Systems, Powerplant

Total 1478
Questions
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS - AEROPLANES - Fuselage
Question Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx
are:
Choices Answers Correct
A spars A
B ribs
C skin
D webs
Ref CPL A
Question The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul
flights at higher frequencies is that:
A the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
B these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights
C in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplanes
structure in an unacceptable way
D the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum D
Ref CPL A
Question Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight can be caused by:

A aileron deflection A
B wing dihedral
C propwash
D wing tip vortices
Ref CPL A
Question In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:

A skin
B spars B
C stringers
D ribs
Ref CPL A
Question The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:
A withstand the shear stresses

B assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses B
C provide sound the thermal isolation
D integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected and convert them into
a tensile stress
Ref CPL A AND H
Question DURALUMIN alloys: 1) have an aluminium-copper base 2) have an aluminium-magnesium base 3) are easy to weld
4) are difficult to weld 5) have a good thermal conductivity 6) have a poor air corrosion resistance. The
Choices combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 4, 5 A
B 2, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 6
D 2, 3, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts: 1) The mounting principle is parallel mounting 2) No routine check
is necessary 3) The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle 4) Certain components may not
Choices be accessible 5) The principle is the redundancy of components 6) The failure of a member causes the loads
to be shared between the other system components. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 5, 6 B
C 1, 3, 4
D 2, 5, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the: 1) normal
bending stresses 2) tangent bending stresses 3) torsional moment 4) shear stresses. The combination
Choices regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fail safe construction is:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fail safe construction is:

A A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the A
structure fails
B A type of construction for small aircraft only
C A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight
D A simple and cheap type of construction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Strain is defined as the:

A Ultimate load
B Yield point
C Deformation due to stress C
D Expansion due to temperature rise
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:

A Heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft
B Supersonic aircraft
C Medium range commuter type turbo-props
D Light training aircraft mainly D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to: 1) prevent electrolytic corrosion between
mating surfaces of similar metals 2) ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components 3) isolate
Choices all components electrically 4) keep all parts of the aircraft at the same potential. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 4 A
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 3
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:

A carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress
B withstand shear stresses
C provide sound and thermal isolation
D assist the skin withstand longitudinal compressive loads D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How can you tell when bonding is incorrect?

A corrosion at skin joints A
B CB trips
C static on the radio
D VOR interference
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe component is:

A a component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that
following a failure it is in the safe condition
B a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following its failure, B
the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is
detected
C a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is
assessed as remote
D a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With reference to stringers they:

A integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected and convert them into A
a tensile stress
B provide sound and thermal insulation
C perform no structural role
D withstand the shear stresses
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Define the term fatigue

A a one off loading that breaks the material
B provide sound and thermal insulation
C perform no structural role C
D withstand the shear stresses
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following statements concerning the stresses "torsion" and "tension" is correct?

A tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart
B torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart B
C torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force
D torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force pulling it apart
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of stringers in the construction of the fuselage is:

A To withstand shear stress
B To provide an attachment for insulation
C To provide support for the skin and to absorb some of the pressurisation strain as tensile C
loading
D To provide an alternate load path in the event of the failure of a frame
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:

A ribs and stringers
B stringers and spars B
C spars and skin
D spars and stringers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
A Vinyl coating
B Electric heating B
C Anti-icing fluid
D Rain repellent system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:

A the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
B wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit
windows
C rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy C
D the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?

A to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function correctly
B to protect the windows against bird strike
C to protect the windows against ice formation
D to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from:

A A glass and polycarbonate laminate A
B Triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 45o to each other
C A perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element
D A boron aluminide and glass laminate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise:

A Of only the position of the selector switch
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS - AEROPLANES - wings
Question Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise:
B A green system ON information light and an amber system failure light B

C Green or blue lights which cycle on/off with the function of the heating elements
D Amber lights when the system is functioning with a red warning should the windscreen enter an
overheat condition
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The inner surface of a heated windscreen is of:

A Soft polycarbonate A
B Triplex
C Glass
D Hard Perspex
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On large transport aircraft how is rain protection provided?

A de mist
B anti icing/de icing
C water repellent, only applied when wet C
D windscreen wipers, effective even with heavy rain
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What do you do if you encounter rain along your route of flight?

A Anti-ice helps
B Wipers are sufficient even in heavy rain
C Alcohol in the anti-ice fluid helps
D Use rain repellent with the wipers in heavy rain D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a bending
moment:
A highest at the wing root A
B equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a bending
moment:
C equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span
D lowest at the wing root
Ref CPL A
Question On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx
are:
C the skin
D the ribs
D the webs
D the spars D
Ref CPL A
Question In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending
moment which is:
D equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
D highest at the wing root D
D lowest at the wing root
D equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span
Ref CPL A
Question The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the
Choices wing tip is:
Answers Correct
A compression
B tension, then in compression
C tension
D compression, then in tension D
Ref CPL A
Question A wing structure consists primarily of:

A A front and rear main spar
B A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers B
C Ribs and stringers only
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A wing structure consists primarily of:
D Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction

Ref CPL A
Question The two deformation modes that cause wing flutter are:

A torsion and shearing
B torsion and bending B
C bending and elongation
D shearing and elongation
Ref CPL A
Question Which part of a wing, other than stressed skin construction, takes upward loads?

A ribs
B skin
C spars C
D webs
Ref CPL A
Question How can in-flight wing loading be reduced?

A aileron down float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible
B having inboard mounted engines and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible
C having inboard mounted engines and reducing the fuel at the wing tips as soon as possible
D aileron up float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible D
Ref CPL A
Question The torsion box of a modern aircraft wing structure consists of:

A Spars, skin, frames and stringers
B Spars, skin, frames and ribs
C Spars, skin, longerons and ribs
D Spars, skin, stringers and ribs D
Ref CPL A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

A By using aileron up-float and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as possible
B By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron down-float
C By using aileron up-float and using the fuel in the wings last C
D By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first
Ref CPL A
Question The advantage of mounting the tail plane on top of the vertical stabiliser is:

A to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence A
B to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation
C to have greater effectiveness at high speed
D that it does not require a de-icing system
Ref CPL A
Question What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin?

A To be more efficient at high speed
B No need for a anti-icing
C To be out of the way of the wing down wash C
D Create a pitch up by making the aeroplane tail heavy
Ref CPL A
Question The empennage consists of the:

A Horizontal stabiliser only
B Horizontal and vertical stabiliser B
C Vertical stabiliser only
D Tail plane only
Ref CPL A
Question The vertical fin of a helicopter is often of asymmetric aerofoil section to:

A Offset tail rotor loading in the hover
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The vertical fin of a helicopter is often of asymmetric aerofoil section to:
B Reduce engine power requirement in forward flight B

C Assist lateral control in forward flight
D Provide longitudinal stability in the hover
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question Generally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing
gear can be extended by:
A alternate electrical extension
B gravity extension B
C alternate pneumatic extension
D hydraulic accumulators
Ref ATPL A
Question Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1) the wheels tend to describe a
sinusoidal motion on the ground 2) the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions. This effect is
Choices overcome by means of: 3) the torque link 4) an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder. The
combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 2, 4
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A
Question The operating principle of an anti-skid system. The brake pressure will be:

A Decreased on the faster turning wheels
B Increased on the faster turning wheels
C Decreased on the slower turning wheels C
D Increased on the slower turning wheels
Ref CPL A
Question Nose wheel shimmy may be described as:

A aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Nose wheel shimmy may be described as:
B the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing
C the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect
D a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground D
Ref CPL A
Question The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1) idle wheel speed
(measured) 2) braked wheel speed (measured) 3) brake temperature (measured) 4) desired idle wheel train
Choices slipping rate 5) tyre pressure. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
C 2, 4
D 1,2,3,4,5
D 1,2,4 D
D 1,3
Ref CPL A
Question On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due to for example prolonged
braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
C a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve
D a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and D
deflates the tyre
D the “Emergency Burst” function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
temperature
D water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature
Ref CPL A
Question Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete
hydraulic system failure?
A Pneumatically
B Electrically
C Mechanically C
D By hydraulic accumulators
Ref CPL A
Question Auto brakes are disengaged:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Auto brakes are disengaged:

A when the ground spoilers are retracted
B when the speed falls below 20 kts
C on the landing roll when the auto pilot is disengaged
D by the pilot D
Ref CPL A
Question The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:

A Braking with an inoperative anti-skid system
B Taxiing with a small turning radius B
C Touch down with crosswind
D Gear down selection
Ref CPL A
Question The Abs (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing:

A by pilot action A
B automatically
C at a certain low speed
D the system is always armed
Ref CPL A
Question The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

A Drum type brake
B Multiple disk brake B
C Single disk brake
D Belt brake
Ref CPL A
Question To avoid the risk of tyre burst from over heating there is:

A a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question To avoid the risk of tyre burst from over heating there is:
B a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature B

C the Emergency Burst function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tyre temperature
D water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature
Ref CPL A
Question What brakes are used on modern transport aircraft?

A single disc brakes
B drum brakes
C multi disc brakes C
D none of the above
Ref CPL A
Question Shimmy is:

A Felt when lowering the landing gear in the air
B Movement of wheel when gear extended
C Oscillation of wheels prior to landing
D Sinusoidal and possibly damaging movement of the nose wheel on the ground D
Ref CPL A
Question The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

A to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of failure of the hydraulic system A
normally supplying the brakes
B to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system
C to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system to prevent wheel blocking
D to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1)
high heating 2) valve fragility 3) lower risk of bursting 4) better adjustment to wheels. The combination
Choices containing all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3, 4 A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1)
high heating 2) valve fragility 3) lower risk of bursting 4) better adjustment to wheels. The combination
containing all the correct statements is:
B 2, 3
C 2, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A tubeless tyre has: 1) a built-in-air tube 2) no built-in-air tube 3) a crossed side casing 4) a radial
side casing. The combination of correct statements is:
A 1, 3
B 1, 4
C 2, 3
D 2, 4 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:

D in the required position
D locked-down D
D not in the required position
D located-down and its door is locked
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:

A the brake actuators
B the master cylinders
C pressure to the rudder pedals
D the aeroplane's hydraulic system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

A will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
B its tread will deteriorate faster
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
C will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed

D will wear at the shoulders D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

A a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
braking
B a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
braking system
C designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
wheel blocking
D an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

A Pneumatically driven
B Mechanically driven
C Hydraulically driven C
D Electrically driven
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of a fusible plug is to:

A protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature
B protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature B
C function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
D protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:

A 0.1
B 1
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
C zero C
D 0.5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:

D absorb the spring tension
D control the wheels
D avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut D
D lock the landing gear
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:

A during crosswind landings
B during pushback
C making tight turns when taxiing C
D after take-off
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided.

A Fuel tank
B Cabin
C Tyres
D Wheel/Undercarriage bay D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Tyre creep may be described as the:

A circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange A
B the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature
C the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature
D gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Tyre creep may be described as the:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500
psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
A 1000 psi
B 500 psi
C 2000 psi
D 1500 psi D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:

A make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20o
B create the wheel pitch on bogie gears
C transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the
nose wheel
D prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which is (are) damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft?

A Nitrogen and a viscous fluid A
B Nitrogen
C Oxygen
D Springs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

A the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function
B the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function B
C the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping
function D the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the
heat-dissipation function
D the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question Landing gear torque links are used to:

A prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod
B take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected
C prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut C
D maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:

A prevent the brakes from overheating
B release air from the tyre in case of overheating B
C prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres
D release air from the tyre in case of overpressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:

A Never repaired
B Repaired once
C Repaired several times C
D Used on the nose wheel only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In some aircraft there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the
ground. It consists of:
A A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight on Wheels) sensor system
B An aural warning horn
C A latch located in the landing gear lever C
D A bolt
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Thermal plugs are installed in:

A cabin windows
B cargo compartments
C wheel rims C
D fire warning systems
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1) which requires solid or branched wheels 2) whose valve can be sheared in
sudden accelerations 3) whose mounting rim must be flawless 4) which requires no rim protection between rim
Choices flange and tyre removing device 5) which does not burst in the event of a tyre puncture 6) which eliminates
internal friction between the tube and the tyre. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 5, 6 A
B 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 3, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:

A the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel
B the corresponding indicator lamp is amber
C the strut is locked by an over-centre mechanism C
D it is in the down position
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-10)Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:

A 1 cantilever; 2 dual wheels; 3 half fork; 4 fork
B 1 half fork; 2 single trace; 3 cantilever; 4 dual wheels
C 1 cantilever; 2 fork; 3 half fork; 4 dual wheels C
D 1 half fork; 2 fork; 3 cantilever; 4 tandem
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a HP brake hydraulic system:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a HP brake hydraulic system:

A The aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by operation of a dual
brake control valve
B A NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to that of the brake
operating pressure
C A PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft hydraulic system fails
D A separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own accumulator and its own D
system components
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:

A At least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition A
B All wheels are up and locked
C All wheels are down and locked
D The landing has been selected down using the emergency extension system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Over centre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to:

A Lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions A
B Lock the landing gear in the up position only
C Ensure that the nose wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc
D Ensure the nose wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is:

A Oil A
B Nitrogen
C Oxygen
D Springs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:

A create the wheel pitch on bogie gears
B transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands
C prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber C
D make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20o
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by:

A A pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector
B A guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne
C Any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud
horn
D The electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they:

A release air from the tyre in the event of over pressure due to over inflation
B prevent the brakes from over heating
C prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres
D prevent tyre burst D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise: 1) Compressed CO2 2) Compressed
nitrogen 3) Compressed oxygen 4) Auxiliary hydraulic system 5) Freefall. The combination regrouping all the
Choices correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 2, 4, 5 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question VLE is the maximum:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question VLE is the maximum:

A speed authorised in flight
B speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
C speed with flaps extended in a given position
D flight speed with landing gear down D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question VLO is the maximum:

A speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety A
B flight speed with landing gear down
C speed with flaps extended in a given position
D cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1600 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic
pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected
Choices to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
Answers Correct
A 1200 psi
B 1600 psi
C 3000 psi C
D 4200 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An undercarriage leg is locked when:

A amber light is on
B it is down
C mechanically locked by an over-centre mechanism C
D actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An under inflated tyre on a dry runway:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An under inflated tyre on a dry runway:
A increases wear on the crown

B increases wear on the shoulder B
C decreases viscous aquaplaning speed
D will cause the tyre temperature to reduce
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg?

A to prevent shimmy
B to position the wheels in the correct altitude prior to landing
C to prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod
D to prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A new tyre with wear on the tread and parallel grooves:

A can be repaired once only
B can be repaired several times B
C can never be repaired
D is fit for use only on a nose wheel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does the torsion link in the landing gear suffer the most strain?

A landing
B cross wind landing B
C take off
D taxiing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An anti-skid system will:

A reduce brake pressure to slower turning wheels A
B reduce brake pressure to faster turning wheels
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An anti-skid system will:
C increase brake pressure to faster turning wheels

D increase brake pressure to slower turning wheels
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pressure for the braking system of a modern aircraft originates from:

A bottled gas
B engine bleeds
C an accumulator
D the main hydraulic system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Green lights indicate the landing gear is:

A locked down A
B locked down and door locked
C unlocked but the doors are open
D up
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are the two main types of landing gear used on modern aircraft?

A Telescopic and articulated
B Sprung leg and lever suspension
C Telescopic and sprung leg C
D Liquid spring and articulated
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In some aircraft there is protection device to avoid gear retraction on ground. It consists of:

A an aural warning horn
B a warning light activated by weight on the wheels
C a bolt
D a latch on the landing gear lever D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In some aircraft there is protection device to avoid gear retraction on ground. It consists of:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question On an aircraft landing gear, an under inflated tyre:

A will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed
B will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on a dry runway
C will wear at the shoulders C
D will suffer rapid tread wear
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In landing gear, movement is damped by:

A Nitrogen
B Nitrogen & liquid B
C Oxygen
D Springs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where are thermal plugs fitted?

A wheel rim A
B cargo bay
C fuel tank
D oil tank
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What does three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?

A the gear is down
B the gear is down and locked B
C the gear and doors are down and locked
D the gear is travelling between up and down
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A red LANDING GEAR UP warning light is fitted to some helicopters. This is to inform the pilot that:

A The helicopter is on the ground with weight on wheels
B A combination of altitude and/or airspeed is below safe operating limits with the landing gear B
retracted
C Hydraulic pressure has fallen below the locked up value
D The normal landing gear extension system has failed
Question Landing gear skids are normally manufactured from:

A Stainless steel
B Steel
C Aluminium alloy C
D Titanium
Question To prevent excessive wear on landing gear skids when landing on hard surfaces:

A Aluminium shoes are fitted to steel or titanium skids
B Sacrificial copper shoes are fitted to the titanium skids
C The underside of the steel skids are case hardened
D Steel shoes can be fitted to the aluminium skids D
Question What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which drives a hydraulic pump used for?

A Nose wheel steering
B Flap extension
C Landing gear extension if the normal system fails
D Flight controls in case of failure of the engine driven system D
Ref CPL A
Question (Refer to figure 021-01)If piston A has an area of 2 cm2 and piston B has an area of 10 cm2, when piston B
moves down by 5 cm, how far will piston A have moved?
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-01)If piston A has an area of 2 cm2 and piston B has an area of 10 cm2, when piston B
moves down by 5 cm, how far will piston A have moved?
A 25 cm A
B 5 cm
C 0. cm
D 10 cm
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a modern hydraulic system, hydraulic fuses can be found. Their function is:

A To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line A
B To switch to the secondary system it case of a leak in the primary brake system
C To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution
D To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without
further damage to the system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurised:

A in flight only
B by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine B
C by the air conditioning system
D by an auxiliary system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:

A allows two units to be operated by one pressure source
B regulates pump delivery pressure
C is a self-lapping non-return valve
D allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of the selector valve is to:

A discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The function of the selector valve is to:
B automatically activate the hydraulic system

C select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure
D communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurised in order to:

A reduce fluid combustibility
B seal the system
C keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
D prevent pump cavitation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to:

A prevent vapour locking
B ensure sufficient pump output
C prevent overheating of the pump
D prevent cavitation in the pump D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called¿

A An accumulator
B A hydraulic pump
C An actuator or jack C
D A pressure regulator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?

A At actuators
B In the reservoirs
C At the pumps C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
D At the coolers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern transport aircraft are:

A Mineral base fluids
B Water base fluids
C Vegetable base fluids
D Phosphate ester base fluids D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-06)Total number of hydraulic pumps in this hydraulic system (excluding the PTU pump)
is:
A 2
B 3
C 5 C
D 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used:

A for fluid storage
B for dampening pressure surges in the system B
C for pressure storage
D as a pressure relief valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic fluids:

A Do not require special care
B Cause high fire risk
C Are imitating to eyes and skin C
D Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:

A undercarriage selection and automatic brake system
B nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed
C flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power C
D flap extension only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic power is a function of:

A Pump RPM only
B System pressure and volume flow B
C System pressure and tank capacity
D Pump size and volume flow
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Shuttle valves will automatically:

A Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply A
B Shut down systems which are overloaded
C Guard systems against overpressure
D Reduce pump loads
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:

A Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure
B Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure B
C Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems
D Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:

A the pump output pressure is insufficient A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:
B the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit

C there is a leak in the reservoir return line
D the pump power accumulator is deflated
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a modern airliner what hydraulic fluid is used?

A Synthetic A
B Mineral
C Mineral/alcohol
D Vegetable
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A shuttle valve is used to:

A restrict the rate of operation of a system
B select the most suitable system pressure
C allow two supplies to be available to a service C
D to allow a constant volume pump to idle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:

A the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the A
fire shut-off valve
B the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210
kg/cm2)
C the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic
services but only those considered as essential
D the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic
back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:
A fluid loss
B a decreased fluid temperature
C an increased fluid temperature C
D an increased fluid pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:

A synthetic oil A
B water and glycol
C mineral oil
D vegetable oil
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will:

A increase as ambient temperature decreases
B always remain the same
C fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure C
D initially increase with system pressurisation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is:

A Mineral oil based fluid
B Water and glycol based fluid
C Synthetic fluid C
D Vegetable oil based fluid
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

A high pressure and small flow
B high pressure and large flow B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
C small pressure and large flow

D small pressure and small flow
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:

A pink
B purple B
C blue
D red
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics 1) thermal stability 2) low emulsifying
characteristics 3) corrosion resistance 4) good resistance to combustion 5) high compressibility 6) high
Choices volatility 7) high viscosity
The combination regrouping al the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5, 7
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 4, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic
pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected
Choices to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
Answers Correct
A 1200 psi
B 3000 psi B
C 4200 psi
D 1800 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then
pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
Choices should be:
Answers Correct
A 4000 psi
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then
pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be:
B 2000 psi
C 1000 psi
D 3000 psi D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:

A 4000 psi
B 3000 psi B
C 2000 psi
D 1000 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?

A At the coolers
B At the pumps B
C At the reservoirs
D At the using units
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by:

A ram air in flight only
B separate helium gas system
C air from the air conditioning system
D engine bleed air from turbine engine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates:
A a standby hydraulic pump
B a high pressure relief valve B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates:
C an accumulator
D auxiliary hydraulic motors
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?

A Purple A
B Red
C Yellow
D Pink
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:

A distribution valve
B shut off valve
C check valve C
D flow control valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-37)The schematic diagram annexed illustrates a jack and selector valve in a typical
hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout:
A a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place A
B since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces
C the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas
D the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An automatic cut out valve is used in a:

A fixed volume pressure control system A
B constant pressure system
C neither of these
D both of these
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An automatic cut out valve is used in a:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:

A reduce fluid temperature and pressure
B reduce fluid temperature only
C store fluid under pressure C
D increase pressure surges within the system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-34)The hydraulic system that works correctly is shown in:

A figure D
B figure A
C figure C
D figure B D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-40)In the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right hand side
is:
A 1 N
B 1000 N
C 20 N
D 100 N D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system:

A In conjunction with a constant delivery type pump A
B In conjunction with a variable delivery type pump
C To ensure that an equal pressure flow is delivered to critical components such as servo
actuators
D As an interface between the system and the cockpit indicators
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A single action actuator:

A Travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction
under a second application of hydraulic power
B Is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under spring B
force
C Is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only
D Cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of
travel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:

A increase pressure surges within the system
B store fluid under pressure B
C reduce fluid temperature and pressure
D reduce fluid temperature only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to:

A Their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off loaded to reduce power A
consumption
B Their low cost, simplicity and durability
C Their ability to produce high pressure combined with constant high flow rate
D The safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure and the ease of repair by
replacement of pump and shaft only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to:

A Warn of a hydraulic system overheat
B Indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system
C Warn of an impending by-pass situation C
D Indicate that the filter is due for maintenance
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Filtration in a hydraulic system is usually ensured by:

A A filter on the return line only
B A filter in the pressure line only
C Filters in both the pressure and return lines C
D The use of sealed containers only during replenishment
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a hydraulic system overheat detectors are mostly installed:

A at the coolers
B in the reservoirs
C at the actuators
D at the pumps D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:

A regulates pump delivery pressure
B is a non-return valve
C allows two units to be operated by one pressure source
D enables an alternate system to operate the same actuators in case of normal system failure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:

A Vegetable oil
B Mineral oil
C Synthetic oil C
D Water and glycol
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:

A to store fluid
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
B to damp pressure surges in the system B

C to store pressure
D to act as a pressure relief valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Should a hydraulic pump seize during operation:

A A red light will illuminate in the cockpit to warn the pilot of the failure
B The quill drive will shear to offload and protect the gearbox B
C The free wheel unit will disengage the pump from the gearbox
D The inner barrel of the pump will rotate thus off loading and protecting the gearbox
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluid is:

A purple A
B pink
C blue
D red
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:

A to eliminate the fluid flow variations
B to damp the fluid pressure variations B
C to bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system
D to enable the starting of hydraulic devices
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of an accumulator hydraulic system is to:

A store fluid
B store pressure B
C cool the fluid
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of an accumulator hydraulic system is to:
D damp system pressure oscillations

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:

A The highest to minimise power consumption and resistance to flow
B The lowest to provide excellent lubrication properties
C The lowest to minimise power consumption and resistance to flow C
D The highest to provide excellent lubrication properties
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Viscosity is:

A the temperature dependence of an oil
B the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow B
C the pressure resistance of an oil
D the flow velocity inside the oil lines
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When powering up a hydraulic system, the level in the reservoir will:

A increase as ambient temperature decreases
B always remain the same
C initially increase with system pressurisation
D decrease slightly D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

A reduce pressure to the braking system
B restrict return fluid from the anti-skid unit
C allow the parking brake to remain on
D prevent leakage if the hydraulic line breaks D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A shuttle valve will:

A automatically switch to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply A
B reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
C allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
D operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What type of hydraulic fluid is used in a modern aircraft?

A phosphate ester based A
B mineral based
C vegetable based
D water based
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What happens with the hydraulic fluid level as you energise the system?

A Stays the same
B Increases and then stays the same
C Decreases and then fluctuates C
D Increases initially and then returns
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the normal pressure in a main hydraulic system?

A 1000 psi
B 1500 psi
C 3000 psi C
D 4000 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pressure in the hydraulic accumulator is 1200 psi and the system pressure after start up is 3000 psi.
What pressure does the gauge show after start up?
A 1200 psi
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The pressure in the hydraulic accumulator is 1200 psi and the system pressure after start up is 3000 psi.
What pressure does the gauge show after start up?
B 1800 psi
C 3000 psi C
D 4200 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the colour of synthetic hydraulic oil?

A purple A
B red
C orange
D pink
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What hydraulic device acts like an electric diode?

A Shuttle valve
B Non return check/valve B
C One way restrictor valve
D Hydraulic fuse
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The result of an internal leakage in a hydraulic system is:

A fluid loss
B increase in fluid pressure
C decrease in fluid temperature
D increase in fluid temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What component converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion?

A Accumulator
B Hydraulic pump
C Reservoir
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What component converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
D Jack/actuator D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the event of the normal hydraulic pressure regulation system failing, there is fitted:

A An accumulator
B A pressure relief valve B
C An automatic cut out valve
D A non-return valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to

A allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required
B allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to avoid locking the wheels
C prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases
D prevent loss of system fluid if the pipeline to a brake unit should rupture D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of large transport aircraft is:

A 2000 3000 psi
B 3000 4000 psi B
C 1000 2000 psi
D 4000 5000 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The temperature of hydraulic fluid is measured

A after the cooler
B in the reservoir B
C at the actuator
D at the pumps
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A device in a hydraulic system which acts in the same way as a diode in an electrical circuit is a

A restrictor valve
B sequence valve
C fuse
D one way check valve D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A linear actuator has a damaged seal resulting in an internal leak. In addition to a loss of actuator
efficiency, this will result in:
A Fluid loss
B An increase in fluid pressure
C A decrease in fluid pressure
D An increase in fluid temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a Hydraulic pump switch-light low caption illuminates. The cause is assumed to be?

A Pump output pressure low A
B Reservoir quantity high
C Pump temperature high
D Engine RPM low
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Helicopter standby hydraulic pumps are:

A Usually fitted to the engine reduction gearbox
B Driven by the helicopters slipstream
C Usually driven by electric motors or the main rotor gearbox C
D For use on the ground only
Question Loss of hydraulic system pressure from one system in a dual system equipped helicopter will normally be
indicated in the cockpit by:
A A red light only
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Loss of hydraulic system pressure from one system in a dual system equipped helicopter will normally be
indicated in the cockpit by:
B A master caution and a red light accompanied by an audio warning
C A master caution, an amber light and the loss of pressure indication on the hydraulic system C
pressure gauge
D Either a red or amber light, with a loss of system pressure on the gauge accompanied by a severe
increase in stick forces
Question The following ancillary systems may be powered from the main hydraulic system on a modern commercial
helicopter: 1) Landing gear retraction 2) Fuel heat 3) Vibration tuner 4) Blade fold.
Choices The combination grouping all of the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 4
C 1, 3, 4 C
D 2, 3, 4
Question The type of hydraulic fluid most commonly used in helicopters is a:

A Mineral based fluid with high viscosity
B Vegetable based fluid with a medium viscosity
C Phosphate ester based fluid with particularly good fire resistant properties
D Mineral based fluid with low viscosity D
Question If the discharge valves fail closed in flight the effect will be:

A to potentially damage the aircraft skin
B the cabin pressure will rise to maximum differential pressure B
C the airflow will cease automatically
D the cabin altitude will increase
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question The advantages of thermal anti-icing are: 1) simple and reliable system 2) Profiles maintained 3) Greater
efficiency than that of an electrical resistor 4) Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without
Choices substantial reduction in engine thrust
The combination of correct statements is:
Answers Correct
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The advantages of thermal anti-icing are: 1) simple and reliable system 2) Profiles maintained 3) Greater
efficiency than that of an electrical resistor 4) Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without
substantial reduction in engine thrust
A 1,2 A
B 3,4
C 1,3
D 2.4
Ref All
Question A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated

A When there is approximately 1.5 cm of ice on leading edges A
B When entering areas with icing conditions
C When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
D Only at take-off and during approach
Ref All
Question During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect:

A leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps A
B the whole upper wing surface and the flaps
C slats and the leading edge flaps only
D leading edges only
Ref All
Question With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only correct statement is:

A they can only be used as de-icing devices A
B They are used extensively on modern aircraft as they are inexpensive and easy to maintain
C They can only be used as anti-icing devices
D They can be used as both de-icing and anti-icing devices
Ref All
Question In jet aeroplanes the thermal anti-ice system is primarily supplied by:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In jet aeroplanes the thermal anti-ice system is primarily supplied by:
A bleed air from the engines A

B turbo compressors
C ram air, heated via a heat exchanger
D the APU
Ref All
Question In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with
turbo-jet units is:
A Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge)
B Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid)
C Electrical (electrical resistances)
D Thermal (use of hot air) D
Ref All
Question The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the:

A Liquid de-ice system
B Electrical de-icing system
C Hot air system C
D Pneumatic system with expandable boots
Ref All
Question Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm
that:
Choices 1)They prevent ice formation
2)They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible
3)A cycle lasts more than ten seconds
4)There are more than ten cycles per second
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2-4
B 2-3 B
C 1-3
D 1-4
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

A pitot tubes
B wings B
C propellers
D engine intakes
Ref All
Question During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect:

A the whole upper wing surface and the flaps
B a part of the whole leading edge B
C slats and the leading edge flaps only
D the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface
Ref All
Question Regarding a thermal wing anti-icing system, the correct statement is:

A Aerodynamic performances on the wings are maintained and there is a reduction of maximum engine A
thrust
B Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is no reduction of maximum
engine thrust
C Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is no reduction of maximum engine
thrust
D Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is a reduction of maximum
engine thrust
Ref All
Question The wing ice protection system currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is a(n):

A pneumatic system with inflatable boots A
B electrical de-icing system
C hot air system
D liquid de-icing system
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the
only correct statement is:
A The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device A
B The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy
to maintain
C The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device

D The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
to the leading edges
Ref All
Question Where is the water separator in A/C air conditioning system?

A before the cold air unit
B after the cold air unit B
C between the compressor and turbine
D after the humidifier
Ref All
Question On a modern turbo prop aircraft the most commonly used method of anti-icing/de-icing the wings is?

A fluid
B electrical heater mats
C pneumatic boots C
D hot air bled from the engines
Ref All
Question Anti-icing in a modern jet airliner is:

A Electric
B Mechanical
C Hot air C
D Liquid
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Pneumatic boot de icing on wing leading edge:

A has a cycle that lasts longer than 10 seconds A
B has 10 cycles a second
C prevents ice build up
D should be permanently selected on
Ref All
Question In a bleed air anti icing system the areas that are heated are:

A the whole of the wing
B wing leading edge slats and flaps
C wing leading edges and slats C
D trailing edge flaps
Ref All
Question The principle upon which the Vibrating probe (Rosemount) ice-detector is based is?

