2021 Drills-Merged

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Prepared by:
Prof. Erickson A. Amion, PhD (cand), RPsy, RPm
ENCIRCLE THE LETTER THAT CORRESPONDS TO YOUR BEST ANSWER
1. Which of the following best describes what is known regarding the definition of abnormality?
a. Personal distress is the one criterion that defines abnormality.
b. The criteria differ depending on the cause of the psychological disorder.
c. The criteria differ depending on whether the individual has a psychological disorder or a psychological dysfunction.
d. No one criterion has yet been developed that fully defines abnormality.
2. Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality?

a. Suffering
b. Maladaptiveness
c. Deviancy
d. There is no sufficient element
3. Which of the following is true regarding the "four Ds" of abnormality?

a. Most clinicians agree on what qualifies under each of "the four Ds."
b. Every culture has generally identical criteria of what constitutes abnormality.
c. An individual can only be diagnosed with a mental illness if (s)he has all "four Ds."
d. None of the "four Ds" is, by itself, an adequate gauge of psychological abnormality.
4. Three weeks ago, Jane, a 35-year-old business executive, stopped showering, refused to leave her apartment, and started watching
television talk shows. She continues to spend her days staring blankly at the television screen. Which of the definitions seems to
describe Jane’s behavior?
a. Dysfunction
b. Dangerousness
c. Disability
d. Deviance
5. Which of the following is an example of point prevalence?

a. Forty people had a panic attack in the last year.
b. Seventy people in her graduating class had been diagnosed with anorexia at some time during the past four years.
c. 1% of the population is currently experiencing depressive symptoms.
d. 15% of women will suffer from an anxiety disorder before the age of 30.
6. The St. Mary of Bethlehem is said to be as one of the first asylums during classical era. Which of the following would be LEAST
likely false about the said asylum?
a. It was also termed as bedlam which means “healing”
b. It was known for moral treatment
c. It became one of the London’s great tourist attractions
d. Promotion of mental hygiene is prioritized in this asylum
7. Which of the following Dorothea Dix did not anticipate in her mental hygiene movement?
a. People with mental illness appeared to be very violent thus treatment was not successful
b. The mental hygiene movement was not needed during that time
c. Since hospitalization is expensive people were not able to afford
d. Hospitals became overcrowded and inadequately staffed.
8. The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that

a. low dopamine levels of activity in the brain seem to produce psychotic symptoms.
b. there are high levels of dopamine activity in the brains of psychotic people.
c. there are high levels of amphetamine in the brains of schizophrenics.
d. dopamine interacts with serotonin creating psychosis.
9. People with mood disorders usually have abnormal neurochemical activities in the brain. Which neurotransmitter is found to be high
among people with depression?
a. dopamine
b. methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol
c. serotonin
d. none of these
10. If a trait is entirely genetically determined, which of the following would be expected in a twin study of monozygotic (MZ) twins and
dizygotic (DZ) twins?
a. DZ twins will have 0% concordance
b. MZ twins will have 50% concordance
c. MZ twins will have 100% concordance
d. DZ twins will have the same concordance as MZ twins
11. Judy has a mood disorder, but neither of her parents, nor any of her siblings or grandparents, has ever had one. How is this
possible, according to what you know about genetic transmission of mental disorders?
a. Judy must have been adopted.
b. Judy may have received enough abnormal genes from the chromosomes of her mother and father at birth to inevitably cause a
mood disorder.
c. Some of Judy's family members may actually carry a predisposition for a mood disorder, but may never have experienced
an interaction among multiple factors sufficient to cause the disorder.
d. The situation described is not possible according to what we know about genetics.
12. Inhibiting the process of reuptake in a neuron leads to:

a. Compensation by means of increasing the frequency of degradation.
b. A greater amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse.
c. A lesser amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse.
d. An increase in the number of dendrite receptors on the receiving neuron.
13. Patients of Parkinson have loss of nerve cells in a particular and small part of the brain which is called
a. Amagdayla
b. Cortex and cerebellum
c. Substantia nigra
d. Frontal lobe
14. Pam is diagnosed with depression. She has difficulty anticipating incentives or rewards. She also has difficulty maintaining setting
goals and ways to attain them. Which of the following brain part is associated with Pam’s symptoms?
a. Cerebellum
b. Corpus Callosum
c. Prefrontal cortex
d. Ventricles
15. In assessing the severity of Axis IV in DSM IV-TR, which of the following is an example of catastrophic term?
a. Broke up with girlfriend or boyfriend
b. Suicide of spouse
c. Victim of rape
d. Marital separation
16. Which of the following is consistent to Humanistic view of Abnormality?

a. Abnormal behavior results from a distorted concept of the self.
b. Psychological disorders may represent disruptions or disturbances in how information is processed.
c. Abnormal behavior is viewed as an avoidance response
d. Abnormality is caused by the inability to fulfil psychological needs
17. Which of the following is included in the DSM?

a. A discussion of the various causes of mental disorders
b. A means of identifying different mental disorders
c. A description of the necessary and sufficient conditions for mental illness
d. A description of all of the possible treatments for each disorder
18. Which of the following best describes the DSM?

a. A complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders
b. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known
c. A fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders
d. An objective guide to diagnosing mental disorders
19. Jill’s mother brought her to a clinic after finding out that Jill ingests non-nutritive substances like tissue paper as a means of
attempting to control appetite. What is your primary diagnosis?
a. Pica Disorder
b. Rumination Disorder
c. Anorexia Nervosa
d. Binge-Eating Disorder
20. Why is a representative sample desirable?

a. Such samples are random.
b. Hypotheses can only be tested on representative samples.
c. Only representative samples yield meaningful results.
d. The more representative a sample is, the more generalizable the data.
21. Which of the following is one reason given that more women than men are treated for psychological problems?
a. Some forms of mental disorders are sex-linked recessive.
b. Developmental tasks required of women are far more difficult than those required of men
c. Women tend to distract when they are subject to stress while men tend to ruminate
d. Women are more likely to report symptoms than do men
22. All of the following statements are true about antisocial personality disorder EXCEPT
a. are below average in intelligence
b. tend to show abnormal chromosomal structure
c. were disciplined regularly as children
d. are largely undeterred by punishment
23. Techniques used by Steketee and Foa as the recommended treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders are _________ and
____________.
a. Cognitive restructuring, exposure treatment
b. Implosion, response prevention
c. Exposure treatment, response prevention
d. Counter-conditioning, reciprocal inhibition
24. Tom an 8-year old male has been very defiant and argumentative towards his parents and anyone who is older than him. He
seems severely irritable most of the time and this irritability tends to manifest across many settings. His mother sought for treatment for
his mood appeared to be very unusual. The clinician diagnosed him with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder and oppositional
defiant disorder. Is the clinician correct?
a. Yes. Both shall be diagnosed since criteria for both of the conditions are met.
b. Yes. Irritability is both common to these disorders so as defiance and argumentativeness.
c. No. Disruptive mood dysregulation should only be the diagnosis.
d. No. This is only a case of Oppositional Defiant Disorder.
25. Remy has been so preoccupied with the belief that she has significant defects in her appearance and has been comparing hers
with that of the appearance of others. These flaws are not really observable and her boyfriend believes that these are just imagined
flaws. Moreover, she has shown strong beliefs that these are true. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Obsessive compulsive disorder with absent insight/delusional beliefs
b. Delusional Disorder
c. Body dysmorphic disorder with absent insight/delusional beliefs
d. Delusional disorder with body dysmorphic symptoms
26. Dara an 18-yr old female suffered from a sexual assault two months ago. Since then, she has been very preoccupied of violent and
horrific thoughts and images. These thoughts became more intrusive and persistent and finds it difficult to control. As a response she
kept on performing mental acts in order to get rid of it. She finds this activities time-consuming thus it causes impairment on her part.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Acute stress disorder
b. Adjustment disorder
c. Obsessive compulsive disorder
d. Dissociative amnesia
27. Moley has suffered from a severe vehicular accident. Days after, he started to experience recurrent and non-cued symptoms such
as palpitations, pounding heart, sweating, chills and numbness. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Panic disorder
b. Post traumatic disorder with panic attacks
c. Acute stress-disorder with panic attacks
d. Factitious disorder with panic attacks
28. Which of the following best describes the relationship of temperamental traits and erectile problems?
a. Neurotic personality traits may be associated with erectile problems in college students
b. Submissive personality traits may be associated with erectile problems in men age 40 years and older.
c. Letter a only is correct.
b. Both a and b are correct.
29. Which of the following would be least likely false about sexual dysfunctions and anxiety disorder?
a. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, especially social anxiety disorder.
a. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, especially generalized anxiety disorder.
b. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, panic disorder.
d. No relationship exists between the two.
30. Which of the following disorders is considered as a risk factor for developing pedophilic disorder?
a. Histrionic personality disorder
b. Narcissistic personality disorder
c. Other paraphilic disorder
d. Antisocial personality disorder
31. Transvestism (and thus transvestic disorder) is often found in association with other paraphilias. The most frequently co-occurring
paraphilias are__________.
a. exhibitionism and masochism
b. fetishism and masochism
c. pedophilia and fetishism
d. exhibitionism and pedophilia
32. Ren sought professional help for he has been experiencing recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the presence of and involving
enemas. This has caused significant distress and impairment in functioning. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Other specified paraphilic disorder (salirophilia)
b. Other specified paraphilic disorder (klismaphilia)
c. Other specified paraphilic disorder (formicophilia)
d. Other specified paraphilic disorder (maschalania)
33. Rico a 6-year old child sought professional help for he has been experiencing social worries particularly excessive worries that
solely focused about the quality of his social performance. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. social anxiety disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. separation anxiety disorder
d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
34. Nympha presented herself in the clinic for she has been being preoccupied by her partner’s infidelity. This has led her to develop
repetitive and clearly excessive mental acts and behaviors. Upon further assessment, these beliefs are non-delusional. This causes
significant distress and impairment in functioning. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Paranoid personality disorder not otherwise specified
b. Obsessional jealousy
c. Obsessive compulsive disorder
d. Unspecified obsessive compulsive disorder
35. When an individual is dealing with recovered memories it is often a severely traumatic experience for the client, and may involve
the intense re-experiencing of traumatic events. This is known as:
a. annareaction
b. abreaction
c. antireaction
d. reactive
36. Which among the following people with endocrine abnormalities is more likely to exhibit depression symptoms?
a. Cushing’s Syndrome
b. Addison’s Disease
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Acromegaly
37.Structural and functional abnormalities in the Amygdala have been found to be associated with Major Depression The role of the
Amygdala is to:
a. Stimulate secretion by sweat glands.
b. Stimulate secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
c. Prioritize affectively salient stimuli.
d. Control spatial memory
38. Which of the following is a concept proposed by Freud to counteract the theoretical problems of introjection?
a. Diabolic loss
b. Symbolic Loss
c. Regressive Loss
d. Object Loss
39. Psychodynamic theories of personality disorders that individuals with weak egos engage in a defence mechanism called:
a. Isolation
b. Splitting
c. Immediacy
d. Compartmentalization
40. Which of the following descriptions fits the parents of people with paranoid personality disorder?
a. They are critical and intolerant of any weakness but also emphasize that the child is "special" and "different," resulting in a child who
is hypersensitive to others' evaluations and who believes that he or she is being persecuted for being different.
b. They are harsh and inconsistent often alternating between being neglectful, being hostile, and being violent toward their
children.
c. They derive pleasure from their child's dependence on them in early life, do not encourage the child to develop a separate sense of
self, and punish the child's attempts at individuation.
d. They overindulge their child, instilling in the child a grandiose sense of abilities that the child is not able to live up to, and yet, the
child will continue to act as if he or she is superior to others.
41. Which of the following is false about antisocial personality disorder?

a. People with antisocial personality disorder are more likely to have low levels of education.
b. The tendency to engage in antisocial behaviors tends to begin in childhood and is one of the most stable personality characteristics.
c. People with antisocial personality disorder have difficulty in inhibiting impulsive behaviors.
d. People with antisocial personality disorder have high levels of arousability, which leads them to avoid stimulation through
impulsive and dangerous acts and to experience punishment as less severe.
42. The interpersonal circumplex model classifies personality along two dimensions, one of which is:
a. Introversion - extraversion.
b. Dominance - submission.
c. Agreeableness - unagreeableness.
d. Nurturance - schizoid.
43. With which subtype of depression would the person in the following case example be diagnosed? Richard, a 30-year old
businessman, has experienced anhedonia for about the past month. He frequently wakes up very early in the morning, during which
time his symptoms are especially debilitating. He feels extremely guilty about many things and has lost a significant amount of weight
since the onset of his symptoms.
a. depression with catatonic features
b. depression with melancholic features
c. depression with psychotic features
d. depression with atypical features
44. Which of the following best defines all dissociative disorders?

a. massive repression of unacceptable impulses
b. a sudden, temporary change in consciousness or identity
c. the presence of at least two conflicting personalities
d. impairment in memory functions
45. Jane is diagnosed with bipolar II disorder. Which of the following is expected?
a. She will experience hypomanic episodes and major depressive episodes.
b. She will experience manic episodes and major depressive episodes.
c. She will experience hypomanic episodes alternating with mild depressive symptoms.
d. She will experience hypomanic episodes predominantly
46. Sandra and Jim have been happily married for several years. Sandra reports that she reaches orgasm from intercourse only about
half of the time and she wonders if something is "wrong" with her. What should Sandra do?
a. She should realize that this is normal.
b. She should have a medical exam before assuming that she has a diagnosable psychological disorder.
c. She should seek counselling regarding her feelings for Jim to try to understand why she does not reach orgasm more regularly.
d. She should seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder
47. Individuals who are socially isolated, behave in ways that seem unusual, tend to be suspicious, and have odd beliefs, are generally
diagnosed with which of the following personality disorders?
a. schizoid personality disorder
b. schizotypal personality disorder
c. paranoid personality disorder
d. narcissistic personality disorder
48. According to the autohypnotic model, who may be able to use dissociation as a defence against extreme trauma?
a. people who have frequent "out-of-body" experiences
b. people who have had head injury and resulting brain damage
c. people who are highly suggestible
d. people who have certain neurological disorders, such as seizure disorders
49. In the diathesis-stress model, what does diathesis refer to?

a. conditions in the environment that can trigger a disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are
b. an inherited, subclinical disease state that has the potential for developing into a full-blown psychological disorder, given certain
environmental conditions
c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder
d. the interaction of social and psychological influence
50. While driving to work one day, Larry debates what color to paint his new house. When he arrives at his parking spot, he realizes
that he does not remember any of the details of his drive in to work. Larry has experienced:
a. cognitive impairment
b. an obsessive thought
c. dissociation
d. a fugue state
51. Some people with obsessive-compulsive disorder attempt to neutralize or suppress disturbing, intrusive thoughts. How successful
do these strategies tend to be?
a. These strategies usually cause other kinds of obsessive thinking to occur.
b. These strategies are usually effective in permanently reducing the obsessive thoughts.
c. These strategies usually increase the frequency of the obsessive thoughts.
d. These strategies usually have no effect on the obsessive thoughts.
52. Ryan a 3 year old male has been complaining by his colleagues for he has been performing acts that are usually unlawful and often
led to disregarding other people’s feelings and this occurs during the course of elevated mood or irritability. He has also been exhibiting
impulsive behaviors like reckless driving, sexual indiscretions and risky behaviors that may possibly put himself into danger. Upon
further assessment, he has also shown symptoms of hallucinations and delusions occasionally. The psychologist diagnosed him with
Bipolar I Disorder. Is the psychologist is correct?
a. Yes. Since people with bipolar I disorder may manifest psychotic symptom and antisocial behavior
b. Yes. Since people with bipolar I disorder includes these are all symptoms of bipolar I disorder
c. No. The diagnosis should have been schizophrenia
d. No. The diagnosis should have been antisocial personality disorder
53. Which of the following is often associated with help-seeking behavior among people with borderline personality disorder?
a. Perceived abandonment
b. Recurrent suicidality
c. Impulsive behavior
d. uncontrolled anger
54. Which of the following is a common characteristic among people with narcissistic, borderline and histrionic personality disorders?
a. aggression
b. rigidity
c. attention seeking
d. callousness
55. Mina an 8-year old child refused to be separated from his mother for she has been often anxious about being trapped in certain
situations specially enclosed spaces or places. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. separation anxiety disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. social anxiety disorder
d. panic disorder
56. Which of the following is NOT true about specific phobia among older individuals?
a. older individuals may be more likely to endorse natural environment specific phobias
b. specific phobia tends to co-occur with medical concerns in older individuals
c. older individuals may be more likely to manifest anxiety in an atypical manner
d. the prevalence of specific phobia tends to be higher in older populations
57. Phobias for spiders, snakes and heights are common, but phobias for flowers are not. Which of the following theories may answer
the question why humans develop phobias of some objects or situations and not others?
a. Analytical Psychology
b. Prepared classical conditioning theory
c. Second order conditioning theory
d. Evolutionary theory
58. People with social anxiety disorder may engage in certain behaviors to reduce their anxiety such as avoiding eye contact,
excessive rehearsal of what they will say, and often fail to self-disclose. These behaviors are called_____.
a. interoceptive avoidant behaviors
b. safety behaviors
c. behavioral inhibition
d. safety behaviors
59. People with panic disorder are more likely to have irregularities in certain areas of the limbic system. Which of the following is often
associated with panic attack?
a. hippocampus
b. locus ceruleus
c. hypothalamus
d. septum
60. Which of the following biological theories would most likely explain why people with schizotypal personality disorder have less
severe symptoms compared with people with schizophrenia?
a. people with schizophrenia have more gray matter reductions compared to people with schizotypal personality disorder
b. people with schizophrenia have abnormally high level of dopamine compared to people with schizotypal personality disorder
c. people with schizophrenia tend to show abnormalities in prefrontal cortex which is most of the time not present to people
with schizotypal personality disorder
d. heritability is quite higher in schizophrenia than in schizotypal personality disorder
61. Neuroimaging studies show that there are two structures in the brain that appear to be reduced in volume among people with
borderline personality disorder. What are these structures?
a. hypothalamus and hippocampus
b. amygdala and hippocampus
c. hypothalamus and thalamus
d. amygdala and thalamus
62. This treatment shows a promising result to people with borderline personality disorder that promotes a more realistic and healthier
understanding of themselves and interpersonal relationships thus helping them to have reduced behaviors related to suicidality,
aggression and anger.
a. Transference-focused therapy
b. Mentalization based treatment
c. Mindfulness therapy
d. Gestalt therapy
63. Cognitive theorists explained that people with this disorder develop certain traits central to their personality as a result of indulgence
and overvaluation by significant others during childhood.
a. obsessive compulsive personality disorder
b. narcissistic personality disorder
c. histrionic personality disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
64. The presence of specific phobia in older adults is associated with decreased quality of life and may serve as a risk factor for
_______________.
a. schizophrenia
b. major neurocognitive disorder
c. schizoid personality disorder
d. substance use disorder
65. One attitude that contributes in the development of sexual dysfunctions includes person’s tendency to anxiously attend to reactions
and performance rather than focusing on the pleasure that sexual stimulation is giving them is called_______.
a. performance anxiety
b. spectatoring
c. behavioral inhibition
d. personal trauma
66. One personality characteristic that is consistently related to an increased risk of substance use disorder is _________
a. behavioral inhibition
b. behavioral activation
c. behavioral undercontrol
d. behavioral monitoring
67. The following are most likely true about antisocial personality disorder except
a. Boredom is common
b. Relationships are often short lived
c. Suicide threats and behavior are common
d. They are only capable of learning if they are punished
68. Which of the following would be least likely true about avoidant personality disorder?
a. There is pervasive low self esteem
b. They feel tense all the time
c. They are able to enter relationships with people who are willing to offer uncritical acceptance
d. There is no desire to make friends, thus leads lonely lives
69. Schizophrenia is not considered as sex-linked disorder, this means that
a. It tends to be more prevalent in either of the sexes

b. The development of the disorder is due to non-sex related factors
c. It doesn't matter which parent has the disorder in terms of the risk
d. Disorder is more common to those individuals who happened to have a sibling with schizophrenia
70. Rey a 38-year old employee has this tendency to deviate from what is expected in the workplace since he has this belief that he is
unique and special. He always says, “I don’t have to be bound by rules that apply to other people”. This is more often diagnosed
with_________.
a. obsessive compulsive personality disorder
b. narcissistic personality disorder
c. histrionic personality disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
71. A clinician has been treating a client for a driving phobia following a traffic accident when she was driving a work car. During the
course of therapy, the client discloses that she has recently submitted a worker’s compensation claim for bullying. The psychologist
then receives a valid subpoena to provide all his client records from the workers compensation authority. What is the most appropriate
response to the subpoena?
A. The clinician is not obliged to release any information as client records are subject to professional privilege
B. The psychologist must not release the client records as it constitutes a breach of confidentiality
C. The clinician should release a summary of the client records but retain a more detailed set of notes
D. The clinician must release all information that is requested as there is no professional privilege
72. A 10-year-old boy is referred to a you at the suggestion of the school because of the boy's behaviour difficulties. His teacher has
completed the Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire (SDQ). The Total Difficulties scale score on the SDQ is at the 91st percentile.
What would be the most appropriate next step?
A. Work with the school to develop positive behaviour plan
B. Work with the parents to better understand this high score
C. Work with the parents to develop a positive behaviour plan
D. Work with the school to better manage this conduct disordered child
73. An 18-year-old woman is referred to a psychologist for treatment of social anxiety and insomnia. Following the initial interview, the
psychologist and client negotiate a treatment plan targeting social anxiety. The client attends the next session stating that she is
ambivalent about addressing her anxiety and instead wants to focus on her insomnia. What is the psychologist’s most appropriate
response to the client’s ambivalence?
A. Utilise motivational interviewing to address the client's ambivalence
B. Acknowledge the client’s ambivalence but continue with the treatment plan for social anxiety as it is the primary problem
C. Refer the client to another psychologist because of her ambivalence about the treatment plan
D. Change the focus of treatment and work with the client on her insomnia problem
E. Explore the reasons for the client's ambivalence in order to maintain a good therapeutic alliance
74. A psychologist is providing psychological consulting services to a manager of an international mining company about his strengths
and effectiveness within the organisation. The manager is required to travel to remote areas of the world and consulting sessions have
become irregular due to his work. Nevertheless, the manager is motivated to continue and he suggests that email could serve as a
means for maintaining regular contact. The psychologist has some concerns about communicating electronically.
How should the psychologist best address her concerns regarding electronic communication?
A. Ensure the latest encryption protocols are installed on the psychologist’s email
B. Include a disclaimer in every electronic communication with the client
C. Discuss the issue of confidentiality before engaging in email consulting
D. Insist that the client obtain the psychologist’s permission before forwarding any email communication to a third party
75. Which of the following is most likely false about borderline personality disorder?
a. Characterized by unstable self image
b. Self harming behaviour is always used to numb emotional pain
c. Doubts of gender identity is common
d. Disorders of body-image are common
76. Which of the following would be most likely false about narcissistic personality disorder?
a. They are egocentric
b. Preoccupied by fantasies of success, power and brilliance
c. Develops strong relationships with in those with dependent personality disorder
d. Increased sense of self worth
77. A sense of presence may occur in the following group except

a. Schizophrenia
b. Healthy individuals
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. None of the above
78. Which of the following types of illusion in which vivid illusions occur without the patient making any effort since these illusions are
the result of fantasy thinking and vivid visual imagery.
a. Affect illusions
b. Completion illusions
c. referential illusion
d. Pareidolia
79. Which of the following is a negative dissociative symptom?

