PPM MCQ

PPM-MCQ
1. What broad term described the following people in relation to your project? Your
university, your participants, anyone who may be affected by the results of your
research, the ethics committee.
(A)Subjects
(B)Gatekeepers
(C)Collaborators
(D)Stakeholders
2. Which of the following are good general rules to follow in your dealings with
project stakeholders?
(A) Don’t assume, ask.
(B)Divert attention away from any concerns about your project
(C)Tell external stakeholders les about your project than internal stakeholders
(D)All of the above
3. Which of the following are generally safe assumptions in dealing with schools,
clubs or similar organizations?
(A) You will be introduced to all the staff who work in the organization.
(B) You may make use of the staff rooms on site.
(C) Classes or activities will be organized to allow you to collect your data.
(D) None of the above.
4. What advice do we give about factoring in the commitments of project

stakeholders when making your own plans?
(A) Consult student timetables to see when they might be free to attend data
collection sessions.
(B) Ask external organizations what the most convenient times would be for you to
visit
(C) Neither of these
(D) Both A and B
5. Which of the following are items that students doing empirical studies are likely to
need to book?
(A) Technician time
(B) Audio recorders
(C) Transcription equipment
(D) All of the above
6. Which of the following are essential components of a GANTT chart used to plan
your project?
(A) Your home telephone number
(B) Your supervisor’s home telephone number
(C) The email address for the chair of the ethics committee
(D) None of the above
7. Which of the following are risks to your project that you can take steps to
manage?
(A) The photocopier breaking down
(B) Running out of ink for your printer
(C) Your computer crashing
8. What suggestions do we make to help if poor recruitment begins to pose a risk to

your study?
(A) Don’t worry – it will soon pick up.
(B) Apply some subtle pressure to potential participants.
(C) Consider changing time slots or adding new options.
(D) None of the above.
9. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during
which phase of a project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
10. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.
(A) Permanent
(B) Temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
11. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more
detail become available is termed as
(A) Project analysis
(B) Project enhancing
(C) Progressive deliberation
(D) Progressive elaboration
12. A program is usually a group of
(A) Plans
(B) People and work
(C) Related projects
(D) Unrelated projects
13. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?
I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only
14. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
15. If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be
affected.
(A) All
(B) One
(C) At least one
(D) At most one
16. Business Value =
(A) Tangible Elements
(B) Intangible Elements
(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements
(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements
17. Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?
(A) Fixtures
(B) Trademarks
(C) Monetary assets
(D) Stockholder equity
18. Which from the following is NOT an intangible element?
(A) Utility
(B) Public benefit
(C) Brand recognition
(D) Good will
19. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
(A) Planning →Initiating →Executing →Closing
(B) Planning →Executing →Initiating →Closing
(C) Initiating →Planning →Executing →Closing

(D) Initiating →Executing →Planning →Closing
20. The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for
resources and the available supply is known as
(A) Resource assignment
(B) Resource leveling
(C) Resource splitting
(D) Resource scheduling
21. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
(A) Milestone
(B) Goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart
22. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between
those tasks is known as
(A) Milestone
(B) Goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart
23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about a Project?
I. It brings change
II. It has risk
III. The outcome is certain
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III

24. Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Monitoring
(C) Closing
(D) All above are parts
25. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
26. How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These
questions are answered in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
27. The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____
phase.
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
28. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the
_____ phase.
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
29. According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
(A) Plan, processes, people, policy
(B) Plan, processes, people, power
(C) Plan, processes, potential, policy
(D) Plan, processes, potential, power
30. Who among the following are less able to influence a project?
(A) Consultants
(B) Contractors
(C) Stakeholders
(D) Project team
31. A project charter does not include ____ of the project.
(A) Scope
(B) Objectives
(B) Team
(D) All above are included
32. The return available by investing the capital elsewhere is known as
(A) Profit rate
(B) Discount rate
(C) Opportunity cost
(D) Return on investment
33. An investment should be accepted if its Net Present Value (NPV) is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) positive
(D) Negative
34. Suppose an investment of $100 has grown to $110 in one year. What is the
return on investment?
(A) 0.1%
(B) 1.0%
(C) 10%
(D) None of these
(35)Milestones established by the customer must be adhered to by:
(A). Project manager
(B). Functional managers
(C). the customer
(D) Both A and B
(36)The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the

responsibility of the:
(A). Functional manager
(B). Project manager
(B) Director of project management
(D) Customer
(37) In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
(A). Conceptual
(B) Planning
(C) Implementation
(D). Design
38) To crash a schedule you should:
(A) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
(B) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
(C) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
(D) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.
(39)The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:
(A).The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

(B).Provides links to the clients functional management groups
(C).Allowing the project to move to the next phase
(D) A way to provide updated information to the accounting department
(40) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
1. Cutting costs and reducing time
2. Decreasing the time required for decision making
3. Eliminating idle time
4. Developing better trouble shooting procedures.
(41)The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:
1. Implementation time
2. Life cycle
3. Operations cycle
4. Production cycle
(42)The successful project managers spend most of their time:
1. Planning with their personnel
2. Planning with the top management
3. Communication with the project team
4. Studying project results.
(43)Resource leveling attempts to :
1. Reduce resource requirements by smoothing out period-to period resource

assignments.
2. Ensure that the budget abnormalities are overcome.
3. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other
endeavors.
4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars can
be appropriated.
(44)A prerequisite of effective time management is:
1. Knowing the dictated project completion date
2. Having the most advanced software package for project planning, scheduling and
control
3. Having a good project WBS which identifies the major project deliverables and
tasks, and the person responsible for each of them
4. Having a well-staffed scheduling department
(45) Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?
1. Preliminary
2. Definitive
3. Order of magnitude
4. Conceptual
(46) Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor
doing the project work
1. Cost plus fixed fee
2. Fixed price
3. Fixed price plus incentive free
4. All the above
(47)Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
3. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system

by which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed
4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing the

costs on an on-going basis
(48) Which of the following is a direct project cost?
1. Lighting and heating for the corporate office
2. Workers Compensation insurance

3. Piping for an irrigation project
4. All the above
(49)Cost controls can be best described by which of the following?
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing

the costs on an on-going basis.
(50) Measured quality of a manufactured product is :
1. Always constant
2. Continually decreasing
3. Subject to a certain amount of variation
4. Continually increasing
(51) To successfully manage a project, the PM must play both a manager and
leadership role. In the manager role the PM will doall but which of the following:
1. Develop procedures
2. Align people
3. Produce results for stakeholder
4. Focus on the organization and its structure
(52)Which form of power is the LEAST effective from the project

manager's viewpoint in terms of influencing functional managers?
1. Formal power
2. Expert power
3. Penalty power
4. Referent power
(53)The Project manager should be able to fulfill the role of:
1. An integrator
2. A functional manager
3. A line manager
4. A sponsor
(54).The most successful project manager usually:
1. Works their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged

project managers, supplementing that experiencewith formal education.
2. Comes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing very large projects.
3. Is considered the technical expert of their field.
4. Has considerable experience as a functional manager before moving into the

project management arena.
(55) Which of the following is an important action that must be taken

by top management when implementing project management in an
organization?
1. Completely selling the project management concept to the entire organization.
2. Choice of the type of project manager.
3. Choice of the type of project organization to be utilized.
4. All of the above.
(56) Which of the following can cause a communication barrier?
1. Differing perceptions as to project goals and objectives
2. Insufficient action on the part of the project manager
3. Competition for facilities, equipment, material, manpower and other resources
4. All of the above
(57) Most of the project manager's external communication links consist of:
1. Written documents
2. Oral communication
3. Tactile contact
4. Informal contact
(58) The critical element in a project's communication system is the:

1. Progress report
2. Project directive
3. Project manager
4. Customer
(59) Communication management:
1. Is important only in projects involving telephone, television, radio, or newspaper

production facilities and operations
2. Is not a big problem for people with normal speech, sight and hearing
3. Involves the originator, the message, the medium and the receiver
4. Preparing an agenda
(60) Truly effective communication:
1. Depends on using multiple channels
2. Depends on selecting the right method for each message and avoiding
duplication, since everyone is overloaded with information
3. Cannot depend solely on non-verbal signals which might be misunderstood
4. All the above
(61)Methods of transmitting include:
1. Oral and written
2. Non-verbal/ visual
3. Tactile, involuntary and intuitive
4. All of the above
(62)A project management information system consists of:
1. A project management software package operating on appropriate computer

facilities
2. Hardware, software, documents, and procedures
3. Automated and manual methods for gathering, recording, filtering, and

dissemination of pertinent information for members of a project team
4. All of the above

