenheit?
a) 100°F

b) 203°F the red pieces

c) 150°F d) Both the pieces will look equally red
d) 20.3°F
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: According to Stefan’s law, E is
Explanation: (F-32)/9=C/5=95/5 proportional to T4
F = 171+32 = 203°F. As the temperature of blue glass is more than
that of red glass, so it will appear brighter
10. A composite rod made of copper
M
than red glass.
(1.8×10(-5) K(-1)) and steel (α=1.2×10(-5)
K(-1)) is heated. Then ___________
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TOPIC 3.3 EXPANSION JOINTS
a) It bends with steel on concave side
b) It bends with copper on concave side
C
c) It does not expand 1. Identify the given joint in Concrete
d) Data is insufficient Structures.
T.
Answer: a
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Explanation: αcopper>αsteel
Copper expands more than steel. So rod
bends with copper on convex side and steel
on concave side. SP
G
11. Temperatures of two stars are in ratio 3:2.
If wavelength of maximum intensity of first
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body is 4000 Å, what is corresponding

wavelength of second body? a) Horizontal construction joint
a) 9000 Å b) Vertical construction joint
b) 6000 Å c) Expansion construction joint
.B
c) 2000 Å d) Water tank joint

d) 8000 Å
Answer: a
17
Answer: b Explanation: The construction joints are

Explanation: ((ʎm)‘)/ʎm = T/T‘ = 3/2 provided at locations were the construction is
stopped either at the end of the day or for any
-R
(ʎm)‘=3/2 ʎm other reason. The provisions of the

(ʎm)‘=3/2×4000=6000Å. construction joint become necessary to ensure
proper bond between the old work and the
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12. A piece of blue glass heated to a high new work.

temperature and a piece of red glass at room
2. Identify the given joint in Concrete
temperature, are taken inside a room that is
C
Structures.
dimly lit, then ___________
a) The blue piece will look blue and red will
look as usual
b) Red looks brighter and blue looks ordinary
blue
c) Blue shines like brighter red compared to

especially as in the case of long and deep

beams, that T beams are used.

Structures.
M
O
C
a) Horizontal construction joint a) Expansion joint
b) Expansion construction joint b) Contraction Joint
T.
c) Vertical construction joint c) Water tank joint
d) Water tank joint d) Vertical construction joint
O
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: The construction joint maybe Explanation: For water tanks and other
horizontal or vertical. For an inclined or
curved member of the joint should be at right
angle to the axis of the member. It is
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structured which store water, the strips of
copper, aluminium, galvanized iron or other
corrosion resistant material known as water
G
necessary to determine the location of stops or waterbars, are placed in construction
construction joints well in advance for the joint as shown in given figure above.
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viewpoint of structural stability.

3. Identify the given type of joint in Concrete Structures.
Structures.
.B
17
-R
a) Partial contraction joint

b) Complete Contraction Joint
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a) L beam construction joint c) Horizontal construction joint

b) T beam construction joint d) Dummy joint
c) Expansion joint
d) Contraction Joint Answer: d
C
Explanation: Above figure shows another

Answer: b form of contraction joint. It is also known as a
Explanation: In case of T-beams, the ribs dummy joint and in this case, a groove of 3
should be filled with concrete first and in the mm width is created in the concrete member
slabs forming the flanges can be filled up to to act as a joint. The groove is filled with the
the centre of the ribs. If a construction joint joint filler and its depth is about 1/3 to 1/5 of
between slab and beam becomes unavoidable the total thickness of the member.

6. For water tanks and other structure which been damaged due to inferior work or other
store water, the strips of copper, aluminium, reasons.
galvanized iron or other collision resistance a) Grouting
material, known as the ________ b) Scraping
a) Joints c) Dewatering
b) Waterstops d) Guniting
c) Dowels
d) Fillers Answer: d
Explanation: In Guniting, the surface to be
M
Answer: b treated is cleaned and washed. The nozzle is
Explanation: The function of waterstops is to generally kept at a distance of about 750 mm
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seal the joint against the passage of water. to 850 mm from the surface to be treated and
The waterstop may also be the natural and velocity of nozzle values from 120 m/sec to
C
synthetic rubber or polyvinyl chloride(PVC). 160 m/sec.
T.
7. The expansion and contraction joints 10. The _______ is a mixture of cement and
generally consist of some elastic material, sand, the usual proportion being 1:3.
known as ________ which should be a) Mortar
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compressible, rigid, cellular and Resilient. b) Slurry
a) Keys c) Gunite
b) Joint filler
c) Keys
d) Fillers
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d) Concrete
Answer: c
G
Explanation: A cement gun is used to deposit
Answer: b the Gunite mixture on the concrete surface
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Explanation: The usual joint filler are built- under pressure of about 20 N/cm2 to 30
in strips of metal, bitumen treated felt, cane
N/cm2. The cement is mixed with slightly
fibre board, cork bound with rubber or resin,
moist sand and the necessary water is added
.B
dehydrated cork, natural cork, softwood free

as the mixture comes out from the cement
from knots, etc.
gun.
17
8. The _________ are provided in expansion

and contraction joints to transfer the load. TOPIC 3.4 BIMETALLIC STRIPS
a) Dowels
-R
b) Fillers 1. Measurement of elevated temperatures is

c) Joint filler defined as ___________
d) Waterbars a) Thermometry
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b) Pyrometry
Answer: a
c) Metallography
Explanation: The contraction joints are
d) Radiography
installed to allow for shrinkage movement in
C
the structure. It may either be a complete Answer: b

contraction joint or a partial construction Explanation: Pyrometry deals with elevated
joint. In the former case, there is complete temperatures, generally around 950 F. The
discontinuity of both concrete and steel. apparatus that is used in this process is known
as a pyrometer. Thermometry generally deals
9. The ___________ is the most effective
with the measurement of temperatures below
process of repairing concrete work which has
950 F.

2. What temperature does the dark red color b) Yellow brass

generally deal with? c) Bronze
a) 950 F d) Aluminum
b) 1150 F
c) 1175 F Answer: b
d) 1300 F Explanation: Bimetallic strips include invar
as one metal and yellow brass as another. For
Answer: b higher temperatures, nickel alloy can be used.
Explanation: Temperature of metals can be These can be used in temperatures ranging
M
estimated by simply looking at the color of from -100 F to 1000 F.
the hot body. Dark red is assigned a
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temperature of 1150 F, whereas for faint red, 6. Why is invar used in bimetallic strips?
dark cherry, and cherry red it is 950 F, 1175 F, a) Low density
C
and 1300 F in that order. b) Low coefficient of expansion
c) High-temperature resistance
T.
3. What temperature is the dark orange color d) High abrasion resistance
associated with?
a) 1475 F Answer: b
O
b) 1650 F Explanation: Most bimetallic strips are
c) 1750 F composed of invar and yellow brass as metal.
d) 1800 F
Answer: b
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Invar has the advantage of low coefficient of
expansion, whereas yellow brass has the
ability to be used at low temperatures.
G
Explanation: Temperature of metals can be
estimated by simply looking at the color of 7. _______ is commonly used in liquid-
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the hot body. Dark orange is associated with a expansion thermometers.

temperature of about 1150 F, while for bright a) Bourdon tube
cherry, orange, and yellow it is 1475 F, 1750 b) Spinning rotor gauge
c) McLeod gauge
.B
F, and 1800 F correspondingly.

d) Manometer
4. Bimetallic strips are employed in
17
________ thermometers. Answer: a

a) Vapor-pressure Explanation: Liquid-expansion thermometers
b) Liquid-expansion consist of a bulb and an expansible device.
The bulb is exposed to the temperature that
-R
c) Metal-expansion
d) Resistance needs to be measured and usually, a Bourdon
tube is used as an expansion device. These
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Answer: c are connected by capillary tubing and are

Explanation: Bimetallic strips made by filled with a medium.
bonding of high-expansion and low-
expansion metals are used in the common 8. Resistance thermometer generally makes
C
thermostat. When used as an industrial use of ________ for the measurement of

temperature indicator, these can be bent into a resistance.
coil. a) Potentiometer
b) Adruino
5. Bimetallic strips contain _______ as a c) Diode bridge
metal. d) Wheatstone bridge
a) Muntz metal

Answer: d heat transfer to the rubbles.

Explanation: Resistance thermometers are a) 5300 W
based on the principle of increase in electrical b) 5400 W
resistance with increasing temperature. It c) 5500 W
consists of a resistance coil mounted in a d) 5600 W
protecting tube which is connected to a
resistance measuring instrument. Generally, Answer: b
Wheatstone bridge is used in this process. Explanation: There is conduction through the
asphalt layer.
M
9. Which of these materials is not used for heat transfer rate = k A ∆T/∆x = 0.06 × 150
resistance coils? ×(45-15)/0.05
O
a) Nickel = 5400 W.
b) Copper
C
c) Titanium 2. A pot of steel(conductivity 50 W/m K),
d) Platinum with a 5 mm thick bottom is filled with liquid
T.
water at 15°C. The pot has a radius of 10 cm
Answer: c and is now placed on a stove that delivers 250
Explanation: Resistance coils are generally W as heat transfer. Find the temperature on
O
made of nickel, copper, or platinum. Nickel the outer pot bottom surface assuming the
and copper can be used in the temperature inner surface to be at 15°C.
range of 150-500 F, whereas platinum can be
used between -350 to 1100 F.
SP
a) 15.8°C
b) 16.8°C
c) 18.8°C
G
10. Liquid expansion thermometers are filled d) 19.8°C
with ________
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a) Mercury Answer: a
b) Amalgam Explanation: Steady conduction, Q = k A
c) Gallium ∆T/∆x ⇒ ∆Τ = Q ∆x / kΑ
.B
d) Cesium ∆T = 250 × 0.005/(50 × π/4 × 0.22) = 0.796

T = 15 + 0.796 = 15.8°C.
Answer: a
17
Explanation: The liquid-expansion 3. A water-heater is covered with insulation

thermometer has the entire system filled with
an organic liquid or mercury. Mercury is used boards over a total surface area of 3 m2. The
inside board surface is at 75°C and the
-R
at a temperature range of -35 to 950 F.

Alcohol and creosote are used at -110 to 160 outside being at 20°C and the conductivity of
F, and 20 to 400 F respectively. material being 0.08 W/m K. Find the
thickness of board to limit the heat transfer
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loss to 200 W ?
TOPIC 3.5 THERMAL a) 0.036 m
CONDUCTION, CONVECTION b) 0.046 m
C
AND RADIATION c) 0.056 m

d) 0.066 m
1. The sun shines on a 150 m2 road surface so Answer: d

it is at 45°C. Below the 5cm thick Explanation: Steady state conduction
asphalt(average conductivity of 0.06 W/m K), through board.
is a layer of rubbles at 15°C. Find the rate of

Q = k A ∆T/∆x ⇒ ∆Τ = Q ∆x / kΑ c) 222.5 kJ
∆x = 0.08 × 3 ×(75 − 20)/200 = 0.066 m. d) 232.5 kJ
4. On a winter day with atmospheric air at Answer: a

−15°C, the outside front wind-shield of a car Explanation: Q = hA ∆T ∆t, Q = 15 × 1 ×
has surface temperature of +2°C, maintained (35-20)×15×60 = 202500 J = 202.5 kJ.
by blowing hot air on the inside surface. If the
wind-shield is 0.5 m2 and the outside 7. A small light bulb (25 W) inside a
refrigerator is kept on and 50 W of energy
M
convection coefficient is 250 W/Km2, find from the outside seeps into the refrigerated
the rate of energy loss through front wind- space. How much of temperature difference
O
shield. to the ambient(at 20°C) must the refrigerator
a) 125 W have in its heat exchanger having an area of 1
C
b) 1125 W
c) 2125 W m2 and heat transfer coefficient of 15 W/Km2
to reject the leak of energy.
T.
d) 3125 W
a) 0°C
Answer: c b) 5°C
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Explanation: Q (conv) = h A ∆Τ = 250 × 0.5 c) 10°C
× [2 − ( −15)] = 250 × 0.5 × 17 = 2125 W. d) 15°C
5. A large heat exchanger transfers a total of

100 MW. Assume the wall separating steam
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Answer: b
Explanation: Total energy that goes out =
50+25 = 75 W
G
and seawater is 4 mm of steel, conductivity
15 W/m K and that a maximum of 5°C 75 = hA∆T = 15 × 1 × ∆T hence ∆T = 5°C.
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difference between the two fluids is allowed.

