Mock Test Paper 4 For Delhi Judicial Service Prelims, 2018

12/27/2018 Mock Test Paper 4 for Delhi Judicial Service Prelims, 2018
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Mock Test Paper 4 for Delhi Judicial Service Prelims, 2018
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Instructions
1. The duration of the paper is 2 hours 30 mins.

2. Every question carry equal marks, of 1 mark each and there is 0.25 negative marking.
3. Check the answers at the end of the post.
Ques. 1. Which warship has become the India’s rst warship to install solar panels on board?
1. a) INS Vindhyagiri
2. b) INS Godavari
3. c) INS Sarvekshak
4. d) INS Sindhudurg
Ques. 2. Which country to host conference on counter radicalisation with the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
1. a) Malaysia
2. b) Iran
3. c) Pakistan
4. d) India
Ques. 3. Who is the author of the book “The Wrong Turn: Love and Betrayal in the Time of Netaji”?
1. a) Aalap Roy
2. b) Aadishri Roy
3. c) Sujata Bose
4. d) Namita Roy Ghose
Ques. 4. Which city hosted the 4th India-CLMV Business Conclave-2017?
1. a) Pune
2. b) Chennai
3. c) Jaipur
4. d) New Delhi
Ques. 5. Which city police has launched “Pink Hoyslas” police petrol vehicles for women safety?
1. a) Bengaluru
2. b) Chennai
3. c) Kochi
4. d) Guwahati
Ques. 6. Who has won the 2017 Pulitzer Prize in ction?
1. a) Hisham Matar
2. b) Colson Whitehead
3. c) Matthew Desmond
4. d) Lynn Nottage
Ques. 7. Where is the headquarters of the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR)
1. a) Minicoy
2. b) Kavaratti
3. c) Vasco da Gama
4. d) Andrott
Ques. 8. Tehmtan R. Andhyarujina, who passed away recently, was related to which eld?
1. a) Politics
2. b) Sports
3. c) Law
4. d) Science
Ques. 9. Which Indian personality has been elected as the new chairman of FIFA Governance Committee?
1. a) Mukul Mudgal
2. b) Rajeev Shukla
3. c) Ajay Shirke
4. d) R M Lodha
Ques. 10. Karan Singh, who passed away recently, was the minister of which Indian state?
1. a) Sikkim
2. b) Punjab
3. c) Himachal Pradesh
4. d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ques. 11. Jonathan Demme, the Oscar-winning lmmaker has passed away. He hailed from which country?
1. a) United States
2. b) France
3. c) Germany
4. d) Russia
Ques. 12. Who has been crowned Miss Teen Universe 2017?
1. a) Xirelle Agustin
2. b) Nicole Obando
3. c) Nieveles Gonzalez
4. d) Srishti Kaur
Ques.13. The World Bank has approved how much loan amount to aid the Skill India mission?
1. a) $350-million
2. b) $250-million
3. c) $450-million
4. d) $150-million
Ques. 14. Who has won the 2017 Gerry Weber Open tennis tournament ?
1. a) Alexander Zverev
2. b) Novak Djokovic
3. c) Andy Murray
4. d) Roger Federer
Ques. 15. Which Indian personality has been selected for France’s highest civilian award “Legion of Honour”?
1. a) Amitabh Bachchan
2. b) Shahrukh Khan
3. c) Soumitra Chatterjee
4. d) Kamal Hasan
Ques. 16. The World Day Against Child Labour is observed on which date?
1. a) June 12
2. b) June 11
3. c) June 13
4. d) June 10
Ques. 17. Who has been appointed as the new CEO of Prasar Bharti?
1. a) CK Prasad
2. b) Shashi Shekhar Vempati
3. c) Rajeev Singh
4. d) S C Panda
Ques. 18. Which lm will represent India at the 52nd Karlong Vary International Film Festival?
1. a) Khibula
2. b) Cakemaker
3. c) Ralang Road
4. d) Falling
Ques. 19. The Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
1. a) Sikkim
2. b) Tripura
3. c) Bihar
4. d) Uttar Pradesh
Ques. 20. Which union ministry has launched an online complaint system “sexual harassment e-box” at workplace?
1. a) Ministry of Women and Child Development

