Out of the following countries, which
country has adopted the standard gauge?
England
Which of the following are types of
gauges present in Indian railways?
Broad gauge, metre gauge and 2
narrow gauges
Given below is the type of gauges used in
India along with their size. Which one of the
following is incorrectly matched?
Broad gauge – 1435 mm
Which of the following railways has
narrow gauge and is still operational?
Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
The Indian railways have decided to
convert all metre gauge lines to broad
gauge. However, few of them will not be
converted as they would help in
promoting tourism in the country.
True
Recently, India launched its first
engineless semi-high speed train running
on broad gauge. What was the name of
the train?
Train 18
On whose recommendation the broad
gauge was introduced in India?
W. Simms recommendation
Which of the following is not a factor
influencing the choice of gauge?
Weather conditions
Which of the following is recommended
while choosing a gauge in a particular
country?
Providing a uniform gauge
throughout the country
A narrow gauge can carry more traffic as
compared to the broad gauge.
False
As per Indian Railways, the broad gauge
has been classified into _____ groups
based on _____ criteria.
Five, speed
Identify the correct relation.
Wheel diameter = 0.75 times
If the width of the gauge is increased,
which of the following cost is increased
significantly?
Cost of acquiring land
A new rail line needs to be constructed in
a sparsely populated town. Which type of
gauge can be recommended?
Narrow gauge
The operating cost per tonne per km
_______ with increase in gauge width.
Decreases
What problems do passengers face due to
change of gauge?
Delay in reaching their destination
and inconvenience caused due to change
of train
Which of the following is/are problems
caused due to trans-shipment of goods?
Causes both damage to goods and
delay in delivering goods to their
destination
Presence of more than one gauge in a
country causes unbalanced economic
growth. True
Which of the following is a possible
solution for change of gauge?
Installation of dual gauge
Which country was benefitted by the
change of gauge problems in World War
2? Russia
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Which country uses “Automatic Gauge
Changeover” system to overcome the
change of gauge problems?
Spain
India still faces the problems due to
change of gauge.
True
If there is more than one type of gauge
present in a rail route, the journey time_
Increases
Why did Indian Railways convert all the
rail lines to broad gauge instead of
standard gauge?
Almost 50% of the rail lines in
India were of broad gauge in the year
1992
What was the disadvantage of choosing
broad gauge for Project Unigauge?
Non access to readily available
rolling stock and poor technological
development
Which of the following rail line is not a
part of the “Mountain Railways of India”?
Lumding – Badarpur Railway
Which of the following narrow gauge
line is not included in Project Unigauge
and is on the “tentative list” of UNESCO
World Heritage Site?
Matheran Hill Railway
The Lucknow – Sitapur rail line in Uttar
Pradesh was converted to broad gauge
(as part of Project Unigauge) in which
year? 2019
Suppose India had decided to convert all
rail lines to standard gauge in “Project
Unigauge”. What benefits it would have
served?
Better connectivity of rail lines
with other countries
The unigauge policy of Indian Railways
will help small towns and villages gain
better transportation infrastructure.
True
If a uniform gauge is chosen throughout
the country, the transport bottlenecks
will ______
Decrease
What does the term “Loading Gauge”
refer to?
Maximum height and width of rail
The term “Rolling Stock” in Railways
includes ________
Locomotives, coaches and wagons
As per the Indian Railways, the
maximum height and maximum width of
the rolling stock for Broad Gauge (BG) is
_____ mm and _____ mm respectively.
4140 mm and 3250 mm
The bridges and tunnels are built with
respect to ______
Construction gauge
Which locomotive in India is listed in
“Guinness Book of World Records” for
being the oldest operational steam
locomotive?
Fairy Queen
How is accuracy of the rail alignment
related to the operating speed of the
train?
Directly proportional
The alignment survey of the Mumbai-
Ahmedabad High Speed Corridor was
done by which agency?
JICA
2|P a ge
Which of the following software cannot Which type of rail alignment method does
be used to design a railway track the figure depict?
alignment?
Primavera

Which of the following is not a basic

requirement of ideal alignment?
Zigzag line method
Maximum operational expenses
The spiral method, also known as ____
Aesthetic consideration should also be
method is used in ____
given due importance while designing a
Complete loop; narrow valley
rail alignment.
True
The alignment of a rail line should pass
through a place that faces ______ the
Cut and fill of earthwork is performed
direction of wind.
while constructing a new rail line on
Away from
undulating surface. Which of the
following condition should be maintained
What formula can be used to calculate
so that construction cost is minimized?
the “Maximum Annual Return” of a rail
Quantity of cut = Quantity of fill
alignment? (Given: R = Gross revenue
earned by railway line; E = Annual running
The rail alignment should be such that the
expenses). R–E
shortest route is chosen. However, there
may be a deviation from this route due to
A railway line passes through a terrain
practical difficulties.
which crosses watershed areas of two or
True
more streams. Which type of alignment
can be preferred?
In railways terminology, what do
Valley alignment
obligatory points mean?
Points through which the railway
Which of the following alignments is least
line must pass
preferred in case of mountain railways?
Straight
If the gradient exceeds the ruling
gradient, which technique much be
The cost of construction of mountain
adopted?
railways can be reduced by adopting
Development technique
narrow gauges instead of wider gauges.
True
Which of the following method of rail
alignment is preferred in case of steep
The tracks which have gradient greater
side slopes?
than or equal to 3% are considered as _
Switch back method
Mountain tracks
The alignment of railway line should be
Because of a very steep gradient train can
such that it attracts minimum traffic.
slide down the track. True
False

3|P a ge
How is Rack railway system different from
normal railway system?
It has an extra toothed rail
What type of additional wheels are used
for locomotives in Rack railway system?
Toothed pinion wheels
In rack pinion railway system the
movement of train can be possible on
very steep gradients like 1 in 5.
True
What is the most important strategic
reason for the construction of a new
railway line?
To make movement of defence
forces easier in case of emergency
The rate of development of backward
areas decrease after the construction of a
new railway line. False
How can we shorten the existing rail link
between two points?
Construction of new railway line on
shorter alignment
What can be done to manage the
increase in traffic between two points?
Converting the single rail lines to
double
Which among the following is a step
taken by the Indian railways to ensure
smooth flow of traffic?
Converting all the metre gauge
lines to broad gauge lines
What can be concluded after preliminary
investigations for a new railway line?
Whether the new railway line is
required or not
Preliminary investigations are done to
determine how the new line will fit in
with the scheme of future development
of railway line. True
Which among the following is not a
function of Traffic survey?
To determine the curvature of the
turns
Traffic surveys are done independently
without any consideration of
Reconnaissance or Preliminary surveys.
False
The team conducting survey must visit
the state government, prominent
businessmen, and Local bodies and then
propose the suitable ______ of the new
rail line.
Alignment
While doing Traffic survey of an area,
information should be gathered on which
topics?
On existing traffic facilities, human
resources and pattern of trade and
commerce
What is the objective of Reconnaissance
survey?
To determine the technical
feasibility as well as the best possible
alternatives available
The Reconnaissance survey is done based
on _____ and other already available
data.
contoured survey maps
What is the next step after the survey
team studies the general topography of
the country?
Collection of field data
Which are the instruments used for
Reconnaissance survey?
Clinometer, Binocular, Pedometer,
Aneroid Barometer and Prismatic
4|P a ge
compass
Which of the following equipment is not a
part of Modern Surveying Instruments
and techniques?
Chain and Tape
What is the advantage of Modern
Surveying Instruments and Techniques
over old ones?
They give very accurate results
In Laser survey what is the replacement
for invisible line of sight of ordinary
survey instruments?
Bright Red beam of Laser
By using Laser in Surveying distances up
to 70km can be measured.
True
What major points should be included in
the Project report for a Reconnaissance
survey?
Total cost estimate, feasibility of
the project and Map of the area
What is the objective of Preliminary
survey?
To estimate the cost of the
proposed railway line
What is done to estimate the cost of the
rail line to be constructed in Preliminary
survey?
Instrumental examination of the
route to be selected
The survey done on site usually covers a
width of 200m on either side of the
alignment.
True
Which among the following is not a part
of the report prepared after Preliminary
survey?
Population projection and volume
projection of Traffic
What is the objective of Final location
survey?
To prepare working details and
make accurate cost estimates
In Preliminary survey the total alignment
is traversed with a Theodolite, but it is not
necessary in Final location survey.
False
In Final location survey at which points
Masonry pillars are built?
At tangent points and along the
centre line
Which points should be considered while
selecting the best alignment in Final
location survey?
Ease and minimum cost of
construction, correct obligatory points
and potential for high speeds
In Characteristics of the Project Areas the
geographical features of the country are
given. These features do not affect the
hauling capacity of the train
The Permanent way section of the report
does not give details about which of the
following aspects?
The depth of the Ballast cushion
Which segment in the project report
provides information and data related to
the different routes that were examined
for construction of the new rail line?
Route selection
What are the other details provided in the
segment ‘Standard of construction’?
Road crossings, station machinery
and residential accommodation
5|P a ge
Which section focuses on the problems
that might be encountered, identifying
areas requiring special attention and
providing knowledge and information for
finding solutions?
Project Engineering
Which section comments on the
availability of water for various
construction activities and its
appropriateness for consumption?
Project Organisation
Using satellite imagery multiple corridors
can be marked. After this the corridor
that satisfies all the surveying criteria
can be chosen. True
For which areas satellite imagery is most
useful in the initial stages of planning?
Area with Inadequate support
data, existing map coverage and difficult
field evaluation
The miniature details for the preliminary
survey can be can be worked out with the
help of contour maps, computer aids and
photogrammetric plotted sheets
Where should one refer to for the
procedure of acquisition of land with the
help of member state government?
Land Acquisition act
If we want to construct a single line
railway track, the land available should be
adequate for the construction of a double
line. True
Why is the Formation of an embankment
preferred over formation in a cutting?
It has good drainage properties
What is the objective of doing mechanical
compaction after laying each layer?
To obtain maximum dry density at
optimum moisture content
Which curve is used to determine the
economical lead of moving earth in the
longitudinal direction?
Mass-haul curve
Why is the section where earthwork is to
be donedivided into different zones?
For early execution of earthwork
What are the factors on which the design
of Bridges of railway are dependent?
Topography and Type of stream
Which of the following is not a part of
Plate laying or Track linking?
Formation of embankment or
cutting
In which method of Plate laying a
temporary line is laid by side the of the
proposed railway track?
Tram line method
In telescopic method, the track material is
carried to the site through the same track
which is to be laid further.
True
Where is the first base depot for
unloading of materials situated at?
Junction of existing line and new
line to be constructed
Which among the following is generally
used for Ballasting of tacks?
Ballast trains and manual methods
What measure is taken in case of curves
to account for the centrifugal force acting
on the train?
Superelevation is provided
Which of the following is not a
requirement of a good track?
6|P a ge
 Aesthetic appearance
Which among the following is an old
method for track maintenance?
Beater packing
In need based directed track maintenance
system, work is done round the clock.
False
Over the years what has led to an
increase in necessity for maintenance and
improvement in track structures?
Increased track loading
Studies by RDSO reveal that rail
depression below the load is not directly
proportional to the load in the whole load
range. True
Which among the following is not
responsible for the variation in track
modulus?
Cost of construction
Which is the major force developed due
to revolving masses like pins and coupling
rods in the wheel?
Centrifugal force
In the Hammer blow effect formula H =
Mr(2πn)2 sinꬾ/g, what does n stand for?
Number of revolutions per second
The maximum combined force of the
Hammer blow, inertia of driving wheel,
steam effect do not act simultaneously
due to phase difference in position of
counterweights.
True
As per the theory of Hertz the rail and
wheel contact is similar to the contact
between _____
two cylinders
The pattern of distribution of load under
the sleepers does not depend on which of
the following factors?
Cost of construction
What is the reason that disables the
leading axle to take full advantage of the
coning of wheels?
Rigidity of the frame
Coning of wheels helps the outer wheel to
travel a longer distance than inner wheel.
True
Which among the following is the correct
formula for calculating the slip?
Slip=(2πθ/360)xG
The friction between the steel wheel and
the steel rail is about ______ of the
friction between the pneumatic tyre and
a metalled road.
one fifth
In Double headed rails, once the head
wears out it can be reused by inverting it.
False
Which rail has been standardised for
adoption on the Indian railways?
Flat footed
The Factors like heaviest axle load, max
permissible speed, depth of Ballast
cushion are considered for deciding the
_____ of the rail.
weight and section
What will be the maximum axle load (in
tonnes) for rails of 52kg/m?
29.12t
Shorter rails are economical and provide
more comfort? False
7|P a ge
Which of the following is not true about
Long rails?
Easy transportation facilities for long rails
What is the value of Tolerance for
Horizontal straightness of Class A rails?
0.5mm
What is the height from which the weight
is dropped in falling weight test?
7.2m
The tensile strength of the rail should not
be less than ____
72kg/mm2
90 UTS rails are more resistant against
wear and tear as compared to Manganese
rails with 72UTS
True
Which of the following is responsible for
wear and tear of rails in coastal areas?
Humidity and weather effects
The difference in height of the rail at end
and at a point 30cm away from the end is
called as ________
Rail end batter
Which of the following defects occur
because of heavy bearing pressure on
small area of contact?
Shelling and Black spots
When vehicles pass over corrugated rails,
a roaring sound is produced.
True
Which of the following is not a type of
inherent defect?
Wearing of rails
Which of the following leads to excessive
corrosion of rails?
Presence of chlorides and exposure
to moisture and humidity
What does the first part of the code used
for classification of rail failure consist of?
Three code letters
Which letter is used for points and
crossing rails in the code used for
classification of rail failures?
X
What does the third letter represent in
the First portion of the code used for
classification of rail failures?
Probable cause of failure
What does the first digit of the second
portion of the code represent?
Location of fracture on length of
the rail
Which digit is used to tell that the failure
in the rail section has started from within
the rail head? One
Rails having visual or ultrasonic detection
should be sent for metallurgical
investigations. True
What is another name of Ultrasonic rail
flaw detection technique?
Non-destructive method of testing
What is the minimum frequency of
ultrasonic waves?
20,000 cycles per second
How defects are identified using
ultrasonic waves?
They reflect back from the flaw
Crystal transducers are used for ____
Production of ultrasonic frequency
Which probe is suitable for detecting
horizontal and inclined flaws?
Normal probe
8|P a ge
 The index used to determine the
suitability of a particular timber for use as
a sleeper is called as _______
Composite sleeper index
What is the formula for the Composite
sleeper index of a wooden sleeper?
CSI = (S + 10H)/20
What does ‘S’ stand for in the CSI
equation?
General strength for both green
and dry timber at 12% moisture content
Which of the following is not an
advantage of the wooden sleepers?
They have less scrap value
Which of the following is not a major
reason for less service life of wooden
sleepers?
Less scrap value
Centre heart, knots, split ends are
basically the types of ______ found in
wooden sleepers.
Defects
According to the recommendations of
the committee of the railway board what
should be used compulsorily when traffic
density exceeds 20GMT on BG routes?
Bearing plates
Which type of sleepers do not require
any treatment and can be directly laid on
the track?
Durable type
What will happen if Non-durable type of
sleepers are used without any treatment?
Decay of sleeper will take place
What is timber produced from trees with
broad leaves also known as?
Hard wood
The sleepers made of wood from
naturally durable species are classified as
untreated sleepers
In which process maximum retention of
hot creosote oil is practiced?
Full cell process
Why a final vacuum is applied in the Full
cell process?
To free the timber of excessive
preservative
Empty cell (Rueping) process is used for
treating which type of timber?
Porous timber
Where are Fir sleepers used?
Lines with traffic density less than
10GMT
What is the order for recovery of
preservatives in these processes?
Rueping process > Lowry process >
Bethell process
Why is prophylactic treatment of
sleepers done?
To prevent infection at the
treatment plant
What is used for removing the moisture
content in Boulton process?
Hot preservative
Seasoning of sleepers is done to remove
the excess preservative from the wood?
False
Which of the following is not a way of
stacking of sleepers?
Nine and one method
In which type of sleepers the heartwood
side is kept upwards and the sapwood
side downwards?
Treated sleepers
9|P a ge
This process of cutting the wooden
sleeper at a slope of 1 in 20 is known as _
adzing of wooden sleepers
Which is the most used method for
seasoning of wooden sleepers in India?
Air seasoning
Why were steel channel sleepers
developed?
Because of shortage of wooden
sleepers
The sleepers made from waste products
are called as ________
Composite sleepers
Which type of fittings are used by
Composite sleepers?
Similar to that of wooden sleepers
Which of the following is not true about
steel trough sleepers?
Liable to decay
What type of problems are observed in
case of pressed up lugs?
Maintenance problems
The steel trough sleepers are very useful
in case of long welded rails.
True
Which sleepers are marked with a cross in
yellow paint?
Sleepers rejected as first quality
but free from defects
The ballast is removed from the centre
of the steel sleepers after packing.
True
Which of the following is true about cast
iron sleepers?
Difficult gauge maintenance
The inspection and maintenance of Cast
iron pot sleepers is very easy.
False
Which of the following is not true about
the CST-9 sleepers?
Very less lateral stability
What is used to hold the rail in case of
CST-10 sleepers?
Double coil spring washers
What is used in CST-11 sleepers to
accommodate the pandrol clip?
A shoulder is provided
Which of the following sleepers is used by
the Indian railways?
CST-9
Which of the following is not an
advantage of Concrete sleepers?
They have high scrap value
Why concrete sleepers can be used in
Track circuited areas?
They are bad conductors of
electricity
The monoblock prestressed concrete
sleepers are similar to which sleepers?
German B-58
What is the general 28-day crushing
strength of concrete for mono block
prestressed concrete type sleeper?
525kg/cm2
The two-block concrete sleepers have
longer life than mono block sleepers.
False
Why is the manufacturing cost of mono-
block prestressed concrete sleepers
more?
They require prestressed concrete
10 | P a g e
 What guides the train from one line of
rail tracks to another?
Turnout
In post tensioned type of sleeper how is
the force transferred to the concrete?
Through positive anchors
Which method is used for manufacturing
of mono-block concrete sleepers?
Long-line method
Concrete sleepers should not be laid at
new formations unless specially
compacted.
True
Which of the following is not a function of
Ballast?
Providing resistance to wheels
Which element transfers its load directly
to the Ballast?
Sleepers
The ballast provides stiffness to the
track. False
Coal ash ballast can be harmful for steel
sleepers and fittings. True
Previously which of the following ballast
was used for flat bottom sleepers?
50mm
Which of the following ballast is used at
points and crossings?
25mm
Where can sand ballast be used with
wooden and steel trough sleepers?
Areas with low traffic density
Which of the following is not a property
of sand ballast?
Cannot be blown off easily
The decomposition of laterite results in
the formation of _______ ballast.
Moorum
Why the moorum can be used as a
blanketing material for black cotton soil?
It prevents percolation of water
Which of the following is the most used
ballast on Indian railways?
Broken stone ballast
Which of the following ballast is usually
used in yards and sidings?
Coal ash
The pressure distribution in the ballast
section does not depend on which of the
following factors?
Cant of track
Which of the following is not a
requirement of a good ballast?
Rounded
Which of the following is the correct
formula for calculating the depth of
ballast cushion?
Sleeper spacing = width of the
sleeper + 2 × depth of ballast
Dwarf walls should be provided in case of
cuttings.
True
What is the shape of the pressure lines
formed due to the dispersion of load in
the ballast?
Bulb shaped
What should be the maximum percentage
of aggregates retained on the 65mm
sieve?
5%
What is the shrinkage allowance when
ballast is supplied by Wagons? 8%
11 | P a g e
How is the collection of Ballast done?
From ballast depot or along the
cess
Where is the stacking of ballast done?
Alongside the railway line
In the collection of ballast along the cess,
what are the materials passing through
6mm square mesh called?
Dust
What are the methods of measurement
of quantity of ballast?
Stack or wagon measurement
Which of the following is an unfavourable
condition for the stacking of Ballast?
Hilly areas
Why is a white line painted in case of
Wagon measurement?
To indicate the level up to which
ballast can be loaded
Which quantity should be painted
outside the wagon?
Volume of ballast in cubic metres
Los Angeles machine is used for which of
the following tests?
Aggregate abrasion value
What is the diameter of the cylinder
used for Aggregate impact value?
75mm
What is the weight of the test hammer
used for Aggregate impact value?
14kg
Flakiness is the percentage by weight of
particles with a least dimension less than
________ of their mean dimension.
Three-fifth
What is the temperature for oven drying
of aggregates for Specific gravity and
water absorption test?
100-110°C
The side slopes of embankment and
cutting depend upon which of the
following factors?
Shear strength and angle of
repose of soil
What is slip circle method used for?
To determine the stability of the
slope
The slopes are turfed by providing a toe
and pitching.
False
Which of the following is not true in case
of Black cotton soil?
It gains strength with addition of
water
What can be the use of a bituminous
carpet in Black cotton soil?
To stop the surface water from
reaching the formation
What should be the value of cross slope
for embankments in other than good
soils?
1 in 30
The soil is classified as ‘good’ or ’other
than good’ based on their grain size only.
False
What is the effect of excess of water in
the subgrade?
Reduction in bearing capacity and
shear strength
What should be the maximum
percentage of plastic fines present in non-
cohesive material? 5%
12 | P a g e
 What should be the maximum liquid
limit value for Macadam type materials?
35
Which of the following is the correct
expression for calculation of Coefficient of
curvature?
D230/D60 × D10
Which test is used for determining the dry
density of the material?
Proctor’s test
Which of the following can be a reason
for Failure of Natural Ground?
Shear failure or excessive
settlement
How does the provision of sand drains in
natural ground affects its load carrying
capacity?
Helps in quicker consolidation
Shear failure of embankments is quite
common and occurs due to slip.
True
What is a slip passing below the toe of
bank through its base known as?
Base failure
What is the purpose of providing an
inverted filter blanket?
To improve drainage and bearing
capacity
Which one of the following is wrong
regarding the cement grouting of
embankments?
Cement and sand are used in the
ratio of 1:8 to 1:10
Which of the following is not true about
Geotextiles?
They allow water and soil fines to
pass
Which of the following is not included in
the data regarding the history of the
affected section?
Drainage conditions
What is obtained to get an idea of the
Track maintainability?
Number of visits to track
What can be done to reduce creep of
soil?
Providing side berms
What can be the remedial measure
adopted for track level variations due to
inadequate drainage due to high cess?
Improving side drainage by
lowering the cess
What is the function of Fish plates in a
track?
Joining rail to rail
In the steel used to manufacture fish
plates what should be the composition of
manganese?
Not more than 0.6%
The strength of fish plates are _______
as the rail section.
Roughly same
Why are Combination fish plates used?
To connect rails of two different
sections
An expansion gap of 5mm is provided in
case of Junction fish plates.
False
What are dog spikes used for?
Fixing rails wooden sleepers
What is the correct number of dog
spikes used on a curved track?
2 outside and 1 inside
13 | P a g e
What else is used along with Round spikes
for fixing rails to sleepers?
Anti creep bearing plates
What type of fittings are used for
fastening slide chairs to the sleepers?
Fang bolts
What is the diameter of rail screws?
22mm
Which of the following bearing plates
require a spring key?
Special CI bearing plates
What is the value of cant provided in Mild
steel canted bearing plates?
1 in 20
There is no cant present in Cast Iron anti
creep bearing plates.
False
What was the disadvantage of older type
of trough sleepers?
They used to get deformed easily
Two way keys are not used for fixing
which of the following sleepers?
Wooden sleepers
Which of the following statement is
wrong regarding rubber coated fish
plates?
They are better than epoxy coated
fish plates
Which of the following liner is used to
overcome the problem of holes in trough
sleepers?
Mota Singh liner
Which of the following is not a cotter
used on Indian Railways?
Empty end split cotter
Cotters and tie bars are used to fix rails to
_____ sleepers. cast Iron
MS tie bars are used for holding two
plates of ______ sleepers together.
CST-9
Which clips are most widely used with
concrete sleepers on Indian Railways?
Pandrol clips
Which of the following is not correct
regarding Pandrol clips?
It provides safeguard from theft
What should be the range for the Brinel
Hardness Number of the IRN 202 clip?
375-415
Which of the following is not a drawback
of the IRN 202 clip?
Rail changing is very difficult
Among which of the following fastenings
permits the interchanging of 52kg rails
with 60kg rails?
Herbert Meir
For which type of concrete sleepers Stem
type MCI is used?
Pre tension concrete
Which among the following is used
between rails and sleepers to absorb
shocks, resist lateral movement of rails
and provide electrical insulation between
rails? Rubber pads
Which of the following can be present in
the composite liners developed by the
RDSO?
Malleable cast iron or Mild Steel
What is the reason behind the breaking of
GFN-66 liners?
Rusting of rail surface and uneven
seating
14 | P a g e
What is an elastic fastening called which
is easy to fit in but difficult to remove?
Pilfer proof elastic fastening
The pilfer proof circlip is generally used to
restrain the axial movements of the
components mounted on shafts.
True
Why are fastenings tested in the
laboratory?
To check their suitability in the
field
Why is Vibrogir used in Laboratories?
To check effectiveness of
fastenings
What are the extra activities performed
by the pulsator?
Applies lateral and vertical
pressure on the rail fastening
According to wave motion theory what
causes creep of rail?
Moving loads
What causes creep in rails according to
Percussion theory?
Impact of wheels at rail end
Which theory states the formation of
creep because of backward thrust?
Drag theory
How is creep caused because of Starting
operation of locomotive?
Because of backward thrust
In which direction creep is developed in
double line section?
In the direction if Traffic
How does limited quantities of ballast
contribute to development of creep?
By offering limited ballast
resistance
In single line section creep is developed in
direction of Predominant Traffic.
True
What is the major effect of sleepers
coming out of square due to creep?
Unpleasant rides
What is the effect of creep on expansion
gaps?
They get widen at some and close
at other places
Which of the following is wrong regarding
the effect of Creep?
Eases the changing of rails
Which of the following device is used for
the measurement of creep?
Creep measurer
The top level of creep post is generally at
what level as compared to the rail level?
Same as the rail level
What is the maximum value of creep
permissible in any track?
150mm
For the adjustment of creep what type of
survey is conducted?
Survey of expansion gaps
The fish plates at both the ends are
removed for the adjustment in creep.
False
In pulling back of rails how many rails can
be dealt with at a time?
Only one
Where is the creep adjuster placed on the
track? In the middle
How are the gaps closed by using the
creep adjuster?
By pushing the rail forward
15 | P a g e
What happens when the operation leaves
some of the expansion gaps too wide?
They are tackled in the next
position
Which of the following locations of Track
is least susceptible to creep?
Point where steel sleeper track
meets a CST-9 sleeper track
Which of the following device is used for
the measurement of creep?
Creep measurer
The top level of creep post is generally at
what level as compared to the rail level?
Same as the rail level
What is a gradient in which track loses
elevation in direction of movement of
traffic called?
Falling gradient
Which gradient determines the maximum
load that can be hauled by a locomotive
on that section?
Ruling gradient
What is the reason of compensation of
Gradient on curves?
Curves provide extra resistance
Degree of curve is the angle subtended at
its centre by a _______ chord.
100ft
Which of the following is correct about
Momentum gradient?
A falling gradient is followed by a
rising gradient
Certain Flat gradient is provided at station
yards to ensure good drainage.
True
What is the value of Grade compensation
on Broad Gauge?
0.04% per degree of curve or 70/R
whichever is minimum
Find the steepest gradient on a 3 degree
curve for a BG line with ruling gradient of
1 in 200.
1 in 263
Which of the following is the correct
formula for the degree of curve?
1750/R
The maximum permissible degree of a
curve on a track does not depend on
which of the following?
Speed of train
According to Tangential offset method
which of the following is the correct
relation between offset and length of
chord?
On = Cn2/2R
In Long chord offset method, how is the
Versine V is calculated from long chord?
V = C2/8R
Which of the following is also known as
Rankine’s method?
Theodolite method
If higher precision is required in Rankine’s
method, 2 theodolites can also be used.
True
What is the definition of Superelevation?
Difference in height between
outer and inner rail
Which of the following is also known as
another name of inner rail?
Gradient rail
In case of equilibrium speed what is the
angle between resultant of weight and
radial acceleration and plane of rails?
They are perpendicular
16 | P a g e
What should be done if maximum
permissible speed is less than maximum
sectional speed?
Permanent speed restrictions
should be implemented
Which of the following occurs when train
travels at a speed greater than
equilibrium speed on a curve?
Cant deficiency
Which of the following is the correct
formula for equilibrium superelevation in
millimetres?
e = GV2/127R
The superelevation that is to be provided
on a curve depends only on the maximum
speed of the fastest train.
False
A per the prescribed value, what should
be the maximum value of cant excess on
Broad gauge?
75mm
Which formula was used earlier for the
calculation of Safe speed on curves?
Martin’s Formula
Which of the following is the correct
revised formula for the calculation of
speed at transitioned curves?
V = 0.27((Ca + Cd) x R)1/2
Calculate the super elevation for a 2°
curve for equilibrium speed of 80kmph.
100.8mm
On which portion of the track is a
Transition curve provided?
Between straight line and circular
curve
Which of the following is wrong about
Transition curves?
Radius of curvature decreases from
a specified value to zero
Which of the following is not correct in
case of an S-shaped transition curve?
Shift required is twice
Which of the following is not a formula
used to calculate the length of a transition
curve? L = 0.08CdxVmx S
How is a compound curve formed?
By 2 circular curves of different radii
Length of transition curve connecting
two circular curves can be calculated by
L=0.008(Ca1-Ca2)xV.
False
Which curve is formed by the
combination of 2 circular curves with
opposite curvatures?
Reverse curve
In case of high speed A and B routes
minimum length of 30m should be kept
between the 2 curves constituting a
reverse curve. False
Why is the effect of curvature taken into
consideration for providing extra
clearance on curves?
Because of rigid wheel base
The extra clearance required at centre of
the vehicle which projects towards the
inside of the curve is called _________
Overthrow
What is the formula for calculating the
extra clearance required for leaning?
he/G
What is the value of the extra clearance
on inside of the curve due to sway of
vehicles?
one fourth of clearance due to
leaning
17 | P a g e
Which of the following gives the extra
clearance outside the curve?
E2 – C2/8R
Which of the following clearances will
not be taken into consideration for
adjacent and curved Tracks?
Lean
Which of the following decides the
length of Vertical curve?
Algebraic difference of gradients
What should be the maximum rate of
change of gradient in case of Summit
curve? 0.1%
Which of the following is not a major
reason for the distortion of alignment of
curve?
Traffic from both sides
Where are check rails provided on a
track?
Parallel to inner rail
Which of the following is the correct
formula for finding the length of vertical
curve for achieving maximum permissible
speed?
L = a/r x 30.5m
According to cumulative frequency
diagrams when should the realignment
take place?
Cumulative percentage of versines
is less than 80
What should be the maximum station to
station variation of versine on curves
where speed in excess of 100kmph are
permitted?
15mm
Which is the formula for railexcess length
which the inner rail gains over outer?
2πG
What is the minimum clearance
prescribed for check rails for BG?
44mm
Check rails help only in the reduction of
lateral wear on the outer rail.
False
Which of the following is used for
diverting the rolling stock?
Turnout
What is it called when a vehicle traverses
on the switch from its thick end to thin
end?
Trailing direction
Which of the following is another name
for Tongue rail?
Switch rail
Crossing is a pair of tongue and stock rails
with connections and fittings.
False
What is the thicker end of the Tongue rail
called? Heel
Which of the following are the correct
types of switches?
Stud and Split switches
Stud switches are of 2 types – loose heel
and fixed heel type. False
In which type of switches the tongue rail
does not end at the heel of the switch?
Fixed heel type
Why are loose heel type switches not
preferred?
Because they make the structure
weak
In which toe of switches the switch rail
kept 6mm higher than stock rail?
Overriding switch
18 | P a g e
 Which of the following correctly defines
the switch angle?
Angle between gauge face of stock
rail and tongue rail
What is the distance between the gauge
faces of tongue rail and stock rail called?
Heel divergence
What is the major advantage of straight
tongue rails?
Easily manufactured
Which of the following is not true about
length of tongue rails?
It should be less than length of the
rigid wheel base
Curved tongue rails can only be used on
specific curvature for which they are
designed.
True
What is done to ensure that at the wheel
negotiates the gap of crossing properly?
A check rail is provided
Which two rails are machined to form a
nose?
Point rail and Check rail
Which type of crossing is formed when a
right or left rail crosses a similar rail?
Obtuse angle crossing
Which of the following is not true about
Built up crossing?
Very Rigid
There are no bolts in cast steel crossing.
True
Which of the following is not an
advantage of CMS crossing?
Less initial cost
What type of crossing can be used when
there is high speed traffic on main track
and low speed on turnout track?
Spring crossing
At a crossing the right hand and left hand
wing rail converge to form a throat and
then merge into a single rail.
False
What is done for reconditioning of
crossings at site?
Gas welding
Which formula is used for the calculation
of number of crossing based on Centre
line method?
2N = cot (α/2)
What is another name of Coles method?
Right angle method
All the methods used for determining
the number of crossing give the same
value. False
What is the limiting wear for a crossing?
10mm
Which of the following is used for gas
welding of crossings?
Oxyacetylene flame
What is the distance from the tangent
point to the heel of switch is called?
Switch lead
Which of the following is correct about
wh?
It is the distance between main
line and turnout
Which is the correct formula for
calculation of Radius of Turnout?
R = R1 + 0.5G
19 | P a g e
Which type of chairs are used to provide Which of the following locations is not to
a ramp to tongue rails? be checked for Gauge and cross level
Grade off chairs correctness?
300mm behind the ANC
What is used to prevent vertical
movement between rail wing and nose of Which of the following are the weakest
crossing? links in a track?
Distance blocks Joints