8. As the car slows down, the brake shoe and
Find the required minimum area for the heat
steel drum continuously absorbs 25 W.
transfer.
Assume a total outside surface area of 0.1 m2
a) 180 m2
.B
with a convective heat transfer coefficient of

b) 280 m2
10 W/Km2 to the air at 20°C. How hot does
c) 380 m2
17
the outside brake and drum surface become

d) 480 m2 when steady conditions are reached?
a) 25°C
Answer: d b) 35°C
-R
Explanation: Steady conduction c) 45°C

Q = k A ∆T/∆x ⇒ Α = Q ∆x / k∆Τ d) 55°C
A = 100 × 10^6 × 0.004 / (15 × 5) = 480 m2.
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Answer: c
6. The black grille on the back of a Explanation: ∆Τ = heat / hA hence ∆T = [
refrigerator has a surface temperature of 35°C Τ(BRAKE) − 20 ] = 25/(10 × 0.1) = 25°C
C
with a surface area of 1 m2. Heat transfer to Τ(BRAKE) = 20 + 25 = 45°C.

the room air at 20°C takes place with
convective heat transfer coefficient of 15 9. A burning wood in the fireplace has a
W/Km^2. How much energy is removed surface temperature of 450°C. Assume the
during 15 minutes of operation? emissivity to be 1 and find the radiant
a) 202.5 kJ emission of energy per unit area.
b) 212.5 kJ a) 15.5 kW/m2

b) 16.5 kW/m2 12. Find the rate of conduction heat transfer

c) 17.5 kW/m2 through a 1.5 cm thick hardwood board, k =
0.16 W/m K, with a temperature difference
d) 18.5 kW/m2 between the two sides of 20°C.
Answer: a a) 113 W/m2
Explanation: Q /A = 1 × σ T^4 b) 213 W/m2
= 5.67 × 10–8×( 273.15 + 450)4 c) 230 W/m2
= 15505 W/m2 = 15.5 kW/m2. d) 312 W/m2
M
10. A radiant heat lamp is a rod, 0.5 m long, Answer: b
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0.5 cm in diameter, through which 400 W of Explanation: . q = .Q/A = k ΔT/Δx = 0.16
electric energy is deposited. Assume the Wm /K × 20K/0.015 m = 213 W/m2.
C
surface emissivity to be 0.9 and neglecting
incoming radiation, find the rod surface 13. A 2 m2 window has a surface temperature
T.
temperature? of 15°C and the outside wind is blowing air at
a) 700K 2°C across it with a convection heat transfer
O
b) 800K coefficient of h = 125 W/m2K. What is the
c) 900K total heat transfer loss?
d) 1000K
Answer: d
Explanation: Outgoing power equals electric
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a) 2350 W
b) 1250 W
c) 2250 W
G
d) 3250 W
power
T4= electric energy / εσA Answer: d
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= 400 / (0.9 × 5.67 ×10-8× 0.5 × π × 0.005) Explanation: .Q = h A ΔT = 125 W/m2K × 2

m2 × (15 – 2) K = 3250 W.
= 9.9803 ×10^11 K4 ⇒ T = 1000K.
.B
14. A radiant heating lamp has a surface

11. A water-heater is covered up with
temperature of 1000 K with ε = 0.8. How
insulation boards over a total surface area of 3
large a surface area is needed to provide 250
17
m2. The inside board surface is at 75°C and W of radiation heat transfer?
the outside surface is at 20°C and the board a) 0.0035 m2
material has a conductivity of 0.08 W/m K. b) 0.0045 m2
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How thick a board should it be to limit the c) 0.0055 m2

heat transfer loss to 200 W ? d) 0.0065 m2
a) 0.066 m
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b) 0.166 m Answer: c
c) 0.266 m Explanation: .Q = εσAT^4
d) 0.366 m A = .Q/(εσT4) = 250/(0.8 × 5.67 × 10-8 ×
C
10004)
Answer: a = 0.0055 m2.
Explanation: Steady state conduction
through a single layer board.
Δx = kA(ΔT)/Q TOPIC 3.6 HEAT
Δx = (0.08*3)*(75-20)/200 = 0.066 m. CONDUCTIONS IN SOLIDS

1. A flat wall of fire clay, 50 cm thick and Answer: c

initially at 25 degree Celsius, has one of its Explanation: l = volume/surface area = r/3.
faces suddenly exposed to a hot gas at 950 So, h = (0.1) (k) (3)/r.
degree Celsius. If the heat transfer coefficient
on the hot side is 7.5 W/m2 K and the other 3. The transient response of a solid can be
face of the wall is insulated so that no heat determined by the equation. (Where, P is
passes out of that face, determine the time density, V is volume, c is specific heat and A
necessary to raise the center of the wall to is area)
a) – 4 p V c = h A (t – t0)
M
350 degree Celsius. For fire clay brick
b) – 3 p V c = h A (t – t0)
c) – 2 p V c = h A (t – t0)
O
d) – p V c = h A (t – t0)
C
Answer: d
T.
Explanation: It can be determined by relating
rate of change of internal energy with
conductive heat exchange at the surface.
O
4. A 2 cm thick steel slab heated to 525
SP
degree Celsius is held in air stream having a
mean temperature of 25 degree Celsius.
Estimate the time interval when the slab
Thermal conductivity = 1.12 W/m K
G
temperature would not depart from the mean
Thermal diffusivity = 5.16 * 10 -7 m2/s value of 25 degree Celsius by more than 0.5
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a) 43.07 hours degree Celsius at any point in the slab. The

b) 53.07 hours steel plate has the following thermal physical
c) 63.07 hours properties
d) 73.07 hours
Density = 7950 kg/m3
.B
Answer: a C P = 455 J/kg K

Explanation: t – t a/t 0 – t a = 0.86. Also, α K = 46 W/m K
17
a) 6548 s
T/l 2 = 0.32. b) 6941 s
c) 4876 s
-R
2. Glass spheres of 2 mm radius and at 500

d) 8760 s
degree Celsius are to be cooled by exposing
them to an air stream at 25 degree Celsius. Answer: b
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Find maximum value of convective Explanation: t – t a/t I – t a = exponential (- h

coefficient that is permissible. Assume the
following property values A T/p V c). Now A/V = 100 per meter.
Density = 2250 kg/m3
C
5. An average convective heat transfer

Specific heat = 850 J/kg K coefficient for flow of air over a sphere has
Conductivity = 1.5 W/m K been measured by observing the temperature-
a) 245 W/m2K time history of a 12 mm diameter copper
b) 235 W/m2K sphere (density = 9000 kg/m3 and c = 0.4 k
c) 225 W/m2K J/kg K) exposed to air at 30 degree Celsius.
d) 215 W/m2K The temperature of the sphere was measured

by two thermocouples one located at the is 5 meter in length. The initial ingot
center and the other near the surface. The temperature is 90 degree Celsius, the furnace
initial temperature of the ball was 75 degree gas is at 1260 degree Celsius and the
Celsius and it decreased by 10 degree Celsius combined radiant and convective surface
in 1.2 minutes. Find the heat transfer coefficient is 100 W/m2 K. Determine the
coefficient maximum speed with which the ingot moves
a) 27.46 W/m2 K through the furnace if it must attain 830
b) 21.76 W/m2 K degree Celsius temperature. Take thermal
M
c) 29.37 W/m2 K diffusivity as 0.45 * 10 -5 m2/s
d) 25.13 W/m2 K a) . 000116 m/s
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b) .000216 m/s
Answer: d c) . 000316 m/s
C
Explanation: t – t a/t I – t a = exponential (- h d) . 000416 m/s
A T/p V c). So, h = 25.13 W/m2 K.
T.
Answer: b
Explanation: t – t a/t I – t a = exponential (- h
6. Transient condition means
A T/p V c). Now, A/V = 2(r + L)/r L = 0.48
O
a) Conduction when temperature at a point
per cm. Also, T = 1158.53 second so required
varies with time
velocity is 0.25/1158.53.
b) Very little heat transfer
c) Heat transfer with a very little temperature
difference
SP
9. The curve for unsteady state cooling or
heating of bodies is
G
d) Heat transfer for a short time a) Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time
and temperature axis
Answer: a
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b) Exponential curve asymptotic both to time

Explanation: The term transient or unsteady
and temperature axis
state designates a phenomenon which is time
c) Parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis
dependent.
d) Exponential curve asymptotic to time axis
.B
7. Which of the following is not correct in a

Answer: d
transient flow process?
17
Explanation: α/α 0 = exponential [- h A T/p c

a) The state of matter inside the control
volume varies with time V], which represents an exponential curve.
b) There can be work and heat interactions
10. What is the wavelength band for TV rays?
-R
across the control volume

c) There is no accumulation of energy inside a) 1 * 10 3 to 34 * 10 10 micron meter
the control volume b) 1 * 10 3 to 2 * 10 10 micron meter
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d) The rate of inflow and outflow of mass are c) 1 * 10 3 to 3 * 10 10 micron meter

different
d) 1 * 10 3 to 56 * 10 10 micron meter
C
Answer: c
Answer: b
Explanation: In transient heat conduction
Explanation: This is the maximum and
there is accumulation of energy inside the
minimum wavelength for TV rays.
control volume.
8. A cylindrical stainless steel (k = 25 W/m TOPIC 3.7 THERMAL

K) ingot, 10 cm in diameter and 25 cm long, CONDUCTIVITY
passes through a heat treatment furnace which

TOPIC 3.8 FORBE'S AND LEE'S Answer: b

Explanation: For water, it is 0.55-0.7 W/m
DISC METHOD: THEORY AND degree and for air it is .024 W/m degree.
EXPERIMENT
5. Identify the very good insulator
1. Thermal conductivity is defined as the heat a) Saw dust
flow per unit time b) Cork
a) When the temperature gradient is unity c) Asbestos sheet
d) Glass wool
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b) Across the wall with no temperature
c) Through a unit thickness of the wall
Answer: d
d) Across unit area where the temperature
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Explanation: Glass wool has a lowest
gradient is unity
thermal conductivity of 0.03 W/m degree
C
Answer: d amongst given option.
Explanation: Thermal conductivity of a
T.
6. Most metals are good conductor of heat
material is because of migration of free
because of
electrons and lattice vibrational waves.
a) Transport of energy
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2. Mark the matter with least value of thermal b) Free electrons and frequent collision of
atoms
conductivity
a) Air
b) Water
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c) Lattice defects
d) Capacity to absorb energy
c) Ash
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Answer: b
d) Window glass
Explanation: For good conductors, there
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Answer: a must be electrons that are free to move.

Explanation: For air, it is .024 W/ m degree
7. Heat conduction in gases is due to
i.e. lowest.
a) Elastic impact of molecules
.B
3. Which one of the following forms of water b) Movement of electrons

have the highest value of thermal c) EM Waves
17
conductivity? d) Mixing of gases

a) Boiling water
Answer: a
b) Steam
Explanation: If there is elastic collision then
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c) Solid ice
after sometime molecules regain its natural
d) Melting ice
position.
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Answer: c
8. The heat energy propagation due to
Explanation: For ice, it is 2.25 W/m degree
conduction heat transfer will be minimum for
i.e. maximum.
a) Lead
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4. The average thermal conductivities of b) Water

water and air conform to the ratio c) Air
a) 50:1 d) Copper
b) 25:1
Answer: c
c) 5:1
Explanation: It is because air has lowest
d) 15:1

value of thermal conductivity amongst given a) 3:2:1

options. b) 1:1:1
c) 1:2:3
9. Cork is a good insulator because d) Given data is insufficient
a) It is flexible
b) It can be powdered Answer: a
c) Low density Explanation: As, δ1 = δ2 = δ3 and cross
d) It is porous sectional areas are same i.e. temperature drop
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varies inversely with thermal conductivity.
Answer: d
Explanation: Cork has thermal conductivity 3. A composite wall is made of two layers of
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in the range of 0.05-0.10 which is very low so thickness δ1 and δ2 having thermal
it can be porous.
conductivities k and 2k and equal surface area
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10. Choose the false statement normal to the direction of heat flow. The
outer surface of composite wall are at 100
T.
a) For pure metal thermal conductivity is
degree Celsius and 200 degree Celsius. The
more
minimum surface temperature at the junction
b) Thermal conductivity decreases with
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is 150 degree Celsius. What will be the ratio
increase in the density of the substance
of wall thickness?
c) Thermal conductivity of dry material is
lower than that of damp material
d) Heat treatment causes variation in thermal
conductivity
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a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
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d) 2:3
Answer: b
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Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal conductivity increase
Explanation: Q = k 1 A 1 d t 1 / δ1 = k 2 A 2 d
with increase in the density of a substance.
t 2 / δ2 Also areas are same.
.B
TOPIC 3.9 CONDUCTION 4. Let us say thermal conductivity of a wall is

THROUGH COMPOUND MEDIA governed by the relation k = k0 (1
17
(SERIES AND PARALLEL) + α t). In that case the temperature at the mid-
plane of the heat conducting wall would be
1. A composite wall generally consists of a) Av. of the temperature at the wall faces
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a) One homogenous layer b) More than average of the temperature at

b) Multiple heterogeneous layers the wall faces
c) One heterogeneous layer c) Less than average of the temperature at the
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d) Multiple homogenous layers wall faces

d) Depends upon the temperature difference
Answer: b between the wall faces
Explanation: Walls of houses where bricks
C
are given a layer of plaster on either side. Answer: b

Explanation: k0 is thermal conductivity at 0
2. Three metal walls of the same thickness degree Celsius. Here β is positive so it is
and cross sectional area have thermal more than average of the temperature at the
conductivities k, 2k and 3k respectively. The wall faces.
temperature drop across the walls (for same
heat transfer) will be in the ratio

