Professional Documents
Culture Documents
PPM MCQ
PPM MCQ
1. What broad term described the following people in relation to your project? Your
university, your participants, anyone who may be affected by the results of your
research, the ethics committee.
(A)Subjects
(B)Gatekeepers
(C)Collaborators
(D)Stakeholders
2. Which of the following are good general rules to follow in your dealings with
project stakeholders?
(C)Tell external stakeholders les about your project than internal stakeholders
3. Which of the following are generally safe assumptions in dealing with schools,
clubs or similar organizations?
(A) You will be introduced to all the staff who work in the organization.
(C) Classes or activities will be organized to allow you to collect your data.
(A) Consult student timetables to see when they might be free to attend data
collection sessions.
(B) Ask external organizations what the most convenient times would be for you to
visit
5. Which of the following are items that students doing empirical studies are likely to
need to book?
(A) Technician time
6. Which of the following are essential components of a GANTT chart used to plan
your project?
(C) The email address for the chair of the ethics committee
7. Which of the following are risks to your project that you can take steps to
manage?
9. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during
which phase of a project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
10. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.
(A) Permanent
(B) Temporary
11. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more
detail become available is termed as
(A) Plans
(A) I only
(B) II only
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
15. If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be
affected.
(A) All
(B) One
(A) Fixtures
(B) Trademarks
(A) Utility
19. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
20. The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for
resources and the available supply is known as
21. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
(A) Milestone
(B) Goal
22. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between
those tasks is known as
(A) Milestone
(B) Goal
I. It brings change
(A) I only
(B) II only
(A) Initiating
(B) Monitoring
(C) Closing
25. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
26. How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These
questions are answered in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
27. The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____
phase.
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
28. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the
_____ phase.
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
29. According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
30. Who among the following are less able to influence a project?
(A) Consultants
(B) Contractors
(C) Stakeholders
(A) Scope
(B) Objectives
(B) Team
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) positive
(D) Negative
34. Suppose an investment of $100 has grown to $110 in one year. What is the
return on investment?
(A) 0.1%
(B) 1.0%
(C) 10%
(D) Customer
(37) In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
(A). Conceptual
(B) Planning
(C) Implementation
(D). Design
(A) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
(B) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
(C) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
(D) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.
(40) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
1. Implementation time
2. Life cycle
3. Operations cycle
4. Production cycle
3. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other
endeavors.
4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars can
be appropriated.
(44)A prerequisite of effective time management is:
2. Having the most advanced software package for project planning, scheduling and
control
3. Having a good project WBS which identifies the major project deliverables and
tasks, and the person responsible for each of them
1. Preliminary
2. Definitive
3. Order of magnitude
4. Conceptual
(46) Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor
doing the project work
2. Fixed price
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
3. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
1. Always constant
2. Continually decreasing
4. Continually increasing
(51) To successfully manage a project, the PM must play both a manager and
leadership role. In the manager role the PM will doall but which of the following:
1. Develop procedures
2. Align people
1. Formal power
2. Expert power
3. Penalty power
4. Referent power
1. An integrator
2. A functional manager
3. A line manager
4. A sponsor
2. Comes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing very large projects.
(57) Most of the project manager's external communication links consist of:
1. Written documents
2. Oral communication
3. Tactile contact
4. Informal contact
2. Project directive
3. Project manager
4. Customer
2. Is not a big problem for people with normal speech, sight and hearing
3. Involves the originator, the message, the medium and the receiver
4. Preparing an agenda
2. Depends on selecting the right method for each message and avoiding
duplication, since everyone is overloaded with information
2. Non-verbal/ visual
1. Communicator
2. Message
3. Medium
4. Recipient
1. Conflict is bad
1. 10-20%
2. 50-70%
3. 75-90%
4. 21-45%
(66) The Three attributes of project risk are _________, ___________ and
___________.
1. What might happen, who it happens to, and how much will it cost
4. A fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at unit
rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to carry out the
work.
