The Human Body: An Orientation 7.

Which of the following groupings of the abdominopelvic regions

1. Consider the following levels: (1) chemical; (2) tissue; (3) organ; is medial?
(4) cellular; (5) organismal; (6) systemic. Which of the following a. Hypochondriac, hypogastric, umbilical
choices has the levels listed in order of increasing complexity? b. Hypochondriac, lumbar, inguinal
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d. 1, 4, 2, 3, 6, 5 c. Hypogastric, umbilical, epigastric
b. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6 e. 4, 1, 3, 2, 6, 5 d. Lumbar, umbilical, iliac
c. 3, 1, 2, 4, 6, 5 e. Iliac, umbilical, hypochondriac
2. Which is not essential to survival? 8. Which of the following is (are) involved in maintaining
a. Water b. Oxygen homeostasis?
c. Gravity d. Atmospheric pressure a. Effector
e. Nutrients b. Control center
3. Using the terms listed below, fill in the blank with the proper c. Receptor
term. d. Feedback
Anterior, superior, medial, proximal, superficial, posterior, inferior, e. Lack of change
lateral, distal, deep
The heart is located _________ to the diaphragm. BASIC STRUCTURE
The muscles are _________ to the bone. 1. Which of the following is (are) true concerning the atomic
The shoulder is _________ to the elbow. nucleus?
In anatomical position, the thumb is _________ to the index finger. a. It contains the mass of the atom.
The vertebral region is _________ to the scapular region. b. The negatively charged subatomic particles are
The gluteal region is located on the _________ surface of the here.
body. c. Subatomic particles can be ejected.
4. Match the proper anatomical term (column B) with the common d. It contains subatomic particles that determine
name (column A) for the body regions listed below. atomic number.
Column A e. It contains subatomic particles that interact with
____ 1. Buttocks ____ 6. groin other atoms.
____ 2. Back ____ 7. forehead 2. Pick out the correct match(es) of element and number of
____ 3. Heel ____ 8. calf valence electrons. Draw a planetary model of each atom to help
____ 4. front of elbow ____ 9. sole of foot you choose the best answer.
____ 5. Toes a. Oxygen—6 d. Nitrogen—3
b. Chlorine—8 e. Carbon—4
Column B c. Phosphorus—5
a. inguinal f. antecubital 3. Important functions of water include which of the following?
b. frontal g. plantar a. Provides cushioning
c. dorsal h. digital b. Acts as a transport medium
d. sural i. calcaneal c. Participates in chemical reactions
e. gluteal d. Acts as a solvent for sugars, salts, and other solutes
e. Reduces temperature fluctuations
5. Anatomical terms that apply to the backside of the body in the 4. Alkaline substances include which of the following?
anatomical position include a. Gastric juice d. Lemon juice
a. ventral and anterior. c. posterior and dorsal. b. Water e. Ammonia
b. back and rear. d. head and lateral. c. Blood
6. A neurosurgeon orders a spinal tap for a patient. Into what body 5. Glucose is to starch as ___.
cavity will the needle be inserted? a. a steroid is to a lipid.
a. Ventral b. a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid.
b. Thoracic c. an amino acid is to a protein.
c. Dorsal d. a polypeptide is to an amino acid.
d. Cranial
e. Pelvic
6. What lipid type is stored in fat deposits beneath the skin? 5. A cell stimulated to increase its steroid production will have
a. Triglyceride d. Phospholipid abundant _____.
b. Steroid e. Prostaglandin a. ribosomes.
c. Vitamin D b. rough ER.
7. Absence of which of the following nitrogen containing bases c. smooth ER.
would prevent RNA synthesis? d. Golgi apparatus.
a. Adenine d. Thymine e. secretory vesicles.
b. Cytosine e. Uracil 6. For diffusion to occur, there must be _____.
c. Guanine a. a selectively permeable membrane.
8. ATP is not associated with _______. b. equal amounts of solute.
a. a basic nucleotide structure. c. a concentration difference.
b. high-energy phosphate bonds. d. some sort of carrier system.
c. deoxyribose. e. all of the above.
d. inorganic phosphate. 7. In which of the following tissue types might you expect to find
e. reversible reactions. goblet cells?
9. The element essential for normal thyroid function is a. Simple cuboidal
a. iodine. b. Simple columnar
b. iron. c. Simple squamous
c. copper. d. Stratified squamous
d. selenium. e. Transitional
e. zinc. 8. Which epithelium is “built” to withstand friction?