(63) The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the
vehicle or method used to convey the message?
1. Communicator
2. Message
3. Medium
4. Recipient
(64) The contemporary view of conflict is that:
1. Conflict is bad
2. Conflict is caused by trouble makers
3. Conflict should be avoided
4. Conflict is often beneficial
(65) Approximately what percentage of the project manager's time is

spent in some form of communication, such as: conferences, meetings,
writing memos, reading and preparing reports, and talking with project
team members, upper management, and all other stalk holders?
1. 10-20%
2. 50-70%
3. 75-90%
4. 21-45%
(66) The Three attributes of project risk are _________, ___________ and
___________.
1. What might happen, who it happens to, and how much will it cost
2. Notification, frequency of relevant events, probability of occurrence
3. Quality, risk planning, total number of risk events
4. Risk event, probability occurrence, the amount at stake
(67) A Unit Price (UP) contract provides:
1. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately

as the contract progresses
2. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon

percentage of the estimated cost as profit
3. The supplier with a fixed price for delivered performance plus a predetermined fee
for superior performance
4. A fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at unit
rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to carry out the
work.
(68) Which phase of the Acquisition Process Cycle does source qualifications
reside?
1. Pre-Award
2. Award
3. Post Award
4. Origination
(69) A performance bond should always provide what part of the contract value?
1. 10 percent
2. 25 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 100 percent
(70) Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
1. Cost plus percentage fee
2. Cost plus incentive fee
3. Cost plus fixed fee
4. Firm fixed price
(71) What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize project close-out?
1. Reassign the team
2. Contract completion
3. Archive the project records
4. Complete lessons learned
(72) A planning method, which provides details of the work to accomplish, but also
provide some preliminary description of thework to be done in later phases is called
1. Progressive detailing
2. Rolling wave
3. Strategic
4. Operational
(73) Another name of strategic planning is:
1. Short term
2. Operational
3. Tactical
4. Top down
(74) The type of planning that is equated with more specific data or detailed in nature
is called:
1. Strategic
2. Operational
3. Short term
4. Tactical
(75) One of the initial project documents, issued by senior management, which
outlines the authority of the project manager, iscalled Project charter. As a seller,
what other document can be used in this place:
1. Work breakdown structure
2. Project scope
3. Contract
4. Internal memo
(76) During the planning development process, at times it is necessary to make

certain assumptions to enhance the project planwhen the data is not available. In
regard to making those assumptions, which one of the following is most true for
project planning purposes?
1. The assumptions will be considered as true, real, or certain.
2. By making the assumption, it tends to reduce the project risk.
3. Project assumptions are based upon historical data used for the project.
4. Senior management predefines the budget constraints.

(77)A project planning methodology is any structured approach used to guide the
project team during development of the projectplan. What is an example of this
methodology?
1. Standard forms or templates.
2. Upper management involvement
3. Functional work authorizations
4. Stakeholders skills
(78)The engineer of the project in the planning phase and makes a significant
contribution to the technical scope. This is anexample of what type of skill and
knowledge?
1. Inherent
2. Stakeholder
3. Technical evaluation
4. Convergent thinking
(79)In a program or project plan, there are always revisions to account for new or
missing data. Which one of the followingprovides the best reason for performing a
revision of the plan?
1. A supplier has changed the way their product is delivered to your supplier
2. Project tasks are crashed to meet their end dates
3. Human resources will remain constant through out the project
4. Historical data on a similar project suggests that risk events are not included in the
current plan.
(80) The project closing process is essential to overall project planning. What is
considered one of the most important steps inclosing the project?
1. Insuring that plans are produced to implement the project by phases.
2. Issuing work orders so that financial data can be collected.
3. Transition the lease of equipment to the owner
4. Satisfying the contractual obligations
(81) Each project phase is marked by completion of one or more:
1. Tasks.
2. Milestones
3. Deliverables
4. Life cycles
(82)The Scope Statement should contain which of the following?
1. Project schedule
2. Project budget constraints
3. Summary of project tasks , deliverables and resources required
4. Project objectives
(83)The Scope Management Plan is included in which of the following documents.
1. Project Plan
2. The Work Breakdown Structure
3. The Scope Statement
4. Project Specifications
84. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
85. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
86. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the above
87. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Very low
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) High
88. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) Hardware and software costs
c) Effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned
89. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) Team
b) Project
c) Customers
d) Project manager.
90. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management.
91 A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project.
(A) Project
(B) Process
(C) Project management

(D) Project cycle
92 Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
(C) Materials
93 Developing a technology is an example of
(A) Process
(B) Project
(C) Scope
94 The project life cycle consists of
(A) Understanding the scope of the project
(B) Objectives of the project
(C) Formulation and planning various activities
95 Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.
(A) Budgeting and cost control
(B) Allocating resources
(C) Tracking project expenditure
96 Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and

delivery
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
97 Design phase consist of
(A) Input received
(B) Output received
(C) Both (A) and (B)
98 Project performances consists of
(A) Time
(B) Cost
(C) Quality
99 Five dimensions that must be managed on a project
(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
100 Resource requirements in project become constant while the project is in its
_____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
101. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
(A) Uniform distribution curve
(B) Normal distribution curve.
(C) U-shaped distribution curve

102. In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___ .
(A) Zero
(B) High
(C) Low
(D) Any of the above
103. The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of

sub process placed in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
104. Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a
similar nature whose costs are known.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy
105. Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
106. Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
(A) Risk Assessment
(B) Risk Control
(C) Risk Ranking

107. Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.
(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured

planning
(B) Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
(C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning
(D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning
108. Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need
is
(A) Initiating process
(B) Planning process
(C) Executing process
(D) Controlling process
109. Controlling the changes in the project may affect
(A) The progress of the project
(B) Stage cost
(C) Project scope
110. Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process
(A) Change Management System (CMS)
(B) Configuration Management (CM)
111. The advent of project management has been most profound in
A) Automobile manufacturing
B) Construction
C) Information technology
D) The U.S. Department of Defense
112. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?

A) An established objective
B) A clear beginning and end
C) Complex tasks
D) Only for internal use
113. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
A) Processing insurance claims
B) Producing automobiles
C) Writing a term paper
D) Completing a college degree
114. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
115. In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams
formed, and major responsibilities assigned?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
116. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many
changes, and the creation of forecasts?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
117. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the
increasing demand for project management?
A) Compression of the product life cycle
B) Knowledge explosion
C) Development of third world and closed economies
D) More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
118. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of
the following except
A) Accountability
B) Flexibility
C) Innovation
D) Repeatability
119 Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in
management candidates?
A) Overall intelligence
B) Works well with others
C) Experience
D) Past successes
120. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a
six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ___ percent.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 45
121. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the
A) Process of managing actual projects
B) Strategy plan
C) Both A and B are correct
D) None of the above
122. Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
A) WBS
B) Budgets
C) Problem solving
D) Schedules Status reports
123. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward
A) Reducing the number of projects a company initiates
B) Outsourcing significant segments of project work
C) Using dedicated project teams
D) Shorter project lead times
124. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended
time intended to achieve a goal is known as a
A) Strategy
B) Program
C) Campaign
D) Crusade
125. From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was:
A) Significantly better
B) Slightly better
C) About the same
D) Slightly worse
126. Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project
managers?
A) Where did this project come from?
B) Why are we doing this project?
C) How can all these projects be first priority?
D).Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
127. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is
A) Old school thinking

B) A new school of management thought
C) Necessary in a company structure
D) Beneficial to the Project Manager
128. The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is
A) Clear organization focus
B) Best use of scarce organization resources
C) Improved communication across projects and departments
D) Above all correct
129. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in
accomplishing the organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes
except:
A) Focusing on low priority problems
B) Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C) Focusing on the immediate customer
D) All the above are likely mistakes
130. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic
management.
A) Responding to changes in the external market
B) Allocating scarce resources of the organization
D) Both A and B are Wrong
131. Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement
answer?
A) What are our long-term strategies?
B) What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C) How do we operate in the existing environment?
D) What do we want to become?
132. Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities?

A) Determining alternatives
B) Evaluating alternatives
D) Both A and B are wrong
133. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______
analysis.
A) SWOT analysis
B) Competitive
C) Industry
D) Market
134. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful
implementation of strategies through projects?
A) Allocation of resources
B) Prioritizing of projects
C) Motivation of project contributors
D) All of these are requirements
135. Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting
and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to
the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing
A) Poor scheduling
B) Excess work burden
C) Flexible tasking
D) Multitasking
136. Project selection criteria are typically classified as:
A) Financial and non-financial
B) Short-term and long-term
C) Strategic and tactical
D) Required and optional

137. Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project
portfolio?
A) Sacred cow
B) Bread-and-butte
C) Pearls
D) Oysters
138. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to
understand their organization's mission and strategy?
A) To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
B) To be effective project advocates
139. Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models?
A) Will include quantitative criteria
B) Will include qualitative criteria
C) Each criterion is assigned a weight
D) All of the above are true
140. Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model?
A) Checklist
B) Weighted criteria model
141. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative

effect on a project objectives is termed.
A) Random chance
B) A disaster
C) Risk
D) Hazard
142. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life
cycle tends to
A) Slowly rise
B) Drop sharply and then level out
C) Rise sharply and then level out
D) Remain about the same
143. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?
A) Risk response development
B) Risk assessment
C) Risk identification
D) Risk tracking
144. Risk respoOne common mistake made early in the risk identification process is
A) Not all possibilities are considered
B) Participants are over-optimistic
C) Participants are over-pessimistic
D) Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce

consequences.
145. The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of
A) Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management
B) Murphy's Law
C) Proper use of critical thinking
D) Mismanaged risk control
146. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is

termed a risk
A) Profile
B) Questionnaire
C) Research
D) Query
147. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except
A) Customers
B) Subcontractors
C) Competitors
D) Vendors
148. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is
_____analysis.
A) Probability
B) Scenario
C) Payback
D) Impact
149. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on
a project that answers developed from:
A).When the event might occur in the project
B) Chances of the event occurring
C) Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects
D).From previous, similar projects
150. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except
A) Likelihood of the risk event occurring
B) Potential impact of the risk event
C) Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event?
D) Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event
151. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?
A) Ratio/range analysis
B) Decision tree
C) PERT simulation
D).PERT
152. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example
of which of the following?
A).Mitigating
B) Retaining
C) Ignoring
D).Transferring
153. Technical risks are:
A) Often the kind that can cause the project to be shut down.
B) Problematic
D).Both A and B are wrong
154. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of
occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called:
A).Management reserves
B) Change control
C) Contingency reserves
D). Risk registers
155. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following
except
A).Track all changes that are to be implemented
B).Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally
C).Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget
D).All of the above are correct
156. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?
a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
157. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
c. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
d. All the above statements are correct.
158. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?
a.9
b.8
c.45
d.36
159. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?
a. Contract
b. email
c .Project status report
d Status meeting
160. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000.
What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance
161. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:
A. Project is on budget and on schedule
B. Schedule Variance Index is 1
C. There is no schedule variance
D. There is no cost variance
162. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management
Plan that is useful in HR Planning process:
A. Risk Management activities

