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vn ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2019

CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC CỦA BỘ GIÁO DỤC – ĐỀ 06
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (1) contribute
_______ to your
education or your work, try reading more books. Pick (2) _______ some of the interestingly informative
books and search for well-researched materials that can help you grow.
We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some
people have commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get
information than television?" That is an interesting point of view worth further (3) _______. Reading is a
skill that is in much greater demand than the demand for watching TV. There are no jobs (4) _______
require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs. The written word is
an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no
time, it can be communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can (5) _______ vast amounts
of information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in
reading for two hours than someone watching TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of
information quickly because you are a fast reader with good comprehension skills. It will save you
massive amounts of time and you will be able to assimilate vast quantities of information.
Question 1: A. gain B. gather C. collect D. contribute
Question 2: A. on B. up C. over D. out
Question 3: A. explore B. exploration C. explorer D. explorative
Question 4: A. that B. who C. when D. whom
Question 5: A. digest B. inhale C. breathe D. eat
worth + V_ing/ N /N_phr
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions. which is now considered
now considered
Question 6: In The Sociology of Science, _______ a classic, Robert Merton discusses cultural, economic
and social forces that contributed to the development of modern science.
A. now considering B. now considered C. which considers D. which considered
Question 7: Why are you so late? You _______ here two hours ago.
A. must have been B. would have been C. should have been D. need have been
Question 8: The child can hardly understand what they are discussing, _______ ?
A. can he B. can’t he C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 9: I accidentally _______ my ex and his girlfriend when I was walking along a street yesterday.
A. lost touch with B. kept an eye on C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 10: Jane and Mary are going out.
Jane: “It’s going to rain”.
Mary: “ _______ .”
A. I hope not so B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. I don’t hope either
Question 11: _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small
adj/adv +as/though+S+V: mặc dù
CẤU TRÚC NHƯỢNG BỘ
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C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
Question 12: The patient could not be saved unless there _______ a suitable organ donor.
A. had been B. would be C. were D. is
accidently= by chance= by accident: vô
Question 13: He said it was an accident but I know he did it on PURPOSE_______: .CỐ Ý tình,tình cờ
A. aim B. purpose C. goal D. reason
Question 14: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very _______ .
A. narrow-minded B. kind-hearted C. open-minded D. absent-minded
dùng để mặc cả giá
Question 15: $507, $707. Let’s _______
split the difference and say $607.
A. avoid B. split C. agree D. decrease

Question 16: When _______ a European, we should stick to the last name unless he suggests that we use
his first name. to address sb: xưng hô với ai
A. speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing
Question 17: Jordan and Jim are in a pub. address:
(n): địa chỉ
- Jordan: “_______” (v): đề địa chỉ, nói/ viết cho ai, xưng hô, chú tâm đến (deal with)
- Jim: “No, thanks.”

