Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 1

Test Code
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) TS21E1014
POLITY–2

Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 1
1. Which of the following provisions of the 2. The DPSPs are non-justiciable in the
Directive Principles of State Policy were courts of law.
added by the 42nd Amendment Act of Which of the statements given above
1976? is/are correct?
1. To secure healthy development of (a) 1 only
children.
(b) 2 only
2. To promote equal justice and to
(c) Both 1 and 2
provide free legal aid to the poor.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. To protect the environment, forests
and Constitution and wildlife.
4. To minimize inequalities in income, 4. Consider the following statements:
status, facilities and opportunities. 1. The Fundamental Rights are positive,
5. To promote voluntary formation, while the Directive Principles of State
autonomous functioning, democratic Policy (DPSPs) are negative.
control and professional management 2. The Fundamental Rights do not need
of the co-operative societies. any Legislative Act to enforce them
Select the correct answer using the code legally, while the DPSPs come into
given below: effect only when they are legally
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only implemented.
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 4 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Which of the following Acts / Schemes / (c) Both 1 and 2
Programmes have been launched (d) Neither 1 nor 2
according to the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
5. Consider the following pairs:
1. Protecting contract workers
2. Abolition of child labour S.N. Article Description

3. Setting up of Khadi and Village 1. Article 38 State to secure a

Industries Board social order for the
4. Hill Area Development Programme promotion of the
5. MNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National welfare of the
Rural Employment Guarantee Act) people.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Article 39A Organization of the
given below: village panchayats.
(a) 2 and 3 only 3. Article 40 Equal justice and
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only free legal aid.
(c) 1 and 4 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
3. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The state is legally bound to
(c) 1 and 2 only
implement the Directive Principles of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
State Policy (DPSPs).

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 1
6. Consider the following pairs: Select the correct answer using the code
S.N. Article Description given below:

1. Article 44 Early childhood care (a) 1 only

and education. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Article 45 Uniform Civil Code (c) 1 and 2 only
for the citizens. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Article 46 Educational and
economic interests of 9. Which of the following are the features of
the SCs and the STs. the Fundamental Duties?
Which of the pairs given above is/are 1. The Fundamental Duties are both
correctly matched? civic and moral in nature.
(a) 3 only 2. They emphasize on the Indian way of
(b) 2 and 3 only life, especially respecting and
(c) 2 only preserving the Indian culture.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. This provision is not applicable upon
the foreigners, only the citizens of
7. Consider the following statements: India will obey these Constitutional
1. The provisions of the Directive Duties.
Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) were 4. There are clear differences between
borrowed from the Constitution of the the Fundamental Rights and the
Soviet Union. Fundamental Duties.
2. The Constituent Assembly included
Select the correct answer using the code
the list of the DPSPs in Part IV of the
given below:
Constitution.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Apart from the Articles mentioned
under the DPSPs, there are no Articles (b) 1 and 3 only
in the Constitution which direct the (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
state to make certain policies for the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
people.
Which of the statements given above
10. Which of the following recommendations
is/are correct?
was / were made by Sardar Swaran
(a) 3 only
Singh Committee with reference to the
(b) 2 only
Fundamental Duties?
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. To abjure communalism in any form.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. To pay taxes according to the law.