In Coles method from where does the Why does the joint require frequent
curvature begin on the straight track? attention?
At the theoretical toe of switch It gets displaced easily

Which of the following formula is used for Which of the following is not associated
the calculation of curve lead in Coles with rail joints?
method? Lesser fuel consumption
Curve lead = 2GN
How much should be the strength of a
Which of the following represent the rail joint?
correct number and names of location of Equal to the rail
kinks in Coles method?
At actual toe of switch, heel of Why is it necessary for the joint to hold
switch and at first distance block of the rail ends together?
crossing To provide continuity

No kink is present in layout of IRS Rail joint should not have any gap in
method. between two rails.
False False

What can be done to improve the speed
of trains over turnouts?
Curved switches can be provided
Which of the following is not a feature of
turnouts of European countries?
Low cant deficiency
Indian Railways has finalised a design of 1
in 12 turnout for passenger yard at max
permissible speed of 100kmph.
False
What should be used for cleansing of
slide chairs?
Graphite
Which of the following joint is not
classified according to position of
sleepers?
Square joint
Which of the following statements
regarding supported joints is incorrect?
No wear and tear
Which of the following can be used in
case of Bridge joints?
Metal flat or Bridge plate
How are the joints in rails located in
Square joints?
Exactly opposite to each other

20 | P a g e
 Staggered joints are preferred on curved
tracks.
True
Which of the following is not correct
regarding Gas Pressure Welding?
It is costlier than Flash butt
welding
Scheron process is used in which of the
following welding methods?
Metal arc welding
Which of the following are the
components of the Thermit mixture?
Aluminium and iron oxide
Because of the difficulty level of the Gas
pressure welding method it has not been
adopted on the Indian Railways.
False
Which of the following is not true about
Flash butt welding?
It has two movable jaws
What should be done to improve the
loose sleepers and the disturbed track
geometry?
Proper Maintenance
Which of the following statements is
false?
Life of track is independent of track
maintenance
What purpose does a Jim Crow serves in
track maintenance?
Removes kinks
How is gauge adjustment done in case of
wooden sleepers?
Refitting the dog spikes at a new
location
Cotters are used for the gauge
adjustment of which of the following
types of sleeper?
CST-9 sleepers
Packing of sleepers is done by applying
the scissor packing method.
True
What is hogging of joints?
Depression of rail ends at joints
What should preferably be done to
remove hogging if it occurs on a small
scale?
Over packing of joint sleepers
What can happen if there is provision of
wooden sleepers in a track that is
normally laid with metal sleepers?
High joints
Which of the following is correct in case
of pumping joints?
It pumps out mud and water
Which of the following activity must be
done when the track undergoes
regrading?
Lifting of track
-------------------------------
What can be done to remove the Centre
bound sleeper defect?
Loosening the ballast at the centre
Excessive lifting can be done if work is
done under speed restrictions.
True
The station where lines from three or
more directions meet is called a
Junction station
21 | P a g e
The station having two lines is called a The passenger platform is a
(a) Crossing station Passenger yard

Public requirements in railway station is A railway yard in which wagons are

(a) Booking office received, sorted and trains are formed is
(b) Platforms called
(c) Drinking water Marshalling yard
Answer: All of the above
The main functions of marshalling yard is
From the following there are not a block (a) Reception
station. (b) Sorting
D-class (c) Departure
Answer: All of the above
Which signal is the first stop signal in A-
class station? Hump yard is a type of
Home signal Marshalling yard

Which signal is the first stop signal in B- In the hump yard hump is located at the
class station? Entrance of the sidings
Outer signal
In hump yard rising gradient is
A D-class station that serves an outlying (a) 1 in 175
siding is called a __________. (b) 1 in 200
DK station (c) 1 in 150
Answer: Both A and C
A D-class station that serves no siding is
called a __________. Falling gradient of hump yard is
Flag station (a) 1 in 50
(b) 1 in 150
The length of platform in halts type (c) 1 in 300
station is Answer: All of the above
250 m
The device used for changing the
The length of platform for broad gauge direction of engines is called
should not be less than Turn tables
300 m
The device provided to prevent the
The station at which a railway line or one vehicles from moving beyond the end of
of its branches terminates or continuity of rail at terminals is called
a line stops, is known as ____________. Buffer stops
Terminal station
On permanent track, points and crossings
The first warner signal seen by the driver are provided to change
is known as Direction
Outer signal

22 | P a g e
A switch or points consists of a The minimum value of flangeway
(a) Stock rail clearance for broad gauge is
(b) Check rail 44 mm
(c) Tongue rail
Answer: Both A and C The minimum value of flangeway
clearance for meter gauge is
The toes of both the tongue rails are 41 mm
connected together by means of a plate
which is called The distance between the running face of
Stretcher bar the stock rail and the toe of the tongue
rail, is known as
Switch tie plate is provided below the Throw of switch
slide chairs __________.
At the toe The heel divergence is always ____
flangway clearance.
The switch angle is the angle subtended Greater than
between the gauge faces of the
Stock rail and tongue rail The switch angle depends upon
(a) Length of tongue rail
The distance between the running edge (b) Heel divergence
of the stock and tongue rails at the switch Answer: Both A and B
heel, is called
(a) Heel clearance The maximum value of throw of switch
(b) Heel divergence for a broad gauge track is
Answer: Either A or B 115 mm

The heel clearance is always measured The maximum value of throw of switch
______ to the stock rail. for a meter gauge track is
Perpendicular 100 mm

The heel divergence recommended for
broad gauge tracks by the Indian railways
is
133 mm
The heel divergence recommended for
meter gauge tracks by the Indian railways
is
117 mm
The distance between the adjacent faces
of the stock rail and the check rail, is
called
Flangeway clearance
The switch giving best performance is
Over riding switch
The crossing in which the right hand rail
of one track crosses the left hand rail of
another track or vice versa ia called
Acute angle crossing
The crossing is obtained when a left hand
rail of one track crosses right hand rail of
another rail or vice versa ia called
Obtuse angle crossing
A cross-over requires
Two sets of switches and two
crossings
23 | P a g e
Two cross-overs are laid between two The reception signal is
tracks in the case of (a) Outer signal
Scissors crossing (b) Home signal
Answer: Both A and B
When two tracks of similar gauge or
unsimilar gauge crosses at an angle less An advance starter signal is used for
than 90 degree, the crossing is known as Shunting
Diamond crossing
During foggy and cloudy weather, the
When a number of parallel tracks are signal used is Semaphore signal Warner
branched off from the straight track, it is signal Detonating signal Colour light signal
known as Detonating signal
Gathering lines
When semaphore signal is in horizontal
A track assembly used for diverting train position, it is said to be in
from one track to another is known as 'on' position which indicates 'stop'
Turnout
When semaphore signal is inclined at 45
If a train from main track is diverted to degree to 60 degree below horizontal, it is
the left of the main route in the facing said to be in
direction, then the diversion is known as 'off' position which indicates 'proceed'
Left hand turnout
For shunting operations the signal used is
If a train from main track is diverted to Disc signal
the right of the main route in the facing
direction, then the diversion is known as Coloured light signals may be either
Right hand turnout (a) Two aspect
(b) Three aspect
The trailing points in a track are those (c) Four aspect
points at which the train Answer: Any of the above
First pass over crossings and then
over switches The main device used for interlocking is
(a) Point lock
The facing points in a track are those (b) Treadle bar
points at which the train (c) Detector
First pass over Switches and then Answer: All of these
over crossings
The first passenger train was introduced
The system of signalling used on single- in India in
line working, is 1853
Space interval system
The first train in India was run between
In case the block system fails, then the Mumbai and Thane
system used is
Time Interval system