A. Would you want another drink? B. Would you care for another drink?
C. Can you help me with this? D. Come in, please!
Question 18: By the year 2021, 6% of all US jobs _______ by robots, report says.
A. will eliminate B. will have been eliminated
C. will be eliminating D. will have eliminated
Question 19: We are big fans of Rafael Nadal and Roger Federer, so not a match of theirs _______ .
A. we had missed B. did we miss C. we didn’t miss D. we missed
not đứng đầu câu --> đảo ngữ
correct answer to each of the questions.
Animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know without analysis the difference
between a number of objects and a smaller number. In his book “The Natural History of Selboure”
(1786), the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously removed one egg a day from a plover’s
nest, and how the mother laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one. He noted that other
species of birds ignore the absence of a single egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been
removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain type of wasp always provides five - never
four, never six -caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young have something to eat when the eggs
hatch. Research has also shown that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between odd and
even numbers of food pieces.
These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that creatures other than humans can
actually count. They also point to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions with the
correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the
proper number of times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to survival as a species - as in the case
of the eggs - or survival as individuals - as in the case of food. There is no transfer to other situations or
from concrete reality to the abstract notion of numbers. Animals can “count” only when the objects are
present and only when the numbers involved are small - not more than seven or eight. In lab experiments,
animals trained to “count” one kind of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not the
numbers, are what interest them. Animals’ admittedly remarkable achievements simply do not amount to
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evidence of counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined by the genes of successive
generations, or the results of clever, careful conditioning by trainers.
Question 20: The word “they” refer to _______ .
A. numbers B. animals C. achievements D. genes
Question 21: According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur
as a result of animals’ intuitive awareness of quantities?
monkey
A. When asked by its trainer how old it is, a money holds up five fingers.
herd
B. A lion follows one antelope instead of the heard of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single
prey.
C. When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the kitten.
D. A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one
piece.
Question 22: The word “surreptitiously” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stubbornly B. secretly C. quickly D. occasionally
Question 23: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
B. Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
C. Although animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.
D. Animals cannot “count” more than one kind of object.
Question 24: Where in the passage does the author mention research that supports his own view of
animals’ inability to count?
A. Line 2-4 B. Line 8-9 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 17-18
Question 25: Why does the author refer to Gilbert White’s book in line 2?
A. To contradict the idea that animals can count.
B. To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities.
C. To show how attitudes have changed since 1786.
D. To indicate that more research is needed in this field.
Question 26: The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some ways
EXCEPT _______.
A. caterpillars B. mice C. plovers D. wasps
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. heard B. early C. learn D. near
Question 28: A. theaters B. authors C. clothes D. shifts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. component B. habitat C. contribute D. eternal
Question 30: A. museum B. location C. recommend D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 31: Africa’s farmland is rapidly becoming barren and incapable of sustaining the continent’s
already hungry population, according to a report.
A. poor B. fruitful C. arid D. desert
Question 32: Recent archaeological studies have shown that the first inhabitants of Russel Caverns were
Paleo Indians, who used the most rudimentary tools and objects for their survival.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: The Australian Open is a tennis tournament held annually over the last fortnight of January
in Melbourne, Australia.
A. two days B. four days C. two weeks D. two months
Question 34: One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in
determining whether or not an option had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 35: For thousands of years, man has used rocks as main materials for building houses, made
A B C
making
fences, pavements or even roofs for houses.
to meet requirements: đáp ứng yêu cầu
D to meet XUC's need/ wish: đáp ứng như cầu/ mong ước của MỤ XÚC
Question 36: I think I can reach your requirements so I am writing to apply for the position of
A B C D
English-speaking local guide.
Question 37: According to statistics, the number of young people who actively uses Instagram and
USE
A B
Snapchat has increased sharply in recent years.
C D
recombined to form the beginnings of that truly A
Question 38: According to the passage, who introduced the early form of American music?
A. American natives. B. Harry Thacker Burleigh.
C. Slaves from Africa D. People from the South of the United States.
Question 39: Which type of music is often involved with piano accompaniment?
A. spirituals B. ragtime C. blues D. jazz
Question 40: What is NOT true when talking about blues?
A. They could be amusing and optimistic.
B. A well-known blues musician was Scott Joplin.
C. They gained popularity near the time ragtime became popular.
D. They were a more individual style of music than spirituals.
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Question 41: When did jazz become the most popular American music?
A. Sometime in the early 20th century.
B. When elements from other American music combined.
C. After the hit “Maple Leaf Rag” was written.
D. In the late 1800s.
Question 42: Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith were _______.
A. famous ragtime musicians
B. people who really began the American musical traditions
C. artists who inspired many musicians today
D. songwriters who wrote blues songs
Question 43: What is the closest meaning to the word “chorus” used in the passage?
A. A group of singers that sing together. B. The main part of a song.
C. An accompanying singer. D. None of the above.
Question 44: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. today’s musicians
B. Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith
C. the musicians’ music
D. the names of the earliest African-American singers
Question 45: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Today’s style of American music is mostly influenced by African-rooted songs.
B. It is hard to exactly recognize the people who started the American musical tradition.
C. Spirituals, blues and ragtime are the major components that formed jazz.
D. American’s musical history was built by several famous musicians.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat. THE FACT THAT + MỆNH ĐỀ
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Question 47: Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country. Mexico does
not require US citizens to do the same.
A. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does,
either.
B. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does not,
either.
C. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither Mexico
does. EITHER =NEITHER + TRỢ ĐTỪ + S
D. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico does.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
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Question 48: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom” said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 49: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a shooting at their school on Valentine’s
Day.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a shooting took place at their school
on Valentine’s Day.
C. A shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a shooting at their school on Valentine’s Day forced their holiday plans to nothing.
Question 50: She finished her driving lesson. Her father allowed her to use his car.
A. Having finished her driving lesson, her father allowed her to use his car.
B. Having finished her driving lesson, she was allowed to use her father’s car.
C. To be allowed to use her father’s car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
D. Being allowed to use her father’s car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
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Lovebook.vn ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2019
following question.
Question 1: “Remember to phone me when you arrive at the airport, _______?” câu yêu cầu --> will you?
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
which are organised to make --> organised
Question 2: We should participate in Tree-Planting Campaigns _______ our city greener, fresher.
A. organizing to make organise to do sth =/; tổ chức, sắp B. organized making
xếp lm vc j
C. organized to make D. which organize to make
Question 3: Certificates provide proof of your _______.
A. qualifications B. diplomas văn bằng C. ambitions D. qualities
Question 4: She passed me on the street without speaking. She _______ me.
A. mustn’t see B. can’t have seen C. can’t see D. mustn’t have seen
Question 5: Onion crisis is _______ to arise in India. This demand-supply imbalance has resulted from
the government’s inability to preserve the crop for non-harvesting seasons. be bound to do wth: chắc chắn làm cái j
A. reputed B. known C. foreseen D. bound
Question 6: _______ interested in Curling, I would try to learn more about this sport.
A. Were I B. If I am C. Should I D. I was
Question 7: I’m not sure my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being _______.
A. tied in B. tied down C. tied up D. tied in with
Question 8: I don’t understand what these results _______.
A. significant B. significance C. signify D. significantly
Question 9: What _______ can be drawn from the experiment of two American physicists, Clinton
to draw conclusion: rút ra kết luận
Davisson and Lester Germer?
A. conclusion B. attention pay attention to C. contrast in contrast D. inference
Question 10: It seems that the thief took _______ of the open window and got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
turn sth into advantage: khai thác/ sd cái j
Question 11: Emma is calling to Mrs. White’s home. have/ get advantage over sb/sth: có lợi thế hơn ai/ cái j
Emma: “Hello, may I speak to Mrs. White, please?” take advantage of sb/sth: tận dụng/ lợi dụng ai/ cái j
Call receiver: “_______.”
A. Of course, not B. Yes, please C. Hold on, please D. Wait here
Question 12: If you are an independent traveler, we can arrange _______ a tour.
A. well-known = famous B. tailor-made C. ready-made D. well-kept
Question 13: There has been a widespread _______ about whether North Korea has successfully
miniaturized a nuclear weapon and whether it has a working H-bomb.
A. gossip B. challenge C. doubt D. rumour
Question 14: Lucia wants to borrow his friend’s bike.
Lucia: “Is it all right if I use your bike?”
Friend: “_______.”
A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it D. Please accept it with my best wishes
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ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a
machine (15) _______ would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory
to manage the factory work: đảm nhiệm/ thực hiện cong việc cảu nhà máy
work could be (16) _______ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors.
And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex. It has never
been one job, it has always been many. A factory robot (17) _______ carry out one task endlessly until it is
reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other
hand, has to do several different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (18) _______ with all
the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (19) _______, there have
been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid
obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the
programs that will operate the machine.
Question 15: A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 16: A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given
Question 17: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 18: A. from B. with C. by D. for
Question 19: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
Question 20: A. candidates B. caves C. methods D. novels
Question 21: A. chemistry B. children C. schooling D. character
Question 22: A. political B. furniture C. yesterday D. ambulance
Question 23: A. humorous B. educator C. organism D. contaminate
sense of humour: khiếu hài hước
be in the humour of sth: ý thích, thiên về
correct answer to each of the following questions.
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or
partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following
certain tips. Experts says that you should read and listen to safety instruction before take-off and ask
questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as
possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During
takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off, you should
locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that
you can reach them in the dark if necessary. In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident,
you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete
stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins,
towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these fore added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as
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quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump
on escape slides before they are fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your amrs and legs
extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly
as possible, and smoke near the wreckage.
Question 24: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Procedures for evacuation aircraft.
B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
C. Airline industry accident statistics.
D. Safety instructions in air travel.
Question 25: Travelers are urged by expert to read and listen to safety instruction _______.
A. if smoke is in the cabin B. in an emergency
C. before locating the exits D. before take-off
Question 26: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor _______.
A. especially during landings B. throughout the flight
C. only if an accident is possible D. during take-offs and landings
Question 27: According to te passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off?
A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
B. The nearest one.
C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat.
B. The ones that can be found in the dark.
Question 28: The word “them” in bold refers to _______.
A. seats B. rows C. exits D. feet
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely survive fires in aircrafts if
they _______.
A. don’t smoke in or near a plane B. read airline safety statistics
C. wear a safety belt D. keep their heads low
Question 30: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. ask questions about safety B. locate the nearest exit
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 31: The word “inflated” in bold is closest in meaning to _______.
A. expanded B. lifted C. assembled D. increased
Question 32: The mountain climbers proceeded forward on their long trek up the side of the mountain.
A B C D
Question 33: The nesets of most bird species are strategic placed to camouflage them against predators.
A B C strategically D
Question 34: Rocks have forming, wearing away and re-forming ever since the Earth took shape.
have been forming A B C D
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Question 35: Today, Amur leopard, one of the world’s most endangered wild cats, is found only in the
Amur River basin of eastern Russia, having already gone extinct from China and the Korean Peninsula.
A. died for chết cho/ hi sinh B. died from chết vì nguyên C. died of chết đột ngột ( do D. died out tuyệt chủng
cho ai nhân bên ngoài nguyên nhân bên trong)
Question 36: The students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out.
A. got very good marks B. got a lot of marks
C. got higher marks than someone D. got the most marks of all
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very
different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of
the sharks, have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out
sideways to form great “wings”. They look as though they have been flattened but have remained
symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat
in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical
direction; they are much “taller” then they are wide. They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as
swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors
migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that
one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless – In evolution this problem
was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around
enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is
symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted
fashion, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, and old Picasso –
like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others
on either side.
Question 37: The passage is mainly concerned with _______.
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish
C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 38: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that _______.
A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly
C. have spread horizontally D. resemble sharks
Question 39: According to the passage, fish such as plaice _______.
A. have difficulties in swimming B. live near the surface
C. have distorted heads D. have poor eyesight
Question 40: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. similarly B. alternatively C. inversely D. contrafily
Question 41: The word “this” refers to _______.
A. the migration of the ancestors B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 42: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is _______.
A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is _______.
A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger
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Question 44: We do not know precisely what caused the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, the cities
on the Jordan River plain in the southern region of the land of Canaan.
A. casually B. flexibly C. wrongly D. informally
Question 45: South Korea carried out a simulated attack on North Korea’s nuclear test site in a huge
show of force response to Pyongyang’s detonation of what it claims is a hydrogen bomb.
A. put up B. put in C. put off D. put on
Question 46: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it. - so + adj + be + S + that + clause
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting. - so + adv + trợ đtừ + s + V + that + clause
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 47: The child gave some instructions. I don’t understand any of them.
A. The instructions the child gave are not understanding to me.
B. It was the instructions the child gave that confused me.
C. It hasn’t been clear to me about the instructions given by the child.
D. I’m finding it difficult to figure out what the child required according to his instructions.
Question 48: You should have made your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so.
A. It was essential to make your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so but you
didn’t.
B. You didn’t make your children do housework as they were able to do so.
C. You should make your children do housework as soon as they are able to do so.
D. You made your children do housework but they weren’t able to do so.
Question 49: When the birth rate is high, the expectation of life is low.
A. The birth rate and the expectation of life are high and low respectively.
B. The higher the birth rate, the lower the expectation of life. the + adj_er, the + adj_er: ngày càng
C. The birth rate is as high as the expectation of life.
D. The high rate of giving birth depends on the low rate of expectation of life.
Question 50: Richard said “Thanks, Bob. You were very kind to me yesterday”.
A. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him yesterday.
B. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him yesterday.
C. Richard thanked Bob for he had been very kind to him the day before.
D. Richard said thanks to Bob as he was very kind to him yesterday.
thanks to: nhờ vào
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Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and
fires can change ecosystems. Some changes (1) _______ ecosystems. If there is too (2) _______ rainfall,
plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals that feed on it may also
die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires for he pine trees
to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the
seeds (3) _______. Polluting the air, soil, and water can harm ecosystems. Building (4) _______ on rivers
for electric power and irrigation can harm ecosystems around the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting
down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better
ways of (5) _______ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food,
lumber, and other products for people without causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 1: A. harms B. harmful C. harmless D. harm
Question 2: A. little B. a little C. few D. a few
Question 3: A. out B. in C. go D. fly
Question 4: A. moats B. ditches C. bridges D. dams
Question 5: A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking
Question 6: A. skating B. status C. stadium D. statue
Question 7: A. definitions B. documents C. combs D. doors
Question 8: A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
Question 9: A. relax B. wonder C. problem D. special
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quitely being developed. In 1869
the Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth Street. The
building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the
first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris,
and each understood the eonomics and social potential of this Parisian housing form. But the Stuyvesant
was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s inviting façade, the living space was awkwardly
arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptous, single-family
homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to newly married couples and bachelors.
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly
followed, in the 1870’s and early 1880’s was that they were confined to the typical New York building
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lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep-a shape perfectly suited for a row house.
The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-
lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require. But even with the awkward
interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on. It met the needs of a large and
growing population that wanted something better then tenements but could not afford or did not want row
houses.
So while the city’s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment
houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints. In the
closing decades of the nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting the developed portions of
New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious buildings, such as the
Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement of row house building lots. From there
it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses on the newly created Park Avenue, right next
to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
Question 10: The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to _______.
A. single-family homes B. apartment buildings C. row houses D. hotels
Question 11: The word “inviting” in bold is closest in meaning to _______.
A. open B. encouraging C. attracting D. asking
Question 12: Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?
A. The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient.
B. Most people could not afford to live there.
C. There were no shopping areas nearby.
D. It was in a crowded neighborhood.
Question 13: It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’s first apartments were
A. highly educated B. unemployed C. wealthy D. young
Question 14: It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of
the following characteristics EXCEPT _______.
A. Its room arrangement was not logical. B. It was rectangular.
C. It was spacious inside. D. It had limited light.
Question 15: The word “yield” in bold is closest in meaning to _______.
A. harvest B. surrender C. amount D. provide
Question 16: Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800’s?
A. Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
B. Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses
C. The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located.
D. The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
Question 17: The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in bold because _______.
A. they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings
B. their design is similar to that of row houses
C. they were built on a single building lot
D. they are famous hotels
Question 18: Everyone at her housewarming was very friendly towards me.
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A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
Question 19: The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. renovated B. regenerated C. furnished D. neglected
following questions.
Question 20: If you inherited a million pounds, what _______ with the money?
A. would you do B. will you do C. do you do D. are you going to do
Question 21: They _______ the play on New Year’s Eve as they went to the Countdown Party 2018.
A. won’t have seen B. wouldn’t have seen
C. needn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
Question 22: Lien and Loan are planning for their weekend.
Lien: “_______”
Loan: “Not really.”
A. I don’t like that new movie.
B. Would you like to watch a cartoon or a documentary?
C. Would you recommend the new movie at the Odeon?
D. How often do you go to the movies?
Question 23: Something tells me that you _______ to a single word I _______ in the past ten minutes.
A. haven’t listened/ was saying B. didn’t listen/ said
C. haven’t been listening/ have said D. haven’t listened/ said
Question 24: The _______ country mouse ran home as fast as his legs could carry him.
A. frightening B. frighten C. frightful D. frightened
Question 25: The plice spokesman said he was _______ to believe that the arrested man was the serial
killer they had been looking for.
A. inclued B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
Question 26: For lunch, I always haave something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the
_______.
A. same B. similar C. like D. rest
Question 27: I don’t think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting, did they? I totally failed
to get my point _______.
A. around B. along C. across D. about
Question 28: This fruit has been in the fridge for over three weeks! It is all _______.
A. sour B. mouldy C. rotten D. bitter
Question 29: As I have just had a tooth _______, I am not allowed to eat or drink anything for three
hours.
A. taken out B. crossed out C. broken off D. tried on
Question 30: We don’t seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of _______ but we are getting a
new delivery next Thursday if you would like to pop back then.
A. stock B. order C. print D. shop
Question 31: Mary is going shopping with her friend.
Mary: “What do you think of fashion?”
Mary’s friend: “_______”
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A. I am crazy about it. B. Of course, the fashion show is excellent.
C. Well, it’s beyond my expectation. D. It’s none of my business.
Question 32: Hyolyn, the former main vocalist for the group SISTAR, has known for being one of the
most well-rounded idols, being extremely good at signing, dancing and _______.
A. performed live B. performing live
C. she also good at performing live D. for performing live
Question 33: I phoned Tiki, who _______ me that my reference books would be delivered within 3 days.
A. assured B. confirmed C. guaranteed D. reassured
Question 34: We’re really close friends but we just can not see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. nut understand D. not care for
Question 35: The changes in a person’s physical and emotional state caused by drinking alcohol are
known as intoxication.
A. drunkenness B. poison C. sleepiness D. excitement
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over
conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods –
a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more
nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North
American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping
claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these
claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such
claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating
a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits
to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder
foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones,
that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than
fumigated grains and the like.
One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost
more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic
foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods. So there
is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food
and buy only expensive organic foods instead.
Question 36: The word “Advocates” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Proponents B. Merchants C. Inspectors D. Consumers
Question 37: The word “others” refers to _______.
A. advantages B. advocates C. organic foods D. products
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Question 38: The “welcome development” is an increase in _______.
A. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America
D. the number of consumers in North America
Question 39: According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic
foods”?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is seldom used by consumers.
Question 40: The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy
organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because _______.
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops
Question 41: According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than
conventionally grown foods are often _______.
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
Question 42: What is the one thing in common that most organic food seem to have?
A. They cost more than conventionally grown food.
B. They are healthier than conventionally grown food.
C. They come from an unknown source.
D. They are home – made.
Question 43: After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion of the
A B C
issues which were risen in the talk.
D
Question 44: A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the field.
A B C D
Question 45: The salary of a professor is higher than a secretary.
A B C D
Question 46: It is difficult to get tickets for 2018 World Cup. It was wise of him to buy the tickets for
2018 World Cup in advance.
A. Since they are difficult to get, he should have brought the tickets for 2018 World Cup beforehand.
B. Although he bought the tickets for 2018 World Cup in advance, he wasn’t wise enough to do so.
C. Such is te difficulty in getting the tickets for 2018 World Cup that it was wise of him to buy them
beforehand.
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D. The tickets for 2018 World Cup is so difficult to get that he had enough wisdom to buy them.
Question 47: We arrived at airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport, did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Question 48: Intelligent thought she may seem, she’s not to be relied on.
A. She’s too intelligent to be relied on.
B. However she seems intelligent, she’s not to be relied on.
C. She may be intelligent, but she’s not to be relied on.
D. However intelligent she seems, she’s not to be relied on.
Question 49: “You’re always cheating on exams, An.”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his student why they always cheated on exams.
B. The teacher realized that his student always cheated on exams.
C. The teacher complained about his student cheating on exams.
D. The teacher made his student not always cheat on exams.
Question 50: Israel, India and Pakistan are generally believed to have nuclear weapons that use only
nuclear fission.
A. There’s a general belief that that Israel, India and Pakistan should have nuclear weapons that use
only nuclear fission.
B. It is generally believed that Israel, India and Pakistan have nuclear weapons that use only nuclear
fission.
C. The general belief is that Israel, India and Pakistan should have nuclear weapons that use only
nuclear fission.
D. It generally believes that Israel, India and Pakistan have nuclear weapons that use only nuclear
fission.
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following question.
Question 1: _______ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. Winning D. On winning
Question 2: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a _______ of a
doubt.
A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue
Question 3: She was _______ out of 115 applicants for the position of managing Director.
A. short-changed B. short-listed C. shorted-sighted D. short-handed
Question 4: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to _______ .
A. get B. beat C. take D. achieve
Question 5: The smell was so bad that it completely _______ us off our food.
A. set B. took C. got D. put
Question 6: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at _______ it has come.
A. last B. the end C. present D. the moment
Question 7: It is _______ opportunity to see African wildlife in its natural environment.
A. an unique B. a unique C. the unique D. unique
Question 8: If I _______ the same problem you had as a child, I might not have succeeded in life as you
have.
A. have B. would have had C. had had D. had
Question 9: Delegates will meet with _______ from industry and the government.
A. represented B. representative C. representatives D. presenters
Question 10: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; _______ experts
must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens.
A. so that B. however C. afterwards D. therefore
Question 11: Peter and Thomas are talking about their mission.
Peter: “It is important?”
Thomas: “ _______”.
A. Not on your life! B. It’s a matter of life and death!
C. No worry, that’s nothing. D. It’s ridiculous.
Question 12: Ann is asking Mathew’s opinion after biology class.
Ann: “Does the global warning worry you?”
Mathew: “ _______”
A. What a shame! B. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter.
C. I can’t bear to think about it. D. I don’t like hot weather.
Question 13: You look exhausted. You _______ in the garden all day.
A. must have been working B. should have been working
C. would have been working D. will have been working
Question 14: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my _______ .
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A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 15: A. spear B. gear C. fear d. pear
Question 16: A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Question 17: The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the Suez Canal,
A B C
but the opera was not performed until 1871.
D
Question 18: Wealthy people have always desired and wear precious stones because their beauty is
A B C
lasting.
D
Question 19: It was not until she could read and write when she was allowed to use smartphone.
A B C D
Question 20: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. hindrance B. obstruction C. furtherance D. setback
Question 21: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it.
A. exhausting B. forceful C. energetic D. half-hearted
Criticism
The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This (22) _______
many problems, including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risk (23) _______
accidents. Clearly, something must be done, but it is often difficult to persuade people to change their
habits and leave their cars at home.
One possible approach is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars be increasing
charges for parking and brining in tougher fines for anyone who (24) _______ the law. In addition,
drivers could be required to pay for using particular routes at different times of the day. This system, also
known as ‘road pricing’, is already being introduced in a number of cities, using a special electronic card
(25) _______ to windscreen of the car.
Another ways of dealing with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the outskirts of the city,
and strictly control the number of vehicles allowed into the centre. Drivers and their passengers then use a
special bus service for the final stage of their journey.
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Of course, the most important (26) _______ is to provide good public transport. However, to get
people to give up the comfort their cars, public transport must be felt to be reliable, convenient and
comfortable, with fares charged at an acceptable level.
Question 22: A. causes B. results C. leads D. invents
Question 23: A. of B. for C. about D. by
Question 24: A. crosses B. refuses C. breaks D. cracks
Question 25: A. fixed B. joined C. built D. placed
Question 26: A. thought B. thing C. work D. event
Question 27: A. mutually B. apologize C. permission D. reaction
Question 28: A. survival B. industry C. endangered D. commercial
Question 29: Nowadays, there have still been some decisions by sports referees which are likely to be
either unsatisfactory or problematic.
A. strict B. arguable C. tactful D. firm
Question 30: Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is
used for the awards which very from $30,000 to $125,000.
A. fortune B. prize C. heritage D. bequest
Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consists in essence of a
hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck covered with a fingerboard, along
which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of design, shape, and decoration is no
accident. The proportions of the instrument are determined almost entirely by acoustical considerations.
Its simplicity of appearance is deceptive. About 70 parts are involved in the construction of a violin. Its
tone and its outstanding range of expressiveness make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important,
however, is its role as an orchestral and chamber instrument. In combination with the larger and deeper-
sounding members of the same family, the violins form the nucleus of the modern symphony orchestra.
The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument in its own right
dates from the early 1600’s, when it first became standard in Italian opera orchestras. Its stature as an
orchestral instrument was raised further when in 1626 Louis XIII of France established at his court the
orchestra known as Les vinq-quatre violons du Roy (The King’s 24 Violins), which was to become
widely famous later in the century.
In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting from the fact that the strings
were think and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely. During the eighteenth and
nineteenth century, exciting technical changes were inspired by such composer-violinists as Vivaldi and
Tartini. Their instrumental compositions demanded a fuller, clearer, and more brilliant tone that was
produced by using thinner strings and a far higher string tension. Small changes had to be made to the
violin’s internal structure and to the fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain.
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Accordingly, a higher standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility and interpretation.
Left-hand technique was considerably elaborated, and new fingering patterns on the fingerboard were
developed for very high notes.
Question 31: The word “standard” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. practical B. customary C. possible D. unusual
Question 32: “The King’s 24 Violins” is mentioned to illustrate _______ .
A. the competition in the 1600’s between French and Italian orchestras
B. how the violin became a renowned instrument
C. the superiority of French violins
D. why the violin was considered the only instrument suitable to be played by royalty
Question 33: What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3?
A. The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in the world.
B. The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions.
C. The violin had reached the hight of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century.
D. The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600’s.
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. Civaldi and Tartini B. internal structure and fingerboard
C. thinner strings and a higher string tension D. small changes
Question 35: According to the passage, early violins were different from modern violins in that early
violins _______ .
A. were heavier B. produced softer tones
C. were easier to play D. broke down more easily
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound being
produced by a violin?
A. A long fingerboard B. A small body C. High string tension D. Thick strings
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to play
modern violin music EXCEPT _______ .
A. use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck
B. different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes
C. more complicated techniques for the left hand
D. minor alterations to the structure of the instrument
Advertising helps people recognize a particular brand, persuades them tro try it, and tries to keep
them loyal to it. Brand loyalty is perhaps the most important goal of consumer advertising. Whether they
produce cars, canned foods or cosmetics, manufacturers want their customers to make repeated purchases.
The quality of the product will encourage this, of course, but so, too, will affect advertising.
Advertising relies on the techniques of market research to identify potential users of a product. Are
they homemakers or professional people? Are they young or old? Are they city dwellers or country
dwellers? Such questions have a bearing on where and when ads should be played. By studying
readership breakdowns for newspapers and magazines as well as television ratings and other statistics, an
advertising agency can decide on the best way of reaching potential buyers. Detailed research and
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marketing expertise are essential today when advertising budgets can run into thousands of millions of
dollars.
Advertising is a fast-paced, high-pressure industry. There is a constant need for creative ideas that
will establish a personality for a product in the public’s mind. Current developments in advertising
increase the need for talented workers.
In the past, the majority of advertising was aimed at the traditional white family – breadwinner
father, non- working mother, and two children. Research now reveals that only about 6 percent of
American households fit this stereotype. Instead, society is fragmented into many groups, with working
mothers, single people and older people on the rise. To be most successful, advertising must identify a
particular segment and aim its message toward that group.
Advertising is also making use of new technologies. Computer graphics are used to grab the
attention of consumers and to help them see products in a new light. The use of computer graphics in a
commercial for canned goods, for instance, gave a new image to the tin can.
Question 38: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How to develop a successful advertising plan
B. New techniques and technologies of market research
C. The central role of advertising in selling products
D. The history of advertising in the United States
Question 39: The word “this” in bold type in paragraph 1 refers to _______ .
A. the quality of the product B. effective advertising
C. repeatedly buying the same brand D. the most important goal
Question 40: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that advertisers must _______ .
A. encourage people to try new products
B. aim their message at homemakers and professional people
C. know about the people who will buy the product
D. place several ads in newspapers and magazines
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, market research inclues _______.
A. studying television ratings
B. hiring researchers with backgrounds in many fields
C. searcihng for talented workers
D. determining the price of a product
Question 42: The author implies that the advertising industry requires _______ .
A. millions of dollars B. a college-educated work force
C. innovative thinking D. government regulation
Question 43: According to the passage, most advertising used to be directed at _______ .
A. working mothers with chilren B. two-parent families with children
C. unmarried people D. older adults
Question 44: The phrase “in a new light” in bold type in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. differently B. with the use of color enhancement
C. more distinctly D. in a more energy-efficient way
Question 45: Where in the passage does the author give an example of a new development in
advertising?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 5
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Question 46: We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the threats of
cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime less.
Question 47: The new contract sounds good. However, it seems to have some problems.
A. In spite of the fact that the new contract sounds good, it appears to have some problems.
B. In spite of its sound, the new contract appears to have many problems.
C. In order to get less problems, the new contract should improve its sound.
D. If it had much less problems, the new contract would sound better.
Question 48: Due to unforeseen circumstances, our group’s scheduled visit to the museum has been
called off.
A. The trip to the museum that we’d planned is now cancelled because something unexpected has
happened.
B. Something happened at the museum, so they cancelled our visit.
C. We are no longer going to the museum because there is no time on our schedule.
D. We can’t go to see the museum at the arranged time because it will be closed.
Question 49: The little girl said “Will you help me open the parcel? I can’t do it alone”.
A. The little girl asked me if I would help her open the parcel as she couldn’t do it alone.
B. The little girl asked me if I will help her open the parcel as she can’t do it alone.
C. The little girl asked me to open the parcel because she couldn’t do it.
D. The little girl asked me to help her open the parcel because she couldn’t do it alone.
Question 50: They said that “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December went like a bomb.
A. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was complained to have gone like a disaster.
B. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December is said to go like a bomb.
C. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was complained to be very violent.
D. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was praised to be very successful.
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Question 1: Henry was found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 2: We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had little time to play B. had a lot of time to play
C. felt happy D. felt disappointed
Question 3: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige
Question 4: A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. decides B. combines C. lives D. appoints
Question 6: A. picture B. culture C. pure D. nature
Question 7: Mario has now _______ to the point where his English is almost fluent.
A. arrived B. approached C. advanced D. reached
Question 8: It seems that he is having a lot of difficulties, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. isn’t it C. isn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 9: If energy _______ inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would be different.
A. is B. will be C. were D. would be
Question 10: Opera singer Maria Callas was known for her _______, powerful voice.
A. intensity B. intensify C. intense D. intensely
Question 11: _______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 12: Dr. Parker gave my mom a lovely _______ for spaghetti carbonara.
A. recipe B. prescription C. receipt D. paper
Question 13: My sunburnt nose made me feel rather _______ for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centered C. self-conscious D. self-evident
Question 14: Why is he always _______ the subject of money?
A. bringing up B. taking up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 15: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
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Question 16: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 17: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _______ her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 18: It is not _______ to be drunk in the street.
A. respecting B. respectably C. respectful D. respectable
Question 19: A salesgirl is talking to a customer in a clothes shop.
Salesgirl: “Can I help you, madam?”
Customer: “ _______”
A. Yes, it’s in our summer sale. B. It’s very cheap.
C. No, thanks. I’m just looking. D. Right. It looks a bit small.
Question 20: Cairo and Roma are talking in the living room.
Cairo: “ _______ ?”
Roma: “I’d rather you didn’t, if you don’t mind.”
A. Would you do me a favour B. Would you mind if I opened the door
C. Will you please open the window D. Do you mind helping me with my work
Question 21: The woman is famous not only for her beauty, intelligent but also for her hardworking.
A B C D
Question 22: Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A B C D
Question 23: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading
A B C
easily among the population.
D
Question 24: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived
Question 25: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspapaer war between giants of the
American press in the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in
the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement,
similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst’ rival New York
paper, the Morning Journal.
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Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic
relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”,
the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured
away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic
dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech
baloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer
Kids”, based on Wilhelm Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The
“Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not
only speech baloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that
did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout
the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind.
The first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915
black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily newspapers around the country.
Question 26: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 27: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the
following EXCEPT _______.
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a baloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way
Question 28: The word “incorporate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect
Question 29: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today.
B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper.
D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 30: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 31: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
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Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to
these radio waves might (33) _______ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific
evidence does not enable us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (34) _______. On
the other hand, current research has not yet proved clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use
