Time: 3 Hours NEET WEEKEND TEST Exam Date: 27.06.

2021

Section: MB Max. Marks = 720 M

CHEMISTRY
1. A gas is found to have the formula (NO)x. It’s vapour density is 15. The value of x must be :
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4

2. 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO2. The mole of CO2 left are :
(1) 2.88 × 10–3 (2) 28.2 × 10–3 (3) 288 × 10–3 (4) 28.8 × 103

3. How many atoms are there in 100 amu of He ?

(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 100

4. Which has maximum number of atoms :

(1) 24 g of C (12) (2) 56 g of Fe (56) (3) 27 g of Al (27) (4) 108 g Ag (108)

5. 5.6 litre of oxygen at STP contains :

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms (2) 3.01 × 1023 atoms (3) 1.505 × 1023 atoms (4) 0.7525 × 1023 atoms

6. Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4. How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighing 360 mg ?
(1) 1.204 × 1023 (2) 1.08 × 1022 (3) 1.204 × 1024 (4) 4.81 × 1021

7. The percentage value of nitrogen in urea is about

(1) 46 (2) 85 (3) 18 (4) 28

8. 8 g of O2– ion has amount of charge equal to : (NA = 6.02 × 1023, e = – 1.6 × 10–19 C)
1
(1) 5 NAe C (2) 2 NAe C (3) NAe C (4) NeC
2 A
9. A gaseous mixture is composed of CH4, C2H6 and C2H4 in the molar ratio 1 : 3 : 2 respectively. The average
molecular mass of mixture (in amu) is :
80
(1) 27 (2) 40 (3) (4) 32
3

10. The largest number of molecules is present in 1g of

(1) CO2 (2) H2O (3) C2H5OH (4) N2O5

11. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) AT STP volume occupied by 1 mole of liquid water is 22.4 .
(2) Volume occupied by 1g H2 gas at STP is equal to volume occupied by 1g He at STP.
(3) 1g CH4 gas occupy 22.4  at STP.
(4) Volume occupied by 4g He gas at STP is equal to volume occupied by 32g of O2 at STP.

12. How many mole of Zn(FeS2) can be made from 2 mole zinc, 3 mole iron and 5 mole sulphur.
(1) 2 mole (2) 3 mole (3) 4 mole (4) 5 mole

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 1
13. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?
(1) 10 ml of H2 (2) 5 ml of H2 (3) 10 ml of O2 (4) 5 ml of O2

14. Find the weight of a sample in g which contain 6.02 × 1022 He atoms, 0.8 mole unknown gas X and 0.1 NA
atoms of gas Y, the sample has average molar mass 38 g/mol (NA = Avogadro’s number).
(1) 38 g (2) 76 g (3) 19 g (4) 72 g

15. The total number of g-molecules of SO2Cl2 in 13.5 g of sulphuryl chloride is

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.4

16. x gram of FeO contains 112 gram iron. Calculate mass of Fe3O4 containing same amount of O as present in x
gram FeO ?
(1) 232 gram (2) 116 gram (3) 58 gram (4) 464 gram
17. A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar (C12H22O11) in order to sweeten his tea. The number of carbon atoms
added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)
(1) 3.6 × 1022 (2) 7.2 × 1021 (3) 0.05 (4) 6.6 × 1022

18. Among the following samples, the largest number of molecules is in :

(1) 28 g of CO (2) 50 g of C2H5OH (3) 36 g of H2O (4) 54 g of N2O5

19. Total number of neutrons present in 4g of heavy water (D2O) is : (Where NA represents Avogadro's number)
(1) 2.4 NA (2) 4NA (3) 1.2 NA (4) 2NA

20. 0.2 moles of an unknown compound weigh 5.6 g. The unknown compound is :
(1) NO2 (2) CO2 (3) CO (4) N2O

21. The atomic weight of an element is a. If this element occurs in nature as a diatomic gas, then the correct
formula for the number of moles of gas in its w g is :
3w w w
(1) (2) (3) 3wa (4)
a 3a 2a

22. Total number of ions in 17.1 g Al2(SO4)3 is [NA = 6 × 1023]

(1) 1.5 × 1023 (2) 4.5 × 1023 (3) 3 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1022

23. A sample contains 6.02 × 1020 molecules of SFn and its mass is 127 mg what is the value of n ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