A Inferential
B Accretion B
C Ice removal
D Evaporation
Ref All
Question The advantages of Thermal Anti-icing are?

A There is less disruption to the L/E airflow A
B The engine performance is reduced
C Boots operate more effectively
D Generators can be paralleled
Ref All
Question Under normal conditions the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:

A 8000 ft A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Under normal conditions the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:
B 4000 ft
C 6000 ft
D 10000 ft
Question Cabin pressurisation is regulated by the:

A The engine's bleed valve(s)
B The cabin inlet valve(s)
C The engine's RPM
D The cabin outflow valve(s) D
Question If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight) the differential pressure:

A may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken
B increases
C remains constant
D decreases D
Question Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:
A the mass air flow through the cabin is constant A
B the outflow valves will move to the fully open position
C the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure
D the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position
Question On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:

A Airflow leaving the cabin A
B Airflow entering the cabin
C RPM of the engine
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
D Bleed air valve

Question In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:

A turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet
B compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet
C secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit C
D secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit
Question If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:

A negative pressure relief valve will open A
B negative pressure relief valve will close
C outflow valve open completely
D air cycle machine will stop
Question The cabin rate of descent is:

A always the same as the airplane's rate of descent
B a cabin pressure increase B
C a cabin pressure decrease
D is not possible at constant airplane altitudes
Question If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurised cabin, this limitation is due
to the maximum:
A Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude
B Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude B
C Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling
D Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight
level), the cabin outflow valves are:
A At the pre-set position for take off
B fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude
C Partially open C
D Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude
Question A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude:
A 14000 ft (approx 4200 m)
B 10000 ft (approx 3000 m) B
C 8000 ft (approx 2400 m)
D 12000 ft (approx 3600 m)
Question On a modern large pressurised transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:

A 22 psi
B 3-5 psi
C 15 psi
D 7-9 psi D
Question The maximum cabin differential pressure of a pressurised aeroplane operating at FL 370 is approximately:

A 15.5 psi
B 3.5 psi
C 13.5 psi
D 9.0 psi D
Question The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:

A Fluid de-icing
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:
B Electrical heating
C Thermal anti-icing
D Pneumatic boots D
Question An aircraft with a pressurised cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of
the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -2000
Choices ft/min.Given that:DELTA P = Differential pressure Zc = Cabin altitude
Answers Correct
A A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000 ft
B DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open B
C The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value
D The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc
Question The purpose of a ditching control is to:

A achieve rapid depressurisation
B close the outflow valve(s) B
C open the outflow valve(s)
D direct pressurisation air to the floatation bags
Question Cabin altitude means the:

A cabin pressure expressed as altitude A
B difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling
C flight level the aircraft is flying at
D flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure
Question Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurisation in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from
the:
A by-pass ducting
B fan section
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurisation in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from
the:
C turbine section
D compressor section D
Question The cabin pressure is regulated by the:

A Air cycle machine
B Outflow valve B
C Air conditioning pack
D Cabin inlet airflow valve
Question Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between:

A local ambient pressure and mean sea level pressure
B ISA conditions and aircraft altitude
C cabin pressure and ambient pressure C
D 8000 ft pressure altitude and cabin pressure
Question Cabin air for modern airplanes is usually taken from:

A the low pressure compressor
B the second fan stage
C the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary C
D the high pressure compressor
Question Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude is maintained:
A the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position
B the outflow valves will move to the fully open position
C the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure
D a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude is maintained:
Question Main cabin temperature is:

A controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection A
B controlled by individual passenger
C not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure
D Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure
Question An aircraft with a pressurised cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure
controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.
Choices Given: VZc = Cabin rate of climb indication Zc = Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P = Differential pressure
This will result in a:
Answers Correct
A VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P increase
B VZc decrease Zc increase DELTA P decrease
C VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P decrease C
D VZc decrease Zc decrease DELTA P increase

Question The cabin differential pressure is:

D the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin
D approximately 5 psi at maximum
D approximately 15 psi at maximum
D cabin pressure minus ambient pressure D
Question What controls cabin pressurisation?

A ECS pack mass flow controller
B Outflow valve B
C Engine bleed valve
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What controls cabin pressurisation?
D Inflow valve
Question In a vapour cycle cooling system what is the purpose of the condenser?

A To remove moisture from the air by centrifugal action
B To convert the refrigerant from a liquid to a gas
C To convert the refrigerant from a gas to a liquid C
D To raise the pressure of the gas to allow efficient cooling
Question The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from:

A an electrical heater system
B a fuel heater system
C hot air coming from the engine's turbines
D hot air coming from the engine's compressors D
Question Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:

A actual cabin pressure and selected pressure
B cabin pressure and ambient air pressure B
C cockpit and passenger cabin
D cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL
Question During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

A the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10000 ft is reached
B the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
C absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for fall in pressure outside the aircraft
D cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:

A a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
B a rate of climb B
C a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes
D zero
Question (Refer to figure 021-42)In a pressurised aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window
makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order
Choices to keep the same cabin altitude is:
Answers Correct
A FL 230 A
B FL 340
C FL 280
D FL 180
Question When air is compressed for pressurisation purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:

A unaffected A
B increased
C decreased
D dependent on the degree of pressurisation
Question Assume that during cruise flight with air conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The
result would be that:
A the pressure differential would go to the maximum value A
B the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
C the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
D the air supply would automatically be stopped
Question If an aircraft suffers a decompression what happens to the indications on a cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and
differential pressure gauge?
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If an aircraft suffers a decompression what happens to the indications on a cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and
differential pressure gauge?
A VSI up, altimeter up, differential pressure gauge down A
B VSI, altimeter, differential pressure gauge all unchanged
C VSI down, altimeter up, differential pressure gauge down
D VSI up, altimeter down, differential pressure gauge down
Question The term PRESSURE CABIN applies when an aeroplane:

A has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes
B has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure B
C is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin
D has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes
Question Conditioned air is air that has:

A had any moisture removed from it
B been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure B
C had the oxygen content increased
D had the oxygen content reduced
Question Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:

A pressurisation duct relief valve(s)
B regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s) B
C engine rpm
D inward relief valve(s)
Question A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:

A position of the duct relief valve(s)
B mass air flow into the cabin
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:
C position of the inward relief valve

D position of the outflow valve(s) D
Question The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following function:
1) control the cabin altitude
Choices 2) control the cabin altitude rate-of-change
3) limitation of differential pressure
4) balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5) cabin ventilation
6) keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 2, 6, 4 A
B 5, 6, 1
C 4, 5, 3
D 1, 2, 3
Question The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurisation system is:

D regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential
D maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin D
pressure changes
D regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude
D discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude
Question Cabin pressure is controlled by:

A the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s)
B delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow B
C controlling the flow of air into the cabin with constant outflow
D the cabin air re-circulation system
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:

A roots type compressors
B single radial compressors
C main engine compressors C
D piston compressors
Question In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by:

A the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and
ambient barometric pressure
B the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure
C a rate of change selector C
D the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane
altitude
Question Conditioned air is air that has:

A oxygen content increased
B oxygen content reduced
C been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure C
D oxygen content regulated to a preset value
Question A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will:

A not affect the charge air pressure
B cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air B
C increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger
D decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger
Question An aircraft with a pressurised cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a
malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.
Given:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aircraft with a pressurised cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a
malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.
Choices Given:
CAB V/S: Cabin rate of climb indication
CAB ALT: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Pressure differential
Answers Correct
A CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT decrease DELTA P increase
B CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease
C CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P increase
D CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease D
Question Cabin air for aeroplanes is usually taken from:

A the low pressure compressor
B the second fan stage
C the high pressure compressor C
D the high pressure compressor and from the low pressure compressor if necessary
Question If the automatic control of an air conditioning system fails:

A The pilot can revert to manual control and beep the control valve to the required setting A
B The system must be shut down
C Manual control can be selected but this is limited to hot air or cold air only
D The red failure light will illuminate
Question In flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by:

A piston compressors
B engine compressors B
C ram air intakes
D single radial compressors
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of an air conditioning pack inlet flow valve (pack valve) is to:

A discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude
B regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude
C maintain a constant and sufficient air mass flow to ventilate the cabin C
D regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential
Question Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experiences a malfunction of the
pressure controller. If the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200 ft/min:
A a descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when the cabin altitude reaches
14000 ft
B the differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves B
to open
C the aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its
initial value
D the crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero cabin
altitude
Question If an aircraft maximum operating altitude is limited by the pressure cabin, this limit is controlled by:

A the maximumpositive pressure differential at maximum operating ceiling
B the maximumpositive pressure differential at maximum cabin altitude B
C the maximumnumber of pressurisation cycles
D the maximumzero fuel mass at maximum pressure altitude
Question If the pressure controller malfunctions and the outflow valve malfunctions
(remains fully open), what happens to:
Choices
(i) Cabin ROC
(ii) Cabin Altitude
(iii) Differential pressure
Answers Correct
A (i) increase, (ii) increase, (iii) decrease A
B (i) decrease, (ii) increase, (iii) decrease
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If the pressure controller malfunctions and the outflow valve malfunctions
(remains fully open), what happens to:
(i) Cabin ROC

(ii) Cabin Altitude
(iii) Differential pressure
C (i) increase, (ii) decrease, (iii) decrease

D (i) increase, (ii) increase, (iii) increase
Question If the cabin pressure tends to decrease below ambient:

A the inward relief valve will close
B the inward relief valve will open B
C the outward relief valve will open
D the outward relief valve will close
Question What defines cabin altitude?

A the same cabin altitude is maintained as outside
B the pressure altitude in the cabin B
C the difference in pressure between the cabin and outside
D the pressure altitude of the aircraft
Question Maximum differential pressure of a large transport aircraft is:

A 3-5 psi
B 7-9 psi B
C 10-14 psi
D 15-19 psi
Question (Refer to figure 021-42)Determine the maximum operating altitude for an aircraft with a maximum differential
pressure of 7 psi and a cabin altitude of 4000 ft.
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-42)Determine the maximum operating altitude for an aircraft with a maximum differential
pressure of 7 psi and a cabin altitude of 4000 ft.
A 22,000 ft
B 24,000 ft B
C 26,000 ft
D 28,000 ft
Question In a bleed air anti-icing system the areas that are heated are:

A the leading edge slats and flaps
B the whole surface of the aircraft
C the trailing edge flaps
D the leading edges of the wings and empennage D
Question The purpose of a ditching control valve is?

A close the outflow valves A
B open outflow valves
C to allow rapid depressurisation
D to dump the toilet water after landing
Question If during pressurised flight the outflow valve closes fully due to a fault in the pressure controller the:

A Skin will be overstressed and could rupture
B Safety valve opens when the differential pressure reaches structural max diff B
C The inward relief valve will open to prevent excessive negative differential
D ECS packs are automatically closed down
Question If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:

A zero
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:
B climb B
C descent
D reducing pressure
Question How is Cabin Temperature controlled in pressurised systems?

A By passengers individually
B Automatically or by the Pilot B
C Automatically
D By adding water to the processed air
Question An aircraft in straight and level flight at a constant Cabin Altitude when the Crew notice the Cabin rate of
climb indicator reads 200 ft/min. What will be the sequence of events?
A Crew should begin a climb to regain Cabin Altitude
B Cabin Altitude will increase to outside atmospheric pressure
C Cabin Altitude will descend to, and continue beyond normal max-diff, at which point the safety- C
valves will open
D Cabin Altitude will increase to, and continue beyond normal max-deiff, at which point the
safety-valves will open
Question In a Modern Jet Aircraft from where is the air supply obtained?

A From ram supply
B From the Nozzle guide vanes
C From the LP and HP compressors as required C
D From a stored gaseous source
Question If the Cabin Altitude climbs, what is happening to the differential pressure?

A Reduces A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If the Cabin Altitude climbs, what is happening to the differential pressure?
B Increases
C Remains constant
D Fluctuates
Question The normal air conditioning Cabin pressure altitude is:

A Sea Level
B 10,000 ft
C 25,000 ft
D 8,000 ft D
Question What is the purpose of the Cabin Conditioning outflow valves?

A To minimise the cabin pressure differential up to cruising altitude
B To maximise the cabin pressure differential up to cruising altitude B
C To prevent exceeding the maximum positive pressure differential
D To prevent exceeding the maximum negative pressure differential
Question In a bootstrap cooling system the supply of air is first:

A passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger
B compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine B
C passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger
D compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The term BOOTSTRAP when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:

A source of the charge air
B cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement B
C means by which pressurisation is controlled
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The term BOOTSTRAP when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:
D charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger

Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:

A in the turbine A
B in a pressure relief valve
C of Freon in a heat exchanger
D of Freon in the turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pack cooling fan provides:

A cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise
B cooling air to the pre-cooler
C air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU)
D cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbo-fan cold air until will:

A decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger
B not affect the charge air pressure
C increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger
D cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot-strap system) includes two heat exchangers, the primary
exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
A P: warms up engine bleed air S: re-circulates the cabin air, reducing its temperature
B P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: cools air behind the pack's compressor B
C P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack
D P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of the air used for air
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot-strap system) includes two heat exchangers, the primary
exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:

A allow a homogenous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in
operation
B cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator B
C cool bleed air
D allow a steady compressor outlet temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an air cycle type air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:

A an evaporator
B a compressor
C a condenser
D an expansion turbine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is placed:

A after the cooling turbine A
B before the heat exchangers
C before the cooling turbine
D just after the heat exchangers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure
regulation occurs just before the manifold by the:
A high pressure bleed air valve
B low pressure bleed air valve B
C fan bleed air valve
D intermediate pressure check-valve
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The function of an air cycle machine is to:

A remove the water from the bleed air
B decrease the pressure of the bleed air
C cool the bleed air C
D pump the conditioned air into the cabin
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?

A Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight
B Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air
C Cooling of the APU compartment
D Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The water separator of an air conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit:

A inlet and uses an evaporation process
B inlet and uses a centrifugal process
C outlet and uses an evaporation process
D outlet and uses a centrifugal process D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):

A drives the compressor which provides pressurisation
B drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air B
C increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin
D drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a BOOTSTRAP cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to:

A maintain a constant cabin mass air flow
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a BOOTSTRAP cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to:
B increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low
C ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter cooler heat exchanger
D ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pneumatic system accumulator is useful:

A to eliminate the fluid flow variations
B to eliminate the fluid pressure variations B
C to offset for the starting of some devices
D in emergency cases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:

A pressure
B temperature
C humidity C
D purity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is
achieved by:
A an expansion turbine A
B a compressor
C a condenser
D an evaporator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-41)Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by:

A the cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve
B the temperature selector only modulating the mix valve
C automatic control of the ram air
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-41)Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by:
D the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator, D
modulating the mix valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Freon air conditioning system comprises:

A A heat exchanger taking air from the engine to provide air to the cabin over a wide range of
temperatures
B An electrically driven compressor to supply warm air for heating and a heat exchanger to provide
cold air
C A compressor and heat exchanger to provide cold air to the cabin with hot air supplied from the C
engine for heating
D An electrically driven compressor and heat exchanger arrangement which uses ambient to supply
the cabin with air over a wide range of temperatures
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Cabin air for a large aeroplane during flight:

A has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value
B is temperature controlled B
C has an increased oxygen ratio
D has a reduced oxygen ratio
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot strap system) the supply of air behind the primary heat
exchanger is:
A compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally across a heat exchanger
B passed across an expansion turbine, compressed and then passed through a heat exchanger
D compressed, passed through a heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot strap system), the main water separation unit is:

A before the cooling turbine
B before the heat exchangers
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot strap system), the main water separation unit is:
C after the cooling turbines C

D just after the heat exchangers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (boot strap system), the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:

A cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine A
B allow a homogenous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in
operation
C cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system
D allow a steady compressor outlet temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a typical bootstrap cooling system the supply air is:

A compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine A
B passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat
exchanger
D passed across an expansion turbine, then through a secondary heat exchanger and then across a
compressor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an air cycle machine:

A the turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin
B the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation
C the turbine drives the compressor of the machine which causes a higher temperature, and so C
increases the second heat exchanger efficiency
D the temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air
cycle machine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Temperature regulation of an air conditioning system:

A Is automatically controlled by sensing the output temperature from the control valve in relation A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Temperature regulation of an air conditioning system:
B Cannot be automatically controlled

C Is automatically controlled by sensing cabin temperature in relation to engine compressor outlet
temperatures
D Is manually controlled by the pilot reading the cabin temperature gauge and increasing or
decreasing hot air as required
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The air conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components. These include two heat
exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat
Choices exchangers are as follows:
Answers Correct
A P: pre-cools the engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of the air used for air
conditioning of cargo compartment (animals)
B P: pre-cools the engine bleed air; S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary B
exchanger or from the pack¿s compressor
C P: warms up engine bleed air; S: re-circulates the cabin air, reducing its temperature
D P: warms up engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a bootstrap air conditioning system what is the first thing the air does?

D goes through the compressor, secondary heat exchanger, turbine D
D goes through the compressor, turbine, secondary heat exchanger
D goes through the turbine, compressor, secondary heat exchanger
D goes through the primary heat exchanger, turbine and compressor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an air cycle air conditioning system what is the function of the ground cooling fan?

A to draw cooling air over the turbine
B to draw cooling air over the heat exchangers B
C to blow air into the compressor
D to re-circulate air through the mix manifold
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The turbine in the air conditioning machine:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The turbine in the air conditioning machine:

A increases the air temperature and drives the compressor
B drives compressor and creates a temperature drop in the conditioned air B
C increases the pressure of air supply to the cabin
D is driven by the compressor and reduces the temperature of conditioned air
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The dehumidifier (water separator) is fitted:

A After the cooling system and operates on a condensation principle A
B After the cooling system and operates on an evaporation principle
C Before the cooling system and operates on a condensation principle
D Before the cooling system and operates on an evaporation principle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Why, in the bootstrap system, is the air compressed before it enters the heat exchanger?

A To provide a constant mass flow to the cabin
B To ensure maximum pressure and temperature drop across the turbine B
C To ensure most rapid cooling through the heat exchanger
D To provide a constant temperature air flow to the cabin
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The type of refrigerant used in a vapour cycle cooling system is:

A Argon
B Freon B
C Helium
D BCF
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the Bootstrap system in Cabin Pressurisation?

A The Secondary heat exchanger
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is the Bootstrap system in Cabin Pressurisation?
B The Primary heat exchanger

C The Compressor
D The Low-pressure bleed air Cold Air Unit D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the function of the heat exchanger in a bootstrap air conditioning system?

A cool the bleed air
B cool the compressor outlet air
C cool the turbine outlet air
D cool the bleed air then cool the compressor outlet air D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

A used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation
B harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike
C only used when hot air demisting is insufficient
D used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful D
life of the components
Ref All
Question Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:

A Slat leading edges
B Fin leading edges
C Pitot tubes C
D Elevator leading edges
Ref All
Question The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod
Choices 2) front glass shield
3) radome
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts
5) leading edge of wing
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod
2) front glass shield
3) radome
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts
5) leading edge of wing
6) cabin windows
7) trailing edge of wings
8) electronic equipment compartment
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5, 6
B 1, 4, 5, 7
C 1, 2, 4, 5 C
D 1, 2, 3, 8
Ref All
Question The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works:

A is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset on the stall
B can be generally ignored
C has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or lift coefficient
D causes an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin friction dragRef: AIR: D
all; HELI: irAns: D4801. The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes
works:A with anti-icing fluid
Ref All
Question Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:

A Pitot tubes A
B Pitot tubes and engine intakes
C Engine intakes
D Wing and stabiliser leading edges
Ref All
Question Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
A On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small A
surfaces (pitot-static, windshield¿)
B On modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is often
used for large surfaces de-icing
C On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they
only need little energy
D On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for
pitot-tubes static-ports, windshield¿
Ref All
Question Power for windscreen heating is usually?

A 115 volts DC
B single phase AC
C 3 phase AC C
D 28 volts DC
Ref All
Question Which of the following is true with respect to heating of pitot and static sensors:

A Pitot and static sensing is not heated on a helicopter
B Both pitot and static sensing is always heated
C Combined pitot/static tubes are always heated but static ports are never heated
D Pitot tubes are always provided with a heater while static points may also be heated D
Ref All
Question Windscreen heating systems usually:

A Depend upon the pitot monitoring the windscreen temperature probe for control of the heating
system
B Consist of warm air from the cabin conditioning system blown across the inner surfaced of the
windscreen
C Are powered from the emergency DC Bus
D Cycle on/off to maintain a windscreen temperature between approximately 18o and 35oC D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When is windscreen heating activated?

A At low altitude and moderate icing
B High altitude
C When the de-fogger isn't keeping up
D All the time to increase integrity of the windscreen for bird strikes D
Ref All
Question Electrical heating devices:

A consume little power
B are used for preventing ice on small areas eg. pitot head, windscreen only B
C are used for de-icing small areas
D can de-ice large areas because there is a large excess of electrical power available
Ref All
Question On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are:

A installed only in the centre tank
B installed in each tank
C located on the engines C
D not necessary at all
Question On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power
of the following type:
A 115 V DC
B 115 V AC B
C 28 V DC
D 28 V AC
Question The refuelling in a transport jet aircraft is made¿

A By means of the aircraft suction pumps
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The refuelling in a transport jet aircraft is made¿
B Through the refuelling cap of every tank

C Through a unique point (an under wing refuelling centre) C
D By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an under wing refuelling centre)
Question During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:

A the fuel has reached a pre-determined volume or mass A
B fuelling system has reached a certain pressure
C the surge vent tank is filled
D there is fire
Question The fuel cross feed system enables:

A the supply of the engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing
B the supply of any engine from any fuel tank B
C the supply of the outboard engines from any outboard fuel tank
D the transfer of fuel only from the centre tank to the wing tanks
Question How are modern passenger aircraft fuel tanks pressurised?

A by bleed air from the pneumatic system
B by separate reservoirs of inert gas
C by ram air through the vent system C
D by a volumetric top off unit
Question Fuel tanks on large aircraft are located:

A only in the wings
B in the wings and in the centre section
C in the wings, the centre section and sometimes the fin
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel tanks on large aircraft are located:
D in the wings, the centre section and sometimes the fin or part of the hold D
Question A twin jet aircraft would normally be refuelled by which of the following methods:

A Over wing refuelling
B Suction refuelling
C Open line refuelling
D Pressure refuelling D
Question Fuel tank booster pumps are:

A centrifugal, low pressure A
B centrifugal, high pressure
C gear type, low pressure
D gear type, high pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:

A resistivity variation of the fuel
B density variation of the fuel
C dielectric change between fuel and air C
D electrical resistance change
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:

A All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made A
before filler caps are removed
B Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated
C Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers
are readily available
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:
D Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:

D Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing D
D A pressure regulator in the wing tip
D Bleed air from the engines
D The return lines of the fuel pumps
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The automatic fuelling shut off valve:

A stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank A
B cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire
C stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent-line
D stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel dump systems are required:

A on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTWO) is significant A
higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)
B on all transport category aircraft
C on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats
D on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel is pressurised to:

A prevent cavitation
B prevent vapour lock B
C keep constant fuel flow in negative G
D prevent fuel icing
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel is pressurised to:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:

A piston pumps
B gear type pumps
C centrifugal pumps C
D diaphragm pumps
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel system boost pumps are used to:

A feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurised fuel into the engine
B avoid the bubbles accumulation
C feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure
D avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a D
positive pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:

A Prevent over pressure in the tank
B prevent the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping¿) B
C Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines
D Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight:
Choices 1) Is a limitation set by regulation

2) Is designed for a maximum load factor
3) Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root
4) Requires to empty external tanks first
5) Requires to empty internal tanks first
The correct combination of true statements is:
Answers Correct
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight:
1) Is a limitation set by regulation

2) Is designed for a maximum load factor
3) Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root
4) Requires to empty external tanks first
5) Requires to empty internal tanks first
The correct combination of true statements is:
A 2, 5
B 1, 2, 3 B
C 2, 4
D 1, 3, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The vapour lock is:

A The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine over heating
B A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble B
C The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation
D The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so
as to:
A ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity
B maintain and improve fuel heating power
C prevent at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel C
D prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:

A All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached
B 15 tons
C All fuel
D All up to a defined reserve quantity D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:

A distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
B trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
C increase the fuel level at the boost pump location C
D ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank
indicates a fuel mass of 8000 kg. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5%, the indicated
Choices fuel weight would:
Answers Correct
A decrease by 5%
B increase by 5%
C remain the same C
D increase by 10%
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pressurisation of tanks is maintained by the fuel:

A vent system A
B tank drains
C top off unit
D dump system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

A centrifugal high pressure type pumps
B centrifugal low pressure type pumps B
C high pressure variable swash plate pumps
D low pressure variable swash plate pumps
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:

A prevent fuel movement to the wing tip A
B damp out movement of the fuel in the tank
C prevent positive pressure build up inside the track
D close the vent lines in case of turbulence
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How much fuel can be jettisoned?

A A specific amount
B The captain decides
C All
D A specified amount must remain D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight of 8000 lbs if its volume
increases by 5%?
A Decreases by 5%
B Increases by 5%
C Remains the same C
D Increases by 5% for every degree rise in temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimise this when a
plane is used every day or so is to:
A keep tanks topped off when plane is not in use A
B drain tanks at end of each day's flight
C use only high octane gasoline
D keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following
range:
A 5 to 10 psi
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following
range:
B 3000 to 5000 psi
C 300 to 500 psi
D 20 to 50 psi D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-39)The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement
is carried out:
A after high pressure pump first stage (item 2)
B after low pressure valve (item 1)
C after high pressure valve (item 4) C
D in the fuel control unit (item 3)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:

A maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases A
B reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases
C increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases
D maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-09)In flight, with centre tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected
(quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).Re-balancing of the two tanks is:
A impossible without causing the APU stop
B possible with CROSSFEED open and tank 2 pumps OFF
C impossible because there is no fuel in centre tank
D possible with CROSSFEED open and tank 1 pumps OFF and tank 2 pumps ON D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel:

A to cool the pumps
B to prime the pumps B
C because their efficiency is greater
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel:
D to shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses

Ref CPL A AND H
Question VAPOR LOCK is the phenomenon by which:

A abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat
B burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an over heat and thereby
disturbing the exhaust
C heat produces vapour bubbles in the fuel line C
D water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in
fuel tanks which have not been drained properly
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary LP fuel pump is driven by:

A Hydraulic pressure
B Air pressure
C The engine C
D The electrical system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During refuelling operations:

A The aircraft should be bonded to the refueller before refuelling pipes are coupled A
B A refuelling zone is to be established to at least 100m
C Passengers are forbidden to remain on the aircraft regardless of the type of fuel being
replenished
D Radio transmissions are not forbidden
Ref CPL A AND H

A electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure
B mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gear box
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
C removable only after the associated tank has been emptied

D centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The cross-feed fuel system is used to:

A automatically fill every tank up to the desired level
B feed every engine from any fuel tank B
C allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
D allow the unusable fuel elimination
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Aircraft fuel tanks should be checked for water:

A immediately after every refuelling
B before the first flight of the day B
C during refuelling
D always before each flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel pressure is measured:

A At the outlet from the fuel control unit
B Always at the outlet of the high pressure pump only
C In the line between the booster pump and the engine or at the outlet of the high pressure filter C
D In the line between the high pressure filter and the high pressure pump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the event of an engine fire:

A An automatic shut off valve is moved to the closed position controlled by the fire sensing
system
B The fuel supply is disconnected by a quick release coupling
C The fuel supply is isolated from the engine by a pilot controlled fuel shut off valve C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In the event of an engine fire:
D The fuel installation is protected by an automatic fire extinguishing system

Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the purpose of the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in the fuel is:

A To cool the pumps
B To improve their efficiency
C To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses
D To facilitate the priming of the pumps D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel cross feed system:

A allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank A
B is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing
C is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another
D is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The engine fuel control unit (FCU) is protected from damage by debris by:

A The fine filter located between the high pressure fuel pump and the governor unit A
B A fine filter located prior to the high pressure fuel pump at the inlet to the fuel control unit
C Strainers at the inlet to the low pressure fuel pumps
D Magnetic plugs located at various positions throughout the fuel supply usually at the outlet of
fuel pumps and valves
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane’s integral fuel tank is to:

A prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines
B prevent over pressure in the tank
C restrict the fuel movements in the tank C
D prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane’s integral fuel tank is to:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question The ventilation system in a fuel tank:

A prevents low pressure or excessive overpressure in the tank A
B can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks
C prevents fuel freezing during flight in icing conditions
D prevents vapour locking in the fuel lines
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In order to ensure that al fuel on board is available to any engine on a multi-engined aircraft, it must be
fitted with:
A A jet pump
B A tank shut off valve
C A cross feed C
D Booster pumps
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The octane rating of a fuel is a measure of:

A Anti-knock capability A
B Volatility
C Conductivity of the fuel
D Viscosity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a twin jet fuel system what is the function of a feeder box?

A to equally distribute the fuel to each tank during refuelling
B to prevent pump cavitation B
C to control the amount of fuel remaining during fuel dumping
D to feed fuel to the volumetric top off unit
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel to be dumped:

A down to the unusable fuel remaining
B down to a pre-determined safe value B
C to leave 15 gallons in each tank
D down to the maximum landing weight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What does octane rating when applied to AVGAS refer to?

A the anti-knock value of the fuel A
B the volatility of the fuel
C the power the fuel produces per unit volume
D the specific gravity of the fuel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off valve close?

A when the engine fuel switch is selected on during engine start
B when flight idle is selected
C after a booster pump failure
D when the fire handle is pulled D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A volumetric top off valve works with:

A pressure sensors
B flow rate sensors
C float switches C
D capacitive sensing systems
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-09)If the centre tank is empty and there is more fuel in the left hand tank than the
right is it possible to balance the fuel in the wing tanks in flight?
A yes, if the cross feed cock is open
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-09)If the centre tank is empty and there is more fuel in the left hand tank than the
right is it possible to balance the fuel in the wing tanks in flight?
B yes, if the manual de-fuelling valve is opened
C yes, if the cross feed cock is left open and the LP pumps are turned off in the right hand tank C
D no
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What pressure would you find at the booster pump under normal conditions?

A 5-10 psi
B 20-50 psi B
C 100-200 psi
D 3000-4000 psi
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a fuel tank having a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of fuel but has a quantity of water in
it:
A The gauge will show the mass of fuel equal to the same volume as the water
B The gauge will show the volume of the water
C The gauge will show the mass of the water C
D The gauge will show full
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which fuel tanks are heated?

A wing tanks
B fuselage tanks
C all tanks
D none D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in an aircraft flown daily is:

A to secure the drain plugs and filler caps
B drain the tank at the end of each day
C fill the tank at the end of each flight C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in an aircraft flown daily is:
D drain the water prior to each flight

Ref CPL A AND H
Question Low pressure fuel pumps are:

A engine driven
B electrically driven centrifugal pumps B
C driven by the accessory gear box
D swash plate pumps with self governors
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a fuel sample is cloudy and clears slowly from the top it is an indication of:

A cold soaked fuel
B air in the fuel
C wax in the fuel
D water in the fuel D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is true concerning the structure and possible advantage of an integral fuel tank?

A it is a separate metal container that is relatively light weight
B it is built internally using the aircraft structure, this saves weight and space B
C it is constructed of rubber so it can be fitted into any free space within the aircraft
D it is a separate metal container that is relatively cheap to manufacture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What purpose do baffles serve?

A they reduce unwanted lateral movement of the fuel within the tank A
B they guide the fuel towards the booster pumps
C they give vertical strength to the fuel tank
D they strengthen the tank laterally during re-fuelling
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What does the expression useable fuel mean?

A the remaining fuel in the bottom of the tank when the pump is no longer immersed in fuel
B the total fuel on board the aircraft at start up
C the total fuel remaining at any stage of flight
D the total amount of fuel that can be supplied D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How much vent space is required in fuel tanks?

