Modified by: Jason Hii Sheng Hua.

Form 6 Q&A Biology

Essay question (7 marks)

1) Describe the formation and breakdown of maltose.
P1- (Define maltose). Maltose is a disaccharide formed from two glucose monosaccharide
molecules.

P2-P3 It is formed through condensation reaction in which water will be produced

P4- Equation

P5- When maltose is formed, alpha-1,4-glycosidic bond formed between the carbon
number 1 of one glucose molecule and the carbon number 4 of the second glucose
molecule.

P6-P7 When maltose is broken down, water is used which involves hydrolysis process.

p8- H and OH are added at either side of glycosidic bond to produce two glucose
molecules.

(Max 7 points)

Challenging essay question ( 15 marks)

1. A) Justify oligosaccharides. ( 7 marks)
Oligosaccharides are carbohydrates composed of a few number of monosaccharide
units. A monosaccharide is a simple sugar, having the empirical formula CH2O. The
number of monosaccharides present in an oligosaccharide varies from 3 to 6.

In rare occasions, oligosaccharides having about 10 monosaccharides are also

found. The bond between two monosaccharides is called a glycosidic bond. It is a covalent
bond that formed through a condensation reaction.
 This bond occurs between a carbon atom of one sugar molecule and the oxygen
atom of the hydroxyl group (-OH) of another sugar molecule. This condensation
polymerization results in a water molecule (H2O) per every glycosidic bond, as a
byproduct.

Oligosaccharides are water soluble carbohydrates since their structure is not that
much complex. Oligosaccharides taste are sugars and taste sweet. Most of the
oligosaccharides act as transport molecules, but they are not storage molecules.

b) Compare and contrast oligosaccharides and polysaccharides. (8 marks)

Oligosaccharides Polysaccharides
More water soluble Less water soluble
Taste sweet Does not taste sweet
Act as transport molecule// signalling Act as energy storage
molecule
Composed of approximately 2 to 6 Composed of about 200 monosaccharides//
monosaccharides // Shorter chain of Longer chain of monosaccharides.
monosaccharides
Cannot exist. Can exist in form of starch, glycogen and
cellulose.

Structure question

Q1:

a) Proteins are macromolecules that are made up of many amino acids.

(i) The diagram below shows two amino acids. Complete the diagram below
to show how the amino acids react together to form a dipeptide. (2 marks)
Answer:

(ii) What is represented by R1 and R2 as shown in the diagram above? (2

marks)

-Functional group//R group

b) i) Amylase and cellulose are polysaccharides. The diagram below shows the
structure of part of a cellulose molecule.

Explain how the structure of a cellulose molecule differs from the structure of amylose
moledcule. (2 marks)
 - Cellulose is in form of straight and branched chain whereas amylose is in form
of helical and unbranched chain.

- Cellulose is made up of Beta-glucose but amylose is made up of Alpha-glucose.

- In cellulose, Beta-glucose molecules are arranged by rotating 180‫ ﮿‬to each

other whereas in amylose, Alpha- glucose molecules does not arrange in this
way.

ii) Cellulose is the main component of plant cell walls. Explain why cellulose is
suitable as a component of plant cell wall. (2 marks)
- The cellulose that is straight/ linear enables molecules to lie parallel to each
other.

- Hence, plant cell will not burst easily as the strength of plant cell has been
reinforced by the presence of this characteristic.

- There are gaps between the fibers, allowing water and other substances to pass
through (makes the cell wall permeable).

Q2: The diagram below shows the structure of type of a lipid.

a) State the type of lipid. (1 mark)

- Lecithin.
b) State the backbone of this type of lipid. (1 mark)
- Glycerol.

c) Give A, B and X. (3 marks)

- A represents saturated fatty acid/ stearic acid, B represents unsaturated fatty
acid (oleic acid) and X represents ester linkage.

d) Give two characteristics of this lipid which are responsible for cell membrane
formation. ( 2 marks)
- The phospholipid consists of a hydrophilic head which faces extracellular fluid
and intracellular cytoplasm.
- It also contains hydrophobic tail which faces the inside of membrane.

Essay question

Q1 (15 marks):

a) Describe four properties which render water to be an important medium for life.
(8 marks).

Water is polar. Hence, there are hydrogen bonds between the water molecules.
This lead to cohesion and adhesion. The cohesion and adhesion of water
contributes to the transport of water against the gravity in plants.

Water has also high surface tension. Thus, some animals may enable to stand,
walk or run on the surface of water without breaking it such as water striders.

Besides, water has high specific heat capacity due to large number of hydrogen
bonds between water molecules. Any change in temperature is negligible when it
absorbs large amount of heat. Therefore, body temperature of human can be
maintained at optimum level without fluctuation (resist temperature change)
because human cells mainly consist of water. This property not only helps human,
but also helps aquatic organism as water stabilizes ocean temperatures, creating
suitable environment for aquatic life.

Additionally, water has high latent heat of vaporization due to presence of

hydrogen bonds. Large amount of heat that is required to vaporize water
molecules in liquid form has acted a significant role in human body. Evaporation of
sweat from human skin cools the body. For plants, water evaporation helps to
produce cooling effect in plant tissues.

Apart from that, water has another property including that water is less dense as
a solid than as a liquid due to water in solid form (ice) creates hexagonal crystal
lattice which occupies large volume, resulting in lower density. The maximum
density of water is at 4‫﮿‬C. Hence, due to this property, ice floats on top of water
and insulates the water below the ice, preventing water from being frozen. This
allows aquatic organism to survive during winter. This whole process indicates
anomalous behavior of water.

Water is a universal solvent that can dissolve polar compounds. Hence, biological
fluids such as blood, cell sap and liquid in the cells have different types of dissolved
substances.

Water boils at 100°C and freezes at 0°C. Hence, the temperature range at
which water is liquid is large. This permits existence of water as liquid on
Earth’s surface which allows life to exist.

Water is also acting as important medium as it hydrolyses macromolecule during

digestion. For example, starch has to be broken down into simpler molecules by
having water and amylase enzyme. Water is required in every enzymatic reaction.

Extra point; <Water is transparent> And incompressible as well?

 b) (i) With the aid of labelled diagram, show how a triglyceride is formed through
the esterification process. (3 marks)

Esterification process involves the condensation reaction between one molecule

of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids. As a result, three ester bonds and three
molecules of water are formed. (More important answer: 1 triglyceride molecule is
formed).

(ii) Describe the importance of lecithin in cell membrane structure. (4 marks)

(Importance of phospholipid in making structure) Lecithin is a phospholipid molecule

which consists of hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails. Cell membranes are
made up of two phospholipid bilayers with hydrophilic head facing outside while
hydrophobic tails facing inside the membrane.

(Importance of phospholipid for its function).The presence of lecithin in cell

membrane structure is important for forming a boundary separating the cell contents
from external environment. By hydrophobic tails, lecithin is able to regulate the
movement of substances across the membrane since it is selectively permeable.
Substances with lipid-soluble//non-polar and small substances can pass through the
membrane, whereas substances which are ionic, polar and large are not able to pass
through the membrane, but only with the help of specific protein, they can pass
through.
Structure question
Q1: The diagram bellows shows a part of a polypeptide chain. This structure is found in
proteins.

a) Name the basic unit of a polypeptide (1 mark)

- Amino acid.

b) Identify the type of bond in structure labelled X. (1 mark).

- Hydrogen bond.

c) State the level of protein represented by the diagram. (1 mark).