10. Factors that increase the speed of chemical reactions include a. Simple squamous
a. increasing the temperature. b. Stratified squamous
b. increasing the particle size. c. Simple cuboidal
c. increasing the concentration of the reactants. d. Simple columnar
d. catalysts. e. Pseudostratified
9. What kind of connective tissue acts as a sponge, soaking up
Cells and Tissues fluid when edema occurs?
1. Which of the following would you expect to find in or on cells a. Areolar connective
whose main function is absorption? b. Adipose connective
a. Microvilli c. Gap junctions c. Dense irregular connective
b. Cilia d. Secretory vesicles d. Reticular connective
2. Adult cell types you might expect to have gap junctions include e. Vascular
_______. 10. What type of connective tissue prevents muscles from pulling
a. skeletal muscle. away from bones during contraction?
b. bone. a. Dense connective
c. heart muscle. b. Areolar
d. smooth muscle. c. Elastic connective
3. Which of the following are possible functions of the d. Hyaline cartilage
glycoproteins in the plasma membrane? 11. Which of the following terms describe cardiac muscle?
a. Determination of blood groups a. Striated
b. Binding sites for toxins or bacteria b. Intercalated discs
c. Aiding the binding of sperm to egg c. Multinucleate
d. Increasing the efficiency of absorption d. Involuntary
4. A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved e. Branching
in _____. 12. Cancer is the same as _______.
a. secretion. d. movement. a. all tumors. d. benign tumors.
b. storage of glycogen. e. detoxification activities. b. all neoplasms. e. AIDS.
c. ATP manufacture. c. all malignant neoplasms.
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM ____ 4. Temperature regulation
1. Select the one false statement about mucous and serous ____ 5. Excretion of water, urea, and salts
membranes. ____ 6. Produces the patterns for fingerprints
a. The epithelial type is the same in all serous membranes, but a. Reticular layer of the dermis
there are different epithelial types in different mucous membranes. b. Dermal blood supply
b. Serous membranes line closed body cavities, whereas mucous c. Papillary layer of the dermis
membranes line body cavities open to the outside. d. Hypodermis
c. Serous membranes always produce serous fluid, and mucous e. Melanocytes
membranes always secrete mucus. f. Stratum corneum
d. Both membranes contain an epithelium plus a layer of loose g. Eccrine sweat glands
connective tissue.
2. Serous membranes SKELETAL SYSTEM
a. line the mouth. More than one choice may apply.
b. have parietal and visceral layers. 1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
c. consist of epidermis and dermis. a. Short bone—wrist
d. have a connective tissue layer called the lamina propria. b. Long bone—leg
e. secrete a lubricating fluid. c. Irregular bone—sternum
3. Which is not a component of sweat? d. Flat bone—cranium
a. Water d. Ammonia 2. A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon
b. Sodium chloride e. Vitamin D is a ______.
c. Sebum a. central canal.
4. Which structure is not associated with a hair? b. lamella.
a. Shaft d. Cuticle c. lacuna.
b. Cortex e. Lunule d. canaliculus.
c. Matrix e. perforating canal.
5. In investigating the cause of thinning hair, which of the following 3. Which of the following would you expect to be prominent in
questions needs to be asked? osteoclasts?
a. Is the diet deficient in proteins? a. Golgi apparatus c. Microfilaments
b. Is the person taking megadoses of vitamin C? b. Lysosomes d. Exocytosis
c. Has the person been exposed to excessive radiation? 4. Bone pain behind the external acoustic meatus probably
d. Has the person recently suffered severe emotional trauma? involves the
6. Which structure is not associated with a nail? a. maxilla. d. temporal bone.
a. Nail bed c. Nail folds b. ethmoid bone. e. lacrimal bone.
b. Lunule d. Nail follicle c. sphenoid bone.
7. Which one of the following is not associated with the production 5. Bones that articulate with the sphenoid include which of the
of perspiration? following?
a. Sweat glands d. Eccrine gland a. Parietal d. Zygomatic
b. Sweat pores e. Apocrine gland b. Frontal e. Ethmoid
c. Arrector pili c. Occipital
8. Which of the following is not a skin structure? 6. Which humeral process articulates with the radius?
a. Nerve fiber a. Trochlea d. Capitulum
b. Hair papilla b. Greater tubercle e. Olecranon fossa
c. Hair c. Lesser tubercle
d. Nail 7. Which parts of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs?