A around 10% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel
B around 5% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel
C 5% of the total tank space in each individual tank
D 2% of the total tank space in each individual tank D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How much fuel must remain after dumping?

A Sufficient for 45 minutes at range speed
B Sufficient for 45 minutes at range speed having climbed to FL 100 B
C Sufficient for 60 minutes at range speed
D Sufficient for 15 minutes at range speed having climbed to FL 100
Ref CPL A AND H
Question MZFW is:

A The recommended maximum weight of the aircraft without usable fuel
B The total maximum permissible weight of the aircraft without usable fuel B
C The actual maximum weight of the aircraft without usable fuel
D The minimum allowable weight of the aircraft without usable fuel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a refuelling volumetric top off unit (VTO) is:

A To keep the feeder box full of fuel at all times
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of a refuelling volumetric top off unit (VTO) is:
B To close the fuelling valve when the tank is full B

C To close the surge check valves in the outboard tanks to keep the tank full until the centre
tank fuel has been used
D To close the tank vent system when the tank is full
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On what principle does a fuel flow meter work?

A Volume and viscosity
B Quantity of movement B
C Capacitive dielectric
D Pressure and temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On what principle does the fuel contents gauging system work on a modern large aircraft?

A Capacity affected by dielectric therefore changing EMF of system
B Capacity affected by dielectric therefore changing resistivity of system
C Changes in dielectric causes changes in capacitance C
D Change in dielectric causes change in distance between plates and therefore changes capacitance
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of a surge box inside a fuel tank?

A Collect sediment at the bottom of the tank
B Ventilate the tank during high pressure refuelling
C Allow movement of fuel between tanks while refuelling
D Prevent sloshing of fuel away from pump inlet during abnormal manoeuvres D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel heaters are fitted:

A In the wing fuel tanks
B In the fuselage fuel tanks
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel heaters are fitted:
C In the engine fuel system mounted on the engine C

D All of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The requirement for an aircraft to have a fuel dumping system is:

A All aircraft in the Transport Category having a maximum take off mass (MTOM) of 75000 kg or
greater
B All aircraft manufactured after 1997 having a MTOM of 7500 kg or more
C Aircraft whose maximum landing mass (MLM) is significantly lower than its maximum take off mass C
(MTOM)
D All aircraft with a seating capacity of 250 or more
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Volumetric Top-off Unit (VTO), is provided in a fuel system to:

A Vent the tank to atmosphere when its full
B Allow a main feed tank to be maintained at a pre-determined level automatically, while being fed B
from an auxiliary tank
C Allow the main tank to automatically maintain a pre-determined fuel pressure
D Prevent too much fuel from being dumped
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The precautions to be taken during refuelling are:

A GPU may not be running during refuelling
B All earthing of aircraft parts to ground equipment must be completed before filler caps are B
removed
C Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone)
D No radar of HF radios under test within 10 metres
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a fuel sample appears cloudy, this is:

A an indication of air in the fuel
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If a fuel sample appears cloudy, this is:
B normal
C due to the addition of FSII
D an indication of water in the fuel D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in an aircraft flown daily is to:

A secure the filler cap tightly and plug the drains
B drain the tank at the end of each day
C fill the tank after each flight C
D drain the water before flight
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During refuelling in a pressure refuelling of a modern passenger airliner fuel system, which component would
prevent the required tank vent space being filled with fuel?
A Volumetric Top-Off Unit VTO A
B Diffuser
C Cross-Ship valve
D Jettison valve
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Aircraft Fuel Booster Pumps are:

A Centrifugal and powered by DC induction motors
B Centrifugal and powered by AC induction motors B
C Spur-Gear and powered by DC induction motors
D Spur-Gear and powered by AC induction motors
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a modern aircraft fuel gauging system, what happens when temperature changes?

A Volume remains the same
B Mass indication increases
C Mass indication decreases
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a modern aircraft fuel gauging system, what happens when temperature changes?
D Mass indication remains the same D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a Capacitance fuel gauging system, what happens to a mass of 10,000 kgs of fuel if its volume is
increased by 5%?
A Increases by 5%
B Decreases by 5%
C Remains the same C
D Fluctuates +/- 5%
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A multi-engine helicopter is usually equipped with a fuel cross-feed system:

A To allow any engine to be fed from any fuel group A
B Allowing the pilot to maintain the centre of gravity of the helicopter within limits
C Which allows gravity refuelling where pressure refuelling facilities are not available
D To automatically re-direct fuel flow in the event of engine failure
Question Fuel cells as used on helicopters:

A Produce DC power for emergency use only
B Are vented and drained to atmosphere B
C Contain fuel booster pumps which must be segregated for multi-engine helicopters
D Produce AC power for emergency use only
Question Fuel contents is measured by:

A Calculation of the centre of gravity of the helicopter
B The volume of fuel in the tank
C The weight of fuel in the tank
D The level of fuel in the tank D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel dump systems:

A Allow a rapid reduction in helicopter weight by discharging fuel to atmosphere A
B Are not fitted to helicopters
C Are systems fitted to helicopters flying in hot and high conditions to supply large amounts of
fuel to the combustion chamber, bypassing the fuel control unit, to meet power requirements
D Provide for rapid deceleration of the gas generator in the event of free power turbine overspeed
Question Fuel flow information is:

A Measured at the outlet of the high pressure fuel pump
B Not used on helicopters
C Measured in the line between the fuel control unit and the engine burners C
D Measured in the line between the booster pump and the engine
Question Fuel flow information:

A is used by the centre of gravity control system
B may be displayed on a cockpit gauge and passed to the auto pilot and navigational systems B
C is not used on helicopters
D is measured at the outlet of the booster pump
Question Fuel low level warnings usually provide the pilot with information regarding:

A Fuel pressure at the outlet of the high pressure pump
B The level of fuel in all tanks
C Fuel pressure at the outlet of the booster pump
D The level of fuel in the supply tanks D
Question Fuel management systems in helicopters:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel management systems in helicopters:
A Are usually automatic with the option of cross feed in the event of engine failure A
B Allow the pilot during public transport operations, to control the centre of gravity of the
aircraft
C usually allow the selection of fuel feed from any tank in the group to the appropriate engine
D The level of fuel in the supply tanks
Question Fuel supply to helicopter engines:

A Is always provided by booster pump only
B May be provided by booster pump, gravity feed or by suction from the engine driven fuel pump B
C May be provided by the charge delivered during pressure refuelling
D Is always a positive feed from a common fuel tank to all engines
Question Fuel system ice traps:

A Are replaced by water traps in the bottom of the fuel tanks on helicopters
B Are not required on helicopters due to the inability of the aircraft to fly at high altitude
C May be fitted in the fuel delivery line between the fuel tank and the engine C
D Are devices fitted to the engine and heated using engine oil or hot air tapped from the
compressor
Question Fuel system indications available to the pilot are normally restricted to:

A Fuel low level; Fuel flow; Fuel temperature; Fuel filter monitor; Tank transfer status
B Fuel contents and low level only
C Fuel contents; Fuel low level; Fuel pressure; Fuel flow; Fuel transfer status; Fuel filter C
condition
D Fuel flow; Tank transfer status; Fuel contents; Fuel temperature; Fuel cooler status
Question Fuel tank vents are:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel tank vents are:
A Routed so that all tanks are interconnected to maintain an equal pressure throughout the system
B Fitted to duct fuel vapour from the tank to the engine exhaust
C Fitted to the lower part of the tank and routed direct to atmosphere
D Fitted to the top of the tank to prevent tank collapse and are routed to the opposite upper part D
of the fuselage
Question Fuel tanks in modern helicopters are normally located:

A In the lower fuselage under baggage compartments
B Directly below the engines
C In the tail boom
D In the lower fuselage with the centre of gravity coinciding with aline extended from the main D
rotor mast
Question Helicopter fuel tank booster pumps:

A Are only required for cross-feed purposes
B Produce a high pressure head of fuel to the engine
C Deliver an excess to requirements quantity of fuel at low pressure C
D Are AC powered, vane type pumps
Question Helicopter fuel tank vents pass to the opposite side of the fuselage upper structure to:

A Maintain appropriate tank venting during fuel cross feed following single engine failure
B Ensure equal back pressure is passed into the vent system from the rotor downwash
C Prevent spillage of fuel should the helicopter roll over on crash landing C
D Ensure all tank groups are equally vented
Question Helicopters are refuelled:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Helicopters are refuelled:
A Using the gravity system only

B By either gravity or pressure refuelling methods B
C Using the pressure refuelling system only
D Fully on completion of flight to prevent condensation
Question In a helicopter with a twin engine installation:

A A master fuel tank is always used to ensure a head of fuel is available to both engines
B Fuel is always supplied to an individual engine from a dedicated fuel tank group with the
ability to cross feed when necessary
C Fuel is usually supplied to an individual engine from a dedicated fuel tank group with the C
ability to cross feed when necessary
D A master fuel tank is usually used with a cross feed arrangement throughout the groups of tanks
for fuel feed and centre of gravity purposes
Question Multiple fuel tanks fitted to a large twin engine helicopter are connected:

A To ensure supply to each engine whilst maintaining centre of gravity within limits A
B To each other to maintain an equal fuel level in each tank
C In groups feeding a common fuel tank for engine supply
D To allow cross feed operations to maintain the centre of gravity within limits
Question On activation of a fuel dump system:

A The pilot will be informed of free power turbine over speed by either a power failure warning
light or an over speed light
B The total fuel load will be jettisoned, the engines shut down and the helicopter enters auto
rotation
C All fuel load with the exception of the supply tanks may be discharged overboard C
D The pilot must particularly be careful of the handling of the engines to prevent overheating the
turbine
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
ELECTRICS - Direct current (DC)
Question Unusable fuel is:

A Always the same quantity irrespective of aircraft altitude or flight conditions
B Fuel drained from the helicopter due to water contamination
C Sometimes minimised by the incorporation of tank sump pads C
D The amount of fuel not available for use but included on the fuel contents gauge
Question The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:
1) automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar
Choices 2) opening of generator field current relay
3) opening of the main relay of the generator breaker
4) opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators
5) lighting of an indicator lamp
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D
Ref All
Question In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:

A static inverter
B transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) B
C 3 phase current transformer unit
D rotary converter
Ref All
Question If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the
circuit will:
A remain the same
B be zero
C decrease
D increase D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by:

A the synchronous bus-bar
B an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators
C carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures
D an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field D
excitation current of the generators
Ref All
Question In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is
necessary to ensure that:
A their voltages are almost equal A
B the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system
C equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling
D adequate voltage differences exists
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-12)In the following diagram A, B and C are respectively the:

A battery master switch, starter switch, starter relay A
B starter switch, battery master switch, starter relay
C battery master switch, starter relay, starter switch
D starter relay, starter switch, battery master switch
Ref All
Question Batteries are rated in:

A Amperes/volts
B Amperes/hours B
C Watts
D Ohms
Ref All
Question The purpose of bonding is:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of bonding is:
A to protect against lightning strikes

B to prevent static electrical charges building up
C to keep all parts of the aircraft at the same potential C
D to keep the aircraft at zero potential
Ref All
Question The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of:

A watts
B volts
C ampere hours C
D internal resistance
Ref All
Question A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:

A generator and the series winding turn
B voltage coil and the series winding
C voltage coil and the series winding turn C
D shunt exciter and the series winding turn
Ref All
Question The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are:

A series wound A
B shunt wound
C series shunt wound
D compound wound
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-11)The following diagram represents the major electrical components on a modern
transport aircraft. On this diagram A and C are:
A Rotary inverter and Battery Bus
B Rectifier and Hot Battery Bus
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-11)The following diagram represents the major electrical components on a modern
transport aircraft. On this diagram A and C are:
C Static inverter and Hot Battery Bus C
D Static inverter and AC main bus
Ref All
Question The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aeroplane is to:

A prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals
B provide a single earth for electrical devices
C provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents C
D isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant
Ref All
Question The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:

A parallel with the armature
B series with the armature
C parallel with the shunt fiel coil
D series with the shunt field coil D
Ref All
Question If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:

A has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used
B has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used
C is unserviceable C
D has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used
Ref All
Question A circuit breaker:

A is self resetting after the fault has been rectified
B may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified B
C can only be reset after major maintenance
D can be reset on the ground only
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A circuit breaker:
Ref All
Question Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases,
the voltage regulator will:
A decrease the intensity of the excitation current
B change the direction of the excitation current
C maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant
D increase the intensity of the excitation current D
Ref All
Question When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:

A voltage to decrease under load A
B voltage to increase due to the current available
C current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage
D electrolyte to boil
Ref All
Question A test to assess the state of charge of a lead acid battery would involve:

A checking the level of the electrolyte
B comparing the on-load and off-load battery voltages B
C checking the discharge current of the battery on-load
D checking the battery voltage off-load
Ref All
Question When carrying out battery condition check using the aeroplane¿s voltmeter:

A a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition A
B no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage
C the battery should be isolated
D the load condition is unimportant
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question R1 and R2 resistances are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained
is given by the following formula:
A 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
B Req = R1 + R2
C Req = R1 x R2
D 1 /Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2 D
Ref All
Question If a current is passed through a conductor wihich is positioned in a magnetic field:

A the current will increase
B a force will be exerted on the conductor B
C there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved
D the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease
Ref All
Question An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined
as a
A complete negative system
B single pole circuit B
C double pole circuit
D semi-negative system
Ref All
Question fuses are rated to a value by:

A their wattage
B the number of volts they will pass
C the number of amperes they will carry C
D their resistance measured in ohms
Ref All
Question The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is:

A power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is:
B the current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit

C current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force C
D current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force
Ref All
Question Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:

A (1) suitable for high currents (2) not suitable for high currents, fuse circuit breaker
B (1) not resettable (2) resettable B
C (1) not suitable for high currents (2) suitable for high currents, fuse circuit breaker
D (1) not resettable (2) not resettable
Ref All
Question When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field:

A an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor A
B there will be no effect on the conductor
C the field will collapse
D current will flow in accordance with Flemings let hand rule
Ref All
Question The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/40 amphours batteries, will create a unit with the following
characteristics:
A 24 volt / 40 amp hours
B volt / 40 amp hours
C 24 volt / 80 amp hours
D 12 volt / 80 amp hours D
Ref All
Question A component consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would require a supply of:

A 0.01 kv A
B 100 volts
C 5 volts
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A component consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would require a supply of:
D 0.008 kv
Ref All
Question In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because?

A their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries
B they weigh less than lead-acid batteries B
C their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous
D they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries
Ref All
Question A DC generator fited to a commercial aircraft is cooled by:

A air via a ram air intake A
B water at 8 degrees centigrade from the airconditioning system
C a fan located before the generator
D air tapped from the low pressure compressor
Ref All
Question Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and
capacity respectively of:
A 12 volt / 40 ampere hours
B 12 volt / 80 ampere hours
C 24 volt / 40 ampere hours C
D 24 volt / 80 ampere hours
Ref All
Question A bus-bar is:

A the stator of a moving coil instrument
B a device which may only be used in DC circuits
C a distribution point for electrical power C
D a device permitting operation of two or more switches together
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if:

A there is interference on the VOR receiver
B there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings
C static noises can be heard on the radio C
D a circuit breaker pops out
Ref All
Question A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken connection in a cell, the battery:

A provides 1/12th less voltage for the same time
B provides 1/12th less voltage for 1/12th less time
C is unserviceable C
D will suffer from thermal runaway
Ref All
Question A static inverter is a:

A transistorised unit used to convert DC into AC A
B device for reversing the polarity of the static charge
C static discharger
D filter against radio interference
Ref All
Question The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
Choices 1) Weight saving

2) Easy fault detection
3) Increase of short-circuit risk
4) Reduction of short-circuit risk
5) Circuits are not single-wired lines
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 3, 5
C 1, 3, 5
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
1) Weight saving
2) Easy fault detection
3) Increase of short-circuit risk
4) Reduction of short-circuit risk
5) Circuits are not single-wired lines
D 1, 2, 4 D
Ref All
Question On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel.
Their advantages are:
Choices
1) low risk of thermal runway
2) high internal resistance, hence higher power
3) good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4) wider permissible temperature range
5) good storage capability
6) sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7) the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 3, 4, 6, 7
C 3, 4, 5, 6 C
D 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
Ref All
Question The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is:

A 1.8 V
B 1.2 V
C 2.2 V C
D 1.4 V
Ref All
Question The so called HOT BUSSES or DIRECT BUSSES are:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The so called HOT BUSSES or DIRECT BUSSES are:

A directly connected to the battery A
B kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure
C automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed
D providing an alternative current
Ref All
Question A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to:

A allow a short term overload before rupturing A
B limit the current in the field circuit
C instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load
D limit the current in the armature
Ref All
Question The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:
Choices 1) from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory
2) when there is a battery overheat condition
3) in case of an internal short circuit
4) in case of a fault on the ground power unit
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3 A
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1
Ref All
Question A magnetic circuit breaker:

A is a protection system that has a quick tripping response A
B permits an overcurrent limited in time
C can be reset without any danger even when fault remains
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
D is a system with a slow response time

Ref All
Question A thermal circuit breaker:

A protects the system in the event of overload/overheating A
B uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent over heating
C limits any over current
D can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains
Ref All
Question A current limiter fuse (thermal) in a DC system is used to:

A allow a short term overload before rupturing A
B limit the current in the field circuit
C allow no overload before rupturing
D limit the current in the armature
Ref All
Question A static inverter is powered by:

A alternating current and produces an alternating current on output
B direct current and produces an alternating current output B
C direct current and produces a direct current on output
D alternating current and produces a direct current on output
Ref All
Question Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:

A the use of relays
B a series wound motor
C an alternating current motor
D an inverter D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and
capacity respectively of:
A 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours
B 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours
C 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours C
D 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours
Ref All
Question Direct current generators are connected:

A in parallel to provide maximum voltage
B in series to provide maximum power
C in series to provide maximum voltage
D in parallel to provide maximum power D
Ref All
Question Regarding Ohm's law:

A The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current
B The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit
C The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage C
D The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage
Ref All
Question The advantages of Nickel-Cadmium compared with Lead-Acid batteries are:
Choices 1) lower risk of thermal runaway

2) higher internal resistance, hence higher power
3) reduced charging time
4) constant output voltage
The combination regrouping all the correct sttements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3
B 1, 2
C 2, 4
D 3, 4 D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The advantages of Nickel-Cadmium compared with Lead-Acid batteries are:
1) lower risk of thermal runaway

2) higher internal resistance, hence higher power
3) reduced charging time
4) constant output voltage
Ref All
Question The capacity of a battery is given in:

A Ampere hours A
B Amperes/volts
C Watts
D Ohms
Ref All
Question The capacity of a battery is the:

A intensity withstood by the battery during charging
B number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration
of its cells
C no load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current
D amount of ampere hours that a fully charged battery can supply D
Ref All
Question The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:

A ohms
B volts
C watts
D amperes D
Ref All
Question To reverse the direction of rotation of a shunt type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question To reverse the direction of rotation of a shunt type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to:
A change the connections from shunt to series

B reverse the polarity of the motor connections
C reverse the polarity of either the stator or the rotor C
D connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit
Ref All
Question What are the advantages of a NICd battery?
Choices 1) More compact

2) Longer shelf life
3) An even voltage over total range before rapid discharge
4) Higher voltage than a lead acid type
Answers Correct
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2, 3 and 4
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 2 and 3 D
Ref All
Question When a fuse operates it is ___ and when a circuit breaker operates it is ____

A High current; low current
B Low current; high current
C Not re-settable; re-settable C
D Re-settable; not re-settable
Ref All
Question In a simple electrical circuit, if the power consuming devices are connected in parallel, the total current
consumed is equal to:
A The sum of the currents taken divided by the number of devices
B The sum of the currents taken by the devices B
C The sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the devices
D The sum of the individual resistances
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The total resistance of a number of power consuming devices connected in series is equal to:

A The sum of the individual resistances A
B The sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
C The reciprocal of sum of the individual resistances
D The sum of the resistances divided by the total resistance
Ref All
Question Ohm's law states:

A 1 = R/V
B R = 1/V
C 1 = V/R C
D 1 = V x R
Ref All
Question An almost discharged battery will cause:

A A decreased voltage with increasing load A
B An increased current with decreasing voltage
C A decreased current with increasing load
D An increased voltage with increasing load
Ref All
Question Electrical potential is measured in:

A Watts
B Amperes
C Ohms
D Volts D
Ref All
Question Electromotive force is measured in:

A Watts
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Electromotive force is measured in:
B Ohms
C Volts C
D Amperes
Ref All
Question Two 12V/40Ah batteries connected in parallel will produce:

A 12V 80 Ah A
B 24V 80 Ah
C 24V 40 Ah
D 12V 160 Ah
Ref All
Question An aircraft has two accumulators, each of 12V with 40 Ah capacity, connected in series. The resultant unit
has:
A A voltage of 12V and a capacity of 80 Ah
B A capacity of 120Ah and a votage of 12V
C A voltage of 24V and a capacity of 40 Ah C
D A capacity of 160 Ah and a voltage of 24V
Ref All
Question Battery voltage is tested with:

A A megameter
B A voltmeter on rated load B
C An ammeter on rated load
D A dummy load
Ref All
Question An aircraft has an accumulator with a capacity of 40 Ah. Assuming that it will provide its nominal capacity
and is discharged at the 10 hour rate:
A It will pass 40A for 10 hours
B It will pass 4A for 1 hour
C It will pass 40A for 1 hour
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aircraft has an accumulator with a capacity of 40 Ah. Assuming that it will provide its nominal capacity
and is discharged at the 10 hour rate:
D It will pass 4A for 10 hours D
Ref All
Question A significant increase in battery temperature is an indication of:

A thermal runaway A
B Excess load on the battery
C Alternator failure
D Voltage regulator failure
Ref All
Question A lead-acid battery is checked for serviceability by:

A Using an ammeter
B Measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte B
C Using an ohmmeter
D Measuring the level of the electrolyte
Ref All
Question The electrolyte in a nicked cadmium battery is:

A Hydrogen peroxide
B Nickel dioxide
C Potassium hydroxide C
D Potassium chloride
Ref All
Question When a battery is nearly discharged the:

A Voltage and current decrease A
B Voltage decrease only
C Current increases because voltage has dropped
D Electrolyte will boil
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question How do you test a battery on an aircraft with a voltmeter?

A Off load
B On load B
C There is no specific procedure
D It does not matter whether the batteries on load or off load
Ref All
Question What is a transistorised static inverter in a DC circuit used for?

A Provides main power in place of generators
B Provides DC for instruments
C Provides AC for instruments C
D Provides frequency wild AC for instruments
Ref All
Question A current limiter fuse:

A Ruptures below fault conditions
B Has a high melting point so carries considerable current overload before rupturing B
C is not used in TRU protection
D Has a low melting point so ruptures quickly if a current overload occurs
Ref All
Question The so-called hot buses or direct buses are:

A directly connected to the battery A
B kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure
C automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed
D providing an alternative current
Ref All
Question What are the advantages of NICAD batteries?

A more compact
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What are the advantages of NICAD batteries?
B longer life
C even voltage before rapid discharge C
D higher voltage than lead acid type
Ref All
Question A fuse is rated by:

A its resistance in ohms
B the current amperage it will carry B
C the voltage it will carry
D the wattage it will pass
Ref All
Question You can use circuit breakers in:

A AC circuits only
B DC circuits only
C AC or DC circuits C
D Re-settable systems
Ref All
Question If a 12 volt secondary cell battery has 6 cells and one cell is dead:

A you cannot use it A
B 1/12 of a reduction in voltage but can still be used
C 1/12 of a reduction in voltage, capacity also reduced but can still be used
D 1/12 of a reduction in capacity, voltage also reduced but can still be used
Ref All
Question With an almost discharged battery there will be:

A an increase of current with decrease of voltage
B a decrease of current with increasing load
C a decrease of voltage with increasing load C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question With an almost discharged battery there will be:
D an increase of voltage with increasing load

Ref All
Question When a battery is nearly discharged, the

A voltage decreases
B voltage and current decrease B
C current increases because voltage has dropped
D electrolyte will boil
Ref All
Question A hot busbar is one that:

A Supplies galley power
B Is permanently connected to the battery B
C Carries all of the non-essential loads
D Is connected to the battery in an emergency
Ref All
Question The battery cut-out (Reverse current relay), cuts out?

A When the battery voltage is higher than the generator voltage A
B When the battery voltage is lower than the generator voltage
C When the battery and generator voltage are the same
D Whenever the engine is stopped
Ref All
Question The total resistance of a number of resistances connected in parallel is:

A Rtot = R1 + R2 + R3
B Rtot = (R1 + R2 + R3)/3
C 1/Rtot = (R1 + R2) (R3 + R4)
D 1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:

A induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor
coil
B induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed B
inductor (field) coil
C alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies
D the alternators generate much less power than DC generators
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-15)Which of this circuit diagram symbols represents an auto-transformer?

A A
B B
C C C
D D
Ref All
Question In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay
allows:
A connection of the Auxliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar
B connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar
C connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar
D power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar D
Ref All
Question Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC
generator it can be said that the:
A exciter control relay opens
B exciter control relay and the generator breaker open B
C generator breaker opens
D exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open
Ref All
Question When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:

A voltage and frequency A
B voltage and amperage
C amperage and KVAR
D frequency and amperage
Ref All
Question In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:

A pilot has to throttle back
B pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again
C pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight C
D pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator
Ref All
Question If AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by:

A frequency regulation
B torque of the CSD
C regulating the energising current C
D voltage regulation
Ref All
Question On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by:

A the stabiliser winding jointly with the voltage regulator
B the main field winding
C a set of permanent magnets C
D the auxiliary winding
Ref All
Question As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for
paralleling AC generators:
Choices
1. Equal voltage
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for
paralleling AC generators:
1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies
4. Same phase rotation
5. Voltages of same phase
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 4, 5 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 5
D 1, 4, 5
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-15)Which of this circuit diagram symbols represents a three phase star connction?

A A
B B
C C
D D D
Ref All
Question The speed of an a synchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:

A 800 revolutions per minute
B 6000 revolutions per minute
C 12000 revolutions per minute C
D 1600 revolutions per minute
Ref All
Question The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:

A maintain a constant frequency A
B take part in the balancing of reactive loads
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
C mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling

D take part in the voltage regulation
Ref All
Question The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the:

A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor A
B number of individual poles and the field strength
C field strength and the speed of the rotor
D number of individual poles only
Ref All
Question Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:

A on the ground only
B at flight idle engine rpm
C in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator
D during engine operation only D
Ref All
Question When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another
AC generator, the over-excitation protection device opens:
A the generator breaker
B the tie breaker
C the exciter breaker and the generator breaker
D the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker D
Ref All
Question The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:

A vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads
B drive the generator at a constant speed B
C vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads
D directly maintain a constant proortion between the rpm of engine and generator
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
Ref All
Question The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:
Choices 1) simple connection

2) high starting torque
3) flexibility in use
4) lighter weight of equipment
5) easy to convert into direct current
6) easy maintenance of machines
Answers Correct
A 3, 4, 5, 6 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
D 1, 4, 6
Ref All
Question A thermal circuit breaker:

A can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains
B is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second
C forbids any overcurrent
D protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the maximum permissible D
current
Ref All
Question A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight:

A automatically resets at engine shut down
B may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism
C automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value
D may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut down D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required in an AC generator
running at 6000 rpm is:
A 4 A
B 8
C 12
D 24
Ref All
Question The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on?

A its rotation speed A
B the strength of the excitation current
C its load
D its phase balance
Ref All
Question What happens to the current in a series capacitive circuit when frequency increases?

A Increases or decreases depending on the capacity of the circuit
B Current increases B
C Current decreases
D Current neither increases nor decreases
Ref All
Question to ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel

A the matching of loads is unimportant
B both real and reactive loads must be matched B
C only reactive loads need to be matched
D only real loads need to be matched
Ref All
Question Frequency wild in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:

A output frequency varies with engine speed A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Frequency wild in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:
B output frequency is too high

C voltage regulator is out of adjustment
D output frequency is too low
Ref All
Question When a persistent over-excitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device
opens the:
A tie breaker
B exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker
C exciter breaker and generator breaker C
D generator breaker and tie breaker
Ref All
Question When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator:

A mut be synchronous
B is unimportant B
C must be in opposition
D must be 90o out of synchronisation
Ref All
Question As regards the Generator Control Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said
that:
Choices
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release
4. The Auxiliary Powr Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts up
Answers Correct
A 3, 4
B 2, 3 B
C 2, 4
D 1, 3
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by:

A carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time
B automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit B
C controlling the generator field current
D monitoring the KVAR of each generator/alternator
Ref All
Question The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:

A 60 Hz
B 200 Hz
C 50 Hz
D 400 Hz D
Ref All
Question A Constant Speed Drive aim at ensuring

A equal AC voltage from all generators
B that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine
C that the CSD remains at a constant RPM notwithstanding the generator RPM
D that the electric generator produces a constant frequency D
Ref All
Question On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
Choices 1) AC generator over-voltage

2) AC generator under-voltage
3) Over-current
4) Over-speed
5) Under-frequency
6) Undue vibration of AC generators
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4, 5 A
B 1, 2, 4, 6
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1) AC generator over-voltage
2) AC generator under-voltage
3) Over-current
4) Over-speed
5) Under-frequency
6) Undue vibration of AC generators
C 1, 3, 5, 6
D 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Ref All
Question A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are:

A low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive A
B excessive variation of voltage and KVAR
C illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light
D slight variation about the normal operating frequency
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-15)Which of this circuit diagram symbols represents a transformer with independent
primary and secondary coils?
A A A
B B
C C
D D
Ref All
Question The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:

A generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads
B batteries at varying loads
C generator at varying loads and speeds C
D output of the TRU
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both
generators:
A must be synchronised
B is unimportant B
C must be 120o out of phase
D must be 240o out of phase
Ref All
Question An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:

A does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage
B requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load B
C does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load
D requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-15)Which of this circuit diagram symbols represents a relay?

A A
B B B
C C
D D
Ref All
Question On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the:

A low oil temperature and low oil quantity
B oil temperature and synchronous speed
C output speed and oil pressure
D oil over-temperature and low oil pressure D
Ref All
Question On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from:

A the AC bus via current limiters
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from:
B a static inverter
C a DC transformer and rectifier
D a Transformer Rectifier Unit D
Ref All
Question The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:

A volts and amperes
B KVA and KVAR B
C volts and kilowatts
D amperes and kilowatts
Ref All
Question the output of a generator is controlled by:

A varying the field strength A
B varying the speed of the engine
C varying the length of wire in the armature windings
D the reverse current relay circuit breaker
Ref All
Question A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at:

A 90o
B 60o
C 45o
D 120o D
Ref All
Question In an aeroplane equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained
from:
A a rectifier
B an inverter B
C a contactor
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an aeroplane equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained
from:
D a TRU
Ref All
Question A relay is:

A an electrical security switch
B an electromagnetically operated switch B
C a switch specially designed for AC circuits
D an electrical energy conversion unit
Ref All
Question The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:

A dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing
B dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of B
static electricity
C provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling
D be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction
Ref All
Question The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the:

A battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
B generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true B
C alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
D battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
Ref All
Question The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is:

A To change DC into AC A
B To change the DC voltage
C To change AC into DC
D To avoid a short circuit
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is:
Ref All
Question Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
Choices 1) protect the aircraft against lightning effects

2) reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt
3) reduce radio interference on radio communication systems
4) set the aircraft to a single potential
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 3, 4
D 1,3, 4 D
Ref All
Question It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if:

A a circuit breaker pops out
B static noises can be heard on the radio B
C there is interference on the VOR receiver
D there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings
Ref All
Question When an OPEN CIRCUIT occurs in an electrical supply system the:

A load as indicated by the ammeter will increase
B fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn
C component will operate normally, but will not switch off
D loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning D
Ref All
Question A 'trip free' type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:

A is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A 'trip free' type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
B will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit B
C can be reset at any time
D will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit
Ref All
Question Static dischargers:
Choices 1) are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential
2) are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3) are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximately 0 volts
4) are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication systems to
a minimum
5) limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5
B 2, 4, 5 B
C 1, 3, 4
D 3, 4, 5
Ref All

A is a quick tripping response protective system A
B permits over voltagefor a short period of time
C has a slow response time
D can be reset without danger
Ref All
Question A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:

A a thermistor
B an AC generator
C a transformer rectifier unit
D an inverter D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:
Ref All
Question Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:

A reset at any time
B used only in AC circuits
C used only in DC circuits
D used in AC and DC circuits D
Ref All
Question The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:

A parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage
B series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage
C parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current consumption C
D series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption
Ref All
Question If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is in the red what action would be required?