24. If the mass of 0.25 mole of a triatomic gas X3 is 13.5 g, then the mass of one atom of gas is
(1) 3  10–23 (2) 6  10–24 (3) 6  10–23 (4) None of these

25. The mass of a 75% pure sample of CaBr2 that would contain 6 moles of CaBr2 is :
(1) 0.45 Kg (2) 1.6 Kg (3) 1.8 Kg (4) 0.9 Kg

26. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide (Na4[Fe(CN)6]) is:
(1) 12 × 23 (2) 26 × 1023 (3) 34 × 1023 (4) 48 × 1023
27. At same temperature and pressure, two flasks of equal volume are filled with H2 and SO2 gases separately.
Which of the following is NOT equal in number, in the two flasks :
(1) moles (2) atoms (3) molecules (4) gram-molecules

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 2
 CH  CH  CHCH 2CH3
28. IUPAC name of the compound | is:
CH3

(1) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-methylpent-1-ene (2) 3-Methyl-5-cyclohexylpent-1-ene

(3) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-ethylbut-1-ene (4) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-4-dimethylbut-1-ene

29. Which of the following is impossible structure for the molecular formula C4H6 ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

30. Find out incorrect statement about given molecule

(1) Compound is homocyclic aromatic.

(2) Compound is heterocyclic aromatic.
(3) Number of  bonded carbon atoms are 10.
(4) Degree of unsaturation (DU) or double bond equivalent (DBE) is seven.

31.

If no. of 1º carbon atoms present in the given compound is x and no. of 3º carbon atoms is y. Then find
value of x+y?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 14
32. Which of the following functional groups are incorrectly matched with their secondary suffix name ?
(1) R – COOH – oic acid (carboxylic acid)
(2) R – C  N – nitrile (carbonitrile)
(3) R – OH – hydroxy
(4) R – COOR – oate (carboxylate)

33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) CnH2n is general formula of alkanes.
(2) Methylcyclopropane contains one 3º, two 2º and one 1º C-atom.
(3) In homologous series all members have the same chemical properties.
(4) Primary suffix are added to the word root to show saturation or unsaturation in a main carbon chain.

34. Which of the following is unsaturated hydrocarbon?

O H
OH
N
(1) (2) (3) (4)
N
35. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
C2H5

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – CH – CH3

CH3 CH3

(1) 3-Ethyl-3,5-dimethylhexane (2) 4-Ethyl-2,4-dimethylhexane

(3) 2,4-Dimethyl-4-ethylhexane (4) 4-Ethyl-2,4-dimethylhexene

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 3
36. Which of the following compound is saturated as well as contain primary alcohol as functional group?
OH OH

(1) OH
(2) (3) (4)
OH

37. Select the structure in which correct numbering has been done for IUPAC name of the compound :

NH2
3
4 O 4 1 OH
NH2 5
2 3
(1) (2) 1 4
(3) (4)
1 2 3 2
3 2
1 O OH
Br
38. C4H6O2 does not represent:
(1) A diketone (2) Vinyl ester
(3) An alkenoic acid (4) An alkanoic acid

39. Which of the following is correct IUPAC name?

(1) 1,1,1-Dimethylethane (2) 2-Methyl-3-ethylpentane
(3) 2,3-Diethylpentane (4) 3-Ethyl-4-methylhexane

40. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?

(1) 3-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (2) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
(3) 5-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (4) 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane

41. What is the sum of total number of Homocyclic aromatic compounds in following given compounds ?
OH NH2
N
, , , , , ,
O N
H
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

42. Which of the following compound has different word root than others?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

43. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect ?

Molecules IUPAC name
(1) CH2 Dicyclopropylmethane

C2H5
(2) 2-Ethyl-1-4-dimethylcyclohexane

(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 2-Methylbutane

CH3
C2H5
(4) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 2-Ethyl-2-methylbutane
CH3

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 4
 F

44. The IUPAC name of is :

 Cl
Br

(1) 1-Bromo-2-Chloro-3-Fluoro-6-iodo benzene (2) 2-Bromo-1-Chloro-5-Fluoro-3-iodo benzene

(3) 4-Bromo-2-Chloro-6-iodo-1-Fluoro benzene (4) 2-Bromo-3-Chloro-1-iodo-5-Fluoro benzene