9. Match the structures on the right with their function listed on the a. Spinous process
left. b. Transverse process
____ 1. Protection from ultraviolet radiation c. Superior articular processes
____ 2. Insulation, energy storage d. Body
____ 3. Waterproofing and preventing water loss e. Pedicles
8. Which of the following bones or bone parts articulate with the 2. After ACh attaches to its receptors at the neuromuscular
femur? junction, what is the next step?
a. Ischial tuberosity d. Fibula a. Sodium channels open.
b. Pubis e. Tibia b. Calcium binds to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments.
c. Patella c. Cross bridges attach.
9. Which bone of the arm corresponds to the femur of the leg? d. ATP is hydrolyzed.
a. Ulna d. Tibia 3. Your ability to lift that heavy couch would be increased by which
b. Humerus e. Fibula type of exercise?
c. Radius a. Aerobic c. Resistance
10. At what stage of life do the lower limbs attain the same height b. Endurance d. Swimming
as the head and trunk? 4. Doing the pincer grasp is an ______ movement.
a. At birth a. extending c. adducting
b. By 10 years of age b. abducting d. opposing
c. At puberty 5. Which are ways in which muscle names have been derived?
d. When the epiphyseal plates fuse a. Attachments c. Function
e. Never b. Size d. Location
11. Match the types of joints to the descriptions that apply to them. 6. Which of the following muscles attach to the hip bones?
(More than one description might apply.) a. Rectus abdominis c. Vastus medialis
a. Fibrous joints b. Rectus femoris d. Vastus lateralis
b. Cartilaginous joints 7. Which of these thigh muscles causes movement at the hip joint?
c. Synovial joints a. Rectus femoris c. Vastus lateralis
____ 1. Have no joint cavity b. Biceps femoris d. Semitendinosus
____ 2. Types are sutures and syndesmoses 8. Which of the following insert on the arm?
____ 3. Dense connective tissue fills the space between the bones a. Biceps brachii c. Trapezius
____ 4. Almost all joints of the skull b. Triceps brachii d. Latissimus dorsi
____ 5. Types are synchondroses and symphyses
____ 6. All are diarthroses NERVOUS SYSTEM
____ 7. The most common type of joint in the body More than one choice may apply.
____ 8. Nearly all are synarthrotic 1. Which of the following is an example of integration by the
____ 9. Shoulder, hip, knee, and elbow joints nervous system?
12. Match the bone markings listed on the right with their function a. The feel of a cold breeze
listed on the left. b. Shivering and goose bumps in response to cold
1. Attachment site for muscle or ligament c. Perceiving the sound of rain
2. Forms a joint surface d. The decision to go back for an umbrella
3. Passageway for vessels or nerves 2. Where might a gray matter nucleus be located?
____ a. Trochanter a. Alongside the vertebral column
____ b. Condyle b. Within the brain
____ c. Foramen c. Within the spinal cord
____ d. Process d. In the sensory receptors
____ e. Facet 3. The innermost delicate meningeal layer is the ______.
____ f. Tuberosity a. dura mater. c. arachnoid mater.
b. corpus callosum. d. pia mater.
MUSCULAR SYSTEM 4. Histological examination of a slice of neural tissue reveals a
1. If you compare electron micrographs of a relaxed skeletal bundle of nerve fibers held together by cells whose multiple
muscle fiber and a fully contracted muscle fiber, which would you processes wrap around several fibers and form a myelin sheath.
see only in the relaxed fiber? The specimen is likely to be ___.
a. Z discs d. A bands a. a nucleus. c. a nerve.
b. Sarcomeres e. H zones b. a ganglion. d. a tract.
c. I bands
5. The pineal gland is located in the ______. 12. Which of the following is true of the autonomic, but not the
a. hypothalamus. somatic, nervous system?
b. mesencephalon. a. Neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.
c. epithalamus. b. Axons are myelinated.
d. corpus callosum. c. Effectors are muscle cells.
6. Choose the proper term to respond to the statements describing d. It has motor neurons located in ganglia.
various brain areas.
a. cerebellum e. medulla SPECIAL SENSES
b. corpora quadrigemina f. midbrain More than one choice may apply.
c. corpus callosum g. pons 1. Gustatory cells are
d. hypothalamus h. thalamus a. bipolar neurons.