A Throttle back and allow to cool down
B Auto disconnect
C Manually disconnect and reconnect on the ground C
D Disconnct, then when cooled reconnect
Ref All
Question In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that:

A generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load
B one generator comes on-line before the other
C generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled C
D only one generator can supply the bus-bar at the same time
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A relay is:

A a unit which is used to convert electrical energy into heat energy
B a device which is used to increase electrical power
C a magnetically operated switch C
D another name for a solenoid valve
Ref All
Question In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):
Choices 1) may be disconnected from the engine shaft

2) may be disconnected from the generator
3) is a hydro-mechanical system
4) is an electronic system
5) may ot be disconnected in flight
6) may be disconnected in flight
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 6 D
Ref All
Question On detection of a persistent over voltage/fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC bus-bars,
the on-board protection device opens:
A the exciter breaker and the generator breaker A
B the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker
C the generator breaker and tie breaker
D the generator breaker
Ref All
Question Whe an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection
device opens:
A exciter breaker
B exciter breaker and generator breaker
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Whe an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection
device opens:
C exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker
D generator breaker D
Ref All
Question In an alternator rotor coil you can find:

A AC A
B Three-phase AC
C Only induced current
D DC
Ref All
Question Load shedding means:

A To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits
B Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief valve
C A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces
D Temporary or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric D
generators
Ref All
Question When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:

A frequency
B voltage
C torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD)
D energising current D
Ref All
Question Assuming a constant speed drive (CSD) fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected?

A when the AC generator voltage is outside limits
B on the ground only
C at flight idle engine rpm only
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Assuming a constant speed drive (CSD) fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected?
D provided the engine is running D

Ref All
Question A capacitor in parallel with breaker points:

A induces a very high current across the secondary windings
B permits arcing across the points
C induces a very high voltage across the secondary windings C
D induces a very high current across the primary windings
Ref All
Question Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments on an AC bus bar, isolation of individual
equipment:
A decreases the bus bar voltage
B increases the bus bar current consumption
C decreases the bus bar current consumption C
D increases the bus bar voltage
Ref All
Question Generators, when connected to the same bus bar, are usually connected:

A dependent on the type of generator
B in a series mode
C in a parallel mode C
D dependent on the type of engine
Ref All
Question In an AC power generation system, the constant speed drive (CSD):
Choices 1) can be disconnected from the drive shaft

2) can be disconnected from the generator
5) cannot be disconnected during the flight
6) can be disconnected during the flight
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an AC power generation system, the constant speed drive (CSD):
1) can be disconnected from the drive shaft

2) can be disconnected from the generator
5) cannot be disconnected during the flight
6) can be disconnected during the flight
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 5
C 1, 3, 5 C
D 1, 4, 5
Ref All
Question In the event of an AC generator fault, on a twin engine aeroplane, the protection device will open:

A the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker
B the bus tie breaker
C the exciter control relay and the generator breaker C
D the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker
Ref All
Question On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main bus bars and
other AC generators, the protection device that opens is/are the:
A generator breaker
B generator breaker and the tie breaker(s)
C tie breaker(s) C
D exciter control relay and the generator breaker
Ref All
Question The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are:
Choices 1) presence of a permanent field

2) closed electrical circuit
3) generator terminals short-circuited
4) minimum rotation speed
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are:
1) presence of a permanent field

2) closed electrical circuit
3) generator terminals short-circuited
4) minimum rotation speed
Answers Correct
A 1, 3
B 1, 2
C 1, 4 C
D 2, 4
Ref All
Question The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:

A stator
B rotor B
C oscillator
D slip ring
Ref All
Question The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant frequency alternators is
directly controlled by:
A the voltage regulator A
B an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator
C an AC generator
D a battery
Ref All
Question The primary function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:

A vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads
B drive the generator at a constant speed B
C adjust generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The primary function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:
D directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator
Ref All
Question The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC
generator in flight are:
Choices
1) low oil pressure in the CSD
2) slight variation about the normal operating frequency
3) high oil temperature in the CSD
4) excessive variation of output voltage
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 2, 4
C 1, 3 C
D 2, 3
Ref All
Question When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:

A torque of the constant speed drive (CSD)
B frequency or load controller
C voltage controller
D excitation current D
Ref All
Question When the supply frequency in a circuit with a capacitor is increased, the current in this circuit will:

A increase A
B be zero
C decrease
D remain the same
Ref All
Question . The main features of a unipole system are:
1) Lighter
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question . The main features of a unipole system are:
Choices 1) Lighter
2) Easier fault finding
3) More likely to short circuit
4) Less likely to short circuit
5) It is not a single wire system
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4 B
C 2 only
D 1, 3 and 5
Ref All
Question A hot but bar is one that is:

A Used to provide an alternative current
B Kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistancein the case of energy failure
C Connected directly to the battery C
D Automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed
Ref All
Question What is a relay?

A A solenoid valve
B A magnetic switch B
C A device converting electrical energy into heat
D A device used in a starter motor circuit
Ref All
Question In an AC circuit:

A The battery is connected in series
B The battery cannot be used because the voltage is low
C A battery is not fitted C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an AC circuit:
D Battery output must be inverted

Ref All
Question The shunt wound generator produces an output in which:

A The voltge increases with increase in load
B The voltage remains constant with increase in load
C The voltage decreases slightly with increase in load C
D Voltage is proportional to the current
Ref All
Question In an electrical circuit the reverse current relay will open:

A When battery voltage exceeds generator voltage A
B When circuit voltage is less than generator voltage
C When the batteries are flat
D when the battery is being charged
Ref All
Question Generator cut-out (reverse current relay) contacts are kept open by:

A Magnetism
B Spring tension B
C Generator speed
D Current flow
Ref All
Question What is the purpose of the GCB?

A Controls the generator fixed excitation
B Connects a generator bus bar to a paired generator
C Connects generator to its busbar C
D Connects synchronising busbars of paralleled generators
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an aircraft which uses DC as the primary source of power, AC for the instruments may be obtained from:

A A TRU
B A rectifier
C An AC bus bar
D An inverter D
Ref All
Question Persistent over excitation of one generator field will cause:

A The GCB and exciter control relay to trip A
B The BTB and exciter control relay to trip
C The CGB and BTB to trip
D The GCB and SSB to trip
Ref All
Question In a paralleled AC distribution system what regulates the real load?

A Voltage regulator
B Main control unit
C Torque from the CSD C
D Voltge sensing unit
Ref All
Question If the load increases on a constant speed generator what does the voltage regulator do?

A Increases field excitation A
B Decreases field excitation
C Remains the same
D Operates the CSDU speed control regulator
Ref All
Question Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure may cause:

A corrosion at skip joints
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure may cause:
B CB trips
C Static on the radio C
D VOR interference
Ref All
Question What frequency is commonly used in aircraft electrical distribution systems?

A 200 Hz
B 100 Hz
C 400 Hz C
D 50 Hz
Ref All
Question A changeover relay allows:

A An APU to connect to its bus bar
B A GPU to connect to its bus bar
C Connection of AC to an unserviceable generator¿s bus bar
D An alternate source to supply an essential bus bar D
Ref All
Question What type of electrical motor is used as a starter motor?

A Series wound A
B Shunt wound
C Compound wound
D Induction
Ref All
Question The stators of a 2-phase alternator are separated by:

A 60 degrees
B 90 degrees
C 120 degrees C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The stators of a 2-phase alternator are separated by:
D 180 degrees
Ref All
Question If a CSD over heat warning is shown:

A the CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight A
B the pilot must throttle back
C the CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced
D the CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
Ref All
Question If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane with an AC generator system what disconnects?

A generator control relay and GCB A
B GCB
C BTB
D generator control relay
Ref All
Question How many pole pairs does a generator have that produces 400 Hz at 6000 rpm?

A 12
B 25
C 40
D 4 D
Ref All
Question In an aircraft which uses DC as the primary sourceof power, AC for the instruments may be obtained from:

A a rectifier
B the AC bus bar
C a TRU
D an inverter D
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Persistent over exciting of on AC generator field will cause:

A the CGB and exciter control relay to trip A
B the BTB and exciter control relay to trip
C the GCB and BTB to trip
D the GCB and SSB to trip
Ref All
Question How are the loads on an aircraft bus bar connected?

A in parallel so that current reduces through the bus bar as loads are switched off A
B in parallel so that voltage reduces through the bus bar as loads are switched off
C in series so that current reduces through the bus bar as loads are switched off
D in series so that voltage reduces through the bus bar as loads are switched off
Ref All
Question Hot/direct bus bars are:

A heated directly by bleed air
B directly connected to the battery B
C directly conncted to the DC generator
D directly conncted to the AC generator
Ref All
Question The purpose of static discharge wicks is to:

A reduce the likelihood of lightning strikes
B reduce radio interference
C discharge static from the skin after landing
D safely dissipate the static charge of the aircraft in flight D
Ref All
Question If AC generators are connected in parallel the reactive loads are balanced by adjusting:

A frequency
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If AC generators are connected in parallel the reactive loads are balanced by adjusting:
B torque of the CSD

C energising current C
D voltage
Ref All
Question The output power of a constant frequency AC system is expressed in terms of:

A Volt and ampere
B Ampere andkilowatt
C KVA and KVAR C
D volt and kilowatt
Ref All
Question If the load on a DC generator is reduced the voltage regulator will ___ the current in the exciter field?

A decrease A
B increase
C do nothing
D first reduce then increase
Ref All
Question What are the conditions necessary in order to parallel DC generators?

A voltage must be the same
B voltage must be nearly the same B
C voltage and frequency must be the same
D output frequency must be nearly the same
Ref All
Question When load sharing AC generators, real and reactive loads are adjusted by controlling:

A Frequency only
B Voltage only
C Frequency and voltage C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When load sharing AC generators, real and reactive loads are adjusted by controlling:
D CSD speed
Ref All
Question A squirrel cage tacho generator system uses:

A single phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine converted to a square wave
pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument
B three phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered to a three phase B
syschronous motor and drag cup
C a squirrel cage generator which drives an AC motor at the instrument. The AC motor drives a
rotating magnet in a drag cup
D a tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed and sending information to a squirrel cage motor
and drag cup
Ref All
Question In an AC distribution system what is the purpose of the GCB?

A Maintains constant frequency
B Conncts the load bus bar to the synchronising bus bar
C Controls generator field excitation
D Connects a generator output to its load bus bar D
Ref All
Question The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon:

A The RPM of the rotor
B The number of poles in the rotor
C The RPM and number of poles in the rotor C
D The number of poles in the rotor and the number of phase windings in the stator
Ref All
Question If an AC system is operating at a lower than designed frequency, the effect on a Transformer would be?

A None
B it would be under powered
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
ELECTRICS - Semiconductor
Question If an AC system is operating at a lower than designed frequency, the effect on a Transformer would be?
C The output would be magnified

D It could over heat due to current overload D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-13)What type of transistor is represented by the following symbol. What are the
terminals A, B and C?
A An NPN transistor with base, collector and emitter
B A PNP transistor with base, collctor and emitter B
C An NPN transistor with base, emitter and collector
D a PNP transistor with bse, emitter and collector
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-13)Which component is presented in the following diagram?

A An NPN transistor
B A PN transistor
C An NP transistor
D A PNP transistor D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-14)This symbol represents:

A a diode
B an XNOR gate
C a thyristor
D a transistor D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A diode:

A allows current flow if it lags the voltage by 90 degrees
B allows current flow if it is in phase with the voltage
C allows current to flow in one direction only C
D can be used as an inverter
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A diode:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question (Refer to figure 021-13)What are terminals A, B and C in the following diagram:

A Anode, cathode and collector
B Base, emitter and collector
C Base, collector and emitter C
D Collector, anode and cathode
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A ZENER diode is used for:

A rectification
B voltage stabilisation B
C reverse current protection
D digital displays
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-29)For this diagram, choose the answer which correctly states the outputs from the
logic circuit shown:
A Both C and D are equal to zero A
B C = 0 and D = 1
C C = 1 and D = 0
D Both C and D are equal to 1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-23)The following symbol represents __ logic gate.

A AND
B NAND B
C XOR
D NOT
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-26)The following symbol represents an ___ logic gate.

A AND
B XOR B
C NAND
D NOT
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-24)Which logic gate is equivalent to the following combination:

A NAND
B XOR
C NOR C
D OR
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-16)Which logic gate is the equivalentof the circuit below with inputs A and B and
output C?
A AND
B XOR
C NOT
D OR D
Ref CPL A AND H

A XOR
B NOT B
C AND
D OR
Ref CPL A AND H
A Both C and D are equal to 0
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
B C = 0 and D = 1
C C = 1 and D = 0 C
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-23)This symbol is:

A a NAND gate A
B a NOR gate
C an AND gate
D an OR gate
Ref CPL A AND H
B C = 0 and D = 1
C C = 1 and D = 0
D Both C and D are equal to 1 D
Ref CPL A AND H

A OR A
B XNOR
C AND
D NOT
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:

A screen unit
B keyboard B
C hard disk drive
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
D diskette drive
Ref CPL A AND H

A XNOR
B NOR
C NOT
D AND D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-17)What logic function is achieved by the following circuit, where A and B are the
inputs and C is the output?
A XNOR
B AND
C NAND
D NOR D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:

A screen unit
B printer
C key board
D hard disk drive D
Ref CPL A AND H
A Both C and D are equal to 0 A
B C = 0 and D = 1
C C = 1 and D = 0
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-22)The logic symbol shown represents an ___ gate

A NAND
B XOR
C NOT C
D AND
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In computer technology, an EPROM is:
Choices 1) a read-only memory

2) a write memory
3) erases its content when power supply is cut off
4) keeps its content when power supply is cut off
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 3
C 2, 3
D 1, 4 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:

A ensure the input signal is DC only
B ensure the input signal is AC only
C invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state C
D ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-20)What does the following truth table represent?

A A NAND gate A
B An XOR gate
C An OR gate
D A NOR gate
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Ref CPL A AND H

Question (Refer to figure 021-28)Which gate has the following truth table?

A AND
B XOR B
C NOT
D OR
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:

A screen unit A
B keyboard
C hard disk drive
D diskette drive
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the:

A all or nothing gate
B inhibited or negated gate
C state indicator gate
D any or all gate D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-21)What is the name of the following logic gate?

A XOR
B AND B
C OR
D NOT
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:

A any of all gate
B all or nothing gate B
C state indicator gate
D inhibited or negated gate
Ref CPL A AND H

A Exclusive AND
B Exclusive OR
C OR
D NOR D
Ref CPL A AND H
B C = 0 and D = 1 B
C C = 1 and D = 0
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-21)The symbol on the picture represents:

A an OR gate
B an AND gate B
C an EXCLUSIVE OR gate
D a NOT gate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-22)What does the following symbol represent?

A a diode
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-22)What does the following symbol represent?
B an invert gate B
C a toggle switch
D a flip-flop
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-22)The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic):

A a NAND gate
B a NOR gate
C an EXCLUSIVE gate
D an INVERT or NOT gate D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-27)The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four
sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are associated with the logic circuit as described by the diagram. The
Choices repeating bell is activated when:
Answers Correct
A the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke
B the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke B
C the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke
D only one sensor detects smoke
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:
Choices 1) an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)

2) a control and timing unit
3) registers
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1, 3
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3 C
D 2, 3
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The type of gate that requires all TRUE inputs for a TRUE output is:

A AND A
B OR
C NAND
D NOR
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Because of its function an AND gate is also referred to as a:

A all or nothing gate A
B any or nothing gate
C invert or not gate
D either or gate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An Or Gate is also known as:

A An all or nothing gate
B An any or all gate B
C An exclusive or gate
D A nor gate
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A radio signal loses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:

A refraction
B attenuation B
C propagation
D ducting
Ref All
Question The Marker beacons use the following wavelengths:

A metric A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Marker beacons use the following wavelengths:
B centimtric
C hectometric
D myriametric
Ref All
Question An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that refracts from the E layer in the Ionosphere. The
maximum distance of the first returning skywave is:
A 599 NM
B 599 km
C 1500 NM C
D 1500 km
Ref All
Question In aviation, the reflction on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:

A VHF
B HF B
C UHF
D VLF
Ref All
Question The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths:

A myriametric
B metric
C hectometric
D centimtric D
Ref All
Question The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:

A metric A
B hectometric
C decimetric
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
D centimetric
Ref All
Question If the strength of a radio signal decreases away from the transmitter, this effect is called:

A attenuation A
B ducting
C amplification
D refraction
Ref All
Question In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found:

A by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves
B at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves B
C by day and when raining
D at night and when raining
Ref All
Question MF fading is most common:

A during the day due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves
B during the day and during heavy rain
C at night and during heavy rain
D at night due to the reception of both sky waves and ground waves D
Ref All
Question The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:

A 4m A
B 40m
C 7.5m
D 75m
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:

A 2500 kHz
B 2500 MHz B
C 360 MHz
D 3600 MHz
Ref All
Question The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:

A 2.53 m A
B 25.3 m
C 2.53 cm
D 25.3 cm
Ref All
Question Using a medium frequency band when is fading likely to occur?

A Day time and raining
B Night time and raining
C Day with sky and ground waves
D Night with sky and ground waves D
Ref All
Question A horizontally polarised electromagnetic wave:

A Has the H field horizontal
B Has the Z field horizontal
C Has the E field vertical
D Has the E field horizontal D
Ref All
Question An electromagnetic wave has two types of energy field:

A An H electrical field and an E magnetic field
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An electromagnetic wave has two types of energy field:
B A Z electrical field and an H magnetic field

C An E electrical field and an H magnetic field C
D An Z magnetic field and an E electrical field
Ref All
Question Electromagnetic waves travel at:

A 300,000 metres per second
B The speed of sound
C The speed of light C
D 186,000 miles per hour
Ref All
Question The VHF frequency band is in the:

A 3 to 30 kHz range
B 30 to 300 kHz range
C 3 to 30 MHz range
D 30 to 300 MHz range D
Ref All
Question Wavelength is the distance from:

A Wave crest to the next trough
B Wave crest to wave crest B
C Trough to the next wave crest
D The E to the H field superimposed onto the system reactance background scatter
Ref All
Question Frequency is defined as the:

A Number of complete cycles recurring in one unit of time A
B Distance between a crest and a crest
C Number of complete cycles recurring in ten units of time
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Frequency is defined as the:
D Distance from the axis to the peak value

Ref All
Question Assuming a frequency of 20 MHz, wavelength will be:

A 1.5m
B 15m B
C 150m
D 0.15m
Ref All
Question Assuming a wavelength of 1 cm, frequency will be:

A 30 MHz
B 30 GHz B
C 3.0 GHz
D 0.3 GHz
Ref All
Question A radio transmitter modulator:

A Superimposes an audio frequency signal (AF) onto a radio frequency signal (RF) A
B Couples the RF signal to an aerial
C Tunes the aerial only
D Ensures receiver compatibility
Ref All
Question Feeder lines are of the following types:

A Co-axial up to 3000 MHz; wave guides above 3000 MHz A
B Co-axial above 3000 MHz; wave guides up to 3000 MHz
C Co-axial up to 300 kHz; wave guides above 300 kHz
D Wave guides up to 30 MHz; co-axial above 30 MHz
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Signals that are modulated in amplitude, frequency or pulse are classified as:

A E, H or X respectively
B A, F or P respectively B
C X, Y or Z respectively
D A, B or C respectively
Ref All
Question Attenuation is a generic term for:

A Increase in power
B Loss of power B
C Refraction
D Loss of power but is only relevant to space waves
Ref All
Question Diffraction is the process by which:

A A space wave penetrates the ionosphere
B A ground wave is attenuated over rough ground
C Radio wave travel over and around obstacles C
D A direct wave is bent around the form of the earth
Ref All
Question SELCAL is an equipment that:

A Is coupled with TCAS II and is to do with TA warning systems
B Automatically transmits data signals
C Automatically receives incoming signals C
D Functions as a frequency modulator
Ref All
Question What is the wavelength of a VOR?

A Metric A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is the wavelength of a VOR?
B Decimetric
C Heximetric
D Centimetric
Ref All
Question What is the wavelength that corresponds to the frequency 121.95 MHz?

A 246 m
B 2.46 cm
C 2.46 m C
D 24.6 m
Ref All
Question Skip distance is longest by (i) ___ and with a (ii) ___ frequency.

A (i) day (ii) low
B (i) day (ii) high
C (i) night (ii) low
D (i) night (ii) high D
Ref All
Question Into what range does the ILS wavelength fall?

A Decimetric
B Metric B
C Manometric
D Millimetric
Ref All
Question What is the frequency band for ADF?

A hectometric A
B metric
C centimetric
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is the frequency band for ADF?
D decimetric
Ref All
Question Fading happens:

A In daytime when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other
B At night when the signal is received by ground waves only
C At day time when the signal is received by sky waves only
D At night when ground waves and sky waves interfere with each other D
Ref All
Question The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:

A myriametric
B centimetric
C hectometric
D decimetric D
Ref All
Question Skip distance is the:

A highest critical frequency distance
B range from the transmitter to the first skywave B
C wavelength distance of a certain frequency
D thickness of the ionosphere
Ref All
Question In the response curve of an amplifier, the band width is:

A The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels
B The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain
C The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels C
D The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end
Ref All
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:

A decimetric
B hectometric
C metric C
D centimetric
Ref All
Question The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 Khz is:

A 1000 metres A
B 100 metres
C 10 metres
D 1 metre
Ref All
Question The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

A myriametric
B centimtric B
C decimetric
D metric
Ref All
Question For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because:

A Its penetration power is higher
B It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power B
C It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations

D It allows greater scanning rates
Ref All
Question The high Altitude Radio Altimter uses the following wavelengths:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The high Altitude Radio Altimter uses the following wavelengths:
A hectometric
B metric
C decimetric C
D myriametric
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 021-03) In the diagram below what is the phase difference of the higher amplitude signal
from the reference signal?
Choices
Answers Correct
A 135o
B 225o B
C 315o
D 045o
Ref All
Question When an LF radio wave passes over the earth’s surface it:

A speeds up, picks up electrons and becomes stronger
B slows down and is attenuated B
C speeds up and is attenuated
D slows down, picks up electrons and becomes stronger
Ref All
Question Complete the following statement:___ radio signals have a ___ range by ___ wave over __ than over ___

A MF; shorter; sky; sea; land
B MF; greater; ground; sea; land B
C VHF; shorter; sky; sea; land
D MF; greater; ground; land; sea
Ref All
Question The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:

A decimetric A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
B hectometric
C metric
D centimetric
Ref All
Question Which statement is true?

A The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over the land than over ice
B The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 Ghz
C The lower the frequency the greater the atmospheric attenuation
D None of the above D
Ref All
Question The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction finder is a:

A VHF compass operating in the 200 KhZ to 1750 kHz range
B VHF transmitter receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range B
C VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
D cathode ray tube
Ref All
Question The skip zone of HF transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs:
Choices
Answers Correct
A Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer A
B Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
C Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
D Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Ref All
Question The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:

A 24.60 m
B 24.60 cm
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
POWERPLANT - Piston Engine
Question The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
C 2.46 cm
D 2.46 m D
Ref All
Question The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:

A centimetric
B hectometric
C decimetric
D metric D
Ref All
Question In liquid cooled engines, the composition by volume of the coolant mixture is:

A 30% ethylene glycol & 70% water A
B 60% ethylene glycol & 40% water
C 50% ethylene glycol & 50% water
D 70% ethylene glycol & 30% water
Ref ATPL AND H
Question The correct combination of Propeller Pitch (1) and Propeller Lever position (2) at Brake Release Point are?

A (1) Coarse (2) Aft
B (1) Coarse (2) Forward
C (1) Fine (2) Forward C
D (1) Fine (2) Aft
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:

C idling
D cruising speed D
D full throttle
D take off
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:

Question What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a constant speed propeller if the manifold pressure is
increased?
A It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
B It will increase B
C It will decrease so that the engine can increase
D It will remain the same
Question The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at:

A low airspeeds with high power setting A
B high airspeeds with low power setting
C high airspeeds with high power setting
D low airspeeds with low power setting
Question The pitch angle of a constant speed propeller:

A increases with increasing true air speed A
B only varies with engine RPM
C decreases with increasing true air speed
D is independent of the true air speed
Question During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the:

A RPM decreases
B Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases B
C RPM increases
D Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a:

A higher efficiency in all operating ranges A
B constant efficiency in all operating ranges
C lower propeller blade stress
D higher efficiency in cruising range
Question When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

A stays constant
B increases
C reduces C
D stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM
Question A pilot normally uses the propeller auto feather system during:

A Landing
B Cruise
C Take off
D Take off and landing D
Question In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers:

A the minimum control speed is determined by the failure of the right engine
B the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa
C the left engine is the critical motor C
D the right engine is the critical motor
Question If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:

A excessive carbon formation in cylinder head A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
B switch wire grounded

C defective condenser
D fouled spark plugs
Question In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in a single engine
aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system:
A move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force A
B move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller
C move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM
D move in the highest pitch position depending on windmilling RPM
D move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force
Question In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with constant speed propeller:

A the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle A
B the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle
C the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle
D the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle
Question In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by:

A pulling thepropeller control lever rearwards A
B pushing thepropeller control lever forwards
C pushing thepower lever forwards
D pulling thepower levers rearwards
Question During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold
pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one
Choices simultaneously selects a:
Answers Correct
A high manifold pressure and high RPM
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold
pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one
simultaneously selects a:
B low manifold pressure and high RPM
C high manifold pressure and low RPM C
D low manifold pressure and low RPM
Question An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists....

A If there is an unbalanced propeller
B If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack B
C Only for counter-rotating propeller
D Only if the constant speed propeller mechanism is broken
Question Why is a propeller blade twisted?

A To reduce the thrust at the root of the blade
B To prevent the blade from fully feathering
C To reduce the tip speed
D To even out the thrust force along the length of the blade D
Question To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to:

C gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump
D manually release the blade latch
D gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering
D use the electric unfeathering pump D
Question The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:

D is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems
D is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:
D controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails

D is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the D
engine is inoperative
Question Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimised for cruise condition, is
true for the take off case? The angle of attack of the propeller:
A blades reduces to zero
B blade is relatively small
C airfoil section is negative
D blade is relatively high D
Question When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by:

A increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure A
B adjusting Fuel flow before the manifold pressure
C reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure
D increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM
Question With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch
propeller?
A RPM and EGT indicator
B RPM and Fuel Flow indicator
C RPM and MAP indicator
D RPM indicator D
Question The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the:

A propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow
B reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation B
C propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the:
D propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow

Question A propeller blade is twisted, so as to:

A keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade A
B avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena
C decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip
D allow a higher mechanical stress
Question The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the:

A reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation A
B reference chord line and the relative airflow
C reference chord line and the propeller axis of rotation
D plane of rotation and the relative airflow
Question When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved):

A increases A
B decreases
C stays constant
D first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value
Question For take-off the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake
release is:
A (1) low (2) forward A
B (1) high (2) forward
C (1) low (2) aft
D (1) high (2) aft
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller:

A in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the
throttle
B the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds
C in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant
D manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting D
Question The CONSTANT SPEED PROPELLER has:

A its best efficiency during climb
B only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same B
design speed
C in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller
D only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller
Question A propeller blade is twisted in order to:

A reduce the blade tangential velocity from root to tip
B avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena
C maintain a constant angle of attack along the blade C
D allow an increased mechanical load
Question Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if
the altitude is decreased while the throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise
Choices position:
Answers Correct
A The blade angle may reach the full fine limit
B The power of the engine will decrease
C The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value C
D The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant
Question During take off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised for cruise
condition is:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question During take off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised for cruise
condition is:
A zero
B relatively small
C negative
D relatively high D
Question Excessive pressure in the cylinders of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be caused by
the combination of:
A high manifold pressure and high RPM
B low manifold pressure and high RPM
C high manifold pressure and low RPM C
D low manifold pressure and low RPM
Question The first indication of carburettor icing, in aeroplanes equipped with constant speed propellers, during
cruise would most likely be a:
A rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure
B decrease in manifold pressure B
C decrease in rpm
D rough running engine followed by loss in rpm
Question The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a:

A higher efficiency in cruising range
B constant efficiency in the whole speed range of the aeroplane
C lower propeller blade stress
D high efficiency in a much wider speed range of the aeroplane D
Question The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is operated:

A by aerodynamic forces
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is operated:
B hydraulically by hydraulic fluid

C hydraulically by engine oil C
D manually by the pilot
Question With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto
fails completely. This will first cause:
A loss of approximately 100 RPM A
B an additional load on the other magneto
C excessive vibration
D the engine to overheat
Question If TAS increases, assuming the manifold pressure and rpm levers are not moved, what will happen to the pitch
angle of a constant speed propeller?
A Remains constant
B Decreases
C Increases C
D Initially decreases and then returns to its precious value
Question How does a feathering pump work when used in conjunction with double acting propeller control units?

A it operates from engine oil pressure
B it is an electrical device and can work when the engine has stopped B
C it is a mechanical device driven by the engine
D it is a mechanical device driven by the windmilling propeller
Question What happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft accelerates down the runway?

A increases
B decreases B
C remains the same
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft accelerates down the runway?
D blade angle changes to compensate for forward speed

Question What happens to the Angle of Attack of a variable pitch propeller with increasing TAS if the RPM and
throttle levers are not moved?
A blade angle remains constant to compensate for forward speed
B increases
C decreases
D remains the same D
Question In a modern carburettor, mixture is controlled via:

A airflow
B airflow, fuel flow and temperature
C fuel flow C
D airflow and fuel flow
Question What is the purpose of the magneto impulse coupling?

A to give a retarded spark during starting A
B reduce the rate of rotation of the magneto
C advance the ignition and give a hotter spark during starting
D automatically increases spark rate at high engine speeds
Question A Fixed Pitch propeller has wash out from root to tip in order to?

A Keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade length A
B Keep thepitch angle constant along the blade length
C Keep the local angle of attack at its optimum value along the blade length
D Decrease the blade tangential speed from root to tip
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Two of the forces acting on a Propeller are ATM and CTM. Which one tends to turn the propeller blade in
which direction?
A ATM to Coarse, CTM to Coarse
B CTM to Fine, ATM to Coarse B
C CTM to Coarse, ATM to Fine
D ATM to Fine, CTM to Fine
Question How can Power be calculated on a Piston Engine?

A Torque x RPM A
B Force x Distance
C Power x Arm
D Work x Velocity
Question What is the approximate thermal efficiency of a four-stroke engine?

A 80%
B 50%
C 30% C
D 98%
Question With a Mixture Controller, and with both levers set in the climb?

A Map will increase
B RPM will increase
C Map will decrease C
D RPM will decrease
Question After the power stroke on a piston engine the poppet valve sequence is?

D exhaust valve opens, inlet valve opens, exhaust valve closes D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question After the power stroke on a piston engine the poppet valve sequence is?
D exhaust valve closes, inlet valve opens, exhaust valve opens

D inlet valve opens, exhaust valve closes, inlet valve closes
D inlet valve closes, exhaust valve closes, inlet valve opens
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:

A the mixture is ignited before thepiston has reached top dead centre
B the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the B
plug
C a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs
D the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:

A to control the cooling air shutters
B to monitor the oil temperature
C to assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture C
D to indicate cylinder head temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized?