a. depersonalization
b. derealization
c. amnesia
d. fragmentation of identity
80. In 3 months, binge-eating disorder occurs at least how many times a week?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
81. What does self-functioning involve?

a. identity and empathy
b. identity and self-direction
c. empathy and intimacy
d. self-direction and intimacy
82. Ricky a 25-yearl old office staff was diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder that causes significant social withdrawal and
inhibitions. He suddenly received a bad news that his immediate superior who has been very supportive of him was relieved of the
post. This event has caused worsening of avoidant behaviors and feelings of inadequacy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Avoidant personality disorder
b. Adjustment disorder
c. Both a and b
d. This is better explained by another mental disorder
83. Elton is a 31-year old married male presented himself in the clinic reporting symptoms of sexual difficulty. He claimed that has
lower desire for sexual activity than his female partner and has been very upset of this symptom. The psychologist said that it is a form
of desire discrepancy and diagnosed him with male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. Is the psychologist correct?
a. No. The diagnosis should be anxiety-related disorder
b. Yes. Desire discrepancy is an essential feature of this disorder
c. Yes. The psychologist is correct since there is sexual difficulty
d. No. This should not warrant a diagnosis
84. Deficits in theory of mind can be seen in the following disorders except
a. Schizophrenia
b. Autism
c. Dissociative disorder
d. Antisocial personality disorder
85. Which of the following is NOT true about pseudologia fantastica?

a. Defined in as fluent plausible lying
b. May be seen in organic illness
c. When confronted may admit to lying
d. Seen in personality disorder
86. Which of the following would be LEAST likely effective in handling cases of Delusion?
a. Do not pretend that the delusion is true
b. Be straightforward and honest in dealings with the patient, as these patients are hypervigilant about being tricked or deceived.
c. Examine what trigger the first appearance of the delusion.
d. Argue or challenge the patient’s delusion
87. Which of the following Clusters of personality disorders that involves the use of dissociation, denial, splitting, and acting out?
a. B b. A c. C d. all of these
88. Jevon was talking with his doctor about the side effects of his medication. He talked about having dry mouth and then immediately began talking
about cottonmouth snakes and jungle safaris and how hiking was good for your health but that Barack Obama was in better shape than George
Bush. Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia is evident in the case of Jevon?
a. Tangentiality b. Flight of ideas
c. Derailment d. Ideas of reference
89. Peter had just experienced severe motor vehicle accident. Since then he started to avoid anything that resembles the appearance of a motor
vehicle. He also exhibited emotional and behavioral symptoms that have led to extreme sadness and significant impairment in functioning for the
past 3 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. PTSD
b. Specific Phobia
c. Adjustment Disorder
d. Acute Stress Disorder
90. The following statements are TRUE about Hypomania, point the exception.
a. There is noticeable behavioral change among people with hypomania and impairment is marked.
b. In hypomania, a person might may feel unusually charged with energy and show a heightened level of activity and an inflated sense of self-
esteem, and may be more alert, restless, and irritable than usual.
c. Hypomania exhibits by people who have bipolar II disorder
d. Hypomania is less severe than Mania
91. Which of the following would be least likely true about Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder?
a. Tendency to hoard
b. Preoccupied with rules, details, & organization
c. Reluctant to delegate
d. With true obsessions/compulsions
92. According to behavioral theories, how do paraphilias develop?

a. Paraphilic behaviors develop primarily when a child observes and then models his or her parents' sexual behaviors.
b. Paraphilia develops when the person is rewarded by others for engaging in paraphilic behaviors and punished for engaging in
"normal" sexual behaviors.
c. The paraphilic object and a person's usual sexual partner must be paired for the person to develop sexual arousal to the
paraphilic object.
d. A chance pairing of some paraphilic object and sexual arousal leads the person to develop a classically conditioned sexual response
to the paraphilic object.
93. Psychodynamic theorists believe that women with _____ are overidentified with their mothers and unconsciously equate having sex
as a rejection of their mothers.
a. anorgasmia.
b. sexual aversion disorder.
c. female sexual arousal disorder.
d. vaginismus.
94. All of the following are associated with conduct and oppositional defiant disorder except:
a. Lower levels of adrenaline.
b. ADHD.
c. Maternal exposure to toxins during pregnancy.
d. Living in a rural area.
95. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most consistently implicated in ADHD?

a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Glutamate
96. The three essential features of oppositional defiant disorder are negative mood, defiance or argumentative behavior and ______.
a. vindictiveness
b. destruction of property
c. impulsive aggression
d. emotional outburst
97. David, 8-yr old child underwent a neuropsychological testing and the test results show that there are several areas in the brain that
are considered overgrown. David is more likely to have
a. Conduct disorder
b. Intellectual Development Disorder
c. ADHD
d. Autism Spectrum Disorder
98. Diana is a ninth grade teenager with a beautiful physique and long blonde hair, but refuses to go to parties and social dances,
thinking that others will label her as unfashionable, weirdo, or nerd. With this fear, at most times she stays inside her room, and
sometimes feel like not going to school. Which of the following comorbidities best explain her condition?
a. Social Anxiety Disorder & Agoraphobia
b. Social Anxiety Disorder & Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder & Agoraphobia
d. Social Anxiety Disorder & Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
99. Which of the following would least likely be considered to reflect a deficit in executive functioning?
a. interpreting the proverb, "People who live in glass houses shouldn't throw stones" to mean, "People don't want their windows broken"
b. failing to recognize objects or people
c. difficulty planning how to carry out a sequence of actions
d. trouble stopping oneself from engaging in a behavior
100. Panic attack is an abrupt surge of intense fear or discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes. Can it occur from a calm state?
a. No, it needs the individual to be anxious first to complete the abrupt surge
b. No, it only comes from an emotionally aroused stimuli to reach a peak
c. Yes, because it is uncued, therefore may surge unexpectedly even when relaxed
d. Yes, because it can reflect real-time worries and anxieties
INDUSTRIAL/ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY
Prepared and Screened by:
Prof. Yvette Camantiles, RPm
1. This is a branch of psychology that involves the bad that they will lose money later on. What type
analysis of jobs, recruitment, selection, of dilemma is Gerald having?
compensation, training, and performance a) Type A
evaluation. b) Type B
a) Industrial Psychology c) Type AB
b) Organizational Psychology d) Type O
c) Industrial/Organizational Psychology 7. Coulson is tasked with monitoring and interviewing
d) Personnel Psychology employees. He writes the task that they are doing,
2. Which of the following statements fall under the the manner in which they are doing it, and the
study of human factors? machines and tools that they use. He also asks the
a) Determining which employee to promote or employees what requirements are needed to do
remove the job. What is he doing?
b) Arranging the layout of the office for maximum a) Task analysis
efficiency b) Job evaluation
c) Giving surveys to employees to determine c) Performance Evaluation
their attitude towards the current d) Job analysis
administration 8. Which of the following will not result from what
d) Creating a counseling program for the Coulson is doing?
employees a) Training Program
3. He is considered the Father of Industrial b) Recruitment Ad
Psychology. c) Employee Compensation
a) Walter Dill Scott d) NOTA
b) Henry Ford 9. Which of the following statements is an example of
c) Hugo Munsterberg the Peter Principle?
d) Frederick Taylor a) Marshall knows he’s a good rapper but is
4. Who were the pioneer/s of using scientific afraid of being the greatest. On stage, he
principles to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue chokes and vomits the spaghetti his mom
by studying the motions of workers? made him.
a) Lillian and Frank Gilbreth b) Stan is an excellent public relations manager.
b) Henry Ford However, when he gets promoted to be a
c) Frederick Taylor private assistant, he gets easily frustrated and
d) Elton Mayo and colleagues performs poorly.
5. These are references that contain the latest c) Em knows that his boss, Dre, doesn’t believe
developments and research studies in an industry, in him. This affects him emotionally and he
which are read and written by professionals and performs poorly as a result.
experts. d) ‘Shady’ and ‘Slim’ always hype each other up
a) Journals before going on stage. They perform better
b) Trade Magazines when they are together rather than separate.
c) Bridge Publications 10. Kelly is a sharpshooter for the military. Before
d) Industry Tabloids doing a job, his visual perception, visual acuity,
6. Gerald is a supplier of ice cream machines to fast and hand-eye coordination were determined first.
food chains like Wackdonald’s and Jellybee. He What competencies are these?
does not mention to his clients that his products a) Abilities
become slow and defective within 3 years of use. b) Skills
He wants to avoid losing clients even if he feels c) Physical Adeptness
d) General Requirements
1
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying,
recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.
11. Flanagan and his students developed this job a) The right to privacy is a basic human right and
analysis method to determine successful and must be upheld at all times.
unsuccessful job performance. b) Valentina had no previous knowledge of the
a) JCI company’s intentions. They had failed to
b) TTA communicate their safety procedures to the
c) CIT employees.
d) ONET c) The company has the right to do these
12. Which of the following situations is not an example procedures without prior notice since they
of internal pay equity? have sovereignty over their employees.
a) May is paid more than Mae since she has d) It is not possible to file a case against her
been with the company longer. employers since Valentina’s office and
b) Denise and Denis are paid the same but computer are owned by the company.
Denis demands more since he works the 17. Which of the following is NOT a reason why
night shift companies use Blind box ads?
c) Anne and Ann work at different companies a) Prestigious companies who are hiring want to
and have different salaries although they avoid the massive influx of applicants who
have the same tasks. want to work for them despite being
d) Gail works for the finance department and is unqualified.
paid higher than Gale who works for b) Companies that have bad reputations do not
housekeeping. want their potential applicants to be
13. The issue of comparable worth is seen in which of discouraged.
the following? c) Companies use these to promote ‘Costumers
a) Finn finds it unfair that Poe is given bigger to Employees’ wherein ads are posted in
opportunities simply because he is white. places where they are most visible.
What Finn doesn’t know is that Poe has d) Companies want to avoid the hassle and
better qualifications. drama from a current employee finding out that
b) Leah advocates for transparency and open they will be replaced through a recruitment ad
communication. She knows that there are for his/her position.
problems with how funds are handled. 18. What is TRUE about employee referrals?
c) Han is the oldest worker in his cruise ship but a) It is one of the most inefficient ways to recruit
is given the hardest work to do. employees.
d) Rey and Ben are both engineers. Ben is b) It may lead to an imbalance in the racial and
always chosen as project head even if Rey is ethnic make-up of a company.
as competent. c) The success of a referred employee cannot be
14. Peter has filed a complaint against OSCORP. An predicted.
arbiter decided to side with OSCORP upon the d) The incentives gained are the biggest and
issue. Peter is unable to pursue his case due to the primary motivators in making employee
nature of the decision of the arbiter. What decision referrals.
was made? 19. Which is the best method for evaluating the
a) Absolute Arbitration effectiveness of a recruitment method?
b) Binding Arbitration a) Determining the cost per applicant
c) Non-binding Arbitration b) Determining the cost per qualified applicant
d) Despotic Arbitration c) Determining the number of applicants
15. Stewie is the vice president of an advertising attracted
company. He is perverted and biased since he d) Determining the number of successful
gives promotions to employees who grant him applicants
sexual favors. This is called? 20. What is the difference between a Realistic Job
a) Hostile Environment Preview (RJP) and an Expectation-Lowering
b) Sexual Harassment Procedure (ELP)?
c) Quid Pro Quo a) An ELP is a variation of the RJP that focuses
d) Abuse of Power on giving realistic descriptions of a job’s
16. Valentina accused her company of invading her particulars.
privacy. There were security cameras installed in b) An RJP is a variation of the ELP that focuses
her office without her knowledge. Her work email on work in general. It aims to promote longer
was also being monitored. If she were to file a tenure and higher job satisfaction.
case, on what grounds would her arguments be
valid?
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c) An ELP focuses on expectations about work in c) Validity, reliability, selection ratio
general. It does not dwell on a particular job or d) Validity, number of employees hired/year,
task. average tenure of employees
d) An RJP is most effective when given at the 27. Which result is NOT adverse impact?
beginning of the recruitment process, while the a) Poca, a Native American, was not hired
ELP is better delivered during the selection because she did not meet the job’s minimum
process. requirements.
21. A company was sued for negligent hiring by one of b) Briar was removed from her job as an opera
their clients after an employee stole cash and singer at the London Theater due to rising
jewelry. The company had done a thorough tensions between the UK and Russia, her
background and reference check before hiring the home country.
employee and found nothing suspicious. Which of c) A university in the United States did not hire
the following is TRUE? Zel and her fellow applicants who did not
a) The client is justified in suing the company speak English.
since the employee was under their d) Cindy, a Caucasian, was considered over
jurisdiction. Tiana, a black woman, by a hospital with
b) The client is justified in suing the company mostly white employees.
since they did not do enough to ensure the 28. Susan, Peter, and Edmund scored the highest
integrity and moral character of the people during the selection process. The recruiter submits
they hire. their profiles to the HR director, who makes the
c) The client is not justified in suing the company hiring decisions. What kind of selection technique
since it should be the employee who should be is this?
sued. a) Passing Scores
d) The client is not justified in suing the company b) Top-Down
since all the procedures they had done gave c) Rule of Three
them no reason not to hire the person. d) Multiple cut-off
22. This is a widely-used group cognitive-ability test 29. This selection technique is a compromise between
that is administered in more or less 12 min. top-down hiring and passing scores. It attempts to
a) Wonderlic Personnel Test hire the top test scorers while still allowing some
b) Wonderlic Personality Test flexibility for affirmative action.
c) Siena Reasoning Test a) Compensatory Approach
d) Basic Cognitive Reasoning Test b) Banding
23. This selection technique simulates job tasks c) Multiple hurdles
wherein applicants have to sort information into d) Rule of Three
those already completed and those to be handled. 30. Which of the following is FALSE?
a) Simulation a) High performers evaluate their peers more
b) Business Games strictly than low performers.
c) Work Sample b) Employees tend to react worse to negative
d) In-basket feedback from peers than from experts.
24. The employees’ test scores are correlated with c) Peer ratings are fairly reliable only when the
their performance appraisals and tenure in the raters are similar to and well acquainted with
company. What kind of validity is established? the colleagues they are rating.
a) Internal Consistency d) Peer-ratings are the most common type of
b) Criterion performance appraisals.
c) Convergent 31. This approach for performance appraisals focuses
d) Content on attributes such as employee honesty, courtesy,
25. These were designed to determine the percentage and assertiveness.
of future employees who will become successful if a) Competency-focused
a particular test is used. b) Trait-focused
a) Utility Formula c) Character-focused
b) Lawshe Tables d) Contextual-focused
c) Taylor-Russel Tables 32. I. Forced-choice distribution is an example of an
d) Expectancy charts objective employee comparison method.
26. What are the three variables needed in using the II. In using the paired comparisons method for
answer to no. 25? evaluating 6 employees, there will be 15 pairs.
a) Validity, selection ratio, base rate III. When measuring performance using quality of
b) Validity, test scores, base rate work, errors are considered.
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IV. The graphic rating scale is the most common a) I and IV are FALSE
tool used in rating performance. b) Only II is TRUE
a) I an IV are FALSE c) Only III is TRUE
b) I,II and III are TRUE d) II, III and IV are FALSE
c) II, III and IV are TRUE e) I, II and III are TRUE
d) II and IV are FALSE 39. This is an incentive method wherein employees
e) All are TRUE attend training to improve a skill that they need to
33. Diana is about to rate Caitlyn. Although Diana get a promotion or a pay raise.
observes that Caitlyn is not a good worker, she still a) Competency-based pay
decides to rate her highly since the previous rater b) Skill-based pay
did the same. What error is being committed? c) Experience-based pay
a) Halo Error d) Knowledge-based pay
b) Leniency Error 40. Reviewing seriously two weeks before the board
c) Assimilation Error examination is called?
d) Reference Error a) Distributed practice
34. This method of communicating appraisal results b) Aggregated practice
starts with telling employees what they had done c) Massed practice
poorly, then marketing ways on how they can d) Bravery
improve. 41. First respondents are trained in CPR using
a) Feedback sandwich simulated emergencies and dummies. This trains
b) Tell and Sell them for actual events when CPR is needed. What
c) Negative-positive training method is used?
d) Collaborative a) Behavior Modeling
35. Companies are allowed to fire employees at any b) Role Play
time because of the employee-at-will doctrine. In c) Programmed Instruction
what situation would this be invalid? d) NOTA
a) If the employee has no contract with the 42. During training, the manager shows the trainees
company. how to deal with customer complaints, after which
b) If the company is in the private sector the trainees take turns in doing the exercise. What
c) If an employee has refused to violate the ethics training method is used?
of his profession for the company a) Behavior Modeling
d) If the employee is still in the probationary b) Role Play
period c) Programmed Instruction
36. Developed by Latham and Wexley, it is a d) NOTA
sophisticated method for measuring the frequency 43. What training method employs self-paced learning
of desired behaviors. where information is presented in small chunks?
a) BARS a) Behavior Modeling
b) BOS b) Role Play
c) Critical-incidents c) Programmed Instruction
d) Forced-choice d) NOTA
37. This is defined as the systematic acquisition of 44. A company wants to use an interactive e-learning
skills, rules, concepts, or attitudes that result in training method. What method should they use?
improved performance a) Webinars
a) Training b) Webcasts
b) Development c) Simulations
c) Socialization d) Assessment Centers
d) Team Building 45. This is commonly used to train non-managerial
38. I. Task analysis is the first step in a Training Needs employees. It allows for lateral transfers within the
Analysis (TNA) company and is effective in ensuring that tasks of
II. Organizational analysis looks at the goals absent employees are accomplished.
company wants to achieve with training its a) Apprentice Training
employees b) Backlog Training
III. Job Analysis is most relevant in the last stage c) Cross Training
of TNA d) Coaching
IV. Person Analysis determines whether the 46. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
company is able to fund the training of its
employees.
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a) In overlearning, time and effort is spent in 53. In Herzberg’s Two Factor theory, job-elements that
studying information, but retention is not result from but do not involve the job itself belong
lengthened. to what category?
b) The more similar training environments are to a) Hygiene factors/ Job context
actual work environment increases the b) Hygiene factors/ Job content
effectivity of the training c) Motivators/ Job context
c) Transfer of training increases when the ‘big d) Motivators/ Job content
picture’ and basic principles are taught rather 54. What is NOT a component of motivation potential?
than just specific tasks or techniques a) Task Significance
d) It is better to train employees in as many b) Autonomy
different situations as possible. c) Task Identity
47. This is the lowest and most common method of d) NOTA
evaluating a training method. 55. Despite its popularity, Abraham Maslow’s needs
a) Employee Learning theory has weaknesses and limitations. Which is
b) Employee Reactions NOT one of them?
c) Business Impact a) He proposed too many levels of needs
d) Return of Investments b) Contrary to Maslow’s theory, not everyone
48. This method of evaluating a training program progresses up the needs hierarchy.
involves considering the cost of the program and c) Even if lower needs are satisfied, higher needs
the revenue that was generated as a result of it. do not necessarily become the most important
a) Employee Learning in reality.
b) Employee Reactions d) It does not give recommendations as to how
c) Business Impact employee motivation can be increased
d) Return of Investments 56. What is the major difference between Maslow’s
49. Scarlet is discouraged because her boss does not and Aldefer’s theories besides the number of
believe that she cannot establish a successful levels proposed?
partnership with another prestigious company. If a) Aldefer’s needs cannot be over satisfied
this causes her to perform poorly, what would the b) Maslow concentrated on different kinds of
effect be called? motivators while Aldefer focused on needs
a) Golem effect directly relevant to the industrial setting
b) Golum effect c) Aldefer’s theory allows for individuals to skip
c) Pygmalion effect levels.
d) Galatea effect d) Maslow’s theory is structured into a hierarchy
50. Despite what her boss thinks, Scarlet is confident whereas Aldefer’s wasn’t.
in her abilities. If she performs well as a result, 57. Jordan likes to take on challenging tasks. She
what would the effect be called? dislikes being grouped with other people and
a) Self-fulfilling prefers to have control over the decision-making
b) Golem effect process. What need is she high and low in?
c) Pygmalion effect a) Affiliation; Achievement
d) Galatea effect b) Achievement ; Affiliation
51. Scarlet agrees with her boss and believes that she c) Power; Affiliation
is not good enough to do the job, which causes her d) Power; Achievement
to perform poorly, what would the effect be called? 58. Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Golem effect a) Hygiene factors are necessary and sufficient
b) Self-fulfilling for job satisfaction and motivation.
c) Pygmalion effect b) Recognition programs and awards satisfy self-
d) Galatea effect actualization needs
52. This theory on employee motivation postulates that c) The Job Characteristics theory states that a
there is a correlation between self-esteem and meaningful job and good feedback are
motivation. What is the theory and who is its sufficient to increase employee motivation
proponent? d) Realistic job previews reduce applicant pools
a) Self-generated motivation; Nox and Lucis but also decrease the chance of hiring
b) Intrinsic motivation theory; Deci and Ryan employees who will become dissatisfied in the
c) Consistency Theory; Korman future
d) ERG; Aldefer 59. I. ‘Improve teamwork’ and ‘Work as quick as
possible’ are examples of motivating goals
according to the goal setting theory.
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II. Allowing employees to participate in the process e) Continuous
of setting goals improves their motivation. 66. A manager rewards high-performing employees by
III. Difficult and challenging goals will result to letting them serve less crowded areas of the
greater performance only if employees accept restaurant during rush hour. This method of giving
them incentives is called?
IV. Feedback accompanying goal attainment a) Shaping
encourages better job performance b) Peter Principle
a) I and III are FALSE c) Premack Principle
b) Only IV is TRUE d) Merit performance
c) III and IV are TRUE 67. Banksy is paid for every piece of artwork he
d) II,III and IV are TRUE creates in a day. What incentive plan is used?
60. This is a questionnaire developed by Hackman a) Merit pay
and Oldham that measures five core job b) Earnings-at-risk
characteristics. c) Base Rates
a) Position Analysis Questionnaire d) Gainsharing
b) Job Elements Survey 68. What is NOT a group incentive plan?
c) Job Diagnostic Survey a) Profit sharing
d) Job Characteristics Survey b) Merit pay
61. According to the Equity theory, people c) Gainsharing
experiencing underpayment inequity will least d) Stock options
likely ? 69. Bob has been working for Krab Burgers for 10
a) Look for other people to compare themselves years. He enjoys his work and gets along with his
to. coworkers. He believes in the goals of his
b) Increase the effort and input that they put into company and doesn’t mind working overtime. The
their work. type of commitment that Bob has is?
c) Leave their company altogether a) Normative
d) Confront their superiors and ask for a pay raise b) Collective
62. According to Huseman et al., there are individual c) Continuance
differences in the perception of equity. Some d) Affective
people are more affected by imbalances more than 70. What does the individual difference theory
others. This is called? postulate?
a) Equity sensitivity a) Individuals have different criteria and
b) Equity moderator thresholds for staying in or leaving their jobs.
c) Equity ratio b) Individuals have varied tendencies across
d) Equity expectancy situations to enjoy, be satisfied and motivated
63. This a cognitive theory of motivation that states with their work.
that workers weigh expected costs and benefits c) Individuals are motivated by different types of
before they are motivated to take action. management styles or incentive pays.
a) Expectancy theory d) NOTA
b) Equity theory 71. Potpot always hears his mentor, Brigildo, complain
c) Theory Y of motivation about problems in the company. Eventually, Potpot
d) Job Elements theory begins to share the sentiments of his mentor. What
64. “If I go to the moon, I will get promoted,” Howard theory would explain the situation?
thinks. What component of Vroom’s theory is a) Equity theory
manifested? b) Transactional Theory
a) Expectancy c) Social Information Processing Theory
b) Instrumentality d) Peer Influence Theory
c) Valence 72. Colin and Firth are competing for a supervisory
d) Value position.They had rigorous tests and assessments.
65. For two weeks straight, a manager makes sure to Colin eventually got the job, but Firth complained
praise employees whenever they perform well. that Colin was hired simply because he could talk
What reinforcement schedule is the manager louder. What is Firth’s complaint about?
using? a) Procedural injustice
a) Fixed Interval b) Distributive injustice
b) Fixed Ratio c) Interactional injustice
c) Variable Interval d) Decisive injustice
d) Variable Ratio
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73. Sasha works at the assembly section of an c) Single-strand grapevine
automobile company. To make him motivated and d) Cluster grapevine
satisfied, his manager allows him to decide what 81. Unfortunately, Kacey did not hear about the
car to work.This makes him feel trusted. What is message since she was at a conference. What is
shown? Kacey called?
a) Job Rotation a) Dead-ender
b) Job Enlargement b) Isolate
c) Job Enrichment c) Liason
d) Job Crafting d) Outlier
74. If Sasha’s manager allowed him to assemble both 82. Hugh,Cam and Julia are talking about an alleged
the car exterior and interior instead of deciding decision of the management to remove some
what car to work on, then this would show? employees. This conversation is called?
a) Job Rotation a) Rumors
b) Job Enlargement b) Gossip
c) Job Enrichment c) Grapevine
d) Job Crafting d) Casual
75. What is the most common tool used in determining 83. Daniel and Luce are conversing inside the office.
job satisfaction that measures five dimensions The chatter of the group behind them and the
such as pay, coworkers and supervision? music coming from the speakers above are called?
a) Job Elements Survey a) Interference
b) Job Descriptive Index b) Media
c) Faces Scale c) Noise
d) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire d) Paralanguage
76. Negative information is hardly communicated 84. This is the space that is 18 inches to 4 feet away
inside a company due to the discomfort and stress from a person that is usually reserved for friends
felt when delivering such messages. Rosen and and acquaintances.
Tesser called this phenomenon as? a) Social Distance Zone
a) Minimize Unpleasant Messages Effect b) Personal Distance Zone
b) Communication Avoidance Effect c) Intimacy Zone
c) Serial Communication d) Public Distance Zone
d) Censorship Effect 85. Nora likes to wear monochromatic clothes. Jev
77. This a neutral entity that mediates communication likes to hang his diplomas and awards in his office..
between employees and management. V uses purple highlighters exclusively. These are
a) Arbiter examples of people using?
b) Message Man a) Paralanguage
c) Middle Man b) Nonverbal Cues
d) Ombudsperson c) Artifacts
78. Which is NOT a channel of downward d) Identifiers
communication? 86. Linda is overwhelmed by the constant ringing of
a) Intranet the office telephone. She tries to deal with all the
b) Bulletin Boards messages but eventually commits mistakes.
c) Focus groups Becky, on the other hand, deals with the constant
d) Policy Manuals ringing by simply ignoring the calls until she is
79. This is a type of office design where a wide hallway available to take them. What techniques are Linda
runs through different departments. It encourages and Becky using to overcome communication
employee interaction and communication but overload?
reduces privacy. a) Omission and Cueing
a) Bullpen b) Cueing and Escape
b) Free-form c) Error and Escape
c) Uniform d) Omission and Error
d) Boulevard 87. This type of listening involves taking note of only
80. Denis passes a message to Barry, who passes it the main and important ideas behind any
to Hedwig, who passes it to Kevin. This continues communication.
until everyone in the office has received the a) Technical Listening
message. What kind of communication is this? b) Nonconforming Listening
a) Probability grapevine c) Inclusive Listening
b) Rumors d) Deductive Listening
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88. Farrah doesn’t really agree with the politician’s a) Norming
views on the economy, so she tunes his voice out b) Storming
and scrolls through social media on her phone. c) Performing
This type of listening is called? d) Forming
a) Nonconforming Listening e) Adjusting
b) Stylistic Listening 94. Jessie is soft-spoken and timid. He doesn’t social
c) Empathetic Listening events and keeps to himself. He was tasked to
d) Exclusive Listening endorse the company to 500 graduating students
89. Which of the following is FALSE? at a university. According to research on audience
a) People high in conscientiousness, effect, what would happen?
extraversion and openness, and low in a) Nothing, the audience effect was disproved.
neuroticism are more likely to emerge as b) There would be an increase in Jessie’s
leaders. performance
b) More intelligent people are more likely to c) There would be a decrease in Jessie’s
emerge as leaders than less intelligent people. performance
c) High self-monitors emerge as leaders more d) It would depend on the composition of the
often than low self-monitors. audience and the length of his exposure on
d) NOTA stage
90. Caleb knows that being project manager will 95. In a group, this is the person who always asks
increase his standing in the company, thus he questions or disagrees with the group.
volunteers for the position. What type of leadership a) Know-it-all
motivation is he showing? b) Devil’s Advocate
a) Non-calculative motivation c) Nuisance
b) Calculative motivation d) Sniper
c) Affective Identity motivation 96. What are the stages in Gabora’s Five Stages of
d) Social-normative motivation Creative Process?
91. There are three candidates vying to be the next a) Preparation, Incubation, Illumination,
CEO of Missswiss. Leo is the most experienced Evaluation, Implementation
and has the highest educational attainment in the b) Preparation, Illumination, Incubation,
company. Sisa is well-loved among her colleagues Evaluation, Implementation
and the majority of the employees are rooting for c) Preparation, Incubation, Illumination,
her. Felix is the vice president of the company and Implementation, Evaluation
would naturally take the position if not for the other d) Preparation, Illumination, Incubation,
two. Leadership through power would tell us that? Implementation, Evaluation
a) Although Sisa is well-liked; she would not be 97. This is the stage in organizational change wherein
able to secure the loyalty and respect of her employees start ditching their old ways and habits
followers. and start accepting the change.
b) Leo will influence others using legitimate a) Adaptation
power because he is the most ‘legitimate’ or b) Internalization
qualified person for the job. c) Unloading
c) Although Felix is the vice president, his power d) Discarding
to persuade his employees would still be weak 98. These are employees who only change when
d) Leo has the best chance of being CEO and necessary but do not instigate or welcome change
Sisa has the worst. openly.
92. Among the following statements, which is NOT a a) Reluctant Changers
criterion to be called a group? b) Change Resisters
a) Events that affect a member also affect all the c) Change Analysts
other group members. d) Change Skeptics
b) Groups provide rewards to its members 99. I. Continued exposure to high levels of noise can
c) Group members share a singular and common raise the blood pressure of employees doing
goal complicated tasks.
d) Group members see themselves as individuals II. People can eventually adapt to extreme
that have common goals temperatures and perform tasks close to how they
e) NOTA would perform in normal conditions
93. In the development of a team, this is the stage III. Cynicism towards the organization and
where team members begin to ease conflict and colleagues is a behavioral symptom of burnout.
accept their roles and responsibilities.
8
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
IV. Employees involved in workplace violence are
typically men between the age of 20 and 50 whose
self-esteem is tied to their job.
a) II and IV are FALSE
b) I, III and IV are TRUE
c) All are FALSE
d) All are TRUE
100. Who is Jean-Marc Gaspard Itard?
a) He was a patriarch of special education; he
proposed that an enriched environment could
compensate for developmental delays.
b) He was a follower of eugenics who believed
that people with mental disorders should be
prevented from reproducing.
c) He differentiated organizational development
from training.
d) He was a proponent of the sacred cow hunt in
organizational development.
9
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
RGO Review for Psychology
BATAAN * CAMANAVA * PAMPANGA * QUEZON CITY * TARLAC
I/O Psychology
Dr. Hazel Martinez
1. The difference between training and development is that: A. Reward power.