24 | P a g e
The clear horizontal distance between the
inner faces of two rails forming the track
at the top is called the ____ of the rail.
Gauge
Gauge of a permanent way, is
Minimum distance between inner
faces of rails
The broad gauge is _________ wide.
1.676 m
The light gauge is _________ wide.
0.610 m
The meter gauge is _________ wide.
1000 mm
The Narrow gauge is __________ wide.
762 mm
In India, the gauge adopted as a standard
gauge was
1.676 m
The choice of gauge depends upon
(a) Volume and Nature of traffic
(b) Speed of train
(c) Physical features of the country
Answer: All of the above
For main cities and routes of maximum
intensities, the type of gauge adopted is
Broad gauge
For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge
adopted is
Meter gauge
For hilly areas and thinly populated area,
narrow gauge is adopted.
TRUE
Which of the following statement is
correct?
At every change of gauge, the
passengers have to change their train.
The gauge representing the maximum
width and height up to which a railway
vehicle may be built, is known as
Loading gauge
The finished or completed track of railway
line is known as ______________ .
Permanent way
The full form of IRS is
Indian Railway Standards
A track is laid over Formation
According to Indian Railway Standard, the
minimum distance between the center to
center of two tracks for broad gauge is
4.3 m
On Indian railways, minimum formation
width in embankment for a single line of
broad gauge is
6.1 m
In the cross - section of railway tracks,
side slope in embankments is kept as
2:1
The cross section of rails is
I section
The rail section, now a days, used in
Indian railways is
Flat footed type
The rail section first designed in Indian
railways was
Double headed type
The length of double headed rail varying
from
6.10 m to 7.32 m
25 | P a g e
The length of bull headed rail is generally
18.29 m
Vignole's rails are also known as
Flat footed type
The height of 60 kg flat footed rail is
172 mm
The height of 52 kg flat footed rails is
156 mm
The rail section is designated by its
Weight per meter length
The largest dimension of a rail section is
Height
The rail section is divided on the basis of
Gauge of the track
For broad gauge track, in Indian railways,
the standard length of the rail is
12.80 m
For meter gauge track, in Indian railways,
the standard length of the rail is
11.89 m
Generally, in India, the axle load on rail is
taken _____ the weight of rail per meter.
560 times
Flow of rail metal due to abnormally
heavy loads is called
Wear of rail
In India, permissible limit of rail wear is
_____ by weight. 5%
When a train passes on curves which have
no superelevation, it will give thrust on
the
Inner side of outer rail
Due to battering action of wheels, over
the end of the rail, the rails get bent down
and deflected at ends, these rails are
called Hogged rails
The remedial measures of hogging of rails
are
(a) Cropping and Welding
(b) Replacing
(c) Dehogging
Answer: All of the above
In certain places the heads of rails are
found to be corrugated rather than
straight ones. Such type of rails are
known as
(a) Corrugated rails (b) Hogged rails
(c) Roaring rails
Answer: Both A and C
When rails go out of their position due to
insufficient expansion gap is called
Buckling
The misalignment of rails due to
temperature changes is called
Buckling
When the ends of adjoining rails move
slightly out of position is called
Kinks or Shoulder
The chief function of sleepers is to
(a) Support the rails
(b) Keep the two rails at correct gauge
(c) Distribute the load coming on rails to
the ballast
Answer: All of the above
The number of sleepers used per rail
length on the track is known as
Sleeper density
The number of sleepers used for rail
varies from (n + 3) to (n + 6)
26 | P a g e
A good sleeper should be such that
(a) The rails can be easily fixed and taken
out from the sleeper without moving
them
(b) It can provide sufficient bearing area
for the rail
(c) It can provide sufficient effective
bearing area on the ballast
Answer: All of the above
The spacing of sleepers is kept
Closer at the middle of rails
Ideal sleepers are
Wooden sleepers
At the time of pressing the steel sleepers,
a cant of 1 in 20 is provided towards the
centre.
TRUE
The main disadvantage of steel sleepers is
(a) Liable of corrosion
(b) Cracks develop at rail seat
(c) Unsuitable for track circuited area
Answer: All of these
The sleepers in the form of two bowls
placed under each rail and connected
together by a tie-bar, are known as
Pot sleeper

Best wood for wooden sleeper is Which of the following is a cast iron
Teak sleeper?
(a) Pot sleeper (b) Plate sleeper
Sleeper which satisfy all of the (c) Duplex sleeper
requirements and are only suitable for Answer: All of these
track circuiting are
Wooden sleepers Plate sleepers consists of a plate of
dimensions
Which of the following sleeper provide 865 mm X 305 mm
best elasticity of track?
Wooden sleepers The 305 mm side of a plate sleeper is
Parallel to the rail
The standard size of wooden sleepers on
broad gauge railway track is A CST - 9 sleeper is
275 X 25 X 12.5 cm A combination of plate, pot and
box sleeper
The standard size of wooden sleepers on
meter gauge railway track is Number of MS keys used in CST - 9
180 X 20 X 11.5 cm sleepers are 2

Adzing is done in the wooden sleepers to
give a slope of
1 in 20
Steel sleepers consist of steel troughs
made out of about 2 mm thick steel
sheets, with
Its both ends bent down
R.C.C. sleepers are used in railways due to
their
(a) Suitability for track circuiting.
(b) Capacity to maintain the gauge
properly
(c) Heavy weight which improves the
track modulus
Answer: All of the above

27 | P a g e
Sleepers providing best rigidity of track is
RCC
A layer of broken stones (20 to 60 mm
size), gravel, moorum or any other gritty
material packed below and around
sleepers is known as __________.
Ballast
The chief function of providing ballast in
the railway track is
(a) To uniformly distribute the load from
sleepers over a large area of formation
(b) To hold the sleepers in position
(c) To provide elasticity and resilience to
the track
Answer: All of the above
The ballast material generally used on
Indian railways consist of
(a) Broken stone (b) Gravel
(c) Moorum
Answer: All of these
The ballast below the sleeper is called
Ballast cushion
If width of sleeper is w, sleeper spacing is
S, then depth of ballast D is
The best suited material for the ballast is
Broken stone
The quantity of stone ballast required per
meter tangent length for broad gauge is
1.036 m3
The quantity of stone ballast required per
meter tangent length for meter gauge is
0.71 m3
The quantity of stone ballast required per
meter tangent length for narrow gauge is
0.53 m3
The minimum depth of ballast for broad
gauge tracks on Indian railways is
250 mm
The minimum depth of ballast for meter
gauge tracks on Indian railways is
200 mm
The minimum depth of ballast for narrow
gauge tracks on Indian railways is
150 mm
The standard width of ballast for broad
gauge on Indian railways, is
3.35 m
The standard width of ballast for meter
gauge on Indian railways, is
2.25 m
The standard width of ballast for narrow
gauge on Indian railways, is
1.83 m
The joint generally not used on Indian
railway is
Bridge joint
In supported joint, both the ends of
adjoining rails are supported on a
Single sleeper
On curves, generally rail joint provided is
Staggered joint
A welded joint is generally
Suspended
The Indian practice is to weld maximum
of
5 rail lengths
To reduce the wearing of rails, the rails
are placed at an
Inward slope of 1 in 20
28 | P a g e
The coning of wheels is made to prevent
the
(a) Lateral movement of the axle
(b) Lateral movement of the wheels
(c) Damage of the inside edges of rails
Answer: All of these
In coning of wheels, the wheels are given
a slope of 1 in 20
Any departure of the track from the level
is known as
Gradient or Grade
A _____ is one in which the track rises in
the direction of movement of traffic.
Rising gradient
A _______ is one in which the track loses
elevation in the direction of movement of
traffic.
Falling gradient
The maximum gradient, in which a railway
track may be laid in a particular section is
known as
Ruling gradient
The extra force P required by a
locomotive to pull a train of weight W on
a gradient with an angle of inclination θ
is, (a) P = W sin θ
(b) P = W tan θ
(c) P = W X Gradient
Answer: All of the above
In India, the ruling gradient provided in
plains for one locomotive train, is
1 in 150 to 1 in 250
In hilly terrain, sometimes gradients
steeper than the ruling gradient are
provided to reduce the length of track
and overall cost. This steeper gradient is
known as _______________.
Pusher or helper gradient
In India, the ruling gradient provided in
hilly terrain for one locomotive train, is
1 in 100 to 1 in 150
The gradient where extra engine is
required to push the train is known as
Pusher gradient Momentum gradient
Ruling gradient Station yards Gradient
Pusher gradient
No signals are provided in case of
Momentum gradient
The maximum gradient for broad gauge in
station yards is 1 in 400
For station yards, Indian railways have
recommended a gradient of
1 in 1000
In Indian railway, the grade compensation
provided on broad gauge curves is
0.04 % per degree
In Indian railway, the grade compensation
provided on meter gauge curves is
0.03 % per degree
In Indian railway, the grade compensation
provided on narrow gauge curves is
0.02 % per degree
A curve is represented by the degree of
the curvature subtended by a arc of
30 m
A curve is represented by the degree of
the curvature subtended by a chord of
30.5 m
The relation between the radius of curve
(R) and its degree of curve (D) is given by
29 | P a g e
The relation between the radius of curve
(R) and versine of curve (V) is given by
The superelevation (e) to be provided on
rails is determined by
On Indian railways, cant deficiency
allowed on broad gauge track is
76 mm
On Indian railways, cant deficiency
allowed on meter gauge track is
51 mm
On Indian railways, cant deficiency
allowed on narrow gauge track is
38 mm
When the main line is on a curve and has
a turn out of contrary flexure leading to a
branch line, then the branch line curve
has a
Negative cant
The method of forcing and packing stone
ballast below the sleepers by ramming
with beater cum-pick axe is called ____.
Packing
The process of filling the ballast between
the sleepers and beyond the ends of the
sleepers is called ___________.
Boxing
The process of bringing the rails to equal
elevation transversely is known as _____
of track.
Leveling

On Indian railways, cant deficiency Superelevation on curves is provided by

allowed on meter gauge is ____ broad means of
gauge. Equal to Less than More than (a) Cant-board
None of these (b) Straight edge
Less than (c) Spirit level
Answer: All of these
The maximum limit of superelevation
Boxing of ballast is done
prescribed by Indian railways on broad
At the rails
gauge is
165 mm
Packing of ballast is done
The maximum limit of superelevation Under sleepers
prescribed by Indian railways on meter
gauge is
100 mm

The maximum limit of superelevation

prescribed by Indian railways on narrow
gauge is 76 mm

The maximum permissible speed (V) of

trains for good order track on transition
curves is given by
√

30 | P a g e
A rail section is generally specified by
C. Weight per metre
2. Wear of a rail is maximum in
B. Sharp curve
3. An excess percentage of carbon in
steel, makes the rail
D. Brittle
4. The device provided to prevent the
vehicles from moving beyond the end of
rails at terminals is called
B. Buffer spots
5. When train passes on curves which
have no super-elevation, it will give thrust
on the
D. Inner side of outer rail
6. The longitudinal movement of the rails
in a track technically known as
C. Creeping
7. The width of top portion of a flat
footed rail, is
A. 66.67 mm
8. The track from which train diverts is
known as
B. Main line
12. Steel truss bridges for railway tracks
are generally suitable for a simple span of
A. Less than 50 m
13. Stock rails are fitted
C. Against tongue rails
14. Creeping of rails can be checked by
using
C. Anchors
15. The rail seat is given a slope of
C. 1 in 20
1. Straggered rail joints are generally
provided
A. On curves
2. In railways a triangle is mainly
provided for
C. Changing direction of engines through
180°
3. The capacity of a railway track is
D. The hourly capacity of the track to
handle the trains safety that is the
number of trains that can be safely run on
a track per hour
4. Rails are made of
A. Mn-alloy steel

9. Between two rails, a gap provided for 5. Bending of rails is done by

free expansion of the rails due to rise in A. Jun crow
temperature is
A. 15 to 3 mm 6. 'Crossing clearance' is the distance
between Crossing Rail and
10. The maximum gradient in which a B. Wing rail
railway track may be laid in a particular
section is known as 7. The gap moved by two tongue rail is
B. Ruling gradient known as
C. Throw of switch
11. Which of the following is a part of
switch in the railway track ?
C. High block

31 | P a g e
8. The type of rail crossing least preferred
is
B. Square crossing
9. Which of the following is a part of a
switch in a railway track?
C. Heel block
10. Rail section is generally designated by
its
C. Weight per meter length
11. The check rails are placed opposite
the crossing so that
C. Its two third length is ahead of the nose
crossing
12. A triangle of railway consists of
C. Two turnouts and one split
13. Rail tops of a track are placed
A. At an inward slope of 1 in 20
14. Arrangement made to divert the
trains from one track to another is known
as
C. Turnout
15. The force which resists the forward
movement and speed of train is called
B. Tractive resistance
16. The arrangements of rails which
permit trains to cross another track and
also to divert to the other track, is called
C. Diamond crossing with double slip
17. Width of the top portion of a flat
footed rail is
C. 66.77 mm
18. Wing rails are provided
D. In crossing
19. The phenomenon on misalignment of
rails due to temperature changes is
known as
C. Buckling
20. The yards in which wagons are stored
and new trains are formed are called
B. Marshalling yards
21. In rainy season the dust in the ballast
becomes mud and comes up by suction
from below the rain joint. Such joint is
called
D. Pumping joint
22. In which condition of rail surface, the
coefficient of friction will be the least?
C. Greasy
23. The rails of a track are placed
C. At an inward slope of 1 in 20
24. The movable end of the tapered rail,
by means of which the flange wheels of
the train are diverted from one track to
another, is known as
C. Toe
25. The smart phone signals located in
such positions from where trains start for
their next destination, are known as
B. Starter signals
26. In India the rails are manufactured by
C. Both a and b
27. Form of transition curve commonly
adopted on Indian railway is
A. Froud's cubic parabola
28. Total number of zones in which
Indian Railways is distributed for
D. 9
32 | P a g e
29. For broad gauge track, in Indian
Railways the standard length of rail is
D. 12.8 m
30. The size of ballast used on Indian
Railways for wooden sleepers is
D. 5 cm
31. On Indian Railways the number of fish
bolts used to connect one pair of fish
plates to the rails are
B. Four
32. On Indian Railways, number of a
crossing is defined as
D. Cotangent of angle of crossing
33. The rail section which is not used on
Indian Board Gauge tracks, is
B. 40 R
34. In Indian Railways the ratio of axle
load and weight of rail, is
D. 512
35. Maximum cant deficiency prescribed
on Indian Broad Gauge railways, is
D. 100 mm
36. Check rails are provided on inner side
of inner rails if sharpness of a board
gauge curve, is more than
C. 8o
37. On broad gauge in India maximum
allowed crossing number is
A. 1 in 16
38. For station yards, Indian Railways
have recommended a gradient of
D. 1 in 1000
39. For board gauge track, in Indian
Railways the standard length of rail is
D. 11.89 m
40. The great compensation of broad
gauge tracks on Indian Railways, is
A. .04%
41. Best wood for wooden sleepers is
D. Teak
42. Metal sleepers are superior to
wooden sleepers with respect to
B. Life
43. A monoblock sleeper has
C. Trapezoidal section
44. The sleepers in the form of two bowls
placed under each rail and connected
together by a tee-bar, are known as
D. Pot sleepers
45. To prevent the change in gauge and
creep, the steel sleepers are fixed by clips,
bolts and
D. Four keys
46. Maximum parking space provided
between two sleepers is
B. 30 to 35 cm
47. A track is laid over
B. Formation
48. The minimum composite sleeper
index for wooden sleepers used over
crossovers is
A. 1352
49. The minimum composite sleeper
index for wooden sleepers used over
Bridge girders, is
A. 1455
50. Sleepers which satisfy all of the
requirements and are only suitable for
track circuiting are
A. Wooden sleepers
33 | P a g e
1. On a single rail track, goods trains
loaded with heavy iron material run
starting from ‘A’ to ‘B’ and then empty
wagons run from ‘B’ to ‘A’. The amount of
creep in the rails:
(B) Will be more in the direction of A to B
2. A triangle is used for
(A) Changing the direction of engine
3. Heel divergence is
(C) Always greater than flange-way
clearance
4. Stretcher bar is provided
(B) To maintain the two tongue rails at
5. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle
travels around a curve at
(B) Speeds higher than equilibrium speed
6. The type of spike used for fixing chairs
of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is
(D) Round spike
7. Flat mild steel bearing plates are used
(A) For points and crossings in the lead
portion
8. Composite sleeper index is the index of
(A) Hardness and strength
9. Staggered joints are generally provided
(A) On curves
10. Creep is the
(A) Longitudinal movement of rail
11. Due to battering action of wheels over
the end of the rails, the rails get bent
down and are deflected at ends. These
rails are called
(B) Hogged rails
12. The main function of a fish plate is
(A) To join the two rails together
3. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail
section is to
(C) Avoid the stress concentration
14. Two important constituents in the
composition of steel used for rail are
(C) Carbon and manganese
15. Flange-way clearance is the distance
(A) Between the adjoining faces of the
running rail and the check rail near the
crossing
1. Which of the following types of
sleepers is preferred on joints?
(C) Wooden sleeper
2. Total effective bearing area of both the
bowls of a pot sleeper, is
(C) Equal to that of a wooden sleeper
3. Pick up the incorrect statement from
the following:
(A) Sleepers hold the rails at proper gauge
on straights
(B) Sleepers provide stability to the
permanent way
(C) Sleepers act as an elastic cushion
between rails and ballast
Answer: None of these
4. On Indian Railways, number of a
crossing is defined as
(D) Contingent of angle of crossing
5. Pandrol clips cannot be used with
(C) CST-9 sleepers
6. For providing the required tilt of rails,
adazing of wooden sleepers, is done for
(C) Flat footed rails
7. If n is length of a rail in meters, the
number of sleepers per rail length
generally varies from
(C) (n + 3) to (n + 6)
34 | P a g e
8. Normally maximum cant permissible in
Meter Gauge is
(B) 90 mm
9. Type of switch rails generally adopted
for modern track, is
(B) Curved switch
10. Pick up the correct statement from
the following:
(A) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is
provided on outside a curve if track is laid
with short welded rails
(B) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is
provided on outside a curve sharper than
3° on B.G. and M.G. tracks
(C) An extra width of 15 cm ballast is
provided on each shoulder if the track is
laid with welded rails
Answer: All the above
11. Lead of crossing is the distance from
the
(B) Heel of the switch to the theoretical
nose of the crossing
12. The place where a railway line and a
road cross each other at the same level, is
known as
(D) Level crossing
13. If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type
of switch generally provided, is
(D) Straight cut
14. The object of providing a point lock is
(A) To ensure that each switch is correctly
set
15. Minimum composite sleeper index for
wooden sleepers used in cross-overs, is
(C) 1352
The standard dimensions of a wooden
sleeper for a B.G. railway track are
(A) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
2. The limiting value of cant excess for
Broad Gauge is
(C) 75 mm
3. Indian Railways detects the rail flow by
(D) Kraut Kramer Rail flow detector
4. The gradient on which an additional
engine is required to negotiate the
gradient, is called
(B) Pusher gradient
5. One degree of curve is equivalent to
(C) 1750/R
6. If D is the distance between the parallel
sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the
distance between the noses of crossing
measured parallel to the gathering line, is
(B) D cot α
7. If D is distance between centres of two
parallel tracks of gauge G with entire
curved leads and equal angles of crossing,
total length of crossover, is
(A) √*D (4R - 2G - D)]
8. Which of the following mechanical
devices is used to ensure that route
cannot be changed while the train is on
the point even after putting back the
signal?
(C) Lock bar
9. Pot sleepers are used if degree of the
curve does not exceed
(A) 4°
10. Burnettising is done for the
preservation of
(A) Wooden sleepers
11. Consider the following statements:
Automatic signalling system results in
1. Greater risk
2. Higher efficiency
35 | P a g e
 3. Avoidance of block instruments
4. Higher operating cost
Of these statements
(D) 2 and 3 are correct
12. A kink is made in stock rails, ahead of
the toe of switch at a distance of
(B) 15 cm
13. Rails are fixed on steel sleepers
(C) By keys in lugs or jaws
14. Largest dimension of a rail is its
(A) Height
6. By interchanging gibs and cotters of a
pot sleeper, gauge may be slackened by
(C) 3.2 mm
7. The main function of sleepers, is
(A) To support rails
(B) To hold rails at correct gauge
(C) To distribute load from the rails to
ballast
Ans: All the above
8. The limiting value of cant gradient for
all gauges is
(B) 1 in 720

15. The rail section which is not used on 9. The spike commonly used to fix rails to
Indian metre gauge tracks, is wooden sleepers in Indian railways, is
(D) 40 R (A) Dog spike
(B) Screw spike
1. Advantage of automatic signalling, is: (C) Round spike
(A) Increased safety Ans: All the above
(B) Reduction in delays
(C) Increase in track capacity 10. Track construction involves
Answer: All the above preparation of
(A) Sub-grade
2. For developing thinly populated areas, (B) Plate laying
the correct choice of gauge is (C) Ballasting
(C) Narrow Gauge Ans: All the above

3. Coning of wheels 11. Study the following statements

(A) Prevent lateral movement of wheels regarding creep.
(B) Provide smooth running of trains (i) Creep is greater on curves than on
(C) Avoid excessive wear of inner faces of tangent railway track,
rail (ii) Creep in new rails is more than that
Ans: All the above in old rails,
(iii) Creep is more on steep gradients
4. An extra 7.5 cm ballast width is not than on level track.
provided on outer side on a curve, if its The correct answer is
degree is (B) (i) and (ii)
(D) 3°
12. According to Indian Railway Board, no
5. Standard size of wooden sleeper for diamond crossing should be flatter than
Broad Gauge track is (B) 1 in 8½
(A) 275 × 25 × 13 cm
13. Smith diamond is provided if the angle
of diamond is less than (C) 6°

36 | P a g e
 b) foot width
14. 60 R rails are mostly used in c) head width
(B) Metre Gauge d) any of the above
Ans: a
15. A welded rail joint is generally 6. Largest percentage of material in the
(C) Suspended rail is in its
a) head
1. The rail is designated by its b) web
a) length c) foot
b) weight d) head and foot both
c) cross-section Ans: a
d) weight per unit length 7. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail
Ans: d section is to
a) increase the lateral strength
2. Two important constituents in the com- b) increase the vertical stiffness
position of steel used for rail are c) avoid the stress concentration
a) carbon and silicon d) reduce the wear
b) manganese and phosphorous Ans: c
c) carbon and manganese 8. The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat
d) carbon and sulfur footed rail is
Ans: c a) 6155 mm2
b) 6615 mm2
c) 7235 mm2
3. The standard length of rail for Broad d) 7825 mm2
Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively Ans: b
a) 12 m and 12 m
b) 12 m and 13 m 9. 52 kg rails are mostly used in
c) 13 m and 12 m a) Broad Gauge
d) 13 m and 13 m b) Meter Gauge
Ans: c c) Narrow Gauge
d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
4. The following tests are conducted for 10. Tensile strength of steel used in rails
rails: should not be less than
i) falling weight test a) 450 MPa
ii) tensile test b) 500 MPa
iii) hammer test c) 700 MPa
The compulsory tests are d) 850 MPa
a) only (i) Ans: c
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (ii) and (iii) 11. Head width of 52 kg rail section is
d) (i) and (iii) a) 61.9 mm
Ans: b b) 66.7mm
c) 67mm
5. Largest dimension of a rail is its
a) height