5. Heat is transferred from a hot fluid to a c) Radiation

cold one through a plane wall of thickness d) Both conduction and convection
(δ), surface area (A) and thermal conductivity
(k). The thermal resistance is Answer: c
a) 1/A (1/h1 + δ/k + 1/h2) Explanation: As there is temperature
b) A (1/h1 + δ/k + 1/h2) difference so radiation suits well.
c) 1/A (h1 + δ/k + h2) 8. “Radiation cannot be affected through
d) A (h1 + δ/k + 1/h2) vacuum or space devoid of any matter”. True
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or false
Answer: a a) True
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Explanation: Net thermal resistance will be b) False
summation of resistance through plane wall
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and from left side and right side of the wall. Answer: b
Explanation: It can be affected only by air
T.
6. Find the heat flow rate through the between molecules and vacuum of any
composite wall as shown in figure. Assume matter.
one dimensional flow and take
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9. A composite slab has two layers having
thermal conductivities in the ratio of 1:2. If
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the thickness is the same for each layer then
the equivalent thermal conductivity of the
slab would be
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k 1 = 150 W/m degree a) 1/3
k 2 = 30 W/m degree b) 2/3
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c) 2
k 3 = 65 W/m degree d) 4/3
k 4 = 50 W/m degree
Answer: d
.B
AB = 3 cm, BC = 8 cm and CD = 5 cm. The

distance between middle horizontal line from Explanation: 2(1) (2)/1+2 = 4/3.
the top is 3 cm and from the bottom is 7 cm
17
a) 1173.88 W 10. A composite wall of a furnace has two

b) 1273.88 W layers of equal thickness having thermal
c) 1373.88 W conductivities in the ratio 2:3. What is the
ratio of the temperature drop across the two
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d) 1473.88 W
layers?
Answer: b a) 2:3
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Explanation: Q = d t/ R T. R T = R 1 + R e q + b) 3:2
R 2 = 0.02 + 0.01469 + 0.1 = 0.2669 c) 1:2
d) log e 2 : log e 3
degree/W.
C
7. A pipe carrying steam at 215.75 degree Answer: b

Celsius enters a room and some heat is gained Explanation: We know that temperature is
by surrounding at 27.95 degree Celsius. The inversely proportional to thermal
major effect of heat loss to surroundings will conductivity, so the ratio is 2:3.
be due to
a) Conduction
b) Convection

fuel to maintain the desired temperature in the

TOPIC 3.10 THERMAL
room.
INSULATION
4. The amount of heat flow through a unit
1. According to Indian Standards, it is area of material of unit thickness in one hour,
recommended that the overall thermal when the temperature difference is
transmittance of a roof should not be more maintained at 1°C is known as ___________
than _______ kcal/m2 h deg C. of the material.
a) Thermal conductivity
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a) 2.00
b) 5.00 b) Thermal resistivity
c) 7.00 c) Thermal conductance
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d) 9.00 d) Thermal resistance
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Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: According to Indian Standards, Explanation: The amount of heat flow
T.
it is recommended that the overall thermal through a unit area of material of unit
transmittance of a roof should not be more thickness in one hour, when the temperature
difference is maintained at 1°C is known as
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than 2.00 kcal/m2 h deg C. It is also the thermal conductivity. It is denoted by k.
recommended that the thermal dampness of a Its units are W/(mK).
roof should be less than 75%.
2. The process of direct transmission of heat

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5. The reciprocal of thermal conductivity is
known as __________
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through a material is known as __________ a) Thermal conductance
a) Conduction b) Surface resistance
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b) Radiation c) Specific conductance

c) Thermal insulation d) Thermal resistivity
d) Thermal energy
Answer: d
.B
Answer: a Explanation: The reciprocal of thermal

Explanation: The process of direct conductivity is known as thermal resistivity.
transmission of heat through a material is
17
It is given by 1/k. Its units are (mK)/W.

known as conduction. The amount of heat
transfer by this process depends on various 6. Which of the following is the correct
factors like temperature difference, the relationship between thermal resistance and
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conductivity of the medium, the time for thermal conductivity?

which the flow takes place etc. a) R = k/L
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b) R = k.L
3. Thermal insulation keeps the room cool in c) R = L/k
winters and hot in summers.
a) True d) R = L2/k
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b) False
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: Thermal resistance and thermal
Explanation: Thermal insulation keeps the conductivity are related by the equation R =
room hot in winters and cool in summers L/k. Here, R is the thermal resistance, k is the
which results in comfortable living. It thermal conductivity and L is the thickness.
minimises heat transfer and helps in saving Thermal resistance is the reciprocal of
thermal conductance.

7. Surface resistance is the reciprocal of c) It should be readily available

__________ d) It should be fireproof
a) Surface coefficient
b) Surface resistivity Answer: b
c) Surface conductance Explanation: A good thermal insulating
d) Surface conductivity material should be durable. It should have
high thermal resistance. It should be fireproof
Answer: a and readily available.
Explanation: Surface resistance is the
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reciprocal of the surface coefficient. It is 11. Reflective sheet materials used as thermal
given by 1/f where f denotes the surface insulating material have ___________
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coefficient. Its units are (m2K)/W. reflectivity and __________ emissivity.
a) High, high
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8. Thermal damping is given by the equation b) High, low
D = (T-t/T) x 100. Here, T denotes c) Low, low
T.
_________ d) Low, high
a) Outside temperature range
Answer: b
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b) Inside temperature range
c) Total outside and inside temperature range Explanation: Reflective sheet materials used
as thermal insulating material have high
d) Thickness
Answer: a
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reflectivity and low emissivity. Because of
this property, it offers high heat resistance.
Explanation: Thermal damping is given by
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the equation D = (T-t/T) x 100. Here, T 12. Thermal insulation of roofs can be
denotes outside temperature range and t obtained by covering the top exposed surface
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denotes inside temperature range. Also, of the roof with ________

thermal damping is denoted by D. a) 2.5 cm thick layer of mud mortar
b) 2.5 cm thick layer of coconut pitch cement
concrete
.B
9. Which of the following is the correct

relation between thermal transmittance and c) 7.5 cm thick layer of mud mortar
thermal time constant? d) 7.5 m thick layer of coconut pitch cement
17
a) T = Q x U concrete
b) T = k/U
c) T = Q/U Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal insulation of roofs can
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d) T = U/Q
be obtained by covering the top exposed
Answer: c surface of the roof with 2.5 cm thick layer of
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Explanation: Thermal transmittance and coconut pitch cement concrete. Coconut pitch
thermal time constant are related by the cement concrete is prepared by mixing
equation T = Q/U. Here, T denotes the coconut pitch with water and cement.
thermal time constant, U is the thermal
C
transmittance and Q is the quantity of heat 13. Presence of moisture in the thermal
stored. insulating material increases thermal
insulation while the presence of air spaces
10. Which of the following is not a quality of decreases thermal insulation.
a good thermal insulating material? a) True
a) It should be durable b) False
b) It should have a low thermal resistance

Answer: b 1. What is solar water heater?

Explanation: Presence of moisture in the a) Use solar energy to heat water
thermal insulating material decreases thermal b) Use solar energy to generate current which
insulation while the presence of air spaces is then used to heat water
increases thermal insulation. The choice of c) Use water to generate heat
the thermal insulating material depends on d) Use solar energy to generate steam
various factors like cost of material, area to
be covered, coat of heating or cooling, etc. Answer: a
Explanation: Solar water heater is a system
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14. According to the Indian Standards, it is that converts sunlight into heat. This heat is
recommended that thermal damping of a wall then used to heat water. As the water gets
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should not be less than _______ heated, steam may be produced but the
a) 40% purpose of solar water is to heat water and not
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b) 50% produce steam. It does not generate current.
c) 60%
T.
d) 80% 2. Which of the following determines
complexity and size of solar water heating
Answer: c system?
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Explanation: According to the Indian a) Food
Standards, it is recommended that the thermal b) Changes in ambient temperature
damping of a wall should not be less than
60%. Hence, it is also recommended that the
thermal time constant should not be less than
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c) Chemicals
d) Solar radiation constant
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16 h. Answer: b
Explanation: Changes in ambient
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15. According to Indian Standards, overall temperature during day-night cycle is one of
thermal transmittance of a wall should not be the factors that determines the complexity and
more than __________ kcal/m2 h deg C. size of solar water heating system. Food,
.B
a) 1.3 chemicals and solar radiation constant does

b) 2.2 not influence the complexity and size of the
c) 3.7 system.
17
d) 4.6
3. What is freeze protection in a solar water
Answer: b heating system?
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Explanation: According to Indian Standards, a) Ensures that the system is frozen

overall thermal transmittance of a wall should b) Prevents the operation of drainback system
c) Prevents damage to system due to freezing
not be more than 2.2 kcal/m2 h deg C. Heat
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of transfer fluid
insulation of exposed walls can be achieved
d) Ensures that the transfer fluid is frozen
by increasing the thickness of the wall.
Answer: c
C
TOPIC 3.11 APPLICATIONS: Explanation: Freeze protection in a solar

HEAT EXCHANGERS, water system prevents the system being
damaged due to freezing of transfer fluid. It
REFRIGERATORS, OVENS AND does not prevent the operation of drainback
SOLAR WATER HEATERS. system.

4. What are drainback systems in solar water 7. Direct solar water heating systems ______
heating system? a) offer great overheating protection
a) The system that reverses the direction of b) are called pumped systems
flow of transfer fluid c) offer no overheating protection
b) The system that tracks the sun d) offer great freeze protection
c) The system that pumps excess transfer
fluid Answer: c
d) The system that drains the transfer fluid Explanation: Direct solar water heating
systems are also called compact systems.
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Answer: d They offer little or no overheating protection
Explanation: Drainback systems are systems unless they have a heat export pump.
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that drain the transfer fluid particularly to
ensure freeze protection. This prevents the 8. How is the heat transferred from transfer
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freezing of transfer fluid and any unwanted fluid to potable water in indirect solar water
damage to the system. heating systems?
T.
a) By directly exposing the substance to
5. How does freeze-tolerance work? sunlight
a) By expansion of pipes carrying transfer b) By using an electrical heater
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fluid c) By circulating potable water through the
b) By compression of pipes carrying transfer collector
fluid
c) By increasing the temperature of pipes
carrying transfer fluid
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d) By using heat exchanger
Answer: d
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d) By increasing the pressure inside pipes Explanation: An indirect solar water heating
carrying transfer fluid system uses a heat exchanger to transfer heat
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from the transfer fluid to the potable water. It

Answer: a does not expose the transfer fluid directly to
Explanation: Freeze-tolerance works by the sunlight and does not use an electrical
.B
expansion of pipes carrying the transfer fluid. heater.

The low pressure pipes are made of silicone
rubber that expands on freezing. 9. How is water heated in a direct solar water
17
heating system?
6. Which of the following metals are used to a) By circulating potable water through the
make pipes of low cost solar water heating collector
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system? b) By directly exposing water to sunlight

a) Gold c) By using convection from a different
b) Copper transfer fluid
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c) Polymer d) By using heat exchanger

d) Silver
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: In a direct solar water heating
C
Explanation: Copper is used to make pipes system, the potable water is the transfer fluid.
of low cost solar water heating systems. Hence, it is heated by circulating through the
Though silver and gold are good thermal collector. Indirect solar water heating systems
conductors they are expensive. Polymer is not use a heat exchanger.
a metal.
10. Passive systems rely on heat-driven
convection.

a) False loss by thermally insulating the storage tank.

b) True This is done by covering the tank in a glass-
topped box that allows heat from sun to reach
Answer: b the water tank and traps it – greenhouse
Explanation: Passive systems rely on heat- effect.
driven convection. If not, they also use heat
pipes to circulate the working fluid through 14. Overheat protection is done by passing
the collector and heat it. Hence, they are hot water through collector during night.
cheap and are easily maintained. a) False
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b) True
11. Which of the following is an example of
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direct solar water heating system? Answer: b
a) Pressurised antifreeze system Explanation: Overheat protection is done by
C
b) Pumped systems to circulate transfer fluid passing hot water through collector during
c) Convection heat storage system night or when there is less sunlight. This is
T.
d) Drainback system extremely effective in direct or thermal store
plumbing and ineffective in evacuated-tube
Answer: c collectors.
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Explanation: Convection heat storage system
is similar to an integrated collector storage
system. Both these systems are examples of
direct solar water heating systems.
SP UNIT IV QUANTUM
G
12. How is the heat transfer fluid (HTF)
heated in bubble pump systems? PHYSICS
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a) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to

high pressure TOPIC 4.1 BLACK BODY
b) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to
high pressure and by increasing the volume
RADIATION
.B
c) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to

low pressure and by decreasing the volume 1. As the wavelength of the radiation
17
d) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to decreases, the intensity of the black body
low pressure radiations ____________
a) Increases
Answer: d
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b) Decreases
Explanation: In a bubble pump system, the c) First increases then decrease
heat transfer fluid circuit is subjected to a low d) First decreases then increase
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pressure. This causes the liquid to boil at low

temperatures as the sun heats it. The volume Answer: c
is not changed. Explanation: In the case of Black Body
radiations, as the body gets hotter the
C
13. Batch collectors reduce heat loss by wavelength of the emitted radiation
thermally insulating the storage tank. decreases. However, the intensity first
a) True increases up to a specific wavelength than
b) False starts decreasing, as the wavelength continues
to decrease.
Answer: a
Explanation: Batch collectors reduce heat

2. The radiations emitted by hot bodies are 5. From the figure, what’s the relation
called as ________________ between T1, T2, and T3?
a) X-rays
b) Black-body radiation
c) Gamma radiations
d) Visible light
Answer: b
Explanation: The phenomenon of black—
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body radiations was given by Max Planck. He
stated that hot bodies emit radiation over a
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wide range of wavelengths. An ideal body is
the one that emits and absorbs radiation of all
C
frequencies. Such a body called a Black Body
and the radiations are called Black body
T.
radiations. a) T1 > T2 > T3
3. An iron rod is heated. The colors at b) T3 > T2 > T2
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different temperatures are noted. Which of the c) T3 > T1 > T2
following colors shows that the iron rod is at
the lowest temperature?
a) Red
b) Orange
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d) T2 > T1 > T3
Answer: b
Explanation: We already know, as the
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c) White temperature of the body is higher, the
d) Blue intensity of the black body radiations would
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be higher. Thus, from the graph, the