(68) Which phase of the Acquisition Process Cycle does source qualifications
reside?
1. Pre-Award
2. Award
3. Post Award
4. Origination
(69) A performance bond should always provide what part of the contract value?
1. 10 percent
2. 25 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 100 percent
(70) Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
(71) What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize project close-out?
2. Contract completion
(72) A planning method, which provides details of the work to accomplish, but also
provide some preliminary description of thework to be done in later phases is called
1. Progressive detailing
2. Rolling wave
3. Strategic
4. Operational
1. Short term
2. Operational
3. Tactical
4. Top down
(74) The type of planning that is equated with more specific data or detailed in nature
is called:
1. Strategic
2. Operational
3. Short term
4. Tactical
(75) One of the initial project documents, issued by senior management, which
outlines the authority of the project manager, iscalled Project charter. As a seller,
what other document can be used in this place:
2. Project scope
3. Contract
4. Internal memo
3. Project assumptions are based upon historical data used for the project.
4. Stakeholders skills
(78)The engineer of the project in the planning phase and makes a significant
contribution to the technical scope. This is anexample of what type of skill and
knowledge?
1. Inherent
2. Stakeholder
3. Technical evaluation
4. Convergent thinking
(79)In a program or project plan, there are always revisions to account for new or
missing data. Which one of the followingprovides the best reason for performing a
revision of the plan?
1. A supplier has changed the way their product is delivered to your supplier
4. Historical data on a similar project suggests that risk events are not included in the
current plan.
(80) The project closing process is essential to overall project planning. What is
considered one of the most important steps inclosing the project?
1. Tasks.
2. Milestones
3. Deliverables
4. Life cycles
1. Project schedule
4. Project objectives
1. Project Plan
4. Project Specifications
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
86. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
a) Very low
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) High
88. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) Team
b) Project
c) Customers
d) Project manager.
90. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management.
91 A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project.
(A) Project
(B) Process
92 Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
(C) Materials
(A) Process
(B) Project
(C) Scope
96 Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
(A) Time
(B) Cost
(C) Quality
100 Resource requirements in project become constant while the project is in its
_____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
101. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
(A) Zero
(B) High
(C) Low
104. Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a
similar nature whose costs are known.
(D) Analogy
105. Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.
(C) Bottom-up
108. Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need
is
A) Automobile manufacturing
B) Construction
C) Information technology
C) Complex tasks
113. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
B) Producing automobiles
114. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
115. In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams
formed, and major responsibilities assigned?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
116. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many
changes, and the creation of forecasts?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
117. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the
increasing demand for project management?
A) Compression of the product life cycle
B) Knowledge explosion
118. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of
the following except
A) Accountability
B) Flexibility
C) Innovation
D) Repeatability
119 Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in
management candidates?
A) Overall intelligence
C) Experience
D) Past successes
120. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a
six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ___ percent.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 45
121. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the
B) Strategy plan
122. Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
A) WBS
B) Budgets
C) Problem solving
124. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended
time intended to achieve a goal is known as a
A) Strategy
B) Program
C) Campaign
D) Crusade
125. From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was:
A) Significantly better
B) Slightly better
D) Slightly worse
126. Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project
managers?
129. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in
accomplishing the organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes
except:
130. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic
management.
131. Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement
answer?
B) Evaluating alternatives
133. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______
analysis.
A) SWOT analysis
B) Competitive
C) Industry
D) Market
134. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful
implementation of strategies through projects?
A) Allocation of resources
B) Prioritizing of projects
135. Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting
and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to
the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing
A) Poor scheduling
C) Flexible tasking
D) Multitasking
A) Sacred cow
B) Bread-and-butte
C) Pearls
D) Oysters
138. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to
understand their organization's mission and strategy?
A) Checklist
A) Random chance
B) A disaster
C) Risk
D) Hazard
142. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life
cycle tends to
A) Slowly rise
143. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?