37 | P a g e
d) 72.33 mm iii) physical features of the country
Ans: c The correct answer is
12. 60 R rails are mostly used in a) only (i)
a) Broad Gauge b) both (i) and (ii)
b) Metre Gauge c) both (ii) and (iii)
c) Narrow Gauge d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
d) none of the above Ans: d
Ans: b 19. For developing thinly populated areas,
13. Ordinary rails are made of the correct choice of gauge is
a) mild steel a) Broad Gauge
b) cast iron b) Meter Gauge
c) wrought iron c) Narrow Gauge
d) high carbon steel d) any of the above
Ans: d Ans: c

14. The main function of a fish plate is 20. Due to battering action of wheels over
a) to join the two rails together the end of the rails, the rails get bent
b) to join rails with the sleeper down and are deflected at ends. These
c) to allow rail to expand and contract rails are called
freely a) roaring rails
d) none of the above b) hogged rails
Ans: a c) corrugated rails
d) buckled rails
15. Number offish bolts per fish plate is Ans: b
a) 2
b) 4 21. The slipping of driving wheels of
c) 5 locomotives on the rail surface causes
d) 6 a) wheel burns
Ans: b b) hogging of rails
c) scabbing of rails
16. Fish plate is in contact with rail at d) corrugation of rails
a) web of rail Ans: a
b) fishing plane
c) head of rail 22. The width of foot for 90 R rail section
d) foot of rail is
Ans: b a) 100 mm
b) 122.2 mm
17. Gauge is the bearing plate c) 136.5 mm
a) center to center of rails d) 146.0 mm
b) running faces of rails Ans: c
c) outer faces of rails
d) none of the above 23. The height of the rail for 52 kg rail
Ans: b section is
a) 143 mm ,
18. Which of the following factors govern b) 156 mm
the choice of the gauge ? c) 172 mm ‘
i) volume and nature of traffic d) 129mm
ii) speed of train Ans: b

38 | P a g e
24. The formation width for a railway b) lateral movement of rail
track depends on the c) vertical movement of rail
i) type of gauge d) difference in level of two rails
ii) number of tracks to be laid side by side Ans: a
iii) slope of sides of embankment or 30. Anti creep bearing plates are provided
cutting The correct answer is on
a) only (i) a) bridges and approaches
b) both (i) and (ii) b) joints
c) both (i) and (iii) c) both (a) and (b)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) d) none of the above
Ans: b Ans: d
25. The formation width for a single line 31. Study the following statements
meter gauge track in embankment as regarding creep.
adopted on Indian Railways is i) Creep is greater on curves than on
a) 4.27 m tangent railway track,
b) 4.88 m ii) Creep in new rails is more than that in
c) 5.49 m old rails,
d) 6.10 m iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than
Ans: b on level track. The correct answer is
26. The side slope of embankments for a a) only (i)
railway track is generally taken as b) (i)and(ii)
a) 1:1 c) (ii) and (iii)
b) 1.5:1 d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
c) 2:1 Ans: b
d) 1:2 32. The maximum degree of curvature for
Ans: c Meter Gauge is limited to
27. The formation width for a double line a) 10°
Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding b) 16°
drains) as adopted on Indian Railways is c) 30°
a) 6.10 m d) 40°
b) 8.84 m Ans: b
c) 10.21m 33. Staggered joints are generally
d) 10.82 m provided
Ans: c a) on curves
28. The total gap on both sides between b) on straight track
the inside edges of wheel flanges and c) when two different rail sections are
gauge faces of the rail is kept as required to be joined
a) 10mm d) none of the above
b) 13mm Ans: a
c) 16mm 34. When the rail ends rest on a joint
d) 19 mm sleeper, the joint is termed as
Ans: d a) supported rail joint
29. Creep is the b) suspended rail joint
a) longitudinal movement of rail c) bridge joint

39 | P a g e
d) base joint a) hardness and strength
Ans: a b) strength and toughness
35. Which of the following types of c) toughness and wear resistance
sleepers is preferred on joints ? d) wear resistance and hardness
a) CST-9 sleeper Ans: a
b) steel trough sleeper 41. Minimum composite sleeper index
c) wooden sleeper pres-cried on Indian Railways for a track
d) concrete sleeper sleeper is
Ans: c a) 552
36. Minimum depth of ballast cushion for b) 783
a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size c) 1352
275x25x13 cm with 75cm sleeper spacing d) 1455
is Ans: b
a) 15 cm 42. Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to
b) 20 cm the
c) 25 cm a) wooden sleepers
d) 30cm b) CST-9 sleepers
Ans: c c) steel trough sleepers
37. Sleeper density in India is normally d) concrete sleepers
kept as Ans: a
a) M + 2 to M + 7 43. Number of dog spikes normally used
b) MtoM+2 per rail seat on curved track is
c) M + 5toM+10 a) one on either side
d) M b) two outside and one inside
where M is the rail length in meters. c) one outside and two inside
Ans: a d) two outside and two inside
38. For a Broad Gauge route with M+7 Ans: b
sleeper density, number of sleepers per 44. The type of bearing plate used in all
rail length is joints and on curves to give better bearing
a) 18 area to the rails is
b) 19 a) flat mild steel bearing plate
c) 20 b) mild steel canted bearing plate
d) 21 c) cast iron anti creep bearing plate
Ans: c d) none of the above
39. Standard size of wooden sleeper for Ans: b
Broad Gauge track is 45. Flat mild steel bearing plates are used
a) 275x25x13cm a) for points and crossings in the lead
b) 180x20x11.5 cm portion
c) 225x23x13 cm b) with wooden sleepers at locations
d) 250x26x12 cm where creep is likely to be developed
Ans: a c) on all joints and curves
40. Composite sleeper index is the index d) on all the above
of Ans: a

40 | P a g e
46. The nominal size of ballast used for 52. Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers
points and crossings is are made of
a) 25 mm a) cast steel
b) 40 mm b) mild steel
c) 50 mm c) cast iron
d) 10mm d) spring steel
Ans: a Ans: d
47. At points and crossings, the total 53. Number of cotters used in CST-9
number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in sleepers is
Broad Gauge is a) 2
a) 51 b) 3
b) 62 c) 4
c) 70 d) 5
d) 78 Ans: c
Ans: c 54. Pandrol clips cannot be used with
48. Width of ballast section for Broad a) wooden sleepers
Gauge is b) concrete sleepers
a) 1.83 m c) CST-9 sleepers
b) 2.25 m d) steel trough sleepers
c) 3.35 m Ans: c
d) 4.30 m 55. The desirable rate of change of cant
Ans: c deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is
49. The type of spike used for fixing chairs a) 20 mm/sec
of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is b) 35 mm/sec
a) dog spike c) 55 mm/sec
b) rail screw d) 65 mm/sec
c) elastic spike Ans: b
d) round spike 56. The limiting value of cant excess for
Ans: d Broad Gauge is
50. The sleepers resting directly on girder a) 55 mm
are fastened to the top flange of girder by b) 65 mm
a) hook bolts c) 75 mm
b) dog spikes d) l00 mm
c) fang bolts Ans: c
d) rail screws 57. The limiting value of cant gradient for
Ans: a all gauges is
51. Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper a) 1 in 360
is b) 1 in 720
a) 2 c) 1 in 1000
b) 3 d) 1 in 1200
c) 4 Ans: b
d) none of the above 58. Normally the limiting value of cant is
Ans: a a) G/8

41 | P a g e
b) G/10 64. The compensation for curvature on
c) G/12 gradient for Meter Gauge is given by
d) G/15 a) 70/R
where G is the gauge. b) 52.5/R
Ans: b c) 35/R
59. Vertical curves are provided where d) 105/R
algebraic difference between grades is where R is radius of curve.
equal to or Ans: b
a) less than 2 mm/m 65. The shape of transition curve used by
b) more than 2 mm/m Indian Railways is
c) less than 4 mm/m a) cubic parabola
d) more than 4mm/m b) spiral
Ans: d c) sine curve
60. The limiting value of cant deficiency d) lemniscate of Bernoulli
for Meter Gauge routes is Ans: a
a) 40 mm
b) 50 mm 67. A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as
c) 75 mm a contrary flexure from a main line If the
d) 100 mm superelevation required for branch line is
Ans: b 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the
61. The steepest gradient permissible on superelevation to be actually provided on
a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having the branch line will be
ruling gradient of 1 in 200 is a) 10 mm
a) 1 in 250 b) 64 mm
b) 1 in 222 c) 85 mm
c) 1 in 235 d) 65 mm
d) 1 in 275 Ans: d
Ans: a 68. One degree of curve is equivalent to
62. Normally maximum cant permissible where R is the radius of curve in meters.
in Meter Gauge is a) 1600/R
a) 75 mm b) 1700/R
b) 90 mm c) 1750/R
c) 140 mm d) 1850/R
d) 165 mm Ans: c
Ans: b 70. Switch angle is the angle between
63. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle a) the gauge face of the stock rail and
travels around a curve at tongue rail
a) equilibrium speed b) the outer face of the stock rail and
b) speeds higher than equilibrium speed tongue rail
c) speeds lower than equilibrium speed c) the gauge face of the stock rail and
d) booked speed outer face of the tongue rail
Ans: b d) the outer face of the stock rail and the
gauge face of the tongue rail
Ans: a

42 | P a g e
71. Switch angle depends on d) Vi cosec(a/2)
i) heel divergence Ans: c
ii) length of tongue rail 76. Which of the following turnouts is
iii) flangeway clearance most commonly used for goods train on
iv) throw of switch Indian Railways ?
The correct answer is a) 1 in 8’/2
a) (i) and (ii) b) 1 in 12
b) (ii) and (iii) c) 1 in 16
c) (iii) and (iv) d) 1 in 20
d) (i)and(iv) Ans: a
Ans: a
77. Lead of crossing is the distance from
72. Maximum value of ‘throw of switch’ the
for Broad Gauge track is a) heel of the switch to the toe of the
a) 89 mm switch
b) 95 mm b) heel of the switch to the theoretical
c) 100 mm nose of the crossing
d) 115 mm c) toe of the switch to the theoretical
Ans: d nose of crossing
73. Stretcher bar is provided d) toe of the switch to the actual nose of
a) to permit lateral movement of the crossing
tongue rail Ans: b
b) to maintain the two tongue rails at the 78. Number of switches provided on a
exact distance Gaunt-letted track is
c) to ensure exact gauge at the toe of the a) 1
switch as well as the nose of crossing b) 2
d) to prevent any vertical movement c) 3
between the wing rail and nose of d) none of the above
crossing Ans: d
Ans: b
79. The correct relation between curve
74. Which of the following methods of lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of
designation of crossing is mostly used in cros¬sing (L) is given by
India ? a) CL = L – SL
a) center line method b) L =CL-SL
b) right angle method c) SL = L + CL
c) isosceles angle method d) L = (CL+SL)/2
d) none of the above Ans: b
Ans: b
80. In a scissors cross-over, the crossings
75. If a is the angle of crossing, then the provided are
number of crossings ‘N’ according to right i) 2 obtuse angle crossings
angle method is given by ii) 4 obtuse angle crossings
a) Vi cot(cc/2) iii) 4 acute angle crossings
b) cot(oc/2) iv) 6 acute angle crossings The correct
c) cot(a) answer is
a) (i) and (iii)

43 | P a g e
b) (i)and(iv) b) near and parallel to inner side of one of
c) (ii) and (iii) the rails
d) (ii) and (iv) c) at right angle to the rail
Ans: b d) near and parallel to inner side of both
81. The distance through which the the rails
tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of Ans: b
the switch for movement of trains is 86. The object of providing a point lock is
called a) to ensure that each switch is correctly
a) flangeway clearance set
b) heel divergence b) to ensure that the point may not be
c) throw of the switch operated while the train is on it
d) none of the above c) to detect any obstruction between and
Ans: c tongue rail
82. Flangeway clearance is the distance d) none of the above
a) between the adjoining faces of the Ans: a
running rail and the check rail near the 87. Which of the following devices is used
crossing to transfer the wagons or locomotives to
b) between the gauge faces of the stock and from parallel tracks without any
rail and the tongue rail necessity of shunting ?
c) through which the tongue rail moves a) triangle
laterally at the toe of the switch b) turntable
d) none of the above c) traverser
Ans: a d) scotch block
83. Heel divergence is Ans: c
a) always less than flangeway clearance 88. A triangle is used for
b) equal to flangeway clearance a) changing the direction of engine
c) always greater than flangeway b) transferring wagons to and from
clearance parallel tracks without shunting
d) sometimes greater than flangeway c) separating all the sidings and shunting
clearance lines from main lines
Ans: c d) preventing the vehicles from running
84. Which of the following mechanical off the track
devices is used to ensure that route Ans: a
cannot be changed while the train is on 89. The height of the center of arm of a
the point even after putting back the semaphore signal above the ground is
signal ? a) 5.5m
a) detectors b) 6.5 m
b) point lock c) 7.5 m
c) iock bar d) 8.5m
d) stretcher bar Ans: c
Ans: c 90. The reception signal is
85. The treadle bar is provided i) outer signal
a) in the middle of the track a little in ii) home signal
front of the toes of the tongue rail iii) starter

44 | P a g e
iv) advanced starter The correct answer is d) 14
a) (i) and (ii) Ans: b
b) (ii) and (iii) 97. To ensure exact gauge, the gauge tie
c) (iii) and (iv) plates are provided at
d) (i)and(iv) a) toe of the switch
Ans: a b) nose of crossing
91. Yellow lighthand signal indicates c) both (a) and (b)
a) stop d) none of the above
b) proceed Ans: c
c) proceed cautiously 99. On a single rail track, goods trains
d) none of the above loaded with heavy iron material run
Ans: c starting from
92. When semaphore and warner are A to B and then empty wagons run from B
installed on the same post, then the stop to A. The amount of creep in the rails.
indication is given when a) will be more in the direction of B to A
a) both arms are horizontal b) will be more in the direction of A to B
b) semaphore arm lowered but warner c) will be maximum at the middle of A and
arm horizontal B
c) both semaphore and warner arms d) cannot be determined from the given
lowered data.
d) none of the above Ans: b
Ans: a 100. For laying the railway track,
93. In a shunting signal if the red band is materials required are
inclined at 45° it indicates A) Rails
a) stop B) FishPlates
b) proceed C) Fish Bolts
c) proceed cautiously D) Bearing Plates
d) none of the above The quantities required for one kilometer
Ans: b of Broad Gauge track will be
95. For the purpose of track maintenance, Ans: b
the number of turn out equivalent to one 102. Which of the following statements
track km are regarding ballast materials are correct?
a) 1 1. Brick ballast has poor drainage
b) 2 characteristics.
c) 5 2. Coal ash is not used as ballast with
d) 10 steel or cast iron sleepers.
Ans: d 3. Gravel ballast gives better performance
96. A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. on soft formation.
The number of driving wheels in this 4. Sand ballast causes excessive wear on
locomotive is top of rail.
a) 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
b) 8 given below. Codes :
c) 12 Ans: d

45 | P a g e
104. Metal sleepers are superior to d) coastal area
wooden sleepers with respect to Ans: b
a) cost 114. A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive
b) life with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle.
c) track circuiting Assuming the coefficient of rail-wheel
d) fastening friction to be 0.25, what would be the
Ans: b hauling capacity of the locomotive?
105. Which one of the following rail a) 15.0 tonnes
failures is caused by loose fish bolts at b) 22.5 tonnes
expansion joints? c) 45.0 tonnes
a) crushed head d) 90.0 tonnes
b) angular break Ans: b
c) split head 115. A treadle bar is used for
d) transverse fissures a) interlocking points and signal
Ans: a b) setting points and crossings
106. For a 8° curve track diverging from a c) setting marshalling yard signals
main curve of 5° in an opposite direction d) track maintenance
in the layout of a broad gauge yard, the Ans: a
cant to be provided for the branch track 116. Consider the following statements
for maximum speed of 45 km/h on the about concrete sleepers.
main line and ‘G’ = 1.676 m is (Permitted 1. They improve the track modulus.
cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6 cm) 2. They have good scrap value.
a) 0.168 cm 3. They render transportation easy.
b) -0.168 cm 4. They maintain the gauge quite
c) 7.432 cm satisfactorily. Of these statements
d) 7.768 cm a) 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: b b) 2 and 3 are correct
107. Consider the following statements: c) 3 and 4 are correct
Automatic signalling system results in d) 1 and 4 are correct
1. greater risk Ans: d
2. higher efficiency 117. What will be the curve lead for a 1 in
3. avoidance of block instruments 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight
4. higher operating cost Of these broad gauge track?
statements a) 28.49 m
a) I and 2 are correct b) 21.04 m
b) 3 and 4 are correct c) 14.24 m
c) 1 and 4 are correct d) 7.45 m
d) 2 and 3 are correct Ans: a
Ans: d
118. Consider the following surveys.
108. Wear of rails is maximum in weight 1. Reconnaissance survey
of 2. Preliminary survey
a) tangent track 3. Traffic survey
b) sharp curve 4. Location survey
c) tunnels The correct sequence in which these

46 | P a g e
surveys are conducted before the 1. 60 R rails are mostly used in
alignment of a track is finalised is Metre Gauge
a) 1,3,2,4
b) 1,3,4,2 2.The standard length of rail for Broad
c) 3,1,4,2 Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively
d) 3,1,2,4 13 m and 12 m
Ans: d
119. The load on each axle of a 3.The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat
locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient footed rail is
of friction is 0.2, then the hauling capacity 6615 mm2
due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be
a) 26.41 4.Which of the following factors govern
b) 19.81 the choice of the gauge ? i) volume and
c) 13.21 nature of traffic ii) speed of train iii)
d) 6.61 physical features of the country The
Ans: c correct answer is
ANSWER : : (i), (ii) and (iii)
120. In a B.G. railway track, the specified
ruling gradent is 1 in 250. The horizontal 5. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail
curve of 3° on a gradient of 1 in 250 will section is to
have the permissible gradient of ANSWER : : avoid the stress concentration
a) 1 in 257
b) 1 in 357 6.The formation width for a single line
c) 1 in 457 meter gauge track in embankment as
d) 1 in 512 adopted on Indian Railways is
Ans: b ANSWER : : 4.88 m
121. For a sleeper density of (n+5), the
number of sleepers required for 7.For developing thinly populated areas,
constructing a broad gauge railway track the correct choice of gauge is
of length 650 m is ANSWER : : Narrow Gauge
a) 975
b) 918 8.Tensile strength of steel used in rails
c) 900 should not be less than
d) 880 ANSWER : : 700 MPa
Ans: c
9.The formation width for a railway track
122. If ‘A’ is the angle formed by two
depends on the i) type of gauge ii)
gauge faces, the crossing number will be
number of tracks to be laid side by side iii)
a) tan A
slope of sides of embankment or cutting
b) cot A
The correct answer is
c) sec A
ANSWER : : both (i) and (ii)
d) Arad
Ans: b
10.The slipping of driving wheels of
locomotives on the rail surface causes
ANSWER : : wheel burns