a. training focuses on present jobs while development B. Knowledge power.
focuses on future jobs, as C. Reference power.
well. D. Legitimate power.
b. training tends to be individually focused while
development includes a work 9. Compensable factors are central to:
group or organizational dimension. a. selection validity
c. training emphasizes current skill requirements while b. training needs analysis
development includes future c. job evaluation
needs as well. d. career planning
d. all of the above are true.
10. An employee can be said to have been `constructively
2. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment. dismissed’ where…?
I. Searching A. He is forced to resign because of the conduct of his

II. Evaluation and control employer.
III. Planning B. He resigns because he has got a new job.
IV. Screening C. He resigns because he wants to move to Paris.
V. Strategy development D. He resigns because he decides to train as a lawyer.
a. III, II, I, V, IV 11. A method of creating a scoring Key for Interview Answers
b. III, V, I, IV, II by creating a list of all possible answers to each question,
c. IV, V, III, I, II have subject-matter experts (SMEs) rate the
d. II, I, IV, V, III favorableness of each answer, and then use these ratings
to serve as benchmarks for each point on a five-point
3. This common skill-based pay plan reward employees for scale.
learning specialized skills A. Right/Wrong,
a) Vertical skill plan B. Typical-Answer Approach
b) Horizontal skill plan C. Key-Issues Approach.
c) Depth skill plan D. Qualifier/ Disqualifier
d) Basic skill plans
12. The second step in conducting structured interview,
4. Which of the following should employers reject as a potential A. Ask the interview process
selection technique, B. Provide information about the job and the
based on current evidence? organization
a. work sample C. Answer any questions the applicant might have
b. structured interview D. Set the agenda for the interview by explaining the
c. aptitude test process
d. graphology
13. In writing resume based on Anderson’s averaging versus
5. Administrative purposes of performance appraisals include adding model of impression formation, which implies that;
all of the following except A. If information is relevant to your desired career, it
a. compensation decisions probably should be included.
b. appraising performance of company stock options B. Activity quality is more important than quantity,
c. providing a paper trail for possible legal action list only your best.
d. promotion, transfer and layoff decisions C. Information must also be positive
D. Organizes jobs based on the skills required to
6. Performance appraisals are grouped into three main perform them rather than the order in which they
functions. These are: were worked
A. Trait, Behavioral, Legal
B. Trait, Behavioral, Results 14. The following statements are the reasons for Using
C. Results, Behavioral, Administrative References and Recommendations Except;
D. Results, Administrative, Trait A. Discovering New Information About the Applicant
B. Predicting present performance
7. When dealing with his employees, Tyron sets aside time to C. Confirming Details on a Résumé
find out what kind of rewards each of his employees prefers D. Checking for discipline problems
and strives to offer these in the work environment He is likely
following 15. It is also called also called upward feedback, wherein
A) equity theory. ratings can be difficult to obtain because employees fear a
B) goal-setting theory. backlash if they unfavorably rate their supervisor.
C) expectancy theory. a) Supervisors
D) ERG theory. b) Peers
c) Subordinates
8. Mr. X is the only person in the company with expertise in the d) Self-appraisal.
E-Commerce field. This source of power is called:
b) E- Learning
16. An organization require its managers to “ get away” for a c) Learning Management System
few days and practice in a training program designed to d) Programmed Instruction
increase their effectiveness as managers. Following the
training program, managers often feel the training program 24. Which of the following programs frequently uses simulation
was worthwhile; however, it is not uncommon for these to train employees?
managers to return to their operations and perform their A. Apprenticeship training
old habits while ignoring the recently presented principles. B. On-the-job training
This scenario is related to the issue of: C. Job instruction training
a. Transfer of learning D. Vestibule training
b. Massed practice
c. Distributed practice 25. Job enlargement is:
d. Feedback A. A strategy involving combining a series of tasks into one
assignment that is more challenging.
17. In evaluating the success of a recruitment campaign , B. A strategy that emphasizes motivating the worker
what is the cost per applicant, If the newspaper ad cost through the job itself.
3,000 pesos and yielded 10 applicants C. A strategy involving moving employees from one job to
a. 100 another.
b. 200 D. None of the above.
c. 300
d. 400 26. The following statements are strategies to motivate
employees to attend training EXCEPT;
18. With _________ the question is, “Who will be able to a) Make the training interesting.
perform at an acceptable level in the future?” With b) Relate the training to an employee’s immediate job.
_________, the question becomes ,“Who will perform the c) Reduce the stress associated with attending.
best in the future?”. d) Decrease employee buy-in.
a. Top-down Selection/ Passing scores
b. Rule of Three/ Banding 27. This is a problem with Unstructured interview that I f a
c. Banding/ Top Down Selection terrible applicant precedes an average applicant, the interview
d. Passing score/ Top- down Selection score for the average applicant will be higher than if no
applicant or a very qualified applicant preceded her.
19. Susan, Peter and Edmund scored the highest during the A. Primacy Effect
selection process. The recruiter now submits their profiles B. Negative Information bias
to the HR director who makes the hiring decisions. What C. Non verbal cues
kind of selection technique is this? D. Contrast Effect
A. Passing Scores
28. Which of the following is a process of attracting individuals
B. Top-Down
on timely basis, in sufficient numbers and with appropriate
C. Rule of Three
qualifications, to apply for jobs with an organization?
D. Multiple cutoff
20. How many paired comparison you can make out of 20 a) Selection
person? b) Recruitment
c) Staffing
a) 180 d) Enrollment
b) 200
c) 190 29 The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on
d) 100 _______ and supervision.
21. Which of the following is correct? a. Training

