PHARMACOLOGY

BPT

1. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Subcutaneous
D. Rectal

2. Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except:

A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug
C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration
D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

3. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of:

A. Weakly basic drugs
B. Weakly acidic drugs
C. Strong electrolytes
D. Nonpolar drugs

4. Which of the following is a weakly acidic drug:

A. Atropine sulfate
B. Chloroquine phosphate
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Phenytoin sodium

5. Bioavailability of drug refers to:

A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
6. High plasma protein binding:
A. Increases volume of distribution of the drug
B. Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
C. Minimises drug interactions
D. Generally makes the drug long acting

7. The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug:

A. Contributes to the response at the given moment
B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration
C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state
D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

8. A prodrug is:
A. The prototype member of a class of drugs
B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

9. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass
metabolism:
A. Oral
 B. Sublingual
C. Subcutaneous
D. Rectal

10. Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except:
A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug
B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug
C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration
D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

11. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of:

A. Weakly basic drugs
B. Weakly acidic drugs
C. Strong electrolytes
D. Nonpolar drugs

12. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by:

A. Passive diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Pinocytosis

13. Which of the following is a weakly acidic drug:

A. Atropine sulfate
B. Chloroquine phosphate
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Phenytoin sodium

14 Bioavailability of drug refers to:

A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

15. Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug:
A. Is freely water soluble
B. Is completely absorbed
C. Is incompletely absorbed
D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

16. Weakly acidic drugs:

A. Are bound primarily to alpha 1 acid glycoprotein in plasma
B. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine
C. Are highly ionized in the gastric juice
D. Do not cross blood-brain barrier

17. Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Propranolol
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Theophylline

18. Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver:

A. Have low oral bioavailability
B. Are excreted primarily in bile
 C. Are contraindicated in liver disease
D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination

19. If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be:
A. More than the glomerular filtration rate
B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate
C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate
D. Equal to the rate of urine formation

20. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics:

A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time
B. Its clearance value will remain constant
C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose
D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

21. If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will
be directly proportional to its:
A. Volume of distribution
B. Plasma protein binding
C. Lipid solubility
D. Total body clearance

22. If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state
plasma drug concentration by a factor of:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1.5
D. 1.3

23. Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except:
A. Structural specificity
B. High potency
C. Competitive antagonism
D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

24. A partial agonist can antagonize the effects of a full agonist because it has:
A. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
B. Low affinity but high intrinsic activity
C. No affinity and low intrinsic activity
D. High affinity but no intrinsic activity

25. Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable)

adverse drug reaction:
A. Side effect
B. Toxic effect
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Physical dependence

26. The essential feature in drug addiction is:

A. Physical dependence
B. Psychological dependence
C. Both physical and psychological dependence
D. Psychiatric abnormality
27. Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that:
A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine
B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate
C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine
D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

28 The cardiac muscarinic receptors:

A. Are of the M1 subtype
B. Are of the M2 subtype
C. Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine
D. Function through the PIP2 IP3/DAG pathway
29. Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation producesthe following effects except:
A. Sweating
B. Rise in blood pressure
C. Bradycardia
D. Urination

30. Pilocarpine is used for:

A. Glaucoma
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Urinary retention
D. All of the above

31. Actions of pilocarpine include the following except:

A. Sweating
B. Salivation
C. Miosis
D. Cycloplegia
32. Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle
glaucoma by:
A. Contracting sphincter pupillae
B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle
C. Reducing aqueous formation
D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

33. Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is:
A. Miotic eye drops
B. Ocular alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues
D. Ocular adrenergic blockers

34. Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye

drops by glaucoma patients because:
A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine
B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow
C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
D. There are no contraindications to timolol

35. Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker:

A. Timolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Cartiolol
D. Levobunolol

36. Which of the following is a prodrug of adrenaline used topically in glaucoma:

 A. Brimonidine
B. Dipivefrine
C. Phenylpropanolamine
D. Dorzolamide

37. Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used:

A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome
B. To suppress menopausal syndrome
C. As Analgesic
D. To reduce intraocular tension

38. Choose the correct statement about latanoprost:

A. It is a PGF2 alpha derivative used in glaucoma
B. It is a selective alpha 1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate
C. It is a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland
D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

39. Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma:
A. Indapamide
B. Amiloride
C. Mannitol
D. Furosemide

40. Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning:
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Pralidoxime
C. Diazepam
D. Adrenaline
41 Atropine is contraindicated in:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Digitalis toxicity
C. Iridocyclitis
D. Raised intraocular tension

42. Which of the following is a noncatecholamine sympathomimetic:

A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Dopamine
D. Isoprenaline

43. The following is a selective alpha 2 adrenoceptor Antagonist:

A. Prazosin
B. Phentolamine
C. Yohimbine
D. Clonidine

44. A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve
endings is:
A. Ephedrine
B. Dopamine
C. Isoprenaline
D. Tyramine

45. The following action of adrenaline is not mediated by receptors:

A. Dilatation of blood vessels
B. Dilatation of pupil
 C. Bronchodilation
D. Renin release from kidney

46. Captopril pretreatment:

A. Inhibits the pressor action of angiotensin I
B. Inhibits the pressor action of angiotensin II
C. Potentiates the depressor action of bradykinin
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

47. Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of:
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Hypertensive nephropathy
D. All of the above

48. The following drug has been demonstrated to retard

progression of left ventricular dysfunction and
prolong survival of congestive heart failure patients:
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Enalapril
D. Amrinone

49.. Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both:
A. They both cause fall in BP
B. They both are degraded by Kininase II
C. Their precursor proteins are plasma 2 globulins
D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

50. Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of
the following substance:
A. Uric acid
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Bicarbonate

51. The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by:
A. Thiazides
B. Metolazone
C. Xipamide
D. All of the above

52. Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics:

A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule
B. They are uricosuric
C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient
D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

53. Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by:

A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption
B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the
ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal
tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+
D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
54. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Cortical diluting segment
D. Collecting ducts

55. Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the
following respect?
A. Diuretic efficacy
B. Diuretic potency
C. Side effects
D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

56. Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except:

A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Chlorthalidone

57.. Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that:

A. It has greater natriuretic action
B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on
presence of aldosterone
C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of
the distal tubular cells
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

58. Choose the correct statement about amiloride:

A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone
B. It can be used to treat lithium induced
diabetes insipidus
C. It increases calcium loss in urine
D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

59. Amiloride has the following effect on urinary cation excretion:

A. Decreases both K+ and H+ ion excretion
B. Decreases K+ excretion but increases H+ ion
excretion
C. Increases K+ but decreases Na+ excretion
D. Decreases both Na+ and K+ excretion

60. Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving

the following drug needs close monitoring:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Captopril
D. Verapamil