2. b) Ministry of Home A airs
3. c) Ministry of Science and Technology
4. d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Ques. 21. Who has clinched the 2017 Men’s singles US Open Grand Prix Gold badminton tournament?
1. a) Parupalli Kashyap
2. b) B Sai Praneeth
3. c) Sumeeth Reddy
4. d) H S Prannoy
Ques. 22. The 2017 Indo-Thai joint military exercise “Maitree” has started in which Indian state?
1. a) Himachal Pradesh
2. b) Uttar Pradesh
3. c) Andhra Pradesh
4. d) Maharashtra
Ques. 23. The Wilpattu National Park (WNP) is located in which country?
1. a) India
2. b) Bhutan
3. c) Maldives
4. d) Sri Lanka
Ques. 24. Who has been sworn-in as the new Chief Justice of India (CJI)?
1. a) Navneet Kaur
2. b) Dipak Misra
3. c) Shekhar Gupta
4. d) Nirmal Jain
Ques. 25. Rinku Hooda, who won silver at the World U-20 Para Athletics Championships, is associated with which sports?
1. a) Javelin throw
2. b) Wrestling
3. c) Sprint
4. d) Judo
Ques. 26. The World Largest desert is
1. a) Thar
2. b) Kalahari
3. c) Sahara
4. d) Sonoran
Ques. 27. Country that has the highest in Barley Production
1. a) China
2. b) India
3. c) Russia
4. d) France
Ques. 28. The metal whose salts are sensitive to light is
1. a) Zinc
2. b) Silver
3. c) Copper
4. d) Aluminium
Ques. 29. The Central Rice Research Station is situated in
1. a) Chennai
2. b) Cuttack
3. c) Bangalore
4. d) Quilon
Ques. 30. The rst chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission was
1. a) C.V.Raman
2. b) H.J.Bhabha
3. c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
4. d) Vickram Sarabhai
Ques. 31. The famous Integral Coach Factory(ICF) for the manufacture of railway coaches are situated at
1. a) Kolkata
2. b) Borivilli
3. c) Perambur
4. d) Chittaranjan
Ques. 32. De ciency of Iron leads to
1. a) Rickets
2. b) Malaria
3. c) Dental Cavity
4. d) Anaemia
Ques. 33. The state which has desert in India is
1. a) Rajasthan
2. b) Punjab
3. c) Uttar Pradesh
4. d) Madhya Pradesh
Ques. 34. The headquarters of the co ee board of India is
1. a) Mysore
2. b) Kolkata
3. c) Bangalore
4. d) Cochin
Ques. 35. D.D.T. was invented by
1. a) Mosley
2. b) Rudeolf
3. c) Karl Benz
4. d) Dalton
Ques. 36. Which is considered as the biggest port of India?
1. a) Kolkata
2. b) Cochin
3. c) Chennai
4. d) Mumbai
Ques. 37. The gas used for making vegetables is
1. a) Oxygen
2. b) Carbon dioxide
3. c) Hydrogen
4. d) Nitrogen
Ques. 38. The chief ore of Aluminium is
1. a) Iron
2. b) Cryolite
3. c) Bauxite
4. d) Haematite
Ques. 39. Sharavati projects is in
1. a) Orissa
2. b) Kerala
3. c) Andhra Pradesh
4. d) Karnataka
Ques. 40. In which of the following states in English the O cial Language?
1. a) Orissa
2. b) Nagaland
3. c) Kerala
4. d) Tripura
Ques. 41. Which gas is used for the preparation of Soda water
1. a) Oxygen
2. b) Ammonia
3. c) Hydrogen
4. d) Carbon Dioxide
Ques. 42. Who among the following appoints the Prime Minister of India?
1. a) Lok Sabha
2. b) Rajya Sabha
3. c) President of India
4. d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ques. 43. The most important river of Orissa is
1. a) Bramaputra
2. b) Godaveri
3. c) Mahanadi
4. d) Sharavathi
Ques. 44. The language spoken by the people by Pakistan is
1. a) Hindi
2. b) Palauan
3. c) Sindhi
4. d) Nauruan
Ques. 45. Gir National Park is situated in
1. a) Bihar
2. b) Allahabad
3. c) West Bengal
4. d) Gujarat
Ques. 46. Madharasas are the schools of
1. a) Jain
2. b) Hindus
3. c) Muslims
4. d) Christians
Ques. 47. Shore temple is located at
1. a) Calicut
2. b) Sanapur
3. c) Patna
4. d) Mahabalipuram
Ques. 48. The largest part of the human brain is
1. a) Cerebellum
2. b) Midbrain
3. c) Cerebrum
4. d) Medulla Oblongata
Ques. 49. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by
1. a) Schlera
2. b) Iris
3. c) Pupil
4. d) Ciliary Body
Ques. 50. The smallest cells in the human body are
1. a) Muscle cells
2. b) Nerve cells
3. c) Blood cells
4. d) Brain Stem cells
Ques. 51. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on:
1. a) 1st April, 2002
2. b) 1st June, 2002
3. c) 6th June, 2002

4. d) 1st July, 2002
Ques. 52. Which of these following is not a legal representative?
1. a) Executors and administrators

2. b) Hindu coparceners and married daughters.
3. c) Creditors
4. d) Intermeddler
Ques. 53. Which of the following orders does amount to a decree?
1. a) Order of demand.
2. b) Order refusing stay.
3. c) Order overruling a plea against the maintainability of a suit.

4. d) Order discharging defendants for failure of the plainti s to furnish particulars.
Ques. 54. Which of the following sections of the Code expressly prohibits a suit under certain circumstances?
1. a) Section 10
2. b) Section 11
3. c) Section 47
4. d) All of the above.
Ques. 55. In which of the following cases, Section 10 will apply?
1. a) Where the earlier suit was for recovery of rent for a certain periods and the subsequent suit is for recovery of rent for subsequent
years and for ejectment.
2. b) B is a merchant residing in Delhi, and he has an agent, A, at Mumbai, to sell his goods in Mumbai. A sues b in Mumbai, claiming a
balance due upon an account in respect of dealings between A and B. While this suit is pending in Mumbai, B les a suit against A in
Delhi for an account and for damages caused by A’s alleged negligence.
3. c) The previous suit for mesne pro ts and the subsequent suit is for title.
5. a) 56. Which of the following forms the essential test of red judicata?
Matter in issue in the suit.
6. b) Subject matter and the object of the suit.
7. c) The relief claimed in the suit.

8. d) The cause of action on which the suit is based.
Ques. 57. The rule of constructive res judicata is:
1. a) A product of judicial interpretation.
2. b) A rule of equity.
3. c) Contained expressly in the Code.
4. d) A part of Supreme Court Rules.
Ques. 58. The last condition for the application of res judicata is that matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent
suit must have been heard and nally decided by the court in the rst suit. In which of the following cases, a matter will be said to
have been nally decided:
1. a) The decision in the former suit was on the merits.
2. b) The former suit was disposed of ex parte.

3. c) The former suit was dismissed for failure to produce evidence when time was allowed to do so.
Ques. 59. Which of the following suits is not a suit relating to immovable property:
1. a) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property.
2. b) Suit for recovery of immovable property.

3. c) Suit for partition of immovable property.
4. d) Suit for redemption of mortgaged property.
Ques. 60. 0.7 R 10 provides for:
1. a) Return of plaint.
2. b) Rejection of plaint.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Admission of plaint.
Ques. 61. In any case in which the defendant sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plainti is stayed, discontinued or dismissed,
the counter-claim:
1. a) Shall be stayed.
2. b) Nevertheless be processed with.

3. c) May be continued with the leave of the court.
4. d) No speci c provision.
Ques. 62. The discovery of documents is to be made by:
1. a) An a davit of documents.
2. b) A particular of documents.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 63. A party may object to produce a document on which of the following grounds:
1. a) Documents relates to his own title.
2. b) Su cient cause or excuse.