47 | P a g e
11.Ordinary rails are made of
ANSWER : : high carbon steel
12.The main function of a fish plate is
ANSWER : : to join the two rails together
13.Head width of 52 kg rail section is
ANSWER : : 67mm
14.52 kg rails are mostly used in
ANSWER : : Broad Gauge
15.Two important constituents in the
com-position of steel used for rail are
ANSWER : : carbon and manganese
16.Gauge is the distance between
ANSWER : : running faces of rails
17.The height of the rail for 52 kg rail
section is
ANSWER : : 156 mm
18.Largest percentage of material in the
rail is in its
ANSWER : : head
19.The width of foot for 90 R rail section
is
ANSWER : : 136.5 mm
20.Number offish bolts per fish plate is
ANSWER : : 4
21.Due to battering action of wheels over
the end of the rails, the rails get bent
down and are deflected at ends. These
rails are called
ANSWER : : hogged rails
22.Largest dimension of a rail is its
ANSWER : : height
23.Fish plate is in contact with rail at
ANSWER : : fishing plane
24.The following tests are conducted for
rails: i) falling weight test ii) tensile test iii)
hammer test The compulsory tests are
ANSWER : : (i)and(ii)
Mr. W. Simms, the consulting Engineer to
the Government of India recommended
the gauge for Indian railways
C. 1.676 m as a compromise gauge
If absolute levels of rails at the
consecutive axles A, B, and C separated by
1.8 metres are 100.505 m, 100.530 m,
and 100.525 m respectively, the
unevenness of rails, is
A. 0.065 m
A CST-9 sleeper consists of
A. two inverted triangular pots on
either side of rail seat
B. a central plate with a projected key
and box on the top of plate
C. a tie bar and 4 cotters to connect
two cast iron plates
D. a single two way key provided on
the gauge side to hold the rail to sleeper
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Charles Vignoles invented the flat footed
rails in
A. 1814
B. 1836
C. 1846
D. 1856
E. 1873
Answer: Option B
To design a cross-over between parallel
tracks, the required components are :
A. two switch, points, two acute angle
crossings and two check rails
B. two switch points, two acute angle
crossings and four check rails
C. two switch points, two acute angle
crossings and six check rails
48 | P a g e
D. none of these. Minimum depth of ballast prescribed of
Answer: Option B B.G. trunk lines of Indian Railways, is
A. 20 cm
The first Indian railway was laid in B. 15 cm
A. 1775 C. 25 cm
B. 1804 D. 30 cm
C. 1825 E. 35 cm
D. 1853 Answer: Option C
E. 1876
Answer: Option D Boxing of ballast is done
A. under rails
The weight of the rails depends upon B. at the rails
A. gauge of the tracks C. in between two rails
B. speed of trains D. in between two sleepers.
C. spacing of sleepers Answer: Option B
D. nature of traffic
E. all the above. Best ballast contains stones varying in size
Answer: Option E from
A. 1.5 cm to 3 cm
Pick up the correct statement from the B. 2.0 cm to 4 cm
following : C. 2.0 cm to 5 cm
A. Rails are directly laid over hard D. 2.5 cm to 6 cm
wooden sleepers and fixed with spikes Answer: Option C
B. Adzing is done on hard wooden
sleepers For holding a rail in position, no chairs are
C. Bearing plates are used on soft used for
wooden sleepers A. flat footed rails
D. Chairs are used for bull headed B. bull headed rails
rails C. double headed rails
E. All the above. D. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option E Answer: Option A

Pick up the incorrect statement from the .

following: Distance between the inner rail and check
A. Fish plates fit the underside of the rail provided on sharp curve, is
rail head A. 40 mm
B. Fish plates fit the top of the rail B. 42 mm
foot C. 44 mm
C. Fish plates fit the web of the rail D. 46 mm
section E. 50 mm
D. Cross sectional area of fish plates, Answer: Option C
is normally the same as that of the rail
section. Coal ash (or cinder) is used in initial stages
Answer: Option C of a new construction of railway for
A. wooden sleepers
B. steel sleepers

49 | P a g e
C. cast iron sleepers Answer: Option D
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A In India the rails are manufactured by
A. open hearth process
Pot sleepers are in the form of B. duplex process
A. a number of bowls connected C. both (a) and (b)
together with a tie bar D. neither (a) nor (b)
B. two bowls placed under each rail Answer: Option C
and connected together with a tie bar
C. two bowls placed under two rails Rail section first designed on Indian
and the one between the rails railways, was
D. none of these. A. double headed
Answer: Option B B. bull headed
C. flat footed
In railways a triangle is mainly provided D. (a) and (b) simultaneously
for Answer: Option A
A. diverting trains from the main line
to branch line A scissors cross-over consists of
B. crossing over between parallel A. two pairs of points, four acute
tracks angle crossings and two obtuse angle
C. changing direction of engines crossings
through 180° B. four pairs of points, four acute
D. shunting wagons in yards. angle crossings and four obtuse angle
Answer: Option C crossings
C. four pairs of points, six acute angle
A kink is made in stock rails, ahead of the crossings and two obtuse angle crossings
toe of switch at a distance of D. two pairs of points, six acute angle
A. 10 cm crossings and four obtuse angle crossings.
B. 15 cm Answer: Option C
C. 20 cm
D. 30 cm
Answer: Option B To prevent percolation of water into
formation, moorum is used as a blanket
If L is length of a rail and R is the radius of for
a curve, the versine h for the curve, is A. black cotton soil
B. sandy soil
C. clayey soil
D. all the above.
Rails are bent to correct curvature if the Answer: Option A
degree of curve, is more than
A. 1° Distance between inner faces of the
B. 2° flanges, is kept
C. 3° A. equal to the gauge distance
D. 4° B. slightly less than the gauge
E. 6° distance

50 | P a g e
C. slightly more than the gauge Overall depth of a dog spike, is
distance A. 120.6 mm
D. none of these. B. 155.90 mm
Answer: Option B C. 135 mm
D. 150 mm
Wooden sleepers used on the girders of E. none of these.
bridges, are generally made of Answer: Option A
A. sal
B. chir Best wood for wooden sleepers is
C. teak A. chir
D. deodar. B. deodar
Answer: Option C C. sal
D. teak
If L1 and L2 are actual and theoretical E. shesham.
lengths of a tongue rail, d is heel Answer: Option D
divergence and t is thickness of tongue
rail at toe, the switch angle α is The rail section which is not used on
Indian metre gauge tracks, is
A. 25 R
B. 30 R
C. 35 R
If D is distance between centres of two D. 40 R
parallel track of gauge G, then, total Answer: Option D
length of cross-over (from the point of
commencement to the point of Dimensions of a plate girder, are :
termination) with an intermediate A. 851 mm x 851 mm
straight portion and N crossing, is given B. 255 mm x 254 mm
by C. 851 mm x 254 mm
A. DN + G (N + 1 + N2) D. 551 mm x 254 mm
B. DN + G (2N + 1 + N2) Answer: Option C
C. DN + G (3N + 1 + N2)
D. DN + G (4N + l +N2) Rail joint supported on a single sleeper, is
Answer: Option C known
A. suspended rail joint
If a 0.7% upgrade meets a 0.65% B. bridge rail joint
downgrade at a summit and the C. supported rail joint
permissible rate of change of grade per D. square rail joint.
chain length is 0.10%, the length of the Answer: Option C
vertical curve, is
A. 10 chains Maximum wheel base distance provided
B. 12 chains on Indian B.G. tracks, is
C. 14 chains A. 4.096 m
D. 16 chains B. 5.096 m
Answer: Option C C. 6.096 m
D. 7.096 m
E. none of these.

51 | P a g e
Answer: Option C Safe speed (V) on a curve of radius 970
metres provided with two transition
The tread of wheels is provided an curves on Board Gauge track, is
outward slope of A. 112 km/hour
A. 1 in 10 B. 122 km/hour
B. 1 in 15 C. 132 km/hour
C. 1 in 20 D. 142 km/hour
D. 1 in 25 Answer: Option C
E. 1 in 30
Answer: Option C Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
On a straight railway track, absolute levels A. Sleepers hold the rails at proper
at point A on two rails are 100.550 m and gauge on straights
100.530 m and the absolute levels at B. Sleepers provide stability to the
point B 100 m apart are 100.585 m and permanent way
100.515 m respectively, the value of twist C. Sleepers act as an elastic cushion
of rails per metre run, is between rails and ballast
A. 0.4 mm D. Sleepers transfer load of moving
B. 0.5 mm trains to ballast
C. 0.7 mm E. None of the these.
D. 0.8 mm Answer: Option E
E. 1.0 mm
Answer: Option B If α is switch angle and R is radius of the
turnout, the length of the tongue rail, is
Bearing plates are used to fix A. R sin α
A. flat footed rails to the wooden B. R tan α
sleepers C. R sin α/2
B. double headed rails to the wooden D. R tan α/2
sleepers E. R cos α/2
C. bull headed rails to the wooden Answer: Option D
sleepers
D. flat footed rails to the cast iron The quantity of stone ballast required per
sleepers metre tangent length, is
E. none of these. A. 1.15 m3
Answer: Option A B. 1.14 m3
C. 1.13 m3
A welded rail joint is generally D. 1.12 m3
A. supported on a sleeper E. 1.11 m3
B. supported on a metal plate Answer: Option E
C. suspended
D. none of these. The type of switch generally used for B.G.
Answer: Option C and M.G. tracks, is
A. articulated
B. undercut
C. over riding
D. straight cut.

52 | P a g e
Answer: Option C At a rail joint, the ends of adjoining rails,
are connected with a pair of fish plates
The difference in the lengths of two and
diagonals of a rail diamond is A. 2 fish bolts
A. B. 4 fish bolts
B. C. 6 fish bolts
C. D. 8 fish bolts
D. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Width of the top portion of a flat footed,
For flat bottom sleepers, maximum size of rail, is
ballast, is A. 69.85 mm
A. 50 mm B. 63.50 mm
B. 40 mm C. 66.77 mm
C. 33 mm D. 136.52 mm
D. 25 mm E. none of these.
E. 20 mm Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
For providing the required tilt of rails,
Coning of wheels adazing of wooden sleepers, is done for
A. prevent lateral movement of A. bull headed rails
wheels B. double headed rails
B. provide smooth running of trains C. flat footed rails
C. avoid excessive wear of inner faces D. any type of rails
of rail E. none of these.
D. all the above. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D .
The life of a wooden sleeper depends
The sleepers which satisfy the upon
requirements of an ideal sleeper, are A. quality of its timber
A. cast iron sleepers B. ability to resist decay
B. R.C.C. sleepers C. resistance to weathering
C. steel sleepers D. all the above.
D. wooden sleepers. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D .
The spread between the point and splice
Arrangement made to divert the trains rails at a distance of 4.25 rn is 50 cm. The
from one track to another, is known as size of the crossing is
A. railway point A. 1 in 6
B. railway crossing B. 1 in
C. turnout C. 1 in 12
D. railway junction D. 1 in 16
E. none of these. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Minimum packing space provided
between two sleepers, is between

53 | P a g e
 A. Sleepers transfer the load of
A. 20 to 25 cm moving locomotive to the girders of the
B. 25 to 30 cm bridges
C. 30 to 35 cm B. Sleepers act as a non-elastic
D. 35 to 40 cm medium between the rails and ballast
Answer: Option C C. Sleepers hold the rails at 1 in 20 tilt
inward
The overall length of a turn out is the D. Sleepers hold the rails loose on
distance between the end of stock rail curve.
and Answer: Option B
A. heel of crossing
B. actual nose of crossing Heel divergency, the distance between
C. throat of crossing the running faces of stock rail and gauge
D. toe of crossing. face of tongue rail, as recommended for
Answer: Option A Indian B.G. tracks, is
. A. 100 mm
According to Railway Board, no diamond B. 119 mm
crossing should be flatter than C. 125 mm
A. 1 in 6 D. 155 mm
B. 1 in E. 135 mm
C. 1 in 12 Answer: Option E
D. 1 in 16
Answer: Option B Type of switch rails generally adopted for
modern track, is
Coning of wheels is provided A. straight switch
A. to check lateral movement of B. curved switch
wheels C. loose heel switch
B. to avoid damage to inner faces of D. bent switch.
rails Answer: Option B
C. to avoid discomfort to passengers
D. All the above. If sleeper density is M + 7 for 13 m rails,
Answer: Option D the minimum depth of ballast under
wooden sleepers (25 cm x 13 cm), is
A scissors cross over consists of one A. 15 cm
diamond and B. 20 cm
A. one turn out C. 25 cm
B. two turn outs D. 30 cm
C. three turn outs E. 36 cm
D. four turn outs Answer: Option B
E. no turn out.
Answer: Option D By interchanging gibs and cotters of a pot
sleeper, gauge may be slackened by
Pick up the incorrect statement from the A. 1.2 mm
following: B. 2.2 mm
C. 3.2 mm
D. 4.2 mm

54 | P a g e
E. 5.0 mm B. 7.5 m
Answer: Option C C. 5.5 m
D. 5.0 m
Composite sleeper index determines Answer: Option A
A. number of sleepers per rail length
B. suitability of wooden sleepers The place where a railway line and a road
C. permissible stresses in steel sleepers cross each other at the same level, is
D. none of these known as
Answer: Option B A. cross over
B. railway junction
If S is cant deficiency in centimetres and V C. road junction
is maximum permissible speed in km p.h,, D. level crossing
the maximum length of transition curves, E. none of these.
is Answer: Option D

On Indian Railways standard length of

rails for B.G. track, is
A. 33 ft (10.06 m)
Indian Railways detects the rail flow by B. 36 ft (10.97 m)
A. Mitsubish Rail flow dector C. 39 ft (11.89 m)
B. Soni Rail flow dector D. 42 ft (12.8 m)
C. Audi-gauge Rail flow detector Answer: Option D
D. Kraut Kramer Rail flow detector.
Answer: Option D Heel of crossing is the line joining
A. ends of splice rail and point rail
The rail section which is not used on B.ends of lead rails butting the crossing
Indian Broad Gauge tracks, is C. ends of wing rails
A. 35 R D. throat and actual nose of crossing.
B. 40 R Answer: Option A
C. 45 R
D. 55 R A mono-block sleeper has
Answer: Option B A. square section
B. rectangular section
Ballast packed below and around the C. trapezoidal section
sleepers to transfer the load from D. semi-circular section
sleepers to formation, generally consists E. none of these.
of Answer: Option C
A. broken stones
B. gravels Minimum length of a transition curve
C. moorum required for
D. all the above. A. 2° curves for a maximum
Answer: Option D permissible speed of 135 km/hr, is 220
metres
A wing rail is renewed or reconditioned if B. 4° curves for a maximum
its maximum vertical wear is permissible speed of 95 km/hr, is 220
A. 9.5 m metres

55 | P a g e
C. 6° curves for a maximum D. design
permissible speed of 80 km/hr, is 220 E. all the above.
metres Answer: Option E
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D Minimum composite sleeper index for
wooden sleepers used in cross-overs, is
The distance between the theoretical A. 1152
noses of crossing along the same rail, in B. 1252
case of diamond crossing, is C. 1352
D. 1452
E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
A triangle used for turning the face of
locomotives, consists of The spike commonly used to fix rails to
A. three turn outs wooden sleepers in Indian railways, is
B. one turn out and two splits A. dog spike
C. two turn outs and one split B. screw spike
D. three splits. C. round spike
Answer: Option C D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Monnier, the inventor of R.C.C., .
suggested the introduction of reinforced If S and H are strength and hardness index
cement concert sleepers for the railways of a timber at 12% moisture content, the
in composite sleeper index, is
A. 1857
B. 1867
C. 1877
D. 1887 In Indian railways, plate laying is usually
E. 1897 done by
Answer: Option C A. side method
. B. telescopic method
If D is the distance between the parallel C. American method
sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the D. all the above.
distance between the noses of crossing Answer: Option B
measured parallel to the gathering line, is
A. D tan α Stock rails are
B. D cot α A. parts of crossing
C. D sin α B. fitted against check rails
D. D cos α C. fitted against tongue rails
Answer: Option B D. laid between heel of switch and
nose of crossing.
Regional Indian railways use different Answer: Option C
types of sleepers according to their .
A. availability The grade compensation on B.G. tracks
B. economy on Indian Railways, is
C. suitability
56 | P a g e
A. 0.02% C. 1.52 m x 15 cm x 10 cm
B. 0.03% D. 1.75 m x 20 cm x 12 cm
C. 0.04% E. none of these.
D. 0.05% Answer: Option B
E. 0.06%
Answer: Option C If G is gauge is metres, V is speed of trains
in km/hour and R is radius of a curve in
Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on metres, the equilibrium superelevation is
Indian Board Gauge Railways, is
A. 40 mm
B. 50 mm
C. 75 mm
The standard width of ballast for
D. 100 mm
B.G.track in Indian Railways, is kept
E. 25 mm
Answer: Option D A. 3.35 m
B. 3.53 m
C. 2.35 m
Gauge of a permanent way, is
D. 2.53 m
A. minimum distance between
running faces of rails E. none of these.
B. minimum distance between outer Answer: Option A
faces of rails
The angle between the gauge faces of the
C. distance between centres of rails
stock rail and tongue rail, is called
D. width of formation
A. switch angle
E. none of these.
B. angle of crossing
Answer: Option A
C. angle of turnout
D. none of these.
On Indian Railways standard length of
rails for M.G. track, is Answer: Option A
A. 33 ft (10.06 m)
Top surface of steel sleepers, is
B. 36 ft (10.97 m)
A. kept level throughout
C. 39 ft (11.89 m)
B. provided a cant of 1 in 20 inward
D. 42 ft (12.8 m)
C. provided a cant of 1 in 20 outward
Answer: Option C
D. none of these.
For calculating the length of curve lead Answer: Option B
(C.L.), the correct formula is
A. C.L. = G. cot α/2 Wheels of a rolling stock are provided
B. C.L. = 2IG flanges on
A. outer side
C. C.L. = 2 GN
B. inner side
D. all the above.
C. both sides
Answer: Option D
D. neither side.
Answer: Option B
The standard dimensions of a wooden
The arrangement of rails which permit
sleeper for M.G. railway track are
A. 2.74 m x 25 cm x 13 cm trains to cross another track and also to
divert to the other track, is called
B. 1.83 m x 20 cm x 11 cm

57 | P a g e
A. diamond crossing C. tangent of acute crossing
B. diamond crossing with single slip D. cotangent of acute crossing.
C. diamond crossing with double slip Answer: Option A
D. cross over.
Answer: Option C The main advantage of a cement concrete
sleeper, is :
To achieve best performance, the type of A. its heavy weight which improves
switch preferred to, is the track modulus
A. undercut switch B. its capacity to maintain gauge
B. straight-cut switch C. its suitability for track circuiting
C. overriding switch D. its flat bottom which is very
D. both (a) and (b) suitable for modern track
E. none of these. E. all the above.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E

Degree of a railway curve is defined as Rail tops of a track are placed

number of degrees subtended at the A. horizontal
centre of a curve by an arc of B. at an inward slope of 1 in 20
A. 10 m C. at an outward slope of 1 in 20
B. 15 m D. at an outward slope of 1 in 30
C. 20 m E. at an inward slope of 1 in 30
D. 30.5 m Answer: Option B
E. 30 m
Answer: Option D The gradient on which an additonal
engine is required to negotiate the
Pot sleepers are used if degree of the gradient, is called
curve does not exceed A. momentum gradient
A. 4° B. pusher gradient
B. 5° C. ruling gradient
C. 6° D. steep gradient.
D. 7° Answer: Option B
E. 8°
Answer: Option A Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
For even distribution of load through A. The line which connects a number
ballast, load dispersal is assumed as of parallel tracks, and also provides an
A. 30° to the vertical access to main track, is called a gathering
B. 45° to the vertical line
C. 60° to the vertical B. With a diagonal gathering line, the
D. none of these. length of the siding decreases with
Answer: Option B increase of its distance from main track
C. To have sidings of same length, a
The side of a rail diamond may be diagonal line is laid at one end and a
obtained by dividing the gauge of track by parallel gathering line at the other end
A. sine of acute crossing
B. consine of acute crossing

58 | P a g e
D. For most economical layout of A. it requires less number of rail
yards, the gathering lines are laid at the fastenings
limiting angle B. it provides smooth running of
E. All the above. trains
Answer: Option E C. it involves less maintenance cost
D. it provides conform to passengers
If D is the distance between the parallel E. all the above.
sidings and β is the limiting angle of Answer: Option E
crossings, the distance between the noses
of crossing measured parallel to the main Widening of gauge is provided if degree
track, is of the curve, is
A. D sin β A. 3° or less
B. D cot β B. 3° to
C. D tan β C. more than
D. D sec β
Answer: Option B D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
To avoid the damage of nose of crossing,
the wing rails are ramped so that nose of Continuity of electric current across
crossing remains at a lower level by welded rail joints, is maintained by
A. 3 mm A. welding ends of a wire to each rail
B. 4 mm B. placing an insulated plate
C. 5 mm underneath the rails
D. 6 mm. C. placing insulation in expansion
Answer: Option A gaps
D. none of these.
Smitch diamond is provided if the angle of Answer: Option D
diamond is less than
Sand may be used as ballast for
A. 2° A. wooden sleepers
B. 4° B. steel sleepers
C. 6° C. cast iron sleepers
D. 8° D. all the above.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

The distance between theoretical nose of Cast iron sleeper, is

crossing and actual nose of crossing for A. pot sleeper
practical purposes, is B. box sleeper
A. Nose thickness x tan α C. Duplex sleeper
B. Nose thickness x cot α D. plate sleeper
C. Nose thickness x sin α E. All the above.
D. Nose thickness x cos α Answer: Option E
Answer: Option B
On Indian Railways, angle of crossing
The main advantage of a long rail over between gauge faces of Vee, is generally
short one, is calculated by

59 | P a g e
 D. all the above.
A. Cole's method Answer: Option D
B. Centre line method
C. Isosceles triangle method In permanent way, ballast
D. both (a) and (b) A. transfers load from sleepers to the
Answer: Option A formation
B. provides an elastic bed to the track
For an effective administration, Indian C. provides a drainage of track
railway system has been divided into D. all the above.
A. four railway zones Answer: Option D
B. six railway zones
C. seven railway zones The lengths of the standard crossings in
D. eight railway zones India for Broad gauge and Metre gauge
E. nine railway zones. tracks is same for
Answer: Option E A. 1 in B.G. and, in 12 M.G.
B. 1 in 12 B.G. and, 1 in 16 M.G.
In a railway track, permissible gauge with C. 1 in 12 B.G. and 1 in M.G.
tolerance under loaded condition, is D. 1 in 16 B.G. and 1 in 12 M.G.
Answer: Option A
A. G + 0.1 mm
B. G + 1.5 mm If w is width of sleepers, s is sleeper
C. G - l.O mm spacing and d is depth of ballast then
D. G - 1.5mm
E. G - 20 mm
Answer: Option B
On either side of the centre line of rails, a
A turn-in-curve is defined as
cant of 1 in 20 in the sleeper is provided
A. a curve introduced between two
for a distance of
straights
A. 150 mm
B. a reverse curve
B. 165 mm
C. a reverse curve introduced in
C. 175 mm
continuity of a turn out
D. 185 mm
D. a spiral transition curve.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Anti-creep anchors are fixed to rails by
Advantage of automatic signalling, is:
A. wedging
A. increased safety
B. spring grip
B. reduction in delays
C. clamping
C. increase in track capacity
D. all the above.
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
On Indian Railways, the approximate
Track construction involves preparation of
weight of a rail section is determined
A. subgrade
from the formula
B. plate laying
C. ballasting