B. Quality Assurance activities
C. Activity Resource requirements
D. Budget Control activities
163. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to
track project costs :
A. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
B. Organizational Breakdown Structure
C. Resource Breakdown Structure
D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
164. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
A Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component
B. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
D. Defines all people associated with each activity
165. Process Analysis is a function of:
A. Performance Analysis
B. Quality Metrics
C. Process Improvement Plan
D. Quality Improvement Plan
166. Root Cause Analysis relates to:
A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
C. Quality Control Measurements
D. Performance Measurements
167. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering

drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise
can BEST be described as example of:
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Flowcharting
D. Control Charting
168. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project
documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What
is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.
b. List of risks.
c. Monte Carlo diagram.
d Risk Breakdown Structure
169 During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability
and impact?
a. Identify Risks
b. Plan Risk responses
c. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
d. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
170. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:
A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
C. Project Officer
D. Project Stakeholder
171. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
172. Which of the following may generate a milestone list:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
173. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes.
This is an example of:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
174. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a
leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
A. Purchase Order
B. Cost plus Fee
C. Fixed cost
D Time and Material
175. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow

vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of
Project Management is in progress.
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
176. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Executing
177, Project life cycle consist of

A. Understanding project scope
B. Project objective
C. Planning of object
D. All the above
178. Responsibilities of project manager
A. Budget and cost control
B. Allocation of resources
C. Tracking project
D. All the above
179. The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as
A. Implementation time
B. Life cycle
C. Operations cycle
D. Production cycle
179. Project Characteristics are
A. Unique in nature
B. Have a specific time frame for completion with a definite start and finish
C. Involves risk and uncertainty
D. All the above
180. Project phases are
1. Conceptualization
2. Planning
3. Execution
4. Termination
A. only1
B. 1 and 2
C.1,2,3
D.1,2,3 and 4
181. "____________system: comprises organization structure, information

processing and decision making and the procedures that facilitate integration of
horizontal and vertical elements of the project organization"
A. Project management
B. Project cycle
C. Project life
D. Project time
182. The milestone, represented by a_______ over a task in the bar chart indicates
completion of a specific phase of the task
A).Stone
B).Rectangle
C).Circle
D).None of these
183. Arrange the Project phases in proper order –
1. Conceptualization
2. Planning,
3. Termination,
4. Execution
A) 1,2,3,4
B).1,3,4,2
C) 1,2,4,3
D) 4,3,2,1
184. "_____ phase consist of detailed plans for activity, finance and resources are
developed and integrated to the quality parameters."
A) Execution Phase
B) Planning Phase
C) Conceptualization Phase
D) Termination Phase
185. __________is a structure that facilitates the coordination and implementation of

project activities
A) Project organization
B) Project planning
C) Project management
D) All the above
186. _______is a improvement over the bar chart
A) Table chart
B) Sigma chart
C) Milestone chart
D) Venn diadram
187. "_________projects are designed to satisfy the customers’ felt as well the latent
needs"
A) Demand based projects
B) Resource based projects
C) Cost base project
D) Infrastructure based
188. "A temporary group activity designed to produce a unique product, service or
result is called"
A) Planning
B) Project
C) Exception
D) Production
190. PERT stands for
A) Programme Evaluation and review Technique
B) Programme Evaluation and revised Technique
C) Project Evaluation and review Technique

D) Programme evolved and review Technique
191. "________ organization has separate division is set up to implement the project
headed by the project manager, this division has its complement of personnel over
whom the project manager has full line authority."
A).Line organization
B) Divisional organization
C) Both line and Divisional
D) None of these
192. Which phase of Project cycle deals with identification of activities and their
sequencing?
A) Planning
B) Conceptualization
C) Execution
D) None of these
193."Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3.Analysis and evaluation, 4.Inspection, testing and

delivery"
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-3-1-4
C) 3-2-1-4
D) None of these
194. The features which distinguish project management from other forms of
management and they include:
A) Project manager
B) Project team
C) Project management system
D) All the above
195. "Breaking down project to physically identifiable and controllable units, calle
A) Task
B) Chart
C) Design
D) None of these
196. Consider the following graph. If b is the source vertex, what is the minimum cost
to reach f vertex?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 4
d) 6
197) In the given graph
Identify the shortest path having minimum cost to reach vertex e if a is the source
vertex
a) a-b-e
b) a-c-e
c) a-c-d-e
d) a-c-d-b-e
198) Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________
a) Greedy algorithm
b) Branch and bound
c) Back tracking
d) Dynamic programming
199).The maximum number of times the decrease key operation performed in

Dijkstra’s algorithm will be equal to ___________
a) Total number of vertices
b) Total number of edges
c) Number of vertices – 1
d) Number of edges – 1
200) How many times the insert and extract min operations are invoked per vertex?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
201). How many priority queue operations are involved in Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
202). Which of the following is true?
a) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex
b) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a edge
c) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex which has smallest edge
d) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a forest

203). Consider the graph shown below.
204 Which of the following edges form the MST of the given graph using Prim’a
algorithm, starting from vertex 4?
a) (4-3)(5-3)(2-3)(1-2)
b) (4-3)(3-5)(5-1)(1-2)
c) (4-3)(3-5)(5-2)(1-5)
d) (4-3)(3-2)(2-1)(1-5)
205).Prim’s algorithm is also known as __________

a) Dijkstra–Scholten algorithm
b) Borůvka’s algorithm
c) Floyd–Warshall algorithm
d) DJP Algorithm
206). Which of the following is false about Prim’s algorithm?
a) It is a greedy algorithm
b) It constructs MST by selecting edges in increasing order of their weights
c) It never accepts cycles in the MST
d) It can be implemented using the Fibonacci heap
207). Consider the given graph.
What is the weight of the minimum spanning tree using the Prim’s algorithm, starting
from vertex a?
a) 23
b) 28
c) 27
d) 11
208). What does Maximum flow problem involve?
a) Finding a flow between source and sink that is maximum
b) Finding a flow between source and sink that is minimum
c) Finding the shortest path between source and sink
d) Computing a minimum spanning tree
209) What is the source?
a) Vertex with no incoming edges
b) Vertex with no leaving edges
c) Centre vertex
d) Vertex with the least weight
210) Which algorithm is used to solve a maximum flow problem?
a) Prim’s algorithm
b) Kruskal’s algorithm
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Ford-Fulkerson algorithm
211) Does Ford- Fulkerson algorithm use the idea of?
a) Naïve greedy algorithm approach
b) Residual graphs
c) Minimum cut
d) Minimum spanning tree
212) The first step in the naïve greedy algorithm is?
a) analysing the zero flow
b) calculating the maximum flow using trial and error
c) adding flows with higher values
d) reversing flow if required
213) Under what condition can a vertex combine and distribute flow in any manner?
a) It may violate edge capacities
b) It should maintain flow conservation
c) The vertex should be a source vertex
d) The vertex should be a sink vertex
214) Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 22
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
215) A simple acyclic path between source and sink which pass through only
positive weighted edges is called?
a) augmenting path
b) critical path
c) residual path
d) maximum path
216) How many constraints does flow have?

a) one
b) three
c) two
d) four
217) What does the given figure depict?
a) min cut problem

b) max cut problem
c) maximum flow problem
d) flow graph
218) What is the minimum number of cuts that a graph with ‘n’ vertices can have?
a) n+1
b) n(n-1)
c) n(n+1)/2
d) n(n-1)/2
219) What is the minimum cut of the following network?
a) ({1,3},{4,3},{4,5})
b) ({1,2},{2,3},{4,5})
c) ({1,0},{4,3},{4,2})
d) ({1,2},{3,2},{4,5})
220) How many edges will a tree consisting of N nodes have?

