EVIDENCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.

1. It refers to a written or oral statement or declaration of person respecting a matter of fact sought
to be proven.
A. Testimonial evidence C. Positive evidence
B. Cumulative evidence D. Circumstantial evidence

2. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting a matter of fact.
A. Proof C. Evidence
B. Admission D. Confession

3. It is a kind of evidence which consists of writings or any material containing letters, words,
numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written expression offered as proof of their contents.
A. Secondary Evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence
B. Documentary Evidence D. Direct Evidence

4. It is an evidentiary fact by which the ultimate fact is to be established.

A. Factum Probans C. Competent Evidence
B. Factum Probandum D. Incompetent Evidence

5. It refers to the result or perfection of evidence.

A. Proof C. Evidence
B. Admission D. Confession

6. It is the kind of evidence that affords a degree of sufficiency to establish a fact in question only
when the best evidence is not available.
A. Secondary Evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence
B. Documentary Evidence D. Direct Evidence

7. It is a kind of indirect evidence from which reason draws an inference as to the existence of a fact
unknown in relation to the fact that is known.
A. Secondary Evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence
B. Documentary Evidence D. Direct Evidence

8. It is a kind of testimonial evidence given by a person relative to a department of human activity in

which he possesses the skill and the knowledge not ordinary within the gift of ordinary men.
A. Hearsay Evidence C. Competent Evidence
B. Expert Evidence D. Direct Evidence

9. It is the kind of evidence which establishes the truth of a fact in question without the aid of any
inference.
A. Hearsay Evidence C. Competent Evidence
B. Expert Evidence D. Direct Evidence

10. It is a kind of evidence that is not excluded by law as tending to prove a fact in issue.
A. Hearsay Evidence C. Competent Evidence
B. Expert Evidence D. Direct Evidence

11. It refers to evidence having any value in reason as may tend to establish the probability or
improbability of a fact in question.
A. Relevant evidence C. Testimonial evidence
B. Competent evidence D. Secondary evidence

12. It is the acknowledgment by a party as to the existence of a particular fact made either extra-
judicially or judicially against his interest or in his favor.
A. Proof B. Admission C. Evidence D. Confession

13. It refers to a degree of evidence which, when left alone by itself, would suffice as proof of particular fact until
overcome by other evidence.
A. Factum probandum C. Prima facie evidence
B. Factum probans D. Conclusive evidence
14. It refers to the ultimate facts sought to be established; this is recited in the pleadings.
A. Factum probandum C. Prima facie evidence
B. Factum probans D. Conclusive evidence

15. It is a kind of evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as determined by the rules of substantive
law and of pleadings.
A. Corroborative Evidence C. Cumulative Evidence
B. Material Evidence D. Primary Evidence

16. It refers to additional evidence of the same kind or character to that already given and tending to
prove the same proposition.
A. Corroborative Evidence C. Cumulative Evidence
B. Material Evidence D. Primary Evidence

17. It is evidence given to overcome or contradict facts which are already given.
A. Positive Evidence C. Negative Evidence
B. Rebuttal Evidence D. Primary Evidence

18. Evidence that gives greatest certainty as to the truth respecting a fact in issue.
A. Positive Evidence C. Negative Evidence
B. Rebuttal Evidence D. Primary Evidence

19. It refers to additional evidence but of a different kind or character as that already given, tending to
prove the same proposition.
A. Corroborative Evidence C. Cumulative Evidence
B. Material Evidence D. Primary Evidence

20. It is a kind of evidence presented when witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur at a
particular occasion.
A. Positive Evidence B. Rebuttal Evidence C. Negative Evidence D. Primary
Evidence
21. It is an admission, verbal or written, made by the party in the course of the proceedings in the same
case.
A. Judicial confession C. Extra-judicial confession
B. Judicial admission D. Extra-judicial admission

22. It is a kind of evidence that admits no other contradiction.

A. Factum probandum C. Prima facie evidence
B. Factum probans D. Conclusive evidence

23. It is the type of admissibility where the evidence is relevant and competent for two or more
purposes.
A. Judicial admissibility C. Conditional admissibility
B. Multiple admissibility D. Curative admissibility