60 | P a g e
 D. Ends of adjoining rails butt against
Pick up the incorrect statement from the to give a continuity
following. Required tilt of 1 in 20 is E. All the above.
provided Answer: Option E
A. to the tops of rails
B. at rail seats in bearing plates Staggered rail joints are generally
C. at rail seats in chairs provided
D. at rail seats in metal sleepers. A. on curves
Answer: Option A B. on tangents
C. on bridges
A triangle of railway consists of D. in tunnels.
A. three turn outs Answer: Option A
B. one turn out and two diamonds
C. two turn outs and one split Bull headed rails are generally provided
D. one turn out, one split and one on
diamond. A. points and crossing
Answer: Option C B. straight tangents
C. curved tracks
Steel sleepers are D. metre gauge tracks
A. rectangular is cross section E. none of these.
throughout Answer: Option A
B. hollow circular pipes
C. 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends The check rails are placed opposite the
bent down crossing so that
D. 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends A. it is symmetrically placed opposite
bent up. nose of crossing
Answer: Option C B. its one-third length is ahead of the
nose of crossing
If D is distance between centres of two C. its two-third length is ahead of the
parallel tracks of gauge G with entire nose of crossing
curved leads and equal angles of crossing, D. its three fourth length is ahead of
total length of crossover, is the nose of crossing.
A. D (4R - 2G - D) Answer: Option C
B. D (3R - 2G -D)
C. D (3R + 2G - D) Weight and cross section of the rails are
D. D (4 + 2G - D) decided on
Answer: Option A A. gauge of tracks
B. speed of trains
Pick up the incorrect statement from the C. spacing of sleepers
following: D. type of rails
A. Ends of adjoining rails should be in E. all the above.
true alignment Answer: Option E
B. Rail joints should be as strong as
the rail section itself Main disadvantage of steel sleepers, is :
C. Rail joints should be elastic A. it gets rusted quickly
laterally as well as vertically B. its lugs some times get broken

61 | P a g e
C. its lugs some times get split C. Length of stock rail ahead of the
D. all the aboye. toe should be a minimum of 1.65 m
Answer: Option D D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
An extra 7.5 cm ballast width is not
provided on outer side on a curve, if its Total effective bearing area of both the
degree is bowls of a pot sleeper, is
A. 6° A. slightly more than that of a
B. 5° wooden sleeper
C. 4° B. slightly less than that of a wooden
D. 3° sleeper
E. 2° C. equal to that of a wooden sleeper
Answer: Option D D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
The factor for deciding the type of
sleeper, is For metal sleepers with rounded edges,
A. easy fixing and removal of rails maximum size of ballast, is
B. provision of sufficient bearing area A. 50 mm
for rails B. 40 mm
C. initial and maintenance costs C. 30 mm
D. strength to act as a beam under D. 25 cm
loads E. 20 mm
E. all the above. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
If G is gauge distance and a is crossing,
Spacing of sleepers the distance between the nose of acute
A. throughout the length of a rail is crossing and nose of obtuse crossing of a
kept uniform rail diamond, measured along the rail not
B. near rail joints, is kept closer forming the diamond, is
C. at the middle of rails, is kept closer A. G cot α
D. none of these. B. G tan α
Answer: Option C C. G sin α
D. G cos α
Rail section is generally designated by its Answer: Option A
A. total weight
B. total length On Indian Railways, number of a crossing
C. weight per metre length is defined as
D. area of its cross-section. A. sine of angle of crossing
Answer: Option C B. consine of angle of crossing
C. tangent of angle of crossing
Pick up the correct statement from the D. contangent of angle of crossing.
following: Answer: Option D
A. Length of tongue rail should be
greater than rigid wheel base of vehicle If the standard length of a crossing is 480
B. Stock rail should be longer than cm, the number of crossing is
tongue rail

62 | P a g e
A. 1 in of B.G. D. none of these.
B. 1 in of M.G. Answer: Option A
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these. 30 m long rails are used in
Answer: Option C A. India
B. Pakistan
In India, metre gauge permanent way was C. Russia
adopted in D. U.S.A.
A. 1855 E. U.K.
B. 1860 Answer: Option D
C. 1866
D. 1871 Minimum gradient in station yards is
E. 1875 generally limited to
Answer: Option D A. 1 in 1000
B. 1 in 750
On a single line track, 10 goods trains C. 1 in 500
loaded with iron ore run from A to B and D. 1 in 400
empty wagons return from B to A daily. E. zero
Amount of creep of the rails will be Answer: Option E
A. zero
B. more in the direction A to B If n is length of a rail in metres, the
C. more in the direction B to A number of sleepers per rail length
D. none of these. generally varies from
Answer: Option B A. n to (n + 2)
B. (n + 2) to (n + 4)
Check rails are provided on inner side of C. (n + 3) to (n + 6)
inner rails if sharpness of a B.G. curve, is D. (n + 4) to (n + 5)
more than Answer: Option C
A. 3°
B. 5° For inspection and packing of ballast,
C. 6° each pot sleeper is provided with
D. 8° A. one hole
Answer: Option D B. two holes
C. three holes
Wing rails are provided D. four holes.
A. near tongue rails Answer: Option B
B. near check rails
C. near stock rails Each block of a two-block concrete
D. in crossing. sleeper is
Answer: Option D A. 722 mm x 295 mm x 271 mm and
215 kg in weight
Burnettising is done for the preservation B. 250 mm x 154 mm x 196 mm and
of 260 kg in weight
A. wooden sleepers C. 525 mm x 350 mm x 275 mm and
B. rails 280 kg in weight
C. ballast D. none of these.

63 | P a g e
Answer: Option A C. 1 in 16
D. none of these.
The effective bearing area of all types of Answer: Option B
sleepers, is
A. 0.40 m2 Rails are fixed on steel sleepers
B. 0.42 m2 A. by bearing plates
C. 0.44 m2 B. by dog spikes
D. 0.46 m2 C. by keys in lugs or jaws
E. 0.50 m2 D. none of these.
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

For points and crossings, maximum size of If a is average number of peaks more than
ballast, is 10 mm of uneveness per kilometre, b is
A. 50 mm average number peaks more than 6 mm
B. 40 mm for gauge variation per kilometre and c is
C. 30 mm average number of peaks more than 2
D. 25 mm mm twist per metre, then composite
E. 20 mm current recording index (Ic), as
Answer: Option D recommended by Indian Northern
Railways, is
The main function of sleepers, is A. Ic = 10 - a - b - c/4
A. to support rails B. Ic = 20 - a - b - c/4
B. to hold rails at correct gauge C. Ic = 30 - a - b - c/4
C. to distribute load from the rails to D. Ic = 40 - a - b - c/4
ballast Answer: Option D
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
If S is the switch angle and α is diamond A. An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast
angle, r is the radius of slip, the distance isprovided on outside a curve if track is
between middle point slip and the nose of laid with short welded rails
obtuse crossing, is B. An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast
isprovided on outside a curve sharper
than 3° on B.G. and M.G. tracks
C. An extra width of 15 cm ballast is
Packing of ballast is done provided on each shoulder if the track is
A. near the ends of sleepers laid with welded rails
B. on the shoulders D. All the above.
C. under sleepers Answer: Option D
D. between two rails.
Answer: Option C The standard width of ballast for M.G.
track in Indian Railways, is kept
If the standard length of a B.G. crossing is A. 3.35 m
597 cm, the number of crossing, is B. 3.53 m
A. 1 in C. 2.30 m
B. 1 in 12 D. 2.50 m

64 | P a g e
E. none of these. D. 1155
Answer: Option C E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
To prevent creep in rails, the steel
sleepers are fixed with rails by clips, bolts In a diamond crossing, number of noses
and are
A. one key A. 2
B. two keys B. 3
C. three keys C. 4
D. four keys. D. 6
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

The standard dimensions of a wooden If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type of
sleeper for a B.G. railway track are switch generally provided, is
A. 2.74 m x 25 cm x 13 cm A. articulated
B. 1.83 m x 20 cm x 11 cm B. undercut
C. 1.52 m x 15 cm x 10 cm C. over riding
D. 1.75 cm x 20 cm x 12 cm D. straight cut.
E. none of these. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Bending of rail ends due to loose packing
In Indian railways, the ratio of axle load under a joint and loose fish Bolts, is
and weight of rail, is known
A. 312 A. buckling
B. 412 B. hogging
C. 512 C. creeping
D. 600 D. none of these.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

If D is the distance between parallel tracks On Broad Gauge main lines with
G is the gauge and α is angle of crossings, maximum traffic loads, the rail section
the distance between theoretical noses of preferred to, is
two crossings measured parallel to tracks, A. 29.8 to 37.3 kg/m
is B. 32.5 to 42.5 kg/cm
A. (D - G - G sec α) cot α C. 44.7 to 56.8 kg/m
B. (D - G + G sec α) cot α D. none of these
C. (D - G - G sec α) tan α Answer: Option C
D. (D + G + G sec α) cot α
Answer: Option A If D is the distance between the parallel
sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the
Minimum composite sleeper index for distance between the noses of crossing
wooden sleepers used over bridge measured parallel to the main track, is
girders, is A. D tan α
A. 1455 B. D sec α
B. 1355 C. D cosec α
C. 1255 D. D cot α

65 | P a g e
Answer: Option C

On B.G. tracks the distance of outer signal

from station limit is kept
A. 510 m
B. 520 m
C. 530 m
D. 540 m
E. 550 m
Answer: Option D

The rails get out of their original positions

due to insufficient expansion gap. This
phenomenon is known
A. hogging
B. buckling
C. creeping
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B

66 | P a g e

Airport Engg
The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacents
C. 45 m in length
D. placed symmetrically on either side of
the runway centre line
Answer: all the above.
The bearing of the longest line of a wind
rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway
will be numbered
C. 13 D 31
Answer: both (c) and (d)
For the proposed runway stated in if the
aerodrome reference temperature is
17°.2, the net designed length of the
runway is 2816 m
Pick up the correct statement from:
A. Landing speed is directly proportional
to the wing loading
B. Wing loading remaining constant, the
take off distance is directly proportional
to the powder loading
Answer: Both (a) and (b)
Pick up the correct statement from:
A. Approach zone survey is carried out to
determine the elevations of the
protruding obstructions above horizontal,
conical and transitional surfaces
B. The wind data of an air port is depicted
in the form of a chart known as wind rose
C. The landing and take off of the air craft
is made against the wind direction
D. The product of wind loading and power
loading is called air craft rating
Answer : All the above.
The runway orientation is made so that
landing and take off are
against the wind direction
The lift off distance is the distance along
the centre of the runway between the
starting point and
end of the runway
Pick up the correct statement from:
A. Approximate geometric centre of the
landing area, is called air port reference
point
B. The boundaries of horizontal surface
and conical surface are marked with
reference to air port reference point
C. The location of the air port on a map is
the position of air port reference point
Answer : All the above.
An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of
30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its
speed is known as sonic
According to I.C.A.O. the slope of
transitional surface at right angles to the
centre line of runway, is kept
1 in 7
The depressions and undulations in the
pavement, are caused due to
A. improper compaction of subgrade
B. impact of heavy wheel loads
C. punching effect
D. flexible gears
Answer : all the above.
Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine
is provided in the nose of the aircraft
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one
engine on either wing is placed
symmetrically
C. In three engine aeroplanes, two
engines are placed on both wings and one
engine is placed in the tail
D. None of these.
Answer: Option C
67 | P a g e
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. The speed of the aircraft relative to the
ground, is called cruising speed
B. The speed of the aircraft relative to
wind, is called air speed
C. When wind is blowing the direction of
the flight, air speed is less than cruising
speed
Answer: All the above.
Airport elevation is the reduced level
above M.S.L. of
highest point of the landing area
The reduced level of the proposed site of
an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the
recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the
runway at sea level is 2500 m, the
required length of the runway is
3725 m
According to I.C.A.O. the recommended
length of air ports is decided on
A. sea level elevation
B. standard sea level temperature (15°C)
C. effective gradient percentage
Answer : all the above.
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. The basic length of a runway is
increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of
elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is
obtained by reducing the standard sea
level temperature of 15°C at the rate of
6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature
is the monthly mean of the mean daily
temperature for the hottest month of the
year
Answer: All the above.
The meterological condition which
influences the size and location of an air
port is
A. atmosphere pressure
B. air density
C. reduced level
D. wind direction
Answer: all the above.
Pick up the correct statement from:
A. The distance between the points of
intersection of the extreme tangents to
the transition curve is kept greater than
7500 m x sum of grade changes at the
point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited
to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum
longitudinal gradient along a runway is
limited to 1.5%
Answer: All the above.
Conical surface of the approach area rises
outwards 1 in 20
The thickness design of the pavement, is
decided on the load carried by
main gears
For Class A Air port the difference of
reduced levels of higher and lower edges
of the conical surface, is 100 m
Beaufort scale is used to determine
strength of winds
The fuse large includes
A. passengers chamber
B. pilot's cabin
C. tail of aircraft
Answer: all the above.
The maximum length and pavement
strength of the runway is that of
A1
68 | P a g e
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by
the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by
turbine engines, are technically called
turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust
directly from turbine engine, are called
turbo-jets
D. The aircraft which is filled with a fan
infront of turbo-jet engine, is called
turbofan propelled aeroplane
Answer: All the above.
The distance between main gears is 10 m,
and the distance of nose gear from centre
of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of
turning is 60°, the distance of centre of
rotation from the nearer main gear, is
12.30 m
To cope up high temperature of 196°C,
the taxi ways and aprons are constructed
with
A. asphaltic concrete
B. rubberised tar concrete
C. plain concrete
D. epoxy asphalt concrete
Answer: all the above.
Pick up the correct abbreviation from the
following:
A. I.L.S. (instrument landing system)
B. V.H.F, (very high frequency)
C. L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)
D. L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)
Answer: All the above
Wing loading of an aircraft is
From the end of an instrumental runway,
the approach surface rises outwards
1 in 50
Pick up the incorrect statement from:
A. Channelization of pavement is caused
by constant use of tri-cycle gears of
aircraft
B. Blast pads are used over cohesionless
soils to resist erosion due to tremendous
speed of the jet blast
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length
on either side of the runway are provided
Answer: None of these.
Speed of
A. sound at 0°C is 1190 km p.h.
B. sound varies 2.4 km p.h. per degree
centrigrade rise in temperature
C. sound at 0°C is called one Mach
D. an aircraft flying at 2975 km p.h., is
called 2.5 Mach
Answer: All the above.
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. The centre line of the approach area
coincides with that of the runway
B. Approach areas are measured in
horizontal surfaces
C. The imaginary inclined plane which is
directly above the approach area is called
approach surface
D. Obstruction clearance surface and
approach surface are same
Answer: All the above.
The coordinates of the ends of a runway
are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The
co-ordinates of an other runway are
(4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-
ordinates of the A.R.P. are
(61500, 5600)
A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a
gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate
of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres,
the length of the transition curve, is
150 m
69 | P a g e
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information
regions
B. F.I.C. stands for flight information
centre
C. Radius of control area is 160 km
D. Radius of control zone is 40 km
Answer: All the above.
The bearing of the runway at threshold is
290°, the runway number is 29°
The best direction of a runway is along
the direction of
longest line on wind rose diagram
International Civil Aviation Organisation
(I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal
(Canada), in 1947
The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots
in the direction of the aircraft flying at a
ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed
of the aircraft, is 675 knots
For the taxiways, the following statement
is true
A. The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%
B. The permissible rate of change of grade
is 1%
C. The permissible transverse grade is
1.5%
Answer: All the above.
Pick up the correct statement from:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is
called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his
position with respect to the proposed
alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct
angle of descent
D. L.O.M. and L.M.M. help the pilot to
judge his position for the runway
Answer: All the above.
Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the
runway lengths of aerodromes, have been
coded by
First Seven English alphabets
Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
Glide slope antenna is installed at
the centre of the runway about 150 m on
one side
According to the International Civil
Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) the
strength of runway pavements, have
been coded by
First seven numbers
The strength of winds is measured with
the help of
Benfort scale
The landing and take off of the air craft is
made against the direction of wind. In no
case the centre line of the runway should
make an angle with the wind direction
exceeding
30°
According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the
runways are painted white and on
taxiways
yellow
If the width of the approach area near the
runway end is 150 m, the width of the
approach area at a distance of 3
kilometres from runway end will be
1200 m
The reduced levels of the ends A and B of
a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and
that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The
reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
3075 m
70 | P a g e
The height of the pilot's eye above the Two single runways may be arranged so
runway surface is assumed as to have
3m A. L-shape B. T-shape
C. X-shape
Pick up the correct statement from: Answer: All the above.
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts
decides the size of the apron and the The length of runway is increased per 300
radius of the curves at taxi-ends m rise above M.S.L.
B. Take off and landing distances for an 7%
aircraft, determine the minimum runway
length If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m,
C. The length of the normal haul of the air the clear way at the end of the runway
craft decides the frequency of operation should not be less than
Answer: All the above. 172.5 m

For night landing, the thresholds are In instrument landing system

lighted L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on
green one side and Localizer antenna on the
other side
Pick up the component not applicable to
aeroplanes Pick up the correct statement from:
A. wings B. engines A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if
C. air screw D. fuse lage fuel spillage occurs
Answer: none of these. B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as
well as spillage
Effective length of a runway is the C. Epoxy asphalt concrete resists the jet
distance between fuels and provides more elastic pavement
point of intersection of the D. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very
obstruction clearance line and the small time
extended plane of the runway surface, Answer: All the above.
and the other end of the runway
The length of a runway under standard
For the proposed air port, the survey atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the
project provides actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m,
A. master plan B. topograhic plan the design length of the runway is
C. grading plan D. drainage plan 2560 m
Answer: all the above.
Airports can be classified on __4__ bases?
The maximum value of the angle of
Which of the following does not affect the
turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts,
site-selection of an airport site?
is limited to 60°
Number of ground staff
Total correction for elevation,
There are ........... types of Fly Rules?
temperature and gradient for a runway
2
should not be more than
35% Which of the following does not affect the
site-selection of an airport site?
71 | P a g e
 Number of ground staff 2100 m and 600 m
Are Runways oriented in a direction ............. is used for servicing and repairs
against the prevailing wind. of the aircraft?
No Hanger

What should be the wind intensity during What is the size of landing area for multi
a quiet period in the runway? engine helicopters operating under 1 FR
Below 6.4km/hr conditions?
60 m × 120 m
According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the
runways are painted white and on Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is equal to
taxiways sum of empty operating weight and the
Yellow maximum pay load.
True
The best direction of a runway is along
Airport elevation is the reduced level
the direction of
above M.S.L. of
Longest line on wind rose diagram
highest point of the landing area
According to the International Civil
Which of the following is the correct
Aviation Organisation, the runway lengths
statement?
of aerodromes, have been coded by ......
a. The glide slope indicates the correct
First Seven English alphabets
angle of descent
b. Runway edge from the landing side, is
An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of
called threshold
30°C with a speed of 1260 kmph. Its
c. Localizer indicates to the pilot his
speed is known as
position with respect to the proposed
Sonic
alignment
Answer: All of the above
The objectives of the master plan
according to FAA are
When was the International Civil Aviation
(i) To provide an effective graphical
Organization established in Montreal
presentation of development of airport
(Canada)? 1947
(ii) To establish schedule of priorities for
proposed plan
What is the minimum width of clearway?
(iii) To present pertinent back-up
150 m
information for development of master
plan
The runway orientation is made so that
(iv) To describe the various concept and
landing and takeoff are
alternatives for proposed plan
Against the wind direction
(i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
The strength of winds is measured with
The regional planning procedure of
the help of
airport as per FAA
Beaufort scale
(i) Phase I : Airport Requirements
(ii) Phase II : Site Selection
As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway
(iii) Phase III : Airport Plans
length for A and E type of airport will be
(iv) Phase IV : The Financial Plan