a) Log(N)
b) N
c) N – 1
d) N + 1
221) What will be the chromatic number of the following graph?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
222) How many unique colors will be required for vertex coloring of the following
graph?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
223) Assuming that the ends of a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the mean,
which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
a. 30 days, plus or minus 5 days
b. 22 – 30 days
c. Optimistic = 26 days, most likely = 30 days, pessimistic = 33 days

d. Mean of 28 days
224) If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project
is expected to last five months, what is the probability that the risk event will occur
during the fourth month of the project?
a. Less than 1 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
225) An accepted deadline for project approaches. However, the project manager
realizes only 75% percent of the work has been completed. The project manager
then issues a change request. What should the change request authorize?
a. Additional resources using the contingency fund
b. Escalation approval to use contingency funding
c. Team overtime to meet schedule
d. Corrective action based on causes
226) The risk will be identified during which risk management process(es)?
a. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks
b. Identify Risks and Monitor and Control Risks
c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Monitor and Control Risks
d. Identify Risks
227) What is meant by RACI?
a. Responsible, Accountable, Confirm, Inform
b. Recommended, Accountable, Consulted, Inform
c. Responsible, Accountant, Consulted, Inform
d. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Inform
228) Which of the following statement is true about a Program?
a. A Program is a group of related projects

b. A Program is a group of unrelated projects
c. A Program is a part of a big project
d. None of the above
229. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:
a. overall project duration.
b. project cost estimating.
c. the project management plan.
d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities.
230). The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned
from previous projects. In what activity is the team involved?
a. Performance management
b. Scope identification
c. Risk identification
d. Project team status meeting
231) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says
that he cannot fulfill the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had
signed the contract. He is referring to the:
a. Force majeure clause
b. Fixed price clause
c. Contract obligation terms
232) When estimating time for activities, a Project Manager should:
a. Use the best guess and estimate all activities since there will be changes as the
project progresses and more information becomes available
b. Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates
c. Estimate for what the cost will allow and include buffers

233) You are running a project to engineer and implement a set of business
processes and a software solution for customer relationship management. The
project involves a large number of organizations, a major corporation and many
suppliers of different sizes. During the project, you observe the effects of the
differences between the companies’ corporate cultures. This leads to different
expectations on how the project should be handled, as well as to frequent
misunderstandings between stakeholders. Another effect is a growing degree of
distrust and skepticism. What should you try first to integrate the diverse stakeholder
groups?
a. Focus on project work. As a project manager, you should not get distracted by
big egos.
b. Let the problems grow further until they are obvious for all. Then escalate them.
c. Develop a joint quality policy for the project and seek a commitment by all
organizations.
d. Analyze the probability and impact of the risks linked with the situation and
plan how to respond to them.
234) A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. Several of her experts are
offsite but wish to be included. How can this be done?
a. Do a Monte Carlo analysis using the Internet as a tool
b. Apply the critical path method
c. Determine options for recommended corrective action
d. Apply the Delphi Technique
235) When control charts are used, outliers are…
a. Singular measurements outside the bandwidth between an upper and lower

control limit.
b. A typical result of a rare random cause which is difficult to replicate and to verify.
c. Insignificant results, often measurement errors, the causes of which should not
be further investigated.
d. Measurements are inconsistent with a run of results over or under a mean value.
236. The Project manager should be able to fulfill the role of
A).an integrator
B).functional manager
C).line manager
D).sponsor
237. The successful project managers spend most of their time
A. Planning with their personnel
B. Planning with the top management
C. Communication with the project team
D. Studying project results
238. The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:
B. Operations cycle
C. Production cycle
D. Life cycle
239. Starting with the seed of an idea, it covers identification of the product / service,
Pre-feasibility, Feasibility studies and Appraisal and Approval- Is which phase of
Project cycle
A. Conceptualization
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Termination
240. Communicating with stakeholders is a part of which phase
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Termination
D. All the above
241. Pictorial representation of various tasks required to be performed for

accomplishment of the project objectives
A. Venn diagram
B. line chart
C. Bar chart
D. None of these
242. The critical path
A. Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. Is a mixture of all paths.
C.Is the longest path
D.Is the shortest path
243. Application of knowledge, skills and techniques to execute projects effectively

and efficiently is known as
A. Project management
B. Project life cycle
C. Project planning
D. None of these
244. Projects undertaken to provide goods or services for meeting the growing
needs of the customers and providing attractive returns to the investors/stake
holders. Are called
A. Development Project
B. Forecasting Project
C. Industrial Projects
D. All the above
245. A project
A. Does not involves risk and uncertainty
B. Involves risk and uncertainty
C. Involves ony risk
D. None of these
246. "______________phase marks the completion of the project wherein the

agreed deliverables are installed and project is put in to operation with arrangements
for follow-up and evaluation"
A. Conception phase
B. Planning
C. Termination
D. All the above
247. Milestone represented by a circle over a task in the bar chart indicates .
A. Problems in task
B. Decision planning
C. Follow up
D. Completion of a specific phase of the task
248. While scheduling a project by C.P.M.
A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All the above.
249. The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Director of project management
D. Customer
250. In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
A. Conceptual
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Design
251. What is the ideal method of resource allocation
A. Allocating in a manner consistent with shareholder desires
B. Allocating in a manner to reduce tax conseqences

C. Allocation to maximize the profit potential of one of the business' profit centers
D. Allocating resources in the most efficient manner to produce what

consumers want with the lowest possible use of resource
A. Uniform distribution curve
B. Normal distribution curve
C. U-shaped distribution curve
D. None
253. In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___
A. zero
B. high
C. low
D. medium
254. Overhead expenses of a project are included in
A. indirect cost
B. direct cost
C. variable cost
D. fixed cost
255. Cost controls can be best described by which of the following?
A. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that
B. ld occur during the project
C. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
D. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life
cycle
256. ______ is conceived with the objective of meeting the market demand,
exploiting natural resources or creating wealth.
A. Project identification
B. Project Planning
C. Project execution
D. None of these
257. SWOT analysis stands for
A. strengths, weaknesses, option and threats analysis
B. stress, weaknesses, opportunities and threats analysis
C. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats analysis
D. strengths, weaknesses, option and threats analysis
258. Which of the following could be strength?
A. Weather
B. A new international market
C. A price that is too high
D. The location of a business
259. Who usually conducts a SWOT Analysis for a business?
A. Financial Institutions/Banks
B. Lawyers
C. Employees
D. Managers
260. ____ involves soliciting the opinions of a group of managers on expected future
sales and combining them into a sales estimate.
A. Delphi method
B. Jury of Executive opinion method
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
261. Delphi method appeals to many organizations for-
1. It is intelligible to users
2. It has fancy name
3. It seems to be more accurate and less expensive than the traditional face-toface
group meetings.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1and 2
C. All the three
D. None of these
262. Project performance consists of
A. Time
B. Cost
C. Quality
D. All of these
263. PERT analysis is based on
A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All the above.
264. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A) Deadlines exist.
B) Independent activities.
C) Too many workers may be required.
D) Costly delay
265. The particular task performance in CPM is known
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
266. The earliest start time rule
A) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
B) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.

C) Directs when a project can start.
D) Regulates when a project must begin.
267. The critical path
A) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
B) Is a mixture of all paths.
C) Is the longest path
D) Is the shortest path
268. Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known
A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All the above.
269. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the
earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start
time for Y will be
A) 10
B) 15
C) 12
D) Cannot be determined
270. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are
12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
A) 11
B) 10
C) 18
D) Cannot be determined
271. PERT analysis is based on
A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All the above.
272. While scheduling a project by CPM
A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All the above.
273. Who introduced the bar charts?
a) Williams henry
b) Henry Gantt
c) Jane Gantt
d) Joseph henry
274. The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
275. The full form of CPM is ___________
a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management
276. In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
a) Red
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Green
277. _________ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
a) Circles
b) Squares
c) Rectangles
d) Arrows
278. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
circumstances is known as ________
a) Pessimistic time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Expected time estimate
d) The most likely time estimate
279. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum
time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
a) The most likely time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate
280. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time
needed to perform an activity is known as _________
a) Free float
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float
281. The latest finish time for an activity:
A. equals the max. of EST + t for all immediate predecessors.
B. equals the min. of EST + t for all immediate successors.
C. equals the min. of LFT − t for all immediate successors.
D. equals the max. of LFT − t for all immediate predecessors.

282. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the largest probability of being completed on time.
B. The standard deviation of a project completion time is the sum of the standard
deviations for the critical path activities.
C. The variance of the time taken to complete an activity is equal to (b − a)/6.
D. Three time estimates are necessary so that we can estimate the parameters
of the Beta distribution.
283. An expected project completion time follows a normal distribution with a mean
of 21 days and a standard deviation of 4 days. What is the probability that the project
will be completed in 25 days?
A.0.7734
B.0.0819
C.0.2426
D.0.8413
A. The EFT for an activity is equal to the EST minus the slack for that activity.
B. For the beta distribution, m will always be exactly in the middle of a and b.
C. When considering the possible crashing of a project, the normal time equals the
length of the shortest path prior to any crashes.
D. Dummy activities do not require any resources.
285. The critical path in a network of activities:
A. will be the path with the most number of activities.
B. must have at least three activities.
C. will always have all activities with positive slack.
D. cannot be delayed or else the entire project will be delayed
286. The Gantt Chart is used to:
A. track the cost of the activities.
B. control cost of all the activities.
C. provide a schedule and track costs of activities.