24. It is the type of admissibility wherein, at the time it is offered, the evidence appears to be
immaterial or irrelevant unless it is connected with the other facts to be subsequently proved.
A. Judicial admissibility C. Conditional admissibility
B. Multiple admissibility D. Curative admissibility

25. It is the type of admissibility when the court allowed one party to introduce incompetent evidence,
the other party may also do so in his defense if it shall cause a plain and unfair prejudice to the
party against whom it is admitted.
A. Judicial admissibility C. Conditional admissibility
B. Multiple admissibility D. Curative admissibility
26. Which of the following is NOT considered as an Original Document?
A. The original of the document is one the contents of which are the subject of inquiry.
B. When a document is in two or more copies executed at or about the same time, with identical
contents, all such copies are equally regarded as originals.
C. When the document is a reproduced copy but marked as “original signed”.
D. When an entry is repeated in the regular course of business, one being copied from another at
or near the time of the transaction, all the entries are likewise equally regarded as originals.
27. The opinion of an ordinary witness is admissible in court, except:
A. the identity of a person about whom he has adequate knowledge;
B. testimony regarding his engineered structural design
C. A handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity; and
D. The mental sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted.

28. Which of the following is not considered as a VICARIOUS ADMISSION?

A. By colleagues C. By Conspirators
B. By Co-Partner/agent D. By Privies

29. A kind of evidence which shows that better or primary evidence exists as to the proof of fact in
question. It is deemed as less reliable.
A. Object evidence C. Best evidence rule
B. Demonstrative evidence D. Secondary evidence

30. It is a tangible object that played some actual role on the matter that gave rise to the litigation.
A. Object evidence C. Best evidence rule
B. Demonstrative evidence D. Secondary evidence

31. It is a tangible evidence that merely illustrates a matter of importance in the litigation such as
maps, diagrams, or sketches
A. Object evidence C. Best evidence rule
B. Demonstrative evidence D. Secondary evidence

32. It is the kind of evidence which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a
disputed fact.
A. Parole evidence C. Best evidence
B. Demonstrative evidence D. Secondary evidence

33. It refers to any evidence aliunde, whether oral or written, which is intended or tends to vary or
contradict a complete and enforceable agreements embodied in a document.
A. Parole evidence C. Best evidence
B. Demonstrative evidence D. Secondary evidence

34. Who among the following witnesses subpoenaed by the court is duty bound to appear and testify?
A. Chief Executive C. Members of Congress during session
B. Judges of Superior Courts D. AFP Judge Advocate

35. “Shield law” refers to RA 53 as amended by RA 477 - Security of State, which:

A. grants newsmen and other media representative, the privilege of declining to reveal confidential
sources of information.
B. protects newsmen from being called to testify before all criminal investigation.
C. gives newsmen immunity from suit for libel or oral defamation complaints.
D. allows newsmen, tv anchors and radio commentators to interview anyone they desire.

36. Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act, or omission, intentionally and deliberately led to
another to believe a particular thing true, and to act upon such belief, he cannot, in any litigation
arising out of such declaration, act or omission, be permitted to falsify it.
A. Examination in chief C. Leading questions
B. Misleading questions D. Memorandum

37. It is anything written or recorded by a witness which will aid him to refresh his memory when
testifying in court, provided the court allows the same.
A. Examination in chief C. Leading questions
B. Misleading questions D. Memorandum

38. It is the degree of proof required in a Civil Case to get a favorable judgment.
A. Preponderance of evidence C. Probable cause
B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Burden of evidence
39. It is a deduction which the law expressly directs to be made from particular facts.
A. Presumption juris C. Presumption hominis
B. Preponderance of evidence D. Estoppel by deed

40. It is a kind of legal inference as to the existence or non-existence of a fact which are satisfactory if
uncontradicted, but may be contradicted and overcome by other evidence.
A. Presumption juris C. Estoppel by deed
B. Preponderance of evidence D. Disputable presumption

41. Where the evidence gives rise to two probabilities, one consistent with defendant’s innocence, and
another indicative of his guilt, that which is favorable to the accused should be considered.
A. Equipoise rule C. Probable cause
B. Right against self- incrimination D. Burden of evidence