72 | P a g e
 (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
The correct order of phase of regional
planning of Airport as per ICAO is
(1) Site Selection
(2) Airport Requirements
(3) The Financial Plan (4) Airport Plans
2-1-4-3
In The Financial Planning of Airport as per
FAA, suggest correct sequence of working
(1) Schedule of proposed development
(2)Economic feasibility Analysis
(3)Financial feasibility Analysis
(4) Estimate of development cost
1-4-2-3
Regional plan of airport usually provides
the information
(1) Approximate location of airports
(2) Classification of airports
(3) Location of air strips
(4) Routes of air travel
(1),(2), (3) and (4)
The data required for regional planning
(1) Population
(2) Topographical and Geographical
features
(3) Existing airports in vicinity
(4) Air traffic characteristics
(1),(2),(3) and (4)
Select correct order to develop and
improving existing Airport
(1) Improvement of Airport capacity
(2) Traffic Forecast
(3) Planning of new airport
(4) Determination of capacity of existing
airport
2-4-1-3
Factors considered for site selection of
airports
(1) Regional plan (2) Topography
(3) Visibility (4) Wind
(1),(2),(3) and (4)
Suggest your expert opinion for minimum
spacing in km between two airports in the
following condition of flight operation
(1) Airports having small general aviation
operation
(2) Airport serving bigger aircrafts under
VFR condition
(3) Airports operating piston engine under
IFR condition
(4) Airports operating jet engine under
IFR condition (IFR-Instrument flight rules,
VFR-Visual flight rules)
3.2 Km ,6.4 Km ,25.6 Km,160 Km
Runway is so oriented hat landing and
take off is done heading/opposite to the
wind direction True
For landing and takeoff of aircraft long
clearance areas are provided on either
side of runway known as____
approach area
Arrange in correct order of surveys for
site selection
(1) Topographical survey
(2) Drainage survey
(3) Meteorological survey
(4) Material survey
(5) Traffic survey
(6) Soil survey
5-3-1-6-2-4
The drawings need to be prepared after
final selected site for airport
(1) Topographical map
(2) Obstruction map
(3) Drainage plan
(4) Airport Master Plan
(1),(2),(3) and (4)
While landing of aircraft the correct order
of the runway element is
(1) Threshold (2) Clearway
(3) Aiming point (4) Touchdown zone
2-1-4-3
73 | P a g e
The area beyond the runway, used in case
of engine failure, it is kept free from
obstruction
Clearway
The takeoff distance must be ____% of
actual distance the aircraft uses to reach a
height of ___ m.
115,10.5
During take off the start of runway to the
point where the wheels of aircraft looses
contact with runway pavement is known
as __ Lift of distance
As per ICAO the width of clearway shall
be not less than_________m
150
It provide access to aircraft from the
runway to terminal area service hangers
and back. Taxiway
It accommodate aircraft for loading and
unloading of cargo and passengers,
parking ,refueling
Apron
The number of aircraft movement which
an airport can process within a specified
period of time, with an average delay to
the departing aircraft within the
acceptable time limit is defined as
Airport capacity
Which of the following is used for
servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
Hanger
Within _____ Km from runway end,
considered as obstruction if height is
more than _______ m.
15,30
At runway any object whose height
exceeds _______m above ground level is
considered as an obstruction
150
Within ____km distance from the runway
end, any object shall considered as an
obstruction if its height is more than _m
4.5,30
The slope of the transitional surface for A,
B and C type of runway shall be
1:7
Conical surface of the approach area rises
outwards
1 in 20
The airport having runway length more
than 900 m the outer horizontal surface
(OHS) is suggested, which RL is ___m
above from airport reference point(ARP)
150
The fuse large includes
(a) Passengers chamber
(b) Pilot's cabin
(c) Tail of aircraft
Answer: All the above
The runway orientation is made so that
landing and takeoff are
Against the wind direction
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
(a) Approach zone survey is carried out to
determine the elevations of the
protruding obstructions above horizontal,
conical and transitional surfaces
(b) The wind data of an air port is
depicted in the form of a chart known as
wind rose
(c) The landing and takeoff of the air craft
is made against the wind direction
Answer: All the above
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
74 | P a g e
(a) Approximate geometric centre of the Percentage of time in a year during which
landing area, is called air port reference cross wind component remains within
point limit is called
(b) The boundaries of horizontal surface wind coverage
and conical surface are marked with
reference to air port reference point CALM Period during which wind velocity
(c) The location of the air port on a map is remain below ________ Km/hr
the position of air port reference point 6.4
Answer: All the above
Calm period = 100 – _________
The runway orientation is made so that Total wind coverage
landing and take off are
Against the wind direction Wind rose diagram represent ____ ,____,
and ______ of wind
According to I.C.A.O. the slope of Direction, duration and intensity
transitional surface at right angles to the
centre line of runway, is kept Wind Rose diagram help to determine
1 in 7 suitable _____ and ________.
(a) Orientation
The meteorological condition which (b) proposed capacity
influences the size and location of an air Answer: A and B both
port is
(a) air density (b) reduced level standard temperature at the airport is
(c) wind direction ____degree celsius
Answer: all the above 15

Normal landing case Aircraft should come

Conical surface of the approach area rises
to a stop within
outwards 1 in 20
60% of landing distance
Runway is usually oriented in the ICAO recommends basic runway length
direction of increased at a rate of ________ rise in
Prevailing winds elevation above m.s.l.
7% per 300m
Which Factor is not considered for
Orientation of runway Airport Reference Temperature =𝑇𝑎+ (𝑇𝑚
(a) Wind direction −𝑇𝑎)/3 where 𝑇𝑎 indicate ________
(b) Location of neighboring airport. monthly mean of average daily
(c) Topography temperature for the hottest month of the
Answer: None year

Normal component of wind direction is FAA recommends that runway length

called after having been corrected for elevation
cross wind component and temperature should be further
increased at the rate of ________
effective gradient
20% for every 1%

75 | P a g e

Effective gradient is defined
maximum difference in elevation
between the highest and lowest points of
runway divided by the total length of
runway
Which are Elements of Runway
(a) Structural pavement
(b) Runway End safety area (RESA)
(c) Clearway
Answer: All above
The mean of the maximum daily temp.
=50℃ The mean of the average daily
temp. =40℃ Airport Reference
Temperature is ___ 43.33℃
The length of runway under standard
condition is 1620 mt. The airport site has
an elevation of 270 mt. Its reference
temperature is 32.94° C. If the runway is
to be constructed with an effective
gradient of 0.2 %, determine the
corrected runway length. (correction for
gradient is not required)
2062m
If the monthly mean of average daily
temperature for the hottest month of the
year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the
maximum daily temperature of the same
month of the year is 46°C, the airport
reference temperature is_____________
32°C
As per ICAO recommendation the cross
wind component shall not greater than
________ KMPH for big aircraft
35
% of time in a year during which Cross
wind component (CWC ) remains within
limit is called _______________
wind coverage
The period for which the wind velocity
remains below _____________ Km/hr.
6.4
The time period in which the wind
velocity remains below 6.4 Km/hr at
airport site is known as _______
Calm period
The wind data of its direction, duration
and intensity are graphically represented
by a diagram called as ______diagram
wind rose
The orientation runway strip can be fixed
with the help of ___________
Wind rose diagram (WRD)
Type I -Wind rose diagram (WRD)
represents __________of wind
direction and duration
Type II -Wind rose diagram (WRD)
represents _________ of wind
direction, duration and intensity
Aircraft should come to a stop within 60%
of landing distance at the same time it
cross the threshold at a height of 15 m is
known as ___________
Normal landing case
115% of the actual distance the aircraft
uses to reach a height of 10.5 mt, requires
a clearway-width not less than 150m. is
known as
Normal take-off case
Require either clearway or a stopway, or
both is known as________
Engine failure case
The basic runway length as suggested by
aircraft manufacturer is for ______level
Mean sea
76 | P a g e
ICAO recommends basic runway length
increased at a rate of _____% per 300 m
rise in elevation above mean sea level
7 called threshold
ICAO recommends basic runway length
increased at a rate of 7% per ______m
rise in elevation above m.s.l.
300
For each 1000 m increase in elevation of
airstrip the temperature decreases by
____ from standard temp
6.5 ° C
Airport Reference Temperature = Ta =
Average daily temperature Tm= Monthly
mean of maximum temp
=Ta + (𝑇𝑚 −𝑇𝑎)/3
As per ICAO the summation of elevation
and temperature corrections shall not
greater than ____ % of Basic runway
length 35
ICAO does not recommends the runway
length corrections for
Gradient
FAA recommends the runway length
corrections for
Gradient
FAA recommends that runway length
after having been corrected for elevation
and temperature should be further
increased at the rate of ____ % for every
____% effective gradient
20,1
The runway length after correcting for
elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If
the effective gradient on runway is 0.5
percent then the revised runway length
will be nearest to
3130
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
(a) Runway edge from the landing side, is
(b) Localizer indicates to the pilot his
position with respect to the proposed
alignment
(c) The glide slope indicates the correct
angle of descent
Answer: All the above
The total length of a runway is 1000 m.
The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m,
600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m,
99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and
101.0 m respectively. The effective
gradient of runway will be.
0.26 %
As per ICAO recommendation, minimum
width of run way end safety area (RESA)
for instrumental runway should be
300
For determining the basic runway length,
the landing case requires that aircraft
should come to a stop within p % of the
landing distance. The value of p is
60 %
Consider the following statements
regarding ICAO recommendation for
correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be
increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300
m rise in elevation above the mean sea
level.
2. The basic runway length after having
been corrected for elevation should be
further increased at the rate of 1 percent
for every 1°C rise in airport reference
temperature above the standard
atmospheric temperature at that
elevation.
3. The runway length after having been
corrected for elevation and temperature
77 | P a g e
should be further increased at the rate of
20% for every 1 percent of effective
gradient.
1 and 2 are correct
The reduced level of the proposed site of
an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the
recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the
runway at sea level is 2500 m, the
required length of the runway is
3375 m
Which of the following factors are taken
into account for estimating the runway
length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below Codes:
1, 2 and 4
The height of the pilot's eye above the
runway surface is assumed
3.0 m
There is 10 aircraft parked at Rajkot
Airport and all the aircraft having nose in
position towards terminal building, the
type of aircraft parking system known as
Frontal system
According to I.C.A.O. the recommended
length of air ports is decided on
(a) Sea level elevation
(b) Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
(c) Effective gradient percentage
Answer: All the above
The engine failure case for determining
the basic runway length may require
Either a clearway or a stop-way or
both
Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
(a) The basic length of a runway is
increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of
elevation of M.S.L.
(b) The standard temperature at the site
is obtained by reducing the standard sea
level temperature of 15°C at the rate of
6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
(c) The aerodrome reference temperature
is the monthly mean of the mean daily
temperature for the hottest month of the
year
Answer: All the above
The bearing of the longest line of a wind
rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway
will be numbered A. B. C. D.
(b) 13 (c) 31
Answer: Both B and C
The thickness design of the pavement, is
decided on the load carried by
main gears
Function of Taxiway is _______
Provide access to the aircraft from
the runway to the loading apron or
service hanger
ICAO suggest surface of visible shall be
visible from____ height from a distance of
_____ for A,B,C type and ____ visible
from___ height for D and E type airports.
3m, 300 m, 250 m and 2.1 m
In Turning radius 𝑅=𝑉^2/(125 𝑓) value of
"𝑓" is 0.13
Determine the turning radius of taxiway
for an aircraft wheel base of 30m Tread of
main loading gear is 6m Design turning
speed is 50kmph Width of taxiway
pavement is 22.5m coefficient of friction
0.13m using Horonjeff equation
155.5 m
78 | P a g e
A paved area for parking of aircrafts
known as Apron
Aircraft parking space adjacent to a
terminal building known as
Gate
Size of loading area required for each
aircraft known as
gate position
"Provide enclosure for servicing,
overhauling and doing repairs of the
aircraft" following is the function of __
Hanger
The maximum permissible longitudinal
gradient to airstrip for Airport type A,B
and C 1.5 %
The maximum permissible longitudinal
gradient to airstrip for Airport type D and
E 3.0 %
Rate of change of Longitudinal gradient (
30 m vertical curve ) for D and E type
Airport 1.2 %
For sight distance requirement as per
ICAO recommends for A,B and C type of
aircraft any two point _____ m above
runway mutually visible half runway
length 3.0
Maximum transverse gradients of runway
for D and E type of airport
2%
Maximum transverse gradients of runway
for A,B and C type of airport
1.5 %
Maximum effective gradients of runway
for A,B and C type of airport
1%
Maximum effective gradients of runway
for D and E type of airport
2%
Determine turning radius of taxiway if the
speed of aircraft is 93 km/hour and co
efficient of friction is 0.13.
533
It is a paved area for parking of aircrafts,
loading and unloading of passenger and
cargo Apron
In Aircraft parking configuration the
fuselage is kept perpendicular to terminal
building is known as
Nose-in
Stopway Lighting having color
Red
Assertion A : The width of a taxiway is
smaller than the runway width.
Reason R : The speed of the aircraft on a
taxiway is greater than that on runway.
Select your answer based on coding
system given below
A is true but R is false
Elements at Terminal Building are
(a) Baggage claim section
(b) Enquiry counter (c) Control tower
Answer: All above
It is the portion of an airport other than
lending area having facility like baggage
claim, inquiry counter, waiting hall etc..
Terminal building
Theses are used to deflect and dissipate
the energy of high velocity jet exhaust
Blast fences
Terminal area includes
(i) Passenger,
(ii) Administration facilities
(iii) Control tower
79 | P a g e
To guide the aircraft and To control the
taxing of arriving and departing aircraft
on the airfield between apron and
runway. It is the function of
Airport Traffic Control
Regulate the movement of aircraft along
the air routes with adequate vertical and
lateral separation
Airway Traffic Control
Air Traffic Control network
(1) Control within terminal area
(2) Control over airway
(3) Airway Communication
Answer: All above
Information of Magnetic bearing of
airport runway provided by_______
Very high Omni-directional range
As per ICAO under Instrument landing
system (ILS) provides facilities for landing
even when visibility considered as____
(a) Category I : Weather condition which
provide visibility at least 800 m
(b) Category II : Allows landing up to 400
m forward visibility
(c) Category III : Permits landing under
zero visibility condition
Answer: All above
It sends radio beam in vertical plane and
indicates to the pilot weather he is right
or left to correct alignment for approach
to the runway
Localiser
Localiser located at center line of runway
_____ m from the far end of runway, It
sends radio beam in vertical plane and
indicates to the pilot weather he is right
or left correct alignment for approach to
the runway
300
Localiser antenna emits beam signal
in_____ and Glide slope antenna
transmits radio beam in _______
Vertical Plane, Horizontal plane
Glide slope antenna guide the pilot for
correct _____of runway during landing
Angle
Instrument landing system (ILS) consists
of (A) Localiser antenna
(B) Glide slope antenna
(C) Outer and middle marker
It is an instrument which provides to the
controller at the ATC (Air traffic Control)
tower an overall picture of all the aircrafts
within the airspace surrounding the
terminal
Airports surveillance radar
Is a runway-safety tool that enables air
traffic controllers to detect potential
runway conflicts by providing detailed
coverage of movement on runways and
taxiways
Airport Surface Detection
Equipment
Colour of runway marking White
Taxiway and Apron marking colour is __
Yellow
Shoulder marking is diagonal line in
runway having color__ Yellow
Taxiway and holding apron marking are
perpendicular to movement of aircraft
having color___ Yellow
The center line of runway marking having
minimum length __m 30 m
The center line of runway marking having
minimum width ___m 0.45
80 | P a g e

Threshold marking is carried out ____m
away from the runway end 6 0.75 m/sec
The minimum length of threshold marking
at runway end 30 m
Touchdown zone marking is carried out
with ____color White
Runway aiming point marking
commences ______ m from threshold
400
Threshold itself lighted with continuous
line of _________ light
Green
Principally to prevent the scouring in
drain the minimum mean velocity shall be
The minimum diameter of storm water
shall be not less than 30 cm
In a ponding condition of drainage system
the inlets are kept @ _____m to ___m
center to center
60 m to 120 m
In a drainage design the pipe diameter
and slope can be calculated using
(A) Q=CIA (B) Q=A*R^2/3*S^1/2/n
B only

Basic requirements of an airport drainage Providing temporary storage of runoff

(1) Rapid drainage with sufficient capacity water prior to its entry in the
(2) Structural strength and safety underground system is known as____
(3) Capability of expansion Ponding
Answer: All above
Is a graphical representation of the The threshold markings are
amount of earth excavation and A. 4 m wide
embankment involved in a project and B. 1 m clear space between adjacents
the manner in which the earth is to be C. 45 m in length
moved D. placed symmetrically on either side
Mass haul curve of the runway centre line
E. all the above.
Airport drainage system serves functions Answer: Option E
(a) Removal of surface runoff from airfield
(b) Interception and diversion of surface The bearing of the longest line of a wind
and ground water flow rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway
(c) Lowering of subsurface water level will be numbered
Answer: All the above A. 135°
B. 315°
The runoff can be estimate by C. 13
(A) Q= CIA (B) Q=AR^2/3S^1/2/n D. 31
A-true E. both (c) and (d)
Answer: Option E
The granular material which is used as a
back fill in the trenches where sub drains For the proposed runway stated in if the
are placed aerodrome reference temperature is
Filter media 17°.2, the net designed length of the
runway is

81 | P a g e
A. 2716 m Pick up the correct statement from the
B. 2816 m following:
C. 2916 m A. Approximate geometric centre of
D. 3016 m the landing area, is called air port
Answer: Option B reference point
B. The boundaries of horizontal
Pick up the correct statement from the surface and conical surface are marked
following: with reference to air port reference point
A. Landing speed is directly C. The location of the air port on a
proportional to the wing loading map is the position of air port reference
B. Wing loading remaining constant, point
the take off distance is directly D. All the above.
proportional to the powder loading Answer: Option D
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b) The runway orientation is made so that
Answer: Option D landing and take off are
A. against the wind direction
Pick up the correct statement from the B. along the wind direction
following: C. perpendicular to wind direction
A. Approach zone survey is carried D. none of these.
out to determine the elevations of the Answer: Option A
protruding obstructions above horizontal,
conical and transitional surfaces An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of
B. The wind data of an air port is 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its
depicted in the form of a chart known as speed is known as
wind rose A. subsonic
C. The landing and take off of the air B. sonic
craft is made against the wind direction C. super-sonic
D. The product of wind loading and D. Mach.
power loading is called air craft rating Answer: Option B
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E According to I.C.A.O. the slope of
transitional surface at right angles to the
The lift off distance is the distance along centre line of runway, is kept
the centre of the runway between the A.1 in 4
starting point and B. 1 in 5
A. end of the runway C. 1 in 6
B. end of stopway D. 1 in 7
C. point where air craft becomes air E. 1 in 10
borne Answer: Option D
D. point where air craft attains a
height of 10.7 m The depressions and undulations in the
E. none of these. pavement, are caused due to
Answer: Option A A. improper compaction of subgrade
B. impact of heavy wheel loads
C. punching effect

82 | P a g e
D. flexible gears D. 3250 m
E. all the above. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
According to I.C.A.O. the recommended
Pick up the incorrect statement from the length of air ports is decided on
following: A. sea level elevation
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the B. standard sea level temperature
engine is provided in the nose of the (15°C)
aircraft C. effective gradient percentage
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one D. all the above.
engine on either wing is placed Answer: Option D
symmetrically
C. In three engine aeroplanes, two Pick up the correct statement from the
engines are placed on both wings and one following:
engine is placed in the tail A. The basic length of a runway is
D. None of these. increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of
Answer: Option C elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the
Pick up the correct statement from the site is obtained by reducing the standard
following: sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate
A. The speed of the aircraft relative to of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
the ground, is called cruising speed C. The aerodrome reference
B. The speed of the aircraft relative to temperature is the monthly mean of the
wind, is called air speed mean daily temperature for the hottest
C. When wind is blowing the direction month of the year
of the flight, air speed is less than cruising D. All the above.
speed Answer: Option D
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D The meterological condition which
influences the size and location of an air
Airport elevation is the reduced level port is
above M.S.L. of A. atmosphere pressure
A. control tower B. air density
B. highest point of the landing area C. reduced level
C. lowest point of the landing area D. wind direction
D. none of these. E. all the above.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option E

The reduced level of the proposed site of Pick up the correct statement from the
an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the following:
recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the A. The distance between the points of
runway at sea level is 2500 m, the intersection of the extreme tangents to
required length of the runway is the transition curve is kept greater than
A. 2500 m 7500 m x sum of grade changes at the
B. 3725 m point of intersection
C. 3000 m

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B. The rate of change of grade is Answer: Option D
limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the
curve Pick up the correct statement from the
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum following:
longitudinal gradient along a runway is A. Air screw converts the energy
limited to 1.5% given by the engine into speed
D. All the above. B. The propellers which are driven by
Answer: Option D turbine engines, are technically called
turboprops
Conical surface of the approach area rises C. The aircrafts which obtain the
outwards thrust directly from turbine engine, are
A. 1 in 10 called turbo-jets
B. 1 in 15 D. The aircraft which is filled with a
C. 1 in 20 fan infront of turbo-jet engine, is called
D. 1 in 25 turbofan propelled aeroplane
Answer: Option C E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
The thickness design of the pavement, is
decided on the load carried by The distance between main gears is 10 m,
A. main gears and the distance of nose gear from centre
B. nose wheel of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of
C. tail wheel turning is 60°, the distance of centre of
D. all the above. rotation from the nearer main gear, is
Answer: Option A A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
For Class A Air port the difference of C. 10.30 m
reduced levels of higher and lower edges D. 9.30 m
of the conical surface, is Answer: Option A
A. 25 m
B. 50 m To cope up high temperature of 196°C,
C. 75 m the taxi ways and aprons are constructed
D. 100 m with
Answer: Option D A. asphaltic concrete
B. rubberised tar concrete
Beaufort scale is used to determine C. plain concrete
A. strength of winds D. epoxy asphalt concrete
B. direction of winds E. all the above.
C. height of air-crafts Answer: Option E
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A Pick up the correct abbreviation from the
following:
The fuse large includes A. I.L.S. (instrument landing system)
A. passengers chamber B. V.H.F, (very high frequency)
B. pilot's cabin C. L.O.M. (low powered outer
C. tail of aircraft marker)
D. all the above.