D. provide a schedule of the activities .
A. PERT and CPM are both probabilistic techniques.
B. PERT is considered as a deterministic approach and CPM is a probabilistic

techniques.
C. PERT and CPM are both considered as deterministic approachs.
D. PERT is considered as a probabilistic techniques and CPM is considered as

a deterministic approach.
The standard deviation for a PERT diagram is calculated by:
A. taking the sum of the variances on the nodes on the critical path, then find
the square root.
B. taking the sum of the standard deviations on the nodes on the critical path.
C. taking the sum of the standard deviations on all the nodes.
D. taking the sum of the variance on all the nodes, then find the square root.
288. A project consists of 14 activities, A to N. The duration of these activities (in

days) are shown in brackets on the network diagram. The latest finish time (in days)
for node 10 is __________
A.12
B.14
C.18
D.16
289. Following data refers to the activities of a project , where, node 1 refers to the
start and node 5 refers to the end of the project.
Activity Duration (days)
1-2 2
2-3 1
4-3 3
1-4 3
2-5 3
3-5 2
4-5 4
The critical path (CP) in the network is
(A) 1-2-3-5
(B) 1-4-3-5
(C) 1-2-3-4-5
(D) 1-4-5
290. A project has four activities P, Q, R and S as shown below.
Activity Normal duration (days) Predecessor Cost slope (Rs./day)

P 3 - 500
Q 7 P 100
R 4 P 400
S 5 R 200
The normal cost of the project is Rs. 10,000/- and the overhead cost is Rs. 200/- per
day. If the project duration has to be crashed down to 9 days, the total cost (in
Rupees) of the project is _______
A.12490
B.12510
C.18000
D.17890
291. Consider the given project network, where numbers along various activities
represent the normal tim me. The free float on activity 4-6 and the project duration,
respectively, are
(A) 2,13
(B) 0,13
(C) -2,13
(D) 2,12
292. The precedence relations and duration (in days) of activities of a project
network are given in the table. The total float (in days) of activities e and f,
respectively, are
Activity Predecessors Duration (days)

a - 2
b - 4
c a 2
d b 3
e c 2
f c 4
g d,e 5
A) 0 and 4
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 1
293. For a particular project, eight activities are to be carried out. Their relationships
with other activities and expected durations are mentioned in the table below.
ActivityPredecessorsDuration (days)
a - 3
b a 4
c a 5
d a 4
e b 2
f d 9
g c,e 6
h f,g 2
the critical path for the project is
A) a – b – e – g – h
(B) a – c – g – h
(C) a – d – f – h
(D) a – b – c – f – h
294.For a particular project, eight activities are to be carried out. Their relationships
with other activities and expected durations are mentioned in the table below.
ActivityPredecessorsDuration (days)
a - 3
b a 4
c a 5
d a 4
e b 2
f d 9
g c,e 6
h f,g 2
If the duration of activity f alone is changed from 9 to 10 days, then the
A) Critical path remains the same and the total duration to complete the
project changes to 19 days.
(B) Critical path and the total duration to complete the project remain the same.
(C) Critical path changes but the total duration to complete the project remains the
same.
(D) Critical path changes and the total duration to complete the project changes to
17 days.
295. The project activities, precedence relationships and durations are described in
the table. The critical path of the project is
Activity Precedence Duration (in days)
P - 3
Q - 4
R P 5
S Q 5
T R,S 7
U R,S 5
V T 2
W U 10
(A) P-R-T-V
(B) Q-S-T-V
(C) P-R-U-W
(D) Q-S-U-W
296. The expected time (te) of a PERT activity in terms of optimistic time (to),
pessimistic time (tp) and most likely time (tm) is given by
A) te=(to+4tm+tp)/6
(B) te=(to+4tp+tm)/6
(C) te=(to+4tl+tp)/3
(D) te=(to+4tp+tm)/3
297. Planning tasks associated with job scheduling, machine loading, and
dispatching typically falls under
A) Long-range plans
B) Intermediate-range plans
C) Short-range plans
D) Mission-related planning
298. Which of the following statements regarding project management is false?
a. Project organization works well when the work contains simple,

independent tasks.
b. Gantt charts give a timeline for each of a project's activities, but do not adequately
show the interrelationships of activities.
c. Project organization is most suitable for projects that are temporary but critical to
the organization.
d. All of the above are true.
299. Which of the following statements concerning CPM activities is false?

a. The late finish of an activity is the earliest late start of all preceding
activities.
B The early finish of an activity is the early start of that activity plus its duration.
c. The late finish is the earliest of the late start times of all successor activities.
d. The late start of an activity is its late finish less its duration.
300. Which of the following statements regarding CPM networks is true?
a. The early finish of an activity is the latest early start of all preceding activities.
b. The late finish of an activity is the earliest late start of all preceding activities.
c. On a specific project, there can be multiple critical paths, all of which will
have exactly the same duration.
d. A project does not have to have a critical path.
301. Which of the following statements regarding project management is true?
a. Both PERT and CPM require that network tasks have unchanging durations.
b. Shortening the project by assigning more resources to one or more of the

critical tasks is called "project crashing."
c. Crashing need not consider the impact of crashing an activity on other paths in the
network.
d. Project crashing is an optimizing technique.
302. Which of these statements regarding time-cost tradeoffs in CPM networks is

true?
a. Crashing is not possible unless there are multiple critical paths.
b. Crashing a project often reduces the length of long-duration, but non-critical,

activities.
c. Activities not on the critical path can never be on the critical path, even after
crashing.
d. Crashing shortens the project duration by assigning more resources to one

or more of the critical tasks.
303. In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done____________?
A. on all the activities
B. on all the activities lying on the critical path
C. only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost slopes
D. on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of
crashing in the order of ascending cost slope
304. Select the incorrect statement
A. Start float and finish float are always equal
B. Total float can be either start float or finish float
C .Start float and finish float need not be equal
D. Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event
times
305. Select the incorrect statement
A. Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves
B. Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters
C. Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration
D. none of the above
306. Select the correct statement
A. Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale
B. The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
C. Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
D. None of the above
307. PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for__________________
A. small projects
B. large and complex projects
C. research and development projects
D .deterministic activities
308) The objective of network analysis is to