a. All workers, including independent contractors, can b. Recruitment
unionize. c. Work quality
b. All workers who are not independent contractors d. None of the above
can unionize.
c. All employees can unionize.
d. Most non-managerial employees can unionize. 30. XYZ Hotel Group and Management is a 5-star hotel in the
metro and the management prefers On-the-Job training in
22. ABC consulting firm provides training, hiring and their restaurant. The Management believes that this type of
compensation services that give services to more than 50 training is more beneficial Except:
companies in NCR. ABC’s clients are using this to provide a. Trainees are learning while actually working on the job
which human resource function. makes the workers acquire skills and learn new
a. Labor Relations technique
b. Outsourcing b. It is cost-efficient on the part of both the trainee and the
c. Personnel Management Management
d. Recruitment c. It compromise with time in training compared to
classroom type
23. It is also referred to as self- directed learning, utilizes d. Management can quickly assess the trainees strengths
books,manuals or computers to break down content into and weakness
sequences for employees to learn at their own pace.
a) Just-in- time training
31. The following are advantages of internal recruiting except 40. The following items are found in a certain HR form: When
______ the September payroll was late Liza worked extra hours to
a. It motivates existing employees to perform. complete it. She worked with speed and efficiency and made
b. It sustains organizational knowledge no errors. The company is using which appraisal method?
c. It provides strong force for cultural change a. Management by Objective
d. It prevents the ripple effect b. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales
c. Behavioral Observation Scale
32. This is considered as an advantage in external recruiting. d. Critical Incidents
a. It stifles creativity and new ideas in organization
b. It can enhance organizational vitality and innovation 41. “On going process of evaluating & managing both the
c. It may damage existing employees motivation. behavior & outcomes in the workplace” is known as;
d. It sustains the existing organizational culture a) Training & development
b) Performance appraisal
33. A recruitment technique which may result in c) Compensation management
discrimination ,due to homogeneity of the organization’s d) Job analysis
existing employee.
a. Direct applicant 42. Which training technique assigns a new employee with an
b. Advertisement experienced employee who is told to "show the kid the ropes?"
c. Word of Mouth a. Job rotation
d. Supervisory Recommendation b. Coaching
c. Apprenticeship training
34. This is characteristics of a job preview. d. Person analysis
a. Similar to internship
b. Description of actual nature of a job and its working 43. Which of the following is correct about problems with
conditions coaching?
c. Opportunity for a job applicant to perform a job in a) good workers are necessarily good trainers
advance of accepting it b) good trainers are necessarily good workers
d. A probationary work period c) while the expert shows the new employee how to do
the job, his own production improve.
35. Which of the following may cause “ripple effect”? d) while the expert shows the new employee how to do
a. Employees referrals the job, his own production declines.
b. Promoting employees within the organization
c. Recruiting and hiring entry level employees 44. On Monday, Robert was in charge of the Housekeeping
d. Cross- training of existing employees department, on Tuesday he is in the food and beverage
service, on Wednesday he works as the product controller, on
36. This is the initial step in the process of selection. Thursday he is in front desk, and Fridays he is in Kitchen
a. Providing list of applicants who are qualified Department . And on Saturday he works at the consultancy
b. Evaluation of applicant qualification firm. His employer is using _______.
c. Gathering of information about the list of qualified a. Job Enrichment
applicants b. Job Enlargement
d. Deciding who fits the job c. Job Specialization
d. Job Rotation
37. To ensure that a firm’s training and development
investment has the maximum impact possible, a strategic and 45. Willy recognizes that equity theory will play a large role in
systematic approach should be used that involves Four (4) how he organizes and develops his new program. Individual
phases to training EXCEPT; employees have a tendency to compare themselves with others
a) Organizational analysis and have a series of options available to them if they perceive
b) Need Assessment based on the firm’s competitive that some sort of inequity exists. Which of the following is a
objectives typical employee response to a perceived inequity?
c) Program Design A) Employees will exert more effort.
d) Implementation B) Employees will tend to keep their outcomes unchanged.
C) Employees will maintain their perceptions of others.
38. An internal recruitment in an organization is commonly D) Employees will have a tendency to quit their jobs.
done through
a. Referrals 46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of job
b. Union boards rotation?
c. Job posting A. Allows for lateral transfer
d. Walk in applicants B. Allows for greater staffing flexibility
C. Can increase job satisfaction
39. An exit interview is required in an organization D. Expands employees' levels of responsibility
a. When a worker is terminated for a cause
b. When an employee brings a wrongful termination 47. Robert appeared to be a manager oriented towards
c. When a layoff closes down the entire office traditional ways of doing things. He was convinced that
individuals needed to be monitored carefully with respect
d. When an employee leaves the firm voluntarily
to their jobs and the tasks they accomplished. It is likely
that Robert
A) was a Theory Y manager. 55. The following are the primary responsibilities of a human
B) emphasized ERG theory. resource department except_____
C) was a Theory X manager. a. designing discipline and grievance system.
D) was a Theory Z manager. b. conducting annual performance appraisals review
sessions.
48. ABC Inc. is well known as a company that uses a human c. designing basic compensation and benefits system
relations approach; the company nurtures creativity and self- d. recruiting potential new employees
control in its employees. This company was following
A) Theory X. 56. In stages of Group development, This stage is
B) Theory Z. characterized by Listening, establishment & maintenance of
C) Theory Y. team norms, beginning of work together, clarity of leadership
D) Theory T. a) Norming
b) Performing
49. Zandro was a manager who believed that, in general, c) Adjourning
people disliked work; he believed people had to be forced or d) Forming
threatened with punishment to motivate them to work. Zandro
believes in which of the following management theories? 57.Personnel under this area are often better known as the
A) Theory Z organization’s internal change agents. These change agents,
B) Theory X or organizational development specialists, help organization
C) Theory Y
members cope:
D) Theory Q
a. Employment
50. The theory which asserts that motivation depends upon the b. Training and Development
strength of a tendency to act in a certain way, which in turn c. Compensation and Benefits
depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be d. Employee Relations
followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that
outcome to the individual, is called 58. Commissions are given as incentives to sales people who
A) Herzberg's dual-factor theory. sell goods or services more than the required quota. This
B) McClelland's three needs theory. motivate employees to produce more and cover more
C) Vroom's expectancy theory. territories
D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. Payment by Result
E) Alderfer's ERG theory. b. Performance Related Pay
c. Profit Related Pay
51. Michael is a type of manager who is concerned primarily d. Skill based Pay
with accomplishing goals and objectives and concentrates on
the task itself. His behavioral style is called: 59. The following are points to consider to better understand
a. authoritarian. and implement reward and recognition programs except for
b. democratic. one:
c. task oriented. a. Specific feedback about what the workers did right
d. people oriented. makes recognition more meaningful.
b. Praise works well because it enhance our self esteem
if the praise is genuine)
52. In Feldman’s model of organization socialization , activities c. Employee input into what type or rewards and
like performing job tasks, adjusting to culture is in the stage of; recognition are valued is useful.
a. Anticipatory Socialization d. It is useful to assess the educational background prior
b. Encounter/Accomodation to employee’s recognition
c. Behavioral Outcomes
d. Change and Acquisition
60. Hygiene and motivational factors differ based on the
53. A Radiologist in taking a chest X-ray correctly positions the following premises except for one;
patient ( manipulation) , gives special instruction (speech) and a. Hygiene factors include supervision, work policies,
checks the proper distance of the X-ray tube form the patient and working conditions while Motivational factors
(discrimination). The types of skills and knowledge and /or by include a sense of achievement
reviewing job descriptions. This information helps trainers select b. Hygiene factors can prevent dissatisfaction -
program content and choose the most effective training Motivational factors may lead to satisfaction
methods. What need assessment is used? c. Hygiene factors do not lead to satisfaction -
a) Organizational Analysis Motivational factors may lead to satisfaction
b) Task analysis d. Motivational and Hygiene factors lead to
c) Person Analysis dissatisfaction.
d) Training Need Analysis
61. Theory X is ____, whereas needs Theory Y is ____.
54. The following are human resource department’s specific a. Authoritarian Management; Participative
responsibility except______ Management
a. maintaining data and records to show legal b. managing individuals motivated by higher order
compliance needs; managing individuals motivated by lower
b. initial screening of applicants for entry level positions order needs
c. final hiring decisions for managerial position. c. management that assumes employees are happy;
d. dealing with organized labor. management that assumes employees
responsible A. The forced-choice method
d. expected to dislike their work; expected to avoid B. The forced-distribution method
responsibility C. The paired-comparison method
D. The ranking method
62. It suggests that individuals will focus on lower level needs
when higher level needs are unattainable. 70. Celia is the best nurse in the hospital, though this person is
known to be excellent in taking care all her patients, it is not
a. Expectancy Theory known what type of head nurse she will be. This illustrates
b. Psychoanalysis a. Promotion the best employee from the most similar jobs is
c. Two Factor Theory expected and will be successful
d. Frustration-Regression principle b. Promotion on the basis of good performance does not
guarantee that the individual will do well as supervisor
63. Karen was unhappy with the pay increase that she recently c. Promoting the person who performs the best in the job and
received. She didn't think that the money value was fair relative the most similar job
to her performance, and she was even more upset that some of d. Promotion is accomplished by those employees who have
reach their level of competencies
her coworkers received a greater increase than she did. This is
an example of 71. Rona always motivates her teammates in Sales team and
A) distributive justice. she is always willing to help out in accomplishing tasks and
B) procedural justice. provide technical expertise to those who are in need. The role
C) interactional justice. is referred to as:
D) equitable justice. a. Knowledge Contributor
b. Process Observer
c. People Supporter
64. When Bryan was recently deciding between two job offers, d. Challenger
his decision came down to which offer reflected the better health
insurance, pension plan, and safe working conditions. 72. Joan have difficulty seeing their competencies accurately ,
According to Maslow, which need level is he focusing on in his may overestimate abilities; don’t mind conflict with others who
decision? are competing for power and money.
A) esteem a) Conventional
B) physiological b) Enterprising
C) safety c) Realistic
D) social d) Investigative
E) self-actualization
73. Patrick ,a staff in the human resource department, collects
and manages the many online job application that his company
65. Performance appraisal failure is due to all the following receives. He is using technology in doing which specific HR
except: process?
a. appraisals are part of continuing feedback a. Recruitment
b. manager lacks appraisal skills b. Merger and Acquisition
c. manager lacks sufficient information c. Planning
d. manager or employee does not take the appraisal d. Training
system seriously
74. This activity happens earliest in the human resource
66. ____________ refers to the relating of standards to the management process?
strategic objectives of the organization a. Training
a. Strategic relevance b. Selection
b. Criterion deficiency c. Recruitment
c. Criterion contamination d. Planning
d. Reliability
75. As HR Manager, the functions essential in carrying out
these policies and programs are determined in advance so
67. Alternative sources of performance appraisals include all that there is a ready procedure that can help anticipate
except: difficulties, thus facilitating the accomplishment of
a. subordinates objectives.
b. peers a. Operative
c. customers
b. Planning
d. vendors
c. Coordinating
68. Appraisal interviews are categorized as all the following d. Controlling
except:
a. behavioral 76. The following are the steps in conducting Job Analysis
b. problem solving except for one:
c. tell-and-listen a. Identify the Tasks performed
d. tell-and-sell
b. Determine the Salary
69. Which of the following performance appraisal methods c. Write the Task Statements
does NOT require the supervisor to compare the performances d. Determining the Essential Knowledge, Skills,
of subordinate employees in the unit? Ability and other Characteristics
77. Ms. Lorna is tasked to conduct a job analysis for the whole 83. The following are examples of contextual performance
organization. In data gathering, she obtained information include Except:
A. Being responsible and friendly
through issuing a well-designed and explained JOB
B. volunteering for additional work
ANALYSIS QUESTIONNAIRE to employees and reviewed C. being a good organizational citizen
by Immediate Superior. Here are sample of questionnaire D. cooperating with coworkers
related to Job Analysis except for one ______.
a. Job Components Inventory 84. Time and motion studies focus on
b. Functional Job Analysis A) the time and effort it takes to train a new employee.
c. Job Elements Inventory B) the number of physical motions required to complete
a work-related task.
d. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
C) the ways in which machines can be built to make
humans safer and more efficient.
78. Ms. Karla administered a psychological test to evaluate the D) ways to avoid injury in tasks that require repetitive
cognitive ability of the applicant. She may utilize the motion.
following test except for one:
a. Otis self Administering Test of Mental Ability 85. The field of study that combines engineering with
b. Culture Fair Intelligence Test psychology to create products that are safe and efficient for
people to use is called
c. Raven’s Progressive matrices Test
A) scientific management.
d. Occupational Aptitude Survey and Interest B) Hawthorne studies.
C) human relations.
79. After 4 weeks, Peter received a good news from HR D) ergonomics.
Manager that he was considered for the position he applied
in QRS Company as Quality Control Engineer. In this 86. Jamie is the director of recruiting for a large corporation.
Which of the following is a warning signal that her efforts are
instance, who made the decision to hire the Peter?
not effective.
a. HR Manager a) Recruiting costs have decreased 2% over the last 10
b. Board of Directors years.
c. Quality Director - the department head who have b) 65% of resumes were received through the Internet
requested to processed job opening last year.
d. Chief Finance Officer c) The applicant pool in increasingly diverse.
d) Fewer qualified applicants are applying for jobs.
80. To reduce an organization’s liability for sexual harassment,
87. In the ATD competency model, a_____ plans, obtains, and
Jacobs and Kearns advise
monitors the effective delivery of learning and performance
the following Except:
solutions to support the business.
A. Complaints must be kept confidential to protect
a. project manager
both the accused and the accuser.
b. learning strategist
B. Both the accused and the accuser must be given
c. business partner
due process, and care must be taken to avoid an
d.knowledge worker
initial assumption of guilt.
Answer: a Difficulty: medium
C. The organization’s policy must encourage victims
to come forward and afford them multiple
88. Which of the following training programs is mandated by
channels or sources through which to file their
law?
complaint.
A. Orientation training program
D. Action must be taken to protect the accuser and
B. Leadership development program
the accused during the time the complaint is
C. Safety training program
being investigated.
D. Cross culture training program
81. An approach in performance appraisal instruments
89. Perceived obligations employees believe they owe their
considered not a good idea because they provide poor
company and the company owes them.
feedback and thus will not result in employee development
A. Psychological contract
and growth.
B. Interaction Justice
A. Task Focused Dimension
C. Distributive justice
B. Trait Focused Dimension D. Procedural justice
C. Competency Focused Dimension
D. Contextual Focused Dimension 90. Which justice deals with fairness in what individuals receive
for their efforts, compensation for time and effort put into jobs,
82. The advantage of this approach is that because supervisors and how employees feel they are treated by their mangers?
are concentrating on this dimension that occur together and A. Procedural justice
can thus visualize an employee’s performance, it is often B. Interaction Justice
easier to evaluate performance than with the other C. Work/life balance
dimensions. D. Distributive justice
A. Task Focused Dimension
B. Trait Focused Dimension 91. Which justice is achieved when the determination that the
C. Competency Focused Dimension process used to make decisions, rewards, and resolution of
D. Contextual Focused Dimension disputes is viewed as fair?
A. Distributive justice 99. XYZ industries sent 15 employees to a training program on
B. Interaction Justice customer relations. Three weeks later, the company noticed a
C. Procedural justice 23% increased in sales. Using the evaluation criterion of
D. None of the above __________, it appears that the training worked.
92. Documentation of performance is important for the following a. Employee reactions

reasons Except; b. Application of training
a) Documentation forces a subordinates to focus on c. Employee training
employee behaviors rather than traits d. Business impact
b) Documentation provides examples to use when
reviewing performance ratings with employees 100. “My supervisor instructed me to take on the project, and
c) Documentation helps an organization defend against with no leniency on the deadline, I had days to complete a
legal actions project that originally should have taken several weeks.”. This
d) Documentation provides examples to use when STAR approach in behavioral interview question focus on
reviewing performance ratings with employees. a) Situation
b) Task
93. With___________, only the dimensions physically located c) Action
nearest a particular dimension on the rating scale are affected . d) Result
With ________, all dimensions are affected by an overall
impression of the employee.
a) Halo Error/ Proximity Error
b) Contrast Error/ Recency Error
c) Recency Error/ Contrast Error
d) Proximity Error/ Halo Error
94. The following statement are the reasons that an employee

can be legally terminated Except;
a) Upholding of violation rules
b) Reduction in force
c) Probationary period,
d) Inability to perform,
95. . Which of the following is the prescribed sequence of the

processes necessary for a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)?
A. Person Analysis > Task Analysis > Organizational

analysis
B. Task Analysis > Person Analysis > Organizational
Analysis
C. Organizational Analysis >Task Analysis > Person Analysis
D. Organizational Analysis >Person Analysis > Task Analysis
96.. A behavioral methods approach to performance appraisal

wherein an unusual event that denotes superior or inferior
employee performance in some part of the job.
a) Behavioral Checklist Method
b) Critical Incident Method
c) Behavioral Anchored Rating Scales ( BARS)
d) Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS)
97. Carlo is learning to drive a car, it would be much easier for

him to watch someone do it and then try it to himself than to
read instructional guide book or listen to a lecture . This is an
example of which principle of learning applied to training?
a) Active practice
b) Meaningful of presentation
c) Modeling
d) Individual Differences
98. It has been found out in most cases that spacing out the
training will result in faster learning and longer retention. This is
the principle of ______, While factors that determine the
effectiveness of training is the amount of time devoted to
practice in one session, This principle is related to ______.
a) Whole Learning ; Part learning
b) Active Practice ; Repetition
c) Massed Learning ; Distributed Learning
d) Feedback ; Reinforcement
Prof. Diana Jane D. Badua, RPm
1. The goal of IO Psychology is to 8. The foundation of all human resource activities