45. IUPAC name of the following compound is :

CH2

(1) 2-Ethyl-5-ethynyl-4-methyloct-1-ene (2) 2-Ethyl-4-methyl-5-propylhept-1-en-6-yne

(3) 6-Ethyl-4-methyl-3-propylhept-6-en-1-yne (4) 3-Ethynyl-4-methyl-6-methyleneoctane

PHYSICS
46. The graph of straight line y = 3 x + 2 3 is :
y y

60° x 60° x
(1) (2)

y y

30° x 30° x
(3) (4)

dy
47. If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8 then will be -
dx
(1) 3x2 + 2x + 15 (2) 3x2 + 4x + 7 (3) x3 + 2x2 + 15 (4) x3 + 4x + 7

48. Maximum value of f(x) = sin x + cos x is :

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
2

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 5
49. Equation of this straight line is :

53º

(1) 3x + 4y = 40 (2) 3x – 4y = 40
(3) 4x – 3y = 40 (4) 4x – 3y = 40

 (x  x  x3  x 4 )dx is equal to :
2
50.

(1) 1+2x+3x2+4x3 + C (2) 1+2x+3x2+4x3

x 2 x3 x 4 x5 x 2 x3 x 4 x5
(3)    +C (4)   
2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5

51. y = 41 – 24 x – 18 x2 ; the maximum value of y is :

(1) 49 (2) 35 (3) 56 (4) 14
x 3
52. If y  
12 x
The minimum value of y is (for x > 0) :
1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) zero
2

5
53.
 x 2 dx is equal to :
3 3 7 7
2 2 2 2
(1) X 2 (2) X 2 +C (3) X 2 (4) X 2 + C
7 7 7 7

1
54.  x
dx is equal to :

(1) x +C (2) 2 x +C (3) 3 x +C (4) 5 x +C

dy
55. If y = x 2 sin x , then will be –
dx
(1) x 2 cos x + 2x sin x (2) 2x sin x
(3) x 2 cos x (4) 2 x cos x

dy
56. If y = e k t then will be
dt
(1) e k t (2) e k t / k (3) te k t (4) ke k t

3

57.
 x 2 dx is equal to :

2 2
(1) +C (2) +C (3) 2 x +C (4) 2 x + C
x x

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 6
 5

58.
 x 3 dx is equal to :
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3  3 
(1) x +C (2)  x +C (3) x 3 +C (4)  x 3 +C
2 2 2 2

x
2012
59. dx is equal to :

X2013 X2011
(1) +C (2) +C (3) 2012 X2011 +C (4) – 2012 X2011 + C
2013 2011

60. If
 sec xdx = m + c, where c is a constant then m is
1 sec x
(1) sec x. tan x (2) (3) ln|sec x + tan x| (4)
sec x  tan x tan x
dx
61.  (3x  5) is :
–3
(1) n (3x+ 5) + C (2) +C (3) n (3x+ 5)3 + C (4) n (3x+ 5)1/3 + C
( 3 x  5 )2

62.  2sin(x)dx is equal to :

(1) –2cos x + C (2) 2 cosx + C (3) –2 cos x (4) 2 cosx

63.  (sin x  cos x)dx is equal to :

(1) –cosx + sinx (2) – cosx + sinx + C
(3) cosx – sinx + C (4) – cosx – sinx + C

64. sinA – sinB =

 A B  A B  A B  A B
(1) 2sin   cos   (2) 2sin   cos  
 2   2   2   2 
 A B  A B  A B  A B
(3) –2sin   cos   (4) 2sin   cos  
 2   2   2   2 

x
3
65. (x  1) dx

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) – – +C (2) + +C (3) 3 – + C (4) – + +C
x 2x 2 x 2x 2 2x 2 x 2x 2

66. sin 300º is equal to:

3 3
(1) 1/2 (2) –1/2 (3)  (4)
2 2

67. sin2=
1  cos 2 1  cos 2
(1) (2) (3) sin(2) (4) None
2 2
68. r = (1 + sec ) sin , r is &
dr dr dr dr
(1) = cos  + sec2 (2) = cos  – sec2 (3) = cos  + tan2 (4) = cos  + sec2
d d d d