____ 1. Region where there is a gross crossover of fibers of b. multipolar neurons.
descending pyramidal tracts c. unipolar neurons.
____ 2. Control of temperature, autonomic nervous system d. epithelial cells.
reflexes, hunger, and water balance 2. Alkaloids excite gustatory hairs mostly at the
____ 3. Houses the substantia nigra and cerebral aqueduct a. tip of the tongue.
____ 4. Relay stations for visual and auditory stimuli input; found b. back of the tongue.
in midbrain c. vallate papillae.
____ 5. Houses vital centers for control of the heart, respiration, d. fungiform papillae.
and blood pressure 3. Cranial nerves that are part of the gustatory pathway include
____ 6. Brain area through which all the sensory input is relayed to a. trigeminal.
get to the cerebral cortex b. facial.
____ 7. Brain area most concerned with equilibrium, body posture, c. hypoglossal.
and coordination of motor d. glossopharyngeal.
activity. 4. Which cranial nerve controls contraction of the circular smooth
7. The spinal cord feature associated with the leash of nerves muscle of the iris?
supplying the upper limbs is the a. Trigeminal c. Oculomotor
a. brachial plexus. b. Facial d. Abducens
b. brachial enlargement. 5. The cornea is nourished by
c. cervical enlargement. a. corneal blood vessels. c. vitreous humor.
d. lateral gray horns. b. aqueous humor. d. scleral blood vessels.
8. Which contains only motor fibers? 6. When the eye focuses for far vision,
a. Dorsal root c. Ventral root a. the lens is at its thinnest.
b. Dorsal ramus d. Ventral ramus b. the ciliary muscles contract.
9. Cranial nerves that have some function in vision include the __. c. the light rays are nearly parallel.
a. trochlear. c. abducens d. suspensory fibers of the ciliary zonule are slack.
b. trigeminal. .d. facial. 7. Convergence
10. Motor functions of the extensor muscles of the arm, forearm, a. requires contraction of the medial rectus muscles of both eyes.
and fingers would be affected by damage to which one of these b. is needed for near vision.
nerves? c. involves transmission of impulses along the abducens nerves.
a. Radial c. Ulnar d. can promote eyestrain.
b. Axillary d. Median 8. Which of the following are paired incorrectly?
11. Neuroglia present in large numbers in areas of bacterial a. Cochlear duct—cupula c. Ampulla—otoliths
infection in the brain are most likely b. Vestibule—macula d. Semicircular duct—ampulla
a. oligodendrocytes. c. ependymal cells. 9. Movement of the _______ membrane triggers bending of hairs
b. astrocytes. d. microglia. of the hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti.
a. tympanic c. basilar
b. tectorial d. vestibular
10. Sounds entering the external acoustic meatus are eventually BLOOD
converted to nerve impulses via a chain of events including _____. 1. Which would lead to increased erythropoiesis?
a. vibration of the eardrum. a. Chronic bleeding ulcer
b. vibratory motion of the ossicles against the oval window. b. Reduction in respiratory ventilation
c. stimulation of hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti. c. Decreased level of physical activity
d. resonance of the cupula. d. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys
2. In a person with sickle cell anemia, sickling of RBCs can be
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM induced by
1. The major endocrine organs of the body a. blood loss.
a. tend to be very large organs. b. vigorous exercise.
b. are closely connected with each other. c. stress.
c. all contribute to the same function (digestion). d. fever.
d. tend to lie near the midline of the body. 3. A child is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. This means that
2. Which is generally true of hormones? a. one parent had sickle cell anemia.
a. Exocrine glands produce them. b. one parent carried the sickle cell gene.
b. They travel throughout the body in the blood. c. both parents had sickle cell anemia.
c. They affect only non–hormone-producing organs. d. both parents carried the sickle cell gene.
d. All steroid hormones produce very similar physiological effects 4. Polycythemia vera will result in
in the body. a. overproduction of WBCs.
3. Which of the following hormones is (are) secreted by neurons? b. exceptionally high blood volume.
a. Oxytocin c. ADH c. abnormally high blood viscosity.
b. Insulin d. Cortisol d. abnormally low hematocrit.