B) Risk assessment
C) Risk identification
D) Risk tracking
144. Risk respoOne common mistake made early in the risk identification process is
B) Murphy's Law
A) Profile
B) Questionnaire
C) Research
D) Query
147. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except
A) Customers
B) Subcontractors
C) Competitors
D) Vendors
148. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is
_____analysis.
A) Probability
B) Scenario
C) Payback
D) Impact
149. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on
a project that answers developed from:
150. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except
151. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?
A) Ratio/range analysis
B) Decision tree
C) PERT simulation
D).PERT
152. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example
of which of the following?
A).Mitigating
B) Retaining
C) Ignoring
D).Transferring
A) Often the kind that can cause the project to be shut down.
B) Problematic
154. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of
occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called:
A).Management reserves
B) Change control
C) Contingency reserves
155. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following
except
a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
157. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
158. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?
a.9
b.8
c.45
d.36
a. Contract
b. email
d Status meeting
160. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000.
What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
D. Schedule Variance
162. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management
Plan that is useful in HR Planning process:
163. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to
track project costs :
164. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
A. Performance Analysis
B. Quality Metrics
A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
D. Performance Measurements
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Flowcharting
D. Control Charting
168. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project
documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What
is this document called?
b. List of risks.
169 During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability
and impact?
a. Identify Risks
C. Project Officer
D. Project Stakeholder
171. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
173. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes.
This is an example of:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
174. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a
leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
A. Purchase Order
C. Fixed cost
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
176. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group
A. Planning
B. Closing
D. Executing
B. Project objective
C. Planning of object
B. Allocation of resources
C. Tracking project
A. Implementation time
B. Life cycle
C. Operations cycle
D. Production cycle
A. Unique in nature
B. Have a specific time frame for completion with a definite start and finish
1. Conceptualization
2. Planning
3. Execution
4. Termination
A. only1
B. 1 and 2
C.1,2,3
D.1,2,3 and 4
A. Project management
B. Project cycle
C. Project life
D. Project time
182. The milestone, represented by a_______ over a task in the bar chart indicates
completion of a specific phase of the task
A).Stone
B).Rectangle
C).Circle
D).None of these
1. Conceptualization
2. Planning,
3. Termination,
4. Execution
A) 1,2,3,4
B).1,3,4,2
C) 1,2,4,3
D) 4,3,2,1
184. "_____ phase consist of detailed plans for activity, finance and resources are
developed and integrated to the quality parameters."
A) Execution Phase
B) Planning Phase
C) Conceptualization Phase
D) Termination Phase
A) Project organization
B) Project planning
C) Project management
A) Table chart
B) Sigma chart
C) Milestone chart
D) Venn diadram
187. "_________projects are designed to satisfy the customers’ felt as well the latent
needs"
D) Infrastructure based
188. "A temporary group activity designed to produce a unique product, service or
result is called"
A) Planning
B) Project
C) Exception
D) Production
191. "________ organization has separate division is set up to implement the project
headed by the project manager, this division has its complement of personnel over
whom the project manager has full line authority."
A).Line organization
B) Divisional organization
D) None of these
192. Which phase of Project cycle deals with identification of activities and their
sequencing?
A) Planning
B) Conceptualization
C) Execution
D) None of these
193."Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-3-1-4
C) 3-2-1-4
D) None of these
194. The features which distinguish project management from other forms of
management and they include:
A) Project manager
B) Project team
195. "Breaking down project to physically identifiable and controllable units, calle
A) Task
B) Chart
C) Design
D) None of these
196. Consider the following graph. If b is the source vertex, what is the minimum cost
to reach f vertex?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 4
d) 6
Identify the shortest path having minimum cost to reach vertex e if a is the source
vertex
a) a-b-e
b) a-c-e
c) a-c-d-e
d) a-c-d-b-e
a) Greedy algorithm
c) Back tracking
d) Dynamic programming
c) Number of vertices – 1
d) Number of edges – 1
200) How many times the insert and extract min operations are invoked per vertex?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
201). How many priority queue operations are involved in Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
204 Which of the following edges form the MST of the given graph using Prim’a
algorithm, starting from vertex 4?