69. Value of sin15º.cos15º is:

3
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4)
2

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 7
70. Which of the following has value zero?
(1) sin 0° (2) tan 45° (3) cos 0° (4) cot 0°

 x 2 y3 
71. log   is equal to:
 z
 
1 1
(1) 2 log x × 3 log y × log z (2) 2 log x + 3 log y – log (z)
2 2
2logx  3logy
(3) (4) 2 log x + 3 log y + logz
1/ 2logz
dy
72 If y = x2 sin x, then will be:
dx
(1) x2 cos x + 2x sin x (2) 2x sin x (3) x2 cos x (4) 2 x cos x

73. Equation of straight line is 2x + 3y = 5. Slope of the straight line is:

(1) 3/2 (2) 2/3 (3) –2/3 (4) –3/2

74. If Q = 4v3 + 3v2, then the value of 'v' such that, there exist maxima of 'Q':
1 1
(1) 0 (2)  (3) (4) None
2 2
dx
75. Find 
ax  b
(1) loge (ax + b) + C (2) a loge (ax + b) + C
1 1
(3) C + loge (ax + b) (4) loge (ax + b) + C
a b
d2 y
76. If y = sinx, find
dx 2
(1) cosx (2) – cosx (3) sinx (4) – sin x

 x dx is equal to:
3
77.

x4 x4
(1) 3x2 (2) C (3) (4) 4x3
4 4
 
78. The area of region between y = sinx and x–axis in the interval 0,  will be:
 2
1
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4)
2

d
79. If  = sec (3) then will be:
d
(1) 3 sec(3) tan(3) (2) sec(3) tan(3)
(3) 3 sec2(3) (4) None

80. Faraday is the unit of

(1) Charge (2) emf (3) Mass (4) Energy

81. “ Pascal -Second ‘’has dimension of

(1) Force (2) Energy (3) Pressure (4) Coefficient of Viscosity

82. Which relation is wrong

(1) 1 Calore = 4.18 Joules (2) 1Å = 10-10 m
(3) 1MeV = 1.6 ×10-13 Joules (4) 1 Newton =10 -5 Dynes

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 8
83. The dimensions of light year is -
(1) T (2) L (3) LT (4) T–1
84. b a
In the formula V = E d , if V ; E and d are the velocity of longitudinal waves, bulk modulus of elasticity and
density of the gaseous medium respectively, then the values of a and b are respectively -
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1)  and (2) and  (3)  and (4)  and 
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

85. The velocity of a particle depends upon time according to the relation v = t + . The dimensions of ,
t
and will be -
(1) LT–2, L, T (2) L, T, LT–2 (3) T, L, LT–2 (4) LT–1, L, T

X
86. Force F = + C is a dimensionally correct relation, then X will have dimensions -
density
(1) MLT–2 (2) MLT–3 (3) ML2T–3 (4) M2L–2T–2

87. The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = A sin(t – kx). The dimensions of /k are that of –
(1) Frequency (2) Velocity (3) Wavelength (4) Inverse of velocity

88. In a system of unit if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then the
dimensional formula of energy is :
(1) FA2T (2) FAT2 (3) F2AT (4) FAT
89. Velocity as a function of time is
V(t) = sin2t – cos(2t)

Then the value of v   will be :
3
2 1 3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 4 4

90. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later
time are ( 3 , 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of :
(1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 0º

BIOLOGY
91. Most researchers agree that water is mainly__(i)__through the plant, and that the driving force for this
process is __(ii)__ from the leaves. Here (i) & (ii) are respectively
(1) (i)-Pushing, (ii)-transpiration (2) (i)-Pulled, (ii)-transpiration
(3) (i)-Pushing, (ii)-diffusion (4) (i)-Pulled, (ii)-active transport

92. Which is wrong about diffusion :

(1) It is a type of passive transport (2) No energy expenditure takes place.
(3) It is a slow process (4) It is dependent on a ‘living system

93. The porins are proteins that form large pores in the outer membrane of the
(1) ER, mitochondria and some bacteria (2) Plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria
(3) Plastids, golgi body and all bacteria (4) ER, golgi body and some gram –ve bacteria

94. Which feature is/are common between facilitated diffusion and active transport
(1) Uphill transport (2) Requirement of ATP as energy source
(3) Transport saturation (4) All of the above

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 9
95. The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly on the following physical properties of water

(1) Cohesion (2) Adhesion (3) Surface tension (4) All of the above

96. If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution :
(1) Its water potential decreases
(2) Its water potential increases
(3) Its water potential constant
(4) Its water potential increases and than decreases

97. Water diffuses into the cell causing the cytoplasm to build up a pressure against the wall, that is called
(1) Turgor pressure (2) Osmotic pressure (3) DPD (4) Diffusion pressure

98. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Mycorrhizae (3) Bacteria (4) Light

99.