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D. L.M.M. (low powered middle Pick up the correct statement from the
marker) following:
E. All the above A. The centre line of the approach
Answer: Option E area coincides with that of the runway
B. Approach areas are measured in
Wing loading of an aircraft is horizontal surfaces
A. load of the wings C. The imaginary inclined plane which
B. is directly above the approach area is
C. called approach surface
D. D. Obstruction clearance surface and
E. None of these. approach surface are same
Answer: Option C E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following: The coordinates of the ends of a runway
A. Channelization of pavement is are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The
caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears co-ordinates of an other runway are
of aircraft (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-
B. Blast pads are used over ordinates of the A.R.P. are
cohesionless soils to resist erosion due to A. (6500, 6000)
tremendous speed of the jet blast B. (5800, 5200)
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m C. (61500, 5600)
length on either side of the runway are D. (8000, 7000)
provided Answer: Option C
D. None of these.
Answer: Option D A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a
gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate
From the end of an instrumental runway, of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres,
the approach surface rises outwards the length of the transition curve, is
A. 1 in 20 A. 150 m
B. 1 in 30 B. 140 m
C. 1 in 40 C. 160 m
D. 1 in 50 D. 175 m
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

Speed of Pick up the correct statement from the

A. sound at 0°C is 1190 km p.h. following:
B. sound varies 2.4 km p.h. per A. F.I.R. stands for flight information
degree centrigrade rise in temperature regions
C. sound at 0°C is called one Mach B. F.I.C. stands for flight information
D. an aircraft flying at 2975 km p.h., is centre
called 2.5 Mach C. Radius of control area is 160 km
E. All the above. D. Radius of control zone is 40 km
Answer: Option E E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

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The bearing of the runway at threshold is Pick up the correct statement from the
290°, the runway number is following:
A. N 70° W A. Runway edge from the landing
B. 290° side, is called threshold
C. 29° B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his
D. W 20° N position with respect to the proposed
Answer: Option C alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the
The best direction of a runway is along correct angle of descent
the direction of D. L.O.M. and L.M.M. help the pilot to
A. longest line on wind rose diagram judge his position for the runway
B. shortest line on the wind rose E. All the above.
diagram Answer: Option E
C. line clear of wind rose diagram
D. none of these. The maximum length and pavement
Answer: Option A strength of the runway is that of
A. A1
International Civil Aviation Organisation B. B2
(I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal C. B3
(Canada), in D. G7
A. 1929 Answer: Option A
B. 1939
C. 1947 According to the International Civil
D. 1950 Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the
Answer: Option C runway lengths of aerodromes, have been
coded by
The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots A. Seven English alphabets
in the direction of the aircraft flying at a B. Last Seven English alphabets
ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed C. First Seven English alphabets
of the aircraft, is D. First seven natural numbers.
A. 775 knots Answer: Option C
B. 75 knots
C. 850 knots Pick up the incorrect statement from the
D. 675 knots following:
Answer: Option D A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from
the threshold
For the taxiways, the following statement B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from
is true the threshold
A. The maximum longitudinal grade is C. Localizer antenna is installed at
3% 300 m from the other end of the runway
B. The permissible rate of change of D. Glide slope antenna is installed at
grade is 1% the centre of the runway about 150 m on
C. The permissible transverse grade is one side
1.5% E. None of these.
D. All the above. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D

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According to the International Civil D. 800 m
Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) the Answer: Option B
strength of runway pavements, have
been coded by The reduced levels of the ends A and B of
A. Seven English alphabets a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and
B. Last Seven English alphabets that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The
C. First Seven English alphabets reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
D. First seven numbers
E. None of these. A. 3070 m
Answer: Option D B. 3060 m
C. 3075 m
The strength of winds is measured with D. 3015 m
the help of E. none of these.
A. Benfort scale Answer: Option C
B. Wind indicator
C. Barometres The height of the pilot's eye above the
D. None of these. runway surface is assumed
Answer: Option A A. 1m
B. 3m
The landing and take off of the air craft is C. 4m
made against the direction of wind. In no D. 5m
case the centre line of the runway should Answer: Option B
make an angle with the wind direction
exceeding Pick up the correct statement from the
A. 10° following:
B. 20° A. Minimum turning radius of
C. 30° aircrafts decides the size of the apron and
D. 40° the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
Answer: Option C B. Take off and landing distances for
an aircraft, determine the minimum
According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runway length
runways are painted white and on C. The length of the normal haul of
taxiways the air craft decides the frequency of
A. black operation
B. red D. All the above.
C. yellow Answer: Option D
D. green
Answer: Option C For night landing, the thresholds are
lighted
If the width of the approach area near the A. green
runway end is 150 m, the width of the B. red
approach area at a distance of 3 C. white
kilometres from runway end will be D. yellow
A. 1500 m Answer: Option A
B. 1200 m
C. 1000 m

87 | P a g e
Pick up the component not applicable to B. 20%
aeroplanes C. 25%
A. wings D. 30%
B. engines E. 35%
C. air screw Answer: Option E
D. fuse lage
E. none of these. Two single runways may be arranged so
Answer: Option E as to have
A. L-shape
Effective length of a runway is the B. T-shape
distance between C. X-shape
A. ends of the runway D. All the above.
B. point of intersection of the Answer: Option D
obstruction clearance line and the
extended plane of the runway surface, The length of runway is increased per 300
and the other end of the runway m rise above M.S.L.
C. point of intersection of the glide A. 3%
path and the extended plane of the B. 4%
runway surface and the other end of the C. 5%
runway D. 6%
D. ends of the clear way on either E. 7%
side. Answer: Option E
Answer: Option B
If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m,
For the proposed air port, the survey the clear way at the end of the runway
project provides should not be less than
A. master plan A. 145 m
B. topograhic plan B. 152.5 m
C. grading plan C. 162.5 m
D. drainage plan D. 172.5 m
E. all the above. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
In instrument landing system
The maximum value of the angle of A. L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on
turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, one side and Localizer antenna on the
is limited to other side
A. 20° B. L.O.M. and Localizer are installed
B. 30° on one side and L.M.M. on the other side
C. 45° C. Localizer and L.M.M. are installed
D. 60° on one side and L.O.M. on the other side
Answer: Option D D. None of these.
Answer: Option A
Total correction for elevation,
temperature and gradient for a runway Pick up the correct statement from the
should not be more than following:
A. 15%

88 | P a g e
A. Tar concrete pavements are
suitable if fuel spillage occurs
B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast
as well as spillage
C. Epoxy asphalt concrete resists the
jet fuels and provides more elastic
pavement
D. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very
small time
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
The length of a runway under standard
atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the
actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m,
the design length of the runway is
A. 2360 m
B. 2460 m
C. 2560 m
D. 2660 m
Answer: Option C
1. According to the International Civil
Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.), the
runway lengths of aerodromes, have been
coded by
(C) First Seven English alphabets
2. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
(A) The distance between the points of
intersection of the extreme tangents to
the transition curve is kept greater than
7500 m × sum of grade changes at the
point of intersection
(B) The rate of change of grade is limited
to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
(C) According to I.C.A.O. the maximum
longitudinal gradient along a runway is
limited to 1.5%
Ans: All the above
3. The runway orientation is made so that
landing and takeoff are
(A) Against the wind direction
4. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of
transitional surface at right angles to the
centre line of runway, is kept
(D) 1 in 7
5. The depressions and undulations in the
pavement, are caused due to
(A) Improper compaction of sub-grade
(B) Impact of heavy wheel loads
(C) Punching effect
Ans: All the above
6. Pick up the incorrect statement from
the following:
(A) In single engine aeroplanes, the
engine is provided in the nose of the
aircraft
(B) In double engine aeroplanes, one
engine on either wing is placed
symmetrically
(C) In three engine aeroplanes, two
engines are placed on both wings and one
engine is placed in the tail
(D) None of these
Ans: C
7. The thickness design of the pavement,
is decided on the load carried by
(A) Main gears
8. For Class ‘A’ Air port the difference of
reduced levels of higher and lower edges
of the conical surface, is
(D) 100 m
9. Beaufort scale is used to determine
(A) Strength of winds
10. The distance between main gears is
10 m, and the distance of nose gear from
centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle
of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of
rotation from the nearer main gear, is
(A) 12.30 m
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1. For supersonic transport aircraft, the
minimum turning radius of taxiway is
(C) 180 m
2. The width and interval of transverse
centre line bars along the extended
centre line of runway, in approach
lighting system are
(B) 4.2 m and 30 m
3. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each
located well separated are considered for
traffic and the future to present traffic
ratio is 3, then the total requirement of
future gates will be
(B) 36
4. The runway length after correcting for
elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If
the effective gradient on runway is 0.5
percent then the revised runway length
will be
(C) 3030 m
5. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate
of change of longitudinal gradient per 30
m length of vertical curve for A and B type
of airports is limited to a maximum of
(A) 0.1 %
6. According to ICAO, all markings on the
runways are
(B) White
7. The length of runway under standard
conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of
airport site is 300 m. Its reference
temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is
to be constructed with an effective
gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected
runway length will be
(C) 2700 m
8. Which of the following is used for
servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
(B) Hanger
9. The minimum width of clearway is
(C) 150 m
10. The cruising speed of the aircraft is
500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50
kmph, then the air speed and ground
speed of the aircraft respectively will be
(A) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
11. The size of landing area for multi
engine helicopters operating under 1 FR
conditions is
(D) 60 m × 120 m
12. The slope of the transitional surface
for A, B and C type of runway shall be
(B) 1 : 7
13. Castor angle is defined as the angle
(A) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft and the direction of movement of
the nose gear
14. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
(D) Equal to sum of empty operating
weight and the maximum pay load
15. If the monthly mean of average daily
temperature for the hottest month of the
year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the
maximum daily temperature of the same
month of the year is 46°C, the airport
reference temperature is
(C) 48°C
1. Wing loading of an aircraft is
(C) Gross total weight of the aircraft/
wing area
2. The main disadvantage of angle nose
out parking configuration of aircraft is
that the
(B) Hot blast is directed towards the
terminal building
90 | P a g e
3. The air is blowing at a speed of 75
knots in the direction of the aircraft flying
at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air
speed of the aircraft, is
(D) 675 knots
4. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an
aircraft is
(C) More than the maximum structural
landing weight
Select your answer based on the coding
system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the
correct explanation of A
9. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a
gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate
of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 meters,
the length of the transition curve, is
(A) 150 m

5. Pick up the correct statement from the 10. The total length of a runway is 1000
following: m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400
(A) Minimum turning radius of aircrafts m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0
decides the size of the apron and the m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and
radius of the curves at taxi-ends 101.0 m respectively. The effective
(B) Take off and landing distances for an gradient of runway will be.
aircraft, determine the minimum runway (B) 0.26 %
length
(C) The length of the normal haul of the 1. Airports can be classified on how many
air craft decides the frequency of basis?
operation a) 5
Ans: All the above b) 4
c) 3
6. As per ICAO, the minimum basic d) 2
runway length for A and E type of airport Answer: b
will be
(D) 2100 m and 600 m 2. ICAO classification system considers
how many things?
7. Pick up the correct statement from the a) 2
following: b) 4
(A) Runway edge from the landing side, is c) 5
called threshold d) 6
(B) Localizer indicates to the pilot his Answer: a
position with respect to the proposed
alignment 3. The FAA classification of the airport is
(C) The glide slope indicates the correct based on:
angle of descent a) Function
Ans: All the above b) Geometric design
c) Airport approach speed
8. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and d) Length of Runway
departing aircrafts influences the airport Answer: c
Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is
generally given priority over the taking off 4. Which of the following is not a
operation. characteristic of centralized system of the
terminal Area?

91 | P a g e
a) Passengers, cargo routed centrally 10. How many types of Fly Rules are
b) Passenger facilities in small units there?
c) Walking distance to aircraft < 200m a) 2
d) Common facilities for different gate b) 5
positions c) 4
Answer: b d) 3
Answer: a
5. Which of the below does not affect the
site-selection of an airport site? 1. As per ICAO recommendation,
a) Adequate access minimum width of safety area for =
b) Air traffic potential instrumental runway should be
c) Sufficient airspace a) 78 m
d) Number of ground staff b) 150 m
Answer: d c) 300 m
d) 450 m
6. Runways are oriented in a direction Ans: c
against the prevailing wind.
a) True 2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of
b) False airports, maximum effect= ive, transverse
Answer: b and longitudinal grades in percentage
respectively are
7. The wind intensity during a calm period a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
in runways should be: b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
a) Below 4.6km/hr c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
b) Above 5km/hr d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
c) Between 5-10 km/hr Ans: a
d) Below 6.4km/hr
Answer: d 3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate
of change of longitudina= l gradient per
8. The application of __________ diagram 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B
is used to find the orientation of the type of airports i= s limited to a maximum
runway to get the desired wind coverage. of
a) Wind Butterfly a) 0.1 %
b) Wind Cycle b) 0.2%
c) Wind Star c) 0.3 %
d) Wind Rose d) 0.4%
Answer: d Ans: a

22.5o. The wind coverage in each of the
small quadrants is then studied for the
orientation of the runway.
9. Elevation of airport site above MSL is a
factor that controls airport size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and
departing aircrafts i= nfluences the
airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is
generally given priority = over the taking
off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding
system given below:

92 | P a g e
a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted
average gate occupanc= y time is 30
minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5,
then the capacity = of the gate will be
a) 1 aircraft per hour
b) 2 aircrafts per hour
c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 16 aircrafts per hour
Ans: c
6. The capacity of parallel runway pattern
depends upon=
a) weather conditions and navigational
aids available
b) lateral spacing between two runways
and weather conditions
c) lateral spacing between two runways
and navigational aids available
d) lateral spacing between two runways,
weather conditions and navigational= aids
available.
Ans: d
7. The engine failure case for determining
the basic runway leng= th may require
a) only clearway
b) only stop way ,
c) either a clearway or a stopway
d) either a clearway or a stopway or both
Ans: d
8. The minimum width of clearway is
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 250 m
Ans: c
10. If the monthly mean of average daily
temperature for the hot= test month of
the year is 25=C2=B0 C and the monthly
mean of the maximum da= ily
temperature of the same month of the
year is 46=C2=B0 C, the airport re=
ference temperature is
a) 32=C2=B0C
b) 35.5=C2=B0C
c) 48=C2=B0C
d) 25=C2=B0C
Ans: c
11. Consider the following statements
regarding iCAO recommendat= ion for
correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be
increased at the rate of 7 percent per=
300 m rise in elevation above the mean
sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having
been corrected for elevation should= be
further increased at the rate of 1 percent
for every 1=C2=B0C rise in a= irport
reference temperature above the
standard atmospheric temperature at =
that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been
corrected for elevation and temperat=
ure should be further increased at the
rate of 20% for every 1 percent of e=
ffective gradient.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a
12. The total length of a runway is 1000
m. The elevation at dis= tance 0,200 m,
400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are
100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m,= 101.8 m,
93 | P a g e
101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The Ans: a
effective gradient of runwa= y will be.
a) 0.10% 19. As per ICAO, for airports serving big
b) 0.26% aircrafts, the crosswi= nd component
c) 0.43 % should not exceed
d) 0.65% a) 15 kmph
Ans: b b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
13. The length of runway under standard d) 45 kmph
conditions is 2000 m. Th= e elevation of Ans: c
airport site is 300 m. Its reference
temperature is 33.05=C2= =B0C. If the 20. Calm period is the percentage of time
runway is to be constructed with an during which wind inte= nsity is less than
effective gradient of 0.25= percent, the a) 4.8 kmph
corrected runway length will be b) 6.4 kmph
a) 2500 m c) 8.0 kmph
b) 2600 m d) 9.6 kmph
c) 2700 m Ans: b
d) 2800 m
Ans: c 21. For determining the basic
runway.length, the landing case re=
14. As per ICAO, the minimum basic quires that aircraft should come to a stop
runway length for A and E typ= e of within p % of the landing distan= ce. The
airport will be value of p is
a) 1500 m and 600 m a) 40 %
b) 2100 m and 750 m b) 50%
c) 1500 m and 750 m c) 60%
d) 2100 m and 600 m d) 75%
Ans: d Ans: c

15. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is: 22. According to ICAO, all markings on the
a) equal to empty operating weight runways are<= br> a) Yellow
b) equal to maximum landing weight b) White
c) less than empty operating weight c) Black
d) equal to sum of empty operating d) Red
weight and the maximum pay load. Ans: b
Ans: d
23. Runway threshold is indicated by a
17. The cruising speed of the aircraft is series of parallel lines = starting from a
500 kmph. If there is = a head wind of 50 distance of
kmph, then the air speed and ground a) 3 m from runway end
speed of the aircraft= respectively will be b) 6 m from runway end
a) 450 kmph and 500 kmph c) 10 m from runway end
b) 500 kmph and 450 kmph d) 15m from runway end
c) 450 kmph and 450 kmph Ans: b
d) 500 kmph and 500 kmph

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24. The width and interval of transverse Ans: c
centre line bars along = the extended
centre line of runway, in approach 29. Assertion A : Airport capacity during
lighting system are IFR conditions is usua= lly less than that
a) 3 m and 30 m during VFR conditions.
b) 4.2 m and 30 m Reason R: During clear weather condition
c) 4.2 m and 50 m (VFR), the aircrafts on f= inal approach to
d) 3 m and 45 m runway can be spaced closer during poor
Ans: b visibility co= nditions.
Select your answer based on the coding
25. In Intrumental landing system, the system given below:
middle markers are locate= d a) Both A and R are true and R is the
a) along the extended centre line of correct explanation of A
runway end b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
b) about 1 km. ahead of the runway correct explanation of A
threshold c) A is true but R is false
c) at the runway threshold d) A is false but R is true
d) about 7 km. ahead of the runway Ans: a
threshold
Ans: b 30. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is
smaller than the runw= ay width. Reason
26. The size of landing area for R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is
multiengined helicopters operat= ing greater than t= hat on runway. Select
under 1FR conditions is your answer based on coding system
a) 22.5 m x 22.5 m given below
b) 30 m x 30 m a) Both A and R are true and R is the
c) 22.5 m x 30 m correct explanation of A
d) 60 mx 120 m b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Ans: d correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
27. The centre to centre spacing of d) A is false but R is true
heliport lighting along the = periphery of Ans: c
landing and take off area should be
a) 2.5 m 31. For supersonic transport aircraft, the
b) 5.0 m minimum turning radiu= s of taxiway is
c) 7.5 m a) 60 m
d) 10.0 m b) 120 m
Ans: c c) 180 m
d) 240 m
28. The slope of the obstruction clearance Ans: c
line from the boundar= y of the heliport
should be 33. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of
a) 1:2 aircraft is between 1.2= 5 to 1.5 times the
b) 1:5 LCN of pavement, then the number of
c) 1:8 movements allow= ed are
d) 1:40 a) Zero

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b) 300 Ans: b
c) 3000
d) Unrestricted 39. In approach areas of runways
Ans: b equipped with instrumental land= ing
facilities any object within 4.5 km
34. Which of the following is an example distance from runway end shall be c=
of failure in flexible = pavements ? onsidered as an obstruction if its height is
a) Alligator cracking more than
b) Mud pumping a) 20 m
c) Warping cracks b) 30 m
d) Shrinkage cracks c) 45 m
Ans: a d) 51 m
Ans: b
35. The main disadvantage of angle nose
out parking configuratio= n of aircraft is 40. Maximum gross take-off weight of an
that the aircraft is
a) aircraft rear loading door is far away a) equal to the maximum structural
from terminal building. landing weight
b) hot blast is directed towards the b) less than the maximum structural
terminal building landing weight
c) overall apron area required is more c) more than the maximum structural
d) all the above landing weight
Ans: b d) equal to the empty operating weight
plus the payload
36. Which of the following is used for Ans: c
servicing and repairs of = the aircraft ?
a) Apron 41. Consider the following statements:
b) Hanger Wind rose diagram is used= for the
c) Terminal building purposes of
d) holding apron 1. runway orientation
Ans: b 2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron Of
37. The slope of the transitional surface these statements
for A, B and C type of= runway shall be a) 1 and 2 are correct
a) 1:5 b) 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1:7 c) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1:10 d) 1 alone is correct
d) 1:12 Ans: d
Ans: b
42. Which of the following factors are
38. The length of clear zone for none taken into account for es= timating the
instrument runway of a sma= ll aircraft is runway length required for aircraft
a) 150 m landing?
b) 300 m 1. Normal maximum temperature
c) 600 m 2. Airport elevation
d) 750 m 3. Maximum landing weight

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4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below Codes:
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3, and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: d

43. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates

each located well-sepa= rated are
considered for traffic and the future to
present traffic ratio is= 3, then the total
requirement of future gates will be
a) 32
b) 36
c) 44
d) 68
Ans: b

44. Castor angle is defined as the angle

a) formed by the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft and the direction of mov= ement
of the nose gear
b) between the direction of wind and the
longitudinal axis of the runway c)
between the true speed of the aircraft
and the crosswind component
d) between the horizontal and the
fuselage axis
Ans: a

45. The runway length after correcting for

elevation and tempera= ture is 2845 m. If
the effective gradient on runway is 0.5
percent then the= revised runway length
will be
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130 m
Ans: c

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