of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (35) _______ in various countries. Some of the results are
contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (36) _______,
these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long-term investigation.
Until the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for
long periods of time. Don’t think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is
in fact showing the opposite and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (37)
_______ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 33: A. bring B. lead C. cause D. produce
Question 34: A. risky B. unhealthy C. secure D. safe
Question 35: A. on B. by C. through D. about
Question 36: A. Additionally B. However C. While D. Though
Question 37: A. whose B. that C. with D. as
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects – an estimated 90 percent of the world’s
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the
general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the total number found on
the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison
of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns very among different animal
and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical
regions, rather than between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species
among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly “personal communication” citations,
even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these
patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about
the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of
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example because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors
generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 38: The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 39: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conversation issues
because they _______.
A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 40: The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats.
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions.
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region.
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups.
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT _______.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 43: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 44: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to _______.
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 45: The idea “little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution” in paragraph 5 is
that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don’t know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfy evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Question 46: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 47: “Cigarette?”, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
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C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Question 48: They started the meal after they had reached an agreement.
A. Reaching an agreement, they started the meal.
B. Having reached an agreement, they started the meal.
C. Having had the meal, they reached an agreement.
D. Having the meal, they reached an agreement.
Question 49: It had been snowing all day. A great many people managed to get to the end-of-term
concert.
A. Very few people indeed were prevented from getting to the end-of-term concert by the heavy snow.
B. Since there had been snow all day long, it wasn’t easy for people to get to the end-of-term concert.
C. As it had been snowing heavily all day, a great many people just could not get to the end-of-term
concert.
D. A lot of people did get to the end-of-term convert in spite of the snow that fell all day.
Question 50: People said that the manager would return next Monday.
A. The manager was said to have returned on Monday.
B. The manager was said to return next Monday.
C. The manager is said to return next Monday.
D. The manager is said to have returned on Monday.
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Question 1: He decided to buy some chocolate kept in an________container for his father,
A. air tighted B. tight - air C. tight aired D. airtight
Question 2: The politician tried to arouse the crowd, but most of them were_______to his arguments.
A. closed B. indifferent C. careless D. dead
Question 3: - “Can you take the day off tomorrow?”
- “Well, I’ll have to get_______from my boss.”
A. permission B. licence C. allowance D. permit
Question 4: I do not believe that this preposterous scheme is__________of our serious consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless
Question 5: He made me_____________they had left the district.
A. to believe B. believed C. believe D. believing
Question 6: Dr. Evans has________a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
Question 7: It’s a pity you didn’t ask because I________you.
A. should have helped B. could have helped C. must have helped D. would have helped
Question 8: It was difficult to guess what her__________ to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
Question 9: The greater part of London______ of wood, but after the great fire, wider streets and brick
houses__________.
A. have been/are built B. was/ were built C. was/ would be built D. had been/were built
Question 10: Harry and Kate are talking in Harry’s office.
Kate: “May I open the window?”
Harry: “_________”
A. What suits you? B. You are free.
C. Accommodate yourself! D. Go ahead!
Question 11: The show was very funny. They were___________sport commentators.
A. sending up B. taking up C. looking up D. bringing up
Question 12: Maria is talking to Ann after work.
Maria: “____________?”
Ann: “With pleasure.”
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A. Could you give me a lift B. Would you mind If I smoked
C. What do you plan to do D. Would you like a cup of tea
Question 13: The newcomer has got few friends, __________?
A. doesn’t she B. does she C. hasn’t she D. has she
Question 14: __________ more help, I could call my neighbour.
A. Needed B. Should I need C. I have needed D. I should need
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 15: In 1864 George Pullman designed a sleeping car that eventually saw widespread use.
A. previously B. ultimately C. familiarly D. simultaneously
Question 16: Why are you so arrogant?
A. snooty B. stupid C. humble D. cunning
Question 17: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 18: Pop music is not my cup of tea; I prefer classical music.
A. doesn’t suit my taste C. is not my favourite drink
B. is something I enjoy most D. is an object I don’t need
from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. great B. bean C. teacher D. means
Question 20: A. removed B. approved C. beloved D. relieved
in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. statistical B. solidarity C. sociology D. managerial
Question 22: A. familiar B. redundant C. customary D. reluctant
Question 23: Gilbert Newton Lewis, a chemist, helped to develop the modem electron theory of valence,
A B
a theory what explains the forces holding atoms together in molecules.
C D
Question 24: Carnegie Hall was the first bulding in New York designing specially for orchestral music.
A B C D
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Question 25: Lady Liberty has long been a symbol of free and hope to people all over the world, but have
A B C
you ever wondered where she came from?
D
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as "silent", the film has never
been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was regarded as an
indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in
the United States in February 1896, they were accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At
first, the music played bore no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was
sufficient. Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film
became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood of the
film.
As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would be added
to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras were formed. For a
number of years the selection of music for each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor
or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was not
skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor
seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky
enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.
To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing
suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with
their films such indications of mood as “pleasant”, “sad”, “lively”. The suggestions became more explicit,
and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of
music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the next.
Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early special
scores was that composed and arranged for D.w. Griffith's film Birth of a Nation, which was released in
1915.
Question 26: The passage mainly discusses music that was_________.
A. performed before the showing of a film
B. played during silent films
C. recorded during film exhibitions
D. specifically composed for certain movie theaters
Question 27: What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after 1927?
A. They were truly “silent”.
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices.
D. They coưesponded to specific musical compositions.
Question 28: It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to ____.
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A. be able to play many instruments B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music D. be able to compose original music
Question 29: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. years B. hands C. pieces D. films
Question 30: According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?
A. It produced electricity. B. It distributed films.
C. It published musical arrangements. D. It made musical instruments.
Question 31: It maybe inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around .
A.1896 B.1909 C. 1915 D.1927
Question 32: Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue
sheet of the early 1900's?
A. “Calm, peaceful” B. “Piano, violin”
C. “Key of C major” D. “Directed by D. w. Griffith's”
Question 33: The word “scores” in paragraph 4 most likely means_________.
A. totals B. successes
C. groups of musicians D. musical compositions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits,
considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (34)________, we are easily influenced by
the people around US.
There is nothing wrong with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than (35)______
on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that
groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been
tricky. It is because they are so similar with (36)_________to how much money they make and what
television ads they watch that they independently arrive at the same decision? Or do they copy one
another, perhaps (37)_______envy or perhaps because they have shared information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on
buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances (38)_______
that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week and a half rose by 86 per cent. The
researchers argued that it was not just a matter of envy.Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more
than new cars. This suggested that people were not trying to keep up with their neighbours, they were
keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a recommendation of one can strongly
influence a buying decision.
Question 34: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place
Question 35: A. basing B. trusting C. supposing D. relying
Question 36: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern
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Question 37: A. for B.as to C. out of D. about
Question 38: A. who B. whose C. that D. when
Glass is a remarkable substance made from the simplest raw materials. It can be colored or colorless,
monochrome or polychrome, transparent, translucent, or opaque. It is lightweight impermeable to liquids,
readily cleaned and reused, durable yet fragile, and often very beautiful. Glass can be decorated in
multiple ways and its optical properties are exceptional. In all its myriad forms - as table ware, containers,
in architecture and design - glass represents a major achievement in the history of technological
developments.
Since the Bronze Age about 3, 000 B.C., glass has been used for making various kinds of objects. It
was first made from a mixture of silica, line and an alkali such as soda or potash, and these remained the
basic ingredients of glass until the development of lead glass in the seventeenth century. When heated, the
mixture becomes soft and malleable and can be formed by various techniques into a vast array of shapes
and sizes. The homogeneous mass thus formed by melting then cools to create glass, but in contrast to
most materials formed in this way (metals, for instance), glass lacks the crystalline structure normally
associated with solids, and instead retains the random molecular structure of a liquid. In effect, as molten
glass cools, it progressively stiffens until rigid, but does so without setting up a network of interlocking
crystals customarilyassociated with that process. This is why glass shatters so easily when dealt a blow.
Why glass deteriorates over time, especially when exposed to moisture, and why glassware must be
slowly reheated and uniformly cooled after manufacture to release internal stresses induced by uneven
cooling.
Another unusual feature of glass is the manner in which its viscosity changes as it turns from a cold
substance into a hot, ductile liquid. Unlike metals that flow or freeze at specific temperatures glass
progressively softens as the temperature rises, going through varying stages of malleability until it flows
like thick syrup. Each stage of malleability allows the glass to be manipulated into various forms, by
different techniques, and if suddenly cooled the object retains the shape achieved at that point. Glass is
thus amenable to a greater number of heat-forming techniques than most other materials.
Question 39: Why does the author list the characteristics of glass in paragraph 1?
A. To demonstrate how glass evolved.
B. To show the versatility of glass.
C. To explain glassmaking technology.
D. To explain the purpose of each component of glass.
Question 40: What does the author imply about the raw materials used to make glass?
A. They were the same for centuries. B. They are liquid.
C. They are transparent. D. They are very heavy.
Question 41: According to the passage, how is glass that has cooled and become rigid different from
most other rigid substances?
A. It has an interlocking crystal network. B. It has an unusually low melting temperature.
C. It has varying physical properties. D. It has a random molecular structure.
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Question 42: The words “exposed to” in paragraph 2 most likely mean________.
A. hardened by B. chilled with C. subjected to D. deprived of
Question 43: What must be done to release the internal stresses that build up in glass products during
manufacture?
A. The glass must be reheated and evenly cooled.
B. The glass must be cooled quickly.
C. The glass must be kept moist until cooled.
D. The glass must be shaped to its desired form immediately.
Question 44: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. feature B. glass C. manner D. viscosity
Question 45: According to the passage, why can glass be more easily shaped into specific forms than can
metals?
A. It resists breaking when heated.
B. It has better optical properties.
C. It retains heat while its viscosity changes.
D. It gradually becomes softer as its temperature rises.
Mark the letter A, B, cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46: “Never borrow money from friends”, my father said.
A. My father advised me to borrow money from friends.
B. My father told me not to borrow money from friends.
C. My father suggested me that I should borrow money from friends.
D. My father advised me not to lend my friends money.
Question 47: They were exposed to biased information, so they didn't know the true story.
A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.
C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.
Question 48: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.
A. 13 is believed to have been an unlucky number.
B. 13 is believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It was believed that 13 was an unlucky number.
D. It is believed that 13 has been an unlucky number
Mark the letter A, B, c,or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
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A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 50: We had had very salty food. We were all dying of thirst.
A. Having very salty food, we were all dying of thirst.
B. Having had very salty food, we were all dying of thirst.
C. Dying of thirst, we had very salty food.
D. Having died of thirst, we had very salty food.
-----------------HẾT-------------------
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Question 1: Prime Minister Malcolm Turnbull is trying to______himself with US President Donald
Trump and impress Australian voters.
A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend
Question 2: She made no________to her illness but only to her future plans.
A. statement B. mention C. reference D. comment
Question 3: It is difficult to assess the full______of the damage caused by Hurricane Sandy, one of the
most destructive storms the U.S. has had in quite some time.
A. range B. extent C. amount D. quality
Question 4: Frankly, I'd rather you__________anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done
Question 5: An acrobatic aerial performance titled Vietnamese Wings by two Vietnamese artists_____the
highest prize at the International Circus Festival Circuba 2017, held in Cuba between June 25 and July 2.
A. have won B. won C. had won D. win
Question 6: Our team could have defended the AFC U23 Championship title______the severe weather
condition.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D. hadn't it been for.
Question 7: I am trying to find a________watch for my mother and a doll with_____hair for my little
sister.
A. water-proof/snow-white B. proofed water/ white snowed
C. proof water/white snow D. water-proofed/snow-whited
Question 8: Smith had a lucky escape. He______.
A. would have been killed B. must have been killed.
C. could have been killed D. should have been killed.
Question 9: Hardly any of the paintings at the gallery were for sale,__________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. wasn’t it D. was it
Question 10: Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the________that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
Question 11: While the victory moves Vietnam, incredibly, a step nearer to the title, it sees Qatar fall at
the semi-final stage for the second_______competition in AFC U23 Championship.
A. successive B. success C. successfully D. successful
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Question 12: Peter_________Rae and screamed “Get out of my sight”.
A. turned on B. took on C. got back D. showed off
Question 13: A salesclerk is talking to a customer in an Apple Store.
Salesclerk:"___________"
Customer: "Yes. I'd like to buy a MacBook Air."
A. Do you look for something? B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it? D. Can you help me buy something?
Question 14: Nadir is telling Kate about his scholarship.
Nadir: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: “Oh, really? ____________!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
Question 15: The government must be able to prevent and deter threats to our homeland as well as detect
impending danger before attacks or incidents occur.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Question 16: Although Facebook is still relatively popular among teenagers, they don’t have the cool
factor they once had.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
Question 17: Punctuality is a necessary habit in all public affairs in civilized society.
A. Being in time B. Lateness C. Being on time D. Time-keeping
Question 18: When U23 Vietnam went to the final versus U23 Uzbekistan, all the nation was walking on
air.
A. extremely happy B. very disappointed C. very perplexed D. extremely light
Question 19: A. support B. confide C. precede D. swallow
Question 20: A. forgettableB. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that
differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. middle B. mile C. kind D. time
Question 22: A. marbles B. classes C. teaches D. changes
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Question 23: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, politics and
A B C
technological institutions if they are to preserve the environment.
D
Question 24: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A B C D
Question 25: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been
A B
forced to alter their eating habits.
C D
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of
time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the
first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory
storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the
STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted
theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember
approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such
as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modem theorists suggest that one can increase the
capacity of the short term memoiy by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By
organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed
on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no
interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear.
When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it
aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a
phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to
pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice "elaborate
rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed
along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be
done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory
and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting.
The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is
why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Question 26: According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory. B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
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C. They get chunked when they enter the brain. D. They enter via the nervous system.
Question 27: All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT
the____.
A. STM. B. long term memory. C. sensory storage area. D. maintenance area.
Question 28: Why does the author mention a dog's bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory.
B. To provide a type of interruption.
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans.
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell.
Question 29: The word “elaborate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. complex B. efficient C. pretty D. regular
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
Question 31: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_____.
A. a pen B. a paper C. a phone number D. a person
Question 32: The author believes that rote rotation is .
A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary interruption
Question 33: The word “cues” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceability of British copyright law in the American
colonies made it possible for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers. Although they rarely
undertook major publishing project because it was difficult to sell books as cheaply as they could be
imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish work that required only small amounts of
capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be published with minimal financial risk. Consisting of only
one sheet of paper and requiring small amounts of type, broadsides involved lower investments of capital
than longer works. Furthermore, the broadside format lent itself to subjects of high, if temporary, interest,
enabling them to meet with ready sale. If the broadside printer miscalculated, however, and produced a
sheet that did not sell, it was not likely to be a major loss, and the printer would know this immediately,
there would be no agonizing wait with large amounts of capital tied up, books gathering dust on the
shelves’ and creditors impatient for payment.
In addition to broadsides, books and pamphlets, consisting mainly of political tracts, catechisms,
primers, and chapbooks were relatively inexpensive to print and to buy. Chapbook were pamphlet-sized
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books, usually containing popular tales, ballads, poems, short plays, and jokes, small, both in formal and
number of pages, they were generally bound simply, in boards (a form of cardboard) or merely stitched in
paper wrappers (a sewn antecedent of modern-day paperbacks). Pamphlets and chapbooks did not require
me paper or a great deal of type to produce they could thus be printed in large, cost-effective editions and
sold cheaply.
By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that had proven
to be steady sellers, providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the publisher. They would not,
by nature, be highly topical or political, as such publications would prove of fleeting interest. Almanacs,
annual pu ications t at contained information on astronomy and weather patterns arranged according to
the days, week, and months of a given year, provided the perfect steady seller because their information
pertained to the locale in which they would be used.
Question 34: Which aspect of colonial printing does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Laws governing the printing industry. B. Competition among printers.
C. Types of publications produced. D. Advances in printing technology.
Question 35: According to the passage, why did colonial printers avoid major publishing projects?
A. Few colonial printers owned printing machinery that was large enough to handle major projects.
B. There was inadequate shipping available in the colonies.
C. Colonial printers could not sell their work for a competitive price.
D. Colonial printers did not have the skills necessary to undertake large publishing projects.
Question 36: Broadsides could be published with little risk to colonial printers because they______.
A. required a small financial investment and sold quickly.
B. were in great demand in European markets.
C. were more popular with colonists than chapbooks and pamphlets.
D. generally dealt with topics of long-term interest to many colonists.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to_______.
A. chapbooks B. tales C. jokes pages
Question 38: The word “appealing” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. dependable B. respectable C. enduring D. attractive
Question 39: What were "steady sellers"?
A. Printers whose incomes were quite large.
B. People who traveled from town to town selling books and pamphlets.
C. Investors who provided reliable financial support for new printers.
D. Publications whose sales were usually consistent from year to year.
Question 40: All of the following are defined in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. broadsides B. catechisms C. chapbooks D. Almanacs
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The texting pigeons
Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed,
some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (41)_______on young people's
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at risk
of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have
started doing it. (42)______, in this case, it's difficult to view the results as anything but positive.
Twenty of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each
(43)______with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be
automatically converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet - (44)_______they will appear on
a dedicated 'pigeon blog'.
The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers
are building a tiny 'pigeon kit' containing all these gadgets. Each bird will carry these in a miniature
backpack, (45)_______, that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck.
The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map, which will provide
local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local air quality.
Question 41: A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 42: A. Therefore B. What's more C. Whereas D. That is
Question 43: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 44: A. when B. which C. where D. what
Question 45: A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
Question 46: People said they had demolished the building.
A. The building was said to have demolished. B. The building was said to have been demolishing.
C. The building was said to be demolished. D. The building was said to have been demolished.
Question 47: We arrived at the airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport, did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 48: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. He wasn’t driving fast enough to avoid an accident.
B. He didn’t have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving.
Question 49: I said to her “If you let your son do whatever he wants, you will spoil him”.
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A. I said if she lets her son do whatever he wants, she will spoil him.
B. I warned her that if she let her son do whatever he wanted, she would spoil him.
C. I warned her that if she let her son do whatever she wanted, she would spoil him.
D. I told her if her son did whatever she wanted, she would spoil him.
Question 50: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed.
A. Fried tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. Fried tried hard to start the car, and with success.
C. However hard he tried, Fried couldn’t start the car.
D. It’s hard for Fried to start the car because he never succeeded.
------------------HẾT---------------------
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. supportive B. substantial C. compulsory D. curriculum
Question 2: A. campaigns B. wonders C. ecologists D. captions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. limit B. capture C. advance D. double
Question 4: A. respectable B. affectionate C. occasional D. kindergarten
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each the
Question 5: The death rate would decrease if hygienic conditions_______improved.
A. are B. have been C.were D. had been
Question 6: John: “The instructions were in French and I translated them into English for him.”
Anna: “You _______. He knows French.”
A. shouldn’t have translated B. can’t have translated
C. needn’t have translated D. wouldn’t have translated
Question 7: In 2006, the news agency Reuters withdrew from sale 920 pictures taken by a photographer
because two images taken in Lebanon were_______to have been digitally manipulated.
A. believed B. suggested C. announced D. recommended
Question 8: He walked from the court a free man, having been________of murder.
A. unconvinced B. discharged C. liberated D. acquitted
Question 9: Everyone laughed when he_________the teacher so well.
A. looked up B. took off C. sent off D. called up
Question 10: How did the framers put into_________the idea of popular sovereignty expressed in the
Declaration of Independence?
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination.
Question 11: You can’t wash this jacket in the washing machine- you need to get it_____.
A. dry-cleaning B. spin-dried C. spring-cleaned D. clean dried
Question 12: Candidates should never be late for the interview,_______.
A. should they B. shouldn’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
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Question 13: Ho Chi Minh City authorities opened its Lunar New Year (Tet) 2018 Flower Street on
Nguyen Hue Pedestrian Street on the evening of February 13 and people feel like their time here.
A. enjoy B. to enjoy C. enjoying D. enjoyed
Question 14: Politicians_________blame the media if they don’t win the election. They are so
predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
Question 15: The new political party came to the________after the general election.
A. fore B.back C. side D. front
Question 16:_________, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far B. As far as is known C. It is known as far D. Known as far as it is
Question 17: A high school teacher is talking to her colleague.
Teacher: “I’ve been working at this school for 35 years.”
Colleague: “_________”
A. Why did you leave? B. Are you going to retire soon?
C. Why had you left? D. Will you retire?
Question 18: Two university students Lando and Larry are talking while doing their practice test.
Lando: “__________?”
Larry: “Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t.”
A. Would you bother if I had a look at your paper C. Can I help you
B. Would you mind giving me a hand D. May 1 go out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Endangered species
There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species. Aesthetic
justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because many of the endangered
plants and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique physical beauty. The aesthetic role of
nature in all its diverse forms is reflected in the art and literature of every culture attaining symbolic status
in the spiritual life of many groups. According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need
nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world.
Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and
pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self-interest. By preserving all species, we retain a balance of
nature that is ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research on global ecosystems has been cited as
evidence that every species contributes important or even essential functions that may be necessary to the
survival of our own species. Some advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical
compounds derived from rare plants may contain the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently
threatening human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they cannot protect us.
Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the proponents of a
moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a viewpoint stated in the United Nations
World Charter for Nature, created in 1982. Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all
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the creatures on Earth, then it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the
continued existence of all species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called "deep
ecology," the members of which rank the biosphere higher than people because the continuation of life
depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument to its logical conclusion, all choices must be
made for the biosphere, not for people.
Question 19: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The beauty of the world B. The quality of life
C. The preservation of species D. The balance of nature
Question 20: Which of the arguments supports animal rights?
A. Aesthetic justification B. Ecological argument
C. Self-interest argument D. Moral justification
Question 21: The word “perspective” in the 3rd paragraph could best be replaced by
A. idea B. event C. truth D. view
Question 22: The word “them” in the 3rd paragraph refers to________.
A. humankind B. stewards C. creatures D. human beings
Question23: Where in the passage does the author explain how rare species contribute to the health of the
human species?
A. line 1-3 B. line 5-6 C. line 11-13 D. line 18-20
Question 24: According to the passage, what do we know from research on global ecosystems?
A. Nature is very diverse. B. A balance of nature is important.
C. Humans have a responsibility to nature. D. Nature represents spiritual values
Question 25: The author mentioned all of the following as justifications for the protection of endangered
species EXCEPT_______.
A. the natural compounds needed for medicines B. the intrinsic value of the beauty of nature
C. the control of pollution in the biosphere D. the right to life implied by their existence
Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that the author_________.
A. is a member of the "deep ecology" movement
B. does not agree with ecological self-interest
C. supports all of the arguments to protect species
D. participated in drafting the Charter for Nature
Why read books?
Is it worth reading books, (27)________nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment?
Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a
library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their
favourite (28)_______. All that may be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the reader
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to use his or her imagination for a start. You can read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then
stop. Of course, it may be so (29)_________that you can't stop! There are many different kinds of books,
so you can choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (30)______gives you interesting
information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas. Personally, I
can’t do without books, but I can (31)________up television easily enough. You can't watch television at
bus stops!
Question 27: A. in B. or C. why D. since
Question 28: A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 29: A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 30: A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 31: A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 32: To avoid confusion, the two twins never wear the same clothes.
A B C D
Question 33: If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy, it is advisable
A
that they carry some kind of identification in order to avoid being given improper medication in an
B C D
emergency.
Question 34: To remove strains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold water
A B
before washing with a regular detergent.
C D
Question 35: In order to pass all exams with flying colours, you should concentrate on your study as
well as take some useful tips to reduce stress and anxiety.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay no attention to D. express interest to
Question 36: He was found guilty of bribery. Now his reputation is under a cloud.
A. a glow of pride B. a shame C. out of reach D. open to doubt
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D onyour answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 37: Polio is one of the top ten incurable diseases that modem medicine has failed to eradicate.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. iưeparable
Question 38: Jane and Fed are both in their forties so they’re going into marriage with their eyes wide
open.
A. wide awake B. with great surprise
C. fully aware of what they are doing D. with people’s admiration
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The Art World
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In effect, a
market must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and numbering individual
prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the nineteenth-century artist best known for the
painting of his mother, called "Arrangement in Grey and Black", but known to most of US as "Whistler's
Mother". Whistler's brother-in-law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated
that collectors might find prints more attractive if they knew that there were only a limited number of
copies produced. By signing the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print.
As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, thefr work
began to increase in value. When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded higher prices,
they began copying the procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the placement
of the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within image, in any of the
margins, or even on the reverse side of the 'print. Wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still
valued above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 39: Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistler's Mother. B. Whistler's Greatest Works,
C. The Practice of Signing Prints. D. Copying Limited Edition Prints.
Question 40: What made Whistler's work more valuable?
A. His fame as an artist. B. His painting of his mother,
C. His signature on the prints. D, His brother-in-law's prints.
Question 41: The word “speculated” in the paragraph I could best be replaced by.
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. the same edition B. the image
C. the reverse side D. a print
Question 43: What was true about the painting of Whistler's mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden.
B. Its title was "Arrangement in Grey and Black".
C. It was not one of Whistler's best paintings.
D. It was a completely new method of painting.
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefers a signed print
EXCEPT_________.
A. it guarantees the print's authenticity B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints_____.
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A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on each of the prints
Mark the letter Á, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 46: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
D. The lecturer's book which Ĩ had not read was difficult to understand.
Question 47: When I had finished the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
A. Finishing the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
B. Having finished the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
C. Going out for a cup of coffee, I finished my report.
D. To finish the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 48: People believe that the weather is changing dramatically.
A. The weather is believed to be changing dramatically.
B. The weather is believed to have changed dramatically.
C. The weather is believed to change dramatically.
D. The weather is believed to have been changing dramatically.
Question 49: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s hair cut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut.
Question 50: The plane had taken off. Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the plane took off.
B. It was not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
C. Not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
D. No sooner had the plane taken off than Paul had realized he was on the wrong flight.
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Mark the letter A, 8. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the wordfs) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined wordfs) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Experts say that another outbreak of flu epidemic is on the cards.
A. likeiy to happen B. unlikely to occur C. to be prevented D. on the increase
Question 2: We have known each other long enough that I will forgive you this discourtesy.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 3: Ms. Black and Ms. White are talking about Mr. Brown’s upcoming retirement.
Ms. Black: Mr. Brown is going to retire next month.”
Ms, White: “__________”
A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don't say!
C. Right, you'd probably be the next. D. Congratulations!
Question 4: Mandy has got a bad news. She is talking to Mano about it.
Mandy: “___________”
Mano: "Never mind, better luck next time."
A. I've broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn t keep my mind on work. D. I didn't get the vacant position.
Question 5: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two
hundred people_________away.
A. would turn B. would have turned
C. would have to be turned D. had been turned
Question 6: Students should never___________to violence to solve any problems.
A. exert B. resolve C. resort D. recourse
Question 7: The novelty of married life seems to______if the couple involved don't have ways to renew
their love.
A. turn out B. do without C.fade in D. wear off
Question 8: Tom was serious when he said he wanted to be an actor when he grew up. We_____at him.
We hurt his feelings.
A. needn’t have laughed B. couldn’t have laughed
C. shouldn’t have laughed D. mustn’t have laughed
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Question 9: It never______my head that such great Bulgarian rose festivals would be held in Hanoi, our
capital city.
A. struck B. dawned C. occurred D. entered
Question 10: Only one of the people_______was qualified for the job.
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. who interviewing
Question 11: After one hour’s performance of many famous singers heating up My Dinh Stadium,
out_____.
A. Park Hang-seo and his disciples came B. did Park Hang-seo and his disciples come
C. came Park Hang-seo and his disciples D. be Park Hang-seo and his disciples coming
Question 12: With all due respect, I think your comments are_________.
A. short-sighted B. far-sighted C. single-minded D. single -handed
Question 13: It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by______ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Question 14: Internet Service is the latest mode of______which helps US get required information
directly through computers by opening the site.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
Question 15: Despite all the evidence, he wouldn’t admit that he was in the _______.
A. fault B. error C. wrong D. slip
Question 16: I don’t suppose there is anything wrong with this sentence, ______?
A. is there B. isn't there C. do I D. don't I
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new restaurant
A B
going for several months with limited revenue.
C D
Question 18: I think we have sufficient enough information to write the report.
A B C D
Question 19: Energy research, medicinal, tourism, and copper are important to the economy of Butte,
A B C D
Montana.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 20: A. supports B. computers C. machines D. armchairs
Question 21: A. famous B. nervous C. loud D. serious
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
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Question 22: A. entrance B. handle C. demand D. measure
Question 23: A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, c or D your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24: The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake, measured 9.1 on the Richter scale, occurring on 26
December wiped out a large number of residential coastal areas.
A. eradicated B. paid off C. bumped off D. gave up
Question 25: The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to determine
the psychological effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. extensive C. prevalent D. tentative
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything else
that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with
intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for
example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television shows, software, paintings, photographs,
music, choreography in dance and all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes
the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as
a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that
went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs
to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire
book or a part of it, permission must be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to
be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played
by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee,
called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand,
names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted property until they are
published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work created before the 20th century
is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the
work of another person means passing it off as one’s own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin
plagiarus, which means “abductor”. Piracy may be an act of one person, but, in many cases, it is a joint
effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted material and sell it for profit without paying royalties
to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy and anyone can duplicate a motion
picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically
anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as
copying a book. Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and
brand names, protected by a trademark.
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A. Legal rights of property owners. B. Legal ownership of creative work.
C. Examples of copyright piracy. D. Copying creating work for profit.
Question 27: The word “principle” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable force
Question 28: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if_______.
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 30: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 31: The phrase “infringing upon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. impinging upon B. inducting for C. violating D. abhorring
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to_______.
A. ideas B. names C. titles D. performances
Question 33: According to the passage, copyright law is________.
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored
C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly
cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group
organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains
nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There
is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for
cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary cooperation
is characteristic of many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their
lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the
welfare of the group is not the first consideration, Members perform tasks so that they can separately
enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and
professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.
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In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared
work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and
fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the
common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at
all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this
relationship.
Question 34: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often.
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation.
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict.
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes.
Question 35: The word “cherished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 36: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information
in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate.
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
Question 37: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation.
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds.
C. To get rewards for themselves.
D. To defeat a common enemy.
Question 38: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the
fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 40: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. involuntary B. poorly planned C. inefficient D. easily broken
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Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for
years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with
the completion of the largest ever study of the so- called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that
this is a recognizable and genuine sixth sense. The study involved hundreds of children. For the
experiments, they sat with their eyes (41)__________so they could not see, and with their backs to other
children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that
the children who could not see were able to tell when they were being stared at. In a total of more than 18,
000 trials (42)_______worldwide, the children correctly sensed when they were being watched almost
70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the children who
were being watched outside the room, (43)_______from the starters by the windows. This was done just
in case there was some pretending going on with the children telling each other whether they were
looking or not. This prevented the possibility of sounds being transmitted between the children. The
results, (44)________less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr. Sheldrake, the biologist
(45)________designed the study, believes that the results are convincing enough to find out through
further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually came about.
Question 41: A. shaded B. covered C. masked D. wrapped
Question 42: A. worked over B. carried out C. carried on D. worked through
