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Solved exercises
by Gerardo Manuel García
Managua-Nicaragua. May, 2021
Solution:
Since, the affine space F 22 has only as its elements ( 0,0 ) , ( 0,1 ) , ( 1,0 )∧(1,1),
we can see, at a glance, that the first three listed elements yield 0 as the
value of g, and with the latter we get 1+1=0. So, for every ( x , y ) ∈ F 22 we
get g ( x , y )=0.
Solution:
We have to consider that
F 32={ ( 0,0,0 ) , ( 0,0,1 ) , ( 0,1,0 ) , ( 0,1,1 ) , ( 1,0,0 ) , ( 1,0,1 ) , ( 1,1,0 ) ,(1,1,1) }. So, we can
check that the following nonzero polynomials vanish at every point of F 32.
g ( x , y , z ) =x2 y + y 2 x
f ( x , y , z )=xyz + x y2 z
α
has an even number of terms and each term has all the variables x 1 , … , x n ,
then it vanishes at every point of F n2. We can see this by thinking that all the
elements of the affine space F n2, but one, has at least one zero as entry, so
with all of this n−1 points, f vanishes. Then, we have one element that has
no zeros, and only ones, ¿, then, since the polynomial has an even number
of terms, we will have f ¿.
Solution:
For F p−{ 0 } to be a group, we have to prove associativity, identity and
inverse.
Since the numbers 1,2 , … , p−1 are integers, the associativity holds with
this set of numbers too.
Solution:
Lagrange’s Theorem states that if H is a subgroup of a finite group G, then
the order of H is a divisor of the order of G. As a corollary, we have that if
G is a finite group and g ∈G, then the order of g divides the order of G.
Let us suppose that x ∈ F p −{ 0 }=G . Since G is a finite group, then the order
of x cannot be infinite. So, let k be the order of x. We have the following
three cases:
Case 2: k = p−1
We use a property of the residual classes module a prime p:
If p is a prime number, then a p ≡ a ( mod p ) , ∀ a ∈ Z . Since the elements of G are
integers, this property holds in G , then we have that if x ∈ G ,then x p ≡ x ( mod p ),
and multiplying by the inverse of x , we have: x p ∙ x−1 ≡ x ∙ x−1 ( mod p ) from which
we get x p−1 ≡ 1 ( mod p ) for all x ∈ F p −{ 0 }.
c) Prove that a p=a for all a ∈ F p. Hint: treat the cases a=0 and a ≠ 0
separately.
Solution
Case 1: a=0
In this case, we have that a p=0 p =0=a.
Case 2: a ≠ 0
Recalling that G=F p− { 0 } is a group under multiplication, let us suppose
that a p ≠ a(mod p). Then, a p−1 ∙ a ≠ a, so the order of a is a positive integerk,
such that k < p−1. This means that there exists a subgroup of G=F p− { 0 },
with order k, but this implies, by Langrange’s Theorem, that k ∨ p−1.
Hence p−1=km , for some m∈ Z and a p−1=amk =1 , which leads us to a
contradiction. So, a p=a(mod p) for all a ∈ F p− { 0 }.
Solution
We can use part c in this way. Since a p=a(mod p) for all a ∈ F p, then, if
x ∈ F p we have that a p=a ( mod p ) → a p−a=0( mod p), so we can write
the polynomial f ( x )=x p −x which is not the zero polynomial and
vanishes at every point of F p. Even more, the polynomials of the form
g ( x )=sx p −sx , with s ∈ F p are nonzero polynomials that vanish at every
point of F p.
4. (Requires abstract algebra.) Let F be a finite field with q elements. Adapt the
argument of Exercise 3 to prove that x q−x is a nonzero polynomial in F [ x ]
which vanishes at every point of F. This shows that proposition 5 fails for all
finite fields.
By Lagrange’s Theorem we know that if G is a finite group and g ∈G , then the order
of g divides the order of G . This means that, if m is the order of x ∈ G=F− {0 }, then
q−1=mk for some k ∈ Z +¿¿. So we have that x q−1=x mk =( x m ) k =e k =e . Where e is
the multiplicative identity of G . Hence, f ( x )=x q −1 x−x=x q−x ,vanishes for all
x ∈ F, this assertion is for all x ∈ F, because the polynomial vanishes when
x=0.
n
f =∑ gi ( x 1 , x 2 , … , x n−1 ) x in
i=0
where gi ∈k [ x 1 , x 2 ,… , x n−1 ].
f ( x )=g 5 ( y , z ) x 5+ g 4 ( y , z ) x 4 + g 3 ( y , z ) x 3+ g 2 ( y , z ) x 2+ g 1 ( y , z ) x +g 0 ( y , z )
Thinking in the same way, we have the following form for f ( y ) and f ( z ):
Case b
With h5 ( x , z )=1, h 4 ( x , z ) =0, h3 ( x , z )=−x 4 −z, h2 ( x , z )=x 5 z, h1 ( x , z )=x and
h0 ( x , z )=x 2 z +2 x−5 z+ 3, then
Case c
With q 1 ( x , y ) =x5 y 2 ++ x 2− y 3−5 and q 0 ( x , y )=−x 4 y 3 + y 5+ xy+ 2 x +3, then
f ( z )=q1 ( x , y ) z +q 0 ( x , y )
6. Inside of C n, we have the subset Z n, which consists of all points with integer
coordinates.
To prove this proposition, let us analyze the proof given by the textbook for
Proposition 5. I will give some remarks, as footnote, in order to get a better
understanding of the proof.
One direction of the proof is obvious 1 since the zero polynomial clearly
gives the zero function.