42. It is a deduction which reason draws from facts proved without an express direction from the law
to that effect.
A. Examination in chief C. Estoppel by deed
B. Misleading questions D. Presumption hominis

43. It is the degree of proof required in a Criminal Case to secure conviction.

A. Substantial evidence C. Preponderance of evidence
B. Presumption D. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

44. An interrogation which suggests to the witness the answer which the examining party desires, and
which is commonly answerable by a ‘Yes” or a ‘No’.
A. Disputable presumption C. Examination in chief
B. Leading questions D. Misleading questions

45. It is a logical necessity on a party during a particular time of the trial to create a prima facie case in
his favor or to destroy that created against him by presenting evidence.
A. Conclusive presumption C. Burden of evidence
B. Risk of non-persuasion D. Estoppel in pais

46. It is the degree of proof required in Administrative case to get a favorable decision.
A. Preponderance of evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Presumption D. Substantial evidence

47. It refers to the constitutional protection for a witness not to give an answer which will tend to
subject him to a penalty for an offense.
A. Right against self- incrimination C. Presumption hominis
B. Probable cause D. Estoppel by deed

48. It is the degree of proof required during preliminary investigation to elevate the Criminal
Information to the court.
A. Right against self- incrimination C. Presumption hominis
B. Probable cause D. Estoppel by deed

49. It is another term for direct examination given by a witness of the party presenting him on the facts
relevant to the issue.
A. Examination in chief C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Misleading questions D. Substantial evidence

50. It refers to the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his
claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law.
A. Disputable presumption C. Conclusive presumption
B. Leading questions D. Risk of non-persuasion

51. The tenant is not permitted to deny the title of his landlord at the time of commencement of the
relation of landlord and tenant between them.
A. Presumption hominis C. Estoppel by deed
B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Substantial evidence
52. It is an inference as to the existence or non-existence of a fact which courts are permitted to draw
from the proof of other facts.
A. Estoppel in pais C. Presumption
B. Presumption hominis D. Examination in chief

53. How does one offer a Testimonial evidence in court?

A. In writing, before the witness is summoned to testify in court
B. Orally, immediately after the witness takes that witness stand
C. In writing, after the party has presented all his evidence
D. Orally, before the witness terminates his testimony

54. Documents to be presented and identified in court as evidence, cannot be admitted unless written
or translated in the official language, that is:
A. Visayan, Tagalog and English C. English only
B. Tagalog and English D. Tagalog only

55. Which of the following is not an element of a Circumstantial evidence sufficient for conviction?
A. There is more than one circumstance
B. The facts from which the inferences are derived are proven
C. The identity of the accused is known
D. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt.

56. The following are public documents, except:

A. Documents acknowledge before a notary public
B. Private documents entered in public records and kept in the Philippines
C. Notarized last wills and testaments
D. The written official acts of public officers, whether of the Philippines

57. Documentary and object evidence shall be offered

A. In writing, before the trial actually commences
B. Orally, immediately after they are identified in open court
C. Orally, before the witness takes that witness stand
D. Orally, after the presentation of all the party's testimonial evidence.

58. A private document in the custody of the executor, and no apparent alterations made thereon, no
other evidence of its authenticity need be presented when the document is:
A. More than 30 years old C. More than 50 years old
B. Less than 30 years old D. Less than 50 years old.

59. The answer of a witness who testified in court cannot be stricken off the records when:
A. when the witness answered the question before the counsel has a chance to object
B. where a witness answered questions on clarification.
C. Where a witness testifies beyond the prescribed limit set by the court
D. When a witness who already testified before he is cross-examined by the other party.