3. c) Privileged document.
Ques. 64. Which documents form part of the record of the suit:
1. a) Documents led by the party along with the plaint or written statement.
2. b) Documents which have been admitted in evidence.
3. c) Documents which have been admitted or rejected in evidence.
4. d) All kinds of documents.
Ques. 65. A sues B and C on a promissory note. An ex parte decree is passed against both. B alone applies to set aside the decree
and shows su cient cause for his absence.
1. a) The decree must be set aside against C also.
2. b) The decree cannot be set aside against C.
3. c) Depends on the court’s discretion.

4. d) The decree can be set aside against C also if he shows su cient cause for his absence.
Ques. 66. Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed ex parte, the application under 0.9,
R.13 shall be:
1. a)
2. b) Returned
3. c)
4. d) Referred for opinion to the Appellate Court.
Ques. 67. Issues must be con ned to:
1. a) Facta probanda.
2. b) Facta probantia.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 68. If the court allows two out of ve plainti s to withdraw (with liberty to le a fresh suit) and the other three plainti s do
not consent:
1. a) The court acts without jurisdiction.
2. b) The two plainti s will not be able to le a second suit in respect of the same subject matter.
3. c) Both a and b are correct.
4. d) Only b is correct.
Ques. 69. 0.20, R.6A lays down that every endeavour shall be made to ensure that the decree is drawn up as expeditiously as
possible and, in any case, within:
1. a) 7 days from the date of the pronouncement of judgement.
2. b) 10 days from the date of the pronouncement of judgement.
3. c) 15 days from the date of the pronouncement of judgement.
4. d) 30 days from the date of the pronouncement of judgement.
Ques. 70. The general object of awarding costs is:
1. a) To secure to a litigant the expenses incurred by him in litigation.
2. b) To enable a litigant to get money by way of penalty or punishment on the opposite party.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 71. Any amount which a court will order to be paid as compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences
, shall not exceed the amount of:
1. a) Two thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less.
2. b) Three thousand rupees of the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less.
3. c) Four thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever in less.
4. d) Five thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less.
Ques. 72. No order of detention can be passed where the total amount of decree does not exceed:
1. a) 5,000.
2. b) 2,000.
3. c) 3,000.
4. d) 10,000.
Ques. 73. Interlocutory orders are passed under 0.39:
1. a) To assist the parties in the prosecution of their case.
2. b) For the purpose of protecting the subject-matter of the suit.
3. c) For ensuring the determination of the merits of the case.

Ques. 74. In which of the following cases, an interpleader suit will lie:
1. a) P is in possession of a jewel box, wherein he claims no interest himself, and is ready and willing to hand over to the rightful owner.
The box is claimed by A and B. P wants to le an interpleader suit against A and B.
2. b) X has a sum of Rs. 10,000, which sum is claimed from him both by Y and Z, adversely to each other. X entered into an agreement
with Y, before the institution of suit, that if Y succeeded in the suit, he should accept from X Rs. 7,500 only, in full satisfaction of his
claim.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only b.
Ques. 75. A caveat:
1. a) Is a caution or warming giving notice to the court not to take any step without notice being given to the party lodging the caveat.
2. b) Provides an opportunity to the opposite party to be heard before an ex parte order is passed.
3. c) Avoids multiplicity of proceedings.
Ques. 76. If the person who is citizen of India commits any o ence out of India, he
1. a) Cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India.

2. b) Can be prosecuted in the country where the o ence was committed.
3. c) Can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be found.
4. d) Cannot be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country, where the crime was committed.
Ques. 77. Common intention under Section 34 implies
1. a) Similar intention.
2. b) Pre-arranged planning (privity of mind).
3. c) Presence of common knowledge.

4. d) Common design for common objects.
Ques. 78. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of ve or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute.
1. a) A ray
2. b) Assault
3. c) Rioting
4. d) unlawful assembly.
Ques. 79. Which of the following cases is related to ‘mistake of fact’?
1. a) vs. Prince.
2. b) vs. Tolson.
3. c) vs. Hiklin.
4. d) Both a and b.
Ques. 80. A was su ering from fever, which at times produces paroxysms which, while they lasted, left him bewildered and
unconscious. A killed his children because he was annoyed at their crying. When he did this, he had no paroxysms.
1. a) A is guilty od murder, as he was not of unsound mind at the time of commission of the act.
2. b) A is not guilty of murder.
3. c) A is not guilty of any o ence.
4. d) None of the above is correct.
Ques. 81. Which of the following cases is not a case under the defence of insanity:
1. a) Emperor vs. Gedka Gowla.

2. b) Jailal vs. Delhi Admn.
3. c) Queen vs. Lakshman Dagdu.
4. d) Chirangi vs. State.
Ques. 82. Every person hs a right to defend his own body
1. a) Against any o ence a ecting the human body.
2. b) And the body of his friends, against any o ence a ecting the human body.
3. c) And the body of any person, against any o ence a ecting the human body.
4. d) And the body of his blood relatives against any o ence a ecting the human body.
Ques. 83. Abetment by aid requires
1. a) Active aiding.
2. b) Passive aiding
3. c) Intentional aiding
4. d) None of these.
Ques. 84. X and Y conspire to poison Z. X procured the poison, while Y administered it in pursuance of the conspiracy and causes
Z’s death.
1. a) Y has committed the o ence of murder.
2. b) Both X and Y have committed the o ence of criminal conspiracy.

3. c) X has committed the o ence of murder and Y was an abettor.
4. d) Both X and Y have committed the o ence of murder.
Ques.85. The essence of sedition is
1. a) Intention
2. b) Bene ts or gains of the accused.