1
Let k be an infinite field and let f ∈ k [ x 1 , … , x n ] . If f =0 in k [ x 1 , … , x n ]; it means that
f =∑ aα x α =0∈which aα =0. This implies that f ( x 1 , … , x n ) =0 , for all ( x1 , … , x n ) ∈ k n , so
α
Now assume that the converse is true 2 for n−1, and let f ∈ k [ x 1 , … , x n ] be a
polynomial that vanishes at all points of k n. By collecting the various powers
of x n, we can write f in the form3
N
f =∑ gi ( x 1 , … , x n−1 ) x in ,
i=0
n−1
If we fix ( a 1 , a2 , … , an−1 ) ∈k , we get the polynomial
f ( a1 , a2 , … , an −1 , x n) ∈ k [ xn ]. By our hypothesis4 on f , this vanishes for every
a n ∈ k . It follows from the case n=1 that f ( a1 ,… , a n−1 , x n ) is the zero
polynomial in k [ x n ]. Using the above formula for f , we see that the
coefficients of f f ( a1 , a2 , … , an −1 , x n) are gi ( a1 , … , an−1 ), and thus,
gi ( a1 , … , an−1 )=0 for all i. Since ( a 1 , a2 , … , an−1 ) was arbitrarily chosen in
2
Here the assumption is: Let k be an infinite field and let f ∈ k [ x 1 , … , x n−1 ] . If f : k k−1 → k is the zero
function, then f =0 in k [ x 1 , … , x n−1 ].
3
In this form of the polynomial f the summation goes from 0 to N , where N is the highest power of x n
3 2 3 3 3 2
. So, for example, let f =2 x y z + y z −3 xyz+ y . In this polynomial, the highest power of x is
2
3
N=3, so, we can write f , collecting the various powers of x , in the form f =∑ gi ( y , z ) xi , where
i=0
3
g0 ( y , z )= y 3 z 3+ y 2, g1 ( y , z )=−3 yz , g2 ( y , z )=0 and g3 ( y , z )=2 y 2 z .
2
4
This is the hypothesis of the converse proposition (←), i.e., If f : k k → k is the zero function, then. ..so
this is stated in this part of the proof: Now assume that the converse is true for n−1, and let
f ∈ k [ x 1 , … , x n ] be a polynomial that vanishes at all points of k n.
k n−1, it follows that each gi ∈k [ x 1 , … , x n−1 ] gives the zero function on k n−1.
Our inductive assumption then implies that each gi is the zero polynomial in
k [ x 1 , … , x n−1 ]. This forces f to be the zero polynomial in k [ x 1 , … , x n ] and
completes the proof of the proposition.
N
f =∑ gi ( x 1 , … , x n−1 ) x in (¿)
i=0
n−1
If we take a fix element ( a 1 , a2 , … , an−1 ) ∈ Z , we get the polynomial
f ( a1 , a2 , … , an −1 , x n) ∈ C [ x n ]. By our hypothesis on f , this vanishes for every
a n ∈ Z . It follows from the case n=1 that f ( a1 , a2 , … , an −1 , x n) is the zero
polynomial in C [ x n ]. Using the formula (¿) for f , we can see that the
coefficients of f ( a1 , a2 , … , an −1 , x n) are gi ( a1 , a2 , … ,a n−1 ), and thus,
gi ( a1 , a2 , … ,a n−1 )=0 for all i. Since ( a 1 , a2 , … , an−1 ) was arbitrarily chosen in
n−1
Z n−1, it follows that gi ( a1 , a2 , … ,a n−1 )=0 for all ( a 1 , a2 , … , an−1 ) ∈ Z so
gi ∈C [ x 1 , x 2 ,… , x n−1 ] gives the zero function on Z n−1 . Our inductive
assumption then implies that each that each gi is the zero polynomial in
C [ x 1 , x 2 ,… , x n−1 ]. This forces f to be the zero polynomial in C [ x 1 , x 2 ,… , x n ]
and completes the proof of the proposition.
Let the proposition be true for n−1. This means that if f ∈ C [ x 1 , x 2 , … , x n−1 ]
vanishes at all points of Z n−1
M+1 then f is the zero polynomial.
M
f =∑ gi ( x 1 , … , x n−1 ) x in
i=0
5
To get a better understanding of the problem, here we have an example of the set Z nM+1 . In general,
n
Z M +1 ={( x 1 ,… , x n ) : xi ∈ Z∧1 ≤ x i ≤ M +1 }, so if M =5 , then M +1=6 and the specific set is
n
Z ={( x 1 , … , x n ) : x i ∈ Z∧1 ≤ x i ≤6 }. Since M is the largest power of any variable of f , then it must be a
6
nonnegative integer.
6
As we can see in the fourth Edition of the textbook, the right proposition is Let f ∈ C [ x 1 , x 2 , … , x n ]
and letM be the largest power of any variable that appears in f . Let Z nM+1 be the set of points of Z n, all
n
coordinates of which lie between 1 and M +1, inclusive. Prove that if f vanishes at all points of Z M+1 , then f is
the zero polynomial.
n−1
Where gi ∈ C [ x 1 , … , x n−1 ] . For a fix element ( a ,… , a n−1 ) ∈ Z M +1, we get the
polynomial f ( a , … , an−1 , x n ) ∈C [ x n ]. By our hypothesis on f ,this vanishes for
every x n in ∈ Z n−1
M +1 . So, from the case n=1, it follows that (
f a , … , an−1 , x n )
M
i
is the zero polynomial in C [ x n ]. Using the formula f =∑ gi ( x 1 , … , x n−1 ) x n,
i=0
Z n−1
M+1 it follows that each i
g ∈C [ x 1 ,… , x n−1 ] gives the zero function on Z n−1
M+1 .
Our inductive assumption then implies that each gi is the zero polynomial in
C [ x 1 ,… , x n−1 ]. So f must be the zero polynomial in C [ x 1 ,… , x n ] as desired.