Identify i, ii and iii

(1) i– uniport, ii– Antiport, iii– symport (2) i– uniport, ii–symport, iii– Antiport
(3) i– Antiport, ii–symport, iii– uniport (4) i– symport, ii– uniport, iii– Antiport

100. Bulk flow can be achieved either through a ______(i)______ or a _____(ii)_____.

(1) i - Diffusion, ii – Active transport
(2) i – Root pressure, ii – Active transport
(3) i - positive hydrostatic pressure gradient, ii - Diffusion
(4) i - positive hydrostatic pressure gradient, ii - negative hydrostatic pressure gradient

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 10
101.

In the above diagram which part shows the movement of water by symplast only
(1) Epiblema (2) Cortex (3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle

102. Which is not related from guttation?

(1) Root pressure (2) Epithem tissue
(3) Hydathode (4) Negative Hydrostatic pressure

103. Cytoplasmic streaming in cells of the Hydrilla leaf; the movement of chloroplast due to streaming are
examples of :
(1) Apoplastic pathway
(2) Symplastic pathway
(3) Both apoplastic pathway & symplastic pathway
(4) Neither apoplastic pathway nor symplastic pathway
104. Which is not true about stomata
(1) Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than longitudinally making it easier
for the stoma to open.
(2) The immediate cause of the opening or closing of stomata is a change in the turgidity of the
guard cells.
(3) Usually the lower surface of a dorsiventral (often dicotyledonous) leaf has a greater number of
stomata
(4) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore or stomatal aperture, is thick and non-
elastic.
105. Transport proteins of endodermal cells are______ where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes
that reach the xylem:
(1) Inflexation points (2) Check points
(3) Control points (4) Inhibitory points

106. The chief sinks for the mineral elements are the growing regions of the plant, such as the :
(1) Apical and lateral meristems (2) young leaves, developing flowers
(3) fruits, seeds, and the storage organs (4) All of the above

107. Select the wrong pair :

(1) Direction of movement in the phloem – bidirectional
(2) The net direction and rate of osmosis – depends on both the pressure gradient and concentration
gradient.
(3) Ψp of a flaccid cell – Positive
(4) absorption of water by seeds and dry wood – imbibition

Resonance_Madhapur_Hyd. Page 11
108. According to pressure flow hypothesis, The sugar of leaves is then moved in the form of ___(i)____ into the
companion cells and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells by ____(ii)____.
Here (i) and (ii) are respectively -
(1) (i) - Glucose, (ii) - active transport (2) (i) - Sucrose, (ii) - passive transport
(3) (i) - Fructose, (ii) – Facilitated diffusion (4) (i) - Sucrose, (ii) - active transport

109. If the bark of a plant is removed which will die first –

(1) Stem (2) Roots (3) Leaves (4) Flower

110. Some elements that are structural components and are not remobilized. Which of the following element
fulfill this criteria -
(1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorus

111. Match the column-I with appropriate items of column-II

Column-I Column-II
(a) Stomata (i) Ascent of sap
(b) Dumb-belled shaped Guard cells (ii) Absorption of water
(c) Root hair (iii) Transpiration
(d) Xylem vessel (iv) Leaf of grass
(e) Subsidiary cell (v) K+
(1) a – iii b – iv c – v d – i e – ii (2) a – i b – ii c – iii d – iv e – v
(3) a – iii b – v c – iv d – i e – ii (4) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i e – v
112. The activator of alcohol dehydrogenase is
(1) Ng2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Mn2+

113. Given below the some statements.

(a) Transpiration transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant.
(b) C3 plants are twice as efficient as C4 plants in term of fixating carbon & only half as much water as C4
plant.
(c) Both phloem & xylem can translocate organic as well as inorganic substances
(d) High Turgor pressure of guard cells is developed due to ascent of sap by Transpiration pull in day time.
Select the incorrect statements
(1) a, b (2) b, d (3) c, d (4) only b

114. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having :
(1) Cytoskeleton (2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Chloroplasts

115. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight because of:
(1) Tensile strength of water (2) Lignification of xylem vessels
(3) Positive root pressure (4) Dissolved sugars in water

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116. Which statement is true about hydroponics
(1) Soil less culture
(2) Helps in commercial production of vegetables like tomato, lettuce & seedless cucumber
(3) Identification of essential element & detect their deficiency symptom
(4) All of the above

117.