3. c) Result
4. d) Both intention and result.
Ques. 86. Promoting enmity between di erent groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. by
words, signs or visible representations of otherwise, or doing any act prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between
di erent groups or castes or communities is made punishable by
1. a) Section 153-A
2. b) Section 154-A
3. c) Section 153-B
4. d) Section 295-A.
Ques. 87. An a ray committed by an unlawful assembly becomes a ‘riot’ because of the element of
1. a) Fight (force) in it.
2. b) Assault in it.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) None of the above.
Ques. 88. A, who registered as a Homeopath, administered to the patient su ering from guinea worm, 24 drops of Stramonium
and a leaf of Dhatura without studying its e ects and the patient died of poisoning.
1. a) A is guilty under Section 304-A.

2. b) A is guilty under Section 302.
3. c) A is guilty under Section 325.
4. d) A is guilty under Section 304.
Ques. 89 “To constitute the o ence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt, there must be complete correspondence between the
result and the intention or knowledge of the accused.” In view of this, which of the following statements is correct:
1. a) If the hurt caused is simple, a person cannot be held guilty of voluntarily causing grievous hurt even if he intended to cause
grievous hurt.
2. b) If the o ender intended or knew himself to be likely to cause only simple hurt, he cannot be convicted for the o ence of grievous
hurt even if the resultant hurt was grievous.
3. c) Both a and b are correct.

4. d) Both a and b are incorrect.
Ques. 90. Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person, so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that
person has a right to proceed is guilty of:
1. a) Wrongful restraint.
2. b) Wrongful con nement.
3. c) Both a and b.
Ques. 91. A incite a dog, started to loosen the chain of dog knowing that B will be put in fear on such act by ‘A’. ‘A’ commits
1. a) Using criminal force.
2. b) Criminal assault.
3. c) Criminal intimidation.
4. d)
Ques. 92. ‘Illicit intercourse’ implies:
1. a) Sexual intercourse between two persons not united by marriage.
2. b) Rape
3. c) Prostitution
4. d) Both a and b.
Ques. 93. A, B and C are joint owners of some property. A removes the property
1. a) A is not guilty of theft as property belongs to him.

2. b) A is guilty of theft as he is only a joint owner.
3. c) A is guilty of criminal misappropriation.
4. d) A is guilty od breach of trust.
Ques. 94. ‘A’ pretends to be ‘B’, who has died. ‘A’ is guilty under
1. a) Section 417, IPC.

2. b) Section 418, IPC.
3. c) Section 419, IPC.

4. d) Section 420. IPC.
Ques. 95. Dowry death is a
1. a) Murder
2. b) Culpable Homicide
3. c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Ques. 96. The aim of the law of evidence is:
1. a) To decide which fact is liable to be proved.
2. b) How the facts could be proved before the court.
3. c) To prevent protracted (long) inquiries.
Ques. 97. Every fact which a plainti must prove in order to get an adjudication in his favour, or which a defendant may prove to
defeat the suit is:
1. a) Fact in issue.
2. b) Relevant fact.
3. c) Evidentiary fact.
Ques. 98. Res gestae implies:
1. a) Things done in the course of a transmission.
2. b) Fact in issue and surrounding circumstances.
3. c) Acts talking for themselves.

Ques. 99. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. ‘B’ a rms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true. The
position and relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published may be relevant:
1. a) As constituting a motive for fact in issue.

2. b) As conduct in uenced by fact in issue.
3. c) As introductory to facts in issue.

4. d) As preparation for fact in issue.
Ques. 100. Which of the following admission is no evidence?
1. a) Admission of fact made by a pleader in court, on behalf of his client.
2. b) Admission on a point of law made by a pleader in court, on behalf of his client.

3. c) Both a and b.
Ques. 101. Under which section, the arrested person must be produced before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest:
1. a) Section 56
2. b) Section 57
3. c) Section 53
4. d) Section 55
Ques. 102. In proceeding under Section 107, an Executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such
period, not exceeding:
1. a) One year.
2. b) Two years
3. c) Three years
4. d) Six months.
Ques. 103. Under Sections 129-132, an unlawful assembly may be dispersed:
1. a) By the use of civil force.

2. b) By the use of armed forces.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 104. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is directed by:
1. a) Judicial Magistrate.
2. b) Executive Magistrate.
3. c) Either by Judicial or Executive Magistrate
4. d) Neither by Judicial not Executive Magistrate.
Ques. 105. Which section lays down that a police o cer knowing of a design to commit any cognizable o ence may arrest,
without orders from the Magistrate and without a warrant, the person so designing, if it appears to such o cer that the
commission of the o ence cannot be otherwise prevented.
1. a) Section 150
2. b) Section 151
3. c) Section 152
4. d) Section 153.
Ques. 106. Section 159 is primarily meant to give to the Magistrate the power of directing an investigation in cases:
1. a) Where the police decide not to investigate the case.

2. b) When the police is still investigating the case.
3. c) When the police has led the report under Section 173.
Ques. 107. In which case it was held that a person has been given protection both by Section 161(2), Cr.P.C. and Article 20(3) of the
Constitution against questions the answers to which would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge:
1. a) Gian Singh vs. State
2. b) Nandini Satpathy vs. P.L. Dani.
3. c) Rupan Deol Bajaj vs. K.P.S. Gill.

4. d) K. Dalmia vs. Delhi Admn.
Ques. 108. On the non-completion of investigation i.e. failure of the prosecution to le charge sheet within the prescribed period
of 90 days or 60 days:
1. a) The accused person is to be discharged.

2. b) The accused person shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail.
3. c) The accused person shall be released on bail as of right and no application for release on bail need be made.
4. d) The right of the accused person to be released on bail could be defeated by the subsequent ling of the charge sheet any
circumstance.
Ques. 109. Which section lays down that ordinarily every o ence is to be inquired into and tried by a court within whose local
jurisdiction the o ence was committed.
177. a) Section 177.
178. b) Section 178.
179. c) Section 179.
180. d) Section 180.
Ques. 110. Taking cognizance of an o ence implies:
1. a) When the Magistrate/Judge rst takes judicial notice of an o ence.
2. b) When the Magistrate/Judge orders investigation under Section 156(3).