A The turbine blades will separate
B The power of the motor will decrease
C The turbine shaft will break
D The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the total volume in the cylinder of a four stroke engine?

A A value equal to the cubic capacity
B Swept volume minus clearance volume
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is the total volume in the cylinder of a four stroke engine?
C Volume between TDC and BDC

D Swept volume plus clearance volume D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

A swept volume to the clearance volume
B clearance volume to the swept volume
C total volume to the swept volume
D total volume to the clearance volume D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the bloc-in-doors at the air inlets is to:

A feed cooling air to the engine cowling
B provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed
C provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds C
D serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is:

A compression induction, power, exhaust
B induction, compression, expansion, power
C induction, compression, power, exhaust C
D induction, power, compression, exhaust
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:

A to make the power available less affected by altitude A
B an increased propulsive efficiency
C that there is no torsion at the crankshaft
D that thereis no danger of detonation
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

A enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude
B weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude
C prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude
D correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The main purpose of the mixture control is to:

A adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio A
B decrease the air supplied to the engine
C increase the oxygen supplid to the engine
D decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:
1) flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)
Choices 2) automatic starting sequence
3) transmissions of engine data to the pilot’s instruments
4) thrust management and protection of operation limits
5) monitoring of the thrust reversers
Answers Correct
A 1, 3, 5
B 2, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C
D 1, 3, 4, 5
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are:

A both valves open
B intake valve closed and exhaust valve open B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are:
C both valves closed

D exhaust valve closed and intake valve open
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90o, the propeller is
said to be:
A at zero drag
B windmilling
C transparent
D feathered D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The conditions which can cause knocking are:

A Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow
B High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute
C Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute
D High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

A pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump A
B difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure
C pressure in the oil tank reservoir
D pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
A lower friction losses
B lower losses during the gas change
C lower back pressure C
D leaner mixture at higher altitudes
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable
result will be that the engine:
A will not operate at the left magneto
B cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position B
C will not operate at the right magneto
D cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Ignition systems of piston engines are:

A independent from the electrical system of the aeroplane A
B dependant on the battery
C dependant on the DC Generator
D dependant on the AC Generator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The octane rating of fuel characterises the:

A the anti-knock capability A
B fuel volatility
C quantity of heat generated by its combustion
D fuel electrical conductivity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbo-supercharger impeller is driven by:

A a connection through a gearbox connected to the crankshaft
B diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise have been wasted B
C excess torque from the reduction gearbox
D a ram air turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of an ignition switch is to:

A connect the battery to the magneto
B connect the secondary coil to the distributor
C control the primary circuit of the magneto C
D connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and
extinguishes immediately, is the:
A flash point A
B combustion point
C fire point
D self ignition point
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Vapour lock is:

A vaporising of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor A
B the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
C vaporising of fuel in the carburettor
D the inability of a fuel to vaporise in the carburettor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the venture in a carburettor is to:

A create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system
B prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the careburettor
C ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system
D create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor jets D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected
because of :
A decreasing of air density for a constant quantity of fuel A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
because of :
B constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel
C increasing of air density for smaller quantity of fuel
D decreasing of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to:

A increase the mixture ratio
B decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density
C increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and
density
D decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An impulse magneto coupling:

A advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
B reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
C gives a retarded spark at starting C
D gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel is approximately 9:1 the mixture is:

A weak
B rich B
C too weak to support combustion
D normal
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:

A control the carburettor inlet air flow
B control the cylinder head temperature
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
C assist the pilot to select correct mixture C

D control the fuel temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

A increase in air velocity in the throat of a venture causing an increase in air pressure
B automatic metering of air at the venture as the aircraft gains altitude
C difference in air pressure at the venture throat and the air inlet C
D measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:

A camshaft
B propeller blades
C accessory gear box
D gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates:

A a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running A
B a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running
C zero on the ground when the engine is stopped
D a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor:

A enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery A
B enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack
C enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller
D enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question What would happen if the waste gate of a turbo-charged engine seized in the descent?

A Compressor will overspeed
B Turbine blades will fall
C MAP may exceed its maximum permitted value in the induction manifold C
D RPM may exceed its maximum permitted value
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The kind of compressor normally used as a super charger is:

A a hybrid compressor
B an axial compressor
C a radial compressor C
D a piston compressor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An excessively rich mixture can be detected by:

A black smoke from exhaust A
B high cylinder head temperatures
C white smoke from exhaust
D a long purple flame from exhaust
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine continues to run normally,
the most probable cause is that:
A There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes
B The grounding wire of one of the magnetos is broken B
C A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine
D There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads)
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What prevents an impulse coupling operating at speeds above start speed, considering that it has fly
weights?
A Electro-magnetic induction
B Hydraulic clutch
C Centrifugal force C
D On/off switch
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a four-stroke piston engine, the only DRIVING stroke is:

A compression
B induction
C power C
D exhaust
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?

A main air bleed and main discharge nozzle
B float chamber and fuel inlet filter
C accelerator pump and main metering jet
D venture and the throttle valve D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:

A faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is
B slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
C faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
D faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?

A It reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?
B It reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture
C It reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
D It reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor:

A will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel
B will only form at OAT's below + 10oC
C will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water
D may form at OAT's higher than + 10oC D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?

A In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture A
B Cruise power
C In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture
D Maximum take-off power
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is:

A Friction horse power
B Brake horse power B
C Heat loss power
D Indicated horse power
Ref CPL A AND H
Question From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same
mixture the fuel flow should:
A decrease
B increase B
C remain the same
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same
mixture the fuel flow should:
D increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:

A the engine runs at the authorised maximum continuous power for too long
B the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment
C power is increased too abruptly
D the aeroplane climbs without mixture adjustment D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When applying carburettor heating:

A a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture
B the mixture becomes richer B
C the mixture becomes leaner
D no change occurs in the mixture ratio
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the:

A crankshaft A
B piston
C camshaft
D reduction gear
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbocharger conists of a:

A turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear
B compressor and turbine on individual shafts
C compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear
D compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Maximum Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with:

A Mass ratio of 1/15 A
B Cruising mixture setting
C Full rich setting
D Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively:

A rich mixture
B weak mixture B
C low barometric pressure
D high barometric pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of the following relations?

A the higher the octane rating is the higher the possible compression ratio is A
B the lower the octane rating is the higher the possible compression ratio is
C the higher the octane rating is the lower the possible compression ratio is
D compression ratio is independent of the octane rating
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:

A a rich fuel/air mixture
B the circulation of lubricating oil B
C a properly functioning thermostat
D a lean fuel/air mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are:

A warm and dry air at high pressure
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are:
B warm and humid air at low pressure

C cold and humid air at high pressure
D cold and dry air at high pressure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:

A moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control
B varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube B
C altering the depression on the main discharge tube
D varying the air supply to the main discharge tube
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:

A volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder
B mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder B
C volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor
D mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by:

A both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge
B a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge and engine rpm readings
C a manifold pressure gauge only C
D both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:

A volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder
B volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor
C mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
D massof fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by:

A Pressure times arm
B Work times velocity
C Force times distance
D Torque times RPM D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:

A increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
B reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture
C reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture C
D increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre)

A behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution
B before TDC at each crankshaft revolution
C behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution
D before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are re-adjusted in order to
increase the:
A engine RPM
B compression ratio
C piston displacement
D overall efficiency D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:

A designed fuel consumption for a given rpm
B mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time B
C quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions
D maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:

A carburettor
B spark plugs B
C oil pump
D fuel filter
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft magneto is switched off by:

A opening the primary circuit
B grounding the primary circuit B
C opening the secondary circuit
D grounding the secondary circuit
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which components constitute a crank assembly?

A Crankshaft, camshaft, valve springs
B Crankcase, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods
C Crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods C
D Propeller, crankshaft, conncting rods
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:

A provided that the grade is lower
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
B provided that the grade is higher B

C never
D provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:

A secondary current to the sparking plugs A
B primary current to the condenser
C secondary current to the condenser
D primary current to the sparking plugs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:

A from the aircraft batteries via an inverter
B from the booster coil
C directly from the aircraft batteries
D from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:

A fuel flow and air flow
B air flow
C fuel flow C
D fuel flow, air flow and temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a:

A slight loss of power
B higher efficiency
C lower cylinder head temperature C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a:
D higher torque
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable
result will be that:
A the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ON position
B a still operating engine will run down
C the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the `OFF` position C
D the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In very cold weather the pilot notices slightly higher than normal oil pressure on start up. This:

A is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down
B is acceptable providing it returns to normal after start up B
C is abnormal, but does not require an engine shut down
D indicates an incorrect oil type is being used and engine should be shut down immediately
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a piston engine the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight
ratio of:
A 1/9th
B 1/10th
C 1/12th
D 1/15th D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:

A high engine rpm
B low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
C high manifold pressure
D high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A turbo charger system is normally driven by:

A an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch
B the exhaust system B
C an electric motor
D a hydraulic motor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a:

A lighter construction A
B lower fuel consumption
C better piston cooling
D cheaper construction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the:

A volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced
B amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased
C volume of air entering the carburettor is increased
D amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) and RPM indications
and at a constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine:
A increases A
B decreases
C stays constant
D only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which one of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring
within a piston engine?
A slightly retarding the ignition timing
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Which one of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring
B using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio B
C the use of fuel with a high otane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating
D using an engine with a low compression ratio
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air flowing through the choke,
thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted
Choices with:
Answers Correct
A diffuser A
B a power jet
C an accelerator pump
D a mixture control
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating
principle of magnetos consists in:
A accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage
current at the moment the spark is generated
B creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the
appropriate time
C obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark
D breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed D
to the spark plugs
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for:

A providing an advanced spark for engine starting
B providing a retarded spark for engine starting B
C advancing ignition timing
D increases the power and gives a hotter spark for engine starting
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging
pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
A centrifugal force A
B pilot operated switch
C hydraulic clutch
D electromagnetic induction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a

A too large oil pump
B restricted oil passage
C worn oil pump C
D too small scavenger pump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is:

A cylinder length x cylinder diameter
B piston area x piston stroke x number of cylinders B
C piston area x piston stroke
D cylinder volume x number of cylinders
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The global output of a piston engine is of : (global output = thermal energy corresponding to the available
shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced)
A 0.30 A
B 0.50
C 0.75
D 0.90
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:

A contact breaker points opening A
B contact breaker points closing
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:
C rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature

D distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because

A the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil
B it drains the carburettor float chamber
C it fouls the spark plugs
D it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the
decreasing:
A temperature
B air density B
C engine temperature
D humidity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:

A oil temperature A
B outside pressure
C oil pressure
D quantity of oil
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change
lines:
A 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines
B 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines
C 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines
D 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change
lines:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is
normally the result of:
A compression of air at the carburettor venture
B low volatility of aviation fuel
C vaporisation of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor C
D freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

A area of the piston to the cylinder volume
B weight of the air induced to its weight after compression
C volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead C
centre
D diameter of the bore to the piston stroke
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A condenser in parallel with breaker points will:

A permit arcing across points
B assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
C assist in collapse of secondary winding
D intensify current in secondary winding D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the:

A mass of fuel relative to the volume of air
B volume of fuel relative to the volume of air
C volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air
D real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The crankcase is the component which:

A Provides a mounting for an oil cooler
B Provides a mounting point for most of the engine components and in which is located the main B
rotation assemblies
C Converts reciprocating motion into rotary motion
D Operates within the float chamber
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The major task of the engine lubrication system is to:

A Cool the engine
B Lubricate the engine bearings and running surfaces B
C C Provide an oil mist in the crankcase
D Provide heating for the fuel cooler
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an air cooled engine:

A The air cooler matrix is water cooled
B Fins, baffles and deflectors increase the cylinder and head surface areas B
C The header tank is placed above the system
D Air is ducted through the oil cooler first
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most common type of magneto is the:

A Rotating magnet A
B Rotating armature
C Impulse starter
D High tension booster coil
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A normally aspirated engine has:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A normally aspirated engine has:
A A dual controller to maintain turbine speed

B No power augmentation devices B
C A density controller
D A density controller and a rate controller
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Tappet clearances allow for the thermal expansion of the:

A Oil in the tank, especially when full
B Coolant to allow correct operation of the radiator by pass valve
C Advances and retards of the ignition timing at high RPM
D Valve operating gear throughout the working temperature range of the engine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On air-cooled reciprocating engine the cooling airflow is provided by:

A Supercharger outlet
B A temperature controlled by-pass valve
C Ram air C
D Selection
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If the ignition timing is advanced, the spark will occur:

A Nearer to TDC
B Further away from BDC
C After the inlet valve opens
D Further away from TDC D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Volumetric efficiency is:

A The thermal conversion factors concerning swept volume
B Swept volume + unswept volume divided by the swept volume
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Volumetric efficiency is:
C IHP - FHP
D The amount of charge induced into a cylinder compared with that which would fill the swept D
volume
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Valve overlap ensures that:

A Engine power is limited, at full power, to ambient conditions
B Engine oil system is always available for anti-icing
C Cylinder is efficiently scavenged of burnt gases during the exhaust stroke C
D Ignition timing can be set accurately
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The oil cooler is fitted:

A Downstream of the pressure pump
B Upstream of the pressure pump
C Downstream of the scavenge pump C
D Upstream of the scavenge pump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A spark occurs when the:

A Contact breakers (CB) close
B Rotor arm is trailed
C CB are nearly closed
D CB open D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The maximum power output of an altitude boosted super charged engine is slightly less than a normally
aspirated engine of the same power rating at sea level ISA because:
A Of the power required to drive the impeller A
B The charge temperature is too low
C The spring drive mechanism is not rated for full power
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The maximum power output of an altitude boosted super charged engine is slightly less than a normally
aspirated engine of the same power rating at sea level ISA because:
D The throttle is not fully open
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The crank assembly consists of:

A propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods
B crankcase, crankshaft, conncting rods and pistons
C crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods
D crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-33)On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of
mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:
A 1 A
B 2
C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
A centrifugal force A
B engine oil pressure
C a coil spring
D electro-magnetic action of operating magneto
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a

A increase of power
B higher efficiency
C lower cylinder head temperature C
D higher torque
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:

A absorb starting loads
B advance the ignition timing
C facilitate quick removal and installation
D provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question As altitude increases, if the mixture is not leaned:

A the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the fuel flow decreases
B the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow remains constant B
C the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow decreases
D the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to:

A reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density A
B reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density
C increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density
D increase the mixture ratio
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of:

A a super-charger
B ram air B
C a turbo-charger
D a pneumatic system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Dual ignition provides a factor or reliability and

A saves wear caused by using one magneto constantly
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Dual ignition provides a factor or reliability and
B provides more voltage

C improves starting
D improves combustion efficiency D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio is:

A 1:13
B 1:9
C 1:10
D 1:15 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If an engine detonates during climb-out, the normal corrective action would be to:

A lean the mixture
B increase the rate of climb
C retard the throttle C
D apply carburettor heat
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Ignition systems of a running piston engine receive electrical energy from:

A capacitors
B batteries
C generators
D rotating permanent magnets D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve
just after the power stroke are:
A intake valve closed and exhaust valve open A
B both valves open
C both valves closed
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve
just after the power stroke are:
D exhaust valve closed and intake valve open
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Maximum exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of a piston engine is theoretically associated with a:

A fuel to air ratio of 1:15 A
B cruising mixture setting
C full rich mixture setting
D mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum compression ratio of a
piston engine is:
A the maximum compression ratio is independent of the octane rating
B the lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is
C the higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is
D the higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:

A dependent on the DC-Generator
B dependent on the battery
C independent of the electrical system of the aircraft C
D dependent on the AC-Generator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:

A the engine runs at maximum continuous power for too long
B the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment
C power is increased too abruptly
D the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The air in a piston engine supercharger enters the centrifugal compressor at:

A the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller
B the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack
C the eye of the impeller and leaves it almost at a tangent to the periphery C
D a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The application of carburettor heating reduces the:

A density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture A
B volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture
C density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture
D volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the :

A weight of the air induced to its weight after compression
B diameter of the bore to the piston stroke
C area of the piston to the cylinder volume
D volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead D
centre
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal operating ranges if:

A a higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used
B a lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used B
C the engine is operated at a higher than normal oil pressure
D the engine is operated at a too rich mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of the primer pump is to:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The function of the primer pump is to:
A provide additional fuel for engine start A

B serve as an alternate pump in case of engine driven pump failure
C serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system
D inject additional fuel during engine acceleration
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The lubricating system of an air cooled piston engine is used to:

A keep the engine warm
B reduce internal friction and provide coling B
C to operte the fuel control unit
D operate constant speed propellers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the:

A cabin temperature
B EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature)
C oil temperature
D CHT (Cylinder Head Temperature) D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The mixture controller of a carburettor:

A alters the pressure drop at the main discharge nozzle
B moves the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control
C varies the fuel supply to the main discharge nozzle C
D varies the air supply at the main discharge nozzle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The octane rating of a fuel characterises the:

A fuel volatility
B resistance to detonation B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The octane rating of a fuel characterises the:
C quantity of heat generated by its combustion

D fuel electrical conductivity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The oil cooler in a dry sump lubrication system of a piston engine is fitted:
Choices 1) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump
2) between the oil tank and the pressure pump
3) after the pressure pump but before the pressure filter
4) between the pressure filter and the crankshaft
Answers Correct
A 1, 4
B 3, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 2 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The operating principle of magnetos in a piston engine ignition system consists of:

A accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated
B obtaining a high amperage, low voltage current in order to generate the spark
C breaking the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is C
distributed to the spark plugs
D creating a brief high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the
appropriate time
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The power output of a piston engine without super charging increases with increasing altitude in standard
atmosphere at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
A lower friction losses
B lower losses during the gas change
C increase of the air density behind the throttle valve C
D leaner mixture at higher altitudes
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The power output of a piston engine without super charging increases with increasing altitude in standard
atmosphere at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:

A higher manifold pressure
B detonation B
C a cooling effect on cylinders
D vapour locking
Ref CPL A AND H
Question To maintain the correct air/fuel ratio of a piston engine, independent of power setting, a carburettor is
fitted with:
A a mixture control
B a power jet
C an accelerator pump
D a diffuser (compensating jet) D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What may happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting fully rich?

A The engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased
B Increase of the power available
C Fouling of spark plugs C
D The engine will overheat
Ref CPL A AND H
because of:
A a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high A
B an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high
C an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low
D a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring
A The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane
rating
B High cylinder head temperature B
C Using an engine with a low compression ratio
D Slightly retarding the ignition timing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which statement is correct concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?

A The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture A
B The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
C The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
D The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The compression ratio of an engine may be defined as:

A Swept volume plus clearance volume divided by swept volume
B Swept volume plus clearance volume divided by clearance volume B
C Swept volume divided by clearance volume plus swept volume
D Total volume minus clearance volume divided by swept volume
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a four-stroke engine the camshaft rotates at:

A Twice crankshaft rpm
B Half crankshaft rpm B
C Crankshaft rpm
D Quarter crankshaft rpm
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Valve overlap occurs between:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Valve overlap occurs between:
A Exhaust and induction stroke A

B Exhaust and power stroke
C Compression and power stroke
D Induction and compression stroke
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The valves are held shut by:

A The tappets
B The pushrods
C The rocker arms
D The valve springs D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Assuming the modified Otto Cycle, what is the position of the inlet and exhaust valve at the end of the
exhaust stroke:
A Inlet closed and Exhaust open
B Both valves closed
C Both valves open C
D Inlet open and Exhaust closed
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel flow to a piston engine will vary with:

A Rpm and throttle position
B Rpm only
C Rpm, throttle position and mixture setting C
D Rpm and mixture setting only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The distributor of a magneto:

A Supplies primary current to the sparking plug
B Supplies secondary current to the sparking plug B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The distributor of a magneto:
C Supplies secondary current to the condenser

D Acts as a step up transformer
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Oil temp and pressures are sensed:

A For the oil temperature when it is leaving the tank and for the oil pressure when it has left A
the pressure pump
B For the oil temperature when it is entering the tank and for the pressure when it is entering
the pressure pump
C By the thermostatically controlled sump vent
D When the il is leaving the sump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of the accelerator pump in a carburettor:

A Is to pressurise the fuel in the float chamber so allowing more fuel to pass through the main
jet
B Is to give a positive flow of fuel to the main jet
C Is to assist in atomising the fuel before it leaves the discharge nozzle
D Is to temporarily enrich the mixture by pumping more fuel into the induction system during rapid D
throttle movements
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Detonation, occurs due to:

A Use of too high an rpm with too low manifold pressure
B Low cylinder temp and pressure
C Excessive cylinder temp and pressure C
D Use of the wrong grade of oil
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a magneto switch becomes open circuit?

A The switch will fail to stop the engine A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If a magneto switch becomes open circuit?
B The engine will fail to start

C The point circuit will be connected in series with the condenser
D The engine will cut out when the other magneto is switched off
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary coil of a magneto has:

A Many turns of thick wires
B Many turns of thin wire
C Relatively few turns of thick wire C
D Both thick and thin wires
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a piston engine the manifold pressure:

A Is affected only by altitude
B Increases as the throttle is opened B
C Decreases as the throttle is opened
D Is unaffected by throttle position
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most common type of integral super charger is:

A Rootes type
B Geared type
C Centrifugal type C
D Veined type
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Air flowing through a venture of a carburettor causes:

A A drop of pressure at the throat A
B A reduction of air velocity at the throat
C A rise of pressure at the throat
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Air flowing through a venture of a carburettor causes:
D An increase in velocity and pressure

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The difference between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100 LL fuel respectively
are:
Choices
1) colour
2) anti-knock value
Answers Correct
A (1) Same (2) Same
B (1) Same (2) Different
C (1) Different (2) Same C
D (1) Different (2) Different
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The waste gate of a turbo charged engine seizes on the climb before critical altitude, the manifold pressure
would:
A Initially increase but then decrease
B Increase until critical altitude, then fall
C Decrease C
D Remain constant
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an engine fitted with a turbo charger, what is the position of the waste gate:

A In the inlet manifold
B In parallel with the turbine B
C Down stream of the turbine
D In parallel with the compressor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary function of the diffuser tube in a carburettor is to:

A Decrease air velocity
B Maintain constant fuel flow through the main jet at all powers
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The primary function of the diffuser tube in a carburettor is to:
C Emulsify the fuel before it enters the main jet

D Maintain a constant mixture ratio over the operating range of the engine D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An Air/Fuel ratio of 10:1 would be considered as:

A Rich A
B Weak
C Chemically correct
D Critically solvent
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A reciprocating Spark ignition engine works on the principle of the:

A Constant Volume Otto Cycle A
B Constant pressure Otto cycle
C constant volume Brayton cycle
D Constant pressure Brayton cycle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The colour of 100 LL Avgas is:

A Green
B Red
C Purple
D Blue D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question IHP, BHP and FHP are all terms related as follows:

A IHP is the power measured at the prop shaft, BHP is the power produced in the cylinders and FHP
is the different between IHP and BHP
B IHP is the power produced in the cylinders, BHP is the power produced at the prop and FHP is the B
power available in the fuel due to the calorific value
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question IHP, BHP and FHP are all terms related as follows:
C IHP, BHP and FHP = mechanical efficiency

D IHP minus BHP = thermal efficiency
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The speed of a turbo charger is controlled by:

A Engine rpm
B Propeller pitch and altitude
C Altitude only
D Waste gate position D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a turbo charger compressor:

A The temperature increases and the Pressure increases A
B The temperature increases and the pressure remains constant
C The temperature and pressure decrease
D The pressure increases and the temperature decreases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question During the compression stroke:

A The volume Decreases and the Temperature increases A
B The temperature remains constant and the volume decreases
C The volume increases and the temperature decreases
D The volume remains constant and the temperature increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With a super charged engine, to maintain a rated boost with a decrease in RPM:

A The waste gate must be opened
B The waste gate must be closed
C The throttle valve must be opened C
D The throttle valve must be closed
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question With a super charged engine, to maintain a rated boost with a decrease in RPM:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question The ignition timing of a piston engine needs to be advanced:

A At high RPM because flame rate and time for complete combustion remain constant A
B At low RPM because otherwise the engine could run backwards
C At high RPM because flame rate reduces due to the selection of a rich mixture
D At low RPM because the flame rate increase and the time for complete combustion decreases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The waste gate is moved to the open position by:

A The oil outlet of the waste gate controller becoming blocked
B The oil inlet of the waste gate controller becoming blocked
C Exhaust gas leakage
D The waste gate actuator spring D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Define a normally aspirated engine:

A An engine that is super-charged
B An engine that is turbo-charged
C An engine that is super charged and turbo charged
D An engine that is neither super charged or turbo charged D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are the basic types/type of fuel injection system?

A Parallel fuel injection and metered fuel injection
B Direct fuel injection and indirect fuel injection
C Direct fuel injection, indirect fuel injection and injection carburettor C
D Injection carburettor, direct injection and metered injection
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The type of oil most commonly used in piston engines is:

A Castor
B Synthetic
C Mineral C
D Vegetable
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A high cylinder head temperature indicates:

A Excessive lean mixture A
B Excessive rich mixture
C Wrongly set pitch
D High oil pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Compression ratio may be defined as the ratio of:

A Volume of a cylinder with piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead A
centre
B Piston stroke to piston area
C Swept volume to piston area
D Mass of air in a cylinder with piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead
centre
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which part of the piston engine changes reciprocating motion into rotary motion?

A Piston
B Crankshaft B
C Propeller shaft
D Cam shaft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The valve and ignition timings of the theoretical Otto cycle are modified in order to improve:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The valve and ignition timings of the theoretical Otto cycle are modified in order to improve:

A Engine rpm
B Compression ratio
C Overall ratio C
D Piston displacement
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Piston engines are mostly dependent on which of the following for internal cooling?

A A rich mixture
B A lean mixture
C A working thermostat on the hottest cylinder
D Circulation of lubricating oil D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of the distributor in the ignition system?

A Close the contact breaker points
B Distribute primary current to the spark plugs
C Distribute secondary current to the spark plugs C
D Distribute secondary current to the condenser
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For electric supply, the ignition system of a piston engine depends on:

A The aircraft battery being fully charged
B A DC generator
C An AC generator
D Nothing as it is independent of the aircraft electrical system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What will happen if the ground wire between the magnetos and ignition switch is broken?

A The engine will not start with the ignition switch in the ON position
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What will happen if the ground wire between the magnetos and ignition switch is broken?
B An operating engine will stop running

C It will not be possible to stop the engine by turning the ignition switch to the OFF position C
D The engine will develop less power
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aeroplane is fitted with a float type carburettor. The low temperature which causes carburettor icing is
caused by:
A Expansion of air in the carburettor and vaporising fuel A
B An ambient air temperature which is below 0oC
C The low volatility of the fuel
D Air being compressed as it enters the carburettor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Carburettor icing is mot likely to occur in the:

A Accelerator pump
B Float chamber
C Main air bleed and discharge nozzle
D Venturi and throttle valve D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question At a constant power setting, the power of a piston engine reduces during a climb due to:

A Decreasing temperature
B Increasing humidity
C Decreasing density C
D Decreasing engine temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A normally aspirated piston engined aeroplane climbs at constant manifold pressure and RPM. The power
output:
A Decreases due to lower back pressure
B Increases due to lower back pressure
C Decreases because of the lean mixture being used at higher altitudes C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A normally aspirated piston engined aeroplane climbs at constant manifold pressure and RPM. The power
output:
D Decreases due to lower frictional losses
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbo charger is driven by:

A Exhaust gases A
B An electric motor
C A pneumatic motor
D Ram air
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A turbo charger is usually fitted with:

A An axial compressor
B A radial compressor B
C A radial compressor driven by an auxiliary gearbox
D (a) and (c) are correct
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Using a rich mixture during climb will result in:

A Higher cylinder head temperature
B Significant loss of power
C Higher efficiency
D Lower cylinder head temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question High exhaust gas temperature on a piston engine is theoretically associated with:

A mass ratio of 1:15
B cruise mixture setting
C a weak mixture C
D a rich mixture
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If the cylinder head temp increases and EGT increases this indicates:

A the mixture is too rich
B the mixture is too lean B
C the external barometric pressure has increased
D the external barometric pressure has decreased
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is a rich mixture?

A 20 to 1
B 15 to 1
C 9 to 1 C
D 30 to 1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a 4 stroke engine when does ignition occur?

A after TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft
B before TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft B
C before TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
D after TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A normally aspirted aircraft climbing at constant throttle setting:

A the RPM will increase
B the MAP will increase
C the RPM will decrease
D the MAP will decrease D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The carb heat is selected on, this results in?

A a reduction in RPM as a result of leaner mixture
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The carb heat is selected on, this results in?
B no change in mixture
C mixture is now leaner but RPM is unchanged
D a reduction in RPM as the mixture is now richer D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The ignition is turned to the OFF position and the engine continues to run. The most likely explanation is:

A the ignition circuit wire is broken A
B the ignition circuit wire is touching the airframe
C the magneto has malfunctioned
D the spark plugs are fouled and the engine is dieseling
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When controlling mixture you control:

A fuel flow A
B the amount of air entering the engine
C an increase in Oxygen supplied
D a decrease in the Oxygen supplied
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of a condenser fitted to a magneto?

A it provides the high voltage spark
B it prevents arcing and provides a sink for the collapsing primary current B
C it ensures the spark discharge rate is correct
D it regulates the firing sequence
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An impulse coupling in a magneto is provided to:

A Generate high voltage and advance the spark for starting
B Increase the energy to the spark plug as the RPM increases
C Generate high voltage and retard the spark for starting C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An impulse coupling in a magneto is provided to:
D Allows a low energy value when continuous ignition is selected

Ref CPL A AND H
Question A cylinder head temperature gauge measures

A The temperature of the hottest cylinder A
B The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
C The temperature of the coolest cylinder
D The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a four stroke engine, when the piston is at BDC at the end of the power stroke the position of the valves
is:
A Closed/Closed
B Open/Open
C Open/Closed
D Closed/Open D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a normally aspirated piston engine carburettor icing can occur:

A Between 0oC and -10oC
B At more than +10oC B
C Only at less than +10oC if there is visible moisture
D Only above 5000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a 4 stroke engine when does ignition occur in each cylinder?

A After TDC for starting and then before TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft A
B Before TDC for starting and then after TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft
C After TDC for starting and then before TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
D Before TDC for starting and then after TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question As altitude increases what does the mixture control do to the fuel flow

A increases flow due to reduced air density
B increases flow due to increased air density
C reduces flow due to reduced air density C
D reduces flow due to increased air density
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The magnetos are switched off and the engine continues to run normally. The cause of this fault is:

A a wire from the magneto coming in contact with the metal aircraft skin
B hotspots existing in cylinder
C carbon deposits on spark plug
D grounding wire from magneto being broken D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If a manifold pressure gauge consistently indicates atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably?

A Ice in the induction system
B Too high in a float level
C A leak in the gauge pressure line C
D The waste gate stuck in the closed position
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a Barometric Capsule in a Fuel/Mixture system is to:

A Reduce fuel to match air
B Reduce air compared to fuel
C Reduced fuel compared to air C
D Reduce air to match fuel
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which of the following is the correct description of the position of the Fuel Strainer in a carburettor?