Answer: a radiations with temperature T3 has the highest
Explanation: As the body gets hotter, the
intensity followed by the one with
.B
frequency of the emitted radiation keeps on

temperature T2 and then T1. Thus, T3> T2 >
increasing. Blue color has the highest
frequency out of red, orange and white. Thus, T1.
17
as the iron rod gets heated first it would

become red, then orange, then white and then 6. Electromagnetic wave theory of light could
finally blue. not explain Black Body radiations.
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a) True
4. A black body is defined as a perfect b) False
absorber of radiations. It may or may not be a
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perfect emitter of radiations. Answer: a

a) True Explanation: According to electromagnetic
b) False theory, the absorption and the emission
should be continuous. As the wavelength
C
Answer: b keeps decreasing, the intensity of the emitted

Explanation: A black body is defined as the radiations should keep increasing to infinity.
one which is a perfect absorber as well as a Such is not the case with Black Body
perfect emitter of radiations. Such a body Radiations.
would absorb all the radiations falling on it
and would emit all of them when heated. 7. The unit of absorptive power is
_______________

a) T
b) Ts-1
c) Ts
d) No unit
Answer: d
Explanation: Absorptive power can be
defined as the ratio of energy absorbed per
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unit area upon energy incident per unit time
per unit area. For a black body, it’s absorptive
power is equal to one.
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a) Er = 0
8. For an object other than a black body, it’s b) Ea = 0
C
emissivity, e is _______________ c) Et = Ei
a) 1 d) Ei = Er
T.
b) 0 < e < 1
c) e > 1 Answer: a
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d) e = 0 Explanation: As a black body is a perfect
absorber, the reflected energy and the
Answer: b
Explanation: Emissivity is the ratio of
emissive power of any object and the
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transmitted energy should be zero. Also, the
energy of the incident radiation should be
equal to the energy absorbed.
emissive power of the black body having the
G
same temperature and surface area as the
object. Thus, for a black body, it is equal to 1. TOPIC 4.2 PLANCK'S THEORY
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For any other object, it is less than 1. (DERIVATION)

9. What relation between emissivity, e, and
1. The energy emitted by a black surface
.B
Absorptive Power, a, is given by Kirchhoff’s

should not vary in accordance with
law?
a) Wavelength
a) e < a
17
b) Temperature
b) e > a
c) Surface characteristics
c) e = a
d) Time
d) no specific relation
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Answer: d
Answer: c
Explanation: It is time independent. For a
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s law states that for
prescribed wavelength, the body radiates
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any object the emissivity is always equal to

much more energy at elevated temperatures.
absorptive power. For a black body, both of
them are equal to one. 2. In the given diagram let r be the length of
C
the line of propagation between the radiating

10. What is the relation between the Energies
and the incident surfaces. What is the value of
as shown in the figure?
solid angle W?

c) 5.47 * 10 7 W/m2
d) 6.47 * 10 7 W/m2
Answer: c
Explanation: E = σ b t 4 = 5.47 * 10 7 W/m2.
a) A sin α 6. The law governing the distribution of

b) A cos α radiant energy over wavelength for a black
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c) 2A cos α body at fixed temperature is referred to as
d) 2A cos α a) Kirchhoff’s law
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b) Planck’s law
Answer: b c) Wein’s formula
C
Explanation: The solid angle is defined by a d) Lambert’s law
region by the rays of a sphere, and is
T.
Answer: b
measured as A n/r2.
Explanation: This law gives a relation
between energy over wavelength.
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3. Likewise the amount of emitted radiation is
strongly influenced by the wavelength even if 7. The Planck’s constant h has the dimensions
temperature of the body is
a) Constant
b) Increasing
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equal to
a) M L 2 T -1
b) M L T -1
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c) Decreasing
d) It is not related with temperature c) M L T -2
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d) M L T
Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature must remain Answer: a
constant in order to emit radiation. Explanation: It has unit equal to J s and its
.B
value is 6.626 * 10 -34.

4. A small body has a total emissive power of
4.5 kW/m2. Determine the wavelength of 8. Planck’s law is given by
17
emission maximum a) (E) b = 2 π c 2 h (Wavelength) -5/[c h/k

a) 8.46 micron m (Wavelength) T] – 2
b) 7.46 micron m
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b) (E) b = π c 2 h [exponential [c h/k

c) 6.46 micron m
d) 5.46 micron m (Wavelength) T] – 3].
c) (E) b = 2 π c 2 h (Wavelength)
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Answer: d -5/exponential[c h/k (Wavelength) T] – 1

Explanation: (Wavelength) max t = 2.8908 *
d) (E) b = 2c2h (Wavelength) -5/exponential
10 -3.
C
[c h/k (Wavelength) T] – 6
5. The sun emits maximum radiation of 0.52
micron meter. Assuming the sun to be a black Answer: c
Explanation: Planck suggested the following
body, Calculate the emissive ability of the
sun’s surface at that temperature law for the spectral distribution of emissive
power.
a) 3.47 * 10 7 W/m2
b) 4.47 * 10 7 W/m2

9. A furnace emits radiation at 2000 K. to pass through a black body, it undergoes

Treating it as a black body radiation, calculate multiple reflections and is completely
the monochromatic radiant flux density at 1 absorbed. When it is placed in a temperature
micron m wavelength bath of fixed temperature, the heat radiations
a) 5.81 * 10 7 W/m2 will come out. Thus a black body is a perfect
b) 4.81 * 10 7 W/m2 absorber and a perfect reflector.
c) 3.81 * 10 7 W/m2 2. The energy distribution is not uniform for
d) 2.81 * 10 7 W/m2 any given temperature in a perfect black
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body.
Answer: d a) True
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Explanation: (E) b = C 1 (Wavelength) b) False
-5/exponential [C 2/ (Wavelength) T] – 1.
C
Answer: a
Explanation: At different temperatures, when
T.
10. A metal sphere of surface area 0.0225 m2 a perfect black body is allowed to emit
is in an evacuated enclosure whose walls are radiations, then the distribution of energy for
held at a very low temperature. Electric different wavelengths at various temperatures
O
current is passed through resistors embedded is not uniform.
in the sphere causing electrical energy to be
dissipated at the rate of 75 W. If the sphere
surfaces temperature is measured to be 560 K,
while in steady state, calculate emissivity of
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3. Rayleigh-Jean’s law holds good for which
of the following?
a) Shorter wavelength
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the sphere surface b) Longer wavelength
a) 0.498 c) High temperature
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b) 0.598 d) High energy

c) 0.698
d) 0.798 Answer: b
Explanation: According to this law, the
.B
Answer: b energy distribution is directly proportional to

Explanation: E = e A σ b T. the absolute temperature and is inversely
17
proportional to the fourth power of the

TOPIC 4.3 COMPTON EFFECT: wavelength. Therefore longer the wavelength,
greater is the energy distribution.
THEORY AND EXPERIMENTAL
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VERIFICATION 4. Wien’s displacement law holds good only

for shorter wavelength.
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1. Which of the following is the characteristic a) False

of a black body? b) True
a) A perfect absorber but an imperfect
radiator Answer: b
C
b) A perfect radiator but an imperfect Explanation: This law states that, the product
absorber of the wavelength, corresponding to
c) A perfect radiator and a perfect absorber maximum energy and the absolute
d) A perfect conductor temperature, is constant. If ʎ is less, then 1/ʎ
will be great. Therefore e(hc/ʎKT) will be
Answer: c great.
Explanation: When the radiations are made

5. Which of the following does not affect the b) Electromagnetic waves

photon? c) Electrical waves
a) Magnetic or electric field d) Matter waves
b) Light waves
c) Gravity Answer: b
d) Current Explanation: The waves which travel in the
form of oscillating electric and magnetic
Answer: a waves are called electromagnetic waves. Such
Explanation: Photons have no charge. They waves do not require any material for their
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can interact with charged particles but not propagation and are called non-mechanical
with themselves. This is why photons are waves.
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neutral and not affected by magnetic or
electric fields. 9. Which of the following is associated with
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an electron microscope?
6. What is Compton shift? a) Matter waves
T.
a) Shift in frequency b) Electrical waves
b) Shift in charges c) Magnetic waves
c) Shift in radiation d) Electromagnetic waves
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d) Shift in wavelength
Answer: a
Answer: d
Explanation: When a photon collides with an
electron at rest, the photon gives its energy to
SP
Explanation: The waves associated with
microscopic particles when they are in motion
are called matter waves. Electron microscope
G
the electron. Therefore the scattered photon makes use of the matter waves associated
will have higher wavelength compared to the with fast moving electrons.
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wavelength of the incident photon. This shift

in wavelength is called Compton shift. 10. A radio station broadcasts its programme
at 219.3 metre wavelength. Determine the
7. Compton shift depends on which of the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio
.B
following? waves is 3×108 m/s.

a) Incident radiation
a) 7.31×10-7 Hz
17
b) Nature of scattering substance

c) Angle of scattering b) 1.954×10-6 Hz
d) Amplitude of frequency c) 1.368×106 Hz
d) 6.579×1010 Hz
-R
Answer: c
Explanation: From the theory of Compton Answer: c
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effect it is deducted that change in Explanation: ʎ = velocity/frequency

wavelength Frequency = velocity/ʎ
Δʎ = h/mc (1-cosɵ). This equation shows that Therefore, frequency = 1.368×106 Hz.
the change in wavelength is independent of
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the incident radiation as well as the nature of 11. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of an
scattering substance. The shift depends only electron which has been accelerated from rest
on the angle of scattering. on application of potential of 400volts.
a) 0.1653 Å
8. Which of the following is called as non- b) 0.5125 Å
mechanical waves? c) 0.6135 Å
a) Magnetic waves d) 0.2514 Å

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: de-Broglie wavelength = h/ Explanation: The friction force amongst the
√(2×m×e×V) particles of the medium should be negligibly
De-Broglie wavelength = (6.625×10-14)/ small so that they continue oscillating for a
√(2×9.11×10-31×1.6×10-19×400) sufficiently long time and the wave travels a
Wavelength = 0.6135 Å. sufficiently long distance through the medium
4. Transverse waves can be formed in fluids.

TOPIC 4.4 WAVE PARTICLE a) True
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DUALITY b) False
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Answer: b
1. When a pebble is dropped into a pond of Explanation: Transverse waves travel in the
C
still water, what happens? form of crests and troughs. They involve
a) Particles move changes in the shape of the medium. So they
T.
b) Waves move can be transmitted through media which have
c) The pebble moves rigidity. As fluids do not sustain shearing
d) Water moves stress, transverse waves cannot be formed in
O
them.
Answer: b
Explanation: When a pebble is thrown in still
water, a circular pattern of alternate crests
spread out. The kinetic energy makes the
SP
5. Which of the following waves can be
transmitted through solids, liquids and gases?
a) Transverse waves
G
particles to oscillate which comes in contact b) Electromagnetic waves
with it. The energy gets transferred to the c) Mechanical waves
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particles of the next layer which also begins d) Longitudinal waves

to oscillate. Thus it is the disturbance or
waves that move forward and not the particles Answer: d
of the medium. Explanation: Longitudinal waves involve
.B
changes in the volume and density of the

2. Mechanical waves are called elastic waves. medium. Since all media can sustain
17
a) True compressive stress, longitudinal waves can be

b) False transmitted through all the three types of
media.
Answer: a
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Explanation: Waves which require a medium 6. For an aluminium the modulus of rigidity
for their propagation are called mechanical
is 2.1×1010 N/m2 and density is 2.7×103
waves. They are also called elastic waves
SE
because they depend on the elastic properties kg/m3. Find the speed of transverse waves in
of a medium. the medium.
a) 27.9×103 m/s
C
3. What are the essential properties a medium b) 2.79×103 m/s

must possess for the propagation of
c) 25.14×103 m/s
mechanical waves?
a) Stable pressure d) 24.1×103 m/s
b) Maximum friction
c) Constant temperature Answer: b
d) Minimum friction Explanation: Speed = √(Ƞ/ƿ)
Speed = 2.79×103 m/s.