a) Minimize total project duration
b) Minimize total project cost
c) Minimize production delays, interruption and conflicts
d) All the above
309) Network models have advantage in terms of project
a) Planning
b) Scheduling
c) Controlling
d) All the above
310) The slack for an activity is equal to
a) LF-LS
b) EF-ES
c) LS-ES
d) None of the above
311) The another term commonly used for activity slack time is
a) Total float
b) Free float
c) Independent float
d) all of the above
312) Generally the pert technique deals with the project of
a) Repetitive nature
b) Non-repetitive nature
c) Deterministic nature
313) In PERT the span of time between the optimistic and pessimistic time estimates
of an activity is
a) 3σ
b) 6σ
c) 12σ
314) If an activity has zero slack it implies that
a) It lies on the critical path
b) It is a dummy activity
c) The project is progressing well
315) A dummy activity is used in the network diagram when
a) Two parallel activities have the same tail and head events
b) The chain of activities may have a common event yet be independently by
themselves
c) Both a and b
316) While drawing the network diagram, for each activity project we should look
a) What activities precede this activity?
b) What activities follow the activity?
c) What activities can concurrently take place with the activity?
d) All the above
317) In the pert network each activity time assumes a Beta distribution because
a) It is a unimodal distribution that provides information regarding the
uncertainity of time estimates of activities
b) It has got finite non negative error
c) It need not be symmetrical about model value
d) All the above
318) The critical path satisfy the condition that
a) Ei=Li and Ej=Lj
b) Lj-Ej = Li-Lj
c) Lj-Ei=Li-Ej =d (constant)
d) all the above
319) Float or slack analysis is useful for
a) Projects behind the schedule only
b) Projects ahead of the schedule only
c) Both a and b
320) The activity that can be delayed without affecting the execution of the
immediate succeeding activity is determined by
a) Total float
b) free float
c) independent float
d) none of the above
321) In time cost trade off function analysis
a) Cost decreases linearly as time increases
b) Cost at normal time is Zero
c) Cost increases linearly as time increases
322) Activity-on arrow (AOA) diagram is preferred over activity on node (AON)
diagram because
a) AOA diagram are simple to construct
b) AOA diagrams give a better sense of the flow of time throughout a project
c) AOA diagrams do not involve dummy activities
d) all the above
323) Which one of the following is assumed for timing the activities in PERT?
a) α – distribution
b) β – distribution
c) Binomial
d) Erlangen
324) In PERT network, expected project duration is found to be 36 days. The
variance is 4 days. The probability that project is completed in 36 days is? (use z
value)
a) Zero
b) 84 %
c) 50 %
d) 34 %
325) The critical path of a network is the path that takes/Has
a) Shortest time
b) Min variance
c) Max variance
d) Longest
326. The time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the EST of any
other Activity?
a) Free float
b) Total float
d) Interfering float
327) The additional time available to perform an activity in PERT and CPM is
calculated on the basis that all activities will start at their EST is called
a) Free float
b) Total float
d) Slack
328. Crashing of project network is carried out to find …………… duration
a) Normal
b) Optimum
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
329. Identify the false statement from the following.
a) A project is an Endeavour to create a unique product or service
b) The techniques of operations research used for planning scheduling and
controlling projects referred to as network analysis
c) The objective of network analysis is to minimize total project
d) The CPM is used for completing the projects that involves activities of repetitive
nature
330. Identify the false statement from the following
a) PERT is referred to as an activity oriented technique
b) Project planning phase allocates resources to work packages
c) Scheduling phase identify manpower that will responsible for each task
d) Beta probability distribution is often used in computing the expected activity
completion times and variances in networks
331).___________ is conceived with the objective of meeting the market demand,
exploiting natural resources or creating wealth.
A) Project identification
B) Forecasting
C) Risk management
D) Data collection
332) ______ analysis represents a conscious, deliberate, and systematic effort by an
organization to identify opportunities that can be profitably exploited by it.
A) CPM
B) PERT
C) SWOT
D) Delphi
333) A clear articulation and prioritization of objectives helps in and prods them to
think more imaginatively
A) Channelizing the efforts of employees
B) Prods them to think more imaginatively
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
334) Which of the following could be a threat According to SWOT?
A. Changes in technology
B. A market vacated by an ineffective competitor
C. Location of your business
D. Lack of marketing expertise
335) Which of the following is true about preparing a SWOT Analysis?
A. It should focus on where the organization is today, not where it could be in the
future.
B. A SWOT Analysis is objective
C. It should be specific and avoid grey areas
D. It should analyze the organization only and ignore the performance of competitors
336. The operational objectives of a firm may be one or more of the following:
a) Cost reduction
b) Productivity improvement
c) Increase in capacity utilization
d) Improvement in contribution margin
1. A
2. A and B
3. C
4. A,B,C
337. ____ is required to eliminate ideas which prima fancier not promising
A) Preliminary screening
B) Forecasting
C) Risk Management
D) None of these
338. Describes the effect of social, political, economic, technological, and other
external variables on the market.
A) Market situation
B) Microenvironment
C) Competitive situation
D) None of these
339) Which of the following is true about preparing a SWOT Analysis?
A. It should focus on where the organization is today, not where it could be
in the future.
B. A SWOT Analysis is objective
C. It should be specific and avoid grey areas
D) All the above
340.______The earnings and cash flows of the project may be lower than expected
because of estimation of following error
A) Project specific risk
B) Project specific risk
C) Market risk
D) International risk
341.______represents the risk of a project when it is viewed in isolation firm risk also
called corporate risk
A) Systematic risk
B) Qualitative risk
C) Stand-alone risk:
D) None of these
342. Delphi method includes;
A) A questionnaire was sent to a group of experts by mail and asked to express their
views.
B) The responses received from the experts are summarized without disclosing the
identity of the experts, and sent back to the experts, along with a questionnaire meant
to probe further the reasons for extreme views expressed in the first round.
C) The process may be continued for one or more rounds till a reasonable agreement
emerges in the views of the experts.
D) All of above
343. Objectives have to be
A) Clear-cut
B) Specific
C) Achievable
D) All of above
344. According to Murphy. characteristics are
A) Fitting the personality of the entrepreneur
B) Accessible to entrepreneur
C) Offering the prospect of rapid growth and high return on invested capital.
D) All of above
345. Which of the following is true about preparing a SWOT Analysis?
A. It should focus on where the organization is today, not where it could be in the
future.
B. It should be specific and avoid grey areas
C. It should analyze the organization only and ignore the performance of competitors.
D All the above
346. Which of the following could be a threat?
347. Market situation deals with
A) Size
B) The growth
C) The consumer aspiration
D) All the above
348.______ methods rely essentially on the judgment of experts to translate
qualitative information into quantitative estimates.
A) Qualitative methods
B) Quantitative Methods
C) Both qualitative and Quantitative
D) None of these
349. Market and demand analysis is concerned with
A) What is the likely aggregate demand for the product/service
B) What share of the market will the proposed project enjoy
C) Neither 1 nor 2
D) Both 1,2
350. Unanticipated changes in macroeconomics factors like the
GDP growth rate, interest rate, and inflation have an impact on projects are ___risk
A) Market risk
B) Competitive risk
C) Industry-specific risk
D) None of these
351.Which of the following could be a threat?
352. Delphi Method is used for
A) Judgmental fore casting
B) Time series fore casting
C) Associative mode
D) All the above
353. Which are the following two internal elements of SWOT?
A) Weakness and threat
B) Opportunity and threat
C) Strength and weakness
D) Strength and threat
354. Which of the following are the characteristics of Project Mindset?
A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
B) Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning
D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning
355. Which of the following SWOT elements are internal factors for a business?
A. Strengths and Weaknesses
B. Opportunities and Threats
C. Strengths and Opportunities
D. Weaknesses and Threats
356. Which of the following is false regarding why a SWOT Analysis is used?
A. To build on the strengths of a business
B. To minimize the weaknesses of a business
C. To reduce opportunities available to a business
D. To counteract threats to a business
357. Which of the following could be a weakness?
A. A developing market such as the Internet
B. Competitors with access to better channels of distribution
C. Poor quality of goods and services
D. Special marketing expertise
358. Delphi method appeals to many organizations for the following reasons:
A. It is intelligible to users
B. It has fancy name
C. It seems to be more accurate and less expensive than the traditional face-toface
group meetings
D. All the above
359. In ______ after gathering information about various aspects of the market and
demand from primary and secondary sources, an attempt may be made to estimate
future demand
A. Demand forecasting
B. Production
C. Execution
D. None of these
360. The estimated time required to perform an activity, is known as
A. event
B. dummy
C. duration
D. float.
361. A critical ratio scheduling
A. Establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
B. Determines the status of each activity
C. Adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
D. None
362. The first method invented for planning projects, was
A. Bar chart method
B. Milestone chart
C. Critical path method (CPM)
D. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
363. Modular co-ordination of construction means proper
A. planning
B. designing
C. execution
D. All
364. The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:
B. Life cycle
C. Operations cycle
D. Production cycle
365. The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Director of project management
D. Customer
366. In which of the following project phases, the project schedule was developed?
A. Conceptual
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Design
367. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the
start of succeeding activities, is known as
A. duration
B. total flat
C. free float
D. independent float
368. The object of technical planning, is
A. preparation of specifications
B. preparation of estimates
C. initiating the procurement action of resources
D. All
369. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
A. Cutting costs and reducing time
B. Decreasing the time required for decision making
C. Eliminating idle time
D. Developing better trouble shooting procedures.
370. What is Full form of FNC
A. Feasible nominal capacity
B. Feasible normal capacity
C. Financial normal capacity
D. Functional normal capacity
371. What does Maximum flow problem involve?
a) Finding a flow between source and sink that is maximum
b) Finding a flow between source and sink that is minimum
c) Finding the shortest path between source and sink
d) Computing a minimum spanning tree.
372. What is the source?
a) Vertex with no incoming edges
b) Vertex with no leaving edges
c) Centre vertex
d) Vertex with the least weight
373. Which algorithm is used to solve a maximum flow problem?
a) Prim’s algorithm
b) Kruskal’s algorithm
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Ford-Fulkerson algorithm
374. Does Ford- Fulkerson algorithm use the idea of?
a) Naïve greedy algorithm approach
b) Residual graphs
c) Minimum cut
d) Minimum spanning tree
375. The first step in the naïve greedy algorithm is?
a) Analyzing the zero flow
b) Calculating the maximum flow using trial and error
c) Adding flows with higher values
d) Reversing flow if required
376.. Under what condition can a vertex combine and distribute flow in any manner?
a) It may violate edge capacities
b) It should maintain flow conservation
c) The vertex should be a source vertex
d) The vertex should be a sink vertex
377. Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 22
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
378. A simple acyclic path between source and sink which pass through only positive
weighted edges is called?
a) Augmenting path
b) Critical path
c) Residual path
d) Maximum path
379. Who is the formulator of Maximum flow problem?
a) Lester R. Ford and Delbert R. Fulkerson
b) T.E. Harris and F.S. Ross
c) Y.A. Dinitz
d) Kruskal
380. How many constraints does flow have?
a) one
b) three
c) two
d) four
381. Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 23
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
382 Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 23
b) 17
c) 19
d) 20
38
3. If the market is likely to be uncertain, it might be advantages to start with a
A. Medium capacity
B. Heavy capacity
C. Small and heavy capacity
D. Small capacity
384. Every project consists of a number of job operations or tasks, which are called
a. Activity
b. Event
c. Critical activities
d. Dummy activities
385. The longest path and consumes maximum time is known as
A. Dummy activities
B. Non-Critical path
C. Critical path
D. Critical activities
386. It is the time in which the activity will take to complete under normal conditions is
known as
A. Optimistic time
B. Most likely time
C. Pessimistic time
D. All of the above
387. Production cost over a period of time should be carefully assessed in
A. Use by Other Units
B. Investment Outlay and production cost
C. Product Mix
D. Plant capacity
388. If the market for the product is likely to be very strong, a plant of
A. Small capacity is preferable
B. Medium capacity is preferable
C. Higher capacity is preferable
D. All are preferable
390. In the case of public sector projects, location is directly decided by the
A. Public
B. Government
C. Public and government
391. Irrigation projects, defense project are generally designed by
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. PERT & CPM
392. The selection of technology is influenced by
A. Latest developments
B. Ease of absorption
C. Both
393. A-B-C analysis is used in
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Inventory control
D. All of these
394. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. An activity consume time and resources whereas an event do not consume time or
resources.
B. The performance of a specific task is called an activity.
C. An event is an instantaneous point in time at which an activity begins or ends.
D. The turning of a job on lathe is an event whereas job turned is an activity
395. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are
12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
A.11
B.10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
396. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the
earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start
time for Y will be
A.10
B.12
C.15
D. Cannot be determined
397) What does event in a CPM/PERT network, refers to ?
1. The occurrence of a delay in the project
2. an activity inserted into the network to show a precedence relationship with no
passage of time
3. The beginning or completion of an activity of project
4. The earliest an activity can start
398) What is the first step in an activity-based construction modeling and simulation
method?
1. Advance Simulation
2. Select activity
3. Release Entities
4. None of these
399) What is the PERT time for a activity with optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic
time estimates of 6, 10, 14 days?
1.5
2.10
3. 7
4. 12
400) what is the effect of increase in the length of the path, on variance of number of
activities connected in series?
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. No effect
4. Depending upon the project
401. In a PERT network, the earliest (activity) start time is the
A. Earliest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project.
B. Latest time that an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
C. Earliest time that an activity can start without violation of precedence
requirements.
D. Latest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project.
402. Which of the following, if any, may not be one of the questions answered by
PERT or PERT/Cost?
A. When will the entire project be completed?
B. Are there enough resources available to complete the project on time?
C. What is the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date?
403. PERT
A. assumes we do not know ahead of time what activities must be completed.
B. allows computation of the program’s evaluation.
C. is a network technique that uses three time estimates for each activity in a
project.
D. is a deterministic network technique that allows for project crashing.
404 Time an activity would take assuming very unfavorable conditions is represented
by the
A. optimistic time
B. most likely time
C. deterministic time
D. pessimistic time
405. The expected time in PERT is
A. A weighted average of the most optimistic time, most pessimistic time, and
four times the most likely time.
B. The modal time of a beta distribution.
C. A simple average of the most optimistic, most likely, and most pessimistic times.
D. The square root of the sum of the variances of the activities on the critical path.
406. Given the following activity’s optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic time
estimates of 6, 10, 14 days, respectively, compute the PERT time for this activity.
A.5
B.10
C.7
D.12
407. What is the critical path for the project described in the following table?
a. A, B
b. A, C
c. B, D
d. A, B, C, D
408. Consider a project that has an expected completion time of 60 weeks and a
standard deviation of five weeks. What is the probability that the project is finished in
70 weeks or less (round to two decimals)?
A.0.98
B.0.48
C.0.50
D.0.02
409. How long could activity E be delayed without delaying the completion of the
project described in the following table?
A.3
B.9
C.14
D.17
410. Which of the following is one of the assumptions of PERT?
A. Total project completion time follows a normal probability distribution.
B. Activity times are dependent and correlated.
C. Project completion time follows a skewed chi-square distribution.
D. Activity times are known with certainty.
411. The first step in planning and scheduling a project is to
A .assign time and cost estimates to each activity.
B. develop the work breakdown structure.
C. compute the longest time through the network.
D. use PERT or CPM to help.
412. Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
413. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its
_____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
414. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
(A) Uniform distribution curve
(B) Normal distribution curve.
(C) U-shaped distribution curve