Question 43: A. parted B. separated C. split D. divided
Question 44: A. though B. however C. even D. quite
Question 45: A. which B. whose C. who D. whom
Question 46: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 47: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January.
Question 48: He might have forgotten the place you’d arranged to meet at.
A. Perhaps he didn’t remember where you were going to meet.
B. You planned to meet him at a place that he’d forgotten about.
C. He didn’t remember meeting you at that time.
D. He couldn’t remember where the meeting place was.
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Question 49: They recommend that the hotel should be redecorated.
A. The hotel should be recommended to be redecorated.
B. The hotel is recommended to be redecorated.
C. The hotel is recommended to have redecorated.
D. The hotel was recommended to be redecorated.
Question 50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made teưible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D onyour answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lecture B. inspire C. figure D. wonder
Question 2: A. triangular B. variety C. simplicity D. interviewer
Question 3: A. infamous B. fame C. stranger D. danger
Question 4: A. melancholy B. chase C. charity D. charge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
Question 5: The little girl started crying. She___________her doll, and no one was able to find it for her.
A. has lost B. had lost C. was losing D. was lost
Question 6: They live in a very __________populated area of Italy.
A. sparsely B. scarcely C. hardly B. barely
Question 7: Lora is talking to Paula about her dancing competition.
Lora: “_________”
Paula: “Never mind, better luck next time”.
A. I have a lot on my mind. B. I didn’t get any prize.
C. I’ve broken your record. D. I couldn’t keep my cup.
Question 8: He promised to telephone______________I have never heard from him again.
A. but B. except C. although D. because
Question 9: What should you consider before________for an exercise class?
A. sign up B. to sign up C. signing up D. will sign up
Question 10: Be careful! Don’t___________your drink on the table.
A. spill B. spread C. flood D. flow
Question 11: ____________of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account
Question 12: Anne is talking to John when he visits her home.
Anne: “Make yourself at home.”
John: “___________”
A. Yes, can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
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C. Thanks! The same to you. D. That’s very kind. Thank you.
Question 13: Her little grandson has been a source of great__________to her.
A. enjoyable B. enjoyed C. enjoying D. enjoyment
Question 14: I’m afraid that we don’t have any________ size in stock, madam.
A. higher B. large C. greater D. taller
Question 15: You should go to your dentist for regular .
A. check-ins B. check-outs C. check-ups D. check-up
Question 16: No amount of money can buy true friendship, ?
A. can’t it B. can it C. does it D. doesn’t it
Question 17: _______any free time, I would attend some spring festivals organized in our neighborhood.
A. Were I to have B. Should I have C. If I have D. Were I have
Question 18: You will have to__________your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside
Mark the letter A, B, C or D oil your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 19: As you can see, my father does a lot of gardening and those rose bushes are the apples of
his eye. He's so proud of them.
A. the things that he likes very much B. the apples that he prefers
C. the things that is very important to him D. the things that he dislikes
Question 20: Laura loves to talk to anyone. Sometimes her chatter really gets on my nerves.
A. annoys me B. disturbs me C. pleases me D. encourages me
Question 21: The museum was overrun with tourists, so we decided to go back another day.
A. crowded with tourists B. having no tourists
C. having tourists running D. not having enough tourists
Question 22: The victim of the racial discrimination settled for the apology from the company.
A. made B. accepted C. offered D. issued
Criticism
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One
thing you have to be (23)__________of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of
people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your mind to achieve a
certain goal such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching
your purpose and let constructive criticism have a positive (24)_______on your work. If someone says
you’re totally lacking talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, however, someone advises you to
revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (25)_________their suggestions
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carefully. There are many film stars (26)___________were once out of job. There are many famous
novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching
hundreds of publishers before they could get It published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a
certain extent. But things are more likely to turn (27)______well if you persevere and stay positive.
Question 23: A. knowledgeable B. clever C. worried D. aware
Question 24: A. affect B. effect C. result D. change
Question 25: A. cautious B. consider C. reckon D. remember
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. when D. that
Question 27: A. away B. on C. out D. off
correct answer to each of the questions. .
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location
of the restaurant, eg., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, eg., informal or formal; and certain standards
that are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other
standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a
particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and
experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to
do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to
tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would
demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is
unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw
from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them,
some rules apply to all restaurants.
Question 28: With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Rules of etiquette. B. Instruction in proper etiquette.
C. The importance of good manners. D. Variable and universal standards of etiquette.
Question 29: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. Tucking a napkin in your shirt. B. Not throwing food on the floor.
C. Reading a magazine while eating. D. Eating in rustic settings.
Question 30: What does the word “it” in line 5 refer to?
A. learning the proper etiquette B. clear instruction
C. knowing the type of restaurant D. sensitivity
Question 31: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic” in line 7?
A. agricultural B. ancient C. unsophisticated D. urban
Question 32: The word “manners” in line 9 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. experience B. character C. ceremony D. tact
Question 33: The author uses the word “draw” in line 10 to mean _________.
A. pick out B. drag away C. evoke D. infer
Question 34: What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
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A. To assist people in learning sophisticated manners
B. To describe variations in restaurant manners
C. To simplify rules of restaurant etiquette
D. To compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North American natural wonders, has long been a popular
tourist destination. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173-
foot- high Horseshoe Falls on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian province of Ontario
and the 182-foot-high American Falls on the U.S. side of the river in the state of New York.
Approximately 85 percent of the water that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with
the rest going over American Falls.
Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite a popular activity to take a steamer
out onto the river and right up to the base of the falls for a close-up view. It is also possible to get a
spectacular view of the falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect Point
of Table Rock, or from one of the four observation towers which have heights up to 500 feet.
Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numbers since the 1800's; annual visitation now
averages above 10 million visitors per year. Because of concern that all these tourists would inadvertently
destroy the natural beauty of this scenic wonder, the State of New Y ork in 1885 created Niagara Falls
Park in order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A year later Canada created Queen Victoria
Park on the Canadian side of the Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area surrounding the falls
under the jurisdiction of government agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to preserve the pristine
beauty of the area.
Question 35: What is the major point that the author is making in this passage?
A. Niagara Falls can be viewed from either the American side or the Canadian side.
B. A trip to the United States isn’t complete without a visit to Niagara Falls.
C. Niagara Falls has had an interesting history.
D. It has been necessary to protect Niagara Falls from the many tourists who go there.
Question 36: The word “flock” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by_________.
A. come by plane
B. come in large number
C. come out of boredom
D. come without knowing what they will see
Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following best describes Niagara Falls?
A. Niagara Falls consists of two rivers, one Canadian and the other American.
B. American Falls is considerably higher than Horseshoe Falls.
C. The Niagara River has two falls, one in Canada and one in The United States.
D. Although the Niagara River flows through the United States and Canada, the falls are only in the
United States.
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Question 38: A “steamer” in paragraph 2 is probably________.
A. a bus B. a boat C. a walkway D. a park
Question 39: The expression “right up” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.
A. turn to the right B. follow correct procedures
C. travel upstream D. all the way up
Question 40: The passage implies that tourists prefer to_______.
A. visit Niagara Falls during warmer weather
B. see the falls from a great distance
C. take a ride over the falls
D. come to Niagara Falls for a winter vacation.
Question 41: According to the passage, why was Niagara Falls created?
A. To encourage tourists to visit Niagara Falls
B. To show off the natural beauty of Niagara Falls
C. To protect the area around Niagara Falls
D. To force Canada to open Queen Victoria Park
Question 42: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses_______.
A. additional ways to observe the falls
B. steps taken by government agencies to protect the falls
C. a detailed description of the division of the falls between the United States and Canada
D. further problems that are destroying the area around the falls
Question 43: The tongue is the principle organ of taste, and is crucial for chewing, swallowed, and
A B C D
speaking.
Question 44: The man, together with his family, were invited to the Clambake last night.
A B C D
Question 45: Hardly he had graduated from Vietnam Naval Academy when he joined Vietnam Coast
A B C D
Guard.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 46: The woman wanted to have more time for her new-born grand-daughter. She left her job as
an accountant.
A. The woman wanted to have more time for her new-born grand-daughter because she left her job as
an accountant.
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B. The woman left her job as an accountant in order to have more time for her new-born grand-
daughter.
C. The woman had more time for her new-born grand-daughter, even though she left her job as an
accountant.
D. Having left her job as an accountant, her new-born grand-daughter could have more time.
Question 47: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Question 48: The students complained that the teacher was inexperienced.
A. The students praised the teacher for his experience.
B. The teacher was favored because of his inexperience.
C. The teacher was not supported for his inexperience.
D. The teacher was popular despite his inexperience.
Question 49: Right after the police had arrived at the scene, the situation was settled.
A. The police did not arrive at the scene until the situation had been settled.
B. If the police had arrived at the scene, the situation would have been settled.
C. The police had no sooner arrived at the scene than the situation was settled.
D. The situation had been settled just before the police arrived at the scene.
Question 50: “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!”
the woman told her son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on
the table.
C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the
table. D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw
the keys on the table.
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Question 1: A. solutions B. hospitals C. families D. projects
Question 2: A. accountant B. amount C. founding D. country
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
Question 3: A. environment B. philosophy C. medicine D. attenuate
Question 4: A. technology B. audience C. territory D. commerce
Question 5: _________ in all parts of the state, pines are the most common trees in Georgia.
A. Found B. Finding C. To find D. Are found
Question 6: Local authorities have to learn to allocate resources .
A. efficient B. efficiency C. inefficient D. efficiently
Question 7: Shall we get ___________? It’s getting late
A. go B. to go C. going D. gone
Question 8: Thorny enters the meeting room and sees a lot of men. He is asking one of the men near the
door. Thorny: “Excuse me. I don’t want to interrupt you but...”
The man: “___________”
A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly. How dare you!
C. I quite agree D. I have no idea
Question 9: John __________ to walk home if Sara hadn’t given him a lift.
A. would have B. had C. would have had D. had had
Question 10: I’d rather you a noise last night; I couldn’t get to sleep.
A. hadn’t made B. wouldn’t take C. didn’t take D. haven’t made.
Question 11: Don’t be ____________ by these slick - talking salesmen.
A. put aside B. put up C. taken in D. taken away.
Question 12: The ___________ of the family home following the divorce was a great shock to the
children.
A. break - down B. break - in C. break - up D. break - out
Question 13: Only 300 for that laptop? That’s a real ________!
A. bargain B. contract C. sale D. donation
Question 14: It ___________ last night because the ground is really wet.
A. might have rained B. can have rained C. should have rained D. must have rained
Question 15: Floods have completely the farmer’s crops.
A. ruined B. damaged C. injured D. harmed
Question 16: All his hard work ____________ in great success.
A. accounted B. culminated C. merged D. succumbed
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Question 17: “ ___________ accordance _________ the wishes ___________ my people” the president
said, “I am retiring __________ public life.”
A. In, with, of, from B. On, to, for, in C. In, of, from, at D. To, in, of, for.
Question 18: Olga and her mother are standing on the balcony on a wet day.
Mother: “Oh, how I hate this weather!”
Olga: “ __________ ”
A. I agree B. I do too C. So am I D. I think so
Very few people in the modem world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest
known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed,
the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were
introduced about 10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers
have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic
wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life.
Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and
waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has
provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences
have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help US understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modem hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns
of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 19: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means _________ .
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
B. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 20: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ________.
A. hunter-gatherers’ tools B. nature’s provision
C. farming methods D. agricultural products
Question 21: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers __________ .
A. can free themselves from hunting B. have better food gathering from nature
C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops
Question 22: A typical feature of both modem and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that .
A. they live in the forests for all their life B. they don’t have a healthy and balanced diet
C. they don’t have a strong sense of community D. they often change their living places
Question 23: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
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B. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
D. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
Question 24: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share .
A. some methods of production B. some patterns of behavior
C. some restricted daily mles D. only the way of duty division
Question 25: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies B. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods
C. Brief History of Subsistence Farming D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
When I was at school, sports day was the highlight of the year. Let me set the scene. First of all, on
sports day, it was always bound (26) ___________ rain. Sunny weather? No such luck. Despite the
previous two months of soaring temperatures, as likely as not, on the morning of the games, The
temperature would plummet. So, imagine a hundred (27) ___________ small children, dressed in tight
shorts and thin vests, shivering in the cold, unaware of the heartbreak that lies in store for them. Swept up
by the excitement and desperate to win, tempers soon get frayed. One girl finds herself disqualified from
the egg and spoon race despite giving it everything she’s got, and another boy, (28)_____ jealous of the
winner of the sack race, makes the mistake of being rude to him within earshot of the teachers. Scores of
tiny children, bitterly disappointed at tasting defeat for the first time, break down and cry. Twenty years
on, I’m certainly not (29) ___________ any young, but I do have some really lasting (30) _______ of
those days at school!
Question 26: A. for B. to C. by D. of
Question 27: A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthuse D. emthusiasm
Question 28: A. fiercely B. warmly C. keenly D. strongly
Question 29: A. putting B. getting C. going D. coming
Question 30: A. remembrances B. mementoes C. memories D. souvenirs
Question 31: It is essential that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a
A B C D
successful cure.
Question 32: One of the features of London is the number of big stores, most of them are to be found in
A B C D
or near the West End.
Question 33: The painting was so beautiful that I stood there admired it for a long time.
A B C D
Most journeys in Britain and the US are made by road. Some of these are made on public transport but
most are by private car.
In Britain many people rely on their cars for daily local activities, e.g. getting to work, doing the
shopping, and visiting friends. People living in urban areas may use buses, trains or, in London, the
Underground, to get to city centres, mainly because traffic is often heavy and it is difficult to find
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anywhere to park a car. Some places in the country may have a bus only two or three times a week so
people living there have no choice but to rely on their cars.
In the US, large cities have good public transportation systems. The El railroad in Chicago and the
underground systems of New York, Boston, San Francisco and Washington, DC are heavily used.
Elsewhere, most Americans prefer to use their cars. Families often have two cars and, outside major
cities, have to drive fairly long distances to schools, offices, shops, banks, etc. Many college and even
high-school students have their own cars.
Long-distance travel in Britain is also mainly by road, though railways link most towns and cities. Most
places are linked by motorways or other fast roads and many people prefer to drive at their own
convenience rather than use a train, even though they may get stuck in a traffic jam. Long-distance
coach/bus services are usually a cheaper alternative to trains, but they take longer and may be less
comfortable. Some long-distance travel, especially that undertaken for business reasons, may be by air.
There are regular flights between regional airports, as well as to and from London. A lot of freight is also
distributed by road, though heavier items and raw materials often go by rail.
In the US much long-distance travel is by air. America has two main long-distance bus companies,
Greyhound and Trailways. Amtrak, the national network, provides rail services for passengers. Private
railway companies such as Union Pacific now carry only freight, though in fact over 70% of freight goes
by road.
The main problems associated with road transport in both Britain and the US are traffic congestion and
pollution. It is predicted that the number of cars on British roads will increase by a third within a few
years, making both these problems worse. The British government would like more people to use public
transport, but so far they have had little success in persuading people to give up their cars or to share rides
with neighbours. Most people say that public transport is simply not good enough. Americans too have
resisted government requests to share cars because it is less convenient and restricts their freedom.
Petrol/gasoline is relatively cheap in the US and outside the major cities public transport is bad, so they
see no reason to use their cars less.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)
Question 34: In Britain and the US most people travel by ___________.
A. sea B. rail C. road D. air
Question 35: According to the passage, people in London may prefer the Underground to their own cars
due to ____________.
A. cheap tickets B. air pollution C. long distances D. heavy traffic
Question 36: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that the public transportation systems in the US are good in
________.
A. some states B. all cities C. large states D. large cities
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Few college students in the US have their own cars.
B. Families in the US often have more than one car.
C. Most Americans prefer to drive their cars outside large cities.
D. The underground systems are popular in some major US cities.
Question 38: The phrase “at their own convenience” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. at the latest time and nearest place B. at an appropriate time and place
C. at an early time and nearby place D. at the fastest time and nearest place
Question 39: According to the information in paragraph 3, long-distance travellers in the US can choose
from ___________ mode(s) of transport.
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A. one B. two C. three D. four
Question 40: It is stated in the passage that the major problems of road transport in Britain and the US
are __________.
A. speeding and bad roads B. accidents and pollution
C. traffic jams and pollution D. drink-driving and traffic jams
Question 41: The word “they” in the last sentence of the passage can best be replaced by .
A. the government B. major cities C. Americans D. neighbours
Question 42: The exercise was a piece of cake; I can do it with my eyes closed.
A. challenging B. easy C. boring D. understandable
Question 43: Research has shown that sending young offenders to prison can be counterproductive.
A. achieving good results B. achieving bad results
C. achieving unfortunate results D. achieving indirect result
Question 44: Nobody owned up to breaking the window.
A. objected to B. decided on C. confessed to D. allowed for
Question 45: I don’t really go in for winter sports very much.
A. am not good at B. do not hate C. do not practice D. am not keen on
Mark the letter A, By Cy or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
Question 46: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about our sleep.
A. We shall know more about our sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. We know relatively little about our sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about our sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about our sleep.
Question 47: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented.
A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
C. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
D. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 48: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.
A. The university lets Peter major in electronics.
B. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.
C. Peter majors in electronics at university.
D. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes.
Question 49: People say that the tulip originated from Constantinople.
A. The tulip is said to originate from Constantinople.
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B. The tulip was said to have originated from Constantinople.
C. The tulip is said to have originated from Constantinople.
D. The tulip was said to originate from Constantinople.
Question 50: “How brave you are!” he said to the firemen.
A. He asked how brave the firemen were.
B. He blamed the firemen for their discouragement.
C. He criticized the firemen for their discouragement.
D. He praised the firemen for their courage.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of others in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. subsidy B. substantial C. undergraduate D. drugstore
Question 2: A. preface B. gazelle C. surface D. flamingo
Question 3: A. interestingly B. surprisingly C. provincially D. annoyingly
Question 4: A. mislead B. cover C. correct D. involve
Question 5: Jane is very ___________ about her career.
A. single-handed B. single-minded C. fresh-face D. bare-faced
Question 6: Light _________ are small planes with seats for no more than about six passengers.
airplane B. airship C. aircraft D. aircrafts
Question 7: A: How much is this car?
B: 15,000 dollars. My uncle paid for it by __________.
A. cash B. credit C. installments D. hire purchase
Question 8: She’s certainly a _________ writer, she has written quite a few bools this year.
A. fruitful B. prolific C. fertile D. successful
Question 9: Husha and Honish are talking about Trishie after watching her music performance.
Husha: “Trishie’s the best singer in our school.”
Honish: “ ___________ ”
A. Yes, please. B. I couldn’t agree with you more.
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, tell me about it.
Question 10: They were accused of treating the country’s flag with .
A. respect B. irrespect C. disrespect D. non-respect
Question 11: What measures have been to control traffic jam at rush hours?
A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried
Question 12: A teacher is talking to the principal about their school plan.
The teacher: “Why are the renovations being delayed?”
The principal: “ ________.”
A. Yes, but it should be changed B. We must get a permit first
C. It was delayed over two hours D. The building really needs renovating
Question 13: “I can’t remember us ever ___________,” replied the stranger.
A. being met B. to have met C. having met D. cooks
Question 14: If Mr. David _________ at the meeting, he would make a speech.
A. were B. had been C. was D. has been
Question 15: ____________ the food before, Tom didn’t want to eat it again.
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A. Having eaten B. To eat C. Eaten D. Eating
Question 16: Leave it in the oven until it __________ brown.
A. turns B. colours C. changes D. cooks
Question 17: ___________ ? Your eyes are red.
A. Did you cry B. Have you been cried
C. Were you crying D. Have you been crying
Question 18: After seeing the film Memoir of a Geisha,__________.
A. Have you been cried B. the book made many people want to read it
C. many people wanted to read the book D. the reading of the book interested people
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of
work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano
practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or
have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.
Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30,1 went to a college and did courses in
History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to
be late - I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round.
Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t
frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had
passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely
personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy
is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were
young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another.
What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated.
Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again,
eventually you’ll get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas - from being able to drive a
car, perhaps - means that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy
your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who
could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could
never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d played for my
school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those years
before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could
understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 19: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ___________.
A. young learners are usually lazy in their class
B. teachers should give young learners less homework
C. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
D. parents should encourage young learners to study more
Question 20: The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, __________.
A. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
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B. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
C. they tend to leam less as they are discouraged
D. they get more impatient with their teachers
Question 21: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised _________ .
A. to have more time to leam B. to be able to leam more quickly
C. to feel learning more enjoyable D. to get on better with the tutor
Question 22: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ____________.
A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
B. impatient because of having nothing to do
C. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
D. staying alive and becoming more active
Question 23: The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “____________”.
A. have the things you have long desired
B. achieve your aim with hard work
C. arrive at an intended place with difficulty
D. receive a school or college degree
Question 24: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT
A. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
B. young people usually feel less patient than adults
C. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
D. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
Question 25: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process
because adult learners ____________.
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. have become more patient than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners
D. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
Question 26: It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you __________.
A. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B. find that you can recall a lot of things you leamt when younger
C. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
D. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
Working mothers
Because an increasing number of people are opting to work outside the traditional office, notebook PCs
are becoming more and more popular. However, you should know that notebook PCs aren't for everyone.
As you (27) ___________ up the pros and cons of your desktop PC with a new system, you should bear
(28) ____________ mind that you may get better profit for your money by investing in a faster, more
powerful desktop PC.
Portability comes at a price. Leave your laptop unattended for any length of time in any sort of public
place and you will quickly discover that it has been stolen. You could even lose it without any intentional
neglect on your area; laptops (and all the business and personal information they contain) are easy (29)
_____________ for skilled thieves. So, yes, there are definitely serious security issues. Also, if you are
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prone to tossing your laptop around as you do your purse, workout bag or umbrella, you’ll probably break
it before you get your money's worth. Guarantees are getting better and longer, but they still won’t cover
a simple slip, let alone (30) _____________ carelessness. So, before you (31) _________ out to get
yourself the latest technological appliance, think long and hard as to whether a notebook PC is really
suitable for you.
Question 27: A. measure B. weigh C. even D. count
Question 28: A. on B. in C. over D. of
Question 29: A. aims B. objects C. targets D. goals
Question 30: A. usual B. normal C. regular D. habitual
Question 31: A. rush B. speed C. move D. walk
Question 32: If carefully doing, the experiment will be successful.
A B C D
Question 33: The new computer chip is the smallest one than has ever been developed.
A B C D
Question 34: Although this car appears to be manufactured by a different company, it has the same body
A B C
style, size, and perform as that one.
D
Scientists have developed a new bionic computer chip that can be mated with human cells to combat
disease. The tiny device, smaller and thinner than a strand of hair, combines a healthy human cell with an
electronic circuitry chip. Doctors can control the activity of the cell by controlling the chip with a
computer.
It has long been established that cell members become permeable when exposed to electrical impulses.
Researchers have conducted genetic research for years with a trial-and-error process of bombarding cells
with electricity in an attempt to introduce foreign substances such as new drug treatments or genetic
material. They were unable to apply a particular level of voltage for a particular purpose. With the new
invention, the computer sends electrical impulses to the chip, which triggers the physicians to open a
cell’s pores with control.
Researchers hope that eventually they will be able to develop more advanced chips whereby they can
choose a particular voltage to activate particular tissues, whether they be muscle, bone, brain, or others.
They believe that they will be able to implant multiple chips into a person to deal with one problem or
more than one problem.
Question 35: The word “strand” in the second sentence is closest in meaning to __________.
A. chip B. type C. color D. thread
Question 36: The author implies that scientists are excited about the new technology because _______.
A. it is possible to kill cancer with a single jolt.
B. It is less expensive than current techniques.
C. It allows them to be able to shock cells for the first time.
D. It is more precise than previous techniques.
Question 37: The word “eventually” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________ .
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A. in the future B. especially C. possibly D. finally
Question 38: The author implies that up to now, the point of applying electric impulse to cells was to
_______.
A. open their walls to introduce medication B. kill them
C. combine cells D. stop growth
Question 39: The author states that scientists previously were aware that ___________.
A. electric impulses could affect cells
B. electric charges could harm a person
C. cells interact with each other through electrical charges
D. they could control cells with a separate computer
Question 40: The word they in the first sentences of the third paragraph refers to _________.
A. chips B. tissues C. voltages D. researchers
Question 41: The author indicates that it is expected doctors will be able to __________.
A. place more than one chip in a single person
B. place one large chip in a person to control multiple problems
C. place a chip directly inside a cell
D. place a chip inside a strand of hair
Question 42: One of the fundamentals of education, mathematics is taught from the earliest grades in
school.
A. basics B. understandings C. needs D. points
Question 43: In 1969, the Beatles officially broke up after playing together as a band for more than a
decade.
A. separated B. united C. worked together D. cooperated
Question 44: One of our group’s main goals is to discourage the use of chemical fertilizers
A. prevent B. encourage C. avoiding D. expect
Question 45: Many people lost out when the new regulations were enforceD.
A. were at an advantage B. were at a disadvantage
C. lost their jobs D. became fainted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 46: You need not have washed the sheets. The hotel staff does the cleaning.
A. It is good that you washed the sheets.
B. It was not necessary to wash the sheets, even though you did.
C. It was necessary to wash the sheets, but you did not do it.
D. It was necessary to wash the sheets, and you did not do it.
Question 47: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
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C. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
D. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
Question 48: He was annoyed because his secretary came late to work.
A. His secretary came late to work made him annoyed.
B. His secretary’s coming late to work made him annoying.
C. He objected to his secretary’s coming late to work.
D. He objected to that his secretary came to work late.
Question 49: “I don’t think Janet will win this time”- said Tony.
A. Tony wondered if Janet would win this time.
B. Tony believed that Janet would win that time.
C. Tony doubted whether Janet would win that time.
D. Tony suggested that Janet should try to win that time.
Question 50: I have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends.
A. I support neither side in my close friends’ arguments.
B. I don’t encourage my close friends to argue.
C. If I support one side in arguments, the other will be upset.
D. I don’t support any of my close friends.
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Question 1: A. criteria B. mechanize C. industry D. elephant
Question 2: A. peninsula B. professional C. curriculum D. auditorium
Question 3: A. understated B. washed C. produced D. confessed
Question 4: A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: She was much less _____________ than her sister.
A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialized
Question 6: You will have to ________________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. back off D. put aside
Question 7: This cloth _____________ very thin.
A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles
Question 8: At 4 o’clock Mr. Hutchinson still had some ____________ to do in the garden.
A. works B. jobs C. effort D. task
Question 9: People demand higher wages because prices are ______________ all the time.
A. rising B. progressing C. growing D. exceeding
Question 10: Next week when there ____________ a full moon, the ocean tides will be higher.
A. will be B. will have been C. is being D. is
Question 11: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ___________.
A. more fifty dollars B. one other fifty dollars
C. the same amount also D. another fifty
Question 12: I didn’t know you were asleep. Otherwise, I ____________ so much noise when I came in.
A. didn’t make B. wouldn’t have made C. won’t make D. don’t make
Question 13: Rico is seeing his close friend - Rosa off at the railway station.
Rosa: “Ok. I must be going now. I’ll be in touch.”
Rico: “ ______________ ”
A. Right. See you. B. Ok. I’ll ring you.
C. I must be going, too. D. No, you can’t go now.
Question 14: The room looks very dark. You ____________ it blue
A. should have painted B. must have painted
C. need have painted D. would have painted
Question 15: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
Shop assistant: “_________ ?”
Customer: “Ok, thanks. I am just looking.”
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A. Can I help you? We’ve got some new shoes.
B. Which tie do you want, the blue one or the pink one?
C. Why don’t you like this type of T shirt?
D. Do you want to have a look?
Question 16: Would you mind _____ to make personal calls?
A. not using office phone B. not to use office phone
C. not use office phone D. don’t use office phone
Question 17: I __________ my Mum by cooking dinners for her.
A. cheered up B. looked up C. waited for D. felt like
Question 18: She has seldom received letters from her former students lately, ____________ ?
A. doesn’t she B. does she C. hasn’t she D. has she
correct answer to each of the questions from 19 to 25.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the US. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to
exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though
serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all.
Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and
exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in astrollers) to those in
their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks,
and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest footrace in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco
every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west
side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80.000 or more people running in this race through the streets and
hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as
little as 35 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the back of the
race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who
dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long
line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a
long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and
they were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 19: The main purpose of this passage is to ___________.
A. encourage people to exercise B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. give reasons for the popularity of foot races
Question 20: Which of following is NOT implied by author?
A. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
C. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
D. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
Question 21: The word “beat” as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incline B. overturn C. outdo D. undermine
Question 22: In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter footraces?
A. Line 1-2 B. Line 4-5 C. Line 8-11 D. Line 13-14
Question 23: The word “costumes” as used in paragraph 2 most likely refers to .
A. outfits B. uniforms C. cloaks D. suits
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Question 24: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley. B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding. D. Some runners were serious about winning.
Question 25: Which of following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. chronological order B. specific to general
C. cause and result D. statement and example
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
School lunch
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to school do not eat
(26) __________ in the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to (27) ________ meals at lunchtime.
Children can choose to bring their own food or have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking finding of the research is that school meals are much healthier than lunches prepared by
parents. There are strict (28) _____________ for the preparation of school meals, which have to include
one (29) ___________ of fruit and one of vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy food like
break or pasta. Lunchboxes examined by researchers contained sweet drinks, crisps and chocolate bars.
Children consume twice as much sugar as they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding (30) _____________ why the percentage of
overweight in Britain has increased in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government can’t criticize
parents, but it can remind them of the nutritional value of milk, fruit and vegetables. Small changes in
their children’s diet can affect their future health. Children can easily develop bad eating habits at this
age, and parents are the only ones who can prevent it.
Question 26: A. appropriately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
Question 27: A. give B. provide C. make D. do
Question 28: A. standards B. procedures C. conditions D. ways
Question 29: A. piece B. portion C. bowl D. kilo
Question 30: A. of B. about C. at D. on
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 31: I invited 20 people to my party, some of them are my former classmates.
A B C D
Question 32: They received such a good advice from their teachers that they all studied very well.
A B C D
Question 33: Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature: its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a
A B C D
profusion of vivid colors.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts
of resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a
certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how
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much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of
simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only
small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts
of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large
quantities of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale
irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high
densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1, 147
persons per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low -productivity manual
D. possibly D. do D. ways D. kilo D. on
farming, which contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller
countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as
well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and
therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of
less than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming;
these countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost
productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low
population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally mral
societies commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries
often provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep
their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high
rates of population growth.
(From "Poverty" by Thomas J. Corbett)
Question 34: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 35: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. Skilled labor C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 36: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ________.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 37: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because
_________.
A. there is lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 38: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ________ .
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 39: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________ .
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A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 41: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences. B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty,
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem. D. Poverty in Developing Countries.
Question 42: Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to take B. don’t want to take
C. are offered D. have the necessary skills for
Question 43: His physical conditions were no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impotence C. hindrance D. impossibility
Mark the letter A, B c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 44: I’d love to come, but I am snowed under at the moment.
A. am busy B. have free time C. have a bad cold D. am on the move
Question 45: Ill-gotten wealth is disgusting.
A. admiring B. distasteful C. worthless D. admirable
Mark the letter A, By c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 46: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
Question 47: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep US awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep US awake.
B. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep US awake.
D. The coffee was so hot that it didn’t keep US awake.
Question 48: Without your help, I couldn’t have succeeded.
A. You didn’t help me and I didn’t succeed.
B. I succeeded even you didn’t help me.
C. In spite of your help, I wasn’t successful.
D. I was successful due to your help.
Question 49: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
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B. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister.
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
D. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
Question 50: “I didn’t take your money” he said to her.
A. He doubted whether she had taken his money.
B. He denied taking her money.
C. He admitted taking her money.
D. He warned her to take his money.
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At 7pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across a vast car
park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is,
bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don't seem to
be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million
people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the
world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives
travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's undoubtedly
hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section
at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls' dressing room, but is more accurately
described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it.
Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey and
mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an unimpressive picture,
but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in
Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects;
former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the company and conducts a
vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to go through their routines
under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make sure they're all still getting to exactly the right
place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places,
and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge,' he continues, 'is
to produce something they can sell in a number of countries at the same time. My theory is that you take
those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You
try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it
every night.
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can't doubt his enthusiasm. “The only place you'll
see certain skating moves is an ice show,” he says, “because you're not allowed to do them in
competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to offer which the competitive world
just doesn't.” Cousin knows what he's talking about because he skated for the show himself when he
stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you can't put on an
Olympic performance every night. “I'd be thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your
stuff, and I suddenly thought”, "I really can't cope. I'm not enjoying it". The solution, he realised, was to
give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him
medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic
skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it's
impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
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Question 1: According to paragraph 1 the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday on Ice is
popular ____________.
A. people often prefer other types of show
B. most people consider it as a holiday
C. few people know someone who has seen it
D. people prefer to see a film, the ballet, or the circus
Question 2: Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area?
A. messy B. glamorous C. relaxing D. old
Question 3: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that __________.
A. the show has been staged in many places B. many companies are involved in the production
C. the show needs financial support D. it is difficult to find suitable equipment
Question 4: For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is ____________.
A. to adjust the spotlights B. to keep in time with the music