a) Increase the productivity of employees a) Job Analysis
b) Uplift the well-being of employees b) Job Description
c) Examine factors that affect the people in an c) Recruitment and Selection
organization d) Training and Development
d) Both a and b 9. SMEs refer to
2. The “I” in I/O Psychology is related to all of the a) Job incumbents
following except: b) Supervisors
a) recruitment c) Customers
b) training d) All of the above
c) motivation 10. A job analysis method in which a group of job experts
d) termination identifies the objectives and standards to be met by
3. Often conduct surveys of employee attitudes to get the ideal worker
ideas about what employees’ views regarding various a) Peter Principle
concerns of the organization b) Ammerman Technique
a) personnel psychologist c) Personpower Planning
b) organizational psychologist d) Job Participation
c) IO researchist 11. KSAO stands for
d) human factors analyst a) Knowledge, skills, abilities, other qualifications
4. All except one are related to ergonomics. Find the b) Knowledgability, skillfulness, agreeableness,
exception. openness
a) workplace design c) Knowledge, standards, agreement, operations
b) fatigue and stress d) Knowledge, skills, abilities, other characteristics
c) human-machine interaction 12. Which of the following statement of competencies
d) none of the above refers to a Skill?
5. IO Psychology is said to have made its first big impact a) Willing to be trained for 3 months
during World War I. This may be attributed to b) With certificate in Psychological First Aid training
a) Testing and selection of recruited soldiers c) Can speak English language fluently
b) Study of human-machine interaction between d) Graduate of Bachelor of Science in Psychology
soldiers and equipment 13. Which of the following statement of competencies
c) Construction of Army Alpha and Beta tests refers to an Ability:
d) Increase of researches related to the field a) At least 1year experience in encoding
6. Credited for their work on motion studies which b) Computer literate
helped improve productivity and reduce fatigue c) Proficient in MS Excel
among employees d) Pleasing personality
a) B.F. Skinner 14. The first step in conducting job analysis
b) The Gilbreths a) Identifying tasks performed
c) The Simpsons b) Writing Task statements
d) Walter Dill Scott c) Determining essential KSAOs
7. An ambiguous situation in which individuals know d) Selecting tests to tap KSAO
what is right but choose the solution that is most 15. Questionnaire used for Job analysis that reveals
advantageous to themselves information about worker activities
a) Type II Dilemma a) JSP
b) Rationalizing Dilemma b) JAI
c) Type A Dilemma c) AET
d) None of the above d) PIC
1
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
16. According to research conducted by Levine et al., this 25. A method in which job vacancy notices are posted in
job analysis method gives the best overall job picture places where customers or current employees are
a) Critical Incident Technique likely to see them
b) Job elements reports a) Strategic Posting Method
c) Task analysis b) Blind Box Method
d) PAQ c) Point-of-Purchase Method
17. This serves as stepping stone to identify employees' d) Ads-on-Point Method
need for training or counselling 26. Recruiters that specialize in placing applicants in
a) Personpower Planning high-paying jobs
b) Job Evaluation a) Headhunters
c) Performance Appraisal b) Executive Search firms
d) None of the above c) Both a and b
18. Promoting employees until they eventually reach their d) None of the above
highest level of incompetence 27. The manner and timing at which Realistic Job
a) Personpower Threshold Preview must be provided
b) Peter Principle a) Oral; at the time of the job offer
c) Competency Ladder b) Oral; early in the recruitment process
d) Performance Plateau c) Written; at the time of the job offer
19. This pertains to the process of determining the worth d) Written; early in the recruitment process
of a job 28. A variation of RJP that lowers an applicant's
a) Job Classification expectations about work and expectations in general
b) Job Compensation a) EJP
c) Job Equity b) ELP
d) Job Evaluation c) RLP
20. Determining _______ involves comparing jobs within d) RJP-V
an organization to ensure that the people in jobs 29. From a legal standpoint, _____ interviews are viewed
worth the most money are paid accordingly more favorably by the courts than _____ interviews
a) Intraorganizational Equity a) structured; unstructured
b) Compensable job factors b) unstructured; structured
c) Internal pay equity c) Highly structured; slightly structured
d) Compensatory factors d) Slightly structured; highly structured
21. A method of resolving conflict in which a neutral third 30. The first step in creating a structured interview
party is asked to help the two parties reach an a) Conducting job analysis
agreement b) Checking of job description
a) Grievance system c) Creating a pool of questions
b) Mediation d) Creating a scoring key
c) Arbitration 31. A type of structured interview question in which
d) Internal Resolution applicants are given a situation and asked how they
22. Which of the following is not a criterium to be met for would handle it
a minimum classification to be considered as a) Skill-level determiner
justifiable? b) Situational questions
a) needed to perform the job c) Patterned-behavior description
b) formally identified and communicated prior to the d) Clarifier questions
start of the selection process 32. Method of scoring interview answers that provides
c) consistently applied points for each part of an answer that matches the
d) None of the above scoring key
23. This refers to the process of attracting people with the a) Benchmark Answers
right qualifications to apply for the job b) Typical-answer approach
a) Recruitment c) Key issues approach
b) Selection d) Pm issues approach
c) Advertising 33. The process of confirming the accuracy of resume
d) Marketing and job application information is called
24. According to studies, what is the effect of utilizing ads a) Background Check
containing realistic information about the job b) Reference check
a) Increase in applicant attraction c) Reference
b) Increase in applicant ambivalence d) Legit Check
c) Decrease in probability of applying
d) All are possible effects
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34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using b) Be as personable and as specific as possible
references and letters of recommendation in c) Include a statement about the individual who
predicting performance? received the job
a) Avoiding resume fraud d) Include the name of a contact person
b) Reveals discipline problems 43. The extent to which a test found valid for a job in one
c) Involvement of extraneous factors in decision- location is valid for the same job in a different location
making a) Generalizability
d) Both B and C b) Validity generalization
35. Used primarily for occupations in which applicants are c) Synthetic Validity
not expected to know how to perform the job at the d) Range Validity
time of hire 44. This is based on the assumption that tests that predict
a) Job knowledge test a particular component of one job should also predict
b) Ability test performance of the same component for a different
c) Intelligence test job
d) Perceptual ability test a) Generalizability
36. The drawbacks of cognitive ability test include the b) Validity generalization
following, except c) Synthetic Validity
a) High levels of adverse impact d) Range Validity
b) Lacks face validity 45. An advantage of using face valid tests in recruitment
c) More likely to face legal challenge a) Increased chances of legal challenge
d) Not cost-effective b) Increased chance that an applicant will accept a
37. This measure of ability is advised for applicants for job offer
such jobs as carpenter, post office clerk, and truck c) Decreased chances of faking
driver d) Increases test-taking demotivation
a) Cognitive 46. Designed to estimate the percentage of future
b) Perceptual employees who will be successful on the job if an
c) Psychomotor organization uses a particular test
d) Physical a) Taylor-Russell Tables
38. Job applicant is asked to go through jobrelated b) Lawshe Tables
paperworks and respond to them as if he/she were c) BCG formula
actually on the job d) Utility Formula
a) Work samples 47. A selection strategy in which applicants must meet or
b) Assessment center exceed the passing score on more than one selection
c) Job simulation test
d) In-basket Technique a) Top-Down Selection
39. An assessment exercise designed to demonstrate b) Passing Score
applicant's attributes in terms of creativity and c) Multiple-Hurdle approach
decision-making d) None of the above
a) Business Games 48. Current customers who have been enlisted by a
b) Leaderless Group Discussions company to periodically evaluate the service they
c) Simulation receive
d) Logic quizzes a) Subordinate feedback
40. Which personality trait is said to be the best predictor b) Secret shoppers
of performance in most occupations? c) Shopper appraisers
a) Extraversion d) Customer feedback
b) Agreeableness 49. A performance appraisal method in which a
c) Openness predetermined percentage of employees are placed
d) Conscientiousness into a number of performance categories
41. Type of aggressive bias which leads a person to a) Rank and yank
believe that evil people deserve to have bad things b) Paired comparisons
happen to them c) Rank order
a) Derogation of target d) Distributed force
b) Victimization 50. Occurs when a rating made on one dimension affects
c) Hostile attribution the rating made on the dimension that immediately
d) Social discounting follows it on the rating scale
42. The following are guidelines in writing and sending a) Halo error
rejection letters except b) Contrast error
a) Don't send the rejection letter immediately c) Proximity Error
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d) Recency effect 59. A method of evaluating the effectiveness of training
51. According to Karl & Hancock, it is best to schedule a by determining whether the goals of the training were
termination meeting on met
a) Monday / Tuesday a) Business Impact
b) Wednesday b) Return of Investment
c) Thursday / Friday c) Comparative Check
d) Saturday d) Application of Training
52. The proper order of training needs assessment 60. The personality dimension most highly correlated with
process number of promotions received
a) Person Analysis > Task Analysis > a) Conscientiousness
Organizational Analysis b) Openness
b) Task Analysis > Person Analysis > c) Extraversion
Organizational Analysis d) Stability
c) Organizational Analysis > Person Analysis > 61. Employees with high self-esteem actually desire to
Task Analysis perform at high levels while employees with low self-
d) Organizational analysis > Task Analysis > Person esteem desire to perform at low levels. This is an
Analysis assumption of which theory?
53. The process of determining the employees who need a) Self-efficacy
training and determining the areas in which each b) Consistency
individual needs to be trained c) Self-fulfilling prophecy
a) Training Needs Assessment d) Golem effect
b) Person Analysis 62. The idea here is that if an employee feels that his/her
c) Individual Needs Assessment supervisor has confidence in him/her, self-esteem will
d) Task Analysis increase along with performance
54. A training technique in which employees act out a) Galatea Effect
simulated roles to practice interpersonal skills b) Rosenthal Effect
a) Role-Play c) Golem Effect
b) Simulation d) Self-fulfilling prophecy
c) Business Games 63. Employees who have a strong need for ____ are
d) Behavior Modelling motivated by jobs that are challenging and over which
55. Training program usually utilized in crafts and trades they have some control
such as construction, manufacturing, and plumbing a) Success
a) On-the-job training b) Power
b) Pass-through program c) Achievement
c) Cross-training d) Affiliation
d) Apprentice training 64. According to this theory, jobs will have motivation
56. A formal method of coaching in which excellent potential if they allow for skill variety, task
employees are temporarily assigned in the training identification, task significance, autonomy, and
department feedback
a) Cross-training a) Job Characteristics Theory
b) Pass-through program b) ERG Theory
c) Corporate coaching program c) Five-Factor Theory
d) Job Rotation d) Theory X of Motivation
57. Practicing a task even after it has been mastered in 65. These are job-related elements that result from but do
order to retain learning not involve the job itself
a) Overlearning a) Hygiene factors
b) Transfer of training b) Motivators
c) Training overload c) Existence factors
d) Continual retention d) Both a and b
58. Employee reactions towards training programs 66. The theory that goals must be specific, measurable,
appear to have a ___ correlation with learning and attainable, relevant, and timebound is attributed to
application of training a) Edwin Locke
a) Significant b) Clayton Paul Aldefer
b) Positive c) Frederick Herzberg
c) Weak d) Vroom
d) Moderate 67. Employees who possess the need for power tend to
be the most effective leaders and managers. This is
attributed to the theory proposed by
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a) McClelland 77. Which of the following is an example of upward
b) McGregor communication?
c) Herzberg a) Intranet
d) Aldefer b) Suggestion box
68. According to Vroom, this refers to the extent to which c) Memo
an employee values the reward or consequence d) Grapevines
a) Instrumentality 78. The MUM effect is one of the several serious
b) Expectancy drawbacks of what kind of organizational
c) Valence communication?
d) Attraction a) Serial communication
69. Which of the following is not a tendency of underpaid b) Email & Voicemail
employees c) Open-door policy
a) Might work harder d) Attitude survey
b) Inflate the value of the rewards they receive 79. Gossip usually serves to entertain and supply social
c) Bargain for more rewards information. Rumor tends to help make sense of
d) Becomes less team-oriented ambiguous information and manage potential threats.
70. Reinforcing an employee with something that on the a) Only the first statement is true
surface does not appear to be a reinforcer b) Only the second statement is true
a) Peter Principle c) Both statements are true
b) Grandma’s rule d) Both statements are false
c) Rule of thumb 80. A person who makes eye contact while speaking but
d) None of the above not while listening may be perceived as
71. An incentive plan in which employees receive pay a) Powerful and dominant
bonuses based on performance appraisal scores b) Ambivalent and uncertain
a) Pay for performance c) Uninterested and inattentive
b) Merit pay d) Confident and agreeable
c) Gainsharing 81. The listening style of a person who pays attention
d) Evaluation bonus mainly to the way in which words are spoken
72. The extent to which an employee identifies with and is a) Technical
involved with an organization b) Empathic
a) Job Satisfaction c) Stylistic
b) Job Commitment d) Auditory
c) Organizational Commitment 82. An individual with this listening style is most likely to
d) Organizational Satisfaction pay attention to nonverbal cues
73. Type of commitment mostly related to the concept of a) Technical
utang na loob b) Empathic
a) Affective c) Stylistic
b) Continuance d) Auditory
c) Normative 83. The desire to lead out of a sense of duty or
d) Indebtance responsibility
74. Studies show that people who are unhappy in life and a) Affective identity
unhappy on their jobs will most likely b) Noncalculative
a) Modify their lifestyle c) Calculative
b) Modify their jobs d) Social Normative
c) Jump from one job to another 84. Research demonstrates that high performance
d) Stay on their jobs managers have a leadership motive pattern, which is
75. The perceived fairness of the decisions made in the a high need for _____ and a low need for ______
organization a) power; affiliation
a) Organizational b) success; power
b) Distributive c) achievement; power
c) Procedural d) affiliation; achievement
d) Interactional 85. Type of leadership characterized by high person-
76. This implies that an employee is given more tasks to orientation but low task-orientation
do at one time a) Impoverished
a) Job rotation b) Theory X
b) Job enlargement c) Team
c) Job enhancement d) Country Club
d) Job enrichment
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86. This person goes along with the group, is friendly to c) Control; perfection
everyone, and never challenges anyone’s ideas d) Being liked; attention
a) Middle-of-the-road 95. This type of difficult people tends to use sarcasm to
b) High-likability floater criticize and humiliate others
c) Narcissist a) Tank
d) Most-Preferred Coworker (MPC) b) Sniper
87. Which leadership style would work best in a climate of c) Grenade
crisis? d) Friendly Sniper
a) Magnetic 96. The first step in organizational change, in which
b) Affiliation employees look for practices and policies that waste
c) Coercive time and are counterproductive
d) Tactical a) Sacred Cow Hunt
88. Type of leadership that suits individuals who show b) Paper Cow Hunt
willingness or confidence but lacks ability to perform c) Speed Cow Hunt
a) Directing d) Meeting Cow Hunt
b) Coaching 97. This stage in change process involves convincing
c) Supporting employees and other stakeholders that the current
d) Delegating situation is unacceptable and change is necessary
89. Power that individuals have because they are well- a) Defense
liked by their colleagues / subordinates b) Discarding
a) Expert c) Unfreezing
b) Legitimate d) Refreezing
c) Reward 98. A type of decision-making strategy within an
d) Referent organization in which leaders obtain necessary
90. Social impact theory states that the addition of a new information from their subordinates and then make
member in a group had the greatest effect on group their own decision
behavior when the size of the group is a) Autocratic I
a) Large b) Autocratic II
b) Small c) Consultative I
c) Either too large or too small d) Group I
d) Moderate 99. Stress that results in negative energy and decreases
91. This theory hypothesizes that an individual group in performance and health
member may lower his work performance to match a) Challenge-related stress
those of other members b) Hindrance-related stress
a) Free-rider effect c) Eustress
b) Sucker effect d) None of the above
c) Social loafing 100. The extent to which an employee’s roles and
d) Distracting expectations are unclear
92. During this stage team members have either a) Role Confusion
accepted their initial roles or made adjustments to b) Role Uncertainty
roles for which they are better suited c) Role Overload
a) Forming d) Role Ambiguity
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Performing
93. This refers to the psychological and behavioral
reaction to a perception that another person is
keeping you from reaching your goal, taking away
your right to behave in a particular way, or violating
the expectancies of a relationship
a) Conflict
b) Dysfunction
c) Dispute
d) Ambiguity
94. People with a high need for _____ are obsessed with
_______. Find the correct pair
a) Control; completion
b) Approval; appreciation
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Prof. Hazel S. Martinez, RPm
1. The difference between training and development is b) Knowledge power. d) Legitimate power.
that: 9. Compensable factors are central to:
a) training focuses on present jobs while a) selection validity
development focuses on future jobs, as well. b) training needs analysis
b) training tends to be individually focused while c) job evaluation
development includes a work group or d) career planning
organizational dimension. 10. An employee can be said to have been
c) training emphasizes current skill requirements `constructively dismissed’ where…?
while development includes future needs as well. a) He is forced to resign because of the conduct of
d) all of the above are true. his employer.
2. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment. b) He resigns because he has got a new job.
I. Searching c) He resigns because he wants to move to Paris.
II. Evaluation and control d) He resigns because he decides to train as a
III. Planning lawyer.
IV. Screening 11. A method of creating a scoring Key for Interview
V. Strategy development Answers by creating a list of all possible answers to
a) III, II, I, V, IV each question, have subject-matter experts (SMEs)
b) III, V, I, IV, II rate the favorableness of each answer, and then use
c) IV, V, III, I, II these ratings to serve as benchmarks for each point
d) II, I, IV, V, III on a five-point scale.
3. This common skill-based pay plan reward employees a) Right/Wrong,
for learning specialized skills b) Typical-Answer Approach
a) Vertical skill plan c) Key-Issues Approach.
b) Horizontal skill plan d) Qualifier/ Disqualifier
c) Depth skill plan 12. The second step in conducting structured interview,
d) Basic skill plans a) Ask the interview process
4. Which of the following should employers reject as a b) Provide information about the job and the
potential selection technique, based on current organization
evidence? c) Answer any questions the applicant might have
a) work sample c) aptitude test d) Set the agenda for the interview by explaining the
b) structured interview d) graphology process
5. Administrative purposes of performance appraisals 13. In writing resume based on Anderson’s averaging
include all of the following except versus adding model of impression formation, which
a) compensation decisions implies that;
b) appraising performance of company stock a) If information is relevant to your desired career, it
options probably should be included.
c) providing a paper trail for possible legal action b) Activity quality is more important than quantity,
d) promotion, transfer and layoff decisions list only your best.
6. Performance appraisals are grouped into three main c) Information must also be positive
functions. These are: d) Organizes jobs based on the skills required to
a) Trait, Behavioral, Legal perform them rather than the order in which they
b) Trait, Behavioral, Results were worked
c) Results, Behavioral, Administrative 14. The following statements are the reasons for Using
d) Results, Administrative, Trait References and Recommendations Except;
7. When dealing with his employees, Tyron sets aside a) Discovering New Information About the Applicant
time to find out what kind of rewards each of his b) Predicting present performance
employees prefers and strives to offer these in the c) Confirming Details on a Résumé
work environment He is likely following d) Checking for discipline problems
a) equity theory.c) expectancy theory. 15. It is also called also called upward feedback, wherein
b) goal-setting theory. d) ERG theory. ratings can be difficult to obtain because employees
8. Mr. X is the only person in the company with fear a backlash if they unfavorably rate their
expertise in the E-Commerce field. This source of supervisor.
power is called: a) Supervisors c) Subordinates
a) Reward power. c) Reference power. b) Peers d) Self-appraisal.
16. An organization require its managers to “ get away” b) A strategy that emphasizes motivating the worker
for a few days and practice in a training program through the job itself.
designed to increase their effectiveness as c) A strategy involving moving employees from one
managers. Following the training program, managers job to another.
often feel the training program was worthwhile; d) None of the above.
however, it is not uncommon for these managers to 26. The following statements are strategies to motivate
return to their operations and perform their old habits employees to attend training EXCEPT;
while ignoring the recently presented principles. This a) Make the training interesting.
scenario is related to the issue of: b) Relate the training to an employee’s immediate
a) Transfer of learning c) Distributed practice job.
b) Massed practice d) Feedback c) Reduce the stress associated with attending.
17. In evaluating the success of a recruitment campaign , d) Decrease employee buy-in.
what is the cost per applicant, If the newspaper ad 27. This is a problem with Unstructured interview that If a
cost 3,000 pesos and yielded 10 applicants terrible applicant precedes an average applicant, the
a) 100 c) 300 interview score for the average applicant will be
b) 200 d) 400 higher than if no applicant or a very qualified
18. With _________ the question is, “Who will be able to applicant preceded her.
perform at an acceptable level in the future?” With a) Primacy Effect
_________, the question becomes ,“Who will perform b) Negative Information bias
the best in the future?”. c) Non verbal cues
a) Top-down Selection/ Passing scores d) Contrast Effect
b) Rule of Three/ Banding 28. Which of the following is a process of attracting
c) Banding/ Top Down Selection individuals on timely basis, in sufficient numbers and
d) Passing score/ Top- down Selection with appropriate qualifications, to apply for jobs with
19. Irene, Gary and Joan scored the highest during the an organization?
selection process. The recruiter now submits their a) Selection c) Staffing
profiles to the HR director who makes the hiring b) Recruitment d) Enrollment
decisions. What kind of selection technique is this? 29. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on
a) Passing Scores c) Rule of Three _______ and supervision.
b) Top-Down d) Multiple cutoff a) Training c) Work quality
20. How many paired comparison you can make out of b) Recruitment d) None of the above
20 person? 30. XYZ Hotel Group and Management is a 5-star hotel
a) 180 c) 190 in the metro and the management prefers On-the-Job
b) 200 d) 100 training in their restaurant. The Management believes
21. Which of the following is correct? that this type of training is more beneficial Except:
a) All workers, including independent contractors, a) Trainees are learning while actually working on
can unionize. the job makes the workers acquire skills and
b) All workers who are not independent contractors learn new technique
can unionize. b) It is cost-efficient on the part of both the trainee
c) All employees can unionize. and the Management
d) Most non-managerial employees can unionize. c) It compromise with time in training compared to
22. ABC consulting firm provides training, hiring and classroom type
compensation services that give services to more d) Management can quickly assess the trainees
than 50 companies in NCR. ABC’s clients are using strengths and weakness
this to provide which human resource function. 31. The following are advantages of internal recruiting
a) Labor Relations except ______
b) Outsourcing a) It motivates existing employees to perform.
c) Personnel Management b) It sustains organizational knowledge
d) Recruitment c) It provides strong force for cultural change
23. It is also referred to as self- directed learning, utilizes d) It prevents the ripple effect
books,manuals or computers to break down content 32. This is considered as an advantage in external
into sequences for employees to learn at their own recruiting.
pace. a) It stifles creativity and new ideas in organization
a) Just-in- time training b) It can enhance organizational vitality and
b) E- Learning innovation
c) Learning Management System c) It may damage existing employees motivation.
d) Programmed Instruction d) It sustains the existing organizational culture
24. Which of the following programs frequently uses 33. A recruitment technique which may result in
simulation to train employees? discrimination ,due to homogeneity of the
a) Apprenticeship training organization’s existing employee.
b) On-the-job training a) Direct applicant
c) Job instruction training b) Advertisement
d) Vestibule training c) Word of Mouth
25. Job enlargement is: d) Supervisory Recommendation
a) A strategy involving combining a series of tasks 34. This is characteristics of a job preview.
into one assignment that is more challenging. a) Similar to internship
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b) Description of actual nature of a job and its food and beverage service, on Wednesday he works
working conditions as the product controller, on Thursday he is in front
c) Opportunity for a job applicant to perform a job in desk, and Fridays he is in Kitchen Department . And
advance of accepting it on Saturday he works at the consultancy firm. His
d) A probationary work period employer is using _______.
35. Which of the following may cause “ripple effect”? a) Job Enrichment c) Job Specialization
a) Employees referrals b) Job Enlargement d) Job Rotation
b) Promoting employees within the organization 45. Willy recognizes that equity theory will play a large
c) Recruiting and hiring entry level employees role in how he organizes and develops his new
d) Cross- training of existing employees program. Individual employees have a tendency to
36. This is the initial step in the process of selection. compare themselves with others and have a series of
a) Providing list of applicants who are qualified options available to them if they perceive that some
b) Evaluation of applicant qualification sort of inequity exists. Which of the following is a
c) Gathering of information about the list of qualified typical employee response to a perceived inequity?
applicants a) Employees will exert more effort.
d) Deciding who fits the job b) Employees will tend to keep their outcomes
37. To ensure that a firm’s training and development unchanged.
investment has the maximum impact possible, a c) Employees will maintain their perceptions of
strategic and systematic approach should be used others.
that involves Four (4) phases to training EXCEPT; d) Employees will have a tendency to quit their jobs.
a) Organizational analysis 46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of job
b) Need Assessment based on the firm’s rotation?
competitive objectives a) Allows for lateral transfer
c) Program Design b) Allows for greater staffing flexibility
d) Implementation c) Can increase job satisfaction
38. An internal recruitment in an organization is d) Expands employees' levels of responsibility
commonly done through 47. Robert appeared to be a manager oriented towards
a) Referrals c) Job posting traditional ways of doing things. He was convinced
b) Union boards d) Walk in applicants that individuals needed to be monitored carefully with
39. An exit interview is required in an organization respect to their jobs and the tasks they accomplished.
a) When a worker is terminated for a cause It is likely that Robert
b) When an employee brings a wrongful termination a) was a Theory Y manager.
c) When a layoff closes down the entire office b) emphasized ERG theory.
d) When an employee leaves the firm voluntarily c) was a Theory X manager.
40. The following items are found in a certain HR form: d) was a Theory Z manager.
When the September payroll was late Liza worked 48. ABC Inc. is well known as a company that uses a
extra hours to complete it. She worked with speed human relations approach; the company nurtures
and efficiency and made no errors. The company is creativity and self-control in its employees. This
using which appraisal method? company was following
a) Management by Objective a) Theory X. c) Theory Y.
b) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales b) Theory Z. d) Theory T.
c) Behavioral Observation Scale 49. Zandro was a manager who believed that, in general,
d) Critical Incidents people disliked work; he believed people had to be
41. “On going process of evaluating & managing both forced or threatened with punishment to motivate
the behavior & outcomes in the workplace” is known them to work. Zandro believes in which of the
as; following management theories?
a) Training & development a) Theory Z c) Theory Y
b) Performance appraisal b) Theory X d) Theory Q
c) Compensation management 50. The theory which asserts that motivation depends
d) Job analysis upon the strength of a tendency to act in a certain
42. Which training technique assigns a new employee way, which in turn depends on the strength of an
with an experienced employee who is told to "show expectation that the act will be followed by a given
the kid the ropes?" outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to
a) Job rotation the individual, is called
b) Coaching a) Herzberg's dual-factor theory.
c) Apprenticeship training b) McClelland's three needs theory.
d) Person analysis c) Vroom's expectancy theory.
43. Which of the following is correct about problems with d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
coaching? e) Alderfer's ERG theory.
a) good workers are necessarily good trainers 51. Michael is a type of manager who is concerned
b) good trainers are necessarily good workers primarily with accomplishing goals and objectives and
c) while the expert shows the new employee how to concentrates on the task itself. His behavioral style is
do the job, his own production improve. called:
d) while the expert shows the new employee how to a) authoritarian. c) task oriented.
do the job, his own production declines. b) democratic. d) people oriented.
44. On Monday, Robert was in charge of the
Housekeeping department, on Tuesday he is in the
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52. In Feldman’s model of organization socialization , d) It is useful to assess the educational background
activities like performing job tasks, adjusting to prior to employee’s recognition
culture is in the stage of; 60. Hygiene and motivational factors differ based on the
a) Anticipatory Socialization following premises except for one;
b) Encounter/Accomodation a) Hygiene factors include supervision, work
c) Behavioral Outcomes policies, and working conditions while
d) Change and Acquisition Motivational factors include a sense of
53. A Radiologist in taking a chest X-ray correctly achievement
positions the patient ( manipulation) , gives special b) Hygiene factors can prevent dissatisfaction -
instruction (speech) and checks the proper distance Motivational factors may lead to satisfaction
of the X-ray tube form the patient (discrimination). c) Hygiene factors do not lead to satisfaction -
The types of skills and knowledge and /or by Motivational factors may lead to satisfaction
reviewing job descriptions. This information helps d) Motivational and Hygiene factors lead to
trainers select program content and choose the most dissatisfaction.
effective training methods. What need assessment is 61. Theory X is ____, whereas needs Theory Y is ____.
used? a) Authoritarian Management; Participative
a) Organizational Analysis Management
b) Task analysis b) managing individuals motivated by higher order
c) Person Analysis needs; managing individuals motivated by lower
d) Training Need Analysis order needs
54. The following are human resource department’s c) management that assumes employees are
specific responsibility except______ happy; management that assumes employees
a) maintaining data and records to show legal responsible
compliance d) expected to dislike their work; expected to avoid
b) initial screening of applicants for entry level responsibility
positions 62. It suggests that individuals will focus on lower level
c) final hiring decisions for managerial position. needs when higher level needs are unattainable.
d) dealing with organized labor.
55. The following are the primary responsibilities of a a) Expectancy Theory
human resource department except_____ b) Psychoanalysis
a) designing discipline and grievance system. c) Two Factor Theory
b) conducting annual performance appraisals d) Frustration-Regression principle
review sessions. 63. 63. Karen was unhappy with the pay increase that
c) designing basic compensation and benefits she recently received. She didn't think that the money
system value was fair relative to her performance, and she
d) recruiting potential new employees was even more upset that some of her coworkers
56. In stages of Group development, This stage is received a greater increase than she did. This is an
characterized by Listening, establishment & example of
maintenance of team norms, beginning of work a) distributive justice. c) interactional justice.
together, clarity of leadership b) procedural justice. d) equitable justice.
a) Norming c) Adjourning 64. When Bryan was recently deciding between two job
b) Performing d) Forming offers, his decision came down to which offer
57. Personnel under this area are often better known as reflected the better health insurance, pension plan,
the organization’s internal change agents. These and safe working conditions. According to Maslow,
change agents, or organizational development which need level is he focusing on in his decision?
specialists, help organization members cope: a) Esteem d) social
a) Employment b) Physiological e) self-actualization
b) Training and Development c) safety
c) Compensation and Benefits 65. Performance appraisal failure is due to all the
d) Employee Relations following except:
58. Commissions are given as incentives to sales people a) appraisals are part of continuing feedback
who sell goods or services more than the required b) manager lacks appraisal skills
quota. This motivate employees to produce more and c) manager lacks sufficient information
cover more territories d) manager or employee does not take the
a) Payment by Result appraisal system seriously
b) Performance Related Pay 66. ____________ refers to the relating of standards to
c) Profit Related Pay the strategic objectives of the organization
d) Skill based Pay a) Strategic relevance
59. The following are points to consider to better b) Criterion deficiency
understand and implement reward and recognition c) Criterion contamination
programs except for one: d) Reliability
a) Specific feedback about what the workers did 67. Alternative sources of performance appraisals include
right makes recognition more meaningful. all except:
b) Praise works well because it enhance our self a) subordinates c) customers
esteem if the praise is genuine) b) peers d) vendors
c) Employee input into what type or rewards and 68. Appraisal interviews are categorized as all the
recognition are valued is useful. following except:
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a) behavioral 77. Ms. Lorna conducted a job analysis for the whole
b) problem solving organization. In data gathering, she obtained
c) tell-and-listen information through issuing a well-designed and
d) tell-and-sell explained JOB ANALYSIS QUESTIONNAIRE to
e) Bottom of Form employees and reviewed by Immediate Superior.
69. Which of the following performance appraisal Here are sample of questionnaire related to Job
methods does NOT require the supervisor to Analysis except for one ______.
compare the performances of subordinate employees a) Job Components Inventory
in the unit? b) Functional Job Analysis
a) The forced-choice method c) Job Elements Inventory
b) The forced-distribution method d) Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
c) The paired-comparison method 78. Ms. Karla administered a psychological test to
d) The ranking method evaluate the cognitive ability of the applicant. She
70. Celia is the best nurse in the hospital, though this may utilize the following test except for one:
person is known to be excellent in taking care all her a) Otis self Administering Test of Mental Ability
patients, it is not known what type of head nurse she b) Culture Fair Intelligence Test
will be. This illustrates c) Raven’s Progressive matrices Test
a) Promotion the best employee from the most d) Occupational Aptitude Survey and Interest
similar jobs is expected and will be successful 79. After 4 weeks, Peter received a good news from HR
b) Promotion on the basis of good performance Manager that he was considered for the position he
does not guarantee that the individual will do well applied in QRS Company as Quality Control
as supervisor Engineer. In this instance, who made the decision to
c) Promoting the person who performs the best in hire the Peter?
the job and the most similar job a) HR Manager
d) Promotion is accomplished by those employees b) Board of Directors
who have reach their level of competencies c) Quality Director
71. Rona always motivates her teammates in Sales team d) Chief Finance Officer
and she is always willing to help out in accomplishing 80. To reduce an organization’s liability for sexual
tasks and provide technical expertise to those who harassment, Jacobs and Kearns advise the following
are in need. The role is referred to as: Except:
a) Knowledge Contributor a) Complaints must be kept confidential to protect
b) Process Observer both the accused and the accuser.
c) People Supporter b) Both the accused and the accuser must be given
d) Challenger due process, and care must be taken to avoid an
72. Joan have difficulty seeing their competencies initial assumption of guilt.
accurately , may overestimate abilities; don’t mind c) The organization’s policy must encourage victims
conflict with others who are competing for power and to come forward and afford them multiple
money. channels or sources through which to file their
a) Conventional c) Realistic complaint.
b) Enterprising d) Investigative d) Action must be taken to protect the accuser and
73. Patrick ,a staff in the human resource department, the accused during the time the complaint is
collects and manages the many online job application being investigated.
that his company receives. He is using technology in 81. An approach in performance appraisal instruments
doing which specific HR process? considered not a good idea because they provide
a) Recruitment poor feedback and thus will not result in employee
b) Merger and Acquisition development and growth.
c) Planning a) Task Focused Dimension
d) Training b) Trait Focused Dimension
74. This activity happens earliest in the human resource c) Competency Focused Dimension
management process? d) Contextual Focused Dimension
a) Training c) Recruitment 82. The advantage of this approach is that because
b) Selection d) Planning supervisors are concentrating on this dimension that
75. As HR Manager, the functions essential in carrying occur together and can thus visualize an employee’s
out these policies and programs are determined in performance, it is often easier to evaluate
advance so that there is a ready procedure that can performance than with the other dimensions.
help anticipate difficulties, thus facilitating the a) Task Focused Dimension
accomplishment of objectives. b) Trait Focused Dimension
a) Operative c) Coordinating c) Competency Focused Dimension
b) Planning d) Controlling d) Contextual Focused Dimension
76. The following are the steps in conducting Job 83. The following are examples of contextual
Analysis except for one: performance include Except:
a) Identify the Tasks performed a) Being responsible and friendly
b) Determine the Salary b) volunteering for additional work
c) Write the Task Statements c) being a good organizational citizen
d) Determining the Essential Knowledge, Skills, d) cooperating with coworker
Ability and other Characteristics 84. Time and motion studies focus on
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a) the time and effort it takes to train a new scale are affected . With ________, all dimensions
employee. are affected by an overall impression of the
b) the number of physical motions required to employee.
complete a work-related task. a) Halo Error/ Proximity Error
c) the ways in which machines can be built to make b) Contrast Error/ Recency Error
humans safer and more efficient. c) Recency Error/ Contrast Error
d) ways to avoid injury in tasks that require d) Proximity Error/ Halo Error
repetitive motion. 94. The following statement are the reasons that an
85. The field of study that combines engineering with employee can be legally terminated Except;
psychology to create products that are safe and a) Upholding of violation rules
efficient for people to use is called b) Reduction in force
a) scientific management. c) Probationary period,
b) Hawthorne studies. d) Inability to perform,
c) human relations. 95. Which of the following is the prescribed sequence of
d) ergonomics. the processes necessary for a Training Needs
86. Jamie is the director of recruiting for a large Analysis (TNA)?
corporation. Which of the following is a warning signal a) Person Analysis > Task Analysis >
that her efforts are not effective. Organizational analysis
a) Recruiting costs have decreased 2% over the b) Task Analysis > Person Analysis >
last 10 years. Organizational Analysis
b) 65% of resumes were received through the c) Organizational Analysis >Task Analysis >
Internet last year. Person Analysis
c) The applicant pool in increasingly diverse. d) Organizational Analysis >Person Analysis >
d) Fewer qualified applicants are applying for jobs. Task Analysis
87. In the ATD competency model, a_____ plans, 96. A behavioral methods approach to performance
obtains, and monitors the effective delivery of appraisal wherein an unusual event that denotes
learning and performance solutions to support the superior or inferior employee performance in some
business. part of the job.
a) project manager a) Behavioral Checklist Method
b) learning strategist b) Critical Incident Method
c) business partner c) Behavioral Anchored Rating Scales ( BARS)
d) knowledge worker d) Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS)
88. Which of the following training programs is mandated 97. Carlo is learning to drive a car, it would be much
by law? easier for him to watch someone do it and then try it
a) Orientation training program to himself than to read instructional guide book or
b) Leadership development program listen to a lecture . This is an example of which
c) Safety training program principle of learning applied to training?
d) Cross culture training program a) Active practice
89. Perceived obligations employees believe they owe b) Meaningful of presentation
their company and the company owes them. c) Modeling
a) Psychological contract d) Individual Differences
b) Interaction Justice 98. It has been found out in most cases that spacing out
c) Distributive justice the training will result in faster learning and longer
d) Procedural justice retention. This is the principle of ______, While
90. Which justice deals with fairness in what individuals factors that determine the effectiveness of training is
receive for their efforts, compensation for time and the amount of time devoted to practice in one
effort put into jobs, and how employees feel they are session, This principle is related to ______.
treated by their mangers? a) Whole Learning ; Part learning
a) Procedural justice c) Work/life balance b) Active Practice ; Repetition
b) Interaction Justice d) Distributive justice c) Massed Learning ; Distributed Learning
91. Which justice is achieved when the determination that d) Feedback ; Reinforcement
the process used to make decisions, rewards, and 99. XYZ industries sent 15 employees to a training
resolution of disputes is viewed as fair? program on customer relations. Three weeks later,
a) Distributive justice c) Procedural justice the company noticed a 23% increased in sales. Using
b) Interaction Justice d) None of the above the evaluation criterion of __________, it appears
92. Documentation of performance is important for the that the training worked.
following reasons Except; a) Employee reactions
a) Documentation forces a subordinates to focus on b) Application of training
employee behaviors rather than traits c) Employee training
b) Documentation provides examples to use when d) Business impact
reviewing performance ratings with employees 100. “My supervisor instructed me to take on the project,
c) Documentation helps an organization defend and with no leniency on the deadline, I had days to
against legal actions complete a project that originally should have taken
d) Documentation provides examples to use when several weeks.”. This STAR approach in behavioral
reviewing performance ratings with employees. interview question focus on
93. With___________, only the dimensions physically a) Situation c) Action
located nearest a particular dimension on the rating b) Task d) Result
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ENHANCEMENT DRILL PART 2

PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT
Prof. Jose J. Pangngay, MS, RPm, RPsy
1. What does psychometric soundness of a test mean? D. Yes because if the test is published, it must be reliable to use
A. The general psychiatric health of the examiner 11. A reliability coefficient in an index of reliability that reflects the
B. Mental status of an individual during assessment ratio between
C. Technical quality of a test or other assessment tool A. The error variance and the error variance squared
D. Competence of a defendant to stand trial B. The true score variance on a test and the total variance
2. This index measures item internal consistency and dispersion C. The true score variance on a test and the error variance
A. Discriminability index C. Difficulty index squared
B. Reliability index D. Validity index D. The true score variance and the error varianc
3. Reliability is a function of the __________ of test scores 12. This method of estimating reliability corrects the reliability score
A. Inconsistency C. Variability computed for half-tests
B. Differential validity D. Sensitivity A. Guttman C. Rulon
4. Reliability index is the product of B. Spearman-Brown D. KR20
A. The item-total correlation and the variance of the item 13. A test which is scored using a Likert-type scale would most
B. The item-total correlation and the standard deviation of the appropriately use this type of reliability estimate.
item A. Kuder-Richardson Formula C. Pearson Correlation
C. The item-total correlation and the mean of the item B. Guttman D. Cronbach Alpha
D. The item-total correlation and the difficulty level of the item 14. The Clerical Aptitude Test, a kind of speed test, was administered
5. __________ reliability coefficients are used to estimate the time to a group of clerk-applicants. The reliability can best be
sampling error in test scores estimated using
A. Test-retest C. Alternate-form A. Split-half C. Inter-scorer
B. Inter-rater D. Inter-item B. Test-retest D. Alternate-forms
6. The most basic method of determining reliability involving the 15. One of the criticisms of Cronbach on the existing reliability
administration of a similar test to similar group in more than one measures during his time were the restrictions in terms of making
occasion is known as ________________. conclusions based on limited samples or observations of
A. Alternate-Form Reliability Testing C. Inter-Item behavior. This theory is referred to as
Reliability Testing A. Universality C. Stability
B. Test-Retest Reliability Testing D. Inter-Rater Reliability B. Generalizability D. Equivalence
Testing 16. A published test reported KR 20 as one of its reliability estimates.
7. What does an inter-item reliability coefficient of 0.40 indicate This test is probably scored using _______ scales.
about the test items? A. Dichotomous C. Expert rankings
A. The items are completely useless C. The items are B. Likert-type D. Guttman-type
heterogeneous 17. The reliability coefficient of a new general mental ability test
B. The items are invalid D. The items are turned out to be rtt = 0.67. According to most experts in the field,
homogeneous this test can be appropriately used for
8. The most basic method of determining reliability involving the use A. Clinical decisions C. Research purposes
of Kappa statistic is known as ________________. B. Acceptance in a school D. Determining
A. Alternate-Form Reliability Testing C. Inter-Item level of mastery
Reliability Testing 18. The creators of the test with a reliability coefficient r tt = 0.59 wish
B. Test-Retest Reliability Testing D. Inter-Rater Reliability to increase its reliability. Which of the following could they do?
Testing A. Increase inter-item correlation
9. What statistical tool is used in determining the internal B. Have the item re-tested several times
consistency of a test with dichotomous choices with similar levels C. Create an alternate form
of difficulty? D. Add more items
A. Spearman Brown Formula C. Cronbach Alpha 19. In the context of psychometrics, error refers to the component of
B. KR-20 Formula D. KR-21 Formula the observed score on an ability test that
10. Mrs. Bautista reviews an assessment that has a reliability A. Does not have anything to do with the ability being measured
coefficient of 0.45. Should Mrs. Bautista use this test? Why? B. Was distorted as a result of examiner error
A. No because the coefficient is too low. C. May have been measured inaccurately for whatever reason
B. No because a reliability coefficient must be at 0.80 to be D. Was administered solely for experimental reasons
considered reliable. 20. Standard errors of estimates are used to gauge the
C. Yes because the coefficient is adequate A. Reliability of criteria
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B. Reliability of predictors B. Screening applicants in a job vacancy

C. Accuracy of obtained scores C. If the test is necessary for clinical judgment
D. Reliability with which criteria is predicted D. Measuring intelligence
21. Test A has a standard error of measurement of 4.3 and Test B 34. Although her score on the personality test indicated that Mary
has a standard error of measurement of 1.3. Which test should was devoid of social grace, painfully shy, and frightened of other
be administered to ensure the best obtained score as possible people, she is extremely popular and outgoing. This personality
A. Test A C. Neither A or B test lacks __________.
B. Test B D. Either A or B A. Reliability C. Standardization
22. Which of the following is a source of error variance? B. Utility D. Validity
A. Test construction C. Test administration 35. The validity of a psychological test refers to its
B. Test scoring D. All of the above A. Dependability C. Meaning
23. Which of the following is false about the Standard Error of B. Objectivity D. Fairness
Measurement? 36. Face validity refers to which of the following?
A. It measures the possible range where the test taker’s true A. Facial expressions are used to make diagnoses
score might be located B. The scale of emotional responding
B. It is used and interpreted like standard deviation C. The notion that an assessment method may appear to be valid
C. It varies across individuals simply because it has questions which intuitively seem relevant
D. It can be used as basis for the significant difference between to the trait or characteristic being measured
two test scores D. A construct is a hypothetical or inferred attribute that may not
24. The SEdiff between two scores turned out to be within the be directly observable or directly measurable.
confidence interval. What does this mean? 37. Mr. Tan is careful to make sure that he fairly represents the whole
A. The scores are significantly different from each other semester’s work on the final exam for his Abnormal Psychology
B. The scores do not vary significantly class. The goal of Mr. Tan is to establish the test’s
C. The scores are equivalent A. Concurrent validity D. Face validity
D. The scores are not fit for interpretation B. Predictive validity E. Content validity
25. A student has been absent during a major exam and was allowed C. Construct validity
to re-take it at a later time. The teacher decided to give a different 38. A job applicant takes a company-administered test for
set of items to the said student. Which of the following coefficients employment and then questions certain test items for its
will most likely estimate the reliability of the test? relevance to the job he’s applying for. Stated another way, the
A. Stability C. Split-half applicant is expressing concern about the test’s __________.
B. Stability and Equivalence D. Test-retest A. Incremental validity C. Content validity
26. To ensure that the test items in the alternate form are parallel B. Factor loadings D. All of the above
items, what test characteristic must be high? 39. Soliciting the expertise of subject matter experts (SMEs) in the
A. Mean C. Variances validation process of test items results to establishing what type
B. Inter-item correlation D. Standard deviations of test validity?
27. What sources of error variance/s is/are controlled in coefficients A. Face validity C. Construct validity
of stability and equivalence? B. Content validity D. Criterion-related validity
A. Changes over time 40. Evidence of validity that is based on test content and response
B. Item sampling process is particularly applicable to which of the following?
C. Temporal fluctuation and item sampling A. Interest inventories C. Educational tests
D. Changes over time and scorer differences B. Personality tests D. None of the above
28. If a test developer wants to include more heterogeneous items in 41. Which of the following refers to concurrent validity?
her scale, which of the following test characteristic may be A. Two tests are done at the same time
lowered? B. Two or more clinicians agree on the outcome
A. Reliability C. Discriminability C. The items on the test consistently relate to each other
B. Validity D. Difficulty D. The notion that scores on the test correlate highly with the
29. Compared to a general mental ability test, an aptitude test may scores from tests that measure the same attribute
have a higher level on this test characteristic 42. What type of validity comes from assessments of simultaneous
A. Reliability C. Discriminability relationships between the test and the criterion. Moreover, the
B. Validity D. Difficulty criterion data are collected before or at the same time that the
30. Error in psychological testing would mean predictor is administered.
A. Someone got an answer incorrectly A. Concurrent validity C. Construct validity
B. There is always some inaccuracy in the measurement B. Content validity D. Predictive validity
C. The test was inappropriate for that particular group 43. If a particular test has been shown to accurately identify potential
D. The score is too subjective to be accurate success in a particular job, then the test is said to have what type
31. If a test is reliable, it means that it of validity?
A. It is given the same way every time A. Predictive validity C. Incremental validity
B. Tests what it is supposed to test B. Convergent validity D. Divergent validity
C. It is fair in assessment 44. Jimmy, a psychometrician, created a test that predicts academic
D. Yields consistent results achievement. The test he created was found to predict well the
32. All other things being equal, scores obtained from longer tests are academic achievement of high school students but not of college
__________ those obtained from comparative tests that are students. Jimmy’s test can be said to have _______.
shorter. A. Erroneous validity
A. Less reliable than C. More reliable than B. Poor predictive validity
B. Just as reliable than D. None of the above C. Inadequate criterion-related validity
33. Which of the following situations give the most importance to the D. Differential validity
reliability of a psychological test? 45. A test is designed to predict success in college. Completion of a
A. Making researches about personality profiles college degree is therefore the ________.
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A. Validation factor C. Criterion A. The examinee’s test results are inconsistent