7. Sound travels through a gas under which of c) Frequency

the following condition? d) Wavelength
a) Isothermal condition
b) Non-isothermal condition Answer: c
c) Adiabatic condition Explanation: When a wave travels from one
d) Transverse condition medium to other, its wavelength as well as
velocity may change. This is the reason that
Answer: c frequency is the fundamental property of a
Explanation: The compressions and wave.
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rarefactions are formed so rapidly that the
heat generated in the regions of compressions 11. Which of the following is also known as
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does not get time to pass into the regions of pressure waves?
rarefactions so as to equalize the temperature. a) Transverse waves
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So when sound travels through gas, the b) Longitudinal waves
temperature remains constant. Therefore, it is c) Mechanical waves
T.
adiabatic. d) Stationary waves
8. What kind of wave is formed in organ Answer: b
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pipes? Explanation: Longitudinal waves travel in a
a) Transverse stationary waves medium as series of alternate compressions
b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Longitudinal stationary waves
SP
and rarefactions and hence are called pressure
waves.
G
12. In which medium sound travels faster?
Answer: d a) Solid
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Explanation: When two identical b) Liquid

longitudinal waves travelling in opposite c) Gas
directions overlap, a longitudinal stationary d) Water vapour
.B
wave is formed. Thus, the waves produced in

organ pipes are longitudinal stationary waves. Answer: a
Explanation: Sound travels in solid with the
17
9. A wave transmits momentum. Can’t it highest speed because the coefficient of

transfer angular momentum? elasticity of solids is much greater than the
a) Yes coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.
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b) No
Answer: b
TOPIC 4.5 ELECTRON
DIFFRACTION
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Explanation: A wave transmitting

momentum cannot transmit angular
momentum because a transfer of angular 1. TEM and SEM are the same microscopy
momentum means the action of a torque techniques.
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which causes rotator motion. a) True

b) False
10. What is the most fundamental property of
wave? Answer: a
a) Temperature Explanation: Transmission electron
b) Pressure microscopy (TEM) and scanning electron
microscopy (SEM) are the different types of

electron microscopy. These use electrons for b) specimen

casting the images of an object. c) column
d) ocular system
2. The resolving power of TEM is derived
from _______________ Answer: c
a) electrons Explanation: To prevent the premature
b) specimens scattering of electrons by collision with the
c) power gas molecules, a vacuum is generated through
d) ocular system which the electrons travel, in the column prior
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to operation.
Answer: a
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Explanation: The resolving power of a 6. Which of the following component of TEM
transmission electron microscope is derived focuses the beam of electrons on the sample?
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from the wave-like property of electrons that a) ocular lens
pass through the specimen. In SEM, the b) condenser lens
T.
electrons reflect back from the specimen. c) stage
d) column
3. The cathode of transmission electron
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microscope consists of a Answer: b
____________________ Explanation: The condenser lens focuses the
a) tungsten wire
b) bulb
c) iron filament
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electron beam on to the specimen, in case of
transmission electron microscope. The
specimen is supported on the grid holder and
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d) gold wire placed inside the column.
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Answer: a 7. Image formation in electron microscope is

Explanation: The cathode of a transmission based on ___________________________
electron microscope (TEM) is located on top a) column length
of the column, it contains a tungsten wire b) electron number
.B
filament that is heated to provide the source c) differential scattering

of electrons. d) specimen size
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4. The resolution attainable with standard Answer: c

TEM is less than the theoretical value. Explanation: In case of the electron
a) True microscope, the image formation is based on
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b) False the differential scattering of the electrons by

parts of the specimen. The scattering of
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Answer: a electrons is proportional to the size nuclei of

Explanation: The resolution that can be the atoms that make up the sample.
attained with a standard transmission electron
microscope is about two orders of magnitude 8. The biological materials have little intrinsic
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less than the theoretical value. This is due to capability to ____________________

spherical aberration of electron-focusing a) scatter electrons
lenses. b) stain
c) remain viable
5. During TEM, a vacuum is created inside d) be captured
the _________________________
a) room of operation

Answer: a 12. Shadow casting is a technique of

Explanation: The insoluble materials of cells visualizing ___________________
contain atoms of low atomic number such as a) isolated particles
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen. The b) mounts
biological materials therefore have very little c) shoot tips
intrinsic capability of scattering the electrons. d) root tips
9. Glutaraldehyde is a ________________ Answer: a

a) metal Explanation: Shadow casting is a technique
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b) fixative of viewing isolated particles. The particles are
c) non-metal made to cast shadows after their placement in
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d) atomic species sealed chambers. The chamber contains a
filament of carbon and a heavy metal.
C
Answer: b
Explanation: Glutaraldehyde and osmium
T.
tetroxide are common fixatives used in the TOPIC 4.6 CONCEPT OF WAVE
transmission electron microscopy for the FUNCTION AND ITS PHYSICAL
fixation of biological specimens. They stain SIGNIFICANCE
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as well as keep the sectioned specimens in a
state of similarity with the living counterpart.
10. Osmium is a ___________________

a) non metal
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TOPIC 4.7 SCHRODINGER'S
WAVE EQUATION
G
b) heavy metal
c) alloy TOPIC 4.8 TIME INDEPENDENT
LO
d) light metal AND TIME DEPENDENT

Answer: b
EQUATIONS
Explanation: Osmium is a heavy metal that
.B
reacts with fatty acids leading to the 1. Which of the following is the correct
preservation of membranes. Osmium expression for the Schrödinger wave
17
tetroxide is used as a fixative in transmission function?

electron microscopy. a) iℏ dΨ
= −i
dt
ℏ
+ UΨ
2m
∂Ψ
∂x
2
b) iℏ dΨ
= −i
ℏ
+ UΨ
∂ Ψ
11. In TEM, the tissue is stained by floating

-R
2
dt 2m ∂x
z
on drops of ______________________ c) iℏ dΨ
= −i
dt
ℏ
+ UΨ
2m
∂Ψ
∂x
a) hydrocarbons
z 2
d) iℏ dΨ
= −i
dt
ℏ
2m
+ UΨ
∂ Ψ
2
SE
∂x
b) slow-molecular weight stains
c) heavy metal soutions Answer: d
d) oil immersion Explanation: The correct expression for the
Schrödinger wave equation is
C
Answer: c iℏ
dΨ
= −i
ℏ
z
∂ Ψ
2
+ U Ψ. Schrodinger
Explanation: The tissue is stained by floating dt 2m 2
∂x
on drops of uranyl acetate and lead citrate equation is a basic principle in itself.
(heavy metal solutions). These solutions 2. For a quantum wave particle, E =
when bound to the specimen, provide the _____________
density required to scatter the electron beam. a) &hbar; k
b) &hbar; ω

c) &hbar; ω/2 6. Find the function, f(x), for which X f(x) =

d) &hbar; k/2 − a p f (x), where a is the real quantity.
i
ℏ
2
x
a) ke -x2
Answer: b 2
Explanation: The Energy of a wave particle b) ke-x /2a
is given as &hbar; ω while the momentum of 2 2
c) ke-x /2a
the particle is given as &hbar; k. These are 2
the desired relation. d) ke-x /2a
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3. Schrodinger Wave equation can be derived Answer: c
from Principles of Quantum Mechanics. Explanation: Now, given that, X f(x) =
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a) True −
i
ℏ
2
a pxf (x).
b) False X f(x) = − a p f (x)/dx

i 2
C
x
ℏ
Answer: b df/f = -xdx/a2
T.
Explanation: Schrodinger equation is a basic ln f = -x2/2a2 + C
2 2
principle in itself. It cannot be derived from f = ke-x /2a .
other principles of physics. Only, it can be
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verified with other principles. 7. dΨ/dx must be zero.
a) True
4. Which of the following can be a wave
function?
a) tan x
SP
b) False
Answer: b
G
b) sin x Explanation: For a wave function, dΨ/dx,
c) cot x must be continuous and single-valued
LO
d) sec x everywhere, just like Ψ. Also, Ψ must be

normalizable.
Answer: b
Explanation: Out of all the given options, sin 8. Any wave function can be written as a
.B
x is the only function, that is continuous and linear combination of _________________

single-valued. All the rest of the functions are a) Eigen Vectors
17
either discontinuous or double-valued. b) Eigen Values

c) Eigen Functions
5. Which of the following is not a d) Operators
characteristic of wave function?
-R
a) Continuous Answer: c
b) Single valued Explanation: A wave function describes the
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c) Differentiable state of a particle. It does not have a physical

d) Physically Significant significance. Moreover, it can be written as a
linear combination of Eigen functions, i.e.,
Answer: d Ψ(x) = AF(x) + BG(x).
C
Explanation: The wave function has no

physical significance. It merely helps in 9. The Schrödinger is a differential equation.
determining the state of a particle. It is the a) True
square of the wave function that has a b) False
physical significance.
Answer: b
Explanation: The Schrodinger wave equation

generated is a partial differential equation. It

is a basic principle in itself and cannot be
derived from other principles of physics.
There are two types of partial differential
equation time dependent form and steady-
state form.
10. Which of the following can be a solution

of Schrodinger equation?
M
a)
O
C
d)
T.
O
SP
G
b)
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.B
Answer: c
Explanation: Out of the following, only the
below diagram can be the solution of the
17
Schrodinger Wave equation. because other

diagram does not have a continuous dΨ/dx.
Some diagrams are double valued and
-R
discontinuous also.
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c)
C

TOPIC 4.9 PARTICLE IN A ONE- Answer: c

Explanation: In a particle inside a box, the
DIMENSIONAL RIGID BOX energy of the particle is directly proportional
to the square of the quantum state in which
1. The walls of a particle in a box are the particle currently is.
supposed to be ____________
a) Small but infinitely hard 5. For a particle inside a box, the potential is
b) Infinitely large but soft maximum at x = ___________
c) Soft and Small a) L
M
d) Infinitely hard and infinitely large b) 2L
c) L/2
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Answer: d d) 3L
Explanation: The simplest quantum-
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mechanical problem is that of a particle in a Answer: a
box with infinitely hard walls and are Explanation: In a box with infinitely high
T.
infinitely large. barriers with infinitely hard walls, the
potential is infinite when x = 0 and when x =
L.
O
2. The wave function of the particle lies in
which region?
6. The Eigen value of a particle in a box is
a) x > 0
b) x < 0
c) 0 < X < L
d) x > L
SP
___________
a) L/2
b) 2/L
G
c) √L/2
Answer: c
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d) √2/L
Explanation: The particle cannot exist
outside the box, as it cannot have infinite Answer: d
amount of energy. Thus, it’s wave function is Explanation: The wave function for the
.B
between 0 and L, where L is the length of the particle in a box is normalizable, when the
side of the box. value of the coefficient of sin is equal to
17
√ 2/L
3. The particle loses energy when it collides
with the wall. . It is the Eigen value of the wave function.
a) True
7. Particle in a box can never be at rest.
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b) False
a) True
Answer: b b) False
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Explanation: The total energy of the particle

Answer: a
inside the box remains constant. It does not
Explanation: If the particle in a box has zero
loses energy when it collides with the wall.
energy, it will be at rest inside the well and it
C
4. The Energy of the particle is proportional violates the Heisenberg’s Uncertainty

to __________ Principle. Thus, the minimum energy
a) n possessed by a particle is not equal to zero.
b) n-1 8. What is the minimum Energy possessed by
c) n2 the particle in a box?
d) n-2 a) Zero

11. Calculate the Zero-point energy for a

2 2
b) π ℏ
2mL
2
particle in an infinite potential well for an

c)
2 2
π ℏ
2mL
2
electron confined to a 1 nm atom.
d) π ℏ
2mL a) 3.9 X 10-29 J

Answer: b b) 4.9 X 10-29 J
Explanation: The minimum energy c) 5.9 X 10-29 J
possessed by a particle inside a box with d) 6.9 X 10-29 J
infinitely hard walls is equal to . The
2 2
M
π ℏ
2
2mL
Answer: c
particle can never be at rest, as it will violate
Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle. Explanation: Here, m = 9.1 X 10-31 kg, L =
O
10-9m.
9. The wave function of a particle in a box is 2 2
C
Therefore, E = π ℏ
given by ____________
2
2mL
= 3.14 X 3.14 X 1.05 X 1.05 X 10-68/ 2 X 9.1
T.
a) √ 2 nx
X 10-31 X 10-9
sin
L L
b) √ 2
sin
nπx
= 5.9 X 10-29 J.
O
L L
c) √ 2
sin
x
TOPIC 4.10 TUNNELLING

d) √
L
L
sin
L
πx
L SP
(QUALITATIVE)
G
Answer: b 1. Tunneling is required in case of
Explanation: The wave function for the ____________
LO
particle in a box is given by: √ sin

2
. nπx a) Laying pavement
b) Laying road
L L
The Energy possessed by the particle is given

c) On ground passage
by: .
2 2 2
n π ℏ
d) Underground passage
.B
2
2mL
10. The wave function for which quantum Answer: d

state is shown in the figure?
17
Explanation: Tunnel can be defined as

artificial underground passage, which is
created for different purposes. It is required in
case of highways, railways, sewerage and
-R
water supply.
2. The line at which the tunnel wall breaks

SE
a) 1 from sloping outward can be given as

b) 2 _________
c) 3 a) Spring line
C
d) 4 b) Oval line
c) Centre line
Answer: b d) Middle line
Explanation: The shown wave function is for
the 2nd principal quantum number, i.e., it is Answer: a
the wave function for the state when n = 2. Explanation: Spring line is determined as the
line at which the wall breaks from sloping
outward to sloping inward toward the crown.