8. Which of the following Constitutional 3. To defend the country and to render

Amendments is/are related to or affect national service, including military
the Fundamental Duties? service, when called upon to do so.
1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Select the correct answer using the code
Act given below:
2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment (a) 3 only
Act (b) 1 and 2 only
3. The 96th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 2 and 3 only
Act
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 2
11. A proper implementation of the 14. Which of the following statements are
Fundamental Duties can be accomplished correct about the Forty-Second
by which of the following Acts? Amendment Act, 1976?
1. The Representation of the People 1. It shifted education from the
Act,1951 Concurrent List to the State List.
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 2. It made the President bound by the
1955 advice of the Cabinet.
3. The Unlawful Activities (Protection) 3. It added new Directive Principles for
Act, 1967 the protection of environment, forests
and wildlife.
4. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
4. It added the terms socialist, secular
Select the correct answer using the code and integrity to the Preamble to the
given below: constitution.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 1 and 4 only given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
12. Which of the following recommendations (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
were made by the M.N. Venkatachaliah
Commission for the successful 15. Which of the following Amendments to
implementation of the Fundamental the Constitution of India accorded a
Duties? special status to the Union Territory of
1. The right to freedom of religion and Delhi by designing it as the National
other freedoms must be jealously Capital Territory of Delhi?
guarded. (a) The Fifty-Second Amendment Act,
2. The people should be sensitized about 1985
their duty to vote in the elections, pay (b) The Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act,
taxes and actively participate in the 1991
democratic process of governance. (c) The Eighty-Fourth Amendment Act,
3. The industrial organizations should 2001
provide education to the children of (d) The Ninetieth Amendment Act, 2003
their employees.
Select the correct answer using the code 16. With respect to the significance of the
given below: Fundamental Duties, consider the
following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. The fulfilment of the Duties can help
(b) 1 and 3 only
in the sustenance of economic
(c) 2 and 3 only development.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. It can help in achieving human
development of the society.
13. Which of the following Articles was 3. The Fundamental Duties have ethical,
introduced in the Constitution of India by social and economic significance.
the Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1971? Which of the statements given above are
(a) Article 31A correct?
(b) Article 31B (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Article 31C (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Article 31D (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 3
17. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Fundamental Duties are non- given below:
enforceable and non-justiciable. (a) 1 only
2. There are provisions in the (b) 3 only
Constitution for direct enforcement of (c) 1 and 2 only
the Fundamental Duties. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Unlike India, the Constitution of
erstwhile USSR made Fundamental 20. Which of the following statements is/are
Duties legally enforceable. correct?
Which of the statements given above 1. The Indian Constitution provides for
is/are incorrect? both positive rights and negative
(a) 1 and 3 only rights.
(b) 2 only 2. The Indian Constitution provides for
both individual rights and group
(c) 2 and 3 only
rights.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
18. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only
S.N. Article Description (b) 2 only
1. Article 41 Right to work. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. Article 47 Raising the level of (d) Neither 1 nor 2

nutrition and the
standard of living. 21. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
3. Article 51 Promotion of
international peace 1. The 25th Constitution Amendment laid
down that any law giving effect to
and security.
Article 32 would not be void even if it
Which of the pairs given above is/are comes into conflict with any of the
correctly matched? Fundamental Rights.
(a) 3 only 2. The 96th Constitution Amendment
(b) 2 and 3 only virtually transferred Article 46 legally
enforceable under Part III in the form
(c) 2 only
of Article 21A.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The 44th Constitution Amendment
converted the Fundamental Right to
19. Which of the following provisions of the property into a Constitutional Right.
Constitution of India has / have a direct
Select the correct answer using the code
bearing on education? given below:
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy (a) 3 only
(DPSP)
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. The Fundamental Rights (c) 1 and 2 only
3. The Fundamental Duties (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 4
22. Consider the following pairs: 3. The right to protection in respect of
S.N. Article Description conviction for offences.
4. The right to free of speech, expression
1. Article 42 Just and humane
and education.
conditions of work
and maternity relief. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2. Article 43 Living wages for the
(a) 2 only
workers.
(b) 1 and 4 only
3. Article 43A Promotion of the co-
(c) 1 and 2 only
operative societies.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Article 43B Participation of the
workers in the
25. Which of the following statements is/are
management of the
correct?
industries.
1. Article 25 forms the foundation of the
Which of the pairs given above are Indian secularism.
correctly matched? 2. Indian secularism allows for the state
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only to regulate secular activities
(b) 1 and 2 only associated with a religious practice.
(c) 2 and 4 only 3. Article 25 also allows for imparting of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 religious institutions wholly funded by
the state.

23. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:

1. Article 14 suggests that no one enjoys (a) 2 only

any special privilege under the law. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on (c) 1 and 2 only
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or (d) 1, 2 and 3
place of birth.
3. Article 16 abolishes untouchability 26. Consider the following statements:
and makes it punishable by law. 1. Article 29 holds that no citizens shall
Select the correct answer using the code be denied admission into a school,
given below: maintained or aided by the state on
(a) 2 only the ground of religion, race, caste,
(b) 1 and 3 only sex, place of birth, or any of them.
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. Article 30 holds that only the religious
(d) 1, 2 and 3 minorities have the right to set up or
maintain educational institutions of
their own choice.
24. Which of the following rights is/are
Which of the statements given above
guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian
is/are correct?
Constitution?
(a) 1 only
1. The right to assemble peaceably
with/without arms. (b) 2 only

2. The right to practise any profession or (c) Both 1 and 2

to carry on any occupation, trade or (d) Neither 1 nor 2
business.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 5
27. Which of the following are the reasonable 1. It made distinction between the
restrictions provided under Article 19(2) justiciable rights and the non-
of the Indian Constitution? justiciable rights.
1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. It suggested that the rights of the
2. Public order, decency or morality minorities must be protected.
3. Security of the state Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
4. Friendly relations with foreign states
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
31. Which of the following statements is/are
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct about the Sub-Committee on
Fundamental Rights?
28. Consider the following statements about 1. It was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai
the Commonwealth of India Bill, 1925: Patel.
1. It demanded equal right to use roads, 2. It had representation of the diverse
court of justice and all other places of sections of the society, including the
business dedicated to the public. women.
2. It had provisions for right to free 3. Its suggestions were rejected
elementary and secondary education unanimously by the Constituent
for all. Assembly.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

29. Consider the following statements: 32. Which of the following statements is/are
1. The Nehru Report underlined the need correct about the First Amendment Act,
for securing the Fundamental Rights 1951?
that had been denied to them by the 1. It added the Ninth Schedule to protect
colonial government. the land reform and other laws
2. The Report underlined prominently included in it from the judicial review.
the need to protect the minority 2. It reduced the grounds of restrictions
rights. on the freedom of speech and
expression.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. It empowered the state to make
special provisions for the
(a) 1 only
advancement of the socially and
(b) 2 only economically backward classes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 2 only
30. Consider the following statements about (b) 1 and 3 only
the recommendations by the Sapru (c) 1 and 2 only
Committee: (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 6
33. Consider the following statements about 3. Article 49 Protection and
the Fourth Amendment Act, 1955: improvement of
1. It readjusted the scale of environment.
representation in the Lok Sabha.
4. Article 50 Separation of
2. It included a new subject in the Union
judiciary from
List.
executive.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the pairs given above are
(a) 1 only correctly matched?
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Which of the following Amendments
introduced an electoral college for the 37. Which of the following statements is/are
election of the Vice-President of India? correct about the Seventy-Third
(a) The Eleventh Amendment Act, 1961 Amendment Act, 1992?
(b) The Twelfth Amendment Act, 1962 1. It implemented Article 44 of the
(c) The Thirteenth Amendment Act, 1962 Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) The Fourteenth Amendment Act, 1962 2. It granted constitutional status and
protection to the Panchayati Raj
35. Which of the following Amendments to Institutions.
the Constitution of India reduced the 3. It introduced a new Schedule
voting age from 21 years to 18 years for containing 29 functional items.
the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Select the correct answer using the code
Assembly elections? given below:
(a) The Twenty-First Amendment Act,
(a) 2 only
1967
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) The Thirty-First Amendment Act,
(c) 2 and 3 only
1972
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The Forty-First Amendment Act, 1976
(d) The Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1989
38. Which of the following Amendments
introduced a new Twelfth Schedule to the
36. Consider the following pairs:
Constitution of India?
S.N. Article Description
(a) The Seventy-First Amendment Act,
1. Article 48 Organization of 1992
agricultural and (b) The Seventy-Second Amendment Act,
animal husbandry. 1992
2. Article 48A Protection of (c) The Seventy-Third Amendment Act,
monuments of 1992
national importance. (d) The Seventy-Fourth Amendment Act,
1992