C. to be acquainted with the stage D. to position the skaters on the ice
Question 5: It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows ___________.
A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places B. is as competitive as other forms of skating
C. allows skaters to try out a range of ideas D. is particularly well paid
Question 6: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ____________.
A. some live performances B. some famous skaters
C. certain ice shows D. certain skating moves
Question 7: The phrase “the hard way” in paragraph 5 most likely means ___________.
A. by working very hard B. by having expectations of others
C. through doing things again and again D. through difficult personal experience
Question 8: Which of the following is the writer's conclusion of Holiday on Ice?
A. It is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice.
B. It is hard to know who really enjoys it.
C. It is difficult to dislike it.
D. It requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating.
Question 9: My mother _________ me against staying late night after night to prepare for exams.
A. warned B. recommended C. reprimanded D. encouraged
Question 10: Cannon is telling Callie a bad news.
Canono: “Mrs. Brown passed away yesterday”
Callie: “David has told me that. ___________ ”
A. God bless B. God save the Queen C. By God D. God rest her
Question 11: They _______ your money if you haven't kept your receipt.
A. won’t refund B. didn't refund C. no refund D. not refund
Question 12: That's a nice coat, and the colour ___________ you well.
A. suits B. couples C. matches D. fits
Question 13: Alice and Ann are preparing for their presentation at school.
Alice: “ _____________.”
Ann: “Take it easy! We still have 15 minutes.”
A. Try better. We are going to have an exam B. You can say that again
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C. Nothing more to say D. Hurry up! We don’t have much time left.
Question 14: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is ________ certain.
A. by all means B. by any chance C. at any rate D. by no means
Question 15: Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. pull through
Question 16: The hall was very crowded with over a hundred people __________ into it.
A. stuck B. packed C. pushed D. stuffed
Question 17: _________a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner.
A. Finding B. After finding C. Having found D. We found
Question 18: The move to a different environment brought about a significant _______ in my cousin’s
state of mind.
A. influence B. impact C. change D. effect
Question 19: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ___________.
A. occupation B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational
Question 20: You should ___________ at least three days for the journey.
A. expect B. permit C. accept D. allow
Question 21: I don’t object to people being vegetarians, but it gets on my nerves when they’re ________
about it.
A. self-centered B. self-righteous C. self-deprecating D. self-sufficient
Question 22: After ancient Greek athletes won a race in the Olympic, they __________ a simple crown
of olive leaves.
A. received B. had received C. were receiving D. have received
Question 23: Man is superior than the animals in that he uses language to communicate.
A B C D
Question 24: Abraham Lincoln's boyhood home resembled that of many other mid-western pioneers,
A B
with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace.
C D
Question 25: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating
A B C
equipment, and to sample population.
D
The human criterion for perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a Snellen eye chart
without a hitch. The score is determined by how well you read lines of letters of different sizes from 20
feet away. But being able to read the bottom line on the eye chart does not approximate perfection as far
as other species are concerned. Most birds would consider us very visually handicapped. The hawk, for
instance, has such sharp eyes that it can spot a dime on the sidewalk while perched on top of the Empire
State Building.
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It can make fine visual distinctions because it is blessed with one million cones per square millimeter in
its retina. And in water, humans are farsighted, while the kingfisher, swooping down to spear fish, can see
well in both the air and water because it is endowed with two foveae - areas of the eye, consisting mostly
of cones, that provide visual distinctions. One fovea permits the bird, while in the air, to scan the water
below with one eye at a time. This is called monocular vision. Once it hits the water, the other fovea joins
in, allowing the kingfisher to focus both eyes, like binoculars, on its prey at the same time.
A frog’s vision is distinguished by its ability to perceive things as a constant motion picture. Known as
“bug detectors”, a highly developed set of cells in a frog’s eyes responds mainly to moving objects. So, it
is said that a frog sitting in a field of dead bugs wouldn’t see them as food and would starve. The bee has
a “compound” eye, which is used for navigation. It has 15,000 facets that divide what it sees into a pattern
of dots, or mosaic. With this kind of vision, the bee sees the sun only as a single dot, a constant point of
reference. Thus, the eye is a superb navigational instrument that constantly measures the angle of its line
of flight in relation to the sun. A bee’s eye also gauges flight speed. And if that is not enough to leave our
20/20 “perfect vision” paling into insignificance, the bee is capable of seeing something we can’t -
ultraviolet light.
Thus, what humans consider to be “perfect vision” is in fact rather limited when we look at other
species. However, there is still much to be said for the human eye. Of all the mammals, only humans and
some primates can enjoy the pleasures of color vision.
A. Limits of the human eye B. Perfect vision
C. Different eyes for different uses D. Eye variation among different species
Question 27: The phrase “without a hitch” is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. unaided B. without glasses C. with little hesitation D. easily
Question 28: According to the passage, why might birds and animals consider humans very visually
handicapped?
A. Humans can’t see very well in either air or water.
B. Human eyes are not as well suited to our needs.
C. The main outstanding feature of human eyes is color vision.
D. Human eyes can’t do what their eyes can do.
Question 29: The word “that” in line 10 refers to ___________.
A. foveae B. areas of the eye C. cones D. visual distinctions
Question 30: According to the passage, “bug detectors” are useful for ___________.
A. navigation B. seeing moving objects
C. avoiding bugs when getting food D. avoiding starvation
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Kingfishers have monocular vision.
B. Bees see patterns of dots.
C. Hawks eyes consist mostly of cones that can allow it to scan with one eye at a time.
D. Humans are farsighted in water.
Question 32: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Eyes have developed differently in each species
B. Bees have the most complex eye
C. Humans should not envy what they don’t need
D. Perfect vision is not perfect
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Easter
Easter is a holiday in late March or early April, the first Sunday after the first full moon after 21 March.
Many people (33) __________ it with their family or have a short holiday/ vacation. It is also an
important Christian festival. Easter Sunday, the day of the Resurrection, is the end of Lent and the most
important date in the Christian year. Many people who do not go to church at other times go on Easter
Sunday. It was once (34) ______________ for people to wear new clothes to church on this day. Women
(35) ______________ new hats, called Easter bonnets. Today, people sometimes make elaborately
decorated Easter bonnets for fun. A few people send Easter (36) ___________ with religious symbols
on them or pictures of small chickens, lambs, rabbits and spring flowers, all traditionally associated with
Easter. The Friday before Easter Sunday is called Good Friday and is remembered as the day Christ was
crucified (= hanged on a cross to die). On Good Friday many people eat hot cross buns (= fruit buns
decorated with a simple cross). The Monday after Easter is called Easter Monday. In Britain, Good Friday
and Easter Monday are both bank holidays. In the US, each company decides for itself (37) _________ to
close or remain open on those days.
Question 33: A. spend B. use C. take D. expend
Question 34: A. familiar B. common C. regular D. ordinary
Question 35: A. take on B. bore C. put on D. wore
Question 36: A. notes B. cards C. letters D. envelopes
Question 37: A. if B. whether C. why D. how
Question 38: To preserve anonymity, the contributors' names were removed.
A. conserve B. cover C. presume D. reveal
Question 39: Keeping animals in these conditions is unbelievably cruel. The farmer ought to be
prosecuted.
A. clever B. reasonable C. gentle D. brutal
Question 40: One of the aims of most Lay Organizations is to disseminate knowledge about
Huntington's disease to local doctors, social workers and nursing homes.
A. dedicate B. compile C. condense D. disperse
Question 41: Cynthia was on edge all day about the important presentation she had to give to the local
citizens groups.
A. nervous and excited B. doing well C. satisfied D. working hard
Question 42: A. particular B. photocopy C. enthusaism D. economy
Question 43: A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
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Question 44: A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches
Question 45: A. tool B. spoon C. foot D. noon
Question 46: It’s cold outside and my leg hurts. I haven't been out for weeks.
A. I haven't been out for weeks, which makes the weather cold and my leg bad.
B. The weather is cold and my leg is bad as a result of my stay indoors for weeks.
C. What with the cold weather and my bad leg, I haven't been out for weeks.
D. What makes the weather cold and my leg bad is my stay indoors for weeks.
Question 47: Leaders are not allowed to attend festivals. Also, they are not allowed to use office cars,
except for performing assigned tasks.
A. Leaders are not allowed to attend festivals until they use office cars for performing assigned tasks.
B. Leaders are not allowed to both attend festivals and use office cars, except for performing assigned
tasks.
C. Leaders are allowed to either attend festivals or use office cars, except for performing assigned tasks.
D. Leaders are allowed to neither attend festivals nor use office cars, except for performing assigned
tasks.
Mark the letter Ay By Cy or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: We missed the turning because we forgot to take the map with US.
A. Without the right map with US, we missed the turning.
B. If we were taking the map with US, we did not miss the turning.
C. Without the map with US, we missed the turning.
D. Had we taken the map with US, we would not have missed the turning.
Question 49: They rumour that she will get married to a foreign man.
A. She is rumoured to get married to a foreign man.
B. She is rumoured to have got married to a foreign man.
C. It is rumoured that she would have got married to a foreign man.
D. It will be rumoured that she has got married to a foreign man.
Question 50: I’m sorry I interrupted your speech in the middle.
A. Your speech is very sorry for being interrupted in the middle.
B. I’m sorry to interrupt your speech in the middle.
C. It’s my pity to interrupt your speech in the middle.
D. I apologized for having interrupted your speech in the middle.
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Question 1: A: Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock?
B: Well, actually, I ______________ earlier
A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be C. am preferring D. should prefer it will
Question 2: This statue is a lifelike ___________ of Christ Jesus.
A. presentation B. presenting C. representation D. representative
Question 3: The house was empty when I arrived. They ___________.
A. must have gone to bed B. should have gone to bed
C. would have gone to bed. D. need have gone to bed
Question 4: My brother had his camera __________ from his car in the office car – park.
A. lost B. robbed C. missed D. stolen
Question 5: He lost in the election because he is a weak and ________ leader.
A. undeciding B. undecided C. undecisive D. indecisive
Question 6: All his plans for starting his own business fell _____________.
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 7: If the bride’s father ___________ the car for the wrong time, she _________ at the church
by now.
A. hadn’t booked/would have been B. didn’t book/would have been
C. hadn’t booked/ would be D. hadn’t booked/had been
Question 8: Luca is at Noi Bai Airport. She wants to exchange some money, she is talking to Paula - a
clerk at a currency exchange kiosk.
Luca: “I'd like to change some money.”
Paula: “ ___________ ”
A. Five tens, please B. Which currency?
C. You haven't signed it. D. What's your account number?
Question 9: John will never buy you a drink - he’s far too .
A. tight-fisted B. pig-headed C. highly-strung D. easy-going
Question 10: Mrs. Wheaton is shopping in Trang Tien Plaza. She is talking to a salesgirl.
Mrs. Wheaton: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?”
Salesgirl: “ __________ ”
A. It's much cheaper B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Can I help you?
Question 11: The electrician rarely makes mistake, ___________?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. will he D. wouldn’t he?
Question 12: We ________ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 13: Study much harder ___________.
A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam
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C. or you won’t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam
Question 14: We intend to with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 15: Income from dancing is unstable so Giang popper also works as a director, performance,
A B C D
event organizer, coach and dance instructor at home.
Question 16: MPs have urged the UK government to launch a major publicity campaign to help people
A B C
protect themselves against online crime.
D
Question 17: Little House on the Prairie, a successful television program, was adapted from a series of
A
books by a woman whose life was similar to that of the character called by name Laura.
B C D
correct answer to each of the question.
Rachel Carson was bom in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was
hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but
sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which
provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology
and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1, 000
printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field.
However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the
food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical
industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings
were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee.
Question 18: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ____________.
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a researcher D. as a writer
Question 19: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. Zoology B. Literature C. History D. Oceanography
Question 20: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.
A. 29 B. 26 C. 34 D. 45
Question 21: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
__________.
A. became more popular than her other books B. was outdated
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C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies
Question 21: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for
The Sea Around Us?
A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts
C. Letters from scientists D. A research expedition
Question 23: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. irresponsible B. unnecessary C. continuous D. limited
Question 24: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ____________ .
A. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply
B. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
Question 25: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?
A. offensive B. logical C. deceptive D. faulty
Question 26: A. nourish B. flourish C. courageous D. courage
Question 27: A. promises B. likes C. houses D. doses
Question 28: A. captain B. belong C. respect D. avoid
Question 29: A. popularity B. personality C. hospitality D. apprentice
Set in the red desert of central Australia is the mining town of Coober Pedy. At first sight, the town
looks similar to many other such communities, but Coober Pedy is different. Sixty per cent of its
population of 4,000 people lives underground. There are today about 800 underground houses as well as
shops, hotels and even churches in the town and the surrounding hills. Once a site has been chosen,
special tunneling machines are (30) _______ in to create passages and rooms in the sandstone. Rock
pillars are left to support the roof, and doors and windows are cut into the front. Houses are of all shapes
and (31) ________, the largest having twenty rooms, and some even have their own swimming poll.
Living underground may sound strange but in fact it has a number of advantages. In summer, the
temperature outside can reach an astonishing 47°C, and in winter the nights can be (32) _______ cold.
However, inside the houses it remains a steady 25°C all year round. Many people say that living
underground makes they feel very secure. There is no problem with noise from the neighbours and the
houses are not affected. By the fierce dust storms that regularly sweep (33) _________ the area. And of
course, if your family (34) ____________ or lots of friends come to stay, you can always dig another
room.
Question 30: A. brought B. entered C. placed D. worked
Question 31: A. sizes B. areas C. volumes D. numbers
Question 32: A. strongly B. heavily C. extremely D. sharply
Question 33: A. through B. over C. across D. off
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Question 34: A. grows B. rises C. stretches D. explodes
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object, each
slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the
one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and
the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred
to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequences of
pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the
pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity
information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that
obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques from three-dimensional transformation,
shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special
color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for
viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality
images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions and colors for
the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film.
Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder.
Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been
recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire
sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded.
This approach can be very expensive and time - consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first
do motion tests with simple computergenerated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of
calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 35: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production procession B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost D. The role of the artist
Question 36: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to
draw the ______________ .
A. first frame B. middle frames
C. last frame D. entire sequences of frames
Question 37: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to __________.
A. formulas B. objects C. numbers D. database
Question 38: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to
A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images D. create new frames
Question 39: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by ____________.
A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations
Question 40: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________ .
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A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers
Question 41: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolutions images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
Question 42: Adversely affected by the Embargo act of 1808 western farmers directed their anger at the
British.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 43: Microscopic organisms settle to the seafloor and accumulate in marine mud.
A. grow up B. build up C. spread out D. break apart
Question 44: Certain types of bacteria that grow on decomposing plants produce a shimmering
luminescence, an eerie light called “foxfire”.
A. strange B. dim C. steady D. familiar
Question 45: Rooftop green space in cities also helps mitigate what scientists call the urban heat island
effect.
A. intensify B. cause C. prevent D. weaken
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 46: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly
resembled the original.
A. It was hard for the ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for
the experts.
B. It is obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the
experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.
Question 47: He failed to enter college for two consecutive years. He was finally able to attend FPT
Arena University.
A. Because he failed to enter college for two consecutive years, he was finally able to attend FPT Arena
University.
B. Failing to enter college for two consecutive years prevented him from attending FPT Arena
University.
C. Not being admitted to college for two consecutive years, he was finally able to enter FPT Arena
University.
D. Being finally able to attend FPT Arena University, he failed to enter college for two consecutive
years.
Question 48: “Don’t make noise, girls!” said the Dean.
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A. The Dean asked the girls to make noise.
B. The Dean didn’t allowed the girls to make noise.
C. The Dean told the girls not to make noise.
D. The Dean required the girl to be noisy.
Question 49: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.
A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.
B. It is the speed limit that reduces steadily the number of accidents.
C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.
D. There have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.
Question 50: It was wrong of you to criticize your son before his friends left.
A. If you had criticized your son after his friends had left, he wouldn’t be so upset now.
B. Your son must have been embarrassed when you criticized him in front of his friends.
C. You should have delayed criticizing your son until after his friends had gone.
D. You must be careful not to embarrass your son when he is with his friends.
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Question 1: A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
Question 2: A. embraced B. enforced C. composed D. approached
Question 3: A. environment B. philosophy C. medicine D. attenuate
Question 4: A. technology B. audience C. territory D. commerce
Question 5: St. Catherine’s Monastery Library in Egypt is the first library in the world ________ in the
sixth century.
A. to be built B. built C. to build D. to have built
Question 6: Today's weather will be a ___________ of yesterday.
A. continuing B. continuation C. continuity D. continual
Question 7: The ___________ polluted atmosphere in some industrial regions is called “smog”.
A. much B. largely C. fully D. heavily
Question 8: Too many factories dispose their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea.
A. out B. of C. away D. off
Question 9: He was so mean that he could not bear to the smallest sum of money for the charity
appeal.
A. part with B. pay off C. give in D. let out
Question 10: Judie performed very well in writing lesson. Her teacher is paying her a compliment.
Teacher: “Judie, you've written a much better essay this time.”
Judie: “ _____________”
A. Writing? Why? B. Thank you. It's really encouraging.
C. You're welcome. D. What did you say? I'm so shy.
Question 11: _____________ gene in the human genome were more completely understood, many
human diseases could be cured or prevented.
A. Each B. Since each C. If each D. Were each
Question 12: Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has hardly any raw materials, _________ .
A. does it B. doesn’t it C. has it D. hasn’t it
Question 13: Although the patient's condition is serious, she seems to be out of __________.
A. place B. control C. danger D. order
Question 14: Yuki and Hana are having a free afternoon. Yuki is inviting Hana to see a new movie with
him. Yuki: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this afternoon?"
Hana: “ _____________.”
A. I don't agree. I'm afraid B. I feel very bored
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C. You're welcome D. That would be great
Question 15: They appreciate ____________ this information.
A. to have B. having C. have D. to have had
Question 16: The sports event was ___________ and successfully organized.
A. good preparation B. good job C. well-done D. well-prepared
Question 17: The child who was caught ___________ was made to stand in the comer of the classroom.
A. behaving B. misbehave C. misbehavior D. misbehaving
Question 18: They are conducting a wide ________ of surveys throughout Vietnam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 19: What were the key elements of American foreign policy prior to World War II?
A. before B. during C. after D. despite
Question 20: The flowering pebble is a plant that looks like a stone and grows in arid areas.
A. deserted B. damp C. dry D. barren
Question 21: Woman liberated from child care can pursue their own interest.
A. separated from B. burdened with
C. having fun with D. freed from.
Question 22: Excessive amounts of lead in the air can decrease a child’s intelligence.
A. boom B. diminish C. abate D. swamp
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are slightly more
than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counterproductive
if she isn't ready. Wise parents will have a (23) __________ attitude and take the lead from their child.
What they should provide is a selection of (24) _________ toys, books and other activities.
Nowadays there is plenty of good material available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of
books in use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range
of videos, (25) __________ can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (26)
_______ valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far
as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programs not
intended for their age group. Too many television programs induce an incurious, uncritical attitude that is
going to make learning much more difficult. However, (27) ________ viewing of programs designed for
young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it serialised on television, so
children will pounce on books which feature their favourite television characters, and videos can add a
new dimension to a story known from a book.
Question 23: A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful
Question 24: A. bright B. thrilling C. energetic D. stimulating
Question 25: A. who B. why C. when D. which
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Question 26: A. properly B. worthily C. perfectly D. equally
Question 27: A. cautious B. choice C. approved D. discriminating
Composers today use a wider variety of sounds than ever before, including many that were once
considered undesirable noises. Composer Edgard Varese (1883-1965) called thus the "liberation of
sound...the right to make music with any and all sounds." Electronic music, for example - made with the
aid of computers, synthesizers, and electronic instruments - may include sounds that in the past would not
have been considered musical.
Environmental sounds, such as thunder, and electronically generated hisses and blips can be recorded,
manipulated, and then incorporated into a musical composition. But composers also draw novel sounds
from voices and non-electronic instruments. Singers may be asked to scream, laugh, groan, sneeze, or to
sing phonetic sounds rather than words. Wind and string players may lap or scrape their instruments A
brass or woodwind player may hum while playing, to produce two pitches at once; a pianist may reach
inside the piano to pluck a string and then run a metal blade along it. In the music of the Western world,
the greatest expansion and experimentation have involved percussion instruments, which outnumber
strings and winds in many recent compositions. Traditional percussion instruments are struck with new
types of beaters; and instruments that used to be couriered unconventional in Western music - tom-toms,
bongos, slapsticks, maracas - are widely used.
In the search for novel sounds, increased use has been made in Western music of Microtones. Non-
Western music typically divides and intervals between two pitches more finely than Western music does,
thereby producing a greater number of distinct tones or micro tones, within the same interval. Composers
such as Krzysztof Penderecki create sound that borders on electronic noise through tone clusters - closely
spaced tones played together and heard as a mass, block, or band of sound. The directional aspect of
sound has taken on new importance as well Loudspeakers or groups of instruments may be placed at
opposite ends of the stage, in the balcony, or at the back and sides of the auditorium. Because standard
music notation makes no provision for many of these innovations, recent music scores may contain graph
like diagrams, new note shapes and symbols, and novel ways of arranging notation on the page.
Question 28: The word “wider” in line 1 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. more impressive B. more distinctive
C. more controversial D. more extensive
Question 29: The passage suggests that Edgard Varese is an example of a composer who __________ .
A. criticized electronic music as too noise like
B. modified sonic of the electronic instruments he used in his music
C. believed that any sound could be used in music
D. wrote music with environmental themes
Question 30: The word “it” in line 11 refers to __________.
A. piano B. string C. blade D. music
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following types of instruments has played a role in
much of the innovation in Western music?
A. String B. Percussion C. Woodwind D. Brass
Question 32: The word “thereby” in line 18 is closest in meaning to .
A. in return for B. in spite of C. by the way D. by this means
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Question 33: According to the passage, Krzysztof Penderecki is known for which of the following
practices?
A. Using tones that are clumped together
B. Combining traditional and nontraditional instruments
C. Seating musicians in unusual areas of an auditorium
D. Playing Western music for non-Westem audiences
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following would be considered traditional elements
of Western music?
A. Microtones B. Tom-toms and bongos
C. Pianos D. Hisses
Question 35: In paragraph 3, the author mentions diagrams as an example of a new way to _________ .
A. chart the history of innovation in musical notation
B. explain the logic of standard musical notation
C. design and develop electronic instruments
D. indicate how particular sounds should be produced
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in
such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a
very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established
in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or
smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has
developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global
basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human
output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The
result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the
adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the
absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant;
in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the
concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health
effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide,
however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
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Question 37: The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 38: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that __________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 39: The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. the various chemical reactions
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 40: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 41: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _________ .
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 42: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is
only useful if ___________.
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known
D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 43: Alike oxygen, which is chemically changed by our bodies into carbon dioxide, nitrogen is
A B
merely exhaled back into the air.
C D
Question 44: Working like a police officer means earning a good salary, excellent retirement benefits.
A B C D
and great health insurance for you and your family.
Question 45: Lasers are of great value in areas such as communication, industry, medicines and scientific
A B C D
research.
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Question 46: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary story stories with Janet around. She’ a bit
unstable and could get hysterical.
A. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because she only
laughs instead of getting scared.
B. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.
C. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we
should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s
not tell frightening stories in her presence.
Question 47: They were suspected to have robbed the bank. The police have investigated them for days.
A. Suspected to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
B. Suspecting to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
D. They have investigated for days, suspected to have robbed the bank.
Question 48: Had I known how crowded it’d be, I’d have never moved to Madrid.
A. I moved to Madrid only because I was unaware of how many people were there.
B. Since it was so crowded in Madrid, I decided that I would never move there.
C. In the end, Madrid turned out to be far more crowded than I’d thought before moving there.
D. I would have had a better time living in Madrid if only there hadn’t been so many people.
Question 49: Their parents gave them permission to get married.
A. “You must get married”, their parents told them.
B. “You ought to get married”, their parents told them.
C. “I give you permission to get married”, their parents told them.
D. “You may get married”, their parents told them.
Question 50: After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her to.
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over, her recovery was as fast as it could be expected.
C. To our great surprise, she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
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Question 1: A. economics B. inspection C. regulation D. individual
Question 2: A. colony B. assistant C. possible D. holiday
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. voyage B. village C. passage D. massage
Question 4: A. fool B. boot C. foot D. cool
Question 5: Several businesses would stand to lose a great deal of money if open trade agreements
followed.
A. are not being B. were not being C. had not been D. have not been
Question 6: The professor scheduled two student appointments for the same time. He was so ________ .
A. open - minded B. kind - hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent - minded
Question 7: What chemical is this? It's __________ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 8: It's time I __________ thinking about that essay.
A. got down to B. got off C. got on D. got down with
Question 9: On __________ he had won the scholarship to Harvard University, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. telling D. being told
Question 10:1 thought you said she was going away the next Sunday, _______ ?
A. wasn't she B. didn't you C. didn't I D. wasn't it
Question 11: Mary invites Malik to her birthday party but Malik refuses to come.
Malik: "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come".
Mary: “__________”.
A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun
Question 12: I think you are ___________ your time looking for a job in this town. There’s not much to
do here.
A. losing B. spending C. wasting D. missing
Question 13: Gene got his book ___________ by a subsidy publisher.
A. to publish B. publishing C. to be published D. published
Question 14: A good friend is will stand by you when you are in trouble.
A. the one who B. a person that C. people who D. who
Question 15: On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she came again.
A. up B. round C. over D. to come up with
Question 16: Two friends are having a conversation in a restaurant.
Peter: “ ___________”
Jane: “All right. Suit yourself.”
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A. I don’t want to eat anything, I am on a diet.
B. I haven’t been to such a nice place with you for a while.
C. Can you help me choose the main course?
D. What is your favourite starter?
Question 17: We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It ___________ by the time we arrived at the pier.
A. already went B. was already going
C. had already gone D. has already gone
Question 18: I had a __________, which I couldn't explain, that something terrible was going to happen.
A. feeling B. view C. sense D. thought
Question 19: Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
A B C D
Question 20: The Netherland, with much of its land lying lower than sea level, have a system of dikes
A B C
and canals for controlling water.
D
Question 21: With the victory over Germany in the final match. Brazil became the first team won the
A B C
trophy five times.
D
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving
equipment for scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often
became sluggish, and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects
their speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today,
most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life
and make direct observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples
taken from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean
floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the
technology of sophisticated aerial photography from vantage points above the surface of more than seven
miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by
remote control in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly
important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs
can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean, Maps created from
satellite pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers
to study the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to
collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s
movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the
environment.
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Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research
ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly
and more effectively. Some of humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy
and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology.
Question 22: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Communication among drivers. B. Technological advances in oceanography.
C. Direct observation of the ocean floor. D. Undersea vehicles.
Question 23: The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. nervous B. confused C. slow moving D. very weak
Question 24: This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon ________
A. the limitations of diving equipment B. radios that divers use to communicate
C. controlling currents and the weather D. vehicles as well as divers
Question 25: Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _________.
A. the pressure affected their speech organs B. the vehicles they used have not been perfected
C. they did not pronounce clearly D. the water destroyed their speech organs
Question 26: Undersea vehicles ____________.
A. are too small for a man to fit inside B. are very slow to respond
C. have the same limitations that divers have D. make direct observations of the ocean floor
Question 27: How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
B. By operators outside the vehicle on ship.
C. By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform.
D. By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore.
Question 28: Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. Presence of oil slicks. D. The location of sea ice.
Question 29: The words “those” refers to .
A. ships B. vehicles C. problems D. computers
After two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the
United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard's MBA School has shown a substantial
increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their
enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA)
degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75, 000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to
continue.
There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that
many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on
Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry-level management
jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as
those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question: "Is an MBA degree really what I need to
be best prepared for getting a good job?". The second major factor has been the cutting of American
payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA
schools are struggling to meet the new demands.
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Question 30: What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Jobs on Wall Street.
B. Types of graduate degrees.
C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools.
D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy.
Question 31: The word “plush” in line 8 most probably means ___________.
A. legal B. satisfactory C. fancy D. dependable
Question 32: Which of the following business schools has NOT shown a decrease in enrollment?
A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale
Question 33: Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street?
A. a center for international affairs. B. a major financial center.
C. a shopping district. D. a neighborhood in New York.
Question 34: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments?
A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession.
B. low salary and foreign competition.
C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs.
D. declining population and economic prosperity.
Question 35: The word “struggling” as used in the last sentence is closest in meaning to .
A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving
Question 36: The phrase “trend of” in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. reluctance of B. drawback to
C. movement toward D. extraction from
Throughout history, women have had responsibility for healing the sick. However, it is only in
comparative recent times that they have been allowed to train as doctors at medical schools in Britain. Yet
in that short time, they have (37) _________ an enormous contribution to modem medicine.
The first female doctors were nuns (38) ________ gave advice about diseases and (39) ________ and
prepared medicines. In ancient Rome, women healers were considered skillful and respected. In Britain,
for centuries, male doctors were suspicious of women who practised medicine (40) _________ and in
1512 a law was passed making it illegal for them to do so. Women couldn’t study medicine at universities
(41) ____________ the 19th century and they only began to gain equality with male doctors in the 20th
century.
Question 37: A. caused B. done C. had D. made
Question 38: A. they B. who C. whose D. which
Question 39: A. injured B. painful C. injuries D. wounded
Question 40: A. profession B. professional C. professionally D. unprofessional
Question 41: A. until B. in C. from D. since
Question 42: They were not prepared for the humid heat of the tropical forest.
A. arid B. watery C. soaked D. moist
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Question 43: Many California mining towns prospered until the gold ran out and prospectors moved on
to new areas, leaving boom towns to become ghost towns.
A. declined B. assembled C. employed D. thrived
Question 44: The young team received widespread support throughout the country.
A. narrow B. limited C. popular D. scattered
Question 45: Suddenly, in the twinkling of an eve, her whole life had been turned upside down.
A. very quickly B. gradually
B. over a long period of time D. unfortunately
Question 46: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house.
A. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.
B. Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.
C. Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.
D. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions.
Question 47: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
Question 48: Not until after I’d given my report did I realize I hadn’t mentioned all of the points I’d
wanted to.
A. In my report, I’d intended to bring up more points than I actually did, though I only noticed this after
I’d finished.
B. I had carefully planned all the points I would be mentioning in my report, but in the end I forgot
some of them.
C. My report turned out not very well as I was unable to bring up all of the points I had been planning
to.
D. Once the report had finished, it was pointed out to me that I hadn’t brought up all the topics that I
should have.
Question 49: The sooner we solve the problem with controlling weapons, the better it will be for all.
A. If we could solve the problem with controlling weapons soon, it would be better for all.
B. It would be better for all if we can solve the problem with controlling weapons soon.
C. If all are better, we can solve the problem with controlling weapons.
D. If we can solve the problem with controlling weapons soon, it will be better for all.
Question 50: My friend told me, “If I were you, I would give up smoking.”
A. My friend advised me to give up smoking.
B. My friend warned me against giving up smoking.
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Question 1: Fruit and vegetables should be carefully washed whether eaten fresh or cook.
A B C D
Question 2: She had to leave because she didn’t see eves to eves with her boss.
A B C D
Question 3: With the development of the Internet and the World Wide Web, businessmen do not
A B
hardly have as much traveling as they used to.
C D
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. accompany B. comfortable C. interview D. dynamism
Question 5: A. effectiveness B. satisfaction C. accountancy D. appropriate
Question 6: A. mouths B. cloths C. booths D. months
Question 7: A. retain B. mountain C. painting D. chain
THE FAMILY
Statesmen define a family as “a group of individuals having a common dwelling and related by
blood, adoption or marriage, (8) includes common-law relationships”. Most people are born into
one of these groups and will live their lives as a family in such a group.
Although the definition of a family may not change, (9) relationship of people to each other
within the family group changes as society changes. More and more wives are taking paying jobs, and, as
a result, the roles of husband, wife and children are changing. Today, men expect to work for pay for
about 40 years of their lives, and, in today’s marriages (10) which both spouses have paying jobs,
women can expect to work for about 30 to 35 years of their lives. This means that men must leam to do
their share of family tasks such as caring for the children and daily (11) chores. Children, too,
especially adolescents, have to (12) with the members of their family in sharing household tasks.
The widespread acceptance of contraception has meant that having children is as matter of choice,
not an automatic result of marriage. Marriage itself has become a choice. As alternatives such as
common- law relationships and single-parent families have become socially acceptable, women will
become more independent.
Question 8: A. which B. that C. what D. it
Question 9: A. a B. any C. some D. the
Question 10: A. in B. for C. with D. to
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Question 11: A. home B. family C. house D. household
Question 12: A. carry B. deal C. cooperate D. combine
Mark the letter Ay B,c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
Question 13: It’s nice I am now in Hoi An Ancient Town again. This is the second time I _____ there.
A. will be B. would be C. was D. have been
Question 14: Realizing he got lost, he started to help.
A. call for B. call at C. go for D. go to
Question 15: He told everyone that he had flu, but in fact, he had just a cold.
A. come up with B. come down with C. gone in for D. made up for
Question 16: Never has she behaved like that before, ?
A. hasn’t she B. has she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 17: If these prisoners attempted to escape from prison, immediately.
A. they would be caught B. they would catch
C. they will be caught D. they will have caught
Question 18: You should stop working too hard you’ll get sick.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
Question 19: Although she was , she agreed to give me a hand with the clean-up.
A. tiredness B.tired C. tiring D. tiresome
Question 20: Create a new and put all your files into it.
A. directory B. direction C. director D. directing
Question 21: Applicants must hold a(n) - driving licence.
A. artificial B. faithful C. false D. valid
Question 22: As the drug took the patient became unconscious.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
Question 23: You’re very quiet today. What have you got on your ?
A. spirit B. attention C. mind D. brain
Question 24: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
Diana: “That blouse suits you perfectly”
Anne: “ .”
A. Nevermind B. Don’t mention it C. Thank you D.You’re welcome
Question 25: Ballot invites a friend to her new apartment. She is offering him some drink.
Ballot: “More coffee? Anybody?”
Friend: “ .”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid B. I’d love to
C. Yes, please D. It’s right, I think
Question 26: I don’t have time to argue with this self - women.
A. controlled B. dominated C. opinionated D.liked
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cy or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the
crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And
since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can
scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
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Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No most skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large
animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since
desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its
population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not
emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the
word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could
survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter
of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the
ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150
degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 27: The title for this passage could be .
A. “Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
Question 28: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means .
A. the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own
B. collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants
C. very small living things that cause infectious diseases in people, animals and plants
D. the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants
Question 29: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as .
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. very few large animals are found in the desert
Question 30: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the followings EXCEPT .
A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. most-skinned animals D. many large animals
Question 31: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 32: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that .
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
C. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
D. they live in an accommodating environment
Question 33: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means .