3. c) When the Magistrate/Judge issues a search-warrant for the purpose of investigation.
Ques. 111. In which of the following cases, no charge need be framed:
116. a) For inquiries under Section 116.

117. b) For trials of summons-cases under Section 251.
118. c) For summary cases where no appeal lies.
Ques. 112. Which section provides for joint trial of several persons:
1. a) Section 220
2. b) Section 221
3. c) Section 222
4. d) Section 223.
Ques. 113. Which Chapter of the Code deals with the securing of the attendance of person con ned/detained in prisons before the
criminal courts:
1. a) Chapter XX
2. b) Chapter XXI
3. c) Chapter XXII
4. d) Chapter XXIII
Ques. 114. Any party to a proceeding may after the close of his evidence address concise oral arguments under:
1. a) Section 314
2. b) Section 316
3. c) Section 317
4. d) Section 318
Ques. 115. Which of the following o ence is not compoundable?
1. a) O ence under Section 334 of IPC.

2. b) O ence under Section 342 of IPC.
3. c) O ence under Section 307 of IPC.

4. d) O ence under Section 506 of IPC.
Ques. 116. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused, that the accused is
guilty, and that the ought to receive a receive a severe punishment then such Magistrate is empowered to in ict, the Magistrate
may forward the case to:
1. a) Sessions Judge.
2. b) Chief Judicial Magistrate.
3. c) District Magistrate.
4. d) Concerned police station.
Ques. 117. If any witness refuses to answer such questions as may be put to him or to produce any document/thing in his
possession or power, without being able to o er any reasonable excuse of such refusal, the court may sentence him to
imprisonment up to:
1. a) 3 days
2. b) 7 days
3. c) 10 days
4. d) 14 days
Ques. 118. Which section lays down that the judgement given by a Metropolitan Magistrate shall be in an abridged form:
1. a) Section 255
2. b) Section 356
3. c) Section 357
4. d) Section 358.
Ques. 119. Which section provides for payment of costs to the successful complainant:

358. b) Section 358
359. c) Section 359
360. d) Section 360
Ques. 120. In any case where the court could have dealt with an accused under Section 360, or under the Probation of O enders
Act, but has not done so:
1. a) It need not record any reasons for not having done so.
2. b) It must record the special reasons for not having done so.
3. c) It must record the special for not having done so only in special circumstances.
Ques. 121. Where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on such plea, there shall be no appeal. It is said
laid down in:

375. b) Section 375.
376. c) Section 376

377. d) Section 377.
Ques. 122. The High Court can exercise its revisional powers:
1. a) Suo motu
2. b) On the petition of any aggrieved party.

3. c) On the application of any other person.
Ques. 123. The liability of a surety under the surety bond is:
1. a) Mutually exclusive of the liability of the accused under his personal bond.
2. b) Contingent on the liability of the accused under his personal bond.

3. c) Limited to the amount of the surety bond.
4. d) Both a and c.
Ques. 124. What is the e ect to trial conducted in wrong place?
1. a) Vitiate itself.
2. b) Vitiate if caused failure of justice.
3. c) Seriousness has to be seen.
4. d) It is to be referred to High Court.
Ques. 125. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the o ence punishable with imprisonment for a
term not exceeding:
1. a) One year.
2. b) Three years
3. c) Five years
4. d) Seven years.
Ques126. An ‘invitation to o er’ implies that
1. a) A party does not make an o er but merely invites the other party to make an o er.
2. b) A party, without expressing his nal willingness, proposes certain terms on which he is willing to negotiate.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a is correct.
Ques. 127. Mark the incorrect statement:
1. a) The doctrine of ‘privity of contract’ i.e. a contract is a contract between the parties only and no third party can sue upon it, is rooted
in English common law.
2. b) The third person is not bound by the contract, as there is no mutuality.

3. c) The common law doctrine of privity of contract is not applicable in India.
4. d) The doctrine is generally applicable in India.
Ques. 128. Mark the incorrect statement:
1. a) Under English law, an infant is bund by the contract of apprenticeship as well as contract of service.
2. b) Under Indian law, an infant is bound by the contract of apprenticeship as well as contract of service.
3. c) Under English as well as Indian law, an infant is bound by the contract of apprenticeship.
4. d) Under Indian law, a contract of service entered into by a minor is void.
Ques. 129. A obtained his wife’s signature to a gift deed without making any misrepresentation as to its character, but later
included two more plots in the deed.
1. a) The transaction is only voidable and not void.

2. b) The transaction is void.
3. c) The transaction is illegal.

4. d) Document executed outside India.
Ques. 130. A agrees to par Rs. 1,000 to B for his giving evidence in a civil suit. The contract is
1. a) Valid and enforceable at law.

2. b) Void, being opposed to public policy.
3. c) Voidable at the option of A.
4. d)
Ques. 131. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State?
1. a) Organisation of village panchayats.
2. b) Provision for free and compulsory education for the citizens.
3. c) Provision for just and human conditions of week.
4. d) Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.
Ques. 132. A write of Quo warranto is issued against a person who:
1. a) Has violated be principles of natural justice.
2. b) Is a judicial o cer of a subordinate court.

3. c) Is usurper of a public o ce.
4. d) Has a right claim to a public o ce.
Ques. 133. The normal term of Lok Sabha is ve years
1. a) From the date of declaration of election result.

2. b) From the date appointed for its rst meeting.
3. c) From the date of taking oath of its members,

4. d) From the date of election of the speaker.
Ques. 134. Employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or any other hazardous work is violative of
1. a) Right to equality
2. b) Right to life and personal liberty.

3. c) Right to freedom
4. d) Right against exploitation.
Ques. 135. The President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution remains valid in a State for the maximum period of:
1. a) Six months.
2. b) One year.
3. c) Two years.
4. d) Three months.
Ques. 136. Panchayati Raj System was adopted to:
1. a) Make people aware of politics.