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 7
39. Which of the following statements is/are 2. The expression ‘total membership’ in
correct regarding the procedure for the the Special Majority means the total
Amendment of the Constitution? number of members comprising the
1. It can be initiated only by the House, irrespective of the fact whether
introduction of a Bill for the purpose there are vacancies or absentees.
in either House of the Parliament.
3. The Fundamental Rights and the
2. The Bill can be introduced either by a
minister or by a private member. Directive Principles of State Policy can
be amended using the Special
3. It requires the prior permission of the
President. Majority.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

40. Which of the following provisions in the

Constitution can be amended by a Simple 42. Which of the following statements is/are
Majority of the two Houses of the correct regarding the Special Majority of
Parliament outside the scope of Article the Parliament and the Consent of the
368? States?
1. Abolition or creation of the Legislative 1. The provisions related to the federal
Councils in the states.
structure of the polity can be
2. Quorum in the Parliament.
amended by a Special Majority of the
3. Any of the Lists in the Seventh
Parliament and also with the consent
Schedule.
of half of the State Legislatures by a
4. Citizenship – Acquisition and
Special Majority.
termination.
5. The Sixth Schedule – The 2. Within 3 months the states should
administration of the tribal areas. give their consent to the Bill.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. The provisions related to the election
given below: of the President can be amended
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only using the Special Majority of the
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only Parliament and the Consent of the
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only States.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
41. With reference to the Special Majority of (a) 1 only
the Parliament, consider the following
(b) 2 and 3 only
statements:
1. It means a majority (more than 1/2) of (c) 3 only
the total membership of each House (d) 1, 2 and 3
and a majority of 2/3rd of the
members of each House present and
voting.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 8
43. Consider the following statements:
1. The 24th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the
President to give his assent to a
Constitutional Amendment Bill.
2. The Constitutional Amendment Bills
cannot be introduced in the State
Legislature.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament is empowered to
specify from time to time the limits of
the territorial waters.
2. The state is empowered to specify
from time to time the limits of the
continental shelf and the exclusive
economic zone.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Consider the following statements about
the provisions of Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution:
1. No person shall be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence more
than once.
2. No person accused of any offence
shall be compelled to be a witness
against himself.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements about
the provisions of Article 22 of the Indian
Constitution:
RAUSIAS-TS21E1014
1. No person who is arrested shall be
detained in custody without being
informed, as soon as may be, of the
grounds for such arrest nor shall he
be denied the right to consult, and to
be defended by, a legal practitioner of
his choice.
2. Every person who is arrested and
detained in custody shall be produced
before the nearest magistrate within a
period of twenty-four hours of such
arrest excluding the time necessary
for the journey from the place of
arrest to the court of the magistrate.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human
beings and begar and other similar
forms of forced labour.
2. Article 23 prevents the State from
imposing compulsory service for
public purpose.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Under which of the following Articles, the
Supreme Court shall have the power to
issue directions or orders or writs,
including writs in the nature of habeas
corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo
warranto and certiorari, whichever may
be appropriate, for the enforcement of any
of the rights conferred by Part-III of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 226
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 28
(d) Article 145
9
49. Which of the following are the elements of 50. Consider the following pairs:
the basic structure of the Indian S.N. Part of the Subject
Constitution? Indian Matter
1. Welfare state. Constitution
2. Freedom and dignity of the individual. 1. Part-IV-A Fundamental
3. Harmony and balance between the Duties
Fundamental Rights and the Directive
2. Part-I The Union
Principles.
Government
4. Limited power of the Parliament to
amend the Constitution. 3. Part-II Citizenship
5. Effective access to justice. Which of the pairs given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correctly matched?
given below: (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

RAUSIAS-TS21E1014 10