60. Among the following persons, who cannot prove due execution and authenticity of a private
document?
A. Anyone who is in possession of said document for a long period of time.
B. One who was informed of its authenticity and due execution
C. Someone who personally saw the document after its execution.
D. Anyone who saw the document executed or written

61. It refers to the relationship, family genealogy, birth, marriage, death, the dates when, and the place
where these facts occurred and the names of relatives and family history.
A. Privies B. Res gestae C. Pedigree D. Filial privilege

62. A principle in law which provides that an offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other
expenses occasioned by an injury is not admissible in evidence as proof of civil or criminal liability
for the injury.
A. Privilege communication rule c. Presumption of innocence rule
B. Good faith rule d. Good Samaritan Rule
63. A legal requirement in evidence which requires every person who possessed the object since it was
first recognized as being relevant to the case, must explain what he did with it.
A. chain of custody method of authentication D. Independent relevant statement
B. Recipient’s duty rule C. conspiracy

64. He is one who testifies to what he has seen or heard, or otherwise observed.
A. Complainant B. witness C. Respondent D. defendant

65. It is a court process served upon a witness to compel him to appear and testify in court.
A. Subpoena B. Arrest warrant C. Search warrant D. Writ of execution

66. It refers to several separate statements given by conspirators where the facts stated in said
admission are confirmed in the individual extrajudicial confessions made by them after their
apprehension.
A. interlocking confessions C. Interconnection conspiracy
B. Interlocking admission D. Common confession

67. It refers to a witness’ duty to testify in court.

A. Appearance duty B. In-court duty C. testimonial duty D. Summary duty

68. It is the other name for Survivorship Disqualification Rule.

A. Law on sealed lips of the dead C. Waived testimony rule
B. dead man statute D. Buried testimonial bar

69. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony
and decide to commit it. It exists if, at the time of the commission of the offense, the accused had
the same purpose and were united in its execution.
A. conspiracy B. Band C. Group D. Consensual contract

70. It refers to something in which the community at large has some pecuniary interest by which their
legal rights or liabilities are affected.
A. Similar acts B. Common interest C. public interest D. Group interest

71. It refers to the other name for Ordinary Opinion Evidence

A. Proffer of evidence. C. Spousal immunity
B. Dead man statute D. Conclusions of non-experts

72. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or
other direct descendants.
A. Privies B. Res gestae C. Filial privilege D. Pedigree

73. It is another name for disqualification of either the husband nor the wife to testify during the
marriage to testify for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouse.
A. Spousal immunity C. Privies
B. Marital privilege rule D. Proffer of evidence

74. It provides that the husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be examined without
the consent of the other as to any communication received in confidence by one from the other
during the marriage.
A. Spousal immunity C. Marital privilege rule
B. Privies D. Proffer of evidence

75. Statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or
subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof.
A. Interlocking confessions C. Hearsay evidence rule
B. Res gestae D. Independent relevant statement

76. An agency mandated to promote police co-operation in all cases of international crime except
those of political, military, religious or racial character.
A. INTERPOL D. International Red Cross
B. United Nation E. Geneva Conventions
C. Commission on Human
77. This type of society has not only codified laws but also laws that prescribe good behavior and a
specialized police system and principle based system of punishment, being followed by England and
the US:
A. Bureaucratic society C. Folk-communal society
B. Urban-industrial society D. Post-modern society

78. The theory of comparative policing that sees problem as society is becoming too complex.
A. Deprivation theory C. Opportunity theory
B. Demographic theory D. Modernization theory

79. Pertains to all those forms of policing that in some sense, transgress national borders.
A. Global policing C. Preventive policing
B. International policing D. Transnational policing

80. Process of outlining the similarities and differences of one police system to another in order to
discover insights in the field of international policing.
A. Comparative C. Police Comparative System
B. System D. Policing

81. They are responsible in enforcing law within the whole country of USA including outside boarders.
A. Federal Police B. FBI C. State Police D. Sherriff

82. This form of policing introduced in i980’s suggesting that police should pay greater attention to
minor quality of life offenses and disorderly conduct. This was first introduced and made popular by
New York City Mayor Rudy Giuliani in the early 1990s.
A. Community oriented policing C. Problem- oriented policing
B. Intelligence- led policing D. Broken windows policing

83. INTERPOL is the largest international police organization in the world, with National Central
Bureaus in 190 member countries, which is located in?
A. Lyon, France B. California, USA C. Philadelphia D. Paris

84. The Organization known simply as Interpol is the?

A. International Police Association C. International Criminal Police Organization
B. Association of Chief of Police D. None of the Above
85. What is the highest police rank in Hongkong?
A. Commissioner General C. Director General
B. Commissioner of Police D. Inspector General