- Secondary structure of protein.

d) Explain what would happen to the polypeptide chain if it is heated to 70 °C. (1

mark)
- The polypeptide chain will unfold and protein becomes denatured due to the
hydrogen bonds have been broken.

e) Protein can be classified as globular or fibrous. Name one example of each. (2

marks)
- Globular protein: Amylase//Any named hormones//Any named antibodies.
Fibrous protein: Keratin//Silk//Collagen//Myosin.
f) State two differences between a polypeptide and a polysaccharide chain. (2
marks)
- Polypeptide is a straight chain whereas some polysaccharide chains are
branched// not straight.
- Polysaccharides have identical monomers whereas polypeptides have different
monomers.
- Monomers in polysaccharide are linked by glycosidic bond whereas monomers
in polypeptide are linked by dipeptide bond.
- Based on their functional differences, polypeptide helps to build up new
tissues, whereas polysaccharide is mainly providing energy when cellular
respiration occurs.
- Somehow, if students cannot write out other answers, we can mention
examples.

Q2: The diagram below shows the molecular structure of an amino acid.

a) In the space below, show how a dipeptide is formed from two amino acids.
Answer:
b) Give two sites where peptide bonds are formed in a cell. (2 marks)
- Cytoplasm (Due to presence of free ribosomes found within cytoplasm) and
rough endoplasmic reticulum (Due to presence of bound ribosomes found
onto the rough endoplasmic reticulum).

c) Explain the significance of R groups of different amino acids to protein

structures. (3 marks)
- Amino acids such as alanine and valine have non-polar R groups. Hence,
protein with these amino acids are insoluble in water. Example, keratin and
collagen.
- Basic amino acid have R groups with amino group whereas acidic amino acid
have R groups related to carboxyl group. The proteins made up of these basic
units are soluble in water and somehow conduct electricity. The amino group
and carboxyl group from R group also forms ionic bond which maintain
globular structure of protein.
- Amino acids with polar R group increase the solubility of protein. Hydrogen
bonds that are formed between polypeptide chains.
Q3: The diagram below shows a dipeptide formed from two amino acids, alanine and
cysteine.

a) (i) State how the two amino acids, alanine and cysteine differ from one
another. (1 mark)
- R group of both amino acids are different.

ii) Draw a line around the peptide bond on the diagram. (1 mark)
Answer:

b) Explain what is meant by the primary structure of protein. (1 mark)

- It is a linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

c) Collagen and hemoglobin (America English form) are examples of proteins.

(i) State a bond other than peptide bonds which collagen and hemoglobin
have in common. (1 mark)

- Hydrogen bond.
 (ii) Give three differences between collagen and hemoglobin. (3 marks)

- One of the differences is collagen has triple helical structures whereas

hemoglobin has globular structure. Another difference includes polypeptide chains
making collagen are same type whereas polypeptide chains making hemoglobin
are two types: Alpha-polypeptide chain and Beta-polypeptide chain. Besides,
hemoglobin is soluble whereas collagen is insoluble in water.

Q4: The diagram below shows part of a DNA molecule.

a) i) Name part of the molecule labelled P. (1 mark)

 - Nucleotide.

ii) State the bases labelled A, C, G and T. (2 marks)

- A= adenine, C= cytosine, G= guanine, T= thymine.
(Purine= Adenine, Guanine) whereas (Pyrimidine= Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil)

b) Explain how two strands of the DNA molecule are held together. (2 marks)
- The two polypeptide chains are antiparallel and held by hydrogen bonds
between the bases in the opposite strands.

c) State three differences between RNA and DNA. (3 marks). (REMEMBER

MUST BE IN FULL SENTENCES)

DNA
DNA consists of two polypeptide chains.
The polypeptide chain is usually long.
The pentose sugar of DNA is
deoxyribose.
The nitrogenous bases are adenine,
thymine, cytosine and guanine.
The DNA is in double helical form.
RNA
RNA consists of a single polypeptide
chain.
The polypeptide chain is usually short.
The pentose sugar of RNA is ribose.
The nitrogenous bases include adenine,
uracil, cytosine and guanine
There is no double helix formed.

DNA controls all activities in the cell. Components of ribosomes.

DNA exist in one form only. RNA exists in many forms, (transfer
RNA, messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA...
etc)

Essay question (15 marks)

Q1:
a) Explain the structures of primary, secondary, and tertiary protein. Give the
significances of these structures which are related to the properties of protein.
(9 marks)
 In primary structure, it is a linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
The protein filaments, namely actin and myosin in the muscle have primary
structures. Muscle contraction is due to sliding motion of actin and myosin
filaments.

In secondary structure, it is formed when polypeptide chain is coiled to form

Alpha-helix shape or folded to form Beta-pleated sheet. Hydrogen bonds are
formed to maintain the shape of Alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheet. For example,
collagen consists of strands wrapped around one another to form strong fibres as
seen in tendons and fibres in skin.

In tertiary structure, it is formed by folding and coiling of secondary structure of

polypeptide chain to form compact three dimensional globular protein. The shape
of three dimensional globular protein is maintained by ionic bonds, hydrogen
bonds, disulphide bonds and hydrophobic interactions. For example, the tertiary
structure enables enzyme to have their own specific sites // antibodies to have
specific reaction with antigen.

b) State the types of protein and their functions in living organisms. (6 marks)
One of types of protein is structural protein. Structural protein provides support
in the bodies and tissues of living organism. These proteins form a fibrous network
in the animal connective tissue. For example, collagen in tendons and ligaments.

Another type of protein is transport protein. Transport proteins are involved in

transport of substances in a body. For example, hemoglobin transport oxygen and
the membrane proteins transport ions and polar molecules across the
phospholipid bilayer.

Besides, hormonal protein is categorized into types of protein. Hormones are

protein involved in coordination of organism’s activity. For example, thyroxine and
growth hormone are responsible for regulating growth and metabolism

Contractile protein are protein involved in movement. For example, contraction

of muscles involved mechanism of actin and myosin.
 Enzymatic protein is also one of types of protein. This means that enzymes are
involved in the reaction. For example, digestive enzyme acts as a biological catalyst
which breaks down biological macromolecules into simpler molecules.

Last, defense protein is a protein involving in defence against protein. Example,

antibodies are involved in recognition of antigens and defence of body against
diseases.

Structure question:
Q1 (7 marks):

a) Name molecules P and Q (2 marks)

-P is amylose, Q is amylopectin

b) Name the bond which joins the monomers in structure Q. (1 mark)

- Alpha-1,4-glycosidic bond.

c) What is the significance of the coiled structure of molecule P.(1 mark)

-To make them compact and suitable for storage.

d) The main function of this molecule is as a source of energy. State how this
molecule could be transformed as a substrate to produce energy. (3 marks)
 - Amylose is hydrolysed by amylase to produce alpha-glucose. Alpha-glucose is
used in cellular respiration once it is broken down.

Q2: Three types of amino acids are shown below.

a) Name the amino acids A, B and C. (3 marks)

A: Lysine, B: Glycine, C: Serine

b)
(i) The structures in the dotted lines boxes are known as: (1 mark)
Functional group// R-group.
(ii) In which group does amino acid A and C belong to? (2 marks)
A: Basic amino acid
C: Polar amino acid

c) Name the process X and Y in the reaction below:

X: Condensation
Y: Hydrolysis
Q3:
a) i) Give an example of simple protein and a conjugated protein.
- Simple protein: Albumen, conjugated protein: Haemoglobin.

ii) Differentiate simple proteins and conjugated proteins.

- Simple proteins consist of amino acids only whereas conjugated proteins
contain amino acids and non-protein component.

iii) Name two fibrous proteins and globular proteins.

- Fibrous proteins include keratin and fibroin in silk, globular proteins include
enzyme and antibody.

iv) State three differences in structure between a fibrous protein and a

globular protein.
- Fibrous protein is usually secondary structure whereas globular protein is
accompanied with tertiary structure.
- Fibrous protein is long, parallel polypeptide chain whereas globular protein is
coiled with 3D shape.
- Fibrous protein is helical or folded shape which maintained by hydrogen bond.
However, globular protein is spherical in shape which its structure is
maintained by hydrogen bonds, disulphide bonds, hydrophobic interactions
and ionic bonds.