4. ANP, the hormone secreted by the heart, has exactly the 5. Which of the following is not typical of leukocytes?
opposite function to this hormone secreted by the outermost zone a. Amoeboid movement
of the adrenal cortex. b. Phagocytic (some)
a. Epinephrine c. Aldosterone c. Nucleated cells
b. Cortisol d. Testosterone d. The most numerous
5. Hormones that act directly or indirectly to elevate the blood cells in the bloodstream
glucose level include which of the following? 6. The leukocyte that releases histamine and other inflammatory
a. GH c. Insulin chemicals is the
b. Cortisol d. ACTH a. basophil. c. eosinophil.
6. Hypertension may result from hypersecretion of b. monocyte. d. neutrophil.
a. thyroxine. c. aldosterone. 7. Which of the following formed elements are phagocytic?
b. cortisol. d. ADH. a. Erythrocytes c. Monocytes
7. Hormones that regulate mineral (salt) levels include b. Neutrophils d. Lymphocytes
a. calcitonin. c. atrial natriuretic peptide. 8. A condition resulting from thrombocytopenia is
b. aldosterone. d. glucagon. a. thrombus formation. c. petechiae.
8. Which of the following is given as a drug to reduce b. embolus formation. d. hemophilia.
inflammation? 9. Which of the following can cause problems in a transfusion
a. Epinephrine c. Aldosterone reaction?
b. Cortisol d. ADH a. Donor antibodies attacking recipient RBCs
9. The element needed for thyroid gland function is b. Clogging of small vessels by agglutinated clumps of RBCs
a. potassium. c. Lysis of donated RBCs
b. iodine. d. Blockage of kidney tubules
c. calcium. 10. If a Rh− mother becomes pregnant, when can hemolytic
d. manganese. disease of the newborn not possibly occur in the child?
a. If the child is Rh− c. If the father is Rh+
b. If the child is Rh+ d. If the father is Rh−
11. Plasma without the clotting proteins is called 8. In comparing a parallel artery and vein, you would find that ___.
a. serum. c. fibrin. a. the artery wall is thicker.
b. whole blood. d. tissue factor. b. the artery diameter is greater.
12. Albumin c. the artery lumen is smaller.
a. is a blood buffer. d. the artery endothelium is thicker.
b. helps maintain blood’s osmotic pressure. 9. Which of these vessels is bilaterally symmetrical (i.e., one
c. distributes body heat. vessel of the pair occurs on each side of
d. transports certain molecules. the body)?
a. Internal carotid artery c. Azygos vein
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM b. Brachiocephalic trunk d. Renal vein
1. Pulmonary veins deliver freshly oxygenated blood from the 10. A stroke that occludes a posterior cerebral artery will most
lungs to the ___. likely affect
a. right ventricle. a. hearing. c. smell.
b. left ventricle. b. vision. d. higher thought processes.
c. right atrium. 11. Vessels involved in the circulatory pathway to and/or from the
d. left atrium. brain are the
2. Given a volume of 150 ml at the end of diastole, a volume of 50 a. brachiocephalic trunk. c. internal jugular vein
ml at the end of systole, and a heart rate of 60 bpm, the cardiac b. subclavian artery. d. internal carotid artery.
output is _____. 12. Which layer of the artery wall thickens most in atherosclerosis?
a. 600 ml/min. a. Tunica media c. Tunica adventitia
b. 6 liters/min. b. Tunica intima d. Tunica externa
c. 1200 ml/min. 13. Which of the following are associated with aging?
d. 3 liters/min. a. Increasing blood pressure
3. Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV node? b. Weakening of venous valves
a. Atrial myocardium c. Arteriosclerosis
b. Ventricular myocardium d. Collapse of the ductus arteriosus
c. Bundle branches 14. An increase in BP would be caused by all of the following
d. AV bundle except
4. During atrial systole, a. increase in SV.
a. the atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure. b. increase in heart rate.
b. 70 percent of ventricular filling occurs. c. hemorrhage.
c. the AV valves are open. d. vasoconstriction of the arterioles.
d. valves prevent backflow into the great veins. 15. The most external part of the pericardium is the
5. Atrial repolarization coincides in time with the a. parietal layer of serous pericardium.
a. P wave. b. fibrous pericardium.
b. T wave. c. visceral layer of serous pericardium.
c. QRS wave. d. epicardium.
d. P-Q interval. 16. Which heart chamber pumps blood with the greatest amount of
6. Soon after the onset of ventricular systole, the force?
a. AV valves close. a. Right atrium c. Left atrium
b. semilunar valves open. b. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
c. first heart sound is heard. 17. How many cusps does the right atrioventricular valve have?
d. aortic pressure increases. a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Six
7. The base of the heart is its ______ surface. 18. Which layer of the heart wall is an endothelium?
a. diaphragmatic a. Endocardium c. Epicardium
b. superior b. Myocardium d. Pericardium
c. anterior
d. inferior
LYMPATHIC SYSTEM.
