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İFR QUESTİONS

1. Enhanced ground proximity warning system - Should any of the following warnings
occur: “Pull Up”, “Warning terrain” or "Warning Obstacles” during IMC conditions, the
pilot's actions should be to...
- Immediately roll wings level. Raise collective to set maximum takeoff power. Select
attitude for Vy and Climb at Vy to achieve safe altitude.

2. IFR en‐route operations with an expired navigation database are:

-Permitted provided flight is above FL 080

3. At the missed approach point at the MDA/DA the PNF call should be?
-Any one of the above for the appropriate circumstance

4. IFR flight over water to an offshore facility may be flown no lower than?
-1000 feet ASL weather radar on with no targets

5. 1000 feet ASL weather radar on with no targets

-Entering the hold

6. The required contingency for an offshore IFR trip is?

-10% of trip and alternate

7. When conducting a flight in IFR or at Night the aircraft must be able to sustain_____
rate of climb with the critical engine inoperative and maintain _________?
-50 fpm, MOCA

8. Which of the following is correct? For operations under IFR, for the purpose of
Commercial Air Transport, the minimum altitude or flight level shall be the highest of
the following:
-All of the above

9. SWHS's IFR approach briefings are based on the following flow format:
-Jeppesen Strip briefing

10. During a GPS approach, within 2 miles of the Final Approach Fix, the CDI sensitivity
should switch to which of the following?
-0.3 miles

11. During an IFR departure from a runway with a visibility below 800 meters the aircraft
must remain in visual contact with the runway until at least?
-TDP
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12. During an ARA once established inbound from the IF, bearing and distance
information must be based on?
-Radar

13. During deviation calls the PNF will follow the “two communication” rule.
-First call is an awareness call and the second call is a correction call

14. During an ILS approach the pilot will decide “minimums” by making reference to the
following.
-Pressure altimeter only

15. Grid Mora values derived by Jeppesen clears all terrain and man-made structures by:
-All of the above

16. ILS Rwy 34 Baku.

What is the lowest altitude within 25NM from GYD VOR you can fly at if arriving from
the South-West?
-2700 feet

17. During an ARA procedure, what is the lowest altitude you shall be at when passing
overhead the RIG?
-1700 feet

18. The direct distance between N40 18.4 E050 05.2 on the 10-2A STAR and Heydar
Aliev Apt is:
-10 NM

19. What were the latest changes on chart 11-3 from the previous version?
-Missed approach

20. If a SID requires a climb gradient of 300 feet per nautical mile, what is the required
rate of climb at a ground speed of 90 knots;
-450 fpm ROC

21. On a Jeppesen en route chart a 1500 feet MOCA will be defined as?
-1500T

22. What are the visibility and ceiling requirements when considering an alternate
aerodrome with:
1) precision approach (Cat 1 ILS)?
2) non-precision approach?
-1) required ceiling +200' and required visibility +400m
2) required ceiling +200' and required visibility +400m
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23. Your IFR departure clearance includes a "Standard Instrument Departure" (SID)
procedure. After takeoff, the initial call to departure control (ATC), should contain at
least what?
-Aircraft call sign, departure runway, passing altitude, assigned SID altitude.
24. If conducting an IFR flight in VMC conditions, who is responsible for trafic
separation?
-ATC for IFR traffic and Pilot for VFR trafic

25. On an airway, an altitude depicted with "G" (5200G) beside it means:

-GPS MEA

26. On departure under IFR a pilot should pass the following information with his first
call to the controller:
-Callsign, SID designator, current or passing level, cleared level.

27. An aircraft should terminate its readback of a clearance message with

-It's callsign

28. A pilot may abbreviate his call sign only:

-If it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency in
use.

29. When approaching a 3 degree glidepath at 2000 ft. on QNH with touchdown
elevation of 200 ft., at what range from touchdown would you expect to commence
descent?
-6 miles

30. What is the definition of CLEARANCE LIMIT?

-The point to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance.

31. The correct radio call when you are ready to take-off is:
-Ready for departure

32. ‘Vacate Right’ means:

-Turn right to leave the runway

33. Where an ATIS is provided, an arriving aircraft will acknowledge receipt of the
broadcast:
-In the initial call to the airfield

34. Loss of communication is indicated by which transponder code?

-7600

35. An aircraft that suffers a communications failure under IFR in visual met conditions
must:
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-Land at the nearest suitable airfield

36. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must

-Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided

37. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message

-Distress and Urgency

38. You are flying at FL50. When asked by the controller to report your level what is the
correct response?
-Maintaining FL50, AZ-115

39. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out he should use
the phrase:
-UNABLE

40. With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC Message ‘G-ABCD verify your level’
would be made to:
-Check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the
controller

41. You receive the message “G-ABCD Squawk Ident”. You should:
-Operate the special position identification (ident) on the SSR transponder

42. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

-MODE CHARLIE

43. The response expected from aircraft stations to a general call by ATC is:
-None

44. A pilot is required to read back:

-SSR operating instructions, take-off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information,
frequency changes

45. The ‘EXPECTED APPROACH TIME’ is the time:

-That the aircraft is expected to commence the approach procedure from the holding fix

46. The instruction ‘RECLEARED’ means that:

-A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your
previous clearance or part thereof

47. The correct elements of a position report in their correct order for an aircraft on an
airway are:
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-Callsign, Position, Time, Level, Next position and ETA

48. An aircraft flying at FL 160 would be able to maintain VHF communications with an
airfield at an elevation of 2000 ft up to a range of:
-200 naut.m

49. TCAS stands for:

-Traffic collision avoidance system or traffic alert and collision avoidance system

50. During and NDB instrument approach procedure the instruction to the aircraft
“REPORT BASE TURN COMPLETE’ requires that the aircraft reports:
-Making the final turn after going outbound from the beacon