On the basis of above diagram which statement is true

(1) The solute potential of chamber A is lower than B
(2) The water potential of chamber A is lower than B
(3) The solute potential of chamber B is lower than A
(4) The water potential of chamber A and B is same

118. In guttation, water is lost in the form of

(1) Water vapours (2) Dilute solution of sugars
(3) Pure liquid water (4) Dilute solution of salts and organic substances

119. Which involve in Apoplast

(1) Plasmodesmata and Cell wall (2) Inter cellular spaces and Cytoplasm
(3) Cell wall and Inter cellular spaces (4) Plasmodesmata and Cytoplasm

120. The criteria of essentiality of minerals was given by

(1) Sachs & knop (2) Arnon & hoagland (3) Knop (4) Arnon & stout

121. Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants ?
(1) Occurs against concentration gradient (2) Non-selective
(3) Occurs through membranes (4) Requires ATP

122. What will be the direction of flow of water when a plant cell is placed in a Hypotonic solution?
(1) Water will flow in both directions. (2) Water will flow out of the cell.
(3) Water will flow into the cell. (4) No flow of water in any direction.

123. There are about _______ macronutrients and ________ micronutrients in a plant body.
(1) 9, 9 (2) 9, 8 (3) 8, 9 (4) 12, 13

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124. Water is often the limiting factor for plant____(i)____and____(ii)_____in both agricultural and natural
environments. Here (i) and (ii) are respectively
(1) i-Growth, ii-Productivity (2) i-Development, ii-Senescence
(3) i-Growth, ii-Decomposition (4) i- Decomposition, ii-productivity

125. Water potential is maximum in pure water and its value is

(1) Always negative (2) Always positive (3) Zero (4) Always more than zero

126. Which show greatest contribution to re-establish the continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem
which often break under the enormous tensions created by transpiration.
(1) Turgor pressure (2) Root pressure (3) Osmotic pressure (4) Diffusion

127. Given below is the diagrammatic set-up of nutrient solution culture. identify the aparatus marked X and its
use :

(1) X = Iron rod, Use : For maxing mineral salts

(2) X = Aerating tube, Use : Aeration, to increase the dissolved oxygen in nutrient solution for optimum
growth
(3) X = Aerating tube, Use: To add frest nutrient medium for optimum growth
(4) X = Copper rod, Use : To provide Cu2+ in the nutrient medium

128. Diffusion is very important to plants since it is the only means for ..................
(1) Water translocation in root (2) Gaseous exchange within plants
(3) Mineral translocation in root (4) transport from phloem to sink

129. Which of the following is not an exchange process ?

(1) Osmosis (2) Diffusion (3) Active transport (4) Surface tension

130. When leaves fall down in spring season in tropical deciduous forest then who will act as source of food
(1) Sieve tube (2) Phloem (3) Xylem (4) Roots

131. Over small distances substances move by ........(i).......and by cytoplasmic streaming supplemented by
........(ii).......
(1) (i) Facilitated diffusion (ii) active transport (2) (i) Diffusion (ii) Osmosis
(3) (i) Active transport (ii) Osmosis (4) (i) Diffusion (ii) active transport

132. Transport over longer distances proceeds through the vascular system (the xylem and the phloem) and is
called .............
(1) Translocation (2) Diffusion (3) Active transport (4) (2) & (3) both
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133. For a solution at atmospheric pressure
(1) (water potential) Ψw > (solute potential) Ψs
(2) (water potential) Ψw = (pressure potential) Ψp
(3) (water potential) Ψw = (solute potential) Ψs
(4) (water potential) Ψw < (solute potential) Ψs

134. Xylem is associated with translocation of mainly

(1) water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen only
(2) water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones
(3) water, mineral salts only
(4) mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones only

135. In hypertonic solution, water potential of a cell

(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) First increases and then decreases (4) No change occurs

136. Here are some statements about structures of protein. Select the incorrect one
(1) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by hydrogen bonds
(2) A protein is a heteropolymer
(3) The sequence of amino acids i.e. the positional information in a protein–which is the first amino acid,
which is second and so on is called primary structure
(4) A protein thread doesn't exist throughout as an extended rigid rod.