This acts as a barrier between the outward b) Bents of iridium

and inward regions. c) Bents of steel
d) Bents of plastic
3. Which of the following should be
considered while aligning a tunnel? Answer: c
a) Atmospheric conditions Explanation: The provision of soft strata
b) Hydrological conditions must be done for withstanding the excavation.
c) Climatic conditions It can be provided by bents of wood, bents of
d) Surface limits steel, liner plates and poling, which are
M
placed to retain material between the adjacent
Answer: b bents.
O
Explanation: The determination of the
alignment for tunnel can be done based on 7. A steel cylinder which is pushed in the soft
C
geological and hydrological conditions, cross- soil is determined as ________
section and length of the continuous tunnel, a) Jar born
T.
time of consideration and limit of the surface. b) Shield
c) Rod
4. Among the following, which doesn’t d) Pole
O
belong to tunnel classification?
a) Firm ground Answer: b
b) Running ground
c) Rocky ground
d) Soft ground
SP
Explanation: In the case of soft grounds,
tunneling can be dangerous and cave-ins are
common. To prevent this, an iron or steel
G
cylindrical element called shield is placed in
Answer: c the soft soil, which can crave the hole
LO
Explanation: Tunneling has been classified perfectly.

based on the type of strata present. It includes
firm ground, soft ground and running ground. 8. Which method can be adopted in case of
These will determine the bearing capacity of rock tunneling?
.B
the soil. a) Full face method

b) Benching
17
5. Which method can be adopted if full face c) Tracing

excavation is not possible? d) Back bearing method
a) Back bearing method
b) Plotting Answer: a
-R
c) Trenching Explanation: Rock tunneling involves the

d) Benching same principle as of the tunneling in the
SE
ground. Those include full face method, top

Answer: d heading method and drift method. Based on
Explanation: In case of no possibility of full the conditions of the area, these can be
face excavation, top heading method is adopted.
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adopted for having a better output. Benching

process is also adopted for digging small 9. Which of the following can act as an
tunnels. alternative for blasting?
a) Tunneling
6. Among the following, which can be b) Continuous blasting
adopted for providing support for soft strata? c) Sequential blasting
a) Bents of aluminum d) Fire-setting

Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Blasting is the conventional Explanation: The resolving power of the
method which is adopted in case of rock electron microscope is more than 100 times
tunneling. In the case of fire-setting, tunnel is that of the light microscope, and it produces
heated with fire and then cooled with water. useful magnification up to 400,000X. It is
Rapid expansion and contraction weakens possible to resolve objects as small as 10
and rock and tends to break. Angstrom.
10. Which of the following involves in the 3. Which of the following are true for
M
sequence of rocky strata? electron microscopy?
a) Marking profile a) specimen should be thin and dry
O
b) Placing rocks b) image is obtained on a phosphorescent
c) Improving foul gases screen
C
d) Recording values c) electron beam must pass through evacuated
chamber
T.
Answer: a d) specimen should be thin and dry, image is
Explanation: Rocky strata involve usage of obtained on a phosphorescent screen and
blasting method for developing tunnels. The
O
electron beam must pass through evacuated
sequence contains marking profile, loading chamber
explosive, removing foul gases, checking,
scaling, mucking and bolting. SP
Answer: d
Explanation: Since electrons can travel only
in high vacuum, the entire electron path
G
TOPIC 4.11 SCANNING through the instrument must be evacuated;
TUNNELLING MICROSCOPE. specimens must be completely dehydrated
LO
prior to examination. Only very thin

1. Which of the following is used in electron specimens can be observed in the
microscope? conventional electron microscope since the
.B
a) electron beams penetrating power of electrons through matter

b) magnetic fields is weak. The magnified image may be viewed
c) light waves on a phosphorescent or fluorescent screen.
17
d) electron beams and magnetic fields

4. Degree of scattering in transmission
Answer: d electron microscope is a function of
-R
Explanation: Electron Microscope uses __________

electron beams and magnetic fields to a) wavelength of electron beam used
produce the image, whereas the light b) number of atoms that lie in the electron
SE
microscope uses light waves and glass lenses. path

In electron microscopy, a much higher c) number and mass of atoms that lie in the
resolution is obtained with extremely short electron path
wavelength of the electron beam. d) mass of atoms that lie in the electron path
C
2. Electron Microscope can give a Answer: c

magnification up to ___________ Explanation: In a transmission electron
a) 400,000X microscope, contrast results from the
b) 100,000X differential scattering of electrons by the
c) 15000X specimen, the degree of scattering being a
d) 100X

function of the number and mass of atoms microscope (SEM), the surface of the
that lie in the electron path. specimen is irradiated with a very narrow
beam of electrons. Such irradiations causes
5. Negative Staining is used for examining low energy (secondary) electrons to be
_____________ ejected from the specimen which can then be
a) virus particles collected on a positively-charged plate or
b) protein molecules anode thereby generating an electric signal.
c) bacterial flagella
d) virus particles, protein molecules and 8. On what factors do the intensity of
M
bacterial flagella secondary electrons depend upon?
a) shape of the irradiated object
O
Answer: d b) chemical composition of the irradiated
Explanation: In negative-staining the object
C
electron opacity of the surrounding field is c) number of electrons ejected
increased by using an electron-dense material d) size and chemical composition of the
T.
such as phosphotungstic acid as a stain. irradiated object, number of electrons ejected
Negative staining is particularly valuable for and on the number of electrons reabsorbed by
the examination of very small structures such
O
surrounding
as virus particles, protein molecules and
bacterial flagella. Answer: d
6. Which among the following helps us in

getting a three-dimensional picture of the
SP
Explanation: The irradiations in SEM causes
secondary electrons to be ejected from the
specimen thereby generating a signal that is
G
specimen? proportional to the number of electrons
a) Transmission Electron Microscope striking the anode. The intensity or the
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b) Scanning Electron Microscope number of secondary electrons depends on

c) Compound Microscope the shape and the chemical composition of
d) Simple Microscope the irradiated object and also on the number
.B
of electrons ejected and the number of

Answer: b electrons reabsorbed by surrounding.
Explanation: The scanning electron
17
microscope lacks the resolving power 9. Where do we obtain the magnified image
obtainable with the transmission electron of the specimen in SEM?
microscope but has the advantage of a) cathode ray tube
-R
revealing a striking three-dimensional picture. b) phosphorescent screen

The surface topography of a specimen can be c) anode
revealed with clarity and depth of field not d) scanning generator
SE
possible by any other method.

Answer: a
7. The secondary electrons radiated back in Explanation: In TEM, the image is obtained
scanning microscope is collected by? on a phosphorescent screen but in SEM the
C
a) specimen magnified image of the surface topography of

b) anode the specimen is obtained on the cathode ray
c) vacuum chamber tube. The electronic signals generated scan
d) cathode the specimen in a raster pattern in the manner
of a television system to produce an image on
Answer: b a cathode ray tube.
Explanation: In scanning electron

10. Which of the following techniques are glass-like state from a flexible rubber-like
used in Transmission Electron Microscopy state. This is called glass-transition.
(TEM) for examining cellular structure?
a) Negative-Staining 2. Metal glass was first prepared at:
b) Shadow Casting a) California Institute of Technology
c) Ultrathin Sectioning b) Massachusetts Institute of Technology
d) Negative-Staining, Shadow Casting, c) Technion
Ultrathin Sectioning, Freeze-Etching d) University of Michigan
M
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Numerous techniques are Explanation: Metal glass or amorphous
O
available for use with electron microscopy metal was reportedly first produced by W.
which extends its usefulness in characterizing Klement (Jr.), Willens and Duwez in 1960 at
C
cellular structure. Some of them are Caltech. It was prepared by rapid cooling (~ 1
Negative-Staining (which increases the MK/s) of molten metal alloys.
T.
electron opacity of surrounding), Shadow
Casting (helps in producing three- 3. Polycrystalline solids are isotropic.
a) True
O
dimensional structure of the object), Ultrathin
Sectioning and Freeze-Etching. b) False
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: Anisotropy is a characteristic
behavior shown by ideal crystals. However,
G
UNIT V CRYSTAL the presence of flaws like grain boundaries
causes the solid to deviate from crystalline
PHYSICS
LO
properties.
4. Metal glasses differ from their crystalline

TOPIC 5.1 SINGLE counterparts in many ways. Chief
.B
CRYSTALLINE, application(s) of metal glasses include(s):

POLYCRYSTALLINE AND a) Bullet-proof glasses
17
AMORPHOUS MATERIALS b) Power transformers

c) Conducting wires
d) All of the mentioned
1. Which of the following properties is
-R
generally exhibited by amorphous solids? Answer: b

a) Anisotropy Explanation: Amorphous metals are not
b) Glass-transition
SE
transparent and have relatively lower

c) Equal strength of all bonds electrical conductivity. However, most metal
d) All of the mentioned glasses possess high magnetic susceptibility
and low coercivity.
C
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to random organization of 5. Consider the following cooling diagram for
particles, amorphous solids have the same an amorphous solid.
physical properties along all directions, or are
isotropic. Random organization of particles
also results in unequal bond strengths. Upon
cooling, amorphous solids turn into a brittle

c) It contains PbO crystals

Answer: d
Explanation: Well, crystal glass is
amorphous, not crystalline. This glass earns
its name from its excellent decorative
properties and high refractive index.
M
8. Crystallinity increases with increasing rate
of cooling of a liquid.
O
a) True
b) False
C
Glass-transition temperature is represented as: Answer: b
T.
a) A Explanation: When a liquid is cooled rapidly,
b) B the particles get less time to move and
c) C arrange themselves in an orderly fashion and
O
d) None of the mentioned hence the crystallinity of the resulting solid
decreases.
Answer: b
Explanation: An exact melting point does not
exist for amorphous solids. An approximate
SP
TOPIC 5.2 SINGLE CRYSTALS:
G
glass-transition temperature is defined by UNIT CELL, CRYSTAL
extrapolating the cooling curve as shown.
SYSTEMS, BRAVAIS LATTICES,
LO
6. Soda-lime glass is the most common type DIRECTIONS AND PLANES IN A

of glass. The component present in largest CRYSTAL, MILLER INDICES
w/w percentage is:
.B
a) SiO2 1. Which of the following is not true for

b) Al2O3 crystallographic axes?
17
c) Na2O a) They must be parallel to the edges of the

d) CaO unit cell
b) They must be perpendicular to each other
c) They must originate at one of the vertices
-R
Answer: a
Explanation: Glass inherits its transparency of the cell
from crystalline SiO2, also called quartz. d) They form a right-handed co-ordinate
SE
system
However, quartz has very high and narrow
View answer
glass-transition. To overcome this, small
amount of Na2 is added. CaO is also added to Answer: b
C
prevent water-solubility imparted by soda. Explanation: The axes must be parallel to the
edges of the unit cell, which in case of some
7. Lead-oxide glass is called “crystal glass” crystal systems like monoclinic, hexagonal
because: etc. are not mutually perpendicular.
a) It contains crystalline Pb
b) It contains SiO2 crystals 2. The point coordinate indices q, r, and s are
multiples of:

a) Unit cell edge lengths b) CH

b) Distance between nearest neighbours c) FB
c) Cosine of angles between unit cell edges d) GE
d) None of the mentioned View answer
View answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Moving 1 unit along positive x-
Explanation: Point coordinate indices are the axis, 0 units along positive y-axis, 1 unit
fractions which when multiplied by the along negative z-axis points in a direction
M
corresponding unit cell edge lengths, provide parallel to line FB.
the location of a given point in the
O
crystallographic coordinate system. 5. In the following diagram, what is the
direction cosine of the line EB?
C
3. The point coordinates of the vertex just
opposite to the origin are
T.
a) 0 0 0
b) 0 0 1
c) 0 1 1
O
d) 1 1 1
View answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the opposite vertex is
SP
G
located at distances equal to the edge lengths
along the coordinate axes.
LO
4. If x, y, and z are three positive axes of the

crystallographic coordinate system with
origin at point A, then which line points in the
.B
direction [1 0 1] ?
a) [1 11]
17
b) [111]
c) [1 1 1]
d) [1 0 0]
View answer
-R
Answer: a
SE
Explanation: One can reach from point E to

B by traversing 1 unit along each of positive
x, negative y, and negative z-axis, where one
unit along any axis equals the corresponding
C
edge length.
6. In cubic crystals, crystallographic

directions are arranged in families. Which of
the following directions does not belong to
the family <110>?
a) AD a) [1 0 1]

b) [11 0] d) (1 1 1)
c) [10 1̅] View answer
View answer Answer: a
Explanation: If a plane intercepts the
Answer: d coordinate axes at distances A, B, and C from
Explanation: Since the cubic lattice is the origin, then Miller indices are given by
symmetrical about all the three axes, the multiplying (a/A b/B c/C) by a suitable factor
above directions are equivalent irrespective of so as to obtain integers.
M
order & sign and are part of same direction
family. 9. Which of the following is a property of
O
Miller indices?
7. Convert [2 111] from four-index system to a) They uniquely identify a plane
C
three-index system. b) They are always positive
a) [2 1 0] c) They are not fractions
T.
b) [3 0 1] d) None of the mentioned
c) [111] View answer
d) [12 1]
O
View answer Answer: c
Explanation: Two or more planes can have
Answer: b
Explanation: [u v t w] can be converted to [U
V W] using the formula: i) U = 2u+v ii) V =
SP
same Miller indices which can be negative,
zero or positive depending on the intercept on
the axes. If the ratios of intercepts to lattice
G
2v+u iii) W = w. Four-index systems are constants come out be fractional, then they
generally used for hexagonal lattices. are scaled to lowest integers to be represented
LO
as Miller indices.
8. Miller indices of the hatched plane in the
following figure are: 10. Miller indices for perpendicular planes
are always the same.
.B
a) True
b) False
17
View answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is true only for cubic lattices.
-R
For other systems, there is no simple

relationship between planes with the same
SE
Miller indices.
TOPIC 5.3 INTER-PLANAR