2. b) Decentralize the power of democracy.
3. c) Educate the peasants.
4. d) To introduce a form of local self-government at the village, block and district levels.
Ques. 137. Mandamus means:
1. a) A write issued by a superior court, commanding that a speci ed thing to be done.
2. b) A legal term for a prisoner’s right to appear in person and be tried in a court.
3. c) A written public declaration of the intentions, opinions or motives of a leader, party or body.
Ques. 138. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?
1. a) Second Schedule.
2. b) Fifth Schedule.
3. c) Eighth Schedule.
4. d) Tenth Schedule.
Ques. 139. In which case did Supreme Court say ‘Preamble is the basic structure of the Constitution’:
1. a) Maneka Gandhi case.
2. b) Keshavanand Bharti case.

3. c) Golaknath case.
4. d) Swaran Singh case.
Ques. 140. The Supreme Court, while exercising power under Article 136 of the Constitution of India:
1. a) Frequently interferes in the concurrent ndings of the High Court.

2. b) Interferes only when certi cate of tness is issued by the concerned High Court.
3. c) Has no power to interfere in the concurrent ndings of the High Court.
4. d) Interferes when it is found that gross injustice has occurred to the petitioner.
Ques. 141. When the President of India is satis ed that the nancial credit of Government of India is threatened, he may:
1. a) Direct reduction in the number of members in the Finance Commission.
2. b) Proclaim nancial emergency.
3. c) Impose President’s Rule in any State.

4. d) Direct Parliament to pass special Financial Bill.
Ques. 142. In which one of the following cases , is the President of India not bound by the aid and advice of the Union Council of
Ministers?
1. a) In deciding the question of removal of a Governor.
2. b) In deciding the question whether a member of Lok Sabha has become disquali ed to continue as a member.
3. c) While exercising power to grant pardon.
4. d) In dismissing a civil servant without any enquiry and hearing on the ground of security of State.
Ques. 143. After exhausting all available remedies before the Supreme Court, a “Curative” petition is maintainable as held in:
1. a) Ashok Hurra case.

2. b) R. Antulay case.
3. c) Best Bakery case.
4. d) Fodder Scam case
Ques. 144. A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in
national interest remains in force for a period.
1. a) Not exceeding six months.
2. b) Not exceeding two years.

3. c) Not exceeding one year.
4. d) Of unlimited time.
Ques. 145. The fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) does not include:
1. a) Right to information.
2. b) Right to keep silence.
3. c) Right to freedom of the press.
4. d) Right to call and enforce bandh.
Ques. 146. In India, treaty-making is:

1. a) A legislative act.
2. b) An executive act.
3. c) Judicial act.
Ques. 147. In a Parliamentary democracy:
1. a) Legislature controls judiciary.

2. b) Legislature controls executive.
3. c) Judiciary controls executive.
4. d) Executive controls judiciary.
Ques. 148. A member of State legislature belonging to a political party shall be disquali ed to continue as a member:
1. a) If he has voluntarily given up his membership of the concerned political party.

2. b) If he votes contrary to any direction issued by the political party.
3. c) If he abstains from voting contrary to the direction issued by the political party.
4. d) In all of the above cases.
Ques. 149. The question relating to disquali cation of Speaker of the House of the People on the ground of defection is decided by:
1. a) Union Council of Ministers.
2. b) House of the People.

3. c) Any member of the House elected by the House of the People.
4. d) Supreme Court of India.
Ques. 150. The procedure for dismissal of an Election Commission of India been prescribed under:
1. a) Article 324(3) of the Constitution of India.

2. b) Article 324(4) of the Constitution of India.
3. c) Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
4. d) Law made by Parliament.
Ques. 151. Which one of the following statements with regard to Constitution of India is incorrect?
1. a) Begar under Article 23 includes non-payment of minimum wages.
2. b) Reasonable restriction under Article 19(1)(g) includes total prohibition.

3. c) The principle of res judicata is applicable in all writ petitons under Article 32.
4. d) ‘State’ will include a government company
Ques. 152. The Union executive has no power to issue directions to State executive under………… of the Constitution of India:
226. a) Article 226.

227. b) Article 257.
228. c) Article 353.

229. d) Article 356.
Ques. 153. The provisions of the Act of 1996, are
1. a) Substantive law (lex loci).
2. b) Procedural law (lex arbitri)

3. c) Both a and b
4. d) Only b.
Ques. 154. Which of the following is an essential condition of a valid and binding arbitration agreement:
1. a) The parties to the agreement must be competent to contract.
2. b) The agreement must be made for a lawful consideration and for lawful object.
3. c) The parties to the arbitration agreement must not only have intention to refer the dispute to the arbitration but also to be bound
by them.
Ques. 155. Which of the following is a form of arbitration agreement recognized by the Act of 1996:
1. a) Arbitration clause in a contract.
2. b) Separate arbitration agreement.
3. c) Arbitration agreement by incorporation.

Ques. 156. Section 2(d) of the 1996 Act de nes Arbitral Tribunal restricting it to mean:
1. a) Sole Arbitrator.
2. b) Panel of Arbitrators.
3. c) Both a and b
Ques. 157. The intervention of Chief Justice is intended at the stage of:
1. a) Appointment of Arbitrator.
2. b) Procedure of appointment of Arbitrator.

3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 158. Section 16 of the new Act is a key section of the Act. It deals with:
1. a) Waiver of right to object by the parties.

2. b) Jurisdiction and competence of arbitral tribunal.
3. c) Reference beyond the scope of arbitration agreement.
Ques. 159. Which of the following statements is correct:
1. a) The law of limitation is applicable event in the proceedings before the arbitrator.
2. b) Whether the proceedings commenced within the period of limitation from the accrual of the cause of action would depend upon
the date of commencement.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 160. The power of the arbitral tribunal to award interest on waist money is:
1. a) Mandatory
2. b)
3. c) Depend upon court’s direction.
4. d) None of the above
Ques. 161. Under Section 30, the Arbitral Tribunal is enjoined with the duty to use which of the following methods on order to
encourage the settlement.
1. a) Mediation
2. b) Conciliation
3. c) Both a and b
Ques. 162. Mark the correct statement:
1. a) Section 35 is s mandatory provision and parties to the arbitration agreement are not permitted to derogate from it.
2. b) The praise can agree not to have recourse against the award.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only b.
Ques. 163. The incapacity may be because of:
1. a) Infancy
2. b) Insanity
3. c) Personal laws.
Ques. 164. Which section of the 1996 Act provides for the con dentiality of conciliation proceedings:
74. a) Section 74.
75. b) Section 75.
76. c) Section 77.