A. places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young
B. holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in
C. structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept
D. places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found
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In 1988, Canadian athlete Ben Johnson set a new world record for the 100 metres sprint and set
the Seoul Olympics alight. Just a few days later, he was stripped of his medal and banned from competing
after having failed a drug test, highlighting what has since become an international problem - drug use in
sport.
Those involved in sports face enormous pressure to excel in competition, all the more so as their
careers are relatively short. By the time most sportspeople are in their forties, they are already considered
to be past their prime, and as a result they need to earn their money as quickly as possible. In such a high-
pressure environment, success has to come quickly and increasingly often drugs are playing a prominent
role.
There are a number of specific effects that sportspeople are aiming to achieve by taking
performanceenhancing drugs. Caffeine and cocaine are commonly used as stimulants, getting the body
ready for the mass expenditure of energy required. In addition, there are those who are looking to build
their body strength and turn to the use of anabolic steroids. Having worked so hard and needing to
unwind, sportspeople may misuse other drugs as a relaxant in that it can help them cope with stress or
boost their own confidence. Alcohol is commonly used for this purpose, but for sportspeople something
more direct is often required, and this has led to an increase in the use of beta-blockers specifically to
steady nerves.
Increasingly accurate drug testing is leading companies and suppliers to ever-more creative ways
of avoiding detection, and there are a range of banned substances that are still taken by sportspeople in
order to disguise the use of other, more potent drugs. Diuretics is a good example of this: in addition to
allowing the body to lose excess weight, they are used to hide other substances.
Drugs or not, the working life of the average sportsperson is hard and often painful. Either through
training or on the field, injuries are common and can lead to the use of narcotics simply to mask the pain.
There are examples of champion motorcyclists taking local anaesthetics to hide the pain of a crash that
should have seen them taken straight to hospital, and though this is not directly banned, use is carefully
monitored.
Drug testing has since become an accepted feature of most major sporting events, and as soon as a
new drug is detected and the user is banned from competitive sport, then a new drug is developed which
evades detection. Inevitably, this makes testing for such banned substances even more stringent, and has
in recent years highlighted a new and disturbing problem - the unreliability of drug tests.
Recent allegations of drug use have seen sportspeople in court attempt to overthrow decisions
against them, claiming that they were unaware they had taken anything on the banned list. A test recently
carried out saw three non-athletes given dietary substances that were not on the banned list, and the two
who didn’t take exercise tested negative. However, the third person, who exercised regularly, tested
positive. This, of course, has left the testing of sportspeople in a very difficult position. Careers can be
prematurely ended by false allegations of drug abuse, yet by not punishing those who test positive, the
door would be open for anyone who wanted to take drugs.
The issue is becoming increasingly clouded as different schools of opinion are making themselves
heared. There are some that argue that if the substance is not directly dangerous to the user, then it should
not be banned, claiming that it is just another part of training and can be compared to eating the correct
diet. Ron Clarke, a supporter of limited drug use in sport, commented that some drugs should be accepted
as ‘they just level the playing field’. He defended his opinion by pointing out that some competitors have
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a natural advantage. Athletes bom high above sea level or who work out in high altitudes actually produce
more red blood cells, a condition which other athletes can only achieve by dmg taking.
Others claim that dmg use shouldn’t be allowed because it contravenes the whole idea of fairly
competing in a sporting event, adding that the dmgs available to a wealthy American athlete, for example,
would be far superior to those available to a struggling Nigerian competitor.
Governing bodies of the myriad of sporting worlds are trying to set some standards for
competitors, but as dmg companies become more adept at disguising illegal substances, the procedure is
an endless race with no winner. In the face of an overwhelming dmg and supplement market, one thing is
certain - dmgs will probably be a significant factor for a long time to come.
Question 34: Which drugs are used for the preparation of the mass energy consumption?
A. Caffeine and cocaine B. Alcohol, beta blockers
C. Diuretics D. Narcotics
Question 35: What is the phrase “this purpose” in paragraph 3 means?
A. confidence B. sportspeople
C. relaxant D. stress increase
Question 36: these statements are TRUE except for .
A. Making the wrong judgment on potent dmg abuse can destroy ones career
B. By tolerating violating cases, there will be fewer people taking on dmgs.
C. Some people argue that these drugs are not actually detrimental to users’ health and therefore they
should not be banned.
D. One third of the people participating in the test with dietary substances received positive results.
Question 37: Why are sportspeople under such pressure to succeed quickly?
A. Because their careers are relatively short. B. Because they want to earn a lot of money
C. Because they have other concerns in their lives D. Because their rivals are aggressive
Question 38: What does Ron Clarke claim drugs can balance?
A. drugs B. prize C. field D. advantage
Question 39: The word “contravenes” is closest in meaning to .
A. go against B. take over C. put off D. stand for
Question 40: of drug use have serious side effects on sportspeople even if they are
subsequently proved wrong.
A. Decisions B. Comments C. Allegations D. Attitudes
Question 41: The text is mainly about .
A. a running controversy B. allegations of drug use
C. different usages of drug D. how to avoid detection
Question 42: To work with your partner on this dialogue, sit in chairs that are face to face or in ones that
are adjacent so that you can communicate easily.
A. next to each other B. away from the door
C. far from each other D. behind each other
Question 43: I have heard anecdotal evidence that vitamin E helps cut heal faster, but I have never read
any research that supports that.
A. scientific proof B. personal reports
C. individual observation D. oral stories
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Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 44: We’ll have to call the barbecue off. It’s going to rain.
A. delay B. cancel C. plan D. compensate for
Question 45: I admire people with a lot of inner strength.
A. full B. mental C. limited D. indisputable
Question 46: I had to do my homework. I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
A. Because I was busy doing my homework, I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
B. It was impossible for me to do my homework although my mother helped me with the washing-up.
C. I could not help my mother with the washing-up until I finished my homework.
D. I could not do my homework because I had to help my mother with the washing-up.
Question 47: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
Question 48: “You must wear the seat belt when driving!” she said to him.
A. She told him to wear the seat belt when he drove.
B. She confirmed that he wore the seat belt when driving.
C. She complained that he wore the seat belt as he drove.
D. She encouraged him to wear the seat belt when driving.
Question 49: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
A. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
Question 50: The gardens are open each day for visitors to enjoy the flower displays.
A. In order to enjoy the flowers each day, visitors open their own displays.
B. There are too many flower displays for visitors to enjoy each day.
C. As long as visitors enjoy the flower displays, the gardens are still open each day.
D. The gardens are open each day so that visitors can enjoy the flower displays.
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Question 1: A. language B. frequent C. impress D. backpack
Question 2: A. diplomatic B. appreciation C. information D. independent
Question 3: A. recovery B. holiday C. problem D. occupant
Question 4: A. months B. paths C. wreaths D. youths
following question.
Question 5: Please accept our ____________ congratulations on your promotion!
A. finest B. warmest C. dearest D. best
Question 6: They've bought a holiday cottage near the sea, and in ________ course they plan to move
there permanently.
A. future B. due C. coming D. intended
Question 7: She should have been here but she's ____________ chicken flu.
A. gone through with B. gone down with
C. come in for D. come against
Question 8: Part-time jobs give us the freedom to ________ our own interest.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
Question 9: I won't buy that car because it has too much ___________ on it.
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
Question 10: Tom and Tim are meeting at school canteen.
Tom: “Would you like to have a drink?”
Tim: “ _____________.”
A. Yes, I am B. Sure C. I really like it D. No, I don’t like
Question 11: If the primary candidates _________ been quite different.
A. have focused B. had focused C. focused D. were focused
Question 12: With its thousands of rocks and caves ___________ international recognition.
A. emerge B. emerged C. emerging D. being emerged
Question 13: The fraction 3/4 is pronounced ____________.
A. three-four B. three over fourth C. three-fourths D. third-fours
Question 14: The room needs ____________ for the Sip and see party.
A. to decorate B. be decorated C. decorate D. decorating
Question 15: "Is there anything interesting ___________ the paper today?” – “Well, there’s an unusual
picture __________ the back page."
A. in/ on B. on/ in C. in/ in D. on/ on
Question 16: Two friends Stephanie and Scott are revising Math lesson in the school study room.
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Stephanie: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
Scott: “ ____________ ”
A. No, not at all! B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I do too. D. Yes, sure!
Question 17: After a __________ match, the team from Chia emerged as the winner.
A. hotly-contested B. hot-contested C. hotly-compete D. hot-competed
Question 18: As soon as we __________ this new apartment, we _________ .
A. are finding/ will move B. found/ moved
C. would find/ move D. find/ would move
THE ILLUSION OF FILM
Film is an illusion because the moving pictures seen on the screen are not moving at all. A film is
actually a series of tiny still pictures, or flames. They appear to be moving because the retina of the
human eye retains the impression of an object for a split second after that object has actually disappeared.
This principle is known as the persistence of vision. When we look at a single frame of film, the image
persists in the brain's visual center for a fraction of a second. Then, the next frame comes along and the
brain has to catch up with the new image. Thus, our eyes and brain trick US into thinking that we see a
smoothly moving image rather than a series of still ones.
Another illusion of film is known collectively as special effects, the tricks and techniques that
filmmakers use when makeup, costume, and stunts are still not enough to make a scene convincing.
Special effects artists apply science to filmmaking, showing US things that no plain camera could ever
photograph. Even since the introduction of computer graphics in recent decades, the films of today still
rely on some special effects that have existed since the early years of cinema.
One category of special effects is called optical or visual effects, tricks made with the camera. One of
the pioneers of optical effects was the French filmmaker Georges Méliès, who invented a technique called
stop-motion photography. With this technique, a scene is filmed, the camera is stopped, the scene is
changed in some way, and then the camera rolls again. Stop motion photography can create the illusion of
an actor disappearing on screen. In one short film, an actor's clothes keep returning to his body as he tries
to get undressed. Méfiés also invented a technique known as split screen. By putting a card over the
camera lens, he prevented half of the frame of film from being exposed. He filmed a scene on the
uncovered half of the frame and then backed up the same strip of film in his camera. For the second shot,
he covered the exposed half and took another series of pictures on the half that had been covered the first
time. With the technique of split screen, it is possible to achieve illusions such as having the same actor
play twins.
Mechanical effects are another category of special effects. Mechanical effects are objects or devices
used during the filming to create an illusion, such as feathers or plastic chips to simulate snow, and wires
to create the illusion that people are flying. Many sound effects are mechanical effects. Wood blocks
create a horse's hoof beats, and a vibrating sheet of metal sounds like thunder. During the silent film era,
the music machine called the Kinematophone was popular because it could produce the sounds of sirens,
sleigh bells, gunfire, baby cries, and kisses-all at the press of a key.
Other mechanical effects are puppets, robots of all sizes, and tiny copies of buildings or cities. To
reduce the cost of studio sets or location photography, special-effects technicians create painted or
projected backgrounds, which replace the set or add to it. For example, in a long shot of a town, the set
might be only a few feet high, and the remainder of the town is painted onto a sheet of glass positioned in
front of the camera during filming. In a 1916 silent film called The Flying Torpedo, mechanical effects
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created the appearance of an enemy invasion of the California seacoast. Technicians threw small contact-
rigged explosives into toy cities, scattering the tiny buildings into the air. An artist painted a row of
battleships on a board that was only six feet long. Carpenters drilled small holes in the ships, which were
filled with small charges of flash powder to simulate guns. An electrician wired the charges so they could
be fired on cue from a small battery. For audiences of the time, the effect was of a real fleet of ships firing
on the California coast.
Sometimes optical and mechanical effects are used together. For the original 1933 version of King
Kong, the filmmakers wanted to show the giant ape climbing the Empire State Building in New York
City. To show Kong's climb, the special-effects technicians built a tiny movable model of the ape and a
proportionately small model of the Empire State Building. Then, stop-motion photography was used to
create the illusion that Kong was moving up the building.
Question 19: Why does the author discuss the principle of “persistence of vision” in paragraph 1?
A. To introduce a discussion of human vision. B. To explain how we remember images.
C. To support the idea that film is an illusion. D. To compare two types of special effects.
Question 20: The phrase “catch up with” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. hurry to process B. put aside C. search for D. obtain from memory
Question 21: The author primarily defines special effects as _____________.
A. phenomena that cannot be explained logically
B. techniques and devices to create illusions in film
C. sounds and images that cause an emotional response
D. methods used by filmmakers of the silent film era
Question 22: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that silent films __________.
A. were projected by a machine called the Kinematophone
B. relied more on special effects than on acting ability
C. used sound effects to make scenes more convincing
D. are still very popular with movie audiences today
Question 23: All of the following would necessarily involve mechanical effects EXCEPT _________.
A. using wires to make objects fly B. filming each half of a frame separately
C. hitting a sheet of metal to create thunder D. building a small model of a town
Question 24: The word “which” in paragraph 5 refers to ____________.
A. carpenters B. holes C. ships D. guns
Question 25: What point does the author make in paragraph 6 about the 1933 film King Kongl A. The
A. film combined two different types of special effects.
B. The filmmakers trained a giant ape to climb up a building.
C. Stop-motion photography was invented during the filming.
D. King Kong remains very popular with audiences today.
Question 26: 10 Breakthrough Technologies 2017, such as reversing paralysis, self-driving trucks, the
A
360-degree selfie,.., will effect the economy and our politics, improve medicine, or influence our culture.
B C D
Question 27: There are more than eight four million specimens in the National Museum of Natural
A
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History’s collection of biological, geological, anthropology treasures.
B C D
Question 28: Up the World War II almost all important research in physics had made in universities, with
A B C
only university funds for support.
D
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are (29) ______
more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counter-
productive if she isn't ready. Wise parents will have a hopeful attitude and take the lead from their child.
What they should provide is a selection of stimulating toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is
plenty of good (30) __________ available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in
use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of
videos, which can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are equally valuable in
helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far as children are
concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programmes not intended for their
age (31) ____________. Too many television programmes induce an incurious, uncritical attitude that is
going to make learning much more difficult. However, discriminating viewing of programmes designed
for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it serialised on
television, so children will pounce on books which (32) ____________ their favourite television
characters, and videos can add a new (33) __________ to a story known from a book.
Question 29: A. scarcely B. rarely C. slightly D. really
Question 30: A. material B. sense C. produce D. amusement
Question 31: A. set B. band C. group D. limit
Question 32: A. illustrate B. extend C. feature D. possess
Question 33: A. revival B. dimension C. option D. existence
Today's cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the
future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile
engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity,
compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-
emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other
dependable source of current is available, transportation experts foresee a new assortment of electric
vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars,
electric delivery vans, bikes, and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are
focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging
facilities will need to be as common as today's gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in
commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while
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they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking
in transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses, and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit
centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of
electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline
hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling
five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today.
Question 34: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT .
A. vans B. trains C. planes D. trolleys
Question 35: The author's purpose in the passage is to ___________.
A. criticize conventional vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars
C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
Question 36: The passage would most likely be followed by details about __________.
A. automated freeways B. pollution restrictions in the future
C. the neighborhood of the future D. electric shuttle buses
Question 37: The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. long-range B. inexpensive C. concentrated D. squared
Question 38: In the second paragraph the author implies that ___________.
A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed
B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future
C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
Question 39: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be .
A. more convenient than they are today B. equipped with charging devices
C. much larger than they are today D. as common as today's gas stations
Question 40: The word “foresee” in this passage could best be replaced with __________.
A. count on B. invent C. imagine D. rely on
Question 41: The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. daily travelers B. visitors C. cab drivers D. shoppers
Question 42: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. confident B. free C. occupied D. reluctant
Question 43: Learning a language is a very complicated process, all human beings are bom with a
language ability.
A. sophisticated B. simple C. omplex D. plain
Question 44: The pensioner was taken in by a thief posing as a telephone engineer.
A. persuaded B. deceived C. fascinated D. shocked
Question 45: The government came in for a lot of criticism after the revelations.
A. gave B. was subject to C. did not like D. listen to
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Question 46: Mike graduated from The University of Melbourne with flying colours. However, he chose
to work for volunteer programs in Africa.
A. Mike chose to work for volunteer programs in Africa because he graduated from The University of
Melbourne with flying colours.
B. If Mike graduated from The University of Melbourne with flying colours, he would work for
volunteer programs in Africa.
C. Although Mike graduated from The University of Melbourne with flying colours, he chose to work
for volunteer programs in Africa.
D. That Mike graduated from The University of Melbourne with flying colours helped him a lot with his
volunteer work in Africa.
Question 47: Almost every Vietnamese people watched U23 Asian Cup Final. They were somewhat
satisfied with it.
A. Almost every Vietnamese people were somewhat satisfied when watched U23 Asian Cup Final.
B. U23 Asian Cup Final was somewhat satisfying almost every Vietnamese people.
C. Almost every Vietnamese people, who watched U23 Asian Cup Final, were somewhat satisfied with
it.
D. U23 Asian Cup Final was somewhat satisfying by the way Vietnamese people watched it.
Question 48: Soil erosion is result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly
D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.
Question 49: Mr. Brown said to me “Make good use of your time. You won’t get such an opportunity
again.”
A. Mr. Brown offered me such an opportunity so that I could make use of my time.
B. Mr. Brown advised me to make use of my time as I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.
C. Mr. Brown ordered me to make use of my time, said that I wouldn’t get an opportunity again.
D. Mr. Brown let me make use of my time, knowing that I wouldn’t get an opportunity again.
Question 50: People said she did not study hard enough to win the scholarship.
A. It was said she studied hard but she could not win the scholarship.
B. She was said to have studied hard enough to win the scholarship.
C. She was said not to have studied hard enough to win the scholarship.
D. It was said she won the scholarship though she didn’t study hard enough.
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Question 1: A. hates B. slopes C. tapes D. glasses
Question 2: A. head B. breathe C. clean D. beat
Question 3: A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Question 4: A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
Question 5: There is too much ____________ in this world.
A. greediness B. greed C. greedy D. greedness
Question 6: Luna and Juka are attending a wedding. Juka is complimenting Luna on her skirt.
Juka: “That's a very nice skirt you're wearing.”
Luna: “ ____________ ”
A. How a compliment! B. That's all right.
C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I like you said so.
Question 7: ___________ are the formal rules of correct or polite behavior among people using the
Internet.
A. Traffic rules B. Family rules C. Codes of etiquettes D. Codes of netiquettes
Question 8: Ms. Katie is decorating her house. She is asking her son for some help.
Ms. Katie: “ ___________ ”
Son: “Yes, of course.”
A. You won’t help me this time. B. You’d better give me one hand.
C. I don’t think I’ll need your help. D. Could you give me a hand?
Question 9: Working in over 150 countries, UNICEF ____________ children with health care, clean
water, nutrition, education, emergency relief, and more.
A. presents B. assists C. provides D. offers
Question 10: He would win the race if he __________ his brother's example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
Question 11: "Excuse me. Where is the ___________ office of OXFAM located?"
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
Question 12: The fire brigade know that it is very difficult to rescue people from the blaze in this fashion
shop, __________ they will try their best.
A. but B. although C. despite D. however
Question 13: I’m sorry, I forgot to tell you the guests drink only water, so you really _________ all that
wine. But don’t worry, we’ll keep it for your birthday party.
A. can’t have bought B. needn’t have bought
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C. wouldn’t have bought D. might not have bought
Question 14: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm ___________.
A. went out B. went off C. came about D. rang off
Question 15: Have a piece of chocolate, __________ ?
A. do you B. would you C. don't you D. haven't you
Question 16: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work ___________.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing
C. will have been finished D. will be finished
Question 17: I didn’t take up his recommendation as he sounded so ___________.
A. half-headed B. half-witted C. half-handed D. half-hearted
Question 18: I can’t possibly lend you any more money, it is quite out of the _________ .
A. order B. practice C. place D. question
Question 19: Love and relationships will always be a topic of universal interest.
A. marked B. separated C. shared D. hidden
Question 20: His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was much better than B. was a bit worse than
C. was a little bit higher than D. was far more acceptable than
Question 21: The magazine carries an intriguing mixture of high fashion, gossip, and racing, which
readers find unputdownable.
A. dull B. bright C. troublesome D. full
Question 22: It’s unbelievable how the success of his first novel has completely turned his head.
A. made him ashamed B. made him conceited C. made him crazy D. made him exhausted
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27
The universal symbol of the Internet era communications, the @ sign used in e-mail addresses to
signify the word 'at', is (23) ____________ a 500-year-old invention of Italian merchants, a Rome
academic has revealed. Giorgio Stabile, a science professor at La Sapienza University, claims to have
stumbled on the earliest known example of the symbol's use, as a(n) (24) _________ of a measure of
weight or volume. He says the sign represents an amphora, a measure of capacity based on the terracotta
jars used to transport grain and liquid in the ancient Mediterranean world.
The professor unearthed toe ancient symbol in the course of research for a visual history of the 20th
century, to be published by the Treccani Encyclopedia. The first (25) __________ instance of its use, he
says, occurred in a letter written by a Florentine merchant on May 4, 1536. He says the sign made its way
along trade routes to northern Europe, where it came to represent 'at the price of, its contemporary
accountancy meaning.
Professor Stabile believes that Italian banks may possess even earlier documents (26) __________
symbol lying forgotten in their archives. The oldest example could be of great value. It could be used (27)
____________ publicity purposes and to enhance the prestige of the institution that owned it, he says.
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The race is on between the mercantile world and the banking world to see who has the oldest
documentation of @.
Question 23: A. actually B. truly C. essentially D. accurately
Question 24: A. proof B. sign C. evidence D. indication
Question 25: A. known B. knowing C. knowable D. knowledgeable
Question 26: A. taking B. carrying C. delivering D. bearing
Question 27: A. on B. for C. with D. by
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's
largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge
body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its
unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's
core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the
surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the
area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists
aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where
the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for
thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet
light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in
the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated
with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to
contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 28: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen. B. It is a saltwater lake,
C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. D. It is heated by the sun.
Question 29: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it ______.
A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake's exact size D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ________.
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 31: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 32: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it ________.
A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 33: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of __________.
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-bome radar equipment
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C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 34: The purpose of the passage is to __________.
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness and its originality of perspective.
Satire itself, however, rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the familiar in a new form. Satirists
do not offer the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar conditions from a perspective
that makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful, or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a
pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false.
Don Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of science; A
Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None of these ideas is original.
Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of pure science before Aldous
Huxley, and people were aware of famine before Swift.
It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It was the manner of expression,
the satiric method, that made them interesting and entertaining. Satires are read because they are
aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are morally wholesome or ethically instructive.
They are stimulating and refreshing because with commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and
secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irreverence, satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar
objects into incongruous juxtaposition, and speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude.
Satire exists because there is need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate a refreshing stimulus,
an irreverent reminder that they live in a world of platitudinous thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish
philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into an awareness of truth, though rarely to any action on behalf
of truth. Satire tends to remind people that much of what they see, hear, and read in popular media is
sanctimonious, sentimental, and only partially true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular
image of it.
A. Difficulties of writing satiric literature.
B. Popular topics of satire.
C. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature.
D. Reasons for the popularity of satire.
Question 36: Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal are cited by the author as .
A. classic satiric works B. a typical approach to satire
C. best satirists of all times D. good critiques by satirists
Question 37: The word “they” refers to _________.
A. works of art B. illusion C. opinions D. satires
Question 38: Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?
A. Newly emerging philosophies.
B. Odd combinations of objects and ideas.
C. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics.
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D. Wholesome characters who are unselfish.
Question 39: According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be _________ .
A. informed about new scientific developments
B. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated
C. reminded that popular ideas may often be inaccurate
D. told how they can be of service to their communities
Question 40: The word “refreshing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. popular B. revitalizing c. common D. awakening
Question 41: The word “sanctimonious” may be new to you. It most probably means “________ ” in
this context.
A. exaggerated B. good C. educational D. moderate
Question 42: The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT .
A. introducing readers to unfamiliar situations B. brushing away illusions
C. reminding readers of the truth D. exposing false values
Question 43: Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.
A B C D
Question 44: It is your generosity who I am impressed more than anything else.
A B C D
Question 45: The nutritionist told him to avoid eating lots of carbohydrates, focus having more
A B
protein-rich foods and green vegetables, and drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
C D
Question 46: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail the exam.
C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
Question 47: An loved her teady bear when she was a child. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear so as not to sleep with it.
B. As An couldn’t sleep without her teady bear when she was a child, she loved it.
C. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Question 48: He decided not to go to university and went to work in a restaurant.
A. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant.
B. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university.
C. Instead of going to university, he went to work in a restaurant.
D. He decided to go to work in a restaurant because he liked it.
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Question 49: The secret to success is hard work.
A. Working hard ensures success.
B. If you keep your work secret, you will succeed.
C. One cannot succeed if he has secrets.
D. One must work hard to keep secrets.
Question 50: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
A. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye.
B. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye.
C. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye.
D. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (1) of
options open today’s youngster - or even “oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or
restaurant visit. No longer is it considered sufficient to invite your friends round, buy some food and get a
barker to produce a cake. No, today’s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary,
ranging from the outrageously expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is
unusual and impressive.
Top of this year’s popular (2)________ are as follows: taking some friends rally driving,
helicopter lessons, plane trip and parachuting, and hot air ballooning. Then there is always group bungee
jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach - churning, while water rafting ride down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the young I recently met an octogenarian
(3) _ celebrated (4) the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of
his friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a
distant relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms (5) celebration do continue to satisfy the less
extravagant or less adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I
would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can but dream. Perhaps by the
time I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it.
Question 1: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
Question 2: A. experiments B. extravagances C. exposures D. expenses
Question 3: A. who B. which C. whose D. where
Question 4: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
Question 5: A. to B. for C. of D. about
Question 6: A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
Question 7: A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificent
Question 8: A. chooses B. houses C. mixes D. breathes
Question 9: A. post B. local C. prominent D. hotel
Question 10: You take your life in your hands just crossing the road here.
A. walk hand in hand B. save yourselves C. risk being killed D. go hand in hand
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Question 11: The sales of drugs are controlled by law in most of countries.
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
Question 12: Many people have tried to preserve the ecology of many natural places.
A. reserve B. destroy C. conserve D. maintain
Question 13: My dad is always getting very bad-tempered when when he's tired.
A. feeling embarrassed B. talking too much
C. very happy and satisfied D. easily annoyed or irritated
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B. c. Despite its antiquity, certain
aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near
the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden
passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The
four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible
engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for
the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events - past, present and
future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that
pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with
extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 14: What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body,
C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built in.
Question 15: Extraterrestrial beings are .
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
Question 16: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
Question 17: The word “feat” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to________.
A. accomplishment B. appendage C. festivity D. structure
Question 18: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid.
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C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
Question 19: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology,
C. Advanced tools of measurement. D. knowledge of the earth’s surface.
Question 20: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple,
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
Question 21: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
C. It was built by a super race.
D. It is very old.
following question.
Question 22: The room got when the teacher started the lesson.
A. quiet B. quietness C. quietly D. quite
Question 23: In the years all the trees will disappear if nothing is done to protect them.
A. come B. coming C. to come D. will come
Question 24: The accused guilty to all charges.
A. pleaded B. admitted C. said D. confessed
Question 25: Mrs. Archer is known the finest collection of twentieth century art in private hands.
A. as have B. having C. by having D. to have
Question 26: Mark is nearsighted. He glasses ever since he was ten years old.
A. should have worn B. must wear C. need wear D. has had to wear
Question 27:1 like your new car. What is it?
A. brand B. name C. label D. make
Question 28: Zudic is inviting his family to have dinner.
Zudic: “Let’s have dinner now.”
Mother: “ ”
A. You aren’t eating B. I won’t C. There aren’t any D. Bill isn’t here
Question 29: an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will
Question 30: in business, one must be prepared to take risks.
A. Succeeding B. Success C. To succeed D. Succeed
Question 31: I don’t like this wine. I like .
A. some other B. another C. other D. the other
Question 32: The house is found down.
A. to bum B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
Question 33: The children gazed at the magician as he performed his tricks.
A. eagle-eyed B. hawk-eyed C. open-eyed D. wide-eyed
Question 34: Only in the last few days to repair the swimming pool.
A. anything has been done B. has done anything
C. has anything been done D. has there anything been done
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Question 35: Macy is calling to Mr. Green’s office. A receptionist is answering the phone.
Macy: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please.”
Receptionist: “ .”
A. Sorry, can you say that again? B. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later
C. I’m afraid I don’t know D. Let’s wait
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-
cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted
that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three
strikers - you’re - out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine-man team. “The New York
Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way
of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban - industrial society. At its inception it was it
was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.
During the 1850 - 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under - the - table payments to exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome
of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first -
nine, and their “muffins” (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first
openly all - salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the
complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional
baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by
business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League
Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became
one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-
deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In
1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mis west proclaimed itself the American
League.
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The origin of baseball
B. The commercialization of baseball
C. The influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. The development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 37: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational
opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.
B. Hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball.
C. The “New York” spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
D. Business - minded investors were only interested in profits.
Question 38: The word “lavish” in line 10 is closest in meaning to .
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
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Question 39: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its
inception?
A. A team might consist of 40 members.
B. The president would choose teams from among the members.
C. They didn’t play on weekend.
D. They might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.
Question 40: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except .
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. Wooden stadiums replaced open fields.
B. A weekly periodical commenced.
C. The National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.
D. Profits soared.
Question 42: The word “itself’ in line 22 refers to .
A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American League
Question 43: Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech,
A B C
and indication its correct use.
D
Question 44: Professor Layton was equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he found
A B
the youngest an easier child to handle.
C D
Question 45: Automobile began to be equipped by built-in radios around 1930.
A B C D
Question 46: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regrets cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
Question 47: The contract ended six-month negotiation. It has just been signed.
A. The contract which ends six-month negotiation has just been signed.
B. The contract which has just been signed lasted six months.
C. The contract which lasted six months has just been signed.
D. Do The contract which has just been signed ended six-month negotiation.
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Question 48: It is alleged that Rashid killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his
opportunity to be heir.
A. Rashid was alleged to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity
to be heir.
B. Rashid is alleged that to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his
opportunity to be heir.
C. Rashid is alleged to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity to
be heir.
D. Rashid is alleged have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity to be
heir.
Question 49: “You don’t appreciate me,” she said.
A. She complained that he took her for granted.
B. She said that he didn’t take her for granted.
C. She suggested that he shouldn’t appreciate her.
D. She told him not to appreciate her.
Question 50: Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
B. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
C. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
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Question 1: A. criticize B. miserable C. inferior D. questionable
Question 2: A. pharmaceutical B. engineer C. superstitious D. reliability
Question 3: A. too B. food C. soon D. good
Question 4: A. culture B. country C. such D. music
Question 5: She may look half asleep, but I can assure you she is__________awake.
A. broad B. full C. well D. wide
Question 6: It’s important to project a(n)_______image during the interview.
A. upbeat B. cheerful C. optimistic D. positive
Question 7: His comments________little or no relation to the facts of the case.
A. give B. bear C. posses D. reflect
Question 8: The children can stay here_______they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until
Question 9: It’s a serious operation for a man as old as my grandfather. He is very frail. I hope he______.
A. gets away B. comes round C. pulls through D. stands up
Question 10: When Martin_________the car, he took it out for a drive.
A. had repaired B. has repaired C. repaired D. was repairing
Question 11: Ms. Brook and Ms. Barack are talking about Ms. Barack’s son.
Ms. Book: “_______.”
Ms. Barack: “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your child is just adorable! B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your kid is naughty. D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
Question 12: Hasan and Huckfin are talking after finishing their final test.
Hasan: “The test results will be released at 9 a.m tomorrow!”
Huckfin: “Will it?_________”
A. Can I wait for it? B. Could it wait? C. Yes, please. D. I can’t wait!
Question 13: Clean the floor________the children slip and fall.
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A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 14: Left - hand traffic, a custom existing in Britain only,_______back to the days when English
people went to and fro on horseback.
A. dated B. dating C. dates D. which dates
Question 15: They can hardly expect profits to double again this year, ?
A. can’t they B. do they C. don’t they D. can they
Question 16: The disaster has caused_______damage to the area.
A. consider B. considering C. considered D. considerable
Question 17: Children can be difficult to teach because of their short attention_____.
A. limit B. duration C. span D. time
Question 18: The optic fiber was a major______in the field of telecommunications.
A. break down B. breakthrough C. revolution D. technique
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of
the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam
that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of
fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly
simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity
where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy
sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global
scale.
Question 19: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 20: According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
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A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 21: Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”?
A. Capturing B. Harassing C. Depleting D. Exporting
Question 22: According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 23: According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy
production?
A. They both require the use of a generator. B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface,
C. They both require fairly simple technology. D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 24: According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 25: What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 26: What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power.
Question 27: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task done in time.
A. feel thankful for B. depreciate C. require D. are proud of
Question 28: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. changed completely B. cleaned well C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly
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Question 29: The crew divided the life preservers among the twenty terrified passengers as the ship
began to sink.
A. exhausted B. surprised C. excited D. interested
Question 30: He went to a seaside resort because he was keen on water- skiing.
A. bored with B. proud of C. tired of D. impassioned
Question 31: Providing relief after the disaster necessitated the mobilization of vast amounts of food,
A B
medical supply, and people.
C D
Question 32: It was CFCs. which were used in aerosols, refrigerators and solvents, which made the
A B C
dangerous hole in the ozone layer over Antartica.
D
Question 33: For thousands of years, man has gazed up at the beckoning stars and dreaming of flight to
A B C
worlds beyond his own.
D
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know what an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the
Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a single company. In fact,
intranets make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (34)_____computers and people. This
means that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your
intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (35)______which is stored in different
places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (36)_____where
it comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for unimportant information like office memos
or canteen menus. But an intranet should provide important information which people need to make
decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (37)_______to share their information with
other people. Unfortunately, many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with
others. Another problem (38)____often occurs is that top managers like to use the intranet to
“communicate down” rather than to “communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet to give orders,
not to share information between themselves and others working in the same organization.
Question 34: A. contact B. compare C. distinguish D. introduce
Question 35: A. information B. properties C. elements D. parts
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Question 36: A. to B. on C. with D. of
Question 37: A. going B. willing C. likely D. happened
Question 38: A. that B. when C. where D. whose
Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their position, inform them that
land is near, and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at prominent points on the
coast and on islands, reefs, and sandbars.
Every lighthouse has a distinctive pattern of light known as its characteristic. There are five basic
characteristics: fixed, flashing, occulting, group flashing, and group occulting. A fixed signal is a steady
beam. A flashing signal has periods of darkness longer than periods of light, while an occulting signal’s
periods of light are longer. A group-flashing light gives off two or more flashes at regular intervals, and a
group - occulting signal consists of a fixed light with two or more periods of darkness at regular intervals.
Some lighthouses use lights of different colors as well, and today, most lighthouses are also equipped
with radio beacons. The three types of apparatus used to produce the signals are the catoptric, in which
metal is used to reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in which both
glass and metal are used.
In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most typical
structure is a tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse on the Saint Lawrence
River, are shaped like pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock light, look like wooden houses sitting
on high platforms. Still others, such as The American Shoal lighthouse off the Florida Coast, are skeletal
towers of steel. Where lighthouses might be contused in daylight, they can be distinguished by day-
marker patterns - designed of checks and stripes painted in vivid colors on lighthouse walls.
In the past, the job of lighthouse keeper was lonely and difficult if somewhat romantic. Lighthouse
keepers put in hours of tedious work maintaining the lights. Today, lighthouses are almost entirely
automated with humans supplying only occasional maintenance. Because of improvements in
navigational technology, the importance of lighthouses has diminished. There are only about 340
functioning lighthouses in existence in the United States today, compared to about 1,500 in 1900, and
there are only about 1,400 functioning lighthouses outside the United States. Some decommissioned
lighthouses have been preserved as historical monument.
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the functions of
lighthouses?
A. To help sailors determine their location B. To warn of danger from rocks and reefs
C. To notify sailors that bad weather is approaching D. To indicate that land is near
Question 40: In the context of this passage, the author uses the term “characteristic” to refer to a_____.
A. period of darkness B. person who operates a lighthouse
C. pattern painted on a lighthouse D. distinctive light signal
Question 41: According to the passage, what kind of signal has long periods of light that are regularly
broken by two or more periods of darkness?
A. Flashing B. Group occulting C. occulting D. Group flashing
Question 42: According to the passage, a catoptric apparatus is one that uses_________.
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A. lights of various colors B. metal
C. glass D. a radio beacon
Question 43: For which of the following does the author NOT provide a scientific example in the third
paragraph?
A. A lighthouse shaped like a pyramid.
B. A lighthouse made of steel,
C. A lighthouse with day-marker patterns.
D. A lighthouse that resembles a house on a platform.
Question 44: The word “tapering” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. soaring B. narrowing C. opening D. rotating
Question 45: The author implies that, compared to those of the past, contemporary lighthouses______.
A. employ more powerful lights B. require less maintenance
C. are more difficult to operate D. are more romantic
Question 46: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
C. Women cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. In the past, women covered their heads but they do so today in some countries.
Question 47: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 48: Buying new clothes is something that I almost never make the effort to.
A. I hardly ever bother purchasing new clothes.
B. Not having bought any new clothes doesn’t bother me.
C. Almost all my clothes are old since I never buy any new ones.
D. It’s such a bother to buy new clothes that I never do it.
Question 49: Throughout his life, the fisherman suffered from great poverty.
A. The fisherman was so poor that he died young.
B. The fisherman’s life was one of great poverty.
C. Poverty prevented the fisherman from enjoying life.
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D. Although the fisherman was poor, he led a great life.
Question 50: “Mum, please don’t tell Dad about my mistake,” the boy said.
A. The mother was forced to keep her son’s mistake as a secret when he insisted.
B. The boy earnestly insisted that his mother tell his father about his mistake.
C. The boy requested his mother not to talk about his mistake any more.
D The boy begged his mother not to tell his father about his mistake.
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Question 1: A. tasty B. wastage C. nasty D. hasten
Question 2: A. preface B. prepare C. preparation D. prejudice
Question 3: A. ordinary B. emphasis C. decompose D. calendar
Question 4: A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
following question.
Question 5: The school was closed for a month because of a serious_____of fever.
A. outbreak B. outburst C. outset D. outcome
Question 6: Many plant and animal species are now on the ______ of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin
Question 7: There you are: the__________person I was looking for.
A. utter B. correct C. ever D. very
Question 8: A patient is talking to a receptionist at a medical clinic.
Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?"
Receptionist: “__________”
A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour.
Question 9: My wallet_________at the station while I_______for the train.
A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting
C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting
Question 10: The new manager_________very strict rules as soon as he had_______the position.
A. laid down/taken over B. put down/taken over
C. lay down/taken up D. wrote down/come over
Question 11: “I can’t remember us ever_______”, replied the stranger.
A. to meet B. to have met C. being met D. having met
Question 12: Meggy is complimenting Marie on her new dress.
Meggy: “Wow! What a nice dress you are wearing!”
Marie: “_______”
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A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Question 13: The sick child must stay away from others because he has a_____disease.
A. communicate B. communicable C. communicator D. communication
Question 14: Although the conditions weren’t ideal for a walk, we decided to______a go of it.
A. make B. do C. run D. carry
Question 15: Who was the first person__________the South pole?
A. reaching B. who reaches C. to reach D. reached
Question 16: She clearly joined the firm with a (an)_________to improving herself professionally.
A. view B. aim C. plan D. ambition
Question 17: Owing to the fog, his flight to Tokyo was_________.
A. belated B. unscheduled C. overdue D. unpunctual
Question 18: Where have you been? You were_________to be here half an hour ago.
A. allowed B. had C. supposed D, thought
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to
a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for
example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons
sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into
contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body
becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have
a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk,
eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not
develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months.
Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine,
phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are
chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas,
cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!).
Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives,
especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green
peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the
book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether
the diet is effective.
Question 19: The topic of this passage is_______.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 20: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to____.
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A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 21: The phrase “set off’ in lines 12 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 22: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 23: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant's___________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
Question 24: The word "these" in line 18 refers to___________.
A. food additives B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods D. foods high in silicates
Question 25: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
Question 26: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT___________.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Question 27: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, and
A B
television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
C D
Question 28: Migrant workers live in substandard unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often
A B C
are lacking medical care.
D
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Question 29: Because the expense of traditional fuels and the concern that they may mn out, many
A B C
countries have been investigating alternative sources of power.
D
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
How men first leamt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a
(30)_______. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to
express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and
that later they agreed (31)______certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those
sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (32)_________spoken or written in letters, are
called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in
words that appeal powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what
we call literacy type. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (33)________his meanings in
words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can move men to tears. We
should therefore, leam to choose our words carefully, (34)___ they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Question 30: A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
Question 31: A. at B. upon C. with D. to
Question 32: A. if B. however C. whether D. though
Question 33: A. carry B. convey C. transfer D. transmit
Question 34: A. or B. so C. although D. because
Question 35: If it’s raining tomorrow, we’ll have to postpone the match till Sunday.
A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away
Question 36: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and packaging.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of
C. with a view to D. in regard to
Question 37: The government is encouraging everyone to save water by not washing their cars.
A. conserve B. waste C. avoid D. collect
Question 38: Be careful not to drop it; it’s very fragile.
A. strong B. breakable C. angry D. pissed off
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor.
This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve
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them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable
objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic,
which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that
projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in
just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years.
The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and
thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins
they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure
does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved
in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is
lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract
more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are
lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To
counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the
wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
Question 40: The word "sunken" in line 2 is closest in meaning to________.
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow
Question 41: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
Question 42: The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in line 14 to describe______.
A. something perfect B. something significant
C. something tolerant D. something magical
Question 43: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEP____________.
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware
Question 44: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to________.
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research
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Question 45: The second and third paragraphs are an example of_________.
A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition
Question 46: Had he had money, he would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe
Minh Uy.
A. Having money helped him join multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe Minh Uy.
B. He didn’t have money and he didn’t join multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe Minh Uy.
C. Having money, he would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe Minh Uy.
D. He would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe Minh Uy without his amount of
money.
Question 47: You should have taught your children how to cook some simple dishes.
A. It was viatal to teach your children how to cook some simple dishes but you didn’t.
B. You should teach your children how to cook some simple dishes.
C. You taught your children how to cook some simple dishes but they refused to learn.
D. You didn’t teach your children how to cook some simple dishes because of your laziness.
Question 48: Scarcely had we opened the door when we realized we shouldn’t have left the dog home
alone.
A. We used to leave the dog by herself in the house only rarely, and even then would regret it upon our
return home.
B. Every time we have to go out, we wonder whether leaving the dog in the house by herself would be a
good idea.
C. The moment we opened the door, it became obvious that the dog had not really been alone in the
house.
D. We knew leaving the dog at the house by herself had been a bad idea as soon as we opened the door.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 50: "Cigarette?", he said. "No, thanks.", I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
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Question 1: Despite fats and oil are nutritionally important as energy sources, medical research indicates
A B C D
that saturated fats may contribute to hardening of the arteries.
Question 2: Searching for alternate forms of energy does not necessary mean the abandonment of fossil
A B C
fuels as an energy source.
D
Question 3: Cool temperature, shade, moist and the presence of dead organic material provide the ideal
A B C
living conditions for mushrooms.
D
Quite apart from the economic similarity between present-day automation and the mechanization,
(4)_______has been proceeding for centuries, it must also be stressed that even in the United States,
automation is by no means the only factor displace people from existing jobs. The increasing number of
unneeded workers in recent years has been the result of much more simple and old-fashioned influences:
farm laborers have been (5) _________out of work by bigger tractors, miners by the cheapness of oil, and
railway-men by better roads. It is quite wrong, therefore, to think of automation as some new monster
whose arrival threatens the existence of employment in the same way that the arrival of myxomatosis
threatened the existence of the rabbit. Automation is one aspect of technological changes (changes in
tastes, changes in social patterns, changes in organization) which (6)________in certain jobs disappearing
and certain skills ceasing to be required. And even in America, which has a level of technology and
output per (7)______much in advance of Britain’s, there is no evidence that the pace of change is actually
speeding up. Nevertheless changes in the amount of labor needed to produce a certain output are
proceeding fairly rapidly in America - and in (8)_______countries - and may proceed more rapidly in
future. Indeed it is one of the main objects of economic policy.
Question 4: A. that B. who C. which D. when
Question 5: A. put B. fit C. set D. dismissed
Question 6: A. result B. reside C. end D. prospect
Question 7: A. human B. head C. unit D. piece
Question 8: A. another B. others C. other D. each
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Question 9: A. historian B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
Question 10: A. magnificent B. miraculous C. superior D. electronic
Question 11: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
Question 12: A. eliminate B. equality C. educator D. encourage
356 I LOVE BOOK. VN
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body
takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the
nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time
that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided
different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that
rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing
adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called “the
vitamin period.” Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might
be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested
in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this
education was on the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately
turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were
made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall
into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It
was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and
were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the
virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of
vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies
are much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems
of under nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
A. The effects of vitamins on the human body.
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present.
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century.
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Question 14: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
Question 15: It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition
in order to .
A. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
B. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. support the creation of artificial vitamins
Question 16: The word “them” in line 16 refers to_______.
A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
Question 17: Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?
A. The public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
C. Nutritional research was of poor quality.
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
Question 18: The word “skyrocketing” is closest in meaning to_________.
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly
C. acceptable D. surprising
Question 19: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses?
A. The fourth era of nutrition history. B. Problems associated with undemutrition.
C. How drug companies became successful. D. Why nutrition education lost its appeal.
Question 20: The murderer was_______to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. sentenced B. convicted C. accused D. prosecuted
Question 21: After so many years, it is great to see him_______his ambitions.
A. realise B. get C. possess D. deserve
Question 22: We still meet up for a drink and a chat once_______.
A. in a blue moon B. in a while C. at a time D. in a black mood
Question 23: _________in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
A. Enough protein is obtained B. Obtaining enough protein
C. They obtain enough protein D. By obtaining enough protein
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Question 24: A student is talking to the school librarian.
Student: "I would like to join the library."
Librarian: “_____________”
A. OK. Would you like to fill in this form? B. OK. This is the form that requires us.
C. OK. I would like to fill in this form. D. OK. See if you can join.
Question 25: I hope that by the time our rivals_______ out about this deal, we________all the contracts.
A. found/had been signed B. will fìnd/are signing
C. have found/will sign D. find/will have signed
Question 26: Never say that again,_______?
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 27: Susie is talking to Kimy after hearing the announcement.
A: “_________.”
B: “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I have been chosen B. I have made up my mind
C. I couldn’t concentrate on work D. I didn’t get the scholarship
Question 28:_______my ex would be there, I wouldn’t have agreed to come.
A. If I knew B. Had known I C. Had I known D. I had known
Question 29: I made sure I had all the facts__________my fingertips before attending the meeting.
A. with B. at C. by D. for
Question 30:__________in 1937, the Golden Bridge spans the channel at the entrance to San Francisco
Bay.
A. Completed B. Completing C. being completed D. to be completed
Question 31: Rows and silences are________ and parcel of any marriage.
A. package B. stamps C. packet D. part
Question 32: The Browns had gone out for dinner when I arrived, I supposed they __________ I was
coming.
A. must have forgotten B. should have forgotten
C. would have forgotten D. need have forgotten
Question 33: Don't worry! Our new product will keep your bathroom clean and _________.
A. odourless B. odour C. odourful D. odourlessly
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea animals. Humanity's
unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a worldwide slaughter that may result in
the extinction of many coastal shark species. The shark is the victim of a warped attitude of wildlife
protection; we strive only to protect the beautiful, non-threatening parts of our environment. And, in our
efforts to restore only non-threatening parts of our earth, we ignore other important parts.
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A perfect illustration of this attitude is the contrasting attitude toward another large sea animal, the
dolphin. During the 1980s, environmentalists in the United States protested the use of driftnets for tuna
fishing in the Pacific Ocean since these nets also caught dolphins. The environmentalists generated
enough political and economic pressure to prevent tuna companies from buying tuna that had been caught
in driftnets. In contrast to this effort on behalf of the dolphins, these same environmentalists have done
very little to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks whose population has decreased nearly to the point of
extinction.
Sharks are among the oldest creatures on earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million
years. They are extremely efficient animals, feeding on wounded or dying animals, thus performing an
important role in nature of weeding out the weaker animals in a species. Just the fact that species such as
the Great White Shark have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proof
of their efficiency and adaptability to changing environments. It is time for US humans, who may not
survive another 1,000 years at the rate we are damaging the planet, to cast away our fears and begin
considering the protection of sharks as an important part of a program for protection of all our natural
environment.
Question 34: With which of the following topics is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Sharks are efficient creatures with bad reputations.
B. Sharks are some of the oldest creatures on earth.
C. Sharks illustrate a problem in wildlife protection.
D. The campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks.
Question 35: The word "protested" is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. prescribed B. objected to C. protected D. reflected on
Question 36: How did environmentalists manage to protect dolphins?
A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat.
B. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law.
C. They brought political pressure against tuna companies.
D. They created sanctuaries where dolphin fishing was not allowed.
Question 37: About how long have sharks lived on the planet?
A. 25 million years B. 150 million years
C. 350 million years D. 500 million years
Question 38: The phrase “to cast away” means most nearly_____.
A. to throw off B. to bring in C. to see through D. to set apart
Question 39: What is the author's tone in this passage?
A. explanatory B. accusatory C. gentle D. proud
Question 40: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. order of importance B. cause and effect
C. statement and example D. chronological order
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
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A. We are only protecting the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment.
B. Worldwide slaughter of sharks may lead to the extinction of these animals.
C. Environmentalists didn't approve of using driftnets to catch tuna because they also caught dolphins.
D. Tuna fishing is one of the causes that lead to the decrease in the number of tuna in the Pacific Ocean.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D onyour answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 42: A brief outline of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first
meeting.
A. dispensed B. dispersed C. distributed D. contributed
Question 43: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of
the island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Question 44: Our knowledge of malaria has advanced considerably over recent years.
A. held at B. held back C. held to D. held by
Question 45: The jury concluded from the evidence that the defendant was innocent and released him at
once.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
Question 46: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
Question 47: What has happened? You look as if you have been in the wars.
A. You look like an old soldier.
B. You are wearing many medals.
C. You look as though something unpleasant has happened to you.
D. You look as though you have been fighting.
Question 48: No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.
A. He had just entered the house when the pollice arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.
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D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.
Question 49: "Why don't you put an advertisement in the local paper?" they told me.
A. They suggested my putting an advertisement in the local paper.
B. They suggested me to put an advertisement in the local paper.
C. They suggested that I must put an advertisement in the local paper.
D. They suggested me should put an advertisement in the local paper.
Question 50: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
B. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
C. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
D. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
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Question 1: This cheese isn’t fit for eating. It’s___________all over after lying in the bin for so long.
A. spoiled B. mouldy C. sour D. rusty
Question 2: _______, the whole family slept soundly.
A. Hot though the night air was B. Hot though was the night air
C. Hot although the night air was D. Hot although was the night air
Question 3: Linda and Suka are talking about Thomas.
Linda: "Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs.”
Suka: “_________.”
A. He’s such a know-all B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs
C. He knows enough D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs
Question 4: The new office block__________well with its surroundings.
A. blends in B. stands out C. shapes up D. sets off
Question 5: A wife is cooking and talking to her husband.
Wife: "The cupboard in our kitchen is broken."
Husband: “_________.”
A. But it’s big B. We have to pay extra money
C. But it’s small D. We’ll get it fixed
Question 6: Please don’t tell me what happens in the end because I_________the book yet.
A. haven’t been reading B. don’t read
C. haven’t read D. haven’t been read
Question 7: We are proud of our________staff, who are always friendly and courteous.
A. well-paid B. well-educated C. well-done D. well-trained
Question 8: Without my parent’s support. I____ my oversea study.
A. will not complete B. did not complete
C. had not completed D. would not have completed
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Question 9: When I got my case back, it had been damaged__________repair.
A. over B. further C. above D. beyond
Question 10: The process of______in plants involves a complex series of______reactions.
A. respiration/ chemistry B. respire/ chemical
C. respiration/ chemical D. respiration/ chemist
Question 11: Not only______a good physician but also a talented violist.
A. she is famous as B. she appears to be
C. is she known as D. appears as she is
Question 12: Her family has gone to Edinburgh to pay their last_______ to uncle Bob who died last
week.
A. sympathy B. love C. respects D. honors
Question 13: It’s not easy to make Janet furious. The girl is very gentle by_____.
A. herself B. nature C. personality D. reaction
Question 14: Someone left the messages,___________?
A. didn’t they B. did they C. did he D. didn’t he
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and
gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as
a practical application of Einstein's work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office
at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers.
The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic
particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light.
In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have
some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the
"special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed
of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe.
The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein
presented his famous formula, E = mc2, known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein
published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the
space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass. Einstein spoke out frequently against
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nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported
Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in
1933, they denounced his ideas.
He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the
uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D.Roosevelt warning him that this scientific
knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its
own atomic bomb research.
Question 15: Einstein's primary work was in the area of_________.
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. engineering
Question 16: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einstein's discoveries?
A. Radio B. Automobiles C. Computers D. Television
Question 17: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except_______.
A. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine
B. nationalism
C. atomic bomb research in the United States
D. the defeat of the Nazis
Question 18: What did Einstein propose in the theory of light?
A. Time and motion are relative to the observer. B. E = mc2
C. Light is composed of separate packets of energy. D. Gravity is not a force.
Question 19: What is “Brownian movement”?
A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension.
B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light.
C. The motion of photons in light.
D. The basis of the theory of relativity.
Question 20: According to Einstein's special theory of relativity,_______.
A. all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula
B. light is composed of separate packets of energy
C. time and motion are relative to the observer
D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light
Question 21: In line 15, the word “exalting” most nearly means_________.
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A. elevation B. criticism C. support D. elimination
Question 22: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called____.
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. quanta D. gamma rays
Question 23: A. indigenous B. significant C. scientific D. peculiar
Question 24: A. habitat B. balcony C. bachelor D. gorilla
Question 25: A. download B. growth C. blow D. shadow
Question 26: A. heard B. search C. learn D. beard
Instructors at American colleges and universities use many different teaching methods. Some
instructors give assignments everyday. They grade homework. Students in their classes have to take many
quizzes, a midterm exam, and a final test. Other instructors give only writing assignments. Some teachers
always follow a course outline and usually use the text book. Others send students to the library for
assignments.
The atmosphere in some classrooms is very formal. Students call their instructors “Professor Smith,”
“Mrs Jones,” and so on. Some teachers wear business clothes and give lectures. Other classrooms have
an informal atmosphere. Students and teachers discuss their ideas. Instructors dress informally, and
students call them by their first names. American teachers are not alike in their teaching styles.
At most American colleges and universities, facilities for learning and recreation are available to
students. Students can often use type-writers, tape recorders, video machines, and computers at libraries
and learning centres. They can buy books, notebooks, and other things at campus stores. They can get
advice on their problems from counselors and individual help with their classes from tutors. Students can
relax and have fun on campus, too. Some schools have swimming pools and tennis courts. Most have
snack bars and cafeterias.
Question 27: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Ways of using the textbook. B. Ways of giving assignments.
C. Ways of teaching. D. Ways of taking an exam.
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Question 28: Where do students call their instructors “Professor Smith,” “Mrs Jones,”?
A. In classrooms with informal atmosphere B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere
C. At libraries D. At learning centres
Question 29: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. American teachers do not dress informally.
B. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always formal.
C. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always relaxed and friendly.
D. American students can call their teachers by their first names.
Question 30: What does the phrase “business clothes” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. clothes that only business people wear. B. trendy clothes.
C. casual clothes. D. formal clothes.
Question 31: Where do students and teachers discuss their ideas?
A. In classrooms with informal atmosphere. B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere.
C. At libraries. D. At learning centres.
Question 32: What can’t students do at most American colleges and universities?
A. buy anything at campus stores.
B. ask their counselors and tutors for advice.
C. use the computers that are linked to libraries.
D. have tutors and counselors solved their problems.
Question 33: Which of the following statements is NOT true about schools in America?
A. They are well-equipped.
B. They have stores on campus.
C. They have no recreation facilities.
D. They offer sports and leisure facilities for students.
Question 34: If she attended the lesson yesterday, she could understand it now.
A B C D
Question 35: Originated in Ethiopia, coffee was drunk in the Arab world before it came to Europe in the
A B C
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17th century.
Question 36: In a hot sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids, wearing A
A B C
lighter clothing and experience a darkening of the skin.
When I was a little girl growing up in the 1940, we didn’t have much in the way of material things.
The Great Depression had hit just about everyone, and we were just climbing out (37)______it. My dad
had a job in a factory, and mom stayed at home with the kids. I got a new outfit (38)_______a year, and
that was only because mom was pretty good at the sewing machine. Good thing, too, because when
World War II came, mom got a job sewing uniforms for the soldiers. The extra money helped, and by the
time I was in my teens in the late 1950s we had enough to get one of those fancy new TV.
I decided around that time I didn’t want to work in a factory or sew like my mom had. I wanted to go
to the college. I wanted to be a lawyer. Though others scoffed, my parents told me that they would
support me in any way they could. Fortunately, I worked hard at school and got a scholarship. It wasn’t
easy, but a few years later I was a lawyer. In the late ‘60s I knew I could use my education and spirit to
help our nation. I took a job working against discrimination. (39)______is where I met your grandpa. He
was not only handsome but believed in the same things I did. When your mom came along, I took a year
(40)_____but when back to work, we were able to (41)_______a color TV, and like me, your mom was a
glued to it.
Question 37: A. of B. from C. into D. for