B. Objective D. Empirical validity B. The examinee has unstable psychological constructs
46. What is the basic necessity if we want to determine the predictive C. The examinee’s test results are meaningless because the two
validity of a test? tests measure opposing psychological constructs
A. A highly selected group with respect to the construct being D. No inference can be made
measured 56. Which of the following states the general rule in terms of test
B. A way of judging the appropriateness of the content of the test reliability and validity?
items A. The longer the test, the more reliable and valid it is
C. Another test of the same construct B. The longer the test, the less reliable and valid it is
D. A criterion relevant to the performance on the test but external C. Tests revised by factor analysis are more valid
to it D. Multivariate tests are better
47. The following statements about criterion measures true except 57. With regard to issues of test validity, fairness, and bias,
A. Criterion measures can differ in terms of their reliability and A. It is possible for a test to be valid yet used unfairly
validity B. It is possible for a test to be biased and used unfairly
B. Different criterion measures do not always correlate with each C. Test bias systematically prevents accurate, impartial
other measurement
C. The best criterion measures are usually available at the time of D. All of the above
testing 58. Which of the following is not a potential source of assessment
D. Criterion measures may or may not generalize across varied bias?
groups A. Font and printing problems
48. When does criterion contamination occur? B. Content and sample problems
A. When knowledge of test scores influence decision making C. Language and environmental problems
B. When errors are made in predicting criterion performance D. Reliability and validity problems
C. A test lacking in construct validity 59. Your older sibling did very well in Mrs. Jones’ class. Now, you are
D. The criterion method is found to be invalid in her class and cannot seem to do anything wrong. You are
49. In order to gather discriminant validity evidence, one would probably benefiting from
correlate the scores of tests that purport to assess __________ A. Generosity effect C. Halo effect
constructs. B. A clerical error D. Carryover effect
A. The same C. Different 60. An instructor evidences a tendency not to fail any student in the
B. Similar but not the same D. None of the class, but not to give any grades of A+ either. This instructor may
above be evidencing a __________.
50. A psychometrician wanted to replace your current examinations A. Leniency error C. Severity error
on Methods of Research with his own version of multiple-choice B. Central tendency error D. All of the above
test in the same subject matter. He then correlated your scores in 61. This type of error occurs when a clinician interprets a client’s
his version of the Methods of research test to your scores in your behavior and then work to persuade that his interpretation is
current examinations in methods of research. He then found that correct is known as
the two sets of scores correlated well. The psychometrician can A. Hindsight bias C. Confirmation bias
conclude then that the test has good _______. B. Negativity bias D. Positivity bias
A. Content validity C. Criterion-related validity 62. Which of the following refers to a confirmation bias?
B. Construct validity D. Face validity A. Clinicians ignore information that does not support their
51. If a particular test correlates highly with other variables with which hypothesis
it should correlate, then the test is said to have what type of B. Clinicians ignore information that does not support their
validity? stereotypes
A. Predictive validity C. Incremental validity C. Clinicians interpret ambiguous information as supporting
B. Convergent validity D. Divergent validity evidence to their hypotheses
52. We administer two tests of depression and two tests of ego D. All of the above
strength to a sample. A low or zero correlation between measures 63. A person who are most likely to answer “true” or “yes” rather than
of depression and the measures of ego-strength could be “false” or “no” demonstrate a response bias known as
considered as an evidence for what type of test validity? __________.
A. Discriminant validity C. Concurrent validity A. Acquiescence C. Social desirability
B. Convergent validity D. Predictive validity B. Impression management D. Deviation
53. With regards to validity coefficients, which type of test validity 64. When examinees answer in a way that it creates a good
indicate a sound validity if the obtained coefficient is low or close impression which puts them in a favorable light is called
to zero? A. Acquiescence C. Social desirability
A. Convergent validity C. Concurrent validity B. Impression management D. Deviation
B. Divergent validity D. Predictive validity 65. Mr. Balao was asked by his parents to enlist himself in the
54. You were tasked by your head psychologist to develop a measure military. However, he does not want to be enlisted. Hence, just to
of disobedience among school age children. On the other hand, pacify his parents, he took the admission exams for enlistment.
you are unable to precisely define the concept of disobedience. While taking the test, he intentionally skewed his answers in a
What should you do? way he feels he will show how he has been damaged in the brain
A. Conduct a study to establish the test’s construct validity organically. This is an example of __________ response bias.
B. Conduct a study to establish the test’s content validity A. Faking good C. Non-
C. Conduct a study to establish the test’s stability acquiescence
D. Resign and ask your head psychologist to provide operational B. Faking bad D. Impression management
definition of the concept! 66. Pretesting procedures somehow influence the scores of
55. If an examinee scored low on two tests which measures two examinees in a post test. This danger involved in pretesting and
opposing psychological constructs, what can be said about the its influence in scores in a post test is called __________.
examinee’s results? A. Test taker bias C. Practice effect
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B. Carryover effect D. Carryover effect 79. Which of the following test taker variable influences test
67. __________ constitute the most widely used frame of reference performance by making an individual worry about the test results?
for test score interpretations. A. Motivation C. Test fatigue
A. Norms C. Work samples B. Test anxiety D. Lack of self-confidence
B. Criteria D. Content domains 80. Which response scale relies on the comparison between a
68. In order to establish norms, a large group of people is being given criterion and a control group?
a test under the same conditions in which the test will actually be A. Expert ranking C. Equally appearing intervals
used. This group is called B. Empirical keying D. Rational scale construction
A. Reliable group C. Standardization group 81. The best examples of __________ rating scale are the Glasgow
B. Random group D. Experimental group coma scale and the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental
69. The standardization sample is __________. Disorders
A. A group of people who takes the test A. Expert ranking C. Equally appearing intervals
B. A random sample of test takers used to evaluate the B. Empirical keying D. Rational scale construction
performance of the test 82. __________ test item formats has the highest chance of making
C. The people used to represent the population for whom the test an error due to tendency for test takers to guess.
was intended A. Dichotomous C. Categorical
D. All the people who might ever take the test B. Polychotomous D. Likert
70. Dr. Jo is trying to establish norms for his new test. He determined 83. After _______ in test construction, a test developer may have to
that 40% of the people in the standardization should be from the repeat previous stages in stages in test construction.
Cordillera region, 40% from the Ilocos region, and 20% from the A. Item writing C. Item validation
Cagayan Valley region. In this situation, Dr. Jo is creating a B. Item tryout D. Item analysis
__________. 84. __________ suggested the use of the upper and the lower 27%
A. Normalization group C. Standardization group of the scores as a short-cut method to item analysis.
B. Random sample D. Population statistics A. Gulliksen C. Guilford
71. A standardization sample is representative if the sample B. Flanagan D. Davis
A. Has been subjected to rigorous experimental control 85. According to this test theory, reliability is removing the variance
B. Consists of individuals that are similar to the group to be tested contributed by noise to the total variance so that only the variance
C. Consists of a great many individuals determined by the signal to the total variance is left?
D. Is administered in the same way as the actual group will be A. Latent trait C. Item response
72. A school psychometrician wants to create a test that would be B. True and error score D. Item information function
used in determining who among the program applicants shall be 86. The classical test theory assumes that r Te = 0. What does this
admitted to the medical and paramedical academic programs. mean?
Which of the following norms should be established by the school A. The means of measurement error are equal to zero
psychometrician? B. Measurement errors are random
A. Norm-referencing C. Developmental norming C. True scores and error scores are independent of each other
B. Criterion-referencing D. Within-group norming D. Errors in different tests are uncorrelated
73. A child’s mental age __________. 87. Short tests can also be reliable. This statement is asserted by
A. Cannot be determined independently of the child’s which test theory?
chronological age A. Latent trait C. Classical test
B. Provides a measurement of a child’s performance relative to B. True and error scores D. Educational testing
other children of a particular age group services
C. Cannot be determined from a child’s test score 88. In psychological assessment, item analysis is very important.
D. Can only be determined from a large representative sample Why?
74. A test administrator stopped administering a test because the A. In order to shorten a test
examinee got every answer correct until number 25, then the B. In order to identify test items that may be faulty or superfluous
examinee got 4 answers in a row incorrect. The test administrator C. In order to determine the discrimination needed for a test
stopped because the __________ reached. D. In order to calculate the validity coefficient for each item of the
A. Raw score C. Basal score test
B. Standard score D. Ceiling score 89. According to the true score theory, an individual’s score on a test
75. A large collection of test items thought to effectively represent a of extraversion reflects a level of extraversion as defined by the
particular domain or content area is called a(n) __________. test and that level is presumed to be __________.
A. Norm-referenced test C. Development version A. The examinee’s true level of extraversion
B. Sample D. Item-pool B. Only an estimate of the examinee’s true level of extraversion
76. In test construction, which of the following should be done in order C. Greater than the degree of error inherent in the score
to increase the difficulty of multiple-choice test items? D. Less than or equal to the degree of error inherent in the score
A. Make the options homogeneous 90. A true score is __________.
B. Make the stem short and clear A. A hypothetical entity
C. Make sure that the items are grammatically correct B. A real entity
D. Make the options equal in length C. Equal to the observed score
77. Which of the following will most likely be the most difficult to D. Equal to the observed score plus error
standardize in an individually-administered test such as projective 91. Given the following information, estimate the true score. Mean of
test? the group = 76, correlation coefficient = 0.83, obtained score =
A. Instructions C. Administration 81, standard deviation = 2.23
B. Scoring D. Reporting A. 11.15 C. 71.85
78. In test construction, adding more difficult items will reduce which B. B. 80.15 D. -64.85
of the following test characteristic? 92. The classical test theory computes for the following test statistics
A. Floor effect C. Discrimination effect except
B. Bias effect D. Ceiling effect A. Item difficulty C. Item reliability
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B. Item discrimination D. Heteroscedasticity 105. In the final analysis, the worth of a test or an entire test depends
93. An item that has been answered correctly by majority of the upon which of the following?
examinees can be said to have A. The standardization process
A. High item discrimination index C. Low item discrimination B. Its empirical correspondence with the criterion
B. High item difficulty index D. Low item C. The norms that are published in the test manual
difficulty D. How closely the material covered by the test resembles the
94. 9 out of 13 examinees in the upper group answered item number behavior that is to be predicted.
13 correctly while 5 out of 13 in the lower group answered the 106. Ethics can be defined as the formulation of principles to
same item correctly, too. What is the item difficulty index of item A. Reduce inappropriate behavior
number 13? B. Punish inappropriate behavior
A. 0.31 C. 0.76 C. Reinforce appropriate behavior
B. 0.54 D. 0.89 D. All of the above
95. Which of the following item and their respective indexes can be 107. As a general rule, the presence of third parties, other than the
considered as the most difficult? examiner and the examinee, during the test administration of
A. Item 1: p = 0.66 C. Item 3: p = 0.93 individuals tests is
B. Item 2: p = 0.12 D. Item 4: p = 0.47 A. Desirable C. Acceptable
96. Which of the following item and their respective indexes can be B. Undesirable D. Both a and b
considered as having the best difficulty level? 108. Because errors of measurement can easily raise or lower the
A. Item 1: p = 0.66 C. Item 3: p = 0.93 scores on a psychological test, it is important to
B. Item 2: p = 0.12 D. Item 4: p = 0.47 A. Be flexible in presenting the directions to a test
97. What does item discrimination mean? B. Follow the test directions exactly without deviation
A. The extent to which an item correctly discriminates against C. Tell the examinees to use their own judgment concerning the
some examinees test directions
B. The extent to which an item correctly differentiates against D. Use common sense in deciding what portion of the test
some examinees on the variable measured directions to read.
C. The amount of reliability in the item 109. Deviations from standard directions for administering a test are of
D. All of the above greatest concern with respect to the effects of such deviations on
98. Item discrimination indexes are statistics primarily used to assess the
item A. Diagnostic meaning of the test
A. Validity C. Fairness B. Interpretation of test scores
B. Reliability D. Difficulty C. Norms obtained from the standardized sample
99. If one wishes to produce a test that would result in maximum D. Reliability and/or validity of the test
differentiation among test takers, one would aim an average 110. Which of the following is the most important thing for examiners
difficulty index of to do with regard to preparations before administering an exam?
A. 1.00 C. 0.50 A. Be thoroughly familiar with the directions for administering the
B. 0.75 D. 0.00 test
100. 9 out of 13 examinees in the upper group answered item number B. Make certain that the testing environment is quiet, comfortable,
13 correctly while 5 out of 13 in the lower group answered the well-lighted, and adequately furnished
same item correctly, too. What is the item difficulty index of item C. Review beforehand with the examinees the items that are
number 13? similar to the test
A. 0.31 C. 0.76 D. Tell the examinees what kind of test will be administered, and
B. 0.54 D. 0.89 reassure them that they will do well.
101. Which of the following item and their respective indexes can be 111. If a psychological interpretation of test results involves an effort
considered as having the best discrimination level? to develop a coherent and inclusive theory of the individual life or
A. Item 1: p = 0.66 C. Item 3: p = 0.93 a “working image” of the patient, the psychologist is involving
B. Item 2: p = 0.12 D. Item 4: p = 0.47 __________ type of test interpretation.
102. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship A. Level I
between item difficulty and its discriminative power? B. Level II (descriptive generalizations)
A. Items with moderate level of difficulty have the highest C. Level II (hypothetical constructs)
discriminative power. D. Level III
B. Items with easy level of difficulty have the maximal 112. An intern in a mental health facility was asked to write a
discriminative power. psychological report of an eleven-year-old boy he assessed.
C. Difficult items are the most discriminative. When the intern was writing her psychological interpretations, he
D. Item difficulty and discriminative power concepts that are not highlighted the negative aspect of the boy’s behavior as well as
related. the weaknesses of the boy. What can be inferred from this case?
103. In distractor analysis, it can be said that a distractor is good if the A. Overinterpretation C. Over-pathologizing
distractor __________. B. Over-psychologizing D. Schematization
A. Be attractive equally to all test takers 113. What is a good psychological report?
B. Discriminate in the opposite direction A. A good psychological report is individualized, theory-focused
C. Has to be chosen more frequently by the high scorers and is written and delivered on time
D. Has to be chosen more frequently by the low scorers B. A good psychological report is generalized, theory-focused and
104. Obviously incorrect distractors can result in which of the is written and delivered on time
following? C. A good psychological report is individualized, directly and
A. Decrease the reliability of the test adequately answers a referral question, and is written and
B. Increase the reliability of the test delivered on time
C. Reduce the likelihood of correct guessing D. A good psychological report is generalized, directly and
D. It has no impact on the psychometric properties of the test adequately answers a referral question, and is written and
delivered on time
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114. Which of the following depicts an ethical practice in terms of A. Integrity

communicating assessment results to clients or relatives of the B. Respect for Dignity
clients? C. Competent caring for others’ welfare
A. Send them the copy of the psychological report via email since D. Professional and Scientific Responsibility
emails are password protected, thus confidentiality will be kept. 124. What ethical principle in the Code of Ethics stipulates that
B. Explain well the results using technical terms to maintain psychometricians and psychologists need to taking care to do no
authenticity of results harm to individuals, families, groups and communities?
C. Provide them with the numerical values of the test results to A. Integrity
ensure accuracy of findings B. Respect for Dignity
D. In explaining test results, replace the technical terms into C. Competent caring for others’ welfare
simple words that are understandable for non-psychology- D. Professional and Scientific responsibility
oriented individuals 125. As registered psychometricians, we are required to undergo
115. In communicating test results to the consumers of test data, the continuing professional development and earn Continuing
most pertinent information to be conveyed to them is Professional Development-credit points in order to renew our
A. Numerical scores obtained by examinees licenses. This is in accordance to what ethical principle in the PAP
B. Labels or diagnoses derived from the test Code of Ethics?
C. Meaning of test scores A. Integrity
D. All of the above B. Respect for Dignity
116. The basic rule in professional communication is C. Competent caring for others’ welfare
A. If there is more than one way to say something, select the D. Professional and Scientific Responsibility
simplest way 126. The following are important things to be considered by
B. Include some humor or witticisms so the material will be psychologists and psychometricians in choosing assessment
sufficiently interesting to the reader tools except
C. Review beforehand with the examinees some items that are A. Assessment tool’s relevance to the problem
similar to those on the test B. Assessment tool’s appropriateness to the client
D. Tell the examinees what kind of test will be administered, and C. Familiarity of examinees to the assessment tool
reassure them that they will do well. D. Psychometric properties of the assessment tool
117. The legal and ethical responsibilities of test users with regard to E. Adaptability of assessment tool to the time available
appropriate interpretation of test results is 127. Failure to ensure that all the materials required for a
A. Obviated when they use tests on their behalf psychological testing session are in the test kit and that the test
B. Obviated when they use tests on behalf of their clients materials are intact can result in which of the following?
C. Obviated when they use tests on behalf of a third party A. A waste of time for the psychometrician and the examinee
D. Never obviated B. A shorter testing time
118. Which of the following is not an appropriate thing to do before C. Higher testing fees
administering a test? D. The need for use of more tests
A. Tell the student why they are tested. 128. Potential risks to the participants in a study include such factors
B. Give a brief introduction to the test. as
C. Ensure that all directions are followed. A. Physical harm and psychological harm
D. Become familiar with the student and establish friendly B. Psychological harm and loss of confidentiality
conversation. C. Loss of confidentiality and loss of anonymity
119. Which of the following test administration techniques is always D. Loss of confidentiality, psychological harm and physical harm
considered inappropriate? 129. Informed consent forms should be written in
A. Reinforcing student work behavior A. The first person point of view C. Specific technical
B. Coaching a student to arrive at the right answer terminology
C. Encouraging students to respond B. A sixth to eighth grade level D. Legalistic terms
D. Telling students that they are doing a good job. 130. Any procedure that limits an individual’s freedom to consent to
120. Which of the following are acceptable behaviors of assessment participate in a study can be
personnel when testing students? A. A violation to confidentiality C. Potentially coercive
A. Coaching B. Approved by the PAP Board D. Justified
B. Allowing increased response time 131. Which of the following is true about the informed consent
C. Telling the students that they can have a treat at the end of the procedure?
test. A. It may bias the sample and limit generalizability of results
D. Encouraging students to respond B. It may encourage participants to ask for payment
121. Elena administered the California Personality Inventory (CPI) to C. It may set the stage for realistic behavior in research
her clients. Which of the following actions of Elena is unethical? D. It may decrease perceptions of control
A. Elena established rapport by talking with her clients 132. If researchers withhold information, use deception, and/or there
B. She entertained further queries of her clients is potential for harmful effects on participation, a(n) __________
C. She roamed around the testing room must be done.
D. She gave her clients 20 minutes to finish the test A. Inquiry C. Detoxing
122. Which of the following groups embody the prerequisites in ethical B. Debriefing D. Dehoaxing
considerations? 133. Before administering a test, a psychologist should ensure that
A. Qualifications of the examiner, privacy, feedback A. The test has local norms
B. Informed consent, confidentiality and privacy B. The test does not have any copyright restrictions
C. Feedback, rapport and informed consent C. The test has been reviewed in the Mental Measurements
D. Validity, reliability and norms Yearbook
123. What ethical principle in the Code of Ethics stipulates that D. The test is appropriate for the use with the particular client in
psychometricians and psychologists need to be honest, truthful, terms of his/her demographics
to maximize impartiality and minimize biases?
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134. A psychometrician who is skilled in choosing assessment D. Right to freedom of expression