A Between the needle jet and the metering jet A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Which of the following is the correct description of the position of the Fuel Strainer in a carburettor?
B Upstream of the needle valve

C Between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle
D Downstream of the discharge nozzle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On modern carburettors the mixture is controlled by:

A varying the air, fuel flow and temperature
B varying the air and fuel flow
C varying the fuel flow only C
D varying the air flow only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Theoretically the maximum EGT is obtained with a mixture of:

A cruise setting
B 1:15 B
C 1:08
D a mixture just above idle cut off
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:

A increase the velocity of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder
B increase the mass of the charge entering the cylinder B
C raise the temperature of the charge entering the cylinder
D improve engine scavenging and hence power output
Ref CPL A AND H


A increase quantity of fuel at metering jet
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
POWERPLANT - Turbine Engine
B maintain power at altitude B

C provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft
D provide a richer mixture at high altitudes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified rpm and
manifold pressure conditions established as safe for continuous operation is termed:
A critical power
B maximum power
C take off power
D rated power D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fan stage of a ducted fan turbine engine is driven by:

A the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing
B airflow across it by the high pressure compressor
C high pressure turbine
D the low pressure turbine D
Question For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:

A external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass A
B internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
C internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
D fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
Question The fan in a high by pass ratio turbo jet engine produces:

A the greater part of the thrust A
B half the thrust
C the lesser part of the thrust
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The fan in a high by pass ratio turbo jet engine produces:
D none of the thrust

Question During the cycle of a gas turbine engine combustion takes place:

A continuously A
B twice per revolution
C once per revolution
D once per two revolutions
Question The control of free turbine engines on turbo props, is accomplished by:
Choices - a propeller control lever used to select:
1) propeller RPM
2) turbine temperature
3) turbine RPM
- a fuel control lever used to select:
4) propeller RPM
5) torque
6) turbine temperature
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 1 - 3 - 5
B 1 - 5 -6 B
C 3 - 4 - 6
D 2 - 4 - 5
Question The thrust of a turbo jet, at the selection of full power:
Choices 1) equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity
2) is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3) is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving
4) is independent of the outside air temperature
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The thrust of a turbo jet, at the selection of full power:
1) equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity
2) is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3) is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving
4) is independent of the outside air temperature

Answers Correct
A 2 - 3
B 1 - 2
C 1 - 3 C
D 4
Question Where is torque measured in a turbo prop engine?

A Accessory gearbox
B Reduction gearbox B
C At the turbine
D At the constant speed until oil pump
Question In a turbo jet, the purpose of the turbine is to?

A compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
B drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator
C drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases C
D clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
Question In a high bypass engine exhaust, the cold flow is usually exhausted:

A With the hot gas flow and flows through a mixer unit
B Through the air conditioning system
C Into the LP compressor inlet
D Separately D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a high bypass engine exhaust, the cold flow is usually exhausted:

Question A simple bypass engine has:

A All of the airflow through the engine routed through the bypass duct
B None of the airflow routed through the engine core
C A proportion of air routed through the engine core and the rest goes down the bypass duct C
D A fan that delivers about half the engine thrust
Question The two types of thrust augmentation are:

A Water/Methanol injection and triple bypass spool
B After burning and reheat
C Water injection and variable nozzle control mechanisms
D After burning and water/methanol injection D
Question When a turbo prop anti-icing system is switched on whilst at cruise:

A Propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature rises and torque reduces A
B Propeller RPM reduces, turbine temperature reduces and torque increases
C Propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature reduces and torque reduces
D Propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature remains unchanged and torque remains
unchanged
Question For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:

A cold air mass flow divided by the hot air mass flow A
B hot air mass flow divided by the cold air mass flow
C hot air mass flow divided by the fuel flow
D fuel flow divided by hot air mass flow
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question By-pass ratio in a turbine engine is the ratio of the:

C speed of the combusted air to the speed of the by-pass air
D cold air mass flow to the hot air mass flow D
D intake air pressure to the turbine delivery air pressure
D tertiary air mass flow to the primary air mass flow
Question During take-off, the fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo fan engine produces:

A the lesser part of the thrust
B half the thrust
C the greater part of the thrust C
D all the thrust
Question In a jet engine the propelling nozzle:

A directs the hot gas stream onto the turbine at the optimum angle of attack
B reduces noise
C must be designed to obtain the correct balance of pressure and velocity to prevent flow C
separation
D decreases the velocity and increases the pressure in the jet pipe to provide greater thrust
Question In a multi-spool turbo fan engine, the fan is driven by:

A the intermediate turbine
B the rear most turbine B
C the foremost turbine
D all three turbines since they are on a common shaft with the compressor
Question In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is
greatest:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is
greatest:
A as it leaves the turbine
B as it leaves the compressor
C within the combustion chamber
D on exit from the propelling nozzle D
Question The by-pass air in a by-pass type gas turbine engine promotes lower specific fuel consumption by causing an
overall:
A increase inthe mean jet temperature and increase in thermal efficiency
B decrease incombustion chamber temperature and higher thermal efficiency
C increase inexhaust gas flow average velocity thus increasing engine pressure ratio
D decrease inexhaust gas flow average velocity and higher propulsive efficiency D
Question To achieve reverse thrust on a turbine engine with a high byp-pass ratio, it is necessary to:

A reduce the flow of hot stream air
B stop the fan
C reverse the direction of rotation of the fan
D deflect the fan thrust D
Question The principles underlying the effects of jet propulsion are set out in:

A Newtons 1st Law of Motion
B Newtons 2nd Law of Motio
C Newtons 3rd Low of Motion C
D Faradays Conservation of Energy Precepts
Question The propulsive efficiency of a turbo jet is the ratio of:

A Propelling nozzle thrust to energy supplied to the nozzle A
B Nozzle gas flow to intake gas flow
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The propulsive efficiency of a turbo jet is the ratio of:
C Jet pipe pressure to air intake pressure

D Lbs fuel burned to lbs thrust developed
Question The flow duct of the axial flow compressor of a turbo jet engine is tapered so as to:

A maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight A
B maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating
C reduce the axial speed in cruising flight
D reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating
Question The fan in high by-pass ratio turbo jet engines produces:

A about half the thrust
B about a third of the thrust
C only a minimal amount of thrust
D the greater part of thrust D
Question What speed does the LP compressor run at?

A The speed of the LP turbine A
B The speed of the HP turbine
C Half the engine speed
D Constant speed
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an engine having a Free turbine:

A there is a mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the turbine A
B there is no mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the turbine
C there is a mechanical connection between the compressor and the propeller shaft
D air enters via compressor inlet on the turbine
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In an engine having a Free turbine:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the
turbine temperature:
A may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of
the engine at the moment of selection
B will be unchanged
C will rise C
D will fall
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Which part of the gas turbine engine limits the temperature?

A Combustion chamber
B Turbine B
C Compressor
D Exhaust
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine:

A will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage
B is designed to idle after starting
C operates most efficiently in the cruise
D will run without any external assistance D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio
(EPR):
Choices
1) with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases
2) with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number
3) at same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear
due to ageing
4) the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor
inlet
5) on take-off in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio
(EPR):
1) with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases
2) with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number
3) at same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear
due to ageing
4) the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor
inlet
5) on take-off in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR

Answers Correct
A 1, 5
B 2, 3, 4
C 3, 4, 5
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What limits the max. temperature in a gas turbine engine?

A temperature in the combustion chamber
B temperature at the exhaust
C temperature at the turbine C
D temperature entering the combustion chamber
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:

A at the entry to the exhaust unit
B across the turbine
C in the cooling airflow around the flame tube
D within the combustion chamber D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:

A greater than turbine rpm
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
B independent of turbine rpm

C the same as turbine rpm C
D less than turbine rpm
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the diffuser of a centrifugal compressor?

A Velocity increase, pressure and temperature decrease
B Velocity decrease, pressure and temperature increase B
C Velocity, pressure and temperature increase
D Velocity, pressure and temperature decrease
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is
stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to:
A the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces A
B oil pressure
C thermal expansion
D blade creep
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a centrifugal compressor:

A the air enters the eye tangentially and leaves the periphery axially
B the air enters the periphery axially and leaves the eye tangentially
C the air enters the eye radially and leaves the tip tangentially
D the air enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery tangentially D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:

A jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure
B jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure B
C combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
D compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure

Ref CPL A AND H
Question When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:

A pressure rises
B pressure drops B
C velocity decreases
D temperature increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the
exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is tht:
A EPR decreases and EGT remains constant
B both EPR and EGT decrease
C EPR decreases and EGT increases C
D EPR remains constant and EGT increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A hung start is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:

A an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter A
B compressor surging
C the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the
required rpm for ignition
D failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to
the required rpm by the starter
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:

A the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure
B total compressor outlet pressure to the total turbine outlet pressure
C total compressor inlet pressure to the total turbine outlet pressure
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:
D the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:

A V decreases, Ps increases
B V increases, Ps increases
C V decreases, Ps decreases
D V increases, Ps decreases D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:

A air leaving the compressor by opening or closing of bleed valves
B fuel supplied B
C air entering the compressor
D air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

A rotor - stator A
B stator - rotor
C stator - stator - rotor
D rotor - rotor - stator
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the:

A Fuel Control Unit (FCU) A
B Inlet guide vanes
C Surge bleed valves
D Variable setting type nozzle guide vanes
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A typical gas turbine overall air/fuel ratio is:

A 10:1
B 60:1 B
C 136:1
D 200:1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The secondary airflow is:

A Primarily concerned with combustion
B Primarily concerned with forming a swirl vortex
C Primarily concerned with cooling the gas flow prior to entering the NGV and turbines, and the C
flame tube and air casing material
D Concerned with fuel nozzle atomisation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question As the gas flows through the turbine:

A Pressure, velocity and temperature gradually decrease A
B Pressure, velocity and temperature increase
C Pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature decreases
D Pressure decreases, velocity decreases and temperature increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The noisiest part of a gas turbine engine is the:

A Fan
B LP compressor
C HP compressor
D Jet efflux D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question About a twin spool compressor:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question About a twin spool compressor:
A The low pressure spool runs at a very high rpm, thus preventing theonset of compressor stall
B Both spools run at the same rpm
C The low pressure spool runs at a lower rpm that the high pressure spool C
D When operating at very high rpm's, the later stages within the high pressure spool will have a
large negative angle of attack
Ref CPL A AND H
Question After air has passed through the compressor of a gas turbine engine the:

A pressure will be the same as the inlet pressure
B velocity will be higher than the inlet velocity
C temperature will be higher than the inlet temperature C
D velocity will be the same as the inlet velocity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An axial compressor, when operating below its design speed, has:

A a tendency to stall in the centre stages
B a tendency to stall in the rear stages
C a tendency to stall in the front stages C
D no tendency to stall
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An engine pressure ration (EPR) can be defined as the ratio of:

A jet pipe total pressure to combustion chamber pressure
B jet pipe total pressure to compressor inlet total pressure B
C combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet total pressure
D compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet total pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Both gas turbine and piston engines utilise a cycle of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust.
However, in the gas turbine these processes are (i) and combustion occurs at (ii).Respectively (i) and (ii)
Choices are:
Answers Correct
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Both gas turbine and piston engines utilise a cycle of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust.
However, in the gas turbine these processes are (i) and combustion occurs at (ii).Respectively (i) and (ii)
are:
A (i) continuous; (ii) constant pressure A
B (i) continuous; (ii) constant volume
C (i) intermittent; (ii) constant pressure
D (i) intermittent; (ii) constant volume
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Creep of turbine blades is caused by:

D high blade temperature whilst under centrifugal loading D
D prolonged idling at low rpm
D bending stresses set up by gas pressure
D static imbalance of the blades
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Exhaust gas temperature sensing is usually taken:

A between the gas generator turbine and the free power turbine A
B at the outlet from the combustion chamber
C after the free power turbine
D between the stages of the gas generator turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a subsonic airflow, air passing through a divergent duct:

A decreases in velocity and increases in pressure A
B increases in velocity and decreases in pressure
C decreases in pressure and velocity
D increases in pressure and velocity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages:

A is not connected with the rotation speed of the generator
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages:
B is used to drive the compressor and the main rotor gearbox

C is dependent on the rotational speed of the gas generator C
D is used to drive the compressor only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On landing and prior to shut down, a gas turbine engine should be run at GROUND IDLE for a short period.
This allows:
A the core temperature to diminish A
B the turbine blade temperature to reduce only
C the engine to be compressor washed
D cool oil flushing of bearings, particularly those in the turbines
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One definition of engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:

A the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure A
B the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure
C the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure
D the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the purposes of compressor bleed valves is to:

A increase the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is
decreased
B limit the acceleration period of the engine
C decrease the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is C
increased
D decrease the load on the compressor when the engine is approaching maximum rpm
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:

A spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question One of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:
B enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting
C reduce the tendency to compressor stall C
D control the acceleration time of the engine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question One reason to fit a tip shroud to a turbine blade is to:

A prevent blade creep
B provie a seal for the cooling airflow
C increase turbine efficiency C
D reduce turbine temperatures
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Severe compressor stall can be indicated amongst others by:

A an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow
B a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and a change in vibration level B
C a decrease in TGT and a change in vibration level
D a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The characteristics of a centrifugal compressor are:
Choices 1) a high pressure ratio by stage

2) a large diameter
3) a low pressure ratio by stage
4) a small diameter
The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 1 and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only C
D 3 and 4 only
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question . The characteristics of an axial compressor are:
Choices 1) a low pressure ratio by stage

2) a high pressure ratio by stage
3) the possibility of compressing a large mass airflow
4) the inability of compressing a large mass airflow
Answers Correct
A 2 and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only C
D 1 and 4 only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The oil system of a gas turbine engine may be fitted with magnetic plugs, or chip detectors. They:

A provide warning of impending failure without having to remove the filters for inspection A
B dispense with the requirement to fit an oil filter
C monitor oil pressure and oil temperature
D are fitted in the pressure line upstream of the oil filter
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine will increase with a:

A increase in humidity
B increase in ambient air temperature
C decrease in ambient air pressure
D decrease in ambient air temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Turbine blade stages may be classed as either impulse or reaction. In an impulse blade section the pressure
(i) across the nozzle guide vanes and (ii) across the rotor blades.
A (i) remains constant (ii) rises
B (i) rises (ii) remains constant
C (i) remains constant (ii) drops
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Turbine blade stages may be classed as either impulse or reaction. In an impulse blade section the pressure
(i) across the nozzle guide vanes and (ii) across the rotor blades.
D (i) drops (ii) remains constant D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question By comparison with an axial flow compressor, a centrifugal compressor is:

A Lighter and has a high power to weight ratio
B Fuel efficient and has higher thermal efficiencies
C More efficient and with a higher compression ratio
D More robust and technologically less complicated D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The ideal situation for maximum supersonic intake efficiency (recovery factor) is known as:

A Critical operation A
B Sub-critical operation
C Super critical operation
D Sub-sonic pressure recovery factor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Compressor surge is to do with:

A Turbine overspeed which affects compressor output characteristics
B Compressor choke, usually at low powers and flow reversal and/or with aircraft unusual attitude B
situations
C Compressor start malfunctions primarily
D Combustion chamber overpressure caused by over-fuelling only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The overall average and combustion air fuel ratios are as follows:

A 60:1 and 15:1 A
B 133:1 for both
C 15:1 for both
D 60:1 for both
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The overall average and combustion air fuel ratios are as follows:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question While flowing through a turbine blade, gas velocity:

A Increases from root to tip
B Remains unchanged from root to tip
C Reduces from root to tip C
D Reduces from tip to root
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A gas turbine engine operates in accordance with the:

A Modified Brayton cycle
B Modified Otto cycle
C Brayton cycle C
D Otto cycle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A free turbine is:

A Directly connected to a specific axial flow compressor
B Always found in centrifugal compressor engines
C Connected to an LP compressor and then to the fan
D Directly connected to a propeller or gearbox and to nothing else D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A convergent-divergent duct located in a gas turbine exhaust unit:

A Allows acceleration of the gas to supersonic speeds in the convergent part of the exhaust unit A
and then uses the properties of a divergent duct under supersonic flow conditions to continue to
accelerate the gas flow to the maximum speed possible
B Has no specific function other than to cause a choke in the exhaust unit
C Operates on the principle of causing gas velocity to decrease throughout the length of the
exhaust unit thus ensuring that the greatest mass flow possible is passed to atmosphere
D None of these
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A convergent-divergent duct located in a gas turbine exhaust unit:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question What is the purpose of the turbine in a turbo-jet?

A Drive auxiliary devices
B Compress the air coming into the engine
C Exhaust burnt gases
D Drive the compressor using energy from the exhaust gases D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The self-sustaining speed of a turbine engine is that at which the engine:

A Is designed to idle at
B Operates most efficiently
C Will run without external assistance C
D Will allow the genertors to supply bus bar voltage
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In gas turbine engines maximum gas temperature is attained:

A within the combustion chamber A
B at entry of the exhaust unit
C in cooling airflow around the turbine
D across the turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a turbine engine the term self sustaining speed is the speed at which:

A the lowest acceptable rpm in flight occurs
B the engine will continue to run when the starter is disengaged B
C the IAS below which flame out will occur
D the highest rpm acceptable, above which the rpm will increase uncontrollably
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A gas turbine engine power change is achieved by:

A adjusting the amount of fuel supplied and the amount of air entering the compressor
B adjusting the amount of fuel supplied B
C adjusting the amount of air supplied
D adjusting the amount of fuel supplied and the amount of air entering the turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An EPR gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:

A compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
B jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure B
C turbine inlet pressure to compressor outlet pressure
D compressor inlet pressure to turbine outlet pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What happens to air pressure as it passes over the turbine blades known as impulse/reaction blades (1) and
to the elocity of the air as it passes over the nozzle guide vanes (2)?
A (1) increase; (2) decrease
B (1) decrease; (2) increase B
C (1) stays the same; (2) increase
D (1) decrease; (2) stays the same
Ref CPL A AND H
Question EPR is measured by the ratio of:

A Turbine pressure to combustion chamberilet pressure
B High pressure compressor inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
C Low pressure compressor inlet pressure to high pressure compressor outlet pressure
D exhaust pressure to low pressure compressor inlet pressure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where is EGT measured?

A In the jet pipe
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Where is EGT measured?
B HP turbine outlet B
C HP compressor outlet
D Combustion chamber
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How do you control power in a jet engine?

A By controlling the mixture ratio
B By controlling the fuel flow B
C By controlling the airflow
D By controlling the bleed valves
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is engine pressure ratio?

A The ratio of turbine outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure A
B The ratio of turbine inlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
C Turbine outlet pressure x compressor outlet pressure
D Compressor inlet pressure divided by turbine outlet pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fan stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:

A the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing
B the low pressure turbine B
C the high pressure turbine
D airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor
Question In the axial flow compressor of a turbo jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as
to:
A reduce the axial speed in cruising flight
B maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating
C maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In the axial flow compressor of a turbo jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as
to:
D reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating
Question In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is:

A internal mass airflow divided by external mass airflow
B external mass airflow divided by internal mass airflow B
C internal mass airflow divided by mass fuel flow
D mass fuel flow divided by mass fuel flow
Question The design of a fan or bypass engine spinner is such that:

A Rain/Hail can be deflcted into the engine core
B Rain/Hail can be deflected into the bypass duct B
C Damage caused by the ingestion of foreign bodies can be minimised
D Ice protection is not required
Question By comparison with a singl spool axial flow turbo-jet a twin spool engine is:

A Is mechanically complicated and has an overall lower compression ratio with high turbine inlet
temperatures
B Much less fuel efficient
C Heavier and has a lower power to weight ratio
D More flexible in operation, less prone to surge and with higher compression ratios has better D
overall performance
Question In a free turbine engine:

A its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine
B there is no mechanical connection between the compressor an the power output shaft B
C the air enters the compressor via the input turbine
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a free turbine engine:
D the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected

Ref CPL A AND H
Question What does a diffuser in a gas turbine do?

A Expands the air entering the combustion chamber
B Increase the total temperature of the air
C Increase the relative velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber
D Convert kinetic pressure into static pressure D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow
compressors are:
Choices
1) expensive to manufacture
2) limited airflow
3) greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4) lower pressure ratio

Answers Correct
A 2 - 3
B 1 - 2
C 1 - 3 C
D 2 - 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the:

A velocity, pressure and temperature rise
B pressure rises at a constant velocity
C pressure rises and velocity falls C
D velocity rises and pressure falls
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Turbine blade stages may be classed as either impulse or reaction. In an impulse blade section:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Turbine blade stages may be classed as either impulse or reaction. In an impulse blade section:

A the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor blades
B the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades
C the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades C
D the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the rotor
blades
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Airflow through a divergent duct causes:

A pressure to decrease, velocity to decrease
B pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
C pressure to increase, velocity to remain constant
D pressure to increase, velocity to decrease D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow in a gas turbine is to:

A ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded
B prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating
C prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes
D ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What makes the non-rigid fittings of compressor and turbine blades rigid when the engine is running?

A Oil pressure
B Aerodynamic and Centrifugal force B
C Aerodynamic force
D Centrifugal force
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A stage in an axial compressor:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A stage in an axial compressor:
A is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc

B has a compression ratio in the order of 0.8
C is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades C
D has a compression ratio in the order of 2,1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:

A fully in the rotor
B in the rotor and in the stator
C in order to produce a egree of jet propulsion < ½
D fully at the stator D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:

A control the acceleration time of the engine
B spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed
C enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting
D reduce the likelihood of compressor stall D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question PRESSURE RECOVERY within the air intake means that:

A As far as is possible, total head pressure is achieved at the compressor face A
B Total head pressure is achieved at the air intake
C Pressure recovery is only applied to bleed valve-operating characteristics
D Intake pressures are reduced
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a centrifugal compressor, air enters via the:

A combustion chamber
B eye of the impeller B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a centrifugal compressor, air enters via the:
C variable IGV
D diffuser
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A gas turbine blade is usually of the:

A Pelton wheel type
B Impulse type
C Reaction type
D Impulse/Reaction type D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The shape of the exhaust unit is slightly:

A Divergent and pressure increases A
B Convergent and velocity decreases
C Convergent
D Divergent and pressure decreases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Turbine blade efficiency is increased by:

A Compressor air bleeds
B Filling shrouds B
C Providing air cooling
D The fir-tree method
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-35)The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:

A single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor
B free turbine and axial compressor
C free turbine and centrifugal compressor C
D single shaft turbine and axial compressor
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question (Refer to figure 021-35)The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question A gas turbine engine turbine section may employ active clearance control:

A in order to cool the disc
B to provide enhanced clearances between the blade tips and the casing B
C in order to reduce creep in the blades
D as a method of attaching the stators and rotors to the hub of the disc
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Engine compartment decking and firewalls are manufactured from:

A Asbestos blankets
B Aluminium alloy sheet
C Composite materials such as carbon, Kevlar and fibre glass
D Stainless steel or titanium sheet D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Engine temperature limitations are usually imposed due to temperature limitations on the:

A casing of the combustion chamber
B compressor section
C turbine section C
D jet pipe
Ref CPL A AND H
Question For a subsonic airflow, in a divergent duct the:

A pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature increases
B pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature increases B
C pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature decreases
D pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature decreases
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The greatest risk created by a free turbine overspeed is:

A a surge of the gas generator
B bursting of the free turbine disk B
C creep of the turbine blades
D an engine over temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to prevent surging:

A generated by foreign object ingestion
B at low compressor rpm B
C of the first compressor stages
D with altitude
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of an axial flow compressor,
is to:
A enable to start the engine with an external air supply
B control the acceleration of the engine
C prevent the engine from an overspeed
D prevent stall in the LP compressor D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When a gas turbine engine is fitted with can-type combustion chambers:

A each chamber is fitted with two igniters
B each chamber has its own igniter
C each chamber is fitted with one igniter and one glow plug
D a total of only two igniters are usually fitted since the chambers are interconnected D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Variable inlet guide vanes and bleed valves are fitted to:

A Re-schedule the fuel system or operating medium if there is a tendency for the engine to surge
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Variable inlet guide vanes and bleed valves are fitted to:
B Ensure that theintake mechanism is set for efficient operation at all speeds and power settings,
to avoid surge onset
C Reduce opportunities for the engine to surge C
D None of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A divergent duct (diffuser) in the combustion chamber inlet and in the flame tube:

A Ensures the availability of cooling air
B Increases air pressure only just prior to combustion
C Increases inlet air velocity to a speed suitable for stable combustion
D Reduces inlet air velocity to a speed suitable for stable combustion D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The function of the nozzle guide vanes is to:

A Ensure air velocity is at a maximum and the airflow direction is correct prior to entry to the
1st stage compressor blades
B Increase the gas velocity (and therefore momentum) to as high a speed as possible and guide the B
stream at the correct angle onto the turbine blades
C Guide the gas stream on to the turbine blades at the best angle possible only
D Increase the velocity of the gas to the highest speed possible only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When bleed valves are fitted to axial flow compressors, their primary purpose is to:

A Provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low forward speed
B Reduce likelihood of compressor stall B
C Allow engine acceleration to be controlled
D Allow an external air supply to spin the compressor for starting purposes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A compressor stage is made up of :

A A rotor and a stator A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A compressor stage is made up of :
B A stator and a rotor

C Two rotors followed by a stator
D Two stators followed by a rotor
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In an impulse turbine expansion takes place:

A in the stator and rotor
B Fully in the rotor
C Fully in the stator C
D Only in the last stage of the turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the primary reason for limiting the temperature of the gas flow in a turbine?

A To prevent the combustion chamber temperature limit from being exceeded
B To prevent damage to the compressor blades
C To prevent damage to the exhaust jet pipe
D To ensure that turbine blade limiting temperatures are not exceeded D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A stage in an axial flow compressor:

A is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades A
B is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
C has a compression ratio in the order of 0:8
D has a compression ratio in the order of 2:1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question High pressure bleed valves:

A reduce the engine pressure ratio A
B increase the EGT
C have no effect on thrust
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question High pressure bleed valves:
D increase the fuel flow

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The first stage of an axial compressor:

A has a compression ratio of about 2:1
B comprises a row of stators and a rotor disc
C has a compression ratio of about 0:8
D comprises a rotor disc followed by a row of stators D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What are secondary air holes used for in a gas turbine combustion chamber?

A to increase power at low altitudes
B to increase mass flow at high Mach number cruise speed
C to increase engine cooling C
D to increase the mixture strength
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo jet engine are
the:
Choices
1) tacho generator N1
2) tacho generator N 2
3) thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4) AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSU)
5) Oil pumps
6) Hydraulic pumps
7) High pressure fuel pumps
Answers Correct
A 4, 5, 6, 7
B 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C 2, 4, 5, 6
D 1, 4, 5, 6, 7 D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
the:
1) tacho generator N1
2) tacho generator N 2
4) AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSU)
5) Oil pumps
6) Hydraulic pumps

Question Reverse thrust lights come on when:

A reverser doors are unlocked A
B when reverse power above idle is selected
C when reverse thrut is selected in flight
D when the doors move towards the stowed position inadvertently
Question The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo jet:
Choices 1) throughout the operating range of the engine

2) for accelerations
3) for ground starts
4) for in-flight relights
5) during turbulence in flight
6) under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements:

Answers Correct
A 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 A
B 3
C 2 - 3 - 4
D 1
Question A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:

A the reverser doors are locked
B reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked
C the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position
D the reverser doors are unlocked D
Question Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo prop aircraft. During deceleration:

A when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power A
B at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil
C when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power
D with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power
Question Clamshell doors are selected and actuated by the following means:

A Mechanically and pneumatically respectively A
B Electrically and electric actuator respectively
C Mechanically and hydraulically respectively
D Hydraulically and electrical actuator respectively
Question The reverse thrust levers are located on the:

A Back of the HP cocks
B Forward face of the LP cocks
C Forward face of the thrust levers C
D Back of the thrust levers
Question On a high by-pass ratio (fan) engine, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing:

A only the direction of the fan airflow A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On a high by-pass ratio (fan) engine, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing:
B only the direction of the exhaust gas flow

C the direction of rotation of the fan
D the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream)
the:
Choices
2) AC generator and its constant speed drive (CSD)
3) Oil pumps
4) Hydraulic pumps
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4, 5 C
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Question The thrust reversers of jet engines may use clamshell doors in order to:

A absorb any surge in engine thrust
B stop the flow of the exhaust gas stream
C reduce the pressure of the exhaust gas stream by diffusing it to atmosphere
D change the direction of the exhaust gas stream D
Question Thrust reverser door light illuminates on the flight deck panel when:

A thrust reverser doors have been selected but the doors have not moved
B thrust reverser doors are locked
C thrust reverser doors have moed to the reverse thrust position
D thrust reverser doors are unlocked D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Thrust reverser door light illuminates on the flight deck panel when:

Question Which of the following combinations correctly shows the systems controlled on a turbo prop aircraft? Prop
lever/RPM lever
A TGT/RPM
B RPM/TGT
C torque/TGT C
D RPM/blade angle
Question In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:

A fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected
B fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles
C jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks C
D automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted:

A in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump A
B between the oil tank and the pressure pump
C after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
D after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In very cold weather, thepilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil pressure. This
higher pressure:
A is normal, if it decreases after startup A
B is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down
C is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down
D requires an oil change
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:

A cool both the oil and the fuel
B cool the oil only
C cool the oil and heat the fuel C
D heat the fuel only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned:

A between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle
B between the needle valve and themetering jet
C upstream of the needle valve C
D downstream of the discharge nozzle
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close:

A After a booster pump failure
B When the engine fuel switch is selected on during engine start
C When flight idle is selected
D When the engine fuel switch is selected off during engine shut-down D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler)?

A To maintain theoil at the correct temperature
B To heat the fuel and cool the oil B
C To heat the oil and cool the fuel
D To by pass oil to the engine if the oil pressure filter becomes blocked
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Using compressor bleed air to power systems:

A increases aircraft performance
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
B has no influence on aircraft performance

C decreases aircraft performance C
D is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter is showing a
high charge rate to the battery.
A indicates a faulty reverse current relay
B would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists B
C indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge
D indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The air intake of an aircraft with supersonic capability may well have fitted:

A A secondary intake for supersonic flight
B A spill port for take off
C A secondary intake for take off and a spill port for supersonic flight C
D A spill port for use with the after burner
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The usual methods of starting civil aircraft engines are:

A AVPIN or compressed air bottles
B Electrical starter motor or AVPIN
C Air starter motor or starter cartridge
D Air starter motor or electrical starter motor D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question There are two types of oil system:

A Total loss and pressure relief types
B Total loss and full flow systems
C Pressure relief and full flow systems C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question There are two types of oil system:
D None of the above

Ref CPL A AND H
Question When is ice protection required?

A Flying in cloud in a temperature of +15oC
B On the ground in temperatures if greater than +10oC
C Flying in clouds through supercooled water droplets C
D Should be switched on when the engine is running
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On most gas turbine engines the Take off power has a time limit of:

A 5 minutes only
B 10 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 5 minutes unless an emergency exists which requires this power D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A magnetic plug in an engine oil system can be used to:

A prevent metallic particles from entering the oil system
B collect ferrous particles B
C collect carbon found in the oil
D collect static electricity
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A pressure relief valve in an oil system that does not seat correctly would result in:

A high oil pressure
B low oil pressure B
C excessive oil consumption
D low oil temperature
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aircraft flying in conditions of continuous heavy rain and high ambient temperatures may require the
precautionary use of:
A engine intake anti-icing only
B airframe de-icing only
C engine igniters C
D both engine intake anti-icing and airframe de-icing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Engine auxiliary gearboxes:

A never provide a torque sensing facility
B always provide drives for fuel pumps, oil pumps, speed sensing and torque sensing
C provide the drives for a wide variety of services and may even provide for the support of the C
engine in the airframe
D are driven by the output from the free power turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Engine oil reservoirs are sometimes located at the front of the engine:

A Because it is the most distant position from the exhaust
B To utilise the structure necessary to contain the oil to form the engine accessory gearbox and
provide mounting points for oil and fuel pumps
C To provide an attachment point for the mounting of the compressor and turbine bearings
D To allow the hot oil to heat the air intake D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a gas turbine engine lubrication system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger provides:

A automatic controlled fuel heating by engine oil to prevent icing in the fuel filter
B fuel cooling to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles
C fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected
D oil cooling through thermal exchange with the fuel D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that:

A the piston rings are worn
B there are metal particles in the oil B
C the seals are worn
D the oil temperature is too high
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The sand filter located at the air intake of a gas turbine engine:

A has no effect on the efficiency of the air intake
B increases the efficiency of the air intake
C reduces the efficiency of the air intake C
D has an effect on the efficiency of the compressor only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The selection of bleed air to ON will cause:

A a reduction of torque and gas generator RPM with an increase of exhaust temperature
B a decrease in gas generator RPM with no change in poiweror exhaust temperatures
C an increase in exhaust temperature, gas generator speed and power
D a decrease in power and an increase in exhaust temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Vents in oil tanks are primarily to:

A prevent excessive pressure from building up in tank A
B prevent overthrow
C allow for expansion of hot oil
D eliminate foaming
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a wet oil sump oil system, oil is kept in the:

A Engine and sump A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a wet oil sump oil system, oil is kept in the:
B Sump and tank

C Tank and oil cooler
D Engine and tank
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The capacity of a scavenge pump in an oil system:

A Varies with fuel pressure
B Is the same as the pressure pump
C Is greater than the pressure pump in a wet sump system
D Is greater than the pressure pump in a dry sump system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The air space in the top of the oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system is for:

A Topping up
B Inverted flight
C Separation of water vapour from the oil
D Expansion and foaming D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Viscosity of oil depends on:

A Oil pressure
B Condition of engine
C Oil temperature C
D Amount of oil in the sump
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most common fire extinguishant used in gas turbine engines is:

A Dry powder
B Carbon dioxide
C Water
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The most common fire extinguishant used in gas turbine engines is:
D Freon D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A torque meter is situated:

A between the engine and propeller A
B on the auxiliary gearbox
C between the turbine and the gearbox
D in the spinner housing
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The oil pressure gauge measures oil pressure:

A before the pressure pump
B after the pressure pump B
C differential across the pressure pump
D in the tank
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a gas turbine engine fuel sytem why is the fuel heater before the filter?