a) (4-3)(5-3)(2-3)(1-2)
b) (4-3)(3-5)(5-1)(1-2)
c) (4-3)(3-5)(5-2)(1-5)
d) (4-3)(3-2)(2-1)(1-5)
a) 22
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
215) A simple acyclic path between source and sink which pass through only
positive weighted edges is called?
a) augmenting path
b) critical path
c) residual path
d) maximum path
218) What is the minimum number of cuts that a graph with ‘n’ vertices can have?
a) n+1
b) n(n-1)
c) n(n+1)/2
d) n(n-1)/2
a) ({1,3},{4,3},{4,5})
b) ({1,2},{2,3},{4,5})
c) ({1,0},{4,3},{4,2})
d) ({1,2},{3,2},{4,5})
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
222) How many unique colors will be required for vertex coloring of the following
graph?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
223) Assuming that the ends of a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the mean,
which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
b. 22 – 30 days
224) If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project
is expected to last five months, what is the probability that the risk event will occur
during the fourth month of the project?
b. 20 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
225) An accepted deadline for project approaches. However, the project manager
realizes only 75% percent of the work has been completed. The project manager
then issues a change request. What should the change request authorize?
226) The risk will be identified during which risk management process(es)?
d. Identify Risks
d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities.
230). The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned
from previous projects. In what activity is the team involved?
a. Performance management
b. Scope identification
c. Risk identification
231) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says
that he cannot fulfill the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had
signed the contract. He is referring to the:
a. Use the best guess and estimate all activities since there will be changes as the
project progresses and more information becomes available
c. Estimate for what the cost will allow and include buffers
a. Focus on project work. As a project manager, you should not get distracted by
big egos.
b. Let the problems grow further until they are obvious for all. Then escalate them.
c. Develop a joint quality policy for the project and seek a commitment by all
organizations.
d. Analyze the probability and impact of the risks linked with the situation and
plan how to respond to them.
234) A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. Several of her experts are
offsite but wish to be included. How can this be done?
b. A typical result of a rare random cause which is difficult to replicate and to verify.
c. Insignificant results, often measurement errors, the causes of which should not
be further investigated.
d. Measurements are inconsistent with a run of results over or under a mean value.
A).an integrator
B).functional manager
C).line manager
D).sponsor
A. Implementation time
B. Operations cycle
C. Production cycle
D. Life cycle
239. Starting with the seed of an idea, it covers identification of the product / service,
Pre-feasibility, Feasibility studies and Appraisal and Approval- Is which phase of
Project cycle
A. Conceptualization
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Termination
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Termination
A. Venn diagram
B. line chart
C. Bar chart
D. None of these
A. Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
A. Project management
C. Project planning
D. None of these
244. Projects undertaken to provide goods or services for meeting the growing
needs of the customers and providing attractive returns to the investors/stake
holders. Are called
A. Development Project
B. Forecasting Project
C. Industrial Projects
245. A project
D. None of these
B. Planning
C. Termination
247. Milestone represented by a circle over a task in the bar chart indicates .
A. Problems in task
B. Decision planning
C. Follow up
D. Completion of a specific phase of the task
248. While scheduling a project by C.P.M.
249. The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the
responsibility of the:
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
D. Customer
250. In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
A. Conceptual
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Design
252. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
A. Uniform distribution curve
D. None
253. In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___
A. zero
B. high
C. low
D. medium
A. indirect cost
B. direct cost
C. variable cost
D. fixed cost
A. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that
C. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
D. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life
cycle
256. ______ is conceived with the objective of meeting the market demand,
exploiting natural resources or creating wealth.
A. Project identification
B. Project Planning
C. Project execution
D. None of these
A. Weather
A. Financial Institutions/Banks
B. Lawyers
C. Employees
D. Managers
260. ____ involves soliciting the opinions of a group of managers on expected future
sales and combining them into a sales estimate.