(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
417. Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process
(A) Change Management System (CMS)
(B) Configuration Management (CM)

418. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that

should be communicated to:
a. the project team.
b. the project stakeholders.
c. the project board.
d. the project sponsor.
419. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure
the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for

quality will be exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to

specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between
customer expectations and budget.
420. Project risk management is best described as:
a. managing responses to threats.
b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
c. planning responses to threats.
d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
421. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?
a. A major problem that requires formal escalation.
b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
d. An opportunity that occurs through change control.
a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.
423. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product
Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on

the project.
b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and

dependencies.
c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the
handover.
d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the
project.
424. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?
a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
b. The date by which the project is to be completed.
c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.
425. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals.
b. Management buy in.
c. Milestone achievement.
d. Master schedule.
a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the
concept phase of the project life cycle.
b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the
concept phase of the project life cycle.
c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase
of the project life cycle.
d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the
definition phase of the project life cycle.
427. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

a. The project team.
b. The chief executive.
c. The project manager.
d. The project support office.
428. Which one of the following best describes users?
a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.
429. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:
a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
430. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. Controls.
a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
c. Projects are transient endeavors that bring about change to business-as-

usual.
d. A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.
432. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.
433. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?
a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.
434. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:
a. inspection, testing and measurement.
b. reviews and audits.
c. fitness for purpose of deliverables.
d. professionally-bound project reports.
435. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
436. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?
a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
c. Assigning resources to activities.
d. Matching resources to the schedule.
437. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to
ensure?
a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated.
b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.
c. Management costs of the project do not increase.

d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.
438. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.
439. Project reporting can best be defined as:
a. informing stakeholders about the project.
b. storing and archiving of project information.
c. gathering stakeholder feedback.
d. collecting project information.
440. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?
a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the

project life cycle.
b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge

available now.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of
progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time
or cost terms.
441. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in

the:
a. Cost Breakdown Structure.
b. procurement strategy.
c. business case.
d. Project Management Plan.
442. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering

group/board?
a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

c. To manage the project team in all daily activities.
d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.
443. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations.
444. Which of the following best describes a project environment?
a. The type of organization concerned with implementation.
b. The structured method used to control the project.
c. The context within which a project is undertaken.
d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.
445.. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?
a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering

organizational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique

piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavor undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
d. A project is a method of planning work.
446. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom,
why, when and how is called the:
a. communication management plan.
b. stakeholder mapping grid.
c. document distribution schedule.
d. responsibility assignment matrix.
447. An important aim of a post-project review is to:
a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. capture learning and document it for future usage.
c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

d. establish that project benefits have been identified.
448. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is
called:
a. quality assurance.
b. quality planning.
c. quality control.
d. quality audit.
449. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.
b. It facilitates the risk appetite.
c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
d. It facilitates the recording of risks.
450. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?
a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the
project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a

product.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are
acquired.
451. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control
process?
a. Evaluate the change.
b. Advise the sponsor.
c. Update the change log.
d. Update the project plan.
452. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:
a. define the terms of reference of the project manager.
b. define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.
453. An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:
a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the
project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the
projects.
454. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
a. Actively seeking some senior management support.
b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A motivated project team.
455. Comparative estimating uses:
a. current data from similar projects.
b. historic data from all projects.
c. historic data from similar projects.
d. current data from all projects.
456. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?
a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
457. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:
a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit,
cost and risk of alternative options.
b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference
document for managing the project.
d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management
processes.
458. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?
a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.
459. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
a. the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
c. the project documentation must be disposed of.
d. the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.
460. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is
beneficial to an organization?
a. It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a project

manager.
b. It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.
c. It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.
d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the
defined benefits.
461. A key aspect of managing a project involves:
a. defining which operational systems to put in place.
b. identifying routine tasks.
c. ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
d. planning to achieve defined objectives.
462. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?
a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal.
b. Developing skills that will enhance project performance.
c. Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
d. Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

463. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next
phase is known as a:
a. gate review.
b. feasibility study.
c. milestone review.
d. evaluation review.
464. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
a. A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.
b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.
c. A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.
d. A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.
465. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. satisfy the organisation’s project management process.
466. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a

calendar called?
a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.
467. Configuration management is best described as:
a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.
b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.
c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation.
d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.
468. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:
a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
470. The accuracy of an estimate should:
a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.
b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.
c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle.
d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.
471. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?
a. A positive result of stakeholder management.
b. The successful management of a project.
c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.
472. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and
owned by the sponsor.
b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same
time as the business case.
c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the
project manager.
d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and

team and owned by the project manager.
473. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?
a. External stakeholders.
b. The end users.
c. The finance director.
d. The project manager.
474. The phases of a project life cycle are:
a. starting, planning, control and closing.
b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.
475. A portfolio can best be defined as:
a. a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.
b. a group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
d. a range of products and services offered by an organisation.
476. Which one of the following best describes project management?
a. Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.
477. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications

channels for a project?
a. Work Breakdown Structure.
b. Organisational Breakdown Structure.
c. Product Breakdown Structure.
d. Responsibility assignment structure.
478. Project management involves
1. Decision making for the planning,
2. Organizing,
3. Coordination,
4. Monitoring and control of a number of interrelated time bound activities.
A. Only 1,2
B. Only 1,2,3
C.All
D. None of these
479. In PERT chart, the activity time distribution is

(A) Normal
(B) Binomial
(C) Poisson
(D) Beta
480. How often should a SWOT Analysis be performed?