strategies must be able to 142. After extracting the information from Leila, Dr. Vicente disclosed
A. Describe the nature and use of different types of assessment the information to the police without Leila’s consent. What right of
instruments Leila was violated by Dr. Vicente?
B. Evaluate the appropriate norm group A. Right to confidentiality
C. Recognize the limitations of using a single score in making a B. Right to informed consent
decision C. Right to privacy
D. Implement appropriate administration procedures D. Right to freedom of expression
135. What law regulates the practice of psychometrics and psychology 143. Most ethical dilemmas are related to
in the Philippines? A. Confidentiality C. Testing
A. RA 10029 (IRR-BR 01, series of 2012) B. Diagnosis D. Research
B. RA 10029 (IRR-BR 02, series of 2012) 144. Confidentiality agreement between the assessor and the
C. RA 10029 (IRR-BR 03, series of 2012) assessee can be broken in which of the following situations?
D. RA 10029 (IRR-BR 04, series of 2012) A. The information yielded during the assessment process is
136. Which of the following instances would depict a gross asked by the referring person
transgression of the ethical code for Psychometricians and B. The information yielded during the assessment process is
Psychologists? asked by the client’s parents
A. Sexual relations with the client C. The client poses a threat to himself and other people
B. Refusing to accept a client due to conflict of interests D. All of the above
C. Charging gargantuan fees 145. What ethical consideration on the part of the clinician that obliges
D. Cancelling scheduled appointments without prior notice him to disclose information about his client if there is an imminent
137. James, a 30-year-old jeepney driver was administered with the danger on the client himself?
MMPI-II to check if he has signs and symptoms psychopathology. A. Informed Consent C. Privacy
His results revealed that he has signs of psychopathology. B. Confidentiality D. Duty to warn
However, it was found later identified that he only has the reading 146. Purchase of psychological tests should be restricted to individuals
ability of a 2nd grader. With this scenario, it can be inferred that with
his results in the MMPI-II are A. At least a master’s degree in psychology
A. Valid because he took the test in a controlled environment B. At least a doctoral degree in psychology
which helped him concentrate C. A state license and/or certification
B. Valid because he honestly answered all items despite not D. Appropriate training and/or experience for the test
being able to understand them 147. A psychometrician shall restrict his/her practice to delivering
C. Invalid because he might have faked his responses to appear services for which he/she is competent based on __________.
as a normal individual A. Professional education C. Training
D. Invalid because he might not have understood the meaning of B. Experience D. All of the above
most of the items 148. Which of the following is not punishable by the disciplinary action
138. As stipulated in the PAP Code of Ethics, _______ occurs when a by the professional board of psychology?
psychometrician or a psychologist is in a professional role with a A. Acts involving gross moral turpitude, dishonesty or corruption,
client and at the same time is in another role with the same client. relating to the practice of psychology
A. Multiple connections C. Multiple relationships B. Aided or abetted an unlicensed person to practice when
B. Multiple endeavors D. Multiple regression license or certificate is required
139. A close friend of yours asked if you could give him a practice test C. Grossly overcharged for professional fees
about the common psychological tests given during personnel D. Failed to comply with the renewal of professional
selection in order for him to practice and increase his chances of license/certification
landing the job. As a licensed psychometrician, what is the most E. None of the above
ethical thing to do? 149. You are working as a psychometrician in a private clinic. A couple
A. Give him practice items which can help him pass the exams came to the clinic to refer their child and stated their observations
B. Provide him copies of the tests about their child. After listening to the couple, you suspect that
C. Decline but provide some overview about the content of the their child might be suffering from Autism Spectrum Disorder. The
tests couple asked you to provide your clinical impression and provide
D. Refuse and explain that psychological tests are only handled an assessment even without administering any psychological
by qualified individuals assessment tool. According to the ethical guidelines, what should
140. What does privileged-communication mean? you do?
A. Clinicians have the privilege of disclosing information about A. Do not make any assumptions as long as no assessment
patients to other clinicians procedure has been done.
B. The information revealed by a clinician at probate hearing is B. Suggest your clinical impression and suspicion but warn them
handled as privileged that your impression might be wrong and can only validated
C. Clinicians are granted a privilege by the court to disclose using after assessment procedures has been done.
information about a specific client C. Require payment if the parents insisted with an evaluation.
D. Clients have the statutory right to prevent clinicians from D. Provide an evaluation of their child free of charge as part of
disclosing confidential information your humanitarian advocacy.
141. Dr. Vicente is forcing Leila (a victim of sexual assault) to disclose 150. Which of the following is not a right of the test taker?
the information and experiences that she refused to share to the A. The right to review the test questions
police during an interview. What right of Leila is at stake? B. The right to receive test administration by trained
A. Right to confidentiality professionals
B. Right to informed consent C. The right to receive information regarding their test results
C. Right to privacy D. The right to confidentiality of their result
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PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT
Prof. Yvette Camantiles, RPm
1. Who coined the term ‘mental quotient’? 8. When you need to ask a client a sensitive question
a) Francis Galton c) William Stern (e.g., questions about health or sexual history), what
b) Edward Titchner d) Raymond Cattell would be the best way to do it?
2. Wilhelm Wundt established his experimental a) Ask the client over the phone.
psychology laboratory in? b) Ask the client during the face-to-face intake
a) Leipzig, Germany in 1852 interview.
b) Leipzig, Germany in 1879 c) Give clients questionnaires they can answer by
c) Vienna, Austria in 1853 themselves.
d) Venice, Italy in 1860 d) Ask the client’s companion, friend, or guardian.
3. Identify the first theory of intelligence and its 9. Clients, patients, and other individuals that are given
proponent. It talks about abilities required for all kinds psychological tests are called?
of mental tests and those limited to only one kind. a) Test Users c) Test Sample
a) Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by Raymond b) Test Takers d) Standardized Sample
Cattell 10. The Thematic Apperception Test is categorized
b) Multiple Intelligences Theory by Howard Gardner under?
c) Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by Charles a) Maximal Performance Test – Aptitude
Spearman b) Maximal Performance Test – Intelligence
d) Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by Robert c) Typical Performance Test – Structured
Sternberg Personality Test
4. Previous learning does not affect one’s performance d) Typical Performance Test – Unstructured
in non-verbal intelligence tests. These tests primarily Personality Test
measure? 11. The NMAT determines individuals who are qualified
a) Visual-Spatial Intelligence to study medicine. The first part includes verbal,
b) Convergent Thinking perceptual acuity, quantitative and inductive
c) Crystallized Intelligence reasoning. The second part has biology, chemistry,
d) Fluid Intelligence and more. Results are reported in percentile ranks,
5. He translated the Binet-Simon Scales into English. and each institution has its standard. How would the
a) Lewis Terman c) Henry Goddard NMAT, more specifically its first part, be categorized?
b) Arthur Otis d) Robert Yerkes a) Criterion-referenced Test – Achievement
6. These intellectuals and theorists believe that b) Criterion-referenced Test – Aptitude
individuals with mental illnesses or psychological c) Norm-referenced Test – Achievement
problems should not be allowed to reproduce to pass d) Norm-referenced Test – Aptitude
on their ‘defective’ genes. 12. These are tests that can determine the presence,
a) Purists extent, and location of potential brain damage in
b) Genetic Engineers clients.
c) Eugenicists a) Projective Tests
d) Gene-cleansing Collective b) Diagnostic Tests
7. This involves answering referral questions by c) Neuropsychological Tests
exploring the uniqueness of an individual or group. It d) All of the above
is an expensive process that requires a professional 13. Individuals applying to be clerks or secretaries are
who knows the appropriate evaluation tests and tools. given typing and organizing tasks. Their success is
a) Psychological Testing measured by how much they accomplish given a time
b) Psychological Assessment limit. These tests are?
c) Psychotherapy a) Power tests
d) Battery Testing b) Speed tests
c) Physical acuity tests
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d) Both A and B c) Natural sequences
14. Felicity is assessing a transferee who wants to enroll d) Grade-based norms
in the HUMSS strand. She believes that he is better 22. This is a group of individuals on whom the test is
suited in the ABM strand since his entrance exam administered to develop the test norms and establish
results in social sciences are poor and he might have uniform administration and scoring procedures.
some difficulty in the future. How was the test used in a) Standardization sample
this case? b) Normative sample
a) Selection c) Screening c) Reference group
b) Placement d) Certification d) Group norm
15. Victor’s Secret Inc. gives all its applicants a quick test 23. According to Barry’s teacher, he managed to get 65%
to determine who meets the minimum requirements to of his 120-item History test correct, which equates to
qualify for further testing. How was the test used in a raw score of 78 points. He has the second-highest
this case? score in his class. What did the teacher give Barry?
a) Selection c) Screening a) A percentile score
b) Placement d) Classification b) A percentage score
16. This is an economic practice in recruitment wherein c) A standardized score
the number of applicants is reduced with every step of d) A probability score
the hiring process? 24. Dahlia is in a group with people who graduated with
a) Multiple cut-offs c) Hierarchical testing Latin honors and distinctions. Despite having
b) Multiple hurdles d) Passing scores excellent grades herself, Dahlia believes that she is
17. This scale of measurement denotes categories and the worst among the group. This situation is explained
operates on frequencies. by?
a) Nominal c) Interval a) Flynn Effect c) Frog Pond Effect
b) Ordinal d) Ratio b) Golem Effect d) Drift
18. At the hospital, Viola’s doctor asked her to indicate on 25. Suppose you are taking your Theories of Personality
a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being extreme pain, how exam with 100 multiple-choice questions with four
much pain she was in. What scale of measurement choice alternatives. Your mind went blank, and you
was used, and what characteristic does it lack? can’t think. What would be your level of chance
a) Interval: Absolute Zero performance, or how many items will you get right if
b) Interval: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero you were to guess them all?
c) Nominal; Magnitude, Equal Intervals, Absolute a) 20 correct items c) 30 correct items
Zero b) 25 correct items d) 50 correct items
d) Ordinal: Equal Intervals 26. Which is NOT a culture fair test?
e) Ordinal: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero a) RPM c) NEO-PI R
19. Jeremy received a survey with a list of detergent b) PNLT d) CFIT
brands. Under each brand was a seven-point rating 27. After dictating the instructions, a psychometrician
scale with bipolar labels (‘effective’ and ‘ineffective’) said, ‘I know you’ll do well in this IQ test. Your parents
at each end. What kind of scale was used in the and I expect good results.’ Later on, it appeared that
survey? the test takers performed better than in previous
a) Likert Scale tests. This is an example of?
b) Rank Order Scale a) Flynn Effect c) Halo Effect
c) Semantic Differential Scale b) Reactivity d) Pygmalion Effect
d) Visual Analogue Scale 28. When using parametric data, what is the best
20. Gerard’s personality test results show that he is a measure of central tendency to use?
more private person than a social one. It showed that a) Mean c) Mode
he is highly cautious more than he is carefree. What b) Median d) Standard Deviation
could be said about the scoring method used? 29. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the
a) The personality test used a Guttman scale mean in data analysis?
b) The personality test provides ipsative scores a) It is affected by extreme values
c) The personality test provides a cumulative score b) It can only be used for discrete data
that is compared to a norm. c) It provides the sum of least squares
d) The personality test is a diagnostic test that d) It is limited to distributed data
shows how one compares to the general 30. Clary wants to use gender and social status in her
population. study. What would be the best measure of central
21. Of all the following developmental norms, which ones tendency considering Clary’s variables?
are the most universally applicable? a) Mean c) Mode
a) Theory-based ordinal scales b) Median d) Standard Deviation
b) Mental Age norms
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31. This gives an approximation of the average deviation a) Their raw scores show that they both did well on
around the mean in a distribution. the test.
a) Range c) Variance b) Gorio’s raw score is closer to the mean score
b) Standard Deviation d) Skewness than Glahad’s.
32. If everyone in the lower-scoring half answered an c) Galahad scored 60 points lower than Gorio
item correctly that no one in the higher-scoring half of d) Their raw scores cannot be determined
the examinees answered, what is the item 41. Suppose all the test scores in Farrah’s English class
discrimination index? are distributed normally. She garnered a z-score of 2.
a) 0 What statement would hold FALSE?
b) +1 a) She is in the top half of her class based on her
c) -1 score.
d) It cannot be determined b) She did better than 84% of her classmates on the
33. Positively skewed distributions show? test.
a) Low item difficulty c) 2.3% of her classmates did better than Farrah
b) High item difficulty d) All of the above
c) Platykurtic kurtosis e) NOTA
d) Both B and C 42. Dennis and Gale are the same age. They noticed
34. When a test has high item difficulty, it can be that they grew taller at almost the same rate of 2
expected that? inches every six months. This is an example of?
a) A lot of test-takers will get low scores a) Collinearity
b) The reliability and validity will be high b) Tracking
c) The distribution curve will likely turn out normal c) Flynn effect
d) The median will likely be greater than the mean d) Predeterminism
35. This is the degree to which an item differentiates 43. Who formally developed the first statistical models of
correctly among examinees depending on what the correlation and regression?
test is measuring. a) Galton
a) Item difficulty c) Item differentiation b) Karl Pearson
b) Item discrimination d) Item divergence c) Charles Spearman
36. Item difficulty and item discriminability indices are d) Henry Goddard
____ for pure speed tests than for pure power tests. 44. You want to assess the relationship between passing
a) More appropriate or failing the board examination and your scores in
b) Less appropriate your review drills. What statistical analysis should you
c) Just as appropriate use?
d) It depends on the items a) Pearson r
37. In psychological testing, raw scores are? b) Point-biserial r
a) Meaningless c) Biserial r
b) Worthless d) Phi-coefficient
c) Interpreted for comparison purposes 45. A study wanted to establish the difference between
d) Indicators of an individual’s relative standing males and females in their preference of either sex or
38. Which of the following pairings is incorrect? chocolates. What analysis should be used?
a) T score (mean;15, sd;10) a) One-way ANOVA
b) Z – score (mean;1, sd;.5) b) Mann Whitney U-test
c) CEBB (mean;500, sd;100) c) Paired T-test
d) All of the above d) Friedman F-test
39. Magda got a score of 89 on her 100-item Math test 46. You want to analyze the difference between males
and a 50 on her Science test, which had 20 items less and females regarding their scores on a
than the Math exam. She also got a score of 70 on hopelessness scale. What statistical treatment is
her 90-item History test. Arrange her performance on most appropriate?
her tests from best to worst. a) One-tailed t-test
a) History, Science, Math b) Two-tailed t-test
b) Math, History, Science c) ANOVA -Repeated measures
c) Math, Science, History d) Pearson product correlation
d) NOTA 47. A mattress company asked your group of friends to
40. A test was administered to 300 students which help determine which type of mattress is most
resulted in a mean score of 85 and a standard comfortable. They made you sleep in a waterbed, in a
deviation of 12. Galahad and Gorio obtained a z- flat and firm bed, and on a fluffy and bouncy mattress.
score of -2 and 3 respectively. What can be said What would be the best statistical treatment to use in
about their raw scores? this experiment?
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a) Independent samples t-test a) The standard error of measurement increases as
b) One-way ANOVA the reliability coefficient gets bigger.
c) ANOVA Repeated Measures b) The standard error of measurement decreases
d) Levene’s Test as the reliability coefficient gets bigger.
48. When testing for normality, what is most appropriate c) The standard error of measurement is almost
to use for a sample size not greater than 50? always equal to the reliability coefficient
a) Kolmogorov-Smirnov Test d) The standard error measurement is not related to
b) Shapiro – Wilk Test reliability coefficients.
c) Chupika Test 55. Sano garnered a raw score of 40 in a measure of
d) Angoff Method narcissism with a standard error of 5. You are 95%
49. Also known as ‘same variance’, this concept in sure that his true level of narcissism will fall under
correlation and regression indicates that the residuals’ what range?
variance should be the same across all the predicted a) 35 – 45 c) 30 – 50
scores. b) 35 – 50 d) 25 – 55
a) Linearity 56. Suppose all the citizens in Baguio City where to
b) Normality undergo IQ testing. Asuming that the distribution will
c) Heteroscedasticity be normal, what percentage of the examinees would
d) Homoscedasticity have an IQ of 85 to 115?
50. In correlation analysis, your correlation coefficient is a) 50 c) 95
.70, and your p-value is .06. How would you interpret b) 68 d) 99
your findings? 57. Dr. Gerart found a significant and positive relationship
a) Your variables have a significant moderate between the number of years one has been breastfed
positive correlation. and self-esteem. What should Dr. Gerart do next if he
b) Your variables have a significant strong positive wishes to determine whether the number of years one
correlation. has been breastfed can be a good predictor of self-
c) Your variables have an insignificant correlation. esteem?
d) No interpretation can be made a) Determine the predictive validity of the criterion
51. In a research study that you are conducting, you are variable, which is the number of years one has
confused because the correlation coefficient is .98. been breastfed.
What is the problem, and what could remedy the b) Use regression analysis on his variables.
issue? c) Determine whether his data has outliers or has
a) The sample size is to small; add more multicollinear variables
respondents. d) Establish whether his data is reliable and conduct
b) Correlation is not appropriate; use regression his study again after a significant period.
analysis 58. I. The coefficient of determination is the
c) The variables are multicollinear; change them correlation coefficient squared.
d) There is no issue; the correlation is nearly perfect II. Factor analysis is a data-reduction technique
and is highly significant. III. Range restriction when using Pearson r
52. You found in your research that courage is results in an increased correlation
significantly related to life satisfaction with a coefficient.
correlation coefficient of -.62. Which statement is IV. Residuals are the difference between the
TRUE in interpreting your result? obtained values and the predicted values in
a) Courage will result in significantly less life regression
satisfaction. a) All are TRUE
b) The more an individual feels courage, the more b) All are FALSE
satisfied he/she is with his life. c) I, II, and IV are TRUE
c) As courage grows, people will likely be less d) II, III, and IV are TRUE
satisfied with life. e) I and III are FALSE
d) Individuals who are more satisfied with their lives 59. Strictly speaking, psychometricians can only
tend to exhibit more courage. administer?
53. If a person were to take a test over and over again, a) Level A and B tests – individual/group
what would estimate his/her range of scores? intelligence or structured personality tests only
a) Standard Error of Estimate b) Level A, B, and C tests – individual/group
b) Standard Error of Measurement intelligence, structured and unstructured
c) Coefficient of Determination personality tests
d) Correlation Coefficient c) Level A and B tests – group intelligence or
54. What is the relationship between reliability coefficients structured personality tests only.
and the standard error of measurement?
4
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
d) Level A, B, and C tests – individual/group a) Make another test since reliability cannot be
intelligence, structured and unstructured established for time-limited tests which test-
personality tests with supervision. takers cannot finish.
60. Which is not a global factor in 16PF? b) Harry needs to establish the validity coefficient
a) Tough Mindedness first to have an idea of the reliability coefficient.
b) Anxiety c) Harry may be using single-trial reliability
c) Extraversion coefficients such as split-half and Kuder-
d) Dominance Richardson which are not appropriate.
e) NOTA d) Harry may be using test-retest reliability which is
61. This states that each test taker’s obtained score not appropriate for low-difficulty and time-limited
almost always differs from his/her true ability or tests.
characteristic. 68. What method of establishing internal consistency is
a) Item Response Theory appropriate for a test with right or wrong answers?
b) Classical Test Score Theory a) Kuder-Richardson 20
c) Domain Sampling Model b) Coefficient Alpha
d) Information Processing Theory c) Kappa coefficient
62. What does it mean when a test is reliable? d) Spearman-Brown
a) It is also valid 69. A person who scored high on a test that claims to
b) It measures what it intends to measure measure psychopathy complained that he was not
c) It will produce consistent results psychopathic in any way and the test items were
d) It is most affected by systematic errors misleading and confusing. This is an issue of?
63. A reliability coefficient of .80 is? a) Test standardization
a) Acceptable for both social and natural sciences b) Test administration
b) Acceptable only for natural sciences c) Test reliability
c) Unacceptable only for natural sciences d) Test validity
d) Unacceptable for both social and natural e) Both C and D
sciences 70. When establishing this kind of validity, subject matter
64. A psychometrician administered a test to high school experts are involved.
students. She divided the test equally and correlated a) Content Validity
the two scores from the two divisions. What kind of b) Construct Validity
reliability was established? c) Criterion-Related Validity
a) Parallel forms d) All of the above
b) Test-retest 71. Samantha is sure that she will graduate with Latin
c) Split-half honors because she had good grades in high school
d) Internal consistency and did well in the entrance examination. A few years
65. This type of reliability is most appropriate when later, she is disappointed because she is struggling
measuring time and content sampling errors. academically and her grades have just been average.
a) Internal Consistency – Coefficient Alpha This shows that?
b) Test – Retest Reliability a) Her basis for her claim (i.e. graduate with Latin
c) Alternate Form Reliability – Delayed honors) has low construct validity
d) Split-Half Reliability b) Her basis for her claim is not reliable but has high
66. After the psychometrician from no. 64 correlated the content validity.
two scores, what statement would hold TRUE? c) Her basis for her claim has low criterion-related
a) The psychometrician would need to administer validity.
the test again after 6 months d) It is impossible to statistically establish future
b) The psychometrician needs to use the success based on current data.
Spearman-Brown formula since the correlation 72. Researchers usually remove the middle choice (i.e.
coefficient only gave reliability for half of the test. neither agree of disagree, neutral) in a scale to avoid
c) The psychometrician needs to distribute the test this kind of test-taking behavior.
to subject-matter experts to strengthen the a) Leniency Error
reliability. b) Proximity Error
d) The psychometrician needs to apply Horst’s c) Central Tendency Error
Modification to establish the reliability range d) Contrast Effect
67. Harry is having difficulty in establishing the reliability 73. You notice that the items for Theories of Personality
of his assessment tool. The test involves answering only covers Sikolohiyang Pilipino and behavioral
as many low difficulty items as possible in a given theories. The table of specifications indicated that all
time limit. What would you advise him to do? personality theories would be covered. This means
that the exam has?
5
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
a) Low face validity d) They are less prone to scoring errors
b) Low reliability but high criterion-related validity 80. You discovered that all the individuals who scored
c) Low content validity high on your test answered number 50 incorrectly.
d) High reliability but low criterion-related and Which of the following would hold TRUE?
content validity a) Immediately remove item no. 50.
74. Kazu is developing a test on narcissism. He saw that b) Higher scorers may have misinterpreted item no.
narcissism is often differentiated with passive- 50, interview them
aggressive behavior in studies. He finds a test that c) The distractors are too obvious
measures this variable and correlates his test with it. d) All of the above
What did he establish? 81. What should NOT be established during test
a) Convergent validity conceptualization?
b) Divergent validity a) Who is the test intended for?
c) Content validity b) Will the interpretation of the test be criterion or
d) Both A and B norm-referenced?
75. Say you are constructing a test that measures c) What attributes, characteristics or theoretical
heartbreak and you find that your items are all highly concepts will the test measure?
correlated with coefficients ranging from .97 to .99. d) What are the reliability and validity procedures to
What could be said about your items? be used?
a) The test items are desirable because they will e) NOTA
produce reliable and valid results. 82. Jeffrey and Peter tested positive in a random drug
b) The test items are desirable since they are test and were promptly fired. It was later discovered
homogenous and measure one construct. that Peter was addicted to milk of the poppy but
c) The test items are undesirable because the items Jeffrey had never taken drugs. The drug test
are likely redundant. indicated which of the following?
d) The test items are undesirable because they are a) A false positive for both Jeffrey and Peter
all equal in difficulty and discriminability which will b) A false negative for Jeffrey and a true positive or
not produce a normal distribution of scores. Peter
76. Hans is wondering why Section A has very low marks c) A true positive for Jeffrey and a false negative or
while Section B has nearly perfect scores. The Peter
students in both classes have relatively equal d) A false positive for Jeffrey and a true positive for
standing and the same test was administered in both Peter
classes by different proctors. In psychometrics, this is 83. Melanie recruits Gaspar and Rohelio to be her
a problem of? participants in a study because they have
a) Test-taker behavior experiences with hazing, which is her research topic.
b) Reliability and validity What sampling method is Melanie using?
c) Standardization a) Non-probability sampling – convenience
d) Test construction b) Probability sampling – random stratified
77. What does the Yerkes-Dodson Law say about test- c) Non-probability sampling – purposive
taking behavior? d) Probability sampling – snowballing
a) An individual will perform at his/her best when 84. How are experimental and quasi-experimental
there is no mental or physical arousal. research designs different?
b) Test performance is largely affected by the locus a) Experimental research design do not have a
of control of the individual. control group
c) When a person is anxious during a test, he/she is b) There is no random assignment in quasi-
highly likely to fail. experimental design
d) NOTA c) Experimental design has both pre and post tests
78. Traditionally, this term refers to the extent an while quasi experimental only has a post test
individual has experienced or has practiced taking d) The term ‘experimental’ is more commonly used
tests. in the clinical setting while the term ‘quasi’ is
a) Test Coaching added when it is used in the industrial setting.
b) Test Sophistication 85. This kind of research validity refers to the
c) Practice Effect generalizability of experiment results to the general
d) Carryover Effect population.
79. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a) Inferential Validity c) Internal Validity
selected-response test items? b) Construct Validity d) External Validity
a) They are easy to prepare 86. What is TRUE in the relationship between happiness,
b) They are easier to quantify the predictor, and ambitiousness, the criterion, if the
c) They make use of testing time more efficiently coefficient of determination is .60?
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ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
a) 60% of the variance in the level of one’s ambition b) Disclose information even without the clients
is explained by one’s happiness consent as long as it is to his/her immediate
b) 60% of the variance in one’s happiness is family (e.g mother, father, children)
explained by the level of one’s ambition c) Disclose information to the person who made the
c) 40% of the variance in one’s ambitiousness is referral even without the consent of the client
explained by one’s happiness who was assessed.
d) The coefficient of determination is not strong d) Disclose information to a colleague to get a
enough for happiness to sufficiently predict the second opinion regarding the case with the
level of one’s ambition. consent of the client.
87. This is a test given to illiterate recruits during World e) NOTA
War I. 94. Damian discovered that his bestfriend passed away.
a) Army Alpha c) Woodcock-Johnson He forgets to eat and cannot fall asleep. Despite his
b) Army Beta d) DAP emotional turmoil, he still goes to work in the morning
88. Which psychological test is not anchored on a because he has a therapy session with a client. What
personality theory? could be said about this?
a) EPPS c) Rorshach Inkblots a) He was right to go to work because the client is
b) TAT d) MMPI the priority and one should prioritize their needs
89. Carl gets nervous and paranoid easily. He doesn’t before one’s own.
have much confidence and is always anxious and b) He was right to go to work because he could be
moody. He doesn’t like surprises and is jumpy when more effective in providing therapy due to his
he is alone. He is easily irritated by trivial things. How emotional state which the client could relate to.
would you expect him to score in the NEO PI-R and in c) He should have stayed home because the
16PF? client’s case isn’t life threatening and can be put
a) Carl would score high in both emotional stability off for a later time.
dimensions of NEO PI-R and 16PF. d) He should have stayed home and referred or
b) Carl will score high in Neuroticism in 16 PF and rescheduled the client because he is unfit to
high in Anxiety in NEO PI-R. work.
c) Carl will score high in Psychasthenia in NEO PI- 95. Which is NOT an ethical violation?
R and low in Emotional Stability in 16PF. a) Providing services in an emergency situation
d) NOTA where there is no other professional available.
90. This is the most widely used individual intelligence b) Referring cases that you believe are ‘too much’
test for adults, comprised of four index scores. for you to handle
a) WAIS-IV c) SB-5 c) Stopping test-takers from answering when the
b) WPPSI d) LEITER-3 time limit runs out despite observing that most
91. This is an unstructured personality test used in the are only halfway through.
Philippines that was authored by Alfredo Lagmay. d) All of the above
a) Panukat ng Ugali at Pagkatao (PUP) e) NOTA
b) Panukat ng Pagkataong Pilipino (PPP) 96. What ethical value are you violating when you do not
c) Masaklaw na Panukad ng Loob allow your research participant to leave the study
d) Philippine Thematic Apperception Test because he/she feels uncomfortable?
92. In communicating test results, what is the most a) Non-maleficence
important information that should be discussed? b) Beneficence
a) The psychometric properties of the test to give c) Autonomy
evidence of its appropriateness d) Privacy
b) The conclusive diagnosis of the examinee and 97. A psychologist was lecturing about one of her patients
probable treatment or therapeutic options with schizophrenia to univeristy students. Her slides
c) The numerical scores and standardized scores show the picture, name, address and diagnosis of the
of the examinee client. What would you conclude?
d) The relevant interpretations and meaning of test a) The psychologist is not violating the code of
scores ethics since she is discussing the case in an
e) All of the above educational setting.
93. With regards to disclosing information, which is NOT b) The psychologist is not violating the code of
an ethical thing to do? ethics since individuals with psychotic disorders
a) Disclose information to authorities when the client are not of sound mind and are unable to give
needs to be protected from harm even without their consent.
his/her consent. c) The psychologist is violating the code of ethics,
specifically the ethical value of privacy that the
client is entitled to.
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ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
d) The psychologist is violating the code of ethics
specifically the ethical value of non-maleficence
that prioritizes the welfare of the client.
98. Which of the following cases does not require
informed consent?
a) Manny is in Grade 8 and is to take a routine IQ
and Problem Checklist test.
b) Conrad just submitted his resume and is
surprised that he was already asked to take a
personality test.
c) Hailey is trying to separate from her husband
because of psychological incapacity and abuse.
Her husband questions her sanity and claims she
is making false accusations. Hailey is then
referred for a psychological evaluation.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
99. Which of the following individuals can provide
consent?
a) A 12 year old client with the IQ of a genius
b) A 25 year old woman who has severe intellectual
disability
c) A 14 year old client who recently gave birth
d) A 40 year old comatose man
100. What does RGO stand for?
a) Review for Global Opportunities
b) Review for Goals and Opportunities
c) Reaching for Greatness Only
d) Revitalizing Global Omniscience
8
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ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY

ENCIRCLE THE LETTER THAT CORRESPONDS TO YOUR BEST ANSWER

2. Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality?

3. Which of the following is true regarding the "four Ds" of abnormality?

5. Which of the following is an example of point prevalence?

8. The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that

12. Inhibiting the process of reuptake in a neuron leads to:

16. Which of the following is consistent to Humanistic view of Abnormality?

17. Which of the following is included in the DSM?

18. Which of the following best describes the DSM?

20. Why is a representative sample desirable?

41. Which of the following is false about antisocial personality disorder?

44. Which of the following best defines all dissociative disorders?

49. In the diathesis-stress model, what does diathesis refer to?

69. Schizophrenia is not considered as sex-linked disorder, this means that

a. It tends to be more prevalent in either of the sexes

77. A sense of presence may occur in the following group except

79. Which of the following is a negative dissociative symptom?

81. What does self-functioning involve?

85. Which of the following is NOT true about pseudologia fantastica?

92. According to behavioral theories, how do paraphilias develop?

95. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most consistently implicated in ADHD?

1. The difference between training and development is that: A. Reward power.

I. Searching A. He is forced to resign because of the conduct of his

21. Which of the following is correct? a. Training

92. Documentation of performance is important for the following a. Employee reactions

94. The following statement are the reasons that an employee

95. . Which of the following is the prescribed sequence of the

A. Person Analysis > Task Analysis > Organizational

96.. A behavioral methods approach to performance appraisal

97. Carlo is learning to drive a car, it would be much easier for

1. The goal of IO Psychology is to 8. The foundation of all human resource activities

ENHANCEMENT DRILL PART 2

B. Reliability of predictors B. Screening applicants in a job vacancy

A. Validation factor C. Criterion A. The examinee’s test results are inconsistent

114. Which of the following depicts an ethical practice in terms of A. Integrity

134. A psychometrician who is skilled in choosing assessment D. Right to freedom of expression

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