Essay question (15 marks)

Q1: a) Describe the structure of DNA:
DNA is a polymer consisting of two polynucleotide strands proposed by Watson and
Crick. The two strands coiled around each other to form a double helix. The surface of the
helix shows alternating major and minor grooves.
 The two strands are antiparallel, one strand runs from 5’ to 3’, another strand runs from
3’ to 5’. There are four different nitrogenous bases in DNA molecule includes adenine,
thymine, cytosine and guanine. The base pairing is complementary and precise, meaning
that adenine is linked to thymine with formation of two hydrogen bonds whereas cytosine
is linked to guanine with formation of three hydrogen bonds.

The two polypeptide strands are held together by hydrogen bonding between bases in
opposite strands.

The base pairs are stacked 0.34nm apart. The DNA replication is semi-conservative. The
two strands are complementary and the sequence of bases forms the genetic code that
control cellular activities.

b) Why do animal cells store glycogen and not starch as energy source?
-Animals use glycogen, which is like starch but highly branched, because glucose can only
be liberated at the ends of the branches (non-reducing ends) which means that many
glucose molecules can be liberated simultaneously from a branched polymer but only one
at a time from a linear polymer.

Q2 (15 marks) (2015 Past Year Question)

1) a) i) Draw and label the molecular structure of cholesterol with its hydrophilic
and hydrophobic tail. Describe its properties. (6 marks)

Answer of drawing and labels:

 Cholesterol has 4 hydrocarbon rings with a hydrophobic tail at one end and a
hydrophilic region with an OH group at the other end. The hydrophobic end is
lipid-soluble whereas the hydrophilic region is water-soluble. Due to molecular size
of hydrophobic region exceeds the hydrophilic region, the cholesterol becomes
more insoluble in water// soluble in organic solvent.

ii) Describe the roles of cholesterol in metabolism. (4 marks)

Cholesterol acts as one of components in making cell surface membrane in order
to maintain the stability of plasma membranes. It also acts as precursor of steroid
hormones. For example, steroid hormone. Not only that, it also acts as precursor
for bile formation.

b) Explain the principle of DNA separation using gel electrophoresis. (5 marks)

Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA into fragments. Separation
is based on the charges on the DNA fragments. The phosphate backbone of DNA is
negatively charged. When DNA is placed in an electric field, the fragments will
move to anode. The movement of DNA molecule is dependent by size of DNA
molecules, voltage supplied and concentration of gel as well. Bigger size of DNA
molecules will slow down its movement toward electrodes.

From school exam:

Essay question:

1) a) Explain the following properties of proteins:

i) Amphoteric [3 marks]
ii) Buffer [3 marks]
c) With the aid of labelled diagrams, differentiate four levels of protein structures.
[9 marks]

Answer for a) i)
- Proteins are polypeptides which consist of many units of amino acids. Some
amino acids have side chains which are acidic and basic groups. Amphoteric
molecule can donate hydrogen ions or accept hydrogen ions. In acidic medium,
protein molecules can accept hydrogen ions into the amino groups while in
basic medium, they donate hydrogen from the carboxylic group, so that
overall charges of protein become positive.

Answer for ii)

- A protein is a buffer which resists pH changes. When a small amount of acid is
added to protein, the H+ ions from acid will attach onto the amino group so
that there is no free hydrogen ion, so pH change is maintained. When a small
amount of alkali is added to protein, H+ ions detach from carboxyl group of
amino acid and combine with OH- from alkali to form water, hence this does
not fluctuate pH too much as there’s no free hydroxide ion. Since protein can
resist pH changes when there’s alkali or acid added, therefore protein acts as
buffer.

Answer for c)
Labelled diagram:
P1: four levels of proteins structures include primary structure, secondary structure,
tertiary structure and quaternary structure.

P2: Primary structure of a protein refers to the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
chain.

P3: Drawing

P4: There are no hydrogen bonds between the amino acids in a primary structure while
the other three levels have this type of bond and other bonds.

P5: The secondary protein structure have the polypeptide chain folded to form coils or
beta-pleated sheets due to hydrogen bonds between C=O and –NH groups from peptide
bond region

P5: Secondary proteins do not have disulphide bonds, ionic bonds, or hydrophobic
interaction.

P6: The tertiary protein is formed by folding and coiling of secondary structure of protein
to form a precise, compact three dimensional shaped globular protein.

P7: Unlike primary and secondary structures, tertiary protein structures has hydrogen
bonds, ionic bonds, disulphide bridges and hydrophobic interaction which help to
maintain tertiary structure of protein

P8: Quaternary structure of protein consists of two or more polypeptide chains while the
other level only have one polypeptide chain.
Structured question: The result from an experiment to identify the photosynthetic
pigments in the spinach leaf is shown in the diagram:

a) State the technique used in this experiment. (1 mark)

- Paper chromatography.

b) Identify X. (1 mark)
- Concentrated spot of chlorophyll extract.

c) i) Calculate the relative factor , Rf value for A and C. (2 marks)

- Relative factor for A= (9.0)/(9.7)
= 0.93
- Relative factor for C= (6.1)/(9.7)
= 0.63
iii) Explain the importance of relative factor value.
- Used to identify the unknown compounds in a mixture.

d) State two factors which influence the separation of pigments in the experiment.
(2 marks)
- Adsorption and molecular size.
1) Describe the bonds which join:
a) Water molecules:
- Water molecules form hydrogen bonding between each other. Hydrogen
bonding is formed between an electronegative oxygen atom of a water
molecule and an electropositive hydrogen atom from another water
molecule.

b) A glucose and fructose molecule in a sucrose:

- The bond formed between a glucose and a fructose molecule is known as α-
1,2-glycosidic bond. The bond is formed when first carbon atom of alpha
glucose interacts with second carbon atom of fructose molecule.
Condensation reaction is resulted, removing water molecule.

c) A glucose and a galactose in a lactose:

The bond formed between glucose and galactose is B-1,4-glycosidic bond.
 The first carbon atom of glucose forms bond with the fourth carbon atom of
galactose.

d) Glucose in amylopectin:
-Bonds formed between glucose in amylopectin include α-1,4-glycosidic
bond and α-1,6-glycosidic bond. The α-1,6-glycosidic bond results from first
carbon atom of glucose with sixth carbon atom of another glucose molecule,
forming a branch.
- For α-1,4-glycosidic bond, it results in forming a helical coil within
amylopectin molecule between first carbon atom and fourth carbon atom
of glucose molecules.
e) Glucose in glycogen:
- Similar to the amylopectin but its highly branched compared to
amylopectin.
f) The glucose in cellulose:
- Cellulose is made up of many B-glucose molecules. Thus, the bond formed
between B-glucose molecule is B-1,4-glycosidic bond. Each B-glucose
molecule is linked to the next by rotating 180 degree with hydroxyl group
projecting outward on either side of the chain.

g) Fatty acid and glycerol in triglyceride:

- The bond formed between the fatty acid and the glycerol is known as ester
linkage. It is formed when the hydrogen atom from the hydroxyl group of
the glycerol and the hydroxyl group from the fatty acid are removed, which
forming an ester/triglycerides with –COO (carboxylate group) as a
functional group. Three water molecules are produced in this reaction.
h) Amino acids in a dipeptide:
- Two amino acids are joined together by peptide bond. The amino group of
an amino acid joins to the carboxyl group of another amino acid with one
water molecule removed in the condensation reaction.

i) Different amino acids in a protein molecule with tertiary structure:

- Ionic bond, disulphide bond, hydrophobic interaction, hydrogen bonding.
1) Hydrogen bonding:
- There is attractive interaction between a slightly electropositive hydrogen
atom (from amino group, -NH2) and the electronegative oxygen atom from
keto group (C=O).
2) Ionic bond
 - Side chain interaction
- Formed between the positively charged amino group and negatively
charged carboxyl group. Each originates from side chain of amino acid
which is either acidic or basic group)
3) Disulphide bond:
- Formed between sulphydryl group (-SH) of two cysteine residues from
different polypeptide chain. When each sulphydrl group is oxidized, they
will form strong covalent bond with each other. (Hair perming concept)
- Strong covalent bond.
4) Hydrophobic interaction:
- Involves Van der Waals force.
- Non-polar groups interact each other, some may cluster or aggregate
together to exclude water. (HATE- WATER)

j) Two nucleotides in dinucleotide:

- Phosphodiester bond. It is formed between the phosphate group, third
carbon atom of pentose and fifth carbon atom of another pentose. (5’-to-3’
direction)
2) Explain the following terms:
(I) Polar molecule:
 It is a molecule which its atoms carry partial charge (either positive
or negative).
 For example, water is a polar molecule, because of its partial
electronegative oxygen atom which forms weak chemical bond to
other electropositive atom/ion while the partial electropositive
hydrogen atom may bond weakly to the another electronegative
atom//ion.
 For example, water is added into the sodium chloride salt, displacing
the attraction between Cl- and Na+.
 Cl- approaches to H atom whereas Na+ approaches to the slighty
electronegative O atom)
(II) Amphipathic molecule:
- Phospholipid is amphipathic molecule. This is due to the fact that it
contains hydrophilic head and also hydrophobic tail.
- The polar hydrophilic head point outwards, attracting water to form
hydrogen bonds
- The non-polar hydrophobic tail forms interaction with each other.
- In watery intracellular environment, the phospholipid molecules arrange
together to form a bilayer membrane.

iii) Amphoteric molecule:

- Proteins are polypeptides which consist of many units of amino acids.

Some amino acids have side chains which are acidic and basic groups.
Amphoteric molecule can donate hydrogen ions or accept hydrogen ions. In
acidic medium, protein molecules can accept hydrogen ions into the amino
groups while in basic medium, they donate hydrogen from the carboxylic
group, so that overall charges of protein become positive.

iv) isoelectric point of amino acid:

- It refers to the pH in which the amino acid carries no net charge or electrical
neutrality is maintained.
- Each amino acid has its own isoelectric point whereby the positive charge
and negative charge are equal on the amino acid.
- When the pH of buffer solution is below the isoelectric point, the carboxyl
group of amino acid will accept proton, overall charge on amino
acidbecomes positive.
 - When the pH of buffer solution is above the isoelectric point, the amino
group of amino acid will donate hydrogen ion so that overall charge
becomes negative.

v) antiparallel strands of DNA:

- One strand runs from 5’ to 3’ while other strand runs from 3’ to 5’.

3) Draw and label:

i) A segment of DNA with 4 different pairs of nucleotides:

ii) A tRNA molecule to show the amino binding site, anticodon and phosphate
binding site:
III) a mRNA molecule with an initiator codon.

4) Explain the principle of gel electrophoresis and paper chromatography. State

the uses of each one.

Principle of paper chromatography is based on liquid - liquid partition

chromatography. In paper chromatography, special quality paper known as
chromatography paper contains water trapped in it which acts as the
stationary phase. A strip of chromatographic paper spotted at the base with
the solution of the mixture is suspended in a suitable solvent for a mixture of
solvents. This solvent acts as the mobile phase. The solvent rises up the paper
by capillary action and flows over the spot. The paper selectively retains
different components according to their differing partition in the two phases.
The paper strip so developed is called as a chromatogram. Considering
retardation factor, the component has high Rf value when it is smaller in size,
high adsorbility rate onto the chromatography paper.

Gel electrophoresis involves certain principles that need to follow;

- Size of DNA

- Applied voltage

- Agrose concentration.

- Buffer at pH 7.

- Uses of paper chromatography: Separate different chemical colours

- uSE OF gel electrophoresis: DNA fingerprinting.

Refer to difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells here:

Q1: The lysosome appears as a membrane-covered body which is slightly smaller
than mitochondria when observed through electron microscope. It functions as a
storage for hydrolytic enzymes such as RNase, DNase, protease, lipase,
carbohydrate and phosphatase. These enzymes are able to digest substances
engulfed by the cell and under some conditions could destroy the cell itself.

a) State the type of cell in human body that has numerous lysosomes. Explain
your answer. (2 marks)
- Phagocytic white blood cell/ Neutrophil/ Macrophage. This is because white blood
cells are able to engulf and digest the bacteria through phagocytosis.

b) Give one difference between the membrane of a lysosome and the membrane
of a mitochondrion. (1 mark)
- Lysosome is bound with single membrane whereas mitochondrion is bound with
double membrane.

c) State a special feature of lysosome membrane. (1 mark)

- The membrane of lysosome is resistant to digestion by hydrolytic enzymes, hence
preventing the enzymes from acting directly on the cell itself.

d) Explain briefly how lysosome acts to release enzyme in the cell. (2 marks)
- Primary lysosome formed by Golgi apparatus containing hydrolytic enzyme fuses
with food vacuole or autophagosome.
- Secondary lysosome is formed when the hydrolytic enzyme is released and acted
onto the food vacuole//autophagosome.
- The enzyme will hydrolyse the substance in the vacuole//worn-out organelles in
the food vacuole// autophagosome.
- (Process in autophagosome =autophagy). Another action includes autolysis, which
involves release of enzyme to digest the cell. During autolysis, the cells are
prepared to die, the membrane of lysosome will break down to ensure release of
enzyme.
 - For example, metamorphosis requires autolysis so that the the pupa can be
transformed into adult(imago).

e) State a process involving lysosome. (1 mark)

- Digestion of food substances taken by the cells through endocytosis.

f) Give a method that is used to separate lysosome in the cell. (1 mark)

- Differential ultracentrifugation.

Q2: A number of cells taken from a type of tissue were homogenised. Their
organelles were then separated by ultracentrifugation. The diagram below shows
three types of organelles obtained through this process.

Organelle K A B Organelle L

C
Organelle M

a) State where these cells are taken from. (1 mark)

- Mesophyll cell

b) Give the sedimentation order for organelles K, L and M. (2 marks)

- K>M>L. This is due to K is bigger than and denser than M whereas M is bigger and
denser than L.

c) Name the structures labelled A, B and C. (3 marks)

- A is thylakoid. B is cisternae of Golgi apparatus whereas C represents matrix of
mitochondrion.

d) State a function of organelle L. (1mark)

- Formation of lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes.// Modifies protein into
glycoproteins such as mucin by combining the protein and carbohydrate.

e) State a common function of organelles K and M. (1 mark)

- Both organelles are able to produce ATP.

Q3: The flow chart shows the steps of separation of organelles in the cell by
using cell differential technique that involve process X and centrifugation process.

● At homogenate suspension, there is centrifugation of 600g for 10 minutes

● At first supernatant, there is centrifugation at 10,000g for 20 minutes
● At second supernatant, there is ultracentrifugation at 100,000g for 60 minutes.
a) (i) Name the process of X ( Animal tissue homogenate suspension ). (1
mark)
-Homogenisation.
(ii) State the force involved in centrifugation process. (1 mark)
-Centrifugal force.

b) State the name of the organelles in the sediments A, B and C as well as each
of their functions. (6 marks)
- Sediment A represents nucleus. Nucleus acts as a control centre for all activities in
the cell.
- Sediment B represents mitochondria which acts as a site for cellular respiration.
- Sediment C represents endoplasmic reticulum. SER is responsible for synthesis and
storage of lipid, steroid and cholesterol. Whereas rough endoplasmic reticulum
functions as an intracellular transport system, transporting proteins synthesised by
ribosomes.
Q4: Diagram here shows a cell containing organelles.
A) Name the process A and B and the sequence II. (3 marks)
- Process A is endocytosis whereas process B is exocytosis. Sequence II is autophagy.