77. d) Section 78.
Ques. 165. The conciliation proceedings shall not be terminated in which of the following cases:
1. a) Death of a party.
2. b) By the signing od the settlement agreement by the parties.

3. c) By a written declaration of the parties addressed to the conciliator to the e ect that the conciliation proceedings are terminated.
4. d) Resort to arbitral/judicial proceedings.
Ques. 166. Which of the following is a strong evidence (or test) of the partnership:
1. a) Sharing of losses.
2. b) Sharing of pro ts.
3. c) Both a and d.
Ques. 167. Mark the incorrect statement in relation to implied authority of a partner under Section 19.
1. a) A partner can always enter into partnership on behalf of the rm.
2. b) A partner can acquire immovable property on rm’s behalf or transfer immovable property ( e.g. sale, mortgage, lease or gift)
belonging to the rm.
3. c) A partner can admit any liability in a suit or proceeding against the rm.
4. d) All are incorrect.
Ques. 168. The defendant may be allowed to rise the point of limitation:
1. a) At any stage of suit or proceeding.
2. b) For the rst time in appeal.

3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 169. A plea of limitation is a:
1. a) Pure question of law.
2. b) Question of fact.
3. c) Mixed question of law and fact.

4. d) Both a and c.
Ques. 170. Any appeal or application may be admitted after the prescribed period if the appellant or the applicant satis ed the
court that he had……… cause for not preferring the appeal or making application within such period.
1. a) Probable
2. b) Reasonable
3. c) Su cient
4. d)
Ques. 171. Mark the incorrect statements:
1. a) The mistaken advice of counsel is not su cient to justify extension of time under Section 5 unless the advice was given in good
faith.
2. b) Where a counsel acted in honest manner but was negligent, no condonation should be granted.
3. c) Delay due to con icting decisions misleading the party in ling appeal is not a good ground for condoning delay.
4. d) A bona de miscalculation of the period of limitation by the counsel is a good ground for condoning delay.
Ques. 172. Which of the following persons can give a discharge as contemplated by Section 7 of the Limitation Act:
1. a) Karta of a Hindu Joint family.

2. b) Partner of a rm.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only b.
Ques. 173. Mark the incorrect statement: Acknowledgement:
1. a) Merely con rm a liability.

2. b) Enlarge the period f limitation.
3. c) Does not extinguish the original cause of action nor create a new one.
4. d) A fresh period begins to run for the date of acknowledgement.
Ques. 174. Mark the correct statement:

1. a) The day on which the acknowledgement is made will have to be excluded in computation.
2. b) In England, an acknowledgement of a claim can keep it alive if the acknowledgement amounts to a promise to pay.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only a.
Ques. 175. Section 22 refers to a:
1. a) Continuing right.
2. b) Continuing wrong.
3. c) Both a and b.
4. d) Only b.
Ques. 176. Which section of the Limitation Act is an exception to the general rule that in personal actions, the Limitation Act bars
only the remedy and does not extinguish the right.
26. a) Section 26.
27. b) Section 27.

28. c) Section 28.
29. d) Section 29.
Ques. 177. In which of the following cases, the priod of limitation is three years:
1. a) Suits relating to accounts or arrears of maintenance or declaration or contracts.
2. b) Suits relating to decrees and instruments.

3. c) Suits relating to movable property.
Ques. 178. The period of limitation for a suit to enforce a right of pre-emption is:
1. a) 1 year.
2. b) 2 years
3. c) 3 years
4. d) 6 years.
Ques. 179. Give the meaning of “Rabble”
1. a) Brave
2. b) Large
3. c) Crowd
4. d) Privilege
Ques. 180. The group of words which is most similar to the word ‘Transient’ is
1. a) A long narrative poem

2. b) To sail around the world.
3. c) The large scale departure of people.
4. d) Lasting only a very short time.
Ques. 181. From the following words, the mis-spelt word is
1. a) Incesant
2. b) Inarticulate
3. c) Tedious
4. d) Schism
Ques. 182. The word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Bearish’ is
1. a) Loss
2. b) Sweet
3. c) Strange
4. d) Polite
Ques. 183. The quality of being a noble person by birth
1. a) Royal
2. b) Blueblood
3. c) Ethnic
4. d) Modest
Ques. 184. Antonym for “Expatiate”
1. a) Epitomise
2. b) Decrease
3. c) Surplus
4. d) Diverge
Ques. 185. Synonym of “ gurative’
1. a) Typical
2. b) Admire
3. c) Oratory
4. d) Blot out
Ques. 186. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of “harangue”.
1. a) Speech
2. b) Advise
3. c) Terri c
4. d) Empty
Ques. 187. He is associated with an organisation that works for underprivileged children. He is a ………………
1. a) Asthete
2. b) Pessimist
3. c) Philanthropist
4. d) Optimist
Ques. 188. Injunction could be:
1. a) Temporary
2. b) Perpetual
3. c) Preventive Relief
4. d) All are correct
Directions(Ques. 189-193) Pick out the most e ective word from the given word to ll in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
Ques. 189. The battalion operating from the mountain was able to …… three enemy divisions.
1. a) Tie up
2. b) Tie down
3. c) Tie on
4. d) Tie into
Ques. 190. I purposely ………… meet you during my last visit to Kashmir.
1. a) Didn’t
2. b) Won’t
3. c) Hadn’t
4. d) Wouldn’t
Ques. 191. I have read one novel by Premchand. I want to read………….. novel by him.
1. a) Other
2. b) Another
3. c) All
4. d) Few
Ques. 192. My father………….down for a nap.
1. a) Lays
2. b) Laid
3. c) Lie
4. d)
Ques. 193. I think they allow their children too much……………..
1. a) Liberality
2. b) Latitude
3. c) Lassitude
4. d) Levity
Directions (Questions 194-198) In each of these questions, out of the four given alternatives choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word
Ques. 194. DISHEVELLED
1. a) Clean
2. b) Neat
3. c) Tidy
4. d) Untidy
Ques. 195. INSOLENT
1. a) Impatient
2. b) Diabolic
3. c) Distasteful
4. d) Rude
Ques. 196. ABORTIVE
1. a) Unsuccessful
2. b) Unlawful
3. c) Illegal
4. d) Plentiful
Ques. 197. FLORID
1. a) Pale
2. b) Monotonous
3. c) Weak
4. d) Ugly
Ques. 198. VERITY
1. a) Reverence
2. b) Falsehood
3. c) Rarity
4. d) Sanctity
Ques. 199. “Laches” is
1. a) Laziness
2. b) Philosophy of Law
3. c) Acts
4. d) In good faith.
Ques. 200. “Locus Standi” means
1. a) Failure in justice.
2. b) Right to be heard in court.