A To prevent waxing
B To help vaporisation of the fuel
C To prevent water in the fuel freezing and blocking the filter C
D To prevent the fuel from freezing and blocking the filter
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in an engine lubrication system is greater than that of the pressure
pump(s) in order to?
A Prevent cavitation of the oil system feed lines
B Ensure heat is dissipated more effectively
C Compensate for thermal expansion of the lubricating fluid
D Ensure that the engine sump remains dry D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a Dry Sump oil system, where is the Oil Cooler fitted?

A Between the suction filter and the pressure pump
B Between the scavenge pump and the oil tank B
C Between the pressure pump and the pressure filter
D Between the pressure filter and the crankshaft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the effect of taking Bleed-Air from a Gas Turbine Engine?

A Increase EPR, Increase EGT
B Inrease EPR, Decrease EGT
C Decrease EPR, Decrease EGT
D Decrease EPR, Increase EGT D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for
stalling, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing
Choices of the starting cycle as well as protection against:
Answers Correct
A high TGT only
B high TGT and loss of oil pressure only
C overspeed and high oil temperature only
D high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also
supplies both in the air (subject of certification limitations) and on the ground:
A air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure
B air conditioning and electrical services B
C either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time
D air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up
services (in the air)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:

A ground power unit
B ground power unit, the air conditioning unit
C ground power unit, the starting system
D ground power unit, the starting system, the airconditioning unit D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which:

A must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled
with the latter
B supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200V, 400 Hz AC B
C is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) in the same way as the main AC
generator
D is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide:
Choices 1) electricity
2) air for starting system
3) hydraulic pressure
4) air for air conditioning

Answers Correct
A 1
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 4 C
D 1, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An automatic escape slide:

A can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only A
B can only be activated from the flight deck
C automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An automatic escape slide:
D inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircraft
Question Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:

A pressurised gas canister combined with the slide itself A
B the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit
C a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew
D pressurised air from the air conditioning system
Question Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the
ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than:
A 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse
B 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended B
C 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse
D 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended
Question How are escape slides inflated?

A Fed from bleed air system
B Self contained gas bottle B
C Hand pumped by cabin crew
D Using the oral inflation adapter
Question An aircraft entrance door is fitted with an automatic escape slide, the door is armed from the inside by the
cabin crew:
A The door cannot be opened from the outside
B if the door is opened from the outside the slide will remain stowed B
C If the door is opened from the outside the slide will deploy and inflate
D Entrance to the aircraft from outside must be made through the break in panel
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When the door operation of a modern transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from
the outside, the slide:
A is disarmed automatically A
B unfolds and becomes inflated
C unfolds but does not become inflated
D becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding
Question An airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground
safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:
A 1.80m
B 1.83m B
C 1.86m
D 1.89m
Question An emergency exit assisted escape device must be fitted if the door sill height is above:

A 8 ft with the aircraft on thelanding gear with the nose wheel extended
B 8 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nose wheel collapsed
C 6 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nose wheel extended
D 6 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nose wheel collapsed D
Question A manual inflation handle:

A serves to inflate a lift jacket when the normal inflation function fails
B operates a hand pump formanual inflation of a slide
C serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails C
D is generally not applied on slides
Question When opening an aircraft door from outside, what happens to the escape slide?

A becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When opening an aircraft door from outside, what happens to the escape slide?
B unfolds and becomes inflated

C is disarmed C
D unfolds but does not become inflated
Question The purpose of the floor proximity emergency escape path marking system is to:

A give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation at night only
B replace the overhead emergency lighting in event of failure
C mark only the threshold exits
D give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a reduced cabin visibility D
Question How is an evacuation slide inflated?

C With air from the air conditioning system
D With air from the aircraft’s pneumatic system
D With engine bleed air
D With a pressurised gas canister which is combined with the slide D
Question The minimum height for door sills before a means of assisting escape is required is:

D 1.83m D
D 1.82m
D 1.28m
D 1.38m
Question When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the
outside, the slide:
A will deploy but not inflate
B will automatically deploy
C becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the
outside, the slide:
D will automatically be disarmed D
Question If an emergency evacuation slide fails to inflate:

A the slide can be inflated with an oral inflation tube
B the slide can be inflated by pulling a manual inflation handle B
C the slide cannot be used
D the slide can be inflated using a foot pump
Question The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes:

A must be arranged to allow at least 50% of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within two
minutes
B must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 B
sec. through 50% of the available emergency exits
C depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator
D must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are
inoperative the:
Choices
1) external door opening mechanism
2) internal door opening mechanism
3) door opening aid device
4) open door locking system
5) auxiliary means of evacuation
6) emergency lighting

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 A
B 1, 2, 5, 6
C 2, 3, 4, 6
D 1, 3, 4, 5
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are
inoperative the:
1) external door opening mechanism

2) internal door opening mechanism
3) door opening aid device
4) open door locking system
5) auxiliary means of evacuation
6) emergency lighting

Ref CPL A AND H
Question Aircraft above a certain capacity must carry a crash axe, it is provided to:

A cut through the aircraft fuselage to allow escape
B enable access behind panels and sound proofing to aid fire fighting B
C cut firewood in a survival situation
D restrain disorderly passengers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A cut in area:

A always has a crash axe located next to it
B is designated as a weaker fuselage area
C is lit internally by the emergency lighting system
D is delineated by external markings having right angled corners D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to:

A replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure
B replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke B
C mark only the exits at the floor level
D to be used only at night
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In normal flight, what is the position of the Emergency Lighting Switch?
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In normal flight, what is the position of the Emergency Lighting Switch?

A ON
B OFF
C ARMED C
D STBY
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The number of emergency exits depends on:

A the number of passengers on board
B the ability to evacuate all passengers in 90 seconds with 50% exits available
C the number of passenger seats C
D the number of cabin crew available
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where are smoke detectors fitted?

A toilets
B toilets and cargo compartments A, B, C, D, E
C all cargo compartments
D toilets and cargo compartments B, C, E D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:

A optical or ionisation A
B chemical
C electrical
D magnetic
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An ion detector detects:

A smoke and fire
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An ion detector detects:
B smoke B
C overheat
D light
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect:

A over temperature
B smoke B
C fire
D over temperature and fire
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Smoke detector systems are installed in the

A engine nacelles
B wheel wells
C upper cargo compartments (class E) C
D fuel tanks
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On what principle do smoke detectors work?

A Resistance and capacitance
B Ionisation and impedance
C Optical and ionisation C
D Inductance and light diffraction
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The type of smoke detection system fitted to aircraft is:

A optical and ionisation A
B chemical
C electrical
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The type of smoke detection system fitted to aircraft is:
D magnetic
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Regarding fire detection, ion detectors are used to detect:

A smoke A
B over temperature
C fire
D over temperature and fire
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How do you test a gaseous smoke detector?

A use pressurised gas to test the sensor
B use the test button B
C use a Lindburgh Fire Detector
D apply heat to the detector
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Aircraft toilets must be fitted with fire-extinguishing and smoke-detection systems if the seating capacity
is more than?
A 200
B 100
C 50
D 20 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:

A tyres
B cabin
C fuel tanks
D landing gear bays/wheel wells D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In which of the following areas would an overheat warning be provided?

A wheel/undercarriage bay A
B cabin
C tyres
D fuel tank
Question When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested:

A a part of the wire is totally heated
B Only the warning function is tested
C the wiring and the warning are tested C
D the wire is totally heated
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature
produces:
A a decrease in the reference current
B an increase in resistance
C a decrease in resistance C
D a decrease in pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:

A activate an alarm in the cockpit and in thelanding gear bay for ground crew
B activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground
C automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of
fire
D inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On a large transport multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On a large transport multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes:
A both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

B a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
C a single warning light and a single alarm bell
D a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fire detection systems:

A automatically fire the engine extinguishers
B can only use AC electricity
C are connected to the vital bus bar
D can be tested from the flight deck D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the line is
accidently grounded:
A there will be no effect on the system
B the power supply is cut off automatically
C the fire alarm is triggered C
D the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:

A gear warning
B warning bell
C warning ligiht
D warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert) D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is
initiated by a temperature increase detected:
A at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops A
B only at an isolated point of the loops
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is
initiated by a temperature increase detected:
C only in a uniform way along the loops
D on at least one loop
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:

A Carbon dioxide warning system
B Smoke detection system
C Fire detection system C
D Fire fighting system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a
delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
A wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
B avoid false alarms in case of vibrations B
C delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency
D allow temperatures to equalise
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated:
Choices 1) its resistance decreases

2) its resistance increases
3) the leakage current increases
4) the leakage current decreases

Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 2, 4
D 1, 3 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by:

A checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor
B checking the sensor with pressurised gas
C heating up the sensor with test power connection C
D checking the continuity of the system with a test switch
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The bimetal strip detectors of an engine fire detection system:
Choices 1) are arranged in series

2) are arranged in parallel
3) open during a fire
4) close during a fire

Answers Correct
A 1 and 3 only A
B 1 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The continuous loop system is used:

A As a smoke detector
B As a fire detector B
C As a carbon monoxide detector
D As a fire fighting system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The principle of operation of fire wire is:

A positive co-efficient of resistance, negative co-efficient of capacitance
B positive co-efficient of inductance, negative co-efficient of impedance
C positive co-efficient of capacitance, negative co-efficient of resistance C
D positive co-efficient of impedance, negative co-efficient of inductance
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The principle of operation of fire wire is:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question The flight deck warning on activation of a fire detection system is:

A an individual warning light and bell
B a common warning light and a common bell
C a warning light only
D an individual warning light and common warning bell D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When is an engine overheat fire wire system activated?

A when a point overheat affects both detector loops A
B when a point overheat affects one detector loop
C when an overheat is detected all along the length of one fire wire loop
D when an overheat is detected all along the length of both fire wire loops
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How is a typical gas turbine engine fire detection system tested?

A using a heat source
B using a pressure source
C it cannot be checked apart from a physical wiring check
D there is a test circuit that carries out a continuity check D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Fire wire detects a fire by:

A detecting the smoke that is produced by the fire
B detecting the heat caused by the fire B
C detecting the flame produced by the fire
D all of the above
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is:

A warning bell
B gear warning
C warning light and warning bell C
D warning light
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors
are located in the highest risk compartments. These compartments are:
Choices
1) the main landing gear wheel wells
2) the fuel tanks
3) the oil tanks
4) the auxiliary power unit
5) around the engines

Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 4, 5 B
C 2, 5
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Most modern aeroplanes have fire extinguishers in the toilet compartments which are:

A manually operated to release the extinguishant
B fully automatic and activated by smoke
C automatic and self activated by heat C
D operated by a switch in the cockpit and/or a switch at each cabin attendant station
Question How many fire extinguishers do you need in the cabin if you have between 501-600 passengers?

A 5
B 6
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question How many fire extinguishers do you need in the cabin if you have between 501-600 passengers?
C 7 C
D 8
Question How many fire extinguishers are required in the passenger compartment for 401-500 passengers?

A 4
B 5
C 6 C
D 7
Question The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they:

A use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge
B act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen B
C are electrical conductors
D are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system of an aircraft is pulled, the effects are:
Choices 1) closing of the LP valve of the fuel system

2) opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
3) setting of extinguishing systems
4) closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5) isolation of the associated electric current generators
6) immediate discharge of extinguishing agent

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 5, 6
B 1, 3, 4, 5 B
C 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What type of fire extinguisher must be located on a flight deck?

A Water
B Dry powder
C Special fluid
D Halon D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is:

A Water
B Freon B
C CO2
D Powder
Ref CPL A AND H
Question (Refer to figure 021-36)When fire is detected on engine no2, the fire shut off handle no2 is pulled and the
extinguishing agent no1 is discharged. This results in:
A the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle no2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of
agent no1 on engine no1 and agent no2 on engine no2
B the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle no1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) B
indicator lamp
C the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle no1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of
agent no1 on both engines
D the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle no1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of
agent no1 on engine no2 and DISCH indicator lamp of agent no2 on engine no1
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The engine fire extinguisher system is activated:

A after the engine has been shut down
B automatically when a fire warning is sensed
C by the pilot when required C
D automatically after a time delay to allow the engine to stop
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An automatic toilet fire extinguisher is activated by:

A odor detection
B CO2
C heat detection C
D smoke detection
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When an engine bay fixed fire extinguisher is activated, to what location is the extinguishant directed?

A the engine intake
B the low pressure end of the outside of the engine compressor B
C into the combustion chambers
D the high pressure end of the engine turbine
Ref CPL A AND H
Question With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:

A is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
B is automatic and immediate
C is the pilot's task C
D does not need the engine to be stopped
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fuel temperature,at which under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with flame and
extinguishes immediately, is the:
A self-ignition point
B flash point B
C fire point
D combustion point
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Who are smoke hoods available to and for how long must they give oxygen?

A everyone on board the aircraft and last for 15 minutes
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Who are smoke hoods available to and for how long must they give oxygen?
B the aircraft crew and must last for 20 minutes

C the aircraft crew and must last for 15 minutes C
D the flight deck crew and must last for 20 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What would you use on a magnesium fire?

A Foam
B BCF
C Sand C
D Water
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The best extinguishing product for a wheel fire is:

A dry powder A
B CO2
C water
D foam
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fire extinguisher on the flight deck should be filled with:

A water
B carbon dioxide
C halon C
D a special fluid
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The fire extinguisher system for an engine is activated:

A immediately that a fire is sensed and is automatic
B is automatic but is delayed to allow pilot to take out appropriate actions
C by the pilot as required
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The fire extinguisher system for an engine is activated:
D once the engine has been shut down D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The meaning of the phrase a double shot fire extinguisher is:

A each of two engines has its own independent fire extinguisher
B there is a single fire extinguisher that can be fired in two directions
C each engine has two fire extinguishers
D each engine has a fire extinguisher, and if a second shot is required the bottle of the adjacent D
engine may be used
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A Flight Deck indication that a fire extinguishing agent has been discharged would be?

A Light only A
B Light and Horn
C Horn only
D Aural warning
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The survival oxygen is:

C the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
D the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons
D the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurisation D
D a therepautical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers
Question The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:

D opening the oxygen-bottle valves
D switching the diluter demand regulator ON
D switching the passenger oxygen ON D
D switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:

Question The chemical oxygen generator is a system:
Choices 1) which is inexpensive

2) requiring no external input
3) which is lightweight
4) requiring no maintenance
5) with adjustable flow rate
6) which is unsafe

Answers Correct
A 2, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 6
C 1, 4, 6
D 1, 3, 4 D
Question The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passenger service units. The oxygen flow starts:

A immediately
B after pulling the oxygen mask downwards B
C only above FL200
D After the system has been switched on by a crew member
Question The minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100% of the passengers during and following
an emergency descend is:
A 30 minutes
B 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, B
whichever is the greater
C the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000
D the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes
Question The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is:

A Chemical compound
B Gaseous B
C Liquid
D Gaseous or chemical compound
Question The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers
is:
Choices
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system

Answers Correct
A 1, 2 A
B 1, 3
C 2, 3
D 2, 4
Question An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has
the following characteristics:
Choices
- maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness = 230
- Number of seats on board = 200
- Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should
be:
Answers Correct
A 180
B 230
C 200
D 220 D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made
up of 30 rows (3 seats form each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this
Choices aeroplane must be:
Answers Correct
A 198 (110% of the seating capacity) A
B 270 (150% of the seating capacity)
C 240 (one additional mask per seat block)
D 210 (one additional mask per seat row)
Question A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passengers are on board and the expected
Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall
Choices provide breathing supply for at least:
Answers Correct
A 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude of more than A
8000 ft
B no first aid required
C 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000
and 14000 ft
D 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000
and 14000 ft
Question A passenger emergency mask is a:

A an on deman type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin
B a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin B
C a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin
D an on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin
Question If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:

A oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug A
B oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers
C passenger oxygen masks will drop down
D oxygen bottles will explode
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that:

A setting on NORMAL the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen/cabin air A
B the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers
C the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks
D the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen
Question During and following an emergency descent,
each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum
Choices amount of oxygen in:
1) order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater
than 13000 ft
2) order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater
than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes
3) no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft
4) no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft

Answers Correct
A 1, 2
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 B
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 4
Question In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:

A liquid
B gaseous B
C chemical
D chemical or gaseous
Question Emergency oxygen is provided by:

A one system for both flight deck and cabin
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Emergency oxygen is provided by:
B two independent systems, one for flight deck, one for cabin B
C two systems each capable of supplying the flight deck and cabin
D three systems, one for the flight deck, one for the passengers and one for the cabin crew
Question When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select:

A Normal
B 1
C Diluter
D Emergency D
Question The passenger oxygen drop-down mask stowage doors are released:

A by a lanyard operated by a barometric capsule
B mechanically
C electrically for chemical oxygen generators and pneumatically for gaseous systems C
D manually by the cabin crew
Question . The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
Choices 1) a greater autonomy

2) no risk of explosion
3) reversible functioning
4) easy storage and maintenance
5) possibility to regulate flow

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 5 B
C 2, 4, 5
D 2, 3, 4
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The passenger oxygen mask will supply:

A Cabin air and oxygen A
B 100% oxygen
C Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen
D A mixture of oxygen and Freon gas
Question When an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals
must be at least greater than the number of:
A seats by 305
B passengers by 10%
C seats by 10% C
D passengers by 30%
Question The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about:

A 5 minutes
B 30 minutes
C 2 hours
D 15 minutes D
Question An aircraft is to fly at 29000 ft. When should the oxygen briefing take place?

A before reaching 10000 ft
B before reaching 14000 ft
C at 20000 ft
D before take off D
Question At what height is it mandatory for one of the flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask?

A 25000 ft
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question At what height is it mandatory for one of the flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask?
B 32000 ft
C 37000 ft
D 41000 ft D
Question Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by

A pushing the mask against the face and breath normally
B activating the relevant switch in the cockpit
C firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed
D firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened D
Question An aircraft is certified to carry a maximum of 240 passengers, it is configured to carry 200 and actually
has 180 passengers on board. The minimum number of drop-down oxygen masks provided must be:
A 180
B 200
C 220 C
D 240
Question As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a
demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be
Choices completed before:
Answers Correct
A take off A
B the aircraft reaches FL 100
C the aircraft reaches FL 140
D the aircraft reaches FL 250
Question An oxygen regulator has 3 controlls:
Choices - a power lever: ON/OFF

- an “O2” lever: NORMAL/100%
- an emergency lever: ON/OFF
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An oxygen regulator has 3 controlls:
- a power lever: ON/OFF

- an “O2” lever: NORMAL/100%
- an emergency lever: ON/OFF
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is:
Answers Correct
C the power lever on ON, and th “O2” lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and C
enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude
D the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure
D the “O2” lever on ON enables breathing of the over pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate
D with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to
breathe

Question In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:

D pure oxygen at the ambient pressure
D pure oxygen under pressure
D a mixture of oxygen and cabin air D
D cabin air under pressure
Question What is the purpose of the diluter demand valve in the emergency oxygen system?

A To supply air only when inhaling
B To dilute oxygen with air in crew oxygen system B
C To dilute oxygen with air in passenger oxygen system
D To supply oxygen only when inhaling
Question A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets
in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
A passengers
B seats
C seats exceeded by 10% C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets
in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
D passengers exceeded by 10%
Question The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:

A 8000 ft
B 10000 ft B
C 13000 ft
D 14000 ft
Question Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the:

A cabin only A
B cockpit and the cabin
C cockpit only
D toilets only
Question Modern pressurised transport airplanes are equipped with:

A only portable oxygen bottles
B only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft
C two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin
D two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin D
Question Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight:

A 490
B 300
C 250
D 410 D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
Choices 1) reduced weight and volume

2) easy storage and maintenance
3) greater autonomy
4) no risk of explosion
5) reversible functioning
6) no maintenance

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 5
C 1, 4 and 6
D 1, 2, 4 and 6 D
Question The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurised aircraft at a 240
flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board. As concerns the
Choices regulatory requirements about oxygen:
1) each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device
2) the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than
3000 m
3) the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100% of the occupants during the
whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurisation
4) the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole
flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8000 feet.

Answers Correct
C 3, 4
D 2
D 2, 3 D
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Question Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurised airplanes in:
Choices 1) an emergency in the case of depressurisation

2) an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger
3) normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin
4) an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurised airplanes in:
1) an emergency in the case of depressurisation

2) an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger
3) normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin
4) an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases

Answers Correct
D 1, 4 D
D 1, 2, 4
D 3
D 2, 3
Question A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks
for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation the masks must be automatically released before the
Choices cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
Answers Correct
A 12000 ft
B 12500 ft
C 14000 ft
D 15000 ft D
Question From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a
pressurised aircraft?
A FL 300
B FL 390
C FL 100
D FL 250 D
for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the
Choices cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
Answers Correct
A 12000 ft
B 14000 ft
C 15000 ft C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the
cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
D 13000 ft
Question The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

A provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent A
following a depressurisation
B provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection
C supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation
D provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation
Question The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
Choices 1. a flow which cannot be modulated

2. a heavy and bulky system
3. non reversible functioning
4. risks of explosion
5. poor autonomy

Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 5
C 1, 3, 5 C
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Question The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:
Choices 1) the smoking ban is imperative when used

2) in case of accidental drop of the “continuous flow” passenger masks, no crew action is required
3) no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
4) the system’s filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite grease
Answers Correct
A 2 - 3
B 2 - 4
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:
1) the smoking ban is imperative when used

2) in case of accidental drop of the “continuous flow” passenger masks, no crew action is required
3) no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
4) the system’s filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite grease
C 1 - 3 C
D 1 - 4
Question Fixed oxygen systems in pressurised aeroplanes are used to provide oxygen:
Choices 1) in the event of depressurisation

2) in the event of any passenger indisposition
3) during a normal flight
4) in the event of smoke or toxic fumes in the cockpit

Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 2, 4
C 3
D 1, 4 D
Question Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must:

A operate the relevant switch in his armrest
B firmly pull the mask towards his face B
C firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage
D turn the oxygen valve to open
Question Regarding the oxygen system of an aeroplane:

A with the setting on NORMAL, the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air A
B the same source of supply is used by the crew and passengers
C the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Regarding the oxygen system of an aeroplane:
D the passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen

Question The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
Choices 1) a flow which cannot be modulated

2) a heavy and bulky system
3) non-reversible functioning
4) risks of explosion
5) poor autonomy

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 5 B
C 2, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 5
Question What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

A Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen
B 100% oxygen
C Cabin air and oxygen C
D A mixture of oxygen and Freon gas
Question Survival oxygen must be carried for 100% of the passengers of a pressurised aircraft for:

A Th entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft
B The greater of 10 minutes or the entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 B
ft
C 2 hours
D The entire time when cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft
Question Survival oxygen must be carried for all flight deck occupants on flight deck duty of a non-pressurised
aircraft for:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Survival oxygen must be carried for all flight deck occupants on flight deck duty of a non-pressurised
aircraft for:
A The entire flight time when pressure altitude is above 13000 ft
B The greater of 10 minutes or the entire flight time when pressure altitude is above 15000 ft
C 2 hours
D The entire time when pressure altitude is above 10000 ft D
Question Quick donning masks for flight crew are required when pressurised aircraft are to be operated above:

A FL 100
B FL 250 B
C FL 300
D FL 150
Question For a pressurised flight at FL 290 if a brief on emergency decompression equipment is necessary when must it
be given?
A before FL 290
B before FL 140
C before FL 100
D before take off D
Question On a pressurised aircraft the passenger briefing regarding the use of O2 equipment needs to be completed
before:
A 8000¿
B 10000¿
C 14000¿
D take off D
Question An aircraft operating at FL 350 must have sufficient supplementary oxygen available for 30% of the
passengers for a descent from its max certificated operating altitude:
C to allow a descent to 13,000 ft in 30 minutes
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aircraft operating at FL 350 must have sufficient supplementary oxygen available for 30% of the
passengers for a descent from its max certificated operating altitude:
D to allow a descent to 15,000 ft in 4 minutes
D to allow a descent to 15,000 ft in 10 minutes D
D to allow a descent to 10,000 ft in 4 minutes
Question At what aircraft altitude is it mandatory for flight crew to wear oxygen masks?

A 25,000 ft
B 35,000 ft
C 41,000 ft C
D 49,000 ft
Question In a Diluter Demand Oxygen system with the system selected On and Normal at a Cabin Altitude of 20,000 ft,
the Crew would receive from the regulator?
A 100% oxygen on demand
B A mixture of Cabin Air and Oxygen on demand B
C 100% Oxygen continuously
D A Mixture of Cabin Air and Oxygen continuously
Question Passenger Oxygen chemical generators will supply oygen for a minimum of?

A 2 Hours
B 15 Minutes B
C 110 Minutes
D 30 Minutes
Question 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire
flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
A 15000 ft
B 10000 ft
C 14000 ft
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire
flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
D 13000 ft D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:
Choices 1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparks

2. avoid operation of radio communication equipment
3. slowly operate oxygen system valves
4. avoid greasy matter

Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 3, 4 B
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:

A not able to do any radio communication
B only able to receive
C only able to transmit
D able to radio telephone D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen
regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:
Choices
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude

Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 4, 5 A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen
regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude

B 3, 4, 5, 6
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 4, 6
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of the Pressure Relief Valve in a high pressure oxygen system is to:

A act as a manual shut-off valve
B reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator
C relieve over pressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions C
D maximise the charging pressure of the system
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is:

A Halon
B Water
C Grease C
D Nitrogen
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the:

A pressure in the oxygen reservoir ismotre than 500 psi
B diluter control is in normal position
C user requires 100 percent oxygen
D user breathes in D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the:
Ref CPL A AND H

Question A diluter demand oxygen regulator selected to 100%:

A delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100
B delivers oxygen flow when inhaling B
C is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit
D mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a non-pressurised airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve
for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
A 12500 ft
B 10000 ft B
C 13000 ft
D 14000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:

A protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases
B give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respirator disorders B
C protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation
D protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

A on demand
B normal
C emergency
D 100% D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen
system regulator:
A increases when the altitude increases A
B decreases when the altitude increases
C is constant whatever the altitude
D is 100%
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A smoke mask is a:

A mask with flow on request and covers the whole face A
B continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth
C continuous flow mask and covers the whole face
D mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight
time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than:
A 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes A
B 13000 ft
C 10000 ft
D 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The type of an aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers is mostly:

A a pressure demand system
B protable equipment only
C an air recycle system
D a continuous flow system D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:

A the oxygen system would be contaminated
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:
B these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark
C these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters
D these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The passenger oxygen mask will supply:

A a mixture of oxygen and Freon gas
B a mixture of cabin air and oxygen B
C 100% oxygen
D a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100% oxygen
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The contents of an oxygen bottle can be ensured by the:
Choices 1) weight
2) pressure
3) level
4) volume

Answers Correct
A 1 and 3 only
B 1 and 2 only B
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 4 only
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The replenishment of an onboard oxygen bottle must be done:

C with the engine(s) off C
D with the engine(s) on
D with the engine(s) at idle
D with a ground power unit connected, electrical power supplied
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Oxygen which is used in the cockpit of large transport aeroplanes is stored on the aircraft:

A In liquid form
B As a gas B
C As a chemical compound
D As a gas or chemical compound
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A diluter demand type oxygen regulator:

A Supplies oxygen when the recipient inhales A
B Delivers a continuous supply of oxygen
C Mixes oxygen and air in a passenger mask
D Supplies oxygen only above FL 150
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for ___ calculated for the
entire flight time which, following depressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than____:
A one passenger, 10000 ft
B two passengers, 10000 ft
C one passenger, 8000 ft C
D two passengers, 8000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is therapeutic oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft?

A To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes
B To protect certain passengers and carried only for those passengers
C To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew C
D To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is supplementary oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft?

D To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is supplementary oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft?
D To protect certain passengers and carried only for those passengers

D To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew
D To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Where automatically deployable oxygen masks are required they must deploy before the cabin altitude reaches:

A 15,000 ft A
B 14,000 ft
C 13,000 ft
D 10,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised airplane must have a supply of supplemental oxygen for the entire
flight time:
A at pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft
B at pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft
C after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft C
D at pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure
altitudes above 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question At what altitude must you provide oxygen for 10% of the passengers in a pressurised aircraft?

A for the complete flight
B for the entire flight above 13,000 ft
C for the entire flight above 10,000 ft
D between 10,000 ft and 14,000 ft after the first 30 minutes D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An unpressurised aircraft flying above FL 100 must have sufficient supplementary oxygen for:

A the flight crew
B the flight crew, cabin crew and passengers
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An unpressurised aircraft flying above FL 100 must have sufficient supplementary oxygen for:
C the flight crew immediately and the cabin crew and a proportion of the passengers after 30
minutes above FL 130
D the flight crew immediately and the cabin crew and all of the passengers when above FL 130 D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Oxygen supplied to the flight deck is

A Gaseous, diluted with ambient air if required
B Chemically generated and diluted with cabin air if required
C Gaseous, diluted with cabin air if required C
D Chemically generated, diluted with ambient air if required
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An unpressurised aircraft is flying above FL 100 and therefore must have sufficient oxygen for:

A Both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus all passengers after 30 minutes above FL 100 but
below FL 130
B Both pilots only
C Both pilots and all passengers
D Both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus some passengers after 30 minutes above FL 100 D
but below FL 130
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What happens if a gaseous oxygen cylinder is over pressurised?