137. Which statement about proteins is correct?

(1) Protein quaternary structure is determined by the primary amino acid sequence
(2) Protein sequences that span a lipid bilayer membrane usually contain a number of charged amino acids
(3) Examples of protein secondary structure include an  helix or a  pleated sheet
(4) Protein tertiary structure is the result of the interaction of two or more independent polypeptide chains

138. Which of the following sugars is not found in plants

(1) sucrose (2) glucose (3) lactose (4) fructose
139. In which one of the following groups, all the three are examples of polysaccharides
(1) Starch, glycogen, cellulose (2) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
(3) Glucose, fructose, lactose (4) Galactose, starch, sucrose

140. The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate materials is called-

(1) Glycogenesis (2) Glycogenolysis
(3) Gluconeogenesis (4) Glycolysis

141. The polysaccharides made up of glucose monomers are

(1) Sucrose, lactose, maltose (2) chitin, glycogen, starch
(3) starch, glycogen, cellulose (4) starch, inulin, peptidoglycan

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142. Choose the correct one w.r.t. decreasing order of abundance of elements in a cell.
(1) C > O > N > H (2) O > C > H > N (3) O > N > C > H (4) H > N > O > C

143. Pigments, alkaloid, Essential oil, Rubber, Gum, Terpenoids called secondary metabolites because of-
(1) Not involved in primary metabalism like respiration, photosynthesis, protein and lipid metabolism
(2) No direct role in growth and developement
(3) They are mostly secretory and excretory products
(4) All

144. Match Column–I with Column–II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tetrose sugar (i) Galactose
B. Pentose sugar (ii) Maltose
C. Hexose sugar (iii) Erythrose
D. Disaccharide (iv) Ribose
(v) Sedoheptulose
(1) A-(v); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i), (ii) (2) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(v); D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii) (4) A-(i), (ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(v)

145. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?

(1) It is a storage polysaccharide
(2) It is a homopolysaccharide
(3) It is a constituents of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell wall
(4) It is the second most abundant carbohydrate on earth

146. If the percentage of adenine in a double stranded DNA molecule is 20, the percentage of guanine is:
(1) 80% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 40%

147. Two elements needed for building healthy teeth and bones are:
(1) iron and calcium (2) phosphorous and iron
(3) calcium and phosphorous (4) CO2 and H2O

148. A dominant intracellular cation is

(1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Chlorine

149. The tightly bound non-proteinaceous organic compound is

(1) Cofactor (2) Apoenzyme (3) Holoenzyme (4) Prosthetic group

150. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of the following
is not found in living organisms.
(1) Silicon (2) Magnesium (3) Iron (4) Sodium

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151. Molecular weight of macrobiomolecule is
(1) 18-800 Da (2) 1000 Da (3) <1000 Da (4) >10000 Da

152. Proteins which are present in protoplasm are very important because -
(1) They provide rigidity to cell (2) They function as biocatalyst
(3) They yield energy (4) They are stored food

153. Genetic code determines -

(1) Structural pattern of an organism (2) Sequence of amino acid in a protein chain
(3) Variation in offsprings (4) Constancy of morphological trait.

154. Glycoprotein are known to play important role in cell recognition, the specificity of this recognition is
provided largely by -
(1) Protein portion of the glycoproteins
(2) Carbohydrate portion of the glycoproteins
(3) Both carbohydrate and protein portion of glycoproteins
(4) Lipid portion of glycoprotein

155. If all the peptide bonds of protein are broken, then the remaining part is:
(1) amide (2) oligosaccharide (3) polypeptide (4) amino acid

156. Amino acids have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. Which amongst the
following is an amino acid?
(1) Formic acid (2) Glycerol (3) Glycolic acid (4) Glycine

157. Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g. acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g.
ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges
simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
(1) Positively charged form (2) Negatively charged form
(3) Neutral form (4) isoelectric form

158. Choose the odd one

(1) Tyrosine (2) Phenylalanine (3) Tryptophan (4) Methionine
159. The michaelis constant Km is
(1) Numerically equal to 1 Vmax
2
(2) Dependent on the enzyme concentration
(3) Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half maximal velocity
(4) Increased in the presence of non-competitive inhibitor
160. If an enzyme has been given the EC code 5.2.1.7, it is likely to be involved in
(1) Digestion (2) Redox reaction (3) Isomerization (4) Molecular breakdown

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161. The 3’-5’. Phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
(2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide
(4) One nitrogeneous base with pentose sugar
162. ATP is
(1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleic acid (4) Vitamin
163. The role of an enzyme in a reaction is to/as
(1) Decrease activation energy (2) Increase activation energy
(3) Inorganic catalyst (4) None of these
164. In a DNA molecule
(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5'  3' direction and other in v
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5'  3' direction
(4) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
165. Which purine base is found in RNA
(1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Cytosine (4) Guanine
166. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 60%, the amount
of guanine in this DNA will be
(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 40%
167. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine residues (A = T) and equal number of
guanine and cytosine (G = C). These relationships are known as
(1) Chargaff’s rule (2) Coulomb’s law
(3) Le Chatelier’s principle (4) Van’t Hoff plot
168. Which of the following is a neutral amino acid ?
(1) Glutamine (2) Arginine (3) Valine (4) Asparagine
169. The most unsaturated fatty acid is
(1) Linoleic acid (2) Oleic acid
(3) Linolenic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
170. Which of the following is a nucleotide ?
(1) Thymidine (2) Cytosine (3) Thiamine (4) Uridylic acid
171. The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH,
temperature and substrate concentration)

What do the two axes (x and y) represent ?

x-axis y-axis
(1) Enzymatic activity Temperature
(2) Enzymatic activity pH
(3) Temperature Enzyme activity
(4) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity

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172. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In
which one of the four options (1 – 4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D
are identified correctly ?

173. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is :
(1) Permanent but unstable (2) Transient and unstable
(3) Permanent and stable (4) Transient but stable
174. Macromolecule chitin is
(1) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(2) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(3) Simple polysaccharide
(4) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
175. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA ?
(1) Chargaff’s rule
(2) Complementary base pairing
(3) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
176. Electron transferring enzymes belong to
(1) Transferases (2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Lyases (4) Isomerases
177. in B-DNA each helical turn contains
(1) 12 base pairs (2) 10 base pairs
(3) 8 base pairs (4) 11 base pairs

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178. The Watson-Crick model of DNA exhibits _______ of DNA
(1) Primary structure (2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure (4) Quaternary structure
179. ______ forms the molecular basis of heredity.
(1) Protein (2) DNA (3) Lipids (4) All of these
180. A nitrogenous base present in RNA but not in DNA, is
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil (3) Guanine (4) Cytosine

***

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Time: 3 Hours NEET WEEKEND TEST Exam Date: 27.06.2021

Section: MB Max. Marks = 720 M

KEY SHEET

CHEMISTRY
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (2)
PHYSICS
46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (1) 50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (3)
53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (1)
60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (3)
67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (3)
74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (2) 78. (1) 79. (1) 80. (1)
81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (2)
88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (3)
BIOLOGY
91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (1)
98. (2) 99. (4) 100. (4) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (4)
105. (3) 106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (4)
112. (2) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (4) 117. (3) 118. (4)
119. (3) 120. (4) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (2) 124. (1) 125. (3)
126. (2) 127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (4) 132. (1)
133. (3) 134. (2) 135. (2) 136. (1) 137. (3) 138. (3) 139. (1)
140. (3) 141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (3)
147. (3) 148. (2) 149. (4) 150. (1) 151. (4) 152. (2) 153. (2)
154. (2) 155. (4) 156. (4) 157. (4) 158. (4) 159. (3) 160. (3)
161. (3) 162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (1) 165. (2) 166. (2) 167. (1)
168. (3) 169. (4) 170. (4) 171. (3) 172. (2) 173. (2) 174. (4)
175. (1) 176. (1) 177. (2) 178. (2) 179. (2) 180. (2)

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