1. Lymph capillaries b. Precipitation d. Agglutination
a. are open-ended, like drinking straws. 12. Which of the following is/are examples of autoimmune
b. have continuous tight junctions, like the capillaries of the brain. disease?
c. contain endothelial cells separated by flap-like valves that can a. Type 1 diabetes c. Graves’ disease
open wide. b. Multiple sclerosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. have special barriers that stop cancer cells from entering. 13. The main cellular target of the HIV virus that causes AIDS is
2. Which parts of the lymph node show increased activity when a. helper T cells. c. macrophages.
antibody production is high? b. cytotoxic T cells. d. B cells.
a. Germinal centers c. Medullary cords
b. Outer follicle d. Medullary sinuses RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
3. Which of the following connect to the lymph node at the hilum? 1. When you exhale, air flows through respiratory structures in
a. Afferent lymphatic vessels which sequence?
b. Efferent lymphatic vessels a. Alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, larynx, trachea, pharynx, nasal
c. Trabeculae cavity
d. Anchoring filaments b. Alveolus, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, larynx, pharynx, nasal
4. Which of the following are part of MALT? cavity
a. Tonsils c. Alveolus, bronchus, bronchiole, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nasal
b. Thymus cavity
c. Peyer’s patches d. Alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nasal
d. Any lymphoid tissue along the digestive tract cavity
5. Developmentally, embryonic lymphatic vessels are most closely 2. When you inhale, the diaphragm ___.
associated with the a. relaxes and moves inferiorly.
a. veins. c. nerves. b. relaxes and moves superiorly.
b. arteries. d. thymus gland. c. contracts and moves superiorly.
6. Which of the following are among the most common indicators d. contracts and moves inferiorly.
of inflammation? 3. During inspiration, intrapulmonary pressure is ___.
a. Phagocytosis c. Leukocytosis a. greater than atmospheric pressure.
b. Edema d. Pain b. less than atmospheric pressure.
7. Chemical mediators of inflammation include c. greater than intrapleural pressure.
a. interferon. c. histamine. d. less than intrapleural pressure.
b. complement. d. antibodies. 4. Lung collapse is prevented by ____.
8. Against which of the following will interferon do some good? a. high surface tension of alveolar fluid.
a. Infection of body cells by a virus b. adhesion of the pleural membranes.
b. Circulating free viruses c. high pressure in the pleural cavities.
c. Some types of cancer d. high elasticity of lung tissue.
d. Bacterial infection 5. Disorders classified as COPDs include ___.
9. Which of these antibody classes is usually arranged as a a. pneumonia. c. bronchitis
pentamer? b. emphysema. d. sleep apnea.
a. IgG c. IgA 6. Which of the following changes will accompany the loss of lung
b. IgM d. IgD elasticity associated with aging?
10. Where exactly does an antigen bind to an antibody molecule? a. Increase in tidal volume
a. Heavy-chain constant region b. Increase in inspiratory reserve volume
b. Heavy-chain variable region c. Increase in residual volume
c. Light-chain constant region d. Increase in vital capacity
d. Light-chain variable region 7. Which of the following is not part of the conducting zone of the
11. Which of the following antibody capabilities causes a respiratory system?
transfusion reaction with A or B erythrocyte antigens? a. Pharynx
a. Neutralization c. Complement fixation b. Alveolar sac
c. Trachea d. bicarbonate-rich secretions from the pancreas.
d. Secondary bronchioles 9. A 3-year-old girl is rewarded with a hug because she is now
e. Larynx completely toilet trained. Which muscle is one that she has learned
to control?
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM a. Levator ani
1. Which of the following terms are synonyms? b. Internal anal sphincter
a. Gastrointestinal tract c. Digestive tract c. Internal and external obliques
b. Digestive system d. Alimentary canal d. External anal sphincter
2. A digestive organ that is not part of the alimentary canal is the 10. Hormones that act to decrease the blood glucose level include
a. stomach. d. large intestine. ___.
b. liver. e. pharynx a. insulin.
c. small intestine. b. glucagon.