A. Delphi method
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
1. It is intelligible to users
3. It seems to be more accurate and less expensive than the traditional face-toface
group meetings.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1and 2
D. None of these
A. Time
B. Cost
C. Quality
D. All of these
A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
264. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A) Deadlines exist.
B) Independent activities.
D) Costly delay
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
A) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
269. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the
earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start
time for Y will be
A) 10
B) 15
C) 12
D) Cannot be determined
270. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are
12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
A) 11
B) 10
C) 18
D) Cannot be determined
A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
a) Williams henry
b) Henry Gantt
c) Jane Gantt
d) Joseph henry
276. In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
a) Red
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Green
277. _________ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
a) Circles
b) Squares
c) Rectangles
d) Arrows
278. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
circumstances is known as ________
279. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum
time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
280. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time
needed to perform an activity is known as _________
a) Free float
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float
A. The critical path is the path with the largest probability of being completed on time.
B. The standard deviation of a project completion time is the sum of the standard
deviations for the critical path activities.
D. Three time estimates are necessary so that we can estimate the parameters
of the Beta distribution.
283. An expected project completion time follows a normal distribution with a mean
of 21 days and a standard deviation of 4 days. What is the probability that the project
will be completed in 25 days?
A.0.7734
B.0.0819
C.0.2426
D.0.8413
A. The EFT for an activity is equal to the EST minus the slack for that activity.
B. For the beta distribution, m will always be exactly in the middle of a and b.
C. When considering the possible crashing of a project, the normal time equals the
length of the shortest path prior to any crashes.
A. taking the sum of the variances on the nodes on the critical path, then find
the square root.
B. taking the sum of the standard deviations on the nodes on the critical path.
D. taking the sum of the variance on all the nodes, then find the square root.
A.12
B.14
C.18
D.16
289. Following data refers to the activities of a project , where, node 1 refers to the
start and node 5 refers to the end of the project.
Activity Duration (days)
1-2 2
2-3 1
4-3 3
1-4 3
2-5 3
3-5 2
4-5 4
(A) 1-2-3-5
(B) 1-4-3-5
(C) 1-2-3-4-5
(D) 1-4-5
A.12490
B.12510
C.18000
D.17890
291. Consider the given project network, where numbers along various activities
represent the normal tim me. The free float on activity 4-6 and the project duration,
respectively, are
(A) 2,13
(B) 0,13
(C) -2,13
(D) 2,12
292. The precedence relations and duration (in days) of activities of a project
network are given in the table. The total float (in days) of activities e and f,
respectively, are
A) 0 and 4
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 1
293. For a particular project, eight activities are to be carried out. Their relationships
with other activities and expected durations are mentioned in the table below.
ActivityPredecessorsDuration (days)
a - 3
b a 4
c a 5
d a 4
e b 2
f d 9
g c,e 6
h f,g 2
A) a – b – e – g – h
(B) a – c – g – h
(C) a – d – f – h
(D) a – b – c – f – h
294.For a particular project, eight activities are to be carried out. Their relationships
with other activities and expected durations are mentioned in the table below.
ActivityPredecessorsDuration (days)
a - 3
b a 4
c a 5
d a 4
e b 2
f d 9
g c,e 6
h f,g 2
A) Critical path remains the same and the total duration to complete the
project changes to 19 days.
(B) Critical path and the total duration to complete the project remain the same.
(C) Critical path changes but the total duration to complete the project remains the
same.
(D) Critical path changes and the total duration to complete the project changes to
17 days.