Question 38: A. much B. X C. once D. many times
Question 39: A. That B. Which C. There D. Here
Question 40: A. in B. on C. off D. down
Question 41: A. afford B. build C. borrow D. lend
Question 42: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. encourage B. congratulate C. respect D. welcome
Question 43: After a great deal of questioning, he decided to come clean and tell the truth.
A. admit B. confess C. agree D. deny
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Question 44: I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. correct B. right C. proper D. unsuitable
Question 45: If you book in advance you will certainly have a better table at our restaurant.
A. beforehand B. afterward C. immediately D. now
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 46: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to attend her bridal shower.
A. She had left to take a shower because I was not on time.
B. I arrived very late to attend her bridal shower.
C. I did not go there, so I could not attend her bridal shower.
D. I was not early enough to attend her bridal shower.
Question 47: Extreme weather may be a cause of poverty in many countries. War may be a cause of
poverty in many countries.
A. Extreme weather and war are caused by poverty in many countries.
B. Both extreme weather and war result from poverty in many countries.
C. Not only extreme weather but also war may lead to poverty in many countries.
D. Apart from war, extreme weather also contributes to poverty in many countries.
each of the following questions
Question 48: “Can I see your ticket please?”
A. The inspector asked to see my ticket.
B. The inspector offered to see my ticket.
C. The inspector expected to see my ticket.
D„ The inspector asked for my ticket.
Question 49: Only customers with coupons may use the service
A. The service is availablse for coupons only
B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of coupons
C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons
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Question 1: The streets are crowded with a population when have no interest in learning.
A B C D
Question 2: The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn’t it?
A B C D
Question 3: The duties of the secretary are to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence, and calling
A B C
the members before the meetings.
D
Question 4: A. overwhelming B. incredible C. optimistic D. intellectual
Question 5: A. justice B. diverse C. series D. current
Question 6: A. retake B. rewrite C. recollect D. rearrange
Question 7: A. postcard B. custard C. standard D. drunkard
Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just making
noises. To talk and also be understood by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to
usecombinations of sounds (8)______everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or ideA.
Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language
properly is very (9)______. The basic grammar of English is not very large, and not only about 2,000
words are needed to speak it quite well. But the more idea you can (10)_____the more precise you can be
(11)______their exact meaning. Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say.
The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and
(12)______whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 8: A. who B. whose C. that D. when
Question 9: A. easy B. important C. simple D. expensive
Question 10: A. need B. grow C. express D. pass
Question 11: A. for B. about C. towards D. on
Question 12: A. show B. ask C. understand D. know
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Question 13: ______after the World War II, the United Nations has been actively carrying out its
convention to stop wars and bring peace to nations worldwide.
A. Established B. Found
C. To be establised D. Having been found
Question 14: Many citizens say that they are______of the political policies of the candidates in a local
election.
A. ignorant B. ignoring C. ignorantly D. ignorance
Question 15: Are there any interesting_____in the paper?
A. news B. pieces of news C. piece of news D. new
Question 16: We’ve decided to interview only ten for the job.
A. applicants B. applicable C. appliances D. applications
Question 17: I didn't mean to leave her name off the list; it was an
A. overchange B. overtone C. oversight D. overtime
Question 18: Handy and Hobby are talking when they see each other in a supermarket.
Handy: “__________”
Hobby: “You know, I have lost my purse somewhere.”
A. What do you want? B. How can I help you?
C. Where should we go? D. Why do you look upset?
Question 19: She has the determination that her brother_______.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
Question 20: Not much happened yet,______?
A. did they B. didn’t it C. did it D. didn’t they
Question 21: “Which of the two boys is a boy scout?” - “_______of them is.”
A. All B. None C. Neither D. Both
Question 22: His_______of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness B. inattention C. unfamiliarity D. disregard
Question 23: A customer is talking to the waiter right after his dish is served.
Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my dish.”
Waiter: “__________”
A. I am sorry for saying so B. I am terribly sorry!
C. I’m afraid of fly D. You can say that
Question 24: I think you should stay_______.
A. calm B. tranquil C. peaceful D. quiet
Question 25: None of US has ever_________of cheating in class.
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A. declared B. persisted C. approved D. concluded
Question 26: Tom had a lucky escape. He_____killed when a car crashed into the front of his house.
A. could have been B. must have been C. should have been D. would have been
The ocean bottom- a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth- is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean
floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally
without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth’s surface,
deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the
void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning
of the National Science Foundation’s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first
developed for the offshore oil gas industry, the Dad’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to
maintain a steady position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of
sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in
November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core
samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger’s
core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of
years ago and to calculate what it will look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the
strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on
the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that
shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the
intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates.
This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change-information
that may be used to predict future climates
Question 27: The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it_________.
A. attracts courageous explorers B. is not a popular area for scientific research
C. contains a wide variety of life forms D. is an unknown territory
Question 28: The author mention outer space in the first paragraph because______.
A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration
C. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space
D. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
Question 29: Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
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A. It is a type of submarine. B. It has gone on over 100 voyages.
C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. D. It is an ongoing project.
Question 30: The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was_______.
A. attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
C. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
D. composed of geologists from all over the world
Question 31: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to_______.
A. sediments B. cores C. climates D. years
Question 32: The DSDP can be said to be______in terms of geological exploration.
A. a total flop B. a waste of time and effort
C. a great success D. of crucial importance
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea
Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth’s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen
D. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
correct answer to each of the questions
In the United States, it is important to be on time, or punctual, for an appointment, a class, a meeting,
ect... This may not be true in some other countries, however. An American professor discovered this
difference while teaching a class in a Brazilian university. The two-hour class was scheduled to begin at
10 A.m., and end at 12 A.m. On the first day, when the professor arrived on time, no one was in the
classroom. Many students came after 11 A.m. Although all of the students greeted the professor as they
arrived, few apologised for their lateness. Were these students being rude? He decided to study the
students’ behavior.
In American university, students are expected to arrive at the appointed hour. On the other hand, in
Brazil, neither the teacher nor the students always arrive at the appointed hour. Classes not only begin at
the scheduled time in the United States, but they also end at the scheduled time. In the Brazilian class,
only a few students left the class at noon, many remained past 12:30 to discuss the class and ask more
questions. While arriving late may not be important in Brazil, neither is staying late.
The explanation for these differences is complicated. People from Brazilian and North American
cultures have different feelings about lateness. In Brazil, the students believe that a person who usually
arrives late is probably more successful than a person who is always on time. In fact, Brazilians expect a
person with status or prestige to arrive late, while in the United States, lateness is usually considered to be
disrespectful and unacceptable. Consequently, if a Brazilian is late for an appointment with a North
America, the American may misinterpret the reason for the lateness and become angry.
As a result for his study, the professor learned that the Brazilian students were not being
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disrespectful to him. Instead, they were simply behaving the appropriate way for a Brazilian student in
Brazil. Eventually, the professor was able to adapt his own behavior to feel comfortable in the new
culture.
A. It is not important to be on time in Brazil.
B. People learn the importance of time when they are children.
C. It is important to be on time for class in the United States.
D. The importance of being on time differs among different countries.
Question 35: All of these following sentences are true for the first day of the professor in Brazil
EXCEPT_________.
A. Many students came after 11 A.m.
B. He was late for the class.
C. The class was scheduled to begin at 10 A.m and end at 12 A.m.
D. All of the students greeted him when they arrived.
Question 36: Why did the professor study the Brazilian students’ behaviour?
A. None of the students apologized for their lateness.
B. He wanted to understand why the students came late.
C. He wanted to make the students come to class on time.
D. The students seemed very rude to him.
Question 37: The word “rude” is closest in meaning to________.
A. respectful B. polite C. noisy D. impolite
Question 38: In general, what did the Brazilian students think about people who are late?
A. They are disrespectful people. B. they are rude people.
C. They are successful people. D. They are important people.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that_______.
A. Most American students arrive after the class has begun.
B. Most Brazilian students leave immediately when the class is finished.
C. Brazilian students often come late and leave early.
D. For most Americans, being late is unacceptable.
Question 40: What did the professor learn from the study?
A. It’s normal to arrive late for class in Brazil.
B. Brazilian students are disrespectful to him.
C. Brazilian students never apologize for their behavior.
D. Brazilian students are very rude.
Question 41: The word "misinterpret" is closest in meaning to_____.
A. mismanage B. misread C. misunderstand D. misreport
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Question 42: The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. simple B. complicated C. boring D. slow
Question 43: In contrast to her husband, she is a very down-to-earth sort of person who manages to
control his wild ideas.
A. cynical B. boring C. critical D. practical
Question 44: Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high level of expertise.
A. disablity B. incompetence C. inexperience D. abnormality
Question 45: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Question 46: The critics undervalued his new book.
A. The critics rejected his new book. B. The critics were fed up with his new book.
C. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. D. The critics turned down his new book.
Question 47: “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady.
B. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady.
C. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady.
D. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.
Question 48: You should have studied electrical engineering, as it would have made it much easier for
you to find a job.
A. It is very easy for qualified engineers to find jobs, so keep this in mind when choosing your career.
B. If I were you, I would study electrical engineering since there are plenty of jobs for people in that
profession
C. If you choose to study electrical engineering, you wouldn’t have many troubles in finding job.
D. Had you studied electrical engineering, you would not have had nearly so many troubles finding a
job.
Question 49: The football match was so exciting. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all
through it.
A. Despite the exciting football match, not all the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
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B. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly to make the match exciting all through it.
C. When the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly, the football match became exciting all through it.
D. The football match was so exciting that the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
Question 50: The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down
completely.
A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.
D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the
flames.
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Question 1: A. forward B. preface C. index D. mature
Question 2: A. elaborately B. mysteriously C. originally D. necessarily
Question 3: A. cost B. post C. roast D. toast
Question 4: A. thankful B. therefore C. everything D. lengthy
Question 5: The boy next door fell off his bike yesterday but he was all right. He_______himself badly.
A. should have hurt B. would hurt C. could have hurt D. must hurt
Question 6: We walked in the streets where the noise of the traffic was rather____.
A. deafened B. deaf C. deafening D. deafness
Question 7: Mr. Henry was given a medal in_____of his service to his country.
A. response B. gratitude C. recognition D. knowledge
Question 8: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly______from the back”, the teacher said.
A. eligible B. audible C. edible D. visible
Question 9: If he is in trouble, it is his own fault; I personally wouldn’t_______a finger to help him.
A. bend B. turn C. rise D. lift
Question 10: A passenger is asking the policeman for direction.
Passenger: “_________”
Policeman: “Yeah, down this street, on the left”
A. Is there a station near here? B. How often does the train come?
C. Is this a train station? D. Would you like to go by train?
Question 11: Forget all and try your best next time. Lightning never________twice in the same place.
A. strikes B. beats C. hits D. attacks
Question 12: He managed to finish his thesis under the ______of his tutor.
A. assistance B. help C. guidance D. aid
Question 13: Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have______any solutions.
A. looked into B. come up with C. thought over D. got round to
Question 14: There had been a recommendation that Hilary Clinton_______the president of the country.
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A. would be elected B. be elected C. were elected D. was elected
Question 15: Many______crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. habitual B. traditional C. customary D. ordinary
Question 16: I know you think she is weak-willed but I’ve always found her quite________.
A. quick-witted B. strong-minded C. self-centered D. hard-hearted
Question 17: Lumia is expressing her apology for breaking Oppo’s bowl.
Lumia: “I am sorry. I broke the bowl.”
Oppo: “_________.”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly
C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not
Question 18: Now, don’t tell anyone else what I’ve just told you. Remember, it is ________.
A. confidence B. confident C. confidential D. confidentially
Question 19: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. On reflection B. For this time only
C. After discussing with my wife D. For the second time
Question 20: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences
Question 21: Retailers are replenishing stocks after one of the strongest holiday sales seasons in recent
years.
A. remaking B. emptying C. refilling D. repeating
Question 22: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
correct answer to each of the questions 23 to 29.
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an
empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have
something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are
children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a
subject of concern.
Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “We had a school rule against
wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling
them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.”
Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working
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couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by children
at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had
nightmares and were worried about their own safety
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a
shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get
statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave
their children alone.
Question 23: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means______.
A. a house with too much space B. a house with no furniture
C. a house with no people inside D. a house with nothing inside
Question 24: One thing that the children in the passage share is that___________.
A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families
Question 25: The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who_______.
A. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
C. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
Question 26: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home
C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time
Question 27: What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?
A . Tiredness B. Boredom C. Loneliness D. Fear
Question 28: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by_______.
A. visiting their homes B. talking to them
C. delivering questionaires D. interviewing their parents
Question 29: It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because______.
A. there are too many of them in the whole country
B. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone
C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds
D. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons
The Roman alphabet took thousands of years to develop, from the picture writing of the ancient
Egyptians through modifications by Phoenicians, Greek, Romans, and others. Yet in just a dozen years,
one man, Sequoyah, invented an alphabet for the Cherokee people. Bom in eastern Tennessee, Sequoyah
was a hunter and a silversmith in his youth, as well as an able interpreter who knew Spanish, French and
English.
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Sequoyah wanted his people to have the secret of the “talking leaves” as he called his books of
white people, and so he set out to design a written form of Cherokee. His chief aim was to record his
people’s ancient tribal customs. He began by designing pictographs for every word in the Cherokee
vocabulary. Reputedly his wife, angry with him for his neglect of garden and house, burned his notes, and
he had to start over. This time, having concluded that picture-writing was cumbersome, he made symbols
for the sounds of Cherokee language. Eventually he refined his system to eighty-five characters, which he
borrowed from the Roman, Greek, and Hebrew alphabets. He presented this system to the Cherokee
General Council in 1821, and it was wholeheartedly approved. The response was phenomenal. Cherokees
who had stmggled for months to leam English lettering school picked up the new system in days. Several
books were printed in Cherokee, and in 1828, a newspaper, the Cherokee Phoenix, was first published in
the new alphabet. Sequoyah was acclaimed by his people.
In his later life, Sequoyah dedicated himself to the general advancement of his people. He went to
Washington, D.C, as a representative of the Western tribes. He helped settled bitter differences among
Cherokee after their forced movement by the federal government to the Oklahoma territory in the 1930s.
He died in Mexico in 1843 while searching for groups of lost Cherokee. A statue of Sequoyah represents
Oklahoma in the Statuary Hall in the Capitol building of Washington, DC. However, he is probably
chiefly remembered today because Sequoias, the giant redwood trees of California, are named of him.
Question 30: The passage is mainly concerned with_______.
A. Sequoyah’s experiences in Mexico. B. the development of the Roman alphabet
C. the pictographic system of writing D. the accomplishments of Sequoyah
Question 31: According to the passage, a memorial statue of Sequoyah is located in_______.
A. Tennessee B. Oklahoma C. Mexico D. Washington, DC
Question 32: According to the passage, how long did it take to develop the Cherokee’s alphabet?
A. twelve years B. eighty-five years C. twenty years D. thousands of years
Question 33: In the final version of the Cherokee alphabet system, each of the characters represents a
A. picture B. sound C. word D. thought
Question 34: Why does author mention the giant redwood trees of California in the passage?
A. The trees inspired Sequoyah to write a book.
B. Sequoyah was bom in the vicinity of the redwood forest.
C. The trees were named in Sequoyah’s honor.
D. Sequoyah took his name from those trees.
Question 35: According to the passage, Sequoyah used the phrase “talking leaves” to refer to______.
A. redwood trees B. newspaper C. books D. symbols for sounds
Question 36: The word “cumbersome” is closest in meaning to______.
A. radical B. awkward C. unfamiliar D. simplistic
Question 37: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as alphabet systems that Squoyah
borrowed from EXCEPT________.
A. Egyptian B. Hebrew C. Roman D. Greek
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There are many superstitions in Britain, but one of the most (38)_______held is that it is unlucky to
walk under a ladder even if it means (39)______the pavement into a busy street! If you must pass under a
ladder, you can avoid bad luck by crossing your fingers and keeping them crossed until you have seen a
dog. Alternatively, you may lick your finger and make a cross on the toe of your shoe, and not look again
at the shoe until the mark has dried.
Another common superstition is that it is unlucky to open an umbrella in the house - it will either
bring misfortune to the person who opened it or to the whole (40)______. Anyone opening an umbrella in
the fine weather is unpopular, as it inevitably brings rain!
The number 13 is said to be unlucky for some, and when the 13th day of the month (41)_______on a
Friday, anyone wishing to avoid a bad event had better stay indoors. The worst misfortune that can
happen to a person is caused by breaking a mirror, as it brings seven years of bad luck! The superstition is
supposed to be originated in ancient times, when mirrors were considered to be tools of the gods.
Black cats are generally considered lucky in Britain, even though they are associated with witchcraft.
It is especially lucky if a black cat crosses your path - although in America the exact opposite belief
prevails.
Finally, a commonly held superstition is that of touching wood (42)________luck. This measure is
most often taken if you think you have said something that is tempting fate, such as “My car has never
broken down, touch wood?”
Question 38: A. broadly B. widely C. quickly D. speedily
Question 39: A. jumping off B. keeping from C. stepping off D. running from
Question 40: A. house B. household C. home D. member
Question 41: A. happens B. arrives C. falls D. drops
Question 42: A. as B. in C. for D. of
Question 43: Prince Harry and Ms. Meghan Markle have asked that the people chosen to their
A
Wedding Day are from a broad range of backgrounds and ages, including young people who have shown
B C
strong leadership, and those which have served their communities.
D
Question 44: Their big day requires a lot of preparation, such as designing costumes, choose guests and
A B C D
reinforcing security.
Question 45: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading
A B C
easily among the population.
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D
Question 46: Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job. Success comes to those
who have enough courage and will.
A. Unless success comes to those who have enough courage and will, gender differences cannot prevent
a person from pursuing a job.
B. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job unless success comes to those who
have enough courage and will.
C. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who
D. Gender differences can prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who
Question 47: They couldn’t climb up mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
B. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
C. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
D. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
Question 48: In order to avoid leaving their fingerprints as evidence, the robbers wore gloves.
A. The robbers wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken as evidence.
B. His fingerprints would not be left as evidence unless the robbers wore gloves.
C. In order to leave some fingerprints as evidence the robbers took off his gloves.
D. The robbers wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints as evidence.
Question 49: “I am sorry, Jean. I broke your vase” said John
A. John apologized Jean for breaking her vase.
B. John apologized Jean for having broken her vase
C. John apologized to Jean to have broken her vase.
D. John apologized to Jean for haing broken her vase.
Question 50: She wasn’t driving slowly. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been driving slowly, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been driving slowly, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been driving slowly, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been driving slowly, she wouldn’t have been injured.
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Question 1: A. advent B. unique C. unite D. command
Question 2: A. exhibit B. exhibition C. example D. existence
Question 3: A. flourish B. nourishment C. arousal D. encourage
Question 4: A. one B. octopus C. orange D. office
Question 5: The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several________.
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
Question 6: Paul is a very________character; he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-confident B. self-conscious C. self-satisifed D. selfish
Question 7: “John should have warned you about that”. “Yes, but______. He’s still my good friend”.
A. moreover B. despite that C. although D. on the contrary
Question 8: Once used up,__________.
A. these can never be replaced B. we can never replace these minerals
C. but these minerals can never be replaced D. can these minerals be never replaced.
Question 9: The children______“thank you” to you when you gave them the gifts.
A. must have said B. would have said C. might have said D. should have said
Question 10: Suzie is shopping in Diamond Plaza.
Sales clerk: “Can I help you?”
Suzie: “________”.
A. No, thanks. I’m just looking B. Yes, I’m watching
C. No, I’m seeing D. Yes, I’m thinking.
Question 11: I do not believe that this preposterous scheme is _______of our seirous consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless
Question 12: Governments decided to take________measures to deal with terrorism.
A. profound B. enormous C. tough D. threshing
Question 13: Stop making that noise! You are getting on my _________!
A. brain B. muscles C. nerves D. blood
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Question 14: Onie and Osca are talking in a coffee break.
Onie: “________.”
Osca: “Yeah, me too. See you later.”
A. Oh, I should get back to class B. Of course, I should have a break
C. Anyway, it’s a good day D. I think the coffee is so nice
Question 15: If Penny____a place at Oxford University, she___________philosophy and politics.
A. get; is going to study B. gets; studies
C. will get; is going and politics D. is getting; will study
Question 16: What chemical is this? It’s______a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 17: The trouble with Jean is that she is________with sport!
A. obsessed B. packed C. matched D. dealt
Question 18: The committee found it very difficult_______a decision.
A. reaching B. to reach C. reached D. reaching
correct answer to each of the question.
Most people start smoking when they are in their teens and are addicted by the time they reach
adulthood. Some have tried to quit but have returned to cigarettes because smoking is such a strong
addiction. It is a habit that is very difficult to break. There are many different reasons why people smoke.
Three of the main reasons that young people smoke are to look mature, to be like their friends, and to
experiment. Since teens see older people all around them smoking, especially their parents and relatives,
they smoke to act older. If their friends or peers smoke, they may feel pressured into doing the same to be
accepted. The last reason is the excitement of experimenting with something that is forbidden. In
Massachusetts it is against the law for anyone under 18 years old to smoke. Usually parents do not allow
their under age teens to smoke. Therefore, smoking becomes very attractive. It is exciting to get cigarettes
and sneak away to smoke without being caught.
Adults smoke for other reasons. They may have a lot of stress and pressures because of economic
and personal problems. They may be unemployed or working but not making enough money to take care
of themselves and their families. They may be homeless, or they may be dealing with alcohol or
cocaine/heroin addictions. Some may be in bad marriages or relationships in which there is physical
and/or verbal abuse. All these people may smoke to feel relaxed or to give them energy while going
through a hard time.
Whether young or old, some people smoke to control their weight. Smokers, on the average, weigh
seven pounds less than non-smokers. Smoking reduces a person's appetite. It lessens his/her sense of taste
and smell. This could be why ex-smokers gain weight after quitting cigarettes. Food tastes and smells so
much better.
Finally, there are people who say they love to smoke. Smoking gives them pleasure. It just makes
them feel good.
Question 19: What is the purpose of the whole passage?
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A. To contrast young and old smokers.
B. To explain why people start smoking.
C. To demonstrate the attraction of cigarettes among the young.
D. To show the similarities between young and old smokers.
Question 20: The purpose of paragraph 2 is to_______.
A. explain why young people decide to smoke
B. warn young people how dangerous smoking is
C. show how exciting smoking can be
D. suggest that other people influence the decision of young people who start smoking
Question 21: The word “peers” in paragraph 2 means .
A. members of the aristocracy B. mentors
C. peeping Toms D. persons of a similar age
Question 22: Adults smoke for all of the following reasons EXCEPT________.
A. to deal with stress
B. to cope with financial difficulties
C. to deal with relationship problems
D. to appear more mature
Question 23: In paragraph 3, how does sentence 3 relate to sentence 1?
A. It is a contradiction B. It is a cause C. It is an example D. It is an effect
Question 24: The word “abuse” in paragraph 3 means _______.
A. excessive use B. inappropriate use C. mistreatment D. argument
Question 25: The main purpose of paragraph 4 is__________.
A. to contrast the reasons why young and old people take up smoking
B. to show a common cause for smoking among people of all ages
C. to describe the possible effects of smoking
D. to warn smokers of the dangers of smoking
Question 26: He inherited a lucrative business from his father.
A. lucid B. losing C. wealthy D. profitable
Question 27: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again
A. for good B. by the way C. repeatedly D. in vain
Question 28: This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. simple D. ultimate
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Question 29: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within few weeks.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Good press photographer must have an ‘eye’ for news, just as journalists must have a nose for a good
story. They must be able to interpret a story and decide rapidly how they can take advantage (30) _______
the best opportunities to take picture. The most difficult part of a press photographer’s job is that he or
she has to be able to (31)_______a complicated situation with just one photograph. They rarely have
second chances and must be able to take the required shot very quickly. Indeed, speed is essential- if the
photographs are not ready for the printing deadline, they are very unlikely to be of any use.
Most press photographers begin work with a local newspaper. There, the demand is mostly for
material of regional interest. Photographers may be expected to photograph a lot of unexciting events but
to (32)___________the enthusiasm to put ‘something special’ into every picture.
There is (33) _______competition among those (34)_______want to move from local to national
newspapers. Here, the work is much more centered on news. The photographer must work under greater
pressure and take more responsibility. Only highly reliable, talented and resourceful photographers make
this difficult move. The work is tough and can be dangerous. On an overseas assignment, photographers
may have to cope with unfamiliar food and accommodation, physical and mental stress, and extreme
difficulty in transporting the pictures from an isolated area to get to the newspaper on time. They also
have to beat the competition from other publications.
Question 30: A. about B.on C. of D. for
Question 31: A. draw up B. put out C. sum up D. turn out
Question 32: A. hold on B. keep up C. carry on D. stay up
Question 33: A. firm B. forceful C. strict D. strong
Question 34: A. which B. who C. whom D. how
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the
MEMORY
"Memorize these words". "Learn this spelling rule". "Don't forget about the quiz tomorrow".
You remember things every day, but how do you do it?
When you want to call a store or an office that you don't call often, you look in the telephone book
for the number. You dial the number, and then you forget it! You use your short-term memory to
remember the number. Your short-term memory lasts about 30 seconds, or half a minute. However, you
don't need to look in the telephone book for your best friend’s number because you already know it. This
information is in your long-term memory. Your long-term memory has everything that you remember
through the years. Why do you forget things sometimes? Is there a reason? Yes, there are several. The
major reason for forgetting something is that you did not learn it well in the beginning. For example, you
meet some new people, and right away, you forget their names. You hear the names but you do not learn
them, so you forget them.
You can help yourself remember better. Here are some ideas:
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1. Move information from your short-term memory to your long-term memory. You can do this if you
practice the new information. Say it to yourself out loud. Think about it.
2. After you learn something, study it again and again. Learn it more than you need to. This process is
called overlearning. For example, when you learn new words, practice using them in sentences. Don't try
to memorize words from a list only.
3. Make sure that you understand new information. It is very difficult to remember something that you
don't understand. Ask questions when you learn something new to be certain that you understand.
4. Do not listen to music or watch TV when you study. You will remember better if you concentrate on
one thing at a time.
5. Try to connect new information with something that you already know. For example, when you learn
the name of a new kind of food, think of a similar kind of food that you already know.
6. Divide new information into several parts (about five or six). Learn one part at time and stop for few
minutes. Don't sit down and try to learn a very large amount of new information all at once.
7. Try to make a picture in your mind. For example, if you hear or see a new word, make a picture of how
it looks to you in your mind. This “mental” picture will help you remember that word the next time you
see or hear it.
8. Think of word clues to help you remember information. One very helpful kind of word clue is an
acronym. An acronym is a word formed from the first letter of a group of words. For example, many
American schoolchildren learn the names of the Great Lakes in the North America by remembering the
word homes. Homes is an acronym that comes from the names of the Great Lakes: Huron, Ontario,
Michigan, Erie, Superior.
9. Relax when you study! Try to enjoy yourself. You are learning new things every minute. You will
remember better if you are happy and relaxed.
Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. People have short-term and long-term memories and how they can learn to improve their memory
B. How acronyms help people remember better
C. What you should do when you forget a phone number
D. The main reasons for forgetting things
Question 36: New information is easier to remember if you_______.
A. keep it on a list B. understand it
C. tell it to your friends D. draw a picture to describe it
Question 37: The following things should help you remember things better when you study, EXCEPT
A. asking questions when you don’t understand something
B. connecting new information with something you already know
C. trying to learn a large amount of new information all at once
D. overlearning them
Question 38: Acronyms should help you remember_______.
A. dates B. telephone numbers C. chemical formulas D. names
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Question 39: You move information from your short-term memory to your long-term memory when
you____.
A. call a friend over and over again B. practice it by saying it to yourself out loud
C. relax in front of the TV set D. write it out on a piece of paper
Question 40: Which of the following may not be in your long-term memory?
A. The telephone number of a person you don’t call very often.
B. Your way home.
C. Your date of birth.
D. Your address.
Question 41: All of these things would be useless for remembering new words EXCEPT________.
A. making a list of them and memorizing them B. writing them down in your notebook
C. putting them in alphabetical order D. practicing using them in sentences
Question 42: The names of the Great Lakes in North America are easier to remember_______.
A. thanks to the useful acronym homes
B. when they are connected with the mental picture of your home
C. if they are near your home
D. because they remind you of your home
Question 43: It was not until the late 1970s when these country people could enjoy the benefits of
A B C D
electricity.
Question 44: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that soe families have been
A B C
forced to alter their eating habits.
D
Question 45: Those who had already purchased tickets were instructed to go to gate first immediately.
A B C D
Question 46: Califonia attracted people from many countries when gold was discovered in 1848.
A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.
B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted many people from different countries.
C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.
D. When people were attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848.
Question 47: You’ll have no hope of growing crops here unless you find a way to irrigate this land.
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A. Without discovering how to water this land, there is no chance that you can grow crops here.
B. Even if you find a method of watering this land, there is no hope that any crops will grow on it.
C. Because there is no way you can irrigate this land, you had batter give up trying to grow crops on it.
D. You’ll have to try growing crops elsewhere if you prove unable to irrigate this land here.
Question 48: As we were heading out of the door of the café, we bumped into our plumber, who we still
owned money to.
A. When we met our plumber in the cafe as we were about to leave, we realized that we hadn’t yet paid
him all the money we owed him.
B. Our plumber, whom we hadn’t paid back yet, was the person we encountered by chance at the
moment we were exiting the cafe.
C. Not wanting to see the plumber to whom we still owed a debt, we quickly headed out the door of the
cafe when we saw him coming in.
D. Our plumber, when we ran into him as he was entering the cafe that we were leaving, didn’t bring up
our debt to him.
Question 49: The painting displayed in the museum has been stolen. They are rumouring about that.
A. There is a rumour that the painting displayed in the museum has been stolen.
B. The displayed painting is rumoured to be stolen.
C. Displaying in the museum, the painting was rumour to be stolen.
D. As being displayed and rumoured, the painting has been stolen.
Question 50: “I will let you know the result by the end of this week” Tom said to Jane
A. Tom suggested giving Jane the result by the end of that week.
B. Tom promised to give Jane the result by the end of that week
C. Tom insisted on letting Jane know the result by the end of that week.
D. Tom offered to give Jane the result by the end of that week.
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Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
Question 3: A. offer B. canoe C. country D. standard
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C. currency D. allowance
Question 5: Measles are a very contagious disease that can spread through contact with infected mucus A
A B C
and saliva.
D
Question 6: I always forget closing the door before going out.
A B C D
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full
A B C D
commitment.
Question 8: The last half of the nineteeth century_____a steady improvement in the means of travel.
A. has witnessed B. witnessed C. was witnessed D. is witnessed
Question 9: George finally succeeded in swimming across the lake at his fourth______.
A. attempt B. process C. effort D. instance
Question 10: He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He______himself.
A. could have hurt B. must have hurt
C. should have hurt D. would have hurt
Question 11: ________her supervisor’s approval, she shouldn’t begin the project.
A. Unless Susan doesn’t get B. Were Susan to get
C. If Susan gets D. Unless Susan gets
Question 12: Modem computer science and artificial intelligence_______in the pre-war work of Goedel,
Turing, and Zuse.
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A. say to root B. say to have rooted
C. are said to root D. are said to have rooted
Question 13: Students are_______less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on_______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 15: The most______mineral derived from the sea is sodium chloride or common salt.
A. insufficient B. sufficient C. generous D. plentiful
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays_______themselves to teaching disadvantaged
children.
A. offer B. stick C. give D. devote
Question 17: Cutting in lines at the grocery store, for example, or being habitually late for meetings is
considered behavior.
A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. rude
Question 18: Sorry for being late. I was_________in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn’t keep______the group.
A. up with B. up against C. on to D. out of
Question 20: Two friends, Diana and Anne, are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
Diana: “That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne.”
Anne: “________.”
A. Never mind B. Don’t mention it C. Thank you D. You’re welcome
Question 21: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
Mary: “______”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I can‘t agree more. D. What a pity!
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 22: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.
A. question B. violate C. disregard D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the
underprivileged in the remote areas of the country.
A. rich citizens B. active members C. poor inhabitants D. enthusiastic people
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Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between
on the highway.
A. easy to find B. difficult to access C. unlikely to happen D. impossible to reach
Question 25: A relaxed and convivial group of around 45 Slow Food members and friends is sharing a
simple BBQ lunch.
A. lively B. large C. old D. unsociable
Question 26: I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
Question 27: “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up”, she said to me.
A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
Question 28: Without her teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.
A. Her teacher advised him and she didn’t write a good essay.
B. Her teacher didn’t advise her and she didn’t write a good essay.
C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.
D. If her teacher didn’t advise her, she wouldn’t write such a good essay.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Question 30: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
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A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something
that cannot be changed, but actually there is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.
We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore US. This no doubt explains
the reason (31)______schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle (32)________dates
from their history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it
(33)______.One way to make yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)_______and
sends more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reducesstress,
which is very bad for the memory.
The old saying that —eating fish makes you brainyl may be true after all. Scientists have discovered
that the fats (35)_______in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil - help to improve
the memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good - brain food,
too.
(Source: —New Cutting Edge, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)
Question 31: A. why B. what C. how D. which
Question 32: A. about B. for C. over D. towards
Question 33: A. hardly B. slightly C. consciously D. easily
Question 34: A. degree B. level C. rate D. grade
Question 35: A. made B. existed C. founded D. found
Martin Luther King, Jf, is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous
speeches, among which is his moving “I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about
King’s childhooD. M.L., as he was called, was bom in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his
maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years
before M.L was bom. His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of
organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the
atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by
it.
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician.
He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood. The
neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies,
builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of
Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a
child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling
with whites.
Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta. B. M.L.’s grandfather
C. Martin Luther King’s childhood. D. The neighborhood King grew up in
Question 37. When was M.L. bom?
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A. in 1909 B. in 1929
C. in 1949 D. 20 years after his parents had met.
Question 38. What is Martin Luthur King well- known for?
A. His publications. B. His neighborhood.
C. His childhood. D. His work in civil rights.
Question 39. According to the author, M.L.________.
A. had a difficult childhood. B. was a good musician as a child
C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak. D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.
Question 40. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Auburn was a commercial areas.
B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909.
C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood.
D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful.
Question 41. From the passage we can infer that______.
A. M.L.’s father was a church member.
B. people gathered at M.L.’s to perform religious rituals.
C. M.L.’s father purchased their home on Auburn Avenue.
D. M.L. had a bitter childhood.
Question 42. M.L. was________by the atmosphere in which he grew up.
A. not affected at all B. doubted
C. certainly influenced D. prejudiced
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used
successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of
other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things
on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14
remaining in an object can be used to date that object.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the
carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that
indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is
roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has
decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old.
Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When
objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the miniscule
amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other age-
dating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon
has.
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Question 43: This passage is mainly about ______.
A. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts
B. one method of dating old objects
C. various uses for carbon
D. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14?
A. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years.
C. It can decay into nitrogen-14.
D. It is radioactive.
Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph I refers to________.
A. carbon dating B. the age
C. any organic natural material D. archeology
Question 46: The word “underlying” in paragraph I could best be replaced by _______.
A. below B. requiring
C. serving as a basis for D. being studied through
Question 47: The word “roughly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to________.
A. precisely B. harshly C. approximately D. coarsely
Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses_____.
A. what substances are part of all living things
B. how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen-14
C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life
D. various other age-dating methods
Question 49: It is implied in the passage that .
A. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology
B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14
C. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen
D. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen-
14, then the item is _______.
A. not as much as 5,570 years old
B. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14
C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists
D. more than 5.570 years old
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A. avoid B. split C. agree D. decrease