C
DISTANCES
1. X-rays have larger wavelengths than which

a) (2 3 1) of the following?
b) (3 2 1) a) Gamma rays
c) (3 2 0) b) Beta rays
c) Microwave

d) Visible light b) False

View answer View answer
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Larger wavelengths mean less Explanation: Atoms present at non-corner
energy. Only gamma rays have higher energy positions may result in out-of-phase
(or shorter wavelengths) than x-rays. Beta scattering at Bragg angles.
rays are actually streaming of particles and
have much less energy than x-rays. 5. The Miller indices h, k, and l of parallel
M
planes in a BCC lattice should satisfy which
2. X-ray diffraction patterns are used for of the following X-ray diffraction reflection
O
studying crystal structure of solids because rules?
a) They have very high energy, hence they a) h + k + l should be even
C
can penetrate through solids b) h, k, and l should all be either even or odd
b) They are electromagnetic radiation, and c) h, k, and l should form Pythagoras triplet
T.
hence do not interact with matter (crystals) d) all planes allow reflections
c) Their wavelengths are comparable to inter- View answer
atomic distances
O
d) Their high frequency enables rapid Answer: a
analysis Explanation: If the sum of Miller indices
View answer
Answer: c
SP
becomes odd for a BCC lattice, destructive
interference occurs.
G
Explanation: For diffraction to occur, the 6. Minimum interplanar spacing required for
obstacle size should be comparable to the Bragg’s diffraction is:
LO
wavelength of the incident radiation. a) λ/4

b) λ/2
3. For destructive interference to take place, c) λ
the path difference between the two waves d) 2λ
.B
should be: View answer

a) nλ
17
b) 2nλ Answer: b
c) (n + 1/2)λ Explanation: Maximum value of incident
d) (2n + 1)λ angle can be 90° for which sine is 1. Hence d
= λ/2 ( nλ = 2.d.sinθ)
-R
View answer
Answer: a 7. Laue’s model pictures XRD as reflection

SE
Explanation: Constructive interference from parallel crystalline planes. Reflection is

occurs when the phase difference between different from refraction as:
two interfering waves is an integral multiple a) diffraction occurs throughout the bulk
of 2π. Also, the ratio of path difference to b) intensity of diffracted beams is less
C
wavelength equals that of phase difference to c) diffraction in crystals occurs only at

2π. Bragg’s angles
d) all of the mentioned
4. Bragg’s law is not a sufficient condition for View answer
diffraction by crystalline solids.
a) True Answer: d
Explanation: Reflection is a surface

phenomenon, and large portions of the Answer: a

incident waves can be reflected. Moreover, Explanation: For simple cubic lattice, the
reflection can occur at any angle of incidence intensities at subsequent maxima are in the
whereas diffraction patterns (alternative dark ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6:8
and bright bands) occur only at Bragg’s
angles. 10. K-alpha x-rays have shorter wavelengths
than K-beta x-rays?
8. In Bragg’s equation [nλ = 2.d.sinθ], θ is the a) True
angle between: b) False
M
a) specimen surface and incident rays View answer
b) normal to specimen surface and incident
O
rays Answer: b
c) parallel lattice surfaces d distance apart and Explanation: K-alpha is formed from a
C
incident rays transfer of electrons from L shell to K while
d) normal to parallel lattice surfaces d K-beta result from M-to-K transition. Hence
T.
distance apart and incident rays K-alpha lines have lower energy (or longer
View answer wavelength).
O
Answer: c
Explanation: In the following figure, one can
TOPIC 5.4 COORDINATION
easily deduce that the path difference (PQ +
QR) between the two incident waves is
2.d.sinθ using simple trigonometry.
SP
NUMBER AND PACKING
FACTOR FOR SC, BCC, FCC,
HCP AND DIAMOND
G
STRUCTURES
LO
1. Lead is a metallic crystal having a _______

structure.
a) FCC
.B
b) BCC
c) HCP
17
d) TCP
Answer: a
Explanation: Crystalline solids are classified
-R
9. In the powder method of XRD, the as either metallic or non-metallic. Pb, along
intensities of various bright lines are with Cu, Ag, Al, and Ni, has a face-centered
SE
compared to determine the crystal structure. cubic structure.

For simple cubic lattice the ratio of intensities
at first two maxima are: 2. Which of the following has a HCP crystal
structure?
a) 1⁄2
C
a) W
b) 3⁄4 b) Mo
c) Cr
c) 1⁄2
d) Zr
View answer Answer: d
Explanation: Crystalline solids are classified

as either metallic or non-metallic. W, Mo, and room temperature, it forms a metallic

Cr are examples of the body-centered cubic structure (white tin).
structure of crystals. The HCP structure is
found in Mg, Zn, Ti, Cd, Zr, and others. 6. Which of the following is a property of
non-metallic crystals?
3. Amorphous solids have _______ structure. a) Highly ductile
a) Regular b) Less brittle
b) Linear c) Low electrical conductivity
c) Irregular d) FCC structure
M
d) Dendritic
Answer: c
O
Answer: c Explanation: Non-metallic crystals are less
Explanation: Materials in which the ductile and have low electrical conductivity.
C
molecule is the basic structural solid and has On the other hand, metallic crystals are
an irregular structure is known as amorphous differing since they are more ductile and have
T.
solid. Crystalline solids, on the other hand, high electrical conductivity.
usually are arranged in a regular manner.
7. Which of the following is not an
O
4. At ________ iron changes its BCC amorphous material?
structure to FCC. a) Glass
a) 308oC
b) 568oC
SP
b) Plastics
c) Lead
d) Rubbers
G
c) 771oC
d) 906oC Answer: c
LO
Explanation: Materials in which the

Answer: d molecule is the basic structural solid and has
Explanation: Similar to metallic crystals, a an irregular structure are known as
few non-metallic crystals also change form amorphous solid. Most amorphous materials
.B
due to temperature and pressure differences. are polymers such as plastics and rubbers.
This process is termed as polymorphism. Iron The most common amorphous material is
17
changes from BCC at room temperature to glass.

FCC form at 906oC.
8. The crystal lattice has a _________
arrangement.
-R
5. At room temperature, tin is formed into

_________ a) One-dimensional
a) Gray tin b) Two-dimensional
SE
b) White tin c) Three-dimensional

c) Red tin d) Four-dimensional
d) Yellow tin
Answer: c
C
Answer: b Explanation: Lattice is defined as the regular

Explanation: Similar to metallic crystals, a geometrical arrangement of points in crystal
few non-metallic crystals also change form space. Space or crystal lattice is a three-
due to temperature and pressure differences. dimensional network of imaginary lines
Tin crystallizes in a non-metallic diamond connecting the atoms.
structure (gray tin) at low temperatures. At

9. The smallest portion of the lattice is known c) a ≠ b = c

as __________ d) a ≠ b ≠ c
a) Lattice structure
b) Lattice point Answer: d
c) Bravais crystal Explanation: The crystal system is a format
d) Unit cell by which crystal structures are classified.
Each crystal system is defined by the
Answer: d relationship between edge lengths a, b, and c.
Explanation: Lattice is defined as the regular For monoclinic, orthorhombic, and triclinic
M
geometrical arrangement of points in crystal systems, the axial relationship is given by a ≠
space. The unit cell is the smallest portion of b ≠ c.
O
the lattice, which when repeated in all
directions gives rise to a lattice structure. 13. The axial relationship of a rhombohedral
C
crystal system is given as ___________
10. Bravais lattice consists of __________ a) a = b = c
T.
space lattices. b) a = b ≠ c
a) Eleven c) a ≠ b = c
b) Twelve d) a ≠ b ≠ c
O
c) Thirteen
d) Fourteen Answer: a
Answer: d
Explanation: There are fourteen ways in
SP
Explanation: The crystal system is a format
by which crystal structures are classified.
Each crystal system is defined by the
G
which points can be arranged in a space so relationship between edge lengths a, b, and c.
that each has identical surroundings. These For cubic and rhombohedral systems, the
LO
fourteen space lattices constitute the Bravais axial relationship is given by a = b = c.

space lattices.
14. The interracial angles of a hexagonal
11. A unit cell that contains lattice points only crystal system are given by __________
.B
at the corners is known as _________ a) α = β = ϒ = 90o

a) Primitive unit cell b) α = β = 90o ϒ = 120o
17
b) Secondary unit cell c) α = β = ϒ ≠ 90o

c) Layered unit cell d) α ≠ β ≠ ϒ ≠ 90o
d) Derived unit cell
Answer: b
-R
Answer: a Explanation: The crystal system is a system

Explanation: If a unit cell chosen contains by which crystal structures are classified.
SE
lattice points only at its corners, it is called a Each crystal system is defined by the
primitive or simple unit cell. It contains only relationship between edge lengths a, b, and c
one lattice point since each point at the eight and interaxial angles α, β, and ϒ. For
corners is shared equally with adjacent unit hexagonal system, the interaxial angles are
C
cells. given by α = β = 90o ϒ = 120o.
12. The axial relationship of a monoclinic 15. The interracial angles of a triclinic crystal
crystal system is given as ___________ system are given by __________
a) a = b = c a) α = β = ϒ = 90o
b) a = b ≠ c b) α = β = 90o ϒ = 120o

c) α = β = ϒ ≠ 90o Answer: b
d) α ≠ β ≠ ϒ ≠ 90o Explanation: The density of packing in a
crystal is determined using the atomic
Answer: d packing factor (APF). The APF of FCC and
Explanation: The crystal system is a system HCP structures is 0.74, and 0.54 for simple
by which crystal structures are classified. cubic structure, whereas it is 0.68 for BCC
Each crystal system is defined by the structure.
relationship between edge lengths a, b, and c
and interaxial angles α, β, and ϒ. For the Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning
M
triclinic system, the interaxial angles are Series – Engineering Materials &
given by α ≠ β ≠ ϒ ≠ 90o. Metallurgy.
O
16. What is the atomic radius of a BCC
TOPIC 5.5 CRYSTAL
C
crystal structure?
a) a/2 IMPERFECTIONS: POINT
T.
b) a/4 DEFECTS, LINE DEFECTS
c) a√2/4
d) a√3/4
O
1. Which of the following is a point defect in
crystals?
Answer: d
Explanation: Atomic radius is defined as half
the distance between the centers of two
neighboring atoms. The atomic radius of a
SP
a) Edge dislocation
b) Interstitialcies
c) Grain boundaries
G
d) Cracks
simple cube and HCP is a/2 respectively,
whereas it is a√2/4 and a√3/4 for FCC and
LO
Answer: b
BCC respectively. Explanation: Crystal defects are classified as
point defects, line defects, and boundary
17. What is the coordination number of a
defects. Point defects include vacancies,
simple cubic structure?
.B
impurities, interstitialcies, and electronic

a) 6
defects.
b) 8
17
c) 10 2. How can the number of defects be

d) 12 determined?
Answer: a
-R
Explanation: Coordination number is defined a)

as the number of nearest neighboring atoms
SE
in crystals. The coordination number for the b)

simple cubic structure is 6, whereas it is 8 and
12 for BCC and FCC respectively.
c)
C
18. What is the atomic packing factor of BCC

structure?
a) 0.54 d)
b) 0.68
Answer: a
c) 0.74
Explanation: The number of defects at
d) 0.96
equilibrium at a definite temperature can be

d
determined using the equation Ne(-E ⁄kT). It is 5. Which of these is a Frankel defect?
denoted by nd. Here, N stands for the total a)
number of atomic spots and Ed is the
activation energy.
3. The defect that occurs due to a

displacement of an ion is known as
__________
M
a) Vacancy defect
b) Schottky defect
c) Frankel defect
O
d) Interstitial defect
C
Answer: c
Explanation: Frankel defect occurs due to a
T.
displacement of an ion from the crystal b)
lattice. It is related to the interstitial defect,
O
where an ion simply occupies a position
between regular atoms.
4. Which defect does the following figure

depict?
SP
G
LO
.B
c)
17
-R
a) Vacancy defect
b) Schottky defect
SE
c) Frankel defect
C
Answer: b
Explanation: When a pair of positive and
negative ions both disappear from a crystal
lattice, the effect is called a Schottky defect.
It is closely related to vacancy defects where
simply an ion is missing.

d) b) Substitutional impurity
c) Frankel defect
d) Interstitial impurity
Answer: b
Explanation: A substitutional impurity
occurs due to the occupation of a foreign
atom in place of an atom in a crystal. On the
other hand, interstitial impurities occur when
M
a regular atom occupies a random space in the
crystal lattice.
O
8. A disturbance in a region between two
C
Answer: a ideal parts of a crystal is known as ________
Explanation: Frankel defect occurs due to a a) Boundary defect
T.
displacement of an ion from the crystal lattice b) Point defect
while retaining all of the ions, unlike other c) Line defect
defects. It is related to the interstitial defect, d) Volume defect
O
where an ion simply occupies a position
between regular atoms. Answer: c
6. Which defect does the following diagram
represent?
SP
Explanation: Line defect is regarded as a
disturbed region between two perfect parts of
a crystal. They may be of either edge
G
dislocation type or screw dislocation.
LO
9. In screw dislocation, the Burger’s vector

lies _________ to the dislocation line.
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
.B
c) At an angle
d) Sideways
17
Answer: b
Explanation: The Burger’s vector in screw
a) Vacancy defect
dislocation lies parallel to the dislocation line
-R
b) Schottky defect
along the axis of a line of atoms in the same
c) Frankel defect
plane. On the other hand, it lies at an angle
SE
for edge dislocation.