.3. The GI tube tissue layer responsible for the actions of c. epinephrine
segmentation and peristalsis is the d. growth hormone.
a. serosa. c. muscularis externa. 11. Which events occur shortly after eating?
b. mucosa. d. submucosa. a. Use of amino acids as a major source of energy
4. Match the digestive organ listed in column B with the function b. Lipogenesis (and fat deposit)
listed in column A. c. Breakdown of fat reserves
Column A d. Increased uptake of glucose by skeletal muscles and other body
____ 1. produces bile tissues
____ 2. absorbs water 12. The material that forms the bulk of a tooth is
____ 3. churning occurs here a. cement. c. enamel.
____ 4. muscular tube connecting the laryngopharynx with the b. dentin. d. pulp.
stomach 13. Complete this statement. In glycolysis, _________ is oxidized,
____ 5. produces both endocrine and exocrine secretions and _________ is reduced.
____ 6. secretes a substance that initiates carbohydrate digestion a. vitamin-containing coenzyme; glucose
____ 7. stores bile b. ATP; ADP
____ 8. segmentation occurs here c. glucose; oxygen
Column B d. glucose; vitamin-containing coenzyme
a. salivary glands e. liver
b. esophagus f. gallbladder URINARY SYSTEM
c. stomach g. pancreas 1. Microscopic examination of a section of the kidney shows a
d. small intestine h. large intestine thick-walled vessel with glomeruli scattered in the tissue on one
5. Where in the stomach do the strongest peristaltic waves occur? side of the vessel but not on the other side. What vessel is this?
a. Body c. Fundus a. Segmental vein
b. Cardiac region d. Pylorus b. Cortical radiate artery
6. Which of these organs lies in the right hypochondriac region of c. Interlobar vein
the abdomen? d. Arcuate artery
a. Stomach c. Cecum 2. What is the glomerulus?
b. Spleen d. Liver a. The same as the renal tubule
7. Release of secretin leads to b. The same as Bowman’s capsule
a. contraction of smooth muscle in the duodenal papilla. c. The same as the nephron
b. increased secretory activity of liver cells. d. Capillaries
c. contraction of the gallbladder wall. 3. Urine passes through the ureters by which mechanism?
d. release of bicarbonate-rich fluid by the pancreas. a. Ciliary action
8. The pH of chyme entering the duodenum is adjusted by ____. b. Gravity alone
a. bile. c. Peristalsis
b. intestinal juice. d. Suction
c. enzyme secretions from the pancreas.
4. Effects of aldosterone include 5. The approximate area between the anus and clitoris in the
a. increase in sodium ion excretion. female is the
b. increase in water retention. a. peritoneum.
c. increase in potassium ion concentration in the urine. b. perineum.
d. higher blood pressure. c. vulva.
5. Which of the following is dependent on tubular secretion? d. labia.
a. Clearing penicillin from the blood 6. Which of the following attach to the ovary?
b. Removal of nitrogenous wastes that have been reabsorbed a. Fimbriae
c. Removal of excess potassium ions from the blood b. Ovarian ligament
d. Control of blood pH c. Suspensory ligaments
6. Which is a normal value for percentage of body weight that is d. Broad ligament
water for a young adult male? 7. Human ova and sperm are similar in that ___.
a. 73 percent c. 50 percent a. about the same number of each is produced per month.
b. 45 percent d. 60 percent b. they have the same degree of motility.
7. The smallest fluid compartment is the c. they are about the same size.
a. intracellular fluid. d. they have the same number of chromosomes.
b. extracellular fluid. 8. Select the false statement about the cervix of the uterus.
c. plasma. a. It is the superiormost part of the uterus.
d. interstitial fluid. b. It projects into the vagina.
8. In the carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer system, strong acids are c. Its cervical glands secrete mucus.
buffered by d. It contains the cervical canal.
a. carbonic acid. 9. Each month, typically only one ___.
b. water. a. primary follicle is stimulated.
c. bicarbonate ion. b. follicle secretes estrogens.
d. the salt of the strong acid. c. vesicular follicle undergoes ovulation.
d. ovary is stimulated.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 10. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle ____.
More than one choice may apply. a. degenerates.