- Jim: “No, thanks.”

Question 33: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means .

A. spoiled B. mouldy C. sour D. rusty

Question 2: _______, the whole family slept soundly.

Question 3: Linda and Suka are talking about Thomas.

Linda: "Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs.”

A. He’s such a know-all B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs

C. He knows enough D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs

Question 4: The new office block__________well with its surroundings.

A. blends in B. stands out C. shapes up D. sets off

Question 5: A wife is cooking and talking to her husband.

Wife: "The cupboard in our kitchen is broken."

A. But it’s big B. We have to pay extra money

C. But it’s small D. We’ll get it fixed

A. haven’t been reading B. don’t read

C. haven’t read D. haven’t been read

A. well-paid B. well-educated C. well-done D. well-trained

Question 8: Without my parent’s support. I____ my oversea study.

A. will not complete B. did not complete

C. had not completed D. would not have completed

A. over B. further C. above D. beyond

A. respiration/ chemistry B. respire/ chemical

C. respiration/ chemical D. respiration/ chemist

A. she is famous as B. she appears to be

C. is she known as D. appears as she is

A. sympathy B. love C. respects D. honors

A. herself B. nature C. personality D. reaction

Question 14: Someone left the messages,___________?

A. didn’t they B. did they C. did he D. didn’t he

Question 15: Einstein's primary work was in the area of_________.

A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. engineering

A. Radio B. Automobiles C. Computers D. Television

A. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine

C. atomic bomb research in the United States

D. the defeat of the Nazis

Question 18: What did Einstein propose in the theory of light?

A. Time and motion are relative to the observer. B. E = mc2

C. Light is composed of separate packets of energy. D. Gravity is not a force.

Question 19: What is “Brownian movement”?

A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension.

B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light.

C. The motion of photons in light.

D. The basis of the theory of relativity.

Question 20: According to Einstein's special theory of relativity,_______.

B. light is composed of separate packets of energy

C. time and motion are relative to the observer

D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light

A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. quanta D. gamma rays

Question 23: A. indigenous B. significant C. scientific D. peculiar

Question 24: A. habitat B. balcony C. bachelor D. gorilla

Question 25: A. download B. growth C. blow D. shadow

Question 26: A. heard B. search C. learn D. beard

Question 27: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. Ways of using the textbook. B. Ways of giving assignments.

C. Ways of teaching. D. Ways of taking an exam.

A. In classrooms with informal atmosphere B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere

C. At libraries D. At learning centres

Question 29: Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. American teachers do not dress informally.

B. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always formal.

C. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always relaxed and friendly.