Answer: d
10. Generation of dislocations can be
Explanation: Interstitial defects occur when
identified using _______
C
an atom occupies an empty position in a

a) Schottky mechanism
crystal lattice. Self-interstitial effects occur
b) Burger’s vector
due to their own atoms, while others occur
c) Twist
due to a foreign substance.
d) Frank-Read mechanism
7. _______ occurs when a foreign substance
Answer: d
replaces an atom in a crystal.
Explanation: The Frank-Read mechanism
a) Vacancy defect

uses the Frank-Read source and its operation IMPERFECTIONS IN PLASTIC

as a dislocation multiplier. The Frank-Read DEFORMATION
source contains a fixed lined at the X and Y
nodes. Under the application of stress, the
dislocation line expands and is further 1. Which one of the following, is a line
operated until it becomes readable. imperfection?
a) Grain boundary
11. What are one-dimensional defects? b) Tilt boundary
a) Boundary defect c) Dislocation
M
b) Point defect d) Stacking fault
c) Line defect
O
d) Volume defect Answer: c
Explanation: Dislocations look like lines in
C
Answer: c the lattice, which are one dimensional. So it
Explanation: When compared geometrically, falls under the category of line imperfections.
T.
line defects are seen as one-dimensional While grain boundary, tilt boundary and
defects. Line defects are also known as stacking fault are surface imperfections.
dislocations, with common types as edge and
O
screw dislocations. 2. What is the range of dislocation density in
pure and unhardened metals?
12. What are two-dimensional defects?
a) Boundary defect
b) Point defect
SP
a) 1010 – 1012 m-2
b) 1014 – 1016 m-2
c) 104 – 106 m-2
G
c) Line defect
d) Volume defect d) 108 – 1010 m-2
LO
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The defects that occur on the Explanation: Pure unhardened metals (real
surface of a material are known as surface or crystal) contain large number of dislocations
.B
boundary defects. Geometrically, they are of the order of1010 – 1012 m-2. So these can
regarded as two-dimensional defects. easily be deformed.
17
13. How is the dislocation energy defined? 3. What is unit of dislocation density?
a) J m-1 a) m
b) m-2
-R
b) J m-2
c) m-2 c) kg/m3
d) N m-1 d) m-3
SE
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Dislocation energy is defined Explanation: Dislocation density is defined
C
ad joule per meter and is denoted by E. as number of lines in a unit volume. So the
Dislocation density is defined as meter per unit of dislocation density is m/m3 or m-2.
cubic meter or simply as per meter square.
4. Dislocations are responsible for
________________
TOPIC 5.6 BURGER VECTORS, a) Increase in strength
STACKING FAULTS - ROLE OF b) Decrease in strength

c) Increase or decrease in strength depending While screw dislocations cause shear strain
on dislocation density only.
d) Don’t affect strength of metal
8. What term is used for the defect, produced
Answer: c by an array of dislocations that produces a
Explanation: If dislocation density is in small difference in orientation between the
range 1010 – 1012 m-2, it decreases the adjoining lattices?
strength by easy plastic deformation. On the a) Tilt boundary
b) Twist boundary
M
other hand, if it exceeds to 1016 m-2, these
causes strengthening of metal by interaction c) Free surface
to imperfections. d) Low angle grain boundary
O
5. The number of dislocations increases Answer: d
C
drastically during ______ Explanation: The array of dislocations
a) Solidification produces an angular mismatch between the
T.
lattices, which is referred to as low angle
b) Plastic deformation
grain boundary. These have an angle less than
c) Elastic deformation
100.
O
d) Heat treatment
Answer: b
Explanation: Dislocations increase in
number drastically during plastic
SP
9. Which statement is false?
a) Plastic deformation decreases dislocation
density.
b) Strain hardening is the increase of
G
deformation. It is due to the formation of a
Frank-Read source. dislocation density with plastic deformation.
c) Slip plane is the crystallographic plane of
LO
6. Positive edge dislocation is denoted by dislocation motion.

______ d) Dislocation can change its plane of motion
a) ↶ by climb on high temperatures.
.B
b) ↷
Answer: a
c) ꓕ Explanation: Plastic deformation increases
17
d) ꓔ the dislocation density. Plastic deformation

causes generation of dislocations due to the
Answer: c Frank-Read source. All other statements are
Explanation: Positive edge dislocation is
-R
correct.
represented as ‘ꓕ’ (inverted ꓔ) because the
extra half plane lies above the shear plane. ‘ꓔ’ 10. Most crystalline materials have
SE
is used for negative edge dislocation. ‘↶’ and dislocations in their as formed state.
‘↷’ are used to represent screw dislocations. a) True
b) False
C
7. Edge dislocation introduces shear strain

only. Answer: a
a) True Explanation: Crystalline materials have
b) False dislocations due to stresses (mechanical,
thermal …) associated with the forming
Answer: b processes. Thus forming processes are the
Explanation: Edge dislocations cause source of dislocations.
compressive, tensile and shear lattice strains.

11. Dislocation density can vary from _____

to _____ in metals.
a) 105 – 1012 cm-2
b) 105 – 1012 m-2
c) 108 – 1010 cm-2
d) 106 – 1010 cm-2
Answer: a
M
Explanation: Dislocation density varies in
metals from 105 cm-2 (in carefully solidified
O
metal) to 1012 cm-2 (in heavily deformed
metal). It depends on various parameters as
C
a) Bridgman method
degree of deformation, temperature etc. b) Stockbarger method
T.
c) Czochralski method
12. Large plastic deformation corresponds to
d) Zone melting method
_____ of grains along the direction of applied
O
stress. Answer: c
a) Growth Explanation: Czochralski method is basically
b) Rupture
c) Recrystallization
d) Elongation
SP
a method for the growth of a single crystal
from a melt of the same composition. It is
also widely used for the growth of the crystals
G
of semiconducting materials, Si, Ge, GaAs,
Answer: d etc. It has also been used to produce laser
Explanation: Larger plastic deformation
LO
generator materials such as Ca(NbO3)2 doped

leads to elongation of grains. This becomes
possible due to the presence of dislocations. with neodymium.
2. In the process of Czochralski method

.B
TOPIC 5.7 GROWTH OF which of the following relation is appropriate

SINGLE CRYSTALS: SOLUTION between the melt and the growing crystals?
17
AND MELT GROWTH a) Melt and the growing crystals are usually
not related to each other
TECHNIQUES. b) Melt and the growing crystals are usually
-R
rotated counterclockwise
1. The diagram given below represents which c) Melt and the growing crystals are usually
of the following method? rotated clockwise
SE
d) Melt and the growing crystals are usually

kept at a constant position
Answer: b
C
Explanation: The melt and the growing

crystals are usually rotated counterclockwise
during pulling in the process of Czochralski,
in order to maintain a constant temperature,
melt uniformity, etc.

3. Which of the following statements is c) Solid part

appropriate for Stockbarger method? d) Anionic part
a) Solidification is achieved by passing the
melt through a concentration gradient Answer: b
b) Solidification is achieved by passing the Explanation: In zone melting method the
melt through a temperature gradient thermal profile through the furnace is such
c) Liquefaction is achieved by passing the that only a small part of the charge is melted
melt through a concentration gradient at any one time. Initially, that part of the
d) Liquefaction is achieved by passing the charge in contact with the seed crystal is
M
melt through a temperature gradient melted. As the boat is pulled through the
furnace, oriented solidification onto the seed
O
Answer: b occurs and at the same time, more of the
Explanation: Stockbarger method is based on charge melts.
C
solidification of stoichiometric melt but in
these, oriented solidification of the melt is 6. Which one of the following principle has
T.
achieved by effectively passing the melt been used in the zone melting method?
through a temperature gradient such that a) Impurities concentrate in the solid than in
liquid phase
O
crystallization occurs at the cooler end. Thus
this method is achieved by arranging for a b) Impurities concentrate in the liquid phase
than in gaseous phase
relative displacement of the melt and a
temperature gradient.
4. Which of the following statements

SP
c) Impurities concentrate in the liquid phase
than in the solid phase
d) Impurities concentrate in the gaseous phase
G
describes best the Bridgman method? than in the solid phase
a) Melt is outside the temperature furnace,
LO
solidification begins at the hotter end Answer: c

b) Melt is inside the temperature furnace, Explanation: Zone melting method make the
solidification occurs at the cooler end use of the principle that impurities usually
.B
c) Melt is inside the temperature furnace, concentrate in the liquid rather than in the
solidification occurs at the hotter end solid phase. Impurities are therefore ‘swept
d) Solidification is achieved by passing the out’ of the crystal by the moving molten
17
melt through a temperature gradient zone. The method has been used for the
purification and crystal growth of the high
Answer: b melting metals such as tungsten.
-R
Explanation: In the Bridgman method, the

melt is inside a temperature gradient furnace 7. Which one of the following statements is
and the furnace is gradually cooled so that the correct for precipitation method?
SE
solidification begins at the cooler end. In this a) Growth of the crystal from a solvent of
method, it is again advantageous to use a seed same composition to the crystals
crystal and atmospheric control may be b) Growth of the crystal from the solute of
necessary. same composition to the crystal
C
c) Growth of the crystal from the gaseous

5. In the zone melting method species of different composition to the crystal
_____________ of the charge is melted at d) Growth of the crystal from a solvent of
any one time. Fill up the correct option for the different composition to the crystals.
blank space from the choices given below.
a) Large part Answer: d
b) Small part Explanation: In contrast to the methods like

zone melting, Stockbarger etc method in c) Verneuil flame fusion method

which melts solidify to get crystals that have d) Bridgman method
the same composition as the melt,
precipitation methods involves the growth of Answer: c
the crystals from a solvent of different Explanation: Verneuil flame fusion method
composition to the crystals. The solvent may has been recently used to prepare the single
be one of the constituents of the desired crystals of CaO with a melting point equal to
crystal example, crystallization of salt hydrate 2600◦C by using a plasma torch to melt the
crystals using water as the solvent. CaO powder. The starting material in the
M
form of a fine powder is passed through an
8. In the precipitation method for the growth oxyhydrogen flame or some other high
O
of the crystal, the solvent melts are often temperature torch or furnace after melting has
known as___________ taken place, the droplets fall onto the surface
C
a) Electrolyte of the growing crystals where they solidify.
b) α-particle
T.
c) β- particle 11. What is the advantage of using
d) Fluxes Czochralski, Bridgman- Stockbarger and
Verneuil method?
O
Answer: d a) Gives small crystals
Explanation: In the precipitation method b) High tech apparatus
which used for the growth of crystals from
the solvent of different composition to the
crystals, the solvent melts are often called as
SP
c) Rapid growth rates
d) Uses plasma torch
G
fluxes since they effectively reduce the Answer: c
melting point of the crystals by a considerable Explanation: The above methods are melt
LO
amount. The method has recently been used growth methods which are used for the
to grow crystals of β- and β” alumina solid growth of crystals. Advantages of using these
electrolytes using a borate flux. melt growth methods are, t gives large
.B
crystals, allows rapid growth rates, and

9. When was the Verneuil flame fusion requires very simple apparatus. While the
method first used? disadvantage can be in the crystal quality
17
a) 1207 which can be poor with inhomogeneities and

b) 2016 large defect concentrations.
c) 1503
-R
d) 1904 12. What is the disadvantage of using a

solution growth method for the growth of the
Answer: d crystals?
SE
Explanation: The Verneuil flame fusion a) Rapid growth rates

method was used in 1904 for growing crystals b) Simple apparatus
of high melting oxides, including artificial c) Slow growth rates
gemstones such as ruby and sapphire. d) Isothermal conditions
C
10. Which of the following method has been Answer: c

used to prepare the single crystals of CaO Explanation: Solution growth methods like
using plasma torch? the water crystallization, flux growth,
a) Stockbarger method hydrothermal method etc, which are used for
b) Zone melting method the growth of the crystals have the
disadvantage that it leads to very slow growth

rates, face problems of contamination by isothermal conditions with slow growth rates
container or flux. However, the advantage of give quality crystals of low defect
using such methods are that it allows concentration.
M
O
C
T.
O
SP
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

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Department of Science and Humanities MCQ for Regulations 2017

2. The property of a material by which it can

MATTER 4. The materials which have the same elastic

TOPIC 1.1 ELASTICITY a) Isotropic

1. The property by which a body returns to its

Explanation: Same elastic properties in all

producing deformation is said __________

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TOPIC 1.2 STRESS-STRAIN

Answer: a 1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the

__________ d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio

strain. Then the value of strain rapidly strain

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 2

and strain on a graph is the stress strain curve. a) Last point

in the given order,

D. lower yield point

5. Which point on the stress strain curve

occurs after yield plateau?

b) Upper yield point a) Upper yield point

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 3

10. What is the point shown in the stress b) 41-45 GPa

190-217 GPa. It has E higher than aluminum

2. What is the elastic modulus of titanium

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 4

3. What is the order of elastic modulus for Answer: c

of material, the more flexible it is. Bending of Answer: c

5. What is the unit of elastic modulus? arrangement of atoms or crystal structure.

b) GPa 9. Stress should not exceed ___ when in

Answer: b c) Fracture strength

GPa. Mohs is the unit used for hardness.

modulus of elasticity is known as ___ in dimensions and properties of a material. So

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c) Fracture strength 2. What is the use of weight head in a torsion

Answer: a distortion of the material. Mocrometer and

cross sectional are is:

c) Minimum shear load

determined using a torsion test? Answer: a

d) Young’s modulus torsional stress multiplied with original cross

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 6

Answer: b the material becomes soft at hot working

Explanation: Shear stress for a hollow bar

inner radius because of which calculation is

8. In which of the following the angle of twist c) T

a) Cold working condition

d) The increase is the same for cold working,

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running free is __________

d) Cylindrical Mouthpiece Answer: b

tube projects inside the tank, it is called an 0.855

7. Micrometre contraction gauge is used to Internal mouthpiece running

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c) Velocity of approach c) Triangular

Where m = 0.405 + 0.003/H. Q = 1.396 m3/s.

_____________ notch is preferred.

i. The nappe emerging from a triangular notch

ii. The expression for discharge for right

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1. Torsional sectional modulus is also known Where T = Torque in Nm

b) N/mm water present over it to the stream or river. It

expressed in square kilometres.

shaft of unit length. b) Additional

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8. ___________ has steep slopes and gives a) Lacey