295. The project activities, precedence relationships and durations are described in
the table. The critical path of the project is
Activity Precedence Duration (in days)
P - 3
Q - 4
R P 5
S Q 5
T R,S 7
U R,S 5
V T 2
W U 10
(A) P-R-T-V
(B) Q-S-T-V
(C) P-R-U-W
(D) Q-S-U-W
296. The expected time (te) of a PERT activity in terms of optimistic time (to),
pessimistic time (tp) and most likely time (tm) is given by
A) te=(to+4tm+tp)/6
(B) te=(to+4tp+tm)/6
(C) te=(to+4tl+tp)/3
(D) te=(to+4tp+tm)/3
297. Planning tasks associated with job scheduling, machine loading, and
dispatching typically falls under
A) Long-range plans
B) Intermediate-range plans
C) Short-range plans
D) Mission-related planning
298. Which of the following statements regarding project management is false?
b. Gantt charts give a timeline for each of a project's activities, but do not adequately
show the interrelationships of activities.
c. Project organization is most suitable for projects that are temporary but critical to
the organization.
B The early finish of an activity is the early start of that activity plus its duration.
c. The late finish is the earliest of the late start times of all successor activities.
d. The late start of an activity is its late finish less its duration.
a. The early finish of an activity is the latest early start of all preceding activities.
b. The late finish of an activity is the earliest late start of all preceding activities.
c. On a specific project, there can be multiple critical paths, all of which will
have exactly the same duration.
a. Both PERT and CPM require that network tasks have unchanging durations.
c. Crashing need not consider the impact of crashing an activity on other paths in the
network.
c. Activities not on the critical path can never be on the critical path, even after
crashing.
C. only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost slopes
D. on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of
crashing in the order of ascending cost slope
D. Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event
times
A. Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves
B. Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters
A. small projects
D .deterministic activities
a) 22
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
378. A simple acyclic path between source and sink which pass through only positive
weighted edges is called?
a) Augmenting path
b) Critical path
c) Residual path
d) Maximum path
379. Who is the formulator of Maximum flow problem?
a) Lester R. Ford and Delbert R. Fulkerson
b) T.E. Harris and F.S. Ross
c) Y.A. Dinitz
d) Kruskal
380. How many constraints does flow have?
a) one
b) three
c) two
d) four
381. Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 23
b) 17
c) 15
d) 20
382 Find the maximum flow from the following graph.
a) 23
b) 17
c) 19
d) 20
38
3. If the market is likely to be uncertain, it might be advantages to start with a
A. Medium capacity
B. Heavy capacity
C. Small and heavy capacity
D. Small capacity
384. Every project consists of a number of job operations or tasks, which are called
a. Activity
b. Event
c. Critical activities
d. Dummy activities
385. The longest path and consumes maximum time is known as
A. Dummy activities
B. Non-Critical path
C. Critical path
D. Critical activities
386. It is the time in which the activity will take to complete under normal conditions is
known as
A. Optimistic time
B. Most likely time
C. Pessimistic time
D. All of the above
387. Production cost over a period of time should be carefully assessed in
A. Use by Other Units
B. Investment Outlay and production cost
C. Product Mix
D. Plant capacity
388. If the market for the product is likely to be very strong, a plant of
A. Small capacity is preferable
B. Medium capacity is preferable
C. Higher capacity is preferable
D. All are preferable
390. In the case of public sector projects, location is directly decided by the
A. Public
B. Government
C. Public and government
D. None of the above
391. Irrigation projects, defense project are generally designed by
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. PERT & CPM
D. None of the above
392. The selection of technology is influenced by
A. Latest developments
B. Ease of absorption
C. Both
D. None of the above
393. A-B-C analysis is used in
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Inventory control
D. All of these
394. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. An activity consume time and resources whereas an event do not consume time or
resources.
B. The performance of a specific task is called an activity.
C. An event is an instantaneous point in time at which an activity begins or ends.
D. The turning of a job on lathe is an event whereas job turned is an activity
395. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are
12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
A.11
B.10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
396. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the
earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start
time for Y will be
A.10
B.12
C.15
D. Cannot be determined
397) What does event in a CPM/PERT network, refers to ?
1. The occurrence of a delay in the project
2. an activity inserted into the network to show a precedence relationship with no
passage of time
3. The beginning or completion of an activity of project
4. The earliest an activity can start
398) What is the first step in an activity-based construction modeling and simulation
method?