1. Which of the following are accessory sex structures in the male? b. becomes a corpus luteum.
a. Gonads c. sloughs off as waste material.
b. Gametes d. mends and produces another oocyte.
c. Broad shoulders 11. The outer layer of the blastocyst, which attaches to the uterine
d. Seminal vesicles wall, is the
2. In terms of development, which of these pairs is mismatched ? a. yolk sac.
a. Vagina—penis b. inner cell mass.
b. Testis—ovary c. amnion.
c. Labia majora—scrotum d. trophoblast.
d. Uterine tube—ductus deferens 12. The usual and most desirable presentation for birth is ___.
3. The myometrium is the muscular layer of the uterus, and the a. vertex.
endometrium is the _________ layer. b. breech.
a. serosa c. nonvertex.
b. adventitia d. head first.
c. submucosa 13. During human embryonic development, organogenesis occurs
d. mucosa ___.
4. Which of the following does not describe the gonadotropins? a. during the first trimester.
a. Secreted by the pituitary gland b. during the second trimester.
b. LH and FSH c. during the third trimester.
c. Hormones with important functions in both males and females d. just before birth.
d. The sex hormones secreted by the gonads
TEST 1
1. d; 2. c; 3. superior, superficial,
proximal, lateral, medial, posterior;
4. 1-e, 2-c, 3-i, 4-f, 5-h, 6-a, 7-b, 8-d,
9-g; 5. c; 6. c; 7. c; 8. a, b, c, d.
TEST 2
1. a, c, d; 2. a, c, e; 3. a, b, c, d, e;
4. c, e; 5. b, c; 6. a; 7. a, b, c, d, e;
8. c; 9. a; 10. a, c, d
TEST 3
1. a; 2. c; 3. a, b, c; 4. e; 5. c; 6. c;
7. b; 8. b; 9. a; 10. a; 11. a, b, d, e;
12. c
1. c; 2. a; 3. b; 4. a, c; 5. a; 6. b, d;
7. c; 8. a, b; 9. b; 10. b, d; 11. d;
12. a, b, c, d; 13. A
TEST 13
1. d; 2. d; 3. b, c; 4. b; 5. b, c; 6. c; 7. b
TEST 14
1. a, c, d; 2. b; 3. c; 4. 1-e, 2-h, 3-c, 4-b,
5-g, 6-a, 7-f, 8-d; 5. d; 6. d; 7. b, d;
8. d; 9. d; 10. a; 11. b, d; 12. b; 13. D
TEST 15
1. d; 2. d; 3. c; 4. b, c, d; 5. a, b, c,
d; 6. d; 7. c; 8. C

TEST 4 TEST 16
1. c; 2. b, e; 3. c, e; 4. e; 5. a, c, d; 1. d; 2. a; 3. d; 4. d; 5. b; 6. b, c, d;
6. d; 7. c; 8. a; 9. 1-e, 2-d, 3-f, 4-b, 5-g, 7. d; 8. a; 9. c; 10. b; 11. d; 12. a, d;
6-c 13. a

TEST 5
1. a, b, d; 2. d; 3. b; 4. d; 5. a, b, c, d, e;
6. d; 7. b, d; 8. b, c, e; 9. b;
10. b; 11. 1-a, b, 2-a, 3-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c,
7-c, 8-a, 9-c; 12. 1-a, d, f; 2-b, e; 3-c

TEST 6
1. c, e; 2. a; 3. c; 4. d; 5. a, b, c, d;
6. a, b; 7. a, b, d; 8. D

TEST 7
1. d; 2. b, c; 3. d; 4. d; 5. c; 6. 1-e, 2-d,
3-f, 4-b, 5-e, 6-h, 7-a; 7. c; 8. c; 9. a,
c; 10. a; 11. d; 12. D

TEST 8
1. d; 2. b, c; 3. b, d; 4. c; 5. b; 6. a, c;
7. a, b, c, d; 8. a, c; 9. b; 10. a, b, c

TEST 9
1. d; 2. b; 3. a, c; 4. c; 5. a, b, d;
6. a, b, c, d; 7. a, b, c; 8. b; 9. B

TEST 10
1. a, b, d; 2. a, b, c, d; 3. d; 4. c;
5. d; 6. a; 7. b, c; 8. c; 9. b, c, d;
10. a, d; 11. a; 12. a, b, d.

TEST 11
1. d; 2. b; 3. d; 4. a, c; 5. c; 6. a, c;
7. b; 8. a, c; 9. a, d; 10. b; 11. a, c,
d; 12. b; 13. a, b, c; 14. c; 15. b;
16. d; 17. b; 18. A

TEST 12