A) Only when specific issues need to be addressed
B) At least once per year
C) Only when the business starts
D) Every 3-5 years
481. Which of the following determines if the information system makes sense for the
organization from an economic and operational standpoint?
A. feasibility study
B. statement of work
C. system service request
D. resource schedule
482. Designing and sequencing activities to attain project goals best describes the:
A. Customer relations project manager activity.
B. Conflict management project manager activity.
C. Team management project manager activity.
D. Technical problem-solving project manager activity.
483. Skills required for the management activity include:
A. Communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning
activities; monitoring progress.
B. Defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning
resources to activities; monitoring outcomes.
C. Communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict resolution;
team building; self-management.
D. Problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting
484. Which of the following is the second phase of the project management process,
which focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to complete
each activity within a single project?
A. Project execution
B. Project initiation
C. Project planning
D. Project closedown
485. The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering
them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks best defines:
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. Decomposition.
C. Task identification.
D. Activity slicing.
486. Establishing management procedures activity involves:
A. Defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to
define the project's scope.
B. Developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments
and roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding
and billing will be handled.
C. Understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and
documenting general alternative solutions for the current business problem or
opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and choosing
which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases.
D. Using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to
each activity in the work breakdown structure.
487. The describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity involves:
B. Developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and
roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will
be handled.
opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and
choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases.
D. Using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to
each activity in the work breakdown structure.
488. Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?
A. Preliminary
B. Definitive
C. Order of magnitude
D. Conceptual
489. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project
A. Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
B. Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
C. Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
D. Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
490. Which of the following is a direct project cost?
A. Lighting and heating for the corporate office
B. Workers Compensation insurance
C. Piping for an irrigation project
D. Bank loan
491. Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a
similar nature whose costs are known.
A. Algorithmic model
B. Expert judgment
C. Top down
D. Analogy
492. Overhead expenses on a project on a project are included in
A. Indirect Cost
B. Direct Cost
C. Variable Cost
D. Fixed Cost
493. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
A. Cutting costs and reducing time
B. Decreasing the time required for decision making
C. Eliminating idle time
D. Developing better trouble shooting procedures
494. Activity time estimations in PERT follow
A. Binomial
B. α – distribution
C. β – distribution
D. Normal distribution
495. The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be
A. Resources
B. Project duration time
C. Both resources and project duration time
C. None
496. Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between
A. Its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. Its latest start time and earliest start time
C. Its latest start time and earliest finish time
D. Its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
497. A project planning and control typology should focus on:
A. Uncertainty and complexity
B. Complexity and completion time
C. Uncertainty and cost control
D. Complexity and cost control
498. Projects with high levels of complexity are likely to be:
A. Easier to control than to plan.
B. Easier to control than to define.
C. Easier to plan than to control.
D. None
499. What type of plans are used to minimize the impact of uncertainty?
A. Alternate plans
B. Project plans
C. Back-up plans
D. Solid plans
500. It is likely to be especially difficult to define and set realistic objectives for:
A. Projects with high complexity
B. Projects with high uncertainty
C. Long-term projects
D. High-cost projects
501. A Graphical representation of a project that shows each task as a horizontal bar
whose length is proportional to its time for completion best describes:
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. Decision tree.
C. Network diagram.
D. Gantt chart.
502. The developing a preliminary schedule activity involves:
B. Developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and
roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will
be handled.
opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and choosing
which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases.
D. Using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time
estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure
503. Which of the following is the third phase of the project management process in
which the plans created in the prior phases are put into action?
A. Project execution
B. Project closedown
C. Project implementation
D. Project initiation
504. Which of the following has a medium to high formality rating and is used to
resolve issues?
A. Project workbook
B. Minutes of meetings
C. Bulletin boards
D. Meetings
505. Skills required for the team management activity include:
A. Communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning
activities; monitoring progress.
B. Defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning
resources to activities; monitoring outcomes.
C. Communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict
resolution; team building; self-management.
D. Problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting
506. Willingness to pay for reducing pollution can be estimated from
A. Additional wages offered for similar jobs at more polluted workplaces.
B. Additional property values offered for similar properties at less polluted locations.
C. Both are correct
D. none
507. Benefit-cost analysis should adopt ___________ in evaluating benefits and
costs of a public project.
A. Private perspective
B. Social perspective
C. Both perspectives lead to the same estimates.
D. none
508. A benefit-cost analysis of a project shows its benefit-cost ratio to be 0.80.
A. According to this ratio, the project should not be implemented.
B. According to this ratio, the project should be implemented.
C. The ratio implies that net benefits of the project at least exceed zero.
D. The ratio conveys no important information.
509. Conversion of future benefits (or future costs) to their present values is called
A. Sensitivity analysis.
B. Compounding.
C. Discounting.
D. Contingent valuation.
510. What is the present value of Rs.121 expected two years from today at a discount
rate of 10% per year?
A. Rs 100
B. Rs 110
C. Rs 120
D. Rs 121
511. Which best describes the decision criterion for implementing a project?
A. Benefits of the project should at least exceed its costs.
B. Net benefits of the project should at least exceed zero.
C. Benefit-cost ratio of the project should at least exceed one.
D. Any one of the options is a decision criterion, as one implies the other.
512. Which of the following is NOT a part of Project cost estimation
A. Plant and machinery
B. Expenses on foreign technicians and training of Indian technicians abroad
C. Preliminary and capital issue expenses
D. Term loans
513. Which of the following is not a Project Cost Estimation Stage?
A. Feasibility Stage
B. Procurement Stage
C. Estimation Stage
D. Implementation Stage
514. Which of these is not a component of the Feasibility Report?
A. Profit Margin
B. Works Cost
C. Overheads
D. Pre-commissioning Expenses
515. Which of these is a variable cost in the cost of Generation?
A. Depreciation
B. Return on Equity
C. Fuel Price
D. Interest on Loan
516. The IRR (internal rate of return) method used to compare two investment
projects
A. is based on accounting profits
B. Ignores the size of each of the projects
C. always provides only one IRR for each project
D. is not shown as a percentage
517. Which of the following elements is not normally common in projects?
A. An objective
B. No defined end point
C. Uniqueness
D. To counteract threats to a business
518. A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would NOT normally
contain:
A. Success criteria
B. An end result
C. Control mechanisms
D. The purpose
519. Changes to the project involve moving from:
A. Project control stage to project definition stage.
B. Project control stage to understanding the project environment stage.
C. Project control stage to project planning stage.
D. None
520. UNIDO's Policy making organ is
A. Secreteriat of UNIDO
B. Program and budget committee
C. General conference
D. Industrial development board
521. Moving from the project control stage to the project planning stage is called:
A. Retrospective additions
B. Revised planning
C. Project changes
D. Corrective action
522. In project management, speed and dependability objectives are compressed into
one composite objective called:
A. Vision
B. Dependence
C. Time
D. Range
523. The use of probability curves to describe a project estimate helps to deal with:
A. The impact of uncertainty on estimating times.
B. The impact of uncertainty on costs.
C. The impact of uncertainty on satisfaction.
D. The impact of uncertainty on demand.
A. Technical key resources
B. Work key structure
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
D. Grouping
524. Projects with high levels of complexity are likely to be:
A. Easier to control than to plan.
B. Easier to control than to define.
C. Easier to plan than to control.
D. None
524. What type of plans are used to minimise the impact of uncertainty?
A. Alternate plans
B. Project plans
C. Back-up plans
D. Solid plans
525. It is likely to be especially difficult to define and set realistic objectives for:
A. Projects with high complexity
B. Projects with high uncertainty
C. Long-term projects
D. High-cost projects
526. Which one among the following objectives successful project management does
NOT include?
A, Control mechanisms
B. Competent team members
C. Adequate communication channels
D. Limited resource allocation
527. What form of planning and control focuses on the low volume–high variety end
of the continuum?
A. Lean planning and control
B. Supply planning and control
C. Quality planning and control
D. Project planning and control
528. Which of the following elements is not normally common in projects?
A. Uniqueness
B. Uncertainty
C. An objective
D. No defined end point
529. Which is the first stage in the project management model?
A. Project definition
B. Project control
C. Project planning
D. Understanding the project environment
530. Resource leveling is the process of _____________ the utilization of resources
in the project
Smoothing out
531. Crashing is the process of reducing the total time that it takes to complete a
project by expending_____________
Additional resources
532. A bar chart indicating when the activities in a project will be performed is referred
to as____________
Gant chart
533. Latest finish time that an activity can be finished without_________ the entire
project
Delaying
534. The amount of time that is expected to complete the activity is
called___________
Most likely time
535. Network is the graphical display of the project that contains both________
and___________
Activities events
536. A small circle or rectangle that is known as______________ serves as a
junction point in the project network
Node
537.__________________ is the time consuming job or task that is very subpart of
the project
Activity
538.___________________is the point in time that marks the beginning or ending of
an a activity
Event
539 Earliest finish time that an activity can be finished without ____________of
precedence requirements
Violation
540. Milestones are ……………. and…………... of various activities in a project
network
Predecessors and Successo

PPM MCQ

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PPM MCQ

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

PPM-MCQ

(A) Don’t assume, ask.

(B)Divert attention away from any concerns about your project

(D)All of the above

(B) You may make use of the staff rooms on site.

(D) None of the above.

4. What advice do we give about factoring in the commitments of project

(C) Neither of these

(D) Both A and B

(B) Audio recorders

(C) Transcription equipment

(D) All of the above

(A) Your home telephone number

(B) Your supervisor’s home telephone number

(D) None of the above

(A) The photocopier breaking down

(B) Running out of ink for your printer

(C) Your computer crashing

(D) All of the above

8. What suggestions do we make to help if poor recruitment begins to pose a risk to

(A) Don’t worry – it will soon pick up.

(B) Apply some subtle pressure to potential participants.

(C) Consider changing time slots or adding new options.

(D) None of the above.

(C) (A) or (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

(A) Project analysis

(B) Project enhancing

(C) Progressive deliberation

(D) Progressive elaboration

12. A program is usually a group of

(B) People and work

(C) Related projects

(D) Unrelated projects

13. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives

II. Programs have a larger scope than projects

III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related

(C) III only

(D) II and III only

14. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.

(C) At least one

(D) At most one

16. Business Value =

(A) Tangible Elements

(B) Intangible Elements

(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements

(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements

17. Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?

(C) Monetary assets

(D) Stockholder equity

18. Which from the following is NOT an intangible element?

(B) Public benefit

(C) Brand recognition

(D) Good will

(A) Planning →Initiating →Executing →Closing

(B) Planning →Executing →Initiating →Closing

(C) Initiating →Planning →Executing →Closing

(A) Resource assignment

(B) Resource leveling

(C) Resource splitting

(D) Resource scheduling

(C) Gantt chart