86. Elected by the General Assembly, It is headed by the President of the Interpol. It provides guidance
and direction to the Organization and oversees the implementation of decisions made at the annual
General Assembly.
A. General Assembly   C. Executive Committee
B. General Secretariat D. National Central Bureaus

87. Interpol seek to forge ties with all international bodies, governmental authorities and non
governmental organization whose mission to fight crime and protect the public safety of which they
sign the cooperation agreements which aims to?
A. To ensure that expertise and information are shared
B. That resources are not wasted or efforts duplicated
C. That all organizations with a stake in the fight against international crime are able exploit their
comparative advantage
D. All of these are the aims of Interpol

88. Judicial procuratorates police, escort suspects in cases investigated by the procuratorates.
Procuratorates is equivalent to?
A. Jail Officer in the Philippines C. Correction Officer in the Philippines
B. Police Officer in the Philippines D. Prosecutor in the Philippines
89. The INTERPOL’s emblem is represented by what elements?
A. Globe, sword, olive branches, abbreviation of OIPC-ICPO and scales
B. Globe, Olive branches, the INTERPOL’s name, vertical sword, abbreviations o OICP-ICPO and
scales
C. Globe, sword, lightning, olive branch and blue background
D. Blue back ground, emblem at the center and lightning and the four corner
90. The head of National Police Agency of Japan?
A. Commissioner General C. Prime Minister
B. Safety Commissioner D. Police Administrator
91. Notices are warning system, that allow Police around the world to share critical crime-related
information such information concerning individuals wanted for serious crimes, missing persons,
unidentified bodies, possible threats and criminals’ modus operandi. Example of these are the color
coded notices such as red, purple, black, orange, green, and blue. Red notice is for?
A. to provide warnings and criminal intelligence about persons who have committed criminal
offences and are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries
B. to collect additional information about a person’s identity or illegal activities in relation to a
crime
C. to seek the arrest or provisional arrest of wanted persons with a view to extradition
D. to help locate missing persons
92. In United states who appoints the sheriff?
A. Head of the state B. People C. Mayor D. FBI
93. The state of police is headed by a commissioner or superintendent. The state police officers are
known as?
A. Agent B. Sheriff C. Troopers D. Police
94. One of the bureaus of National Police Agency of Japan that conducts research on equipment and
tactics for suppressing riots and oversaw and coordinates activities of the riot police.
A. Police Administration Bureau C. Criminal Investigation Bureau
B. Traffic Bureau D. Security Bureau
95. Police Task Force is an effective ground response force to serious incidents such as major disasters,
firearm situations and riots. A policing system in?
A. Hongkong B. Singapore C. China D. Japan
96. It is considered the lifeblood of INTERPOL because it contributes to the criminal databases and
cooperating together on cross-border investigations, operations and arrests.
A. General Assembly   C. Executive Committee
B. General Secretariat   D. National Central Bureaus
97. Core function of Interpol which is focused on members’ effectiveness and efficiency and continue
to evolve as a priority among its core function.
A. Division of Criminal Intelligence analysis C. Operational Police Support Services
B. Secure Global Police Communication Services D. Police Training and Development
98. It is the Interpol's supreme governing body. It meets annually to take all important decisions
related to policy, resources, working methods, finances, activities and programmes.
A. General Assembly C. Executive Committee
B. General Secretariat D. National Central Bureaus
99. What is globalization?
A. Is a process of interaction and integration among the people, companies, and governments of
different nations,
B. A process driven by international trade and investment and aided by information technology.
C. A process that has effects on the environment, on culture, on political systems, on economic
development and prosperity, and on human physical well-being in societies around the world.
D. All of these
100. Globalization has caused unprecedented amount of migration from the least developed country
such as Asia, Africa and Latin America, people smuggling differs from human trafficking. Which of
the following statement is the distinction between the two?
A. There is a huge profit in people smuggling compared to human trafficking
B. The individual pay the smuggler to gain a living while in human smuggling victims were offered a
better life
C. The individuals who pay smuggler in order to gain illegal entry to a country do so voluntarily
whereas the victims of human trafficking are often duped or forced into entering another
country.
D. There high profit in human trafficking and low investigation rate in people smuggling