3. c) A right to keep possession.
4. d) Wrongful conduct
Answers
1. C 26. C 51. D 76. C 101. B 126. C 151. C 176. B
2. D 27. C 52. C 77. A 102. A 127. C 152. D 177. D
3. D 28. B 53. D 78. C 103. C 128. B 153. C 178. A
4. C 29. B 54. D 79. D 104. B 129. A 154. D 179. C
5. A 30. B 55. B 80. A 105. B 130. B 155. D 180. D
6. B 31. C 56. A 81. D 106. A 131. B 156. C 181. A
7. C 32. D 57. C 82. C 107. B 132. C 157. C 182. D
8. C 33. A 58. D 83. C 108. B 133. B 158. B 183. B
9. A 34. C 59. A 84. D 109. A 134. D 159. C 184. A
10. C 35. A 60. A 85. A 110. A 135. D 160. B 185. A
11. A 36. D 61. B 86. A 111. D 136. D 161. C 186. A
12. D 37. C 62. D 87. A 112. D 137. A 162. A 187. C
13. B 38. C 63. D 88. A 113. C 138. D 163. D 188.D
14. D 39. D 64. B 89. C 114. A 139. B 164. B 189.B
15. C 40. B 65. A 90. A 115. C 140. D 165. D 190.A
16. A 41. D 66. C 91. A 116. B 141. B 166. B 191.B
17. B 42. C 67. D 92. D 117. B 142. B 167. D 192.A
18. C 43. C 68. C 93. B 118. A 143. A 168. C 193. B
19. B 44. C 69. C 94. C 119. C 144. C 169. C 194.D
20. A 45. D 70. A 95. C 120. B 145. D 170. C 195.D
21. D 46. C 71. B 96. D 121. B 146. B 171. C 196.A
22. A 47. D 72. B 97. A 122. D 147. B 172. C 197.A
23. D 48. C 73. D 98. D 123. D 148. D 173. B 198.B
24. B 49. B 74. A 99. C 124. B 149. C 174. C 199. A
25. A 50. C 75. D 100. B 125. B 150. C 175. D 200B
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Mock Test Paper 4 for Delhi Judicial Service Prelims, 2018

April 23, 2018  0 (http://www.freelawnotes.com/mock-test-paper-4-for-delhi-judicial-service-prelims-2018/#respond)

Mock Test Paper 3 for Delhi Judicial Service Prelims, 2018

1. The duration of the paper is 2 hours 30 mins.

3. Check the answers at the end of the post.

Ques. 4. Which city hosted the 4th India-CLMV Business Conclave-2017?

Ques. 6. Who has won the 2017 Pulitzer Prize in ction?

4. d) Jammu & Kashmir

Ques. 19. The Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?

1. a) Ministry of Women and Child Development

4. d) Ministry of Law and Justice

Ques. 26. The World Largest desert is

Ques. 27. Country that has the highest in Barley Production

Ques. 28. The metal whose salts are sensitive to light is

Ques. 29. The Central Rice Research Station is situated in

Ques. 32. De ciency of Iron leads to

Ques. 33. The state which has desert in India is

Ques. 34. The headquarters of the co ee board of India is

Ques. 35. D.D.T. was invented by

Ques. 36. Which is considered as the biggest port of India?

Ques. 37. The gas used for making vegetables is

Ques. 38. The chief ore of Aluminium is

Ques. 39. Sharavati projects is in

4. d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Ques. 43. The most important river of Orissa is

Ques. 44. The language spoken by the people by Pakistan is

Ques. 45. Gir National Park is situated in

Ques. 46. Madharasas are the schools of

Ques. 47. Shore temple is located at

Ques. 48. The largest part of the human brain is

Ques. 49. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by

Ques. 50. The smallest cells in the human body are

1. a) 1st April, 2002

2. b) 1st June, 2002

3. c) 6th June, 2002

Ques. 52. Which of these following is not a legal representative?

1. a) Executors and administrators

Ques. 53. Which of the following orders does amount to a decree?

3. c) Order overruling a plea against the maintainability of a suit.

Ques. 55. In which of the following cases, Section 10 will apply?

4. d) All of the above.

6. b) Subject matter and the object of the suit.

7. c) The relief claimed in the suit.

Ques. 57. The rule of constructive res judicata is:

1. a) A product of judicial interpretation.

1. a) The decision in the former suit was on the merits.

2. b) The former suit was disposed of ex parte.

1. a) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property.

2. b) Suit for recovery of immovable property.

Ques. 60. 0.7 R 10 provides for:

2. b) Nevertheless be processed with.

Ques. 62. The discovery of documents is to be made by:

1. a) Documents relates to his own title.

2. b) Su cient cause or excuse.

4. d) All of the above.

3. c) Documents which have been admitted or rejected in evidence.

4. d) All kinds of documents.

1. a) The decree must be set aside against C also.

2. b) The decree cannot be set aside against C.

3. c) Depends on the court’s discretion.