1. Advance Simulation
2. Select activity
3. Release Entities
4. None of these
399) What is the PERT time for a activity with optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic
time estimates of 6, 10, 14 days?
1.5
2.10
3. 7
4. 12
400) what is the effect of increase in the length of the path, on variance of number of
activities connected in series?
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. No effect
4. Depending upon the project
401. In a PERT network, the earliest (activity) start time is the
A. Earliest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project.
B. Latest time that an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
C. Earliest time that an activity can start without violation of precedence
requirements.
D. Latest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project.
402. Which of the following, if any, may not be one of the questions answered by
PERT or PERT/Cost?
A. When will the entire project be completed?
B. Are there enough resources available to complete the project on time?
C. What is the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date?
D. None of the above
403. PERT
A. assumes we do not know ahead of time what activities must be completed.
B. allows computation of the program’s evaluation.
C. is a network technique that uses three time estimates for each activity in a
project.
D. is a deterministic network technique that allows for project crashing.
404 Time an activity would take assuming very unfavorable conditions is represented
by the
A. optimistic time
B. most likely time
C. deterministic time
D. pessimistic time
405. The expected time in PERT is
A. A weighted average of the most optimistic time, most pessimistic time, and
four times the most likely time.
B. The modal time of a beta distribution.
C. A simple average of the most optimistic, most likely, and most pessimistic times.
D. The square root of the sum of the variances of the activities on the critical path.
406. Given the following activity’s optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic time
estimates of 6, 10, 14 days, respectively, compute the PERT time for this activity.
A.5
B.10
C.7
D.12
407. What is the critical path for the project described in the following table?
a. A, B
b. A, C
c. B, D
d. A, B, C, D
408. Consider a project that has an expected completion time of 60 weeks and a
standard deviation of five weeks. What is the probability that the project is finished in
70 weeks or less (round to two decimals)?
A.0.98
B.0.48
C.0.50
D.0.02
409. How long could activity E be delayed without delaying the completion of the
project described in the following table?
A.3
B.9
C.14
D.17
410. Which of the following is one of the assumptions of PERT?
A. Total project completion time follows a normal probability distribution.
B. Activity times are dependent and correlated.
C. Project completion time follows a skewed chi-square distribution.
D. Activity times are known with certainty.
411. The first step in planning and scheduling a project is to
A .assign time and cost estimates to each activity.
B. develop the work breakdown structure.
C. compute the longest time through the network.
D. use PERT or CPM to help.
412. Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
413. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its
_____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
415. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure
the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between
customer expectations and budget.
b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
423. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product
Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the
handover.
d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the
project.
425. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals.
c. Milestone achievement.
d. Master schedule.
a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the
concept phase of the project life cycle.
b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the
concept phase of the project life cycle.
c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase
of the project life cycle.
d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the
definition phase of the project life cycle.
a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
430. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. Controls.
432. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
435. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
437. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to
ensure?
438. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS)?
d. Project costs.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of
progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time
or cost terms.
b. procurement strategy.
c. business case.
443. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
446. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom,
why, when and how is called the:
448. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is
called:
a. quality assurance.
b. quality planning.
c. quality control.
d. quality audit.
449. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the
project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are
acquired.
451. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control
process?
a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the
project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the
projects.
454. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit,
cost and risk of alternative options.
b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference
document for managing the project.
d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management
processes.
a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.
459. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
460. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is
beneficial to an organization?
d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the
defined benefits.
a. gate review.
b. feasibility study.
c. milestone review.
d. evaluation review.
464. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
465. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
a. A Gantt chart.
d. A Pareto chart.
472. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and
owned by the sponsor.
b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same
time as the business case.
c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the
project manager.
a. External stakeholders.
2. Organizing,
3. Coordination,
A. Only 1,2
B. Only 1,2,3
C.All
D. None of these
(B) Binomial
(C) Poisson
(D) Beta