A a pressurerelief valve vents the excess pressure into the atmosphere
B a burstingdisc vents the complete contents of the cylinder(s) to atmosphere B
C a pressureregulator will prevent the excess pressure damaging the system
D a pressurerelief valve vents the excess pressure into the fuselage
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a Diluter Demand Crew oxygen system when set to normal:

A Pure Oxygen is supplied below 32,000 ft
B A Cabin Air and Oxygen mix is supplied below 32,000 ft B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a Diluter Demand Crew oxygen system when set to normal:
C Cabin Air is supplied above 32,000 ft

D 100% Oxygen is supplied under pressure
Ref CPL A AND H
Question There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point
along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency
Choices landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulation is:
Answers Correct
A 60 life jackets and 3 30-seat life boats A
B 60 life jackets
C one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
D 60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats
Question A turbo prop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an
aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out
Choices airspeed is 155 kt.
Answers Correct
A Life jackets must be available for all occupants A
B The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular
case
C Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants
D Life rafts must be available for all occupants
Question In a pressurised transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:

D gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders
D protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation
D protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation
D protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases D
Question An aeroplane's mass exceeds 5700 kg and it has a maximum approved seating configuration of 150.It must be
equipped with a:
A Crash axe and a crowbar in the passenger compartment
B Crash axe or a crowbar in the pilot compartment B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aeroplane's mass exceeds 5700 kg and it has a maximum approved seating configuration of 150.It must be
equipped with a:
C Crash axe and a crowbar in the pilot compartment
D Crash axe in the pilot compartment and a crowbar in the passenger compartment
Question An aeroplane has a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 450 seats; it must be equipped with
at least how many hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment?
A 5
B 6 B
C 7
D 8
Question An aircraft cannot fly over remote areas which would hamper rescue efforts, unless carrying additional
survival aids. A remote area is more than:
A 30 min cruise from an airfield
B 60 min cruise from an airfield
C 90 min cruise from an airfield C
D 120 min cruise from an airfield
Question An aircraft with 201 seats requires how many fire axes?

A 1
B 2 B
C 3
D none
Question A turbo prop aircraft is flying with 60 persons on board at 240 kt and is 2 hrs away from land, the minimum
survival equipment is:
A 60 life jackets
B 60 life jackets plus 3 life rafts each for 30 people B
C 60 life jackets plus 2 life rafts each for 30 people
D 2 life rafts each for 30 people
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A turbo prop aircraft is flying with 60 persons on board at 240 kt and is 2 hrs away from land, the minimum
survival equipment is:
Question The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to:

A settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety
B free exits in case of evacuation via the sides
C activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
D obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at
least:
A 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger- compartment A
B 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger- compartment
C 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger- compartment
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a propane fire?

A foam A
B water
C dry powder
D sand
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If an aircraft has 10 seats how many fire extinguishers are required?

A 1 A
B 2
C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the
number of:
A emergency exits in the cabin
B set rows in the cabin
C passengers in the cabin
D seats in the cabin D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Smoke hoods protect:

A full face and provide a continuous flow of oxygen A
B mouth and nose and provide a continuous flow of oxygen
C full face and provide oxygen on demand
D mouth and nose and provide oxygen on demand
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the emergency teams are a
flare:
A which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime A
B and a smoke device which are only used at night
C which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night
D and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:

A 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin A
B 5 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin
C 7 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin
D 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the cabin
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:

A 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An airplane whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:
B 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

C 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment C
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Aeroplane with only one passenger deck equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers. The
available number of megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board are:
A 1 A
B 2
C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seat must be
equipped with at least:
C 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats mut be equipped with
at least:
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a ditching situation the passenger life jackets will be inflated:

A once the passengers are in the water
B immediately on the opening of the exits
C immediately on ditching
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In a ditching situation the passenger life jackets will be inflated:
D when leaving the airplane D

Ref CPL A AND H
Question The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main
electric power system has been cut off for at least:
A 90 seconds
B 10 minutes B
C 5 minutes
D 30 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The battery in a search and rescue beacon (SARB) should last for:

A 72 hours
B 48 hours B
C 24 hours
D 12 hours
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with
at least:
Ref CPL A AND H
at least:
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An aircraft, 340 nm from land and its one engine inoperative speed is 150 kts:

A does not need life jackets or life rafts
B must carry life jackets for each passenger only
C must carry life rafts but life jackets are not necessary
D must carry life jackets for each passenger and life rafts sufficient to carry all persons on D
board
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The minimum number of fire extinguishers to be carried in the passenger cabin of an aircraft having 31 to 60
seats is:
A 3
B 1
C 2 C
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is
201, is:
A 1
B 2 B
C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Protective breathing equipment:

A protects crew against fumes and noxious gases A
B protects crew against accidental depressurisation
C is not required on commercial flights
D is only available for cockpit crew
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire; the following extinguisher
types should be used for fire fighting:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire; the following extinguisher
types should be used for fire fighting:
A CO2 and water type extinguishers
B BCF and CO2 type extinguishers B
C Dry and water type extinguishers
D Water type extinguishers
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane constituted of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying
passengers, must be equipped with:
A 1 megaphone A
B 2 megaphones
C 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
D no megaphone
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If necessary the number of life rafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the
entire aircraft occupants:
A plus 10%
B in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity B
C plus 30%
D in the case of a loss of two rafts
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is:

A sand A
B water
C carbon dioxide
D Freon
Ref CPL A AND H
Question with the exception of amphibians and
hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory
Choices when the airplane is:
1) cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine
failure
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question with the exception of amphibians and
hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory
when the airplane is:
1) cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine
failure
2) it flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore
3) is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case
of a problem
4) is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore
The combination regouping all the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
A 2, 3 A
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2
D 3, 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The number of manual fire extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved
configuration for passenger et is 31, is:
A 1
B 2 B
C 3
D 4
Ref CPL A AND H
Question he portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of:

A 72 h
B 24 h
C 12 h
D 48 h D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but more than 9, a crash axe or crowbar
must be carried:
A One on the flight deck only A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but more than 9, a crash axe or crowbar
must be carried:
B One on the flight deck and one in the passenger cabin
C Two on the flight deck and one in the forward cargo hold
D One on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be
equipped with at least:
Ref CPL A AND H
at least:
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment B
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft planning to fly at FL 330 with 120 seats fitted and 42 passengers on board must provide first
aid oxygen for:
A at least one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8000 ft A
B no first aid oxygen is necessary
C at least 3 passengers for the duration of the flight above 15000 ft
D at least 1 passenger for the duration of the flight above 14000 ft
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire- extinguishers including:
A 3 halon fire extinguishers
B 1 halon fire extinguisher
C 2 halon fire extinguishers C
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire- extinguishers including:
D no halon fire extinguisher
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped
with at least:
A 2 halon 1211 fire extinguishers
B 2 halon 1211 fire extinguishers and 1 water fire extinguisher
C 3 halon 1211 fire extinguishers C
D 3 halon 1211 fire extinguishers and 1 water fire extinguisher
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An airplane whose maximum take off mass exceeds 5700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating
configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
A crash axe in the cockpit and a crow bar in the passenger compartment
B crow bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment
C crash axe or a crow bar in the pilot compartment C
D crash axe and a crow bar in the passenger compartment
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The correct extinguisher to use on a brake fire would be:

A CO2
B water
C halon
D dry powder D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A pressurised aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in
the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system?
A the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
B if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3
minutes
C manual over ride of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is generally speaking
not possible
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A pressurised aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in
the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system?
D the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A smoke hood is a device covering:

A the whole head and with an oxygen flow only on demand
B the whole head and with a continuous oxygen flow
C only the nose and the mouth and with an oxygen/air mix
D only the nose and the mouth and with a continuous oxygen flow D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question ELTs should have a duration of:

A 24 hours
B 48 hours B
C 72 hours
D 96 hours
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The number of liferafts on aircraft must be sufficient to carry all occupants:

A Plus an additional 10%
B Plus an additional 50%
C In the case of a loss of 2 life rafts
D In the case of the loss of 1 life raft of the largest rated capacity D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In the event of ditching an aircraft must carry sufficient life rafts to transport the occupants:

A Plus 10%
B Plus 30%
C In the event 2 rafts are lost
D In the event the largest capacity raft is lost D
Ref CPL A AND H
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What is the purpose of a crash axe?

A to control unruly passengers
B to gain access to a fire behind a panel and as a general purpose tool during an evacuation B
C to take the top off a fire extinguisher that has not operated
D to free access to exits in the event of an evacuation using slides and chutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An aircraft that weighs more than 5700 kg has between 19 and 200 seat, how many crowbars and crash axes must
it have on board?
A a crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit A
B a crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit and a crash axe or crowbar in the cabin
C none are required
D a crash axe and a crowbar in the cockpit
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How long does emergency lighting last for?

A 90 seconds
B 5 minutes
C 10 minutes C
D 30 minutes
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A rescue flare is used:

A by day only
B by night only
C to provide smoke in the day and a flare at night C
D to provide a flare in the day and smoke at night
Ref CPL A AND H
Question An Aircraft crossing an area where search & rescue would be difficult must not operate without survival
equipment unless an Aerodrome can be reached within?
A 120 mins
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An Aircraft crossing an area where search & rescue would be difficult must not operate without survival
equipment unless an Aerodrome can be reached within?
B 90 mins B
C 60 mins
D 30 mins
Ref CPL A AND H
Question How many crash axes and crowbars must a 46-seat Aircraft of 10000 kgs mass have on board?

A A crash axe and crowbar on the Flight Deck
B A crash axe or crowbar on the Flight deck and a crash axe or crowbar in the Passenger Cabin
C A crash axe and crowbar on the Flight Deck and a crash axe and crowbar in the Passenger Cabin
D A crash axe or crowbar on the Flight Deck D
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A tandem rotor system is the term given to a system using:

A Two main rotors mounted one in front of the other A
B One main rotor and an anti-torque tail rotor
C Two main rotors mounted one above the other
D Two main rotors mounted at either side of the fuselage
Question (Refer to figure 021-38)On the diagram, the rotating blade pitch control is indicated by the letter:

A d A
B a
C b
D c
Question A delta three hinge is incorporated into some tail rotors to:

A Maintain pilot control during auto rotation
B Automatically change the pitch angle as the tail rotor blade flaps B
C Introduce pilot induced pitch change without the requirement of a swashplate
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A delta three hinge is incorporated into some tail rotors to:
D Allow the tail rotor blade to flap and drag

Question A mixing unit in a flight control system:

A Superimposes collective inputs onto cyclic inputs A
B Superimposes collective inputs into the Yaw Channel to compensate for tail rotor drift
C Is a link between the collective and cyclic roll channel to compensate for tail rotor drift
D Is a link between the collective and cyclic roll channel to compensate for tail rotor roll
Question A rotor blade flying out of track produces:

A A lateral vibration three and five times per revolution in a four bladed rotor system
B A lateral vibration once per revolution
C A vertical vibration four times per revolution in a four bladed rotor system
D A vertical vibration once per revolution D
Question A rotor blade trim tab provides a corrective force:

A indirectly, by causing the pitch angle to change, thus altering blade lift in the appropriate A
sense
B by varying blade drag so repositioning the blade in aximuth relative to other blade(s)
C directly, by its displacement causing the blade to track in the correct plane
D indirectly, by adjusting the centre of gravity of the blade longitudinally, thus causing the
blade to track in the correct plane
Question Adjusting an outboard blade tab upwards will produce a:

A high frequency vibration in flight
B nose down moment on the blade
C medium frequency vibration in flight
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Adjusting an outboard blade tab upwards will produce a:
D nose up moment on the blade D

Question An unshrouded tail rotor has:

A equal pitch change to all blades A
B RPM control independently of the main rotor
C cyclic pitch control only
D different pitch change to each blade
Question Blade hinges arranged with a DELTA THREE hinge effect:

A increase their pitch angle with flap up
B increase the lift of the blade with flap up
C decrease their pitch angle with blade dragging
D decrease their pitch angle with flap up D
Question During a flight under normal conditions, a main rotor blade is seen to be flying higher than the other
blades in the disc during cruise. This can usually be adjusted by:
A Adjusting the weights on the blade tip
B Lengthening the pitch change rod on the subject blade
C Shortening the pitch change rod on the subject blade
D Adjusting the trim tabs on the subject blade D
Question Dynamic balancing of main rotor systems:

A Is usually achieved by adding weights to certain nominated rotor blades only
B Is usually achieved by adding or subtracting weights to either the main rotor blade attachment B
pins or to the main rotor head itself
C Is usually achieved by adding or subtracting weights to the main rotor blade tips
D Is not necessary as the hub and blades are statically balanced at manufacture
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Dynamic balancing of main rotor systems:

Question Erosion strips fitted to the leading edge of rotor blade are usually manufactured from the following alloys:

A Nickel, Titanium or Stainless Steel A
B Aluminium, Titanium or Stainless Steel
C Aluminium, Nickel or Titanium
D Tungsten, Nickel or Stainless Steel
Question Friction controls are usually fitted to:

A Both collective and cyclic controls, but only the collective friction is adjustable in flight A
B The collective control only
C The cyclic control only
D Both collective and cyclic controls which are adjustable in flight
Question Low frequency vibratin in a plane parallel to the rotor plane is likely to be associated with:

A a transmission problem
B an out-of-balance tail rotor
C an engine problem
D an out-of-balance main rotor D
Question Low frequency vibration in the vertical plane which is only apparent in high speed flight is due to a :

A badly adjusted rod on the main rotor blade
B badly adjusted tab on the main rotor blade B
C mass imbalance of the main rotor
D mass imbalance of the tail rotor
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Main rotor droop stops:

A Prevents rotor droop in flight by ensuring the engine provide additional power immediately when
required by the rotor
B Move to prevent the rotor disc drooping excessively during turbulent conditions preventing
damage to the tail cone in flight
C Are inactive during flight C
D Prevents engine power reducing below the requirements to sustain rotor RPM
Question Metal tail rotor drive shafts are normally manufactured from:

A Steel bar A
B Aluminium tubing only
C Aluminium or steel tubing
D Titanium and steel tubing
Question Modern tail rotor blades are usually manufactured from:

A Carbon fibre
B Metal
C Wood
D Composite materials D
Question Multi-segment tail rotor drive shafts are joined together by flexible couplings. These couplings allow for:

A The absorption of the tail rotor torque during tart up, shut down and rapid power changes
B Imperfection in build standard
C Bending and flexing of the tail cone during flight, and slight changes in length of shafts due C
to thermal expansion and contraction
D The rapid change of shafts and hangers without the need for alignment checks
Question Tail rotors differ from main rotors in that:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Tail rotors differ from main rotors in that:

A They always have a fewer blades
B Pitch remains constant throughout all flight regimes
C They rotate at a lower speed
D They do not provide for blade pitch cyclic variation D
Question Tail rotors differ from most main rotors in that:

A The lead/lag hinge is incorporated with the flapping hinge
B The tail rotor rotates at a lower speed
C They always have few blades
D The pitch changes from a negative angle setting to a positive angle setting D
Question Tail rotors rotate:

A At a greater speed than the main rotor and the tail rotor drive shafts
B At the same speed as the shafts and gear boxes
C At a greater speed than the main rotor and at a different speed than the drive shaft and C
intermediate gearbox
D At a lower speed than the main rotor
Question The ducted fan type tail rotor:

A Uses an aerofoil shaped duct creating thrust A
B Is chosen in design solely due to the safety reasons
C Is mounted at the base of the fin allowing lighter supporting structure and to offset the fin to
counter tail rotor drift
D Is of simpler design and of a lower cost of manufacture than a traditional tail rotor
Question The input and output speeds of an intermediate gear box:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The input and output speeds of an intermediate gear box:

A Are the same
B Differ to establish the speed for the tail rotor
C Differ to counter the effects of vibration C
D Are variable to provide varying thrust from the tail rotor to counteract torque loads from the
main rotor system
Question The main spar of a main rotor blade is at approximately:

A 35% of the chord
B 25% of the chord B
C 40% of the chord
D 50% of the chord
Question The most difficult material from which to manufacture a homegenous series of blades is:

A metal
B wood B
C composite materials
D plastic
Question The purpose of a main rotor blade tracking check is to ensure:

A that all blades have the same tip-path plane A
B the correct coning angle
C that the neutral control settings are correct
D that the pitch angle for all blades is absolutely equal
Question The purpose of the aluminium mesh which is manufactured within the skin of some fibre glass covered rotor
blades is:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The purpose of the aluminium mesh which is manufactured within the skin of some fibre glass covered rotor
blades is:
A To provide a superior bond between the skin and the foam core providing a strong rigid section
B To form the shape of the blade and to allow the lay-up of the fibre glass skin
C To provide protection against lightning strikes C
D To transfer flight loads to the skin
Question The purposeof the blade tip cap is:
Choices 1) to reduce induced drag

2) to increase the lift in hover
3) to increase max air speed

Answers Correct
A 2, 3
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3 C
D 1, 3
Question The purpose of the fixed scissors is to:

A Resist the rotational force applied to the lower swashplate in a rotor head system A
B Ensure the wheel remains correctly orientated to the Oleo leg in a landing gear
C Act as the lower jaw of the cable cut device on a hoist
D Provide part of feedback mechanism in an auto pilot system
Question The purpose of the primary stops in a flying control system is to:

A act as a stop in case of vibration of the controls
B prevent damage to the system when the helicopter is parked in high winds
C restrict the movement of the controls within the correct range C
D bring the main and tail rotors to rest as soon as possible after shut down
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The rotor blades that are most sensitive to humidity are those made of:

A metal
B wood B
C composite materials
D plastic
Question The throttle control may be interconnected with:

A the collective lever, to increase power with increased pitch application A
B the collective lever, to decrease power with increased pitch application
C the yaw pedals, to increase tail rotor speed for directional control inputs
D the cyclic stick, to increase power for cyclic control inputs
Question To ensure the centre of pressure of a rotor blade acts through the centre of gravity, during manufacture:

A A weight is placed along the length of the blade, forward of the main spar A
B The aerofoil is designed to ensure the centre of pressure is in the correct location
C Weights are located at the tip of the blade which are adjusted at manufacture to ensure the
centre of gravity is in the correct location
D Trim tab are fitted to the tailing edge of the blade to adjust the centre of pressure
Question Wear rate of a control rod spherical bearing is:

A Constant
B Progressive
C Exponential C
D Unpredictable
Question What indication will be available to the pilot of wear in either tail rotor gimbal or pitch change link
bearings?
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question What indication will be available to the pilot of wear in either tail rotor gimbal or pitch change link
bearings?
A Loud noise from the tail rotor
B Stiffness in the tail rotor controls
C Instability in pitch control
D Vibration through the tail rotor/yaw pedals D
Question When using a strobe type tracking and balancing system on a fully articulated rotor head, one blade is not
equidistant from the other blades in the lateral plane. The cause of this defect is that:
A The bladetrim tabs are not correctly adjusted
B The bladerigging is out of adjustment
C The pitchchange rod is not correctly adjusted
D The bladedamper on the subject blade is not functioning correctly D
Question Wind gusts have a greater adverse effect on:

A Fully articulated rotors as the flapping blades will induce vibration
B Rigid rotors due to the lack of a flapping hinge
C Fully articulated rotors as the gust will cause the blade to flap thus altering the pitch angle
D Semi-rigid rotors due to their see-saw flapping D
Question For a large helicopter, ram air ventilation:

A Is provided to pilots only
B May be provided throughout the cockpit and cabin through a series of ducts in windows and doors B
C Is ducted from the downwash of the main rotors to gasper ducts throughout the helicopter
D May be provided throughout the cabin from ducts in doors only
Question A mercury clutch:

A is not used in helicopters due to the danger of mercury contamination of aluminium
B utilises the weight of the mercury to provide the centrifugal force to act on the clutch shoes B
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A mercury clutch:
C uses the liquid mercury as a hydraulic fluid

D is not used in helicopters due to the high weight of mercury
Question A snatch engagement of a freewheel unit:

A Is absorbed by fleible couplings on the engine drive shaft
B Is normal engagement
C May result in the shearing of the engine drive shaft C
D Will cause the freewheel to ratchet until the pilot recovers the situation
Question A type of freewheel unit incorporating rollers and ramps is known as a:

A Sprag freewheel unit
B Ramp and roller freewheel unit B
C Differential freewheel unit
D Episoidal carn freewheel unit
Question A type of freewheel unit incorporating tumblers and springs is known as a:

A Sprag freewheel A
B Roller and carn freewheel
C Differential freewheel
D Episoidal carn freewheel
Question A tail rotor drive shaft running between two engines should be:

A Protected by the engine fire extinguishing system
B Mounted to allow for expansion
C Mounted on its own bearing hangers, the first being directly behind the main rotor gearbox
D Either protected by a firewall or fire proofed D
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question A tail rotor drive shaft running between two engines should be:

Question Clutches are located in the drive between the engine and the main transmission on:

A helicopters with free power turbine engines only
B all helicopters
C helicopters fitted with piston engines only
D helicopters with piston or direct drive gas turbine engines D
Question For a free power turbine engine:

A pilot control of the engine is limited to the selection of "OFF", "GROUND IDLE" and "FLIGHT",
leaving the engine to automatically respond to rotor demands
B the compressor driving the main transmission is mechanically independent from the power turbine
C the gas generator is free to run at a constant speed while the power turbine changes speed in
response to changes in drag on the main rotor blades
D the turbine driving the main rotor transmission is mechanically independent from the gas D
generator
Question Freewheel units between engine and main rotor gearbox are, in most cases, lubricated from:

A An independent system driven by either the engine or an electrically driven pump
B The engine lubrication system
C An independent lubrication system driven by the main rotor gearbox
D The main rotor gearbox lubrication system D
Question 20307. Helicopters which utilise a "V" belt to transmit the drive from the engine to the transmission also
incorporate "belt tighteners". These belt tighteners serve as:
A a means by which the engineer can set the belt tension
B an automatic system to ensure belt tension remains constant irrespective of temperature
C a manual clutch C
D an automatic clutch
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question 20307. Helicopters which utilise a "V" belt to transmit the drive from the engine to the transmission also
incorporate "belt tighteners". These belt tighteners serve as:
Question In a free turbine helicopter installation:

A there is no need for a clutch between the engine and transmission A
B a free wheel is required between the compressor and turbine
C the main rotor drive and the compressor are on a common shaft
D there must be a clutch between the engine and transmission
Question Intermediate or angle gearboxes are used to:

A Change the direction and speed of the tail rotor drive A
B Change the direction only of the tail rotor drive
C Change the speed only of the tail rotor drive
D Allow the incorporation of autopilot inputs into the tail rotor
Question Rotational drive from the gearbox to the rotorhead is transmitted by the:

A scissors
B main drive shaft B
C swashplate assembly
D pitch change arms
Question The most common material used in the construction of gearbox casings is:

A Magnesium alloy A
B Aluminium alloy
C Steel alloy
D Titanium alloy
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question The most common type of starter used on a helicopter engine is:

A an AC starter/generator
B a DC starter motor
C a DC starter/generator C
D an AC starter motor
Question The purpose of a clutch in a helicopter transmission system is to:

A permit the rotor to rotate freely during auto rotation
B permit the engine to be started with a low inertial loading B
C prevent the rotor turning in the wind when parked on the ground
D disengage the tail rotor drive in the event of a malfunction
Question The tail rotor gearbox changes direction of drive:

A and provides facilities for tail rotor control maintaining a constant speed
B through minus 90o and increases rotational speed
C and increases rotational speed
D through 90o, reduces rotational speed and provides facilities for tail rotor control D
Question To engage the main rotor drive, prior to flight, on a helicopter fitted with a centrifugal clutch, the pilot
should:
A de-select the free wheel and engage drive
B smoothly accelerate the engine with rotor brake selected off B
C accelerate the engine above rotor speed, decelerate the engine, then accelerate again until
engine and rotor speeds are matched
D accelerate the engine until engine and rotor speed are equal then engage the clutch using either
a mechanical lever or an electrical switch
Question Rotor brake discs are manufactured from:
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Rotor brake discs are manufactured from:

A Aluminium or steel
B Steel or carbon fibre B
C Steel or titanium
D Boron aluminide or titanium
Question Rotor brakes are usually located:

A On the tail rotor drive shaft A
B On the drive shaft between the engine and the main rotor gearbox
C Around the main rotor output shaft
D Within the main rotor gearbox
Question The purpose of the rotor brake can be defined by:
Choices 1) To bring the rotor to rest as quickly as possible post engine shut down
2) To stop the rotor from Flight RPM
3) To aid high wind rotor engagement
4) To enable an abrupt stop of the rotor during landing

Answers Correct
A 3, 4
B 1, 3 B
C 1, 3, 4
D 2, 4
Question Heating systems for helicopters may obtain hot air from the following sources:
Choices 1) Air tapped from the engine compressor

2) Air tapped from the engine turbine
3) Ambient air heated by electrical elements
The combination groupig all of the correct statements is:

Answers Correct
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
airframe and systems---flight controls
Question Heating systems for helicopters may obtain hot air from the following sources:
1) Air tapped from the engine compressor

2) Air tapped from the engine turbine
3) Ambient air heated by electrical elements
The combination groupig all of the correct statements is:

A 2
B 2, 3
C 1, 3 C
D 1
Question Helicopter engine Bellmouth air intakes:

A Are not heated
B Are always heated by engine bleed air from the engine compressor
C Are always heated by electrically heated mats
D May be heated by either hot oil, electric mats or engine bleed air D
Question Warning lights associated with basic pitot/static heating systems in helicopters usually inform the pilot
that when illuminated:
A The heating element has failed
B Either the heating element or the power relay has failed B
C The power supply to the system has failed
D The heating system is on and the heater is cycling on/off
Ref HELI ALL
Question The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

A trim the aeroplane during normal flight
B reduce or to cancel control forces B
C trim the aeroplane at low airspeed
D lower manoeuvring control forces
Ref CPL A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question In aeroplanes, spoilers are:

A lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical
B upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical B
C lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical
D upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical
Ref CPL A
Question An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:

A the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units
B the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs
C there is a trimmable stabiliser
D the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units D
Ref CPL A
Question In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers...

A The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the
left one will retract
B The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the
left one will retract
C The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the C
left one will extend
D The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the
left one will extend
Ref CPL A
Question The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the:

A Longitudinal axis
B Lateral axis B
C Directional axis
D Vertical axis
Ref CPL A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question An artificial feel unit system:

A must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit
B must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit B
C is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit
D is mounted in parallel on a spring tab
Ref CPL A
Question The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is:

A To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at
low speed
B To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs
C Because there are two trim motors
D To reduce the probability of a trim-runway D
Ref CPL A
Question The trim tab:

A increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency
B reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency
C increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency
D reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency D
Ref CPL A
Question If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

A close to the control column
B to the secondary flight controls
C in parallel with the primary controls C
D in series with the primary controls
Ref CPL A
Question How do differential ailerons work?

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question How do differential ailerons work?
A Increase lift on down going wing and decrease lift on up going wing
B increase drag on up going wing and decrease drag on down going wing
C equalise the drag on up going and down going wings C
D equalise the lift on up going and down going wings
Ref CPL A
Question A Yaw Damper is:

A An elevator augmentor
B A rudder damper designed to avoid the Dutch Roll B
C An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8
D A roll trim tab
Ref CPL A
Question On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A leading edge flaps close to the wing root A
B trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
C trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
D leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
Ref CPL A
Question The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 1) Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to
operate the control surfaces 2) Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike 3) Direct and indirect weight saving
Choices through simplification of systems 4) Immunity to different interfering signals 5) Improvement of piloting
quality throughout the flight envelope. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answers Correct
A 3 and 5 A
B 1 and 2
C 1 and 5
D 2 and 3
Ref CPL A
Question Trailing edge flaps:

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Trailing edge flaps:
A Increase lift at a higher AOA

B Increase lift at a lower AOA B
C Reduce lift at a higher AOA
D Reduce lift at a lower AOA
Ref CPL A
Question An artificial feel system:

A is necessary in a reversible flight control actuator unit
B is mounted in parallel on a spring tab
C functions in parallel to an irreversible servo-control unit C
D functions in series to an irreversible servo-control unit
Ref CPL A
Question A Krueger flap is normally located at the:

A trailing edge close to the wing tip
B trailing edge
C trailing edge close to the wing root
D leading edge D
Ref CPL A
Question The reason for a double switch on the elevator trim is:

A because there are two trim motors
B to prevent both pilots from performing opposite trim inputs
C to reduce the probability of a trim runway C
D to be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at
low speed
Ref CPL A
Question Krueger flaps are positioned:

A at the wing root A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Krueger flaps are positioned:
B towards the wing tip

C along the whole leading edge
D trailing edge
Ref CPL A
Question What are flaperons?

A combined elevators and flaps
B combined ailerons and elevators
C combined aileron and flaps C
D combined rudder and ailerons
Ref CPL A
Question What is the purpose of trim tabs?

A to reduce stick forces in manoeuvres
B to increase control effectiveness
C to reduce control effectiveness
D to reduce stick holding forces to zero D
Ref CPL A
Question On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A Trailing edge flaps situated close to the wing root
B Leading edge flaps situated close to the wing root B
C Trailing edge flaps situated close to the wing tip
D Leading edge flaps situated close to the wing tip
Ref CPL A
Question Where are spoilers fitted?

A Asymmetrically on the wing lower surface
B Symmetrically on the wing lower surface
C Asymmetrically on the wing upper surface
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Where are spoilers fitted?
D Symmetrically on the wing upper surface D

Ref CPL A
Question Why are flaps and slats fitted to modern aircraft?

A To increase lift without any drag penalty at low speed
B To reduce take off and approach speeds to an acceptable level
C To reduce take off, approach and landing speeds to an acceptable level C
D To increase drag at low speed to assist with the landing
Ref CPL A
Question An artificial feel system is needed in the pitch channel if:

A Airplane has a variable incidence tail plane
B Elevators are controlled through a reversible servo system
C Elevator is controlled through a servo tab
D Elevators are controlled through an irreversible servo system D
Ref CPL A
Question How do aircraft spoilers work?

A lower surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical operation
B lower surfaces only, symmetrical operation
C upper surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical operation C
D upper surfaces only, symmetrical operation
Ref CPL A
Question Which is the correct statement regarding a large aircraft fitted with both inboard and outboard ailerons?

A the outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is selected down
B the outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is retracted
C the inboard ailerons are used only when the flaps are retracted C
D the inboard ailerons are only used when the flaps are extended
Ref CPL A
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question With speed-brakes deployed in flight and a pilots input to turn left?

A Spoiler moves on the down-going wing only
B Spoilers move up on the down-going wing and up on up-going wing
C Spoilers move up on the down-going wing and down on the up-going wing C
D Spoiler moves on the up-going wing only
Ref CPL A
Question A force gradient unit is used to:

A Add artificial feel into a hydraulically power flight control system A
B Indicate the pitch angle on the rotor hub during rigging checks
C Prevent pilot inputs over-riding auto-pilot inputs
D Transmit Stability Augmentation System (SAS) movement back to the control sticks
Ref CPL A AND H
Question What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?

A to reduce wing bending at high speed
B to reduce wing twist at high speed B
C to reduce wing twist at low speed
D to reduce wing bending at low speed
Ref CPL A AND H
Question A "Q" Feel or artificial feel unit system:

A must be mounted in series with an irreversible servo control unit
B must be mounted in parallel with an irreversible servo control unit B
C is mounted in parallel on a spring tab
D is necessary on a reversible servo unit
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Why are there two trim switches on the control column?

A there are two motors
SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT
Question Why are there two trim switches on the control column?
B there is a fast trim for use at low level and a slow trim at altitude
C both switches must be made for the trim to operate, this reduces the likelihood of trim runway C
D to prevent both pilots operating the trim at the same time
Ref CPL A AND H
Question Why is artificial feel required and how is the degree of feel set?

A Fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and gives increased assistance as the speed A
increases
B Fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and gives increased assistance as the speed
increases
C Fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and gives decreased assistance as the speed
increases
D Fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and gives decreased assistance as the speed
increases
Ref CPL A AND H
Question In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large output in a strictly proportionate
manner is called:
A an amplifier
B a servo-mechanism B
C an autopilot
D feedback (control loop)
Ref CPL A AND H
Question The purpose of mass and balance calculation is:

A to bring the C of G of the control surface forward to assist in controllability of the surface
B to bring the C of G of the control surface forward to prevent aerodynamic flutter
C to even out the air loads on the control surface to assist in controllability of the surface C
D to even out the air loads on the control surface to prevent aerodynamic flutter
Ref CPL A AND H

Systems, Powerplant

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Total 1478

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A withstand the shear stresses

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B A green system ON information light and an amber system failure light B

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D Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction

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B Reduce engine power requirement in forward flight B

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D water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature

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B a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature B

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C will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed

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Ref CPL A AND H

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