B) Name the cell that is highly involved in the process B above. State the
importance of this process. (2 marks)
- Phagocytic cell/ Monocyte/Neutrophil/ Macrophage. Importance of the process is
to digest bacteria.

C) Describe how does sequence II occurs. (3 marks)

- The worn-out organelle is enveloped by a membrane/ vacuole. The primary
lysosome formed from Golgi apparatus fuses with the vacuole to form secondary
lysosome. Simultaneously, there’s a rupture of the vacuole. Hydrolytic enzyme is
released to break down the organelle. The wastes in the residual body are
excreted through exocytosis. ( Exo=Out, Endo=Into, Cytosis= process involving cell)
Essay Question (*Paragraph form*)
Q1: Describe, with aid of labelled diagrams, the structure and function of:
(i) Endoplasmic reticulum. [5]
(ii) Golgi apparatus. [6]
(iii) Lysosome. [4]
(15 marks)
Answer for (i):
Labelled diagram for two forms of endoplasmic
reticulum:

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) consists of flattened membrane-bound sacs called

cisternae, forming intracellular channels within cytoplasm. There are two forms of ER
which are rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER).

The RER is covered with ribosomes. The channels of RER is continuous with outer
membrane of nucleus. RER is responsible for transport proteins synthesized by
ribosomes

However, SER does not have ribosomes attached to its surface. Function of SER
included lipid synthesis, carbohydrate metabolism and drug detoxification which
involves series of redox reaction. It can also be modified to form sarcoplasmic
reticulum which is found within muscle fibres.
Answer for (ii):
Labelled diagram for (ii)

Golgi apparatus consists of stack of flattened membrane-bound sacs as well called

cisternae. The cisternae are not interconnected.

Cisternae near the cell surface membrane (trans-end)// Concave-shaped cisternae

will bud off to form lysosome//secretory vesicles. There is convex-shaped cisternae
which is further from cell surface membrane (cis-end).

Function of Golgi apparatus is to manufacture lysosome, transport and store

materials. It also modifies proteins into enzymes and glycoproteins such as mucin
(Mucins are a family of high molecular weight, heavily glycosylated proteins produced
by epithelial tissues in most animals). For plant part, it secretes carbohydrates which

are required for cell wall synthesis.

 Answer for (iii):
Labelled diagram for (iii):

Lysosome is spherical and membrane-bound sac that contains hydrolytic enzyme.

Function of lysosome includes breaking down of substances or bacteria by digestion,
autophagy, releasing enzyme during exocytosis which digests substances outside the
cells, and digesting old whole cells through autolysis.

Q2: With the aid of labelled diagram, describe the structure and function of:

(i) Ribosome. [5]

(ii) Mitochondrion [5]
(iii) Chloroplast. [5]

(15 marks)
Labelled diagram for (i)

Ribosomes are spherical granules with two subunits, a large and a small subunit.
Both subunit is made up of RNA and protein. Ribosomes are in two forms namely
bound ribosomes (attached onto RER) and free ribosomes (occurs within cytoplasm). It
can also be aligned in singly (individually) form or grouped together to form
polyribosomes. Its function is to synthesize protein. (Can mention diameter if
remember, about 20-25 nanometre wide). Besides, ribosomes are provided with
different sedimentation value S value), which defining that there are 80S ribosomes
(Eukaryotic cell) and 70S ribosomes (prokaryotic cell).

Labelled diagram for (ii):

Mitochondrion is generally rod-shaped and covered with two membranes, the outer
and inner membrane. (Can mention diameter and length if remember). The inner
membrane of mitochondrion is folded to form cristae. This increases total surface area
for attachment of enzyme. There are also stalked particles onto the cristae which
contains ATP synthase available for combination among ADP and Pi (inorganic
phosphate). Content surrounded by the inner membrane is a matrix containing
enzyme, DNA, RNA and 70S ribosomes. Mitochondria acts as site for production of
energy through cellular respiration.

Labelled diagram for (iii):

 Chloroplast is biconvex disc-shaped. It is also bound with two membranes, outer and
inner membrane. Whereas the fluid present is stroma containing DNA, ribosomes,
starch granule, lipid droplets, enzymes for dark reaction and various types of
substances.

Within the stroma contains thylakoids. The thylakoids are inter-connected with each
other to form disc-shaped membrane-bound sacs. Thylakoids are then stacked
together to form a granum. Each granum is linked with another granum by intergranal
lamellae.

Function of chloroplast is to act as a site for photosynthesis.

Structured question:
A) Name P and Q. (2 marks)

P: Crista Q: Granum

B)State two common characteristics of both organelles. (2 marks)

- Both organelles have double membrane.

- Both organelle have DNA and 70S ribosome.

C)State function of R. (1 mark)

- Store food for plant cells.

D)Explain the importance of P and Q to the organelles. (2 marks)

-P: Increases surface area where there are embedded enzymes to carry out cellular
respiration in order to generate ATP.

-Q: Increases surface area where solar energy is harvested by chlorophyll to

generate chemical energy through light reaction.

Q3: (15 marks)

A) Explain briefly how an image of cell ultrastructure is formed by the transmission
electron microscope and scanning electron microscope. (5 marks)
Transmission electron microscope.
 In transmission electron microscope (TEM), a beam of electrons is passed through
thin sections of embedded material in a vacuum. The beam is directly passed onto
a screen where electron micrograph of cell ultrastructure is taken. The image that
will appear dark means that some electrons are absorbed by dense part of material,
whereas if the electrons pass through the material, the image appears bright.

In scanning electron microscope, beams of electrons are passed through the

material. Scattering of electrons while absorbing others takes place. The scattered
electrons are amplified and projected onto a screen to show the image.

Scanning electron microscope

b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of transmission electron

microscopy compared to light microscopy. (10 marks)

One of advantages of transmission electron microscope is to able large

magnification of objects (x500000). This can enable observer to observe clearly a
very small object. Besides, it also provides high resolving power due to the
wavelength of electron beam is short. (Increased focus by electromagnet). Hence,
greater depth of field is possibly made.

However, there is disadvantages including that it is bulky and expensive. The

operation of transmission electron microscope needs unique expertise as the
preparation of material is complex. Apart from that, the image produced is easily
affected by magnetic fields. It is only able to produce black-and-white images and
only able to observe non-living materials.
 For light microscopy, there are advantages. It is small and portable compared to
TEM. It is inexpensive and does not require unique expertise (Operation is simple).
It is also able to produce colourful images (just staining). Besides, images produced
is also not affected by magnetic field. Additionally, light microscope is also able to
observe living materials.

However, there are also disadvantages of using light microscope. It can only
magnify objects up to 2000 times (or x2000) and provide low resolution due to the
light has longer wavelength

Structure question
Q1:

a) Tissue X is parenchyma. Tissue Y is sclerenchyma. Tissue Z is collenchyma.

b) Functions of tissues X:
1) Photosynthesis 4) For secretion
2) Food storage 5) Provide turgidity.
3) Packing tissue 6) Attract pollinating agents.

Tissue Y acts as supporting tissue to provide mechanical strength. Whereas

tissue Z is also providing flexibility and mechanical strength.
 c) Xylem tissue contains xylem vessel, tracheid, xylem parenchyma and xylem
sclerenchyma.

Q2: Diagram below shows the cross section (P) and longitudinal section (Q) of part
of a plant stem tissue.

a) Xylem
b) X is annular. Y is spiral. Z is reticulate
c) (i) This is due to the walls of xylem are thickened with lignin. Pattern formed by
secondary wall deposit in primary xylem depends on elongation rate of stem.
When the elongation rate of stem is high, the stem is the most flexible. Thus,
annular or spiral thickening occurs. If there is no too much// no such elongation,
the scalariform, reticulate and pitted form of thickening occurs.

(ii) Two important characteristics include:

- Pitted walls which allows lateral movement of water
- Hollow and continuous tube to ensure upward movement of water
- Secondarily thickened with lignin. This ensures the xylem will not be collapsed
under tension carried by transpirational pull.
Essay question:
Q1: With the aid of labelled diagram, explain the structure and function of the
following plant tissues (15 marks):
a) Parenchyma tissue [5]
b) Sclerenchyma tissue [5]
c) Collenchyma tissue [5]

a) Parenchyma tissue :

Parenchyma cells are usually spherical, isodiametric or elongated. The cells are
alive and have thin cellulose cell walls. It contains large vacuole with nucleus and
cytoplasm pushed to periphery.

The cells are loosely arranged, creating an intercellular space. One of functions of
parenchyma tissue is to act as site for photosynthesis, since it contains chloroplast.
The cells are able to store food as well as act as major component of the ground
tissue in stems, roots and leaves of plants. This type of tissue has the ability of
providing turgidity.
b) Sclerenchyma tissue:

Sclerenchyma tissue exists in two forms including sclereid and sclerenchyma fibre.
Before maturity, the cells are alive. However, the cells die after maturity and do
not have protoplasm (nucleus + cytoplasm) due to presence of lignin that does not
allow water enter it by osmosis (impervious 不透水 to water)

Mature cells do have thick and lignified secondary cell walls and they have form
pits with each other. Sclerenchyma tissue do not produce intercellular space due to
each cells are compact met together in order to give the plant mechanical strength
and rigidity.

For sclerenchyma fibre, it is long, slender and usually grouped in strands which
acts as supporting tissue to provide great tensile strength to prevent breaking
when the part of plant is stretched.

For sclereids, it is shorter than fibres and existed in spherical form. It provides
protection to the seeds.
c) Collenchyma tissue:

Collenchyma cells are polygonal in shape and are able to be elongated. These
cells have unevenly thickened cell wall at each angular corner. Only very small
intercellular space is present since they are compactly arranged.

The function of collenchyma tissue is to provide flexibility and mechanical

strength to growing parts of organs of non-woody plants (Acts as a supporting
tissues). Some collenchyma cells containing chloroplast carry out photosynthesis to
produce organic substances.

Structure question:

a) Name the structures labelled P,Q and R. (3 marks)

P: Golgi apparatus.
Q: primary lysosome
R: Food vacuole
 b) Name and state the importance of process X. (2 marks)
- X is autophagy. It is important in destroying worn-out organelles.

c) How does the membrane of Q differ from the membrane of R. (1 mark)

- Membrane of Q is resistant to hydrolysis by its own hydrolytic enzyme whereby
membrane of R is not resistant to hydrolysis by its own hydrolytic enzyme.

d) What would happen if there is an excessive leakage due to a large number of

structure Q in a cell? (1 mark)
- Autolysis takes place.

Essay questions:
Q1 (15 marks) STPM 2016(U)/2017 questions
1) a) Explain how the structures of collagen molecules are related to its own
functions. (5 marks)
Collagen is made up of triple helical structure which its adjacent chains are held
by covalent bonds. It’s an insoluble fibrous protein found in the skins, tendons,
tendons, bones and walls of blood vessel. The triple helical structure is maintained
by hydrogen bonding. Due to its structure, it is able to provide high tensile strength
when stretching.

b) Describe a method to separate the organelles of animal cell. (10 marks)

Differential centrifugation is a technique used for the separation of particles

using centrifugal force. Isolation (process involving products formed either pellet
or supernatant) of cellular components of animal cells is based on differences in
size and density.

Initially, the animal cell is chilled and cut up into small pieces under cold, isotonic
buffered solution. This is called extraction.

Then, homogenization is taken place. The cell fragments are homogenized in a

homogenizer to break open the cell organelles. The suspension is then filtered
through a muslin cloth to separate big fragments away from the smaller fragments.
 The particles are then suspended in liquid medium and placed in a centrifuge
tube. After placing, the tube is settled in a rotor and spun at definitive (确定的)
speed. Rotation of the rotor about a central axis generates a centrifugal force on
the particles in the suspension.

The filtrate is then centrifuged at different speeds to separate cellular

components. The bigger sized and denser components will be isolated first at
slower speeds. Hence, nucleus and cell debris will be isolated first, followed by
chloroplast, mitochondria and lysosomes next. (This sequence is somehow
important in objective question or structure question)

Ultracentrifugation is taken place to allow very small sedimentation value of

components to be taken out. As a result, endoplasmic reticulum, followed by Golgi
apparatus, cell membrane and ribosomes will be isolated.

Q2 (15 marks):
a) Explain how the structure of haemoglobin molecule is related to its
function. (7 marks)
Haemoglobin is a quaternary structure globular protein that consists of
two alpha-polypeptide chains and two beta-polypeptide chains.

Each polypeptide is made up of a haem group and a globin molecule. The

haem group contains porphyrin ring with iron (II) ion embedded in the
centre of the ring. Since haemoglobin is made up of four polypeptide chains,
then it can bind to four oxygen molecules for each haemoglobin.

When the first oxygen molecule attaches onto the haem group, the
conformation of other haem groups change. This process is called allostery.
The cooperative binding enables the other oxygen molecules become easier
to bind to haem group as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen has been
increased.
 Distortion of haemoglobin has enabled second, third oxygen molecule
bind onto the haem group. Every haemoglobin binding with oxygen
molecules will form oxyhaemoglobin.

b) Describe the pathway of amylase secretion in pancreatic cells. (8

marks)
Pancreatic amylase is an enzyme produced in the acinar cell of pancreas.
The genetic information for the synthesis of this enzyme is found in the
DNA.

Messenger RNA is synthesised to copy the information through

transcription process. Messenger RNA strand moves out of nucleus and
attaches onto the ribosomes of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Ribosomes use the information carried by messenger RNA to synthesize

the protein required for enzyme amylase. The protein is then packaged into
transporting vesicles by rough endoplasmic reticulum and carried to the cis-
face of Golgi apparatus.

In Golgi apparatus, the protein is modified to form enzyme amylase. The

resulting product is packaged into secretory vesicles which is bud off from
trans-face of Golgi apparatus. The secretory vesicles fuse with the plasma
membrane, waiting to be secreted out of the cell. Exocytosis takes place.
 Acinar cells

Q3 (9 marks)
a) Describe the distribution and functions of three types of simple epithelial
tissue.
Answer:

From TEST YOUR KONWLEDGE.

Q2 (6 marks)
 b) State the differences between smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and skeletal
muscle.
(Remember in form of table, sentences must be complete!)
Types of muscle Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle
Sarcomere Absent Present Present
Striation No Yes Yes
Branching fibres Absent Present Absent
Nucleus One One Multinucleated
Sarcoplasmic None Present Present
reticulum
Intercalated disc None Present None
Type of nerve fibres Autonomic Autonomic Motor
of muscle
Control of Involuntary Involuntary Voluntary
contraction
Speed of Slow and rhythmic, Moderately rapid Rapid and powerful
contraction but can continue for and powerful with but not sustained
long period without rest between
fatigue. contractions.
Location Lining of alimentary Heart only Muscles connected
canal //or other to bone by tendons
parts

Essay question (15 marks)

1) A) Describe the mechanism of exocrine glands and endocrine glands by
mentioning example of each glands. (5 marks)

For endocrine glands, a cord of cells are formed from surface epithelium and
invaginated inwards. The cord of cells at the end will divide to form a clump of cells
which are then specialised to form secretory cells. The cord connecting the
epithelium will dissolve at the end of development. Example includes pituitary
gland

For exocrine glands, certain surface epithelial cells become active and divide
mitotically. A cord of ingrowing (growing inwards) epithelial cells invaginate
inward to form a tubule. The cells at lower end of duct form secretory cells once
they are specialised. The tubule formed is connected to the surface epithelium
 without dissolve, in order to help transport secretion to the surface. Example
includes digestive gland, sweat glands…etc….

B) Describe functions of connective tissues in body of living organism and explain

cartilage which acts as one of connective tissues. (10 marks)

Connective tissue is made up of various types of cells embedded in matrix and

fibres. Connective tissue helps to protect and support the body and internal
organs. They also bind all other tissues together or separate various organs by
forming sheaths.

For cartilage, it is embedded in matrix called chondrin. There are three types
of cartilage including hyaline cartilage, yellow elastic cartilage, and white fibrous
cartilage. For white fibrous cartilage, it is found in ligamentous capsule
surrounding joints, the intervertebral discs and symphysis pubis. The white fibrous
cartilage is physically tough (because more inelastic fibres than elastic fibres)
which consists of fibroblast scattered throughout many collagen fibres which are
aligned to form mechanically strong structure.

For yellow elastic cartilage, it contains elastic fiber networks and collagen
fibres. The principal protein is known as elastin. These fibers form bundles and give
great flexibility to withstand bending. For example, outer pinna contains yellow
elastic cartilage.

For hyaline cartilage, it is also found in joint surfaces. It does not contain any
nerves or blood vessels, the matrix surrounding the cartilage is chondrin which
consists of mucopolysaccharides and chondroitin sulphate secreted from
chondroblasts. In hyaline cartilage, there is perichondrium which protects the
cartilage and produces new chondroblast. Fibres in the chondrin mainly contains
collagen and elastic fibers. Function of this cartilage is to reduce friction between
joints, it also forms skeleton of cartilaginous fish such as sharks and rays.
Essay question ( 8 marks)
1) Describe four types of simple epithelial tissues.

a) Simple squamous epithelium.

P1- They have thin flat cells arranged in a single layer
P2- They have a centrally located spherical nucleus.
P3- They have a basement membrane.

b)Simple cuboidal epithelium.

P4- Cells are cuboidal and arranged in single layer.
P5- They also have spherical and central nucleus.
P6- Some of these cells are ciliated.

c)Simple columnar epithelium

P7- Columnar in shape.
P8- The nucleus is ovoid located near to basal end.
P9- Some are ciliated as well.

d)Pseudostratified epithelium.
P10- Single layer of cell arranged on the basement membrane, giving an
appearance of being a multiple layer.
P11- Nuclei of cells are located at different levels.
P12- The cells do no t have a common apical surface.
Structure question
Q1: The diagram below shows a section of a cell surface membrane:

a) Name the structures labelled P, Q, R, S and T. (5 marks)

P: phospholipid bilayer
Q: Intrinsic protein
R: Extrinsic protein
S: Channel protein
T: Glycolipid

b) Explain how proteins are held in the membrane. (1 mark)

Because proteins have hydrophilic region which interacts with aqueous part,
either facing in or out of membrane. Besides, they also have hydrophobic region
which interacts with hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids.

c) Give two functions of proteins in the membrane. (2 marks)

o Provides structural support to the cell membrane
o Allows transport of substances across the membrane
o Acts as an antigen
o Adhere the neighbouring cells
o Receptor site for enzymes, hormones or antibodies.
Q2: The diagram below shows the fluid-mosaic model of cell surface membrane.

a) Explain why the cell surface membrane is described as a fluid-mosaic. (2

marks)
- Scattered arrangement of proteins resembling a mosaic pattern
- Phospholipid and membrane proteins can move laterally and rotate on their axis.

b) State the function of the channel labelled in the diagram. (1 mark)

- Allow ion and polar molecule across the membrane by facilitated diffusion.

c) State three features of a substance which influence its ability to pass through
a cell membrane. (3 marks)
-Size, charge and solubility.
Size: Smaller molecules diffuse faster than bigger molecules across the membrane.
Charge: Polar molecules or ions will be repelled by hydrophobic interactions.
Solubility: Water-soluble substances will be rejected. Hence, water cannot diffuse
directly through the membrane (through protein: aquaporin)

d) Many substances are said to be actively transported across the membranes.

Explain what is meant by “active transport”? (2 marks)
- Active transport defines as transport of substances across a cell membrane against
concentration gradient with the expenditure of energy.
Essay question (15 marks)
Q1:
a) With the aid of labelled diagram, describe the structure of a cell membrane. (8
marks).

According to Singer and Nicholson in 1972, the cell membrane represents a

model resembling fluid-mosaic model. The cell membrane is a dynamic structure
consisting of a phospholipid bilayer with protein molecules floated on or within
the membrane.

The non-polar long hydrocarbon tails are hydrophobic and face inwards,
attracting one another by hydrophobic interactions which is Van der Waals forces.
Polar head is hydrophilic, facing outward, attracting the water in the cell (within
cytoplasm) and outer aqueous surrounding (extracellular fluid).

Protein molecules are scattered between phospholipid molecules to form a

mosaic pattern. Due to different scattering pattern of protein on the membrane,
the protein can be divided into two types based on the ways they are aligned
which are intrinsic protein and extrinsic protein. Extrinsic proteins are proteins
embedded on outer or inner surface of membrane whereas intrinsic protein are
proteins embedded partially or penetrate the membrane. Majority of intrinsic
protein is transmembrane protein.
 The phospholipid bilayer is fluid is due to the fact that phospholipids and
protein molecules can move laterally and rotate on their own axis. Phospholipid
contains glycerol as hydrophilic head and fatty acids acting as hydrocarbon tails.
Phospholipid with higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acids accounts for
increased membrane fluidity. This is due to the fact that unsaturated fatty acids
present in the phospholipid contains double bonds that will form kinks. As a result,
this prevent close packing of phospholipid molecules, thus increasing fluidity.

Glycoprotein is also contributed to the structure of cell membrane, resulting

from short, branched carbohydrate chain (oligosaccharide) that is bound to the
protein. For those carbohydrate binding covalently to lipid, glycolipid is formed. All
of the glyco-product are important for cell-recognition.

There are cholesterol molecules present within the plasma membrane. These
molecules help in stabilising cell membrane and regulating membrane fluidity.
Around the cell membrane, there is cytoskeleton to provide support to the
membrane.

b) Explain the function of various types of membrane proteins. (7 marks)

Some membrane proteins act as enzymes that function to catalyse chemical

reaction in the cell. Some proteins are acting as receptors for specific substances
such as hormones. For example, hormone insulin molecules bind to the receptor
on the cell membrane of the liver cell and promotes the conversion of excess
glucose to glycogen

Some proteins are used to form channels and carriers for passage of ions and
polar molecules to leave or enter the cell. Protein acting as carrier proteins will
actively transport molecules across the cell membrane. This process requires
energy.
 Cell adhesion proteins act to bind adjacent cells together to form tissues.
Besides, there are glycoproteins present are involved in cell-to-cell recognition and
act as antigens. Some protein molecules also provide attachment site for
cytoskeletion filaments.

Structured question:
Q1: The diagram below shows the two adjacent cells. Their values of solute potential
and pressure potential are given in kPa.

a) Define osmosis in terms of water potential (2 marks)

- Osmosis is a passive movement of water molecule from a region with higher water
potential to lower water potential through a semi-permeable membrane.

b) State the direction flow of water between these two cells. (2 mark)
(1 mark is given for calculation)
Ψ = ΨS + ΨP

Ψcell A= -2000+1000 ψcell B= -1600+800

= -1000kPa = -800kPa
(Another 1 mark is available once u mention direction flow)
Therefore, water will flow from cell B to cell A since water potential in cell B
is less negative.

c) Calculate the values of the pressure potential, and water potential of cell
A and cell B when equilibrium is reached. (Assumes the change in
solute potential is negligible.) (3 marks)

Ψ of cell in equilibrium = (-1000-800)÷2 (Divided by two because of two cells

present)
= -900kPa
 ∴ Ψ p of cell A= -900+2000
= 1100kPa
Ψ p of cell B= -900+1600
= 700kPa

Q2: The diagram below shows two adjacent cells and their values for solute
potential and pressure potential given in kPa.

a) i) Give the formula to determine water potential of a plant cell (1 mark)

Answer: Ψ = ΨS + ΨP

ii) Define osmosis in terms of water potential. (2 marks)

-Osmosis defines as passive movement of water molecule from a region with
higher water potential to lower water potential through a semi-permeable
membrane.

b) State the direction of water movement between two cells. Explain your
answers. (2 marks)
Answer:
 c) Compare osmosis and sodium-potassium pump. (2 marks)
Osmosis
Osmosis is a passive process.
Osmosis does not require energy
In osmosis, water is involved.
Movement of water by osmosis is
through semi-permeable membrane
In osmosis, water is transported down
the concentration gradient.
Sodium-potassium pump
Sodium-potassium pump is an active
process.
Sodium-potassium pump requires
energy.
In sodium-potassium pump, ions (Na+
and K+) are involved.
Movement of ions by sodium-potassium
pump is through carrier protein
In sodium-potassium pump, ions are
transported against concentration
gradient.

Q3 Structured question

A) What are the similarities of processes X and Y? (2 marks)

- Both are facilitated diffusion which involves transport protein to move the
substances from higher concentration region to lower concentration region
without using energy.

B) Identify type of transport protein which is used in processes X and Y. (2 marks)

X: Pore protein
 Y: Channel protein

C) What type of molecule is transported by process X? (1 mark)

- Hydrophilic, water soluble, small and uncharged

D) Which process is involved in transportation of glucose? (1 mark)

- Process Y

E) Explain how glucose is transported in (d) (2 marks)

- Binding of glucose onto the binding site of Y occurs. This allows change in
configuration of the channel protein so that the glucose can be transported across
the membrane.

Endocytosis Exocytosis

Definition The process of taking a particle or The process of taking a substance or

substance from outside of the cell and particle from inside of the cell and
transferring it inside the cell using a transferring it to outside the cell using a
vesicle. vesicle.

Function ● Absorbing nutrients for cellular ● Removing toxins or waste

function products
● Eliminating pathogens ● Repairing the cell membrane
● Disposing of old/damaged cells ● Facilitating communication
between cells

Types ● Phagocytosis ● Regulated exocytosis

● Pinocytosis ● Constitutive exocytosis

Examples White blood cells engulfing a virus and Releasing a neurotransmitter for cellular
eliminating it. communication.
Q1: Structured question: (8 marks)

A) Define water potential. (1 mark)

- Water potential is the potential energy of water and the tendency of a
solution to lose water where the water moves from a region with a higher
water potential to a region with a lower water potential.
B)
I) Based on the data above, why is the pressure potential for the sucrose
solutions 0MPa? (1 mark)
- Without cell wall , hence no pressure potential.
II) Calculate actual water potential of potato cells. (1 mark)
-Taking value from 0.32M with no percentage change in mass, water
potential will be -0.78 MPa.
C)
I) Explain the direction of net water movement in potato cells which are
immersed in 0.20 sucrose solution. (2 marks)
- Water diffuses into potato cells by osmosis. Potato cells become turgid.

II) Calculate the pressure potential of potato cells in 0.20M sucrose solution at
equilibrium. (1 mark)
- 0.28MPa.
III) Based on your answer in c) ii), what conclusion can be made regarding the
condition of potato cells. (1 mark)

- Potato cells become turgid.

Iv) What is the condition of potato cells if they are immersed in 0.50M sucrose
solution? (1 mark)

- The potato cells become plasmolysed.

Q2 Structured question: (7 marks)

A) Name cell P, Q and R. (3 marks)

P: Parenchyma cells

Q: Collechyma cells.

R: Sclerenchyma cells.

B) State one characteristic of P. (1 mark)

- Cells are not regular.

C) I) Differentiate between Q and R. (1 mark)

- Q consists of living cells whereas R consists of dead cells// Q composed of

pectin, hemicellulose and cellulose to maintain tensile strength whereas R are
lignified walls.
II) What is the difference between the mechanical support provided by cell Q and cell
R. (1 mark)

Essay questions:
Q1 (15 marks)
a) Explain the roles of cell membrane structures in the transportation of
substances into the cell// Explain the significance of semi-permeability of the
cell membrane. (10 marks)

The cell membrane is semi-permeable. The membrane consists of phospholipids

and are embedded with protein molecules.

The phospholipid bilayer is permeable to steroids, fatty acids and lipid-soluble

substances as well as very small uncharged molecules like oxygen, carbon dioxide
and water (water actually is not suitable because water is polar molecule, but in
syllabus, we mention it (because of its small size) ).

Aquaporin in cell membrane plays an important role in transporting water down

region of higher water potential to region of lower water potential through semi-
 permeable membrane. Higher number of aquaporins will increase the rate of
osmosis carried out.

Some proteins form ion channels which allow diffusion of ions such as K+, Ca2+,
Na+ and Cl- down their concentration gradients. Some large molecules such as
glucose and amino acids cannot move across the phospholipid bilayer. Hence,
these molecules need the help of certain transport proteins in order to allow their
movement across the membrane. This process involved is facilitated diffusion.

Movement of substances not only tends to passive, but active as well. Some
carrier proteins/protein pumps are involved in active transport, with the use of
energy in order to transport ions against the concentration gradient into the cell.
For example, sodium-potassium pump found onto the membrane of axon enables
three sodium ions out of the cell while takes in two potassium ions with ATP being
invested.

In transportation of substances into the cell, endocytosis acts a significant role.

Endocytosis is a process of bulk transport across the membrane into the cell.
Endocytosis involved is through the action of phospholipid molecules.
Phospholipid will engulf the particles and form vacuole into the cell.

b) Explain the role of carbohydrates in the membrane. (5 marks)

Carbohydrates in the membrane exist as short sugar chains
(oligosaccharides). These carbohydrates attach to proteins or phospholipid in the
membrane to form glycoprotein and glycolipid respectively.

Glycoprotein and glycolipid acts as antigen, an identify markers. Besides,

they also play an important role in cell-to-cell recognition because they are able to
differentiate themselves from others. Not only that, they can act as receptors for
some hormones and involve in holding the cells to form tissues.
Q2: a) Explain how the electron microscope and paper chromatography technique
are capable of contributing to the study of the structure of organelle and its content
(6 marks)
The electron microscope uses a beam of electrons in a vacuum and their wave-like
characteristic are used for magnifying an image of a specimen. An electron source forms a
stream of high voltage electrons focused onto the sample. The electron beam has short
wavelength and produces high resolution at 0.5nm of the specimen. Paper
chromatography is used for separating the components. It has a stationary phase and
mobile phase. Separation of components which are going to be analysed is based on the
solubility of the molecules in the solvent, the size of the molecules and the adsorption of
the molecules onto the chromatography paper.

b) Describe the relationship between water potential with solute potential and
pressure potential in plants. (5 marks)
Water potential is a measure of the potential energy in water that drives the
movement of water through plants and is represented by the equation: Ψ = ΨS +
ΨP. The solute potential of pure water is zero since it does not contain any solute.
However, increasing amount of solute will decrease water potential, as solute
potential has become negative. Water potential is also affected when there’s
pressure existing against the cell wall resists against the influx of water. Pressure
potential exists and is positive value. Pressure potential will become zero when the
plant cell is flaccid.
Structured question from Longman Pre-U Text STPM Biology
Q1: The diagram shows part of a membrane:

i) Name the structure labelled X:

-Cholesterol

ii) Explain briefly role of X in the membrane when the surrounding

temperature is low or at moderately warm conditions.

-Cholesterol regulates membrane fluidity. At low temperature, cholesterol

molecules prevent the close packing of phospholipid molecules and slow
down the solidification of the membrane. At moderately warm
temperature, cholesterol reduces free movement of phospholipids, making
them become less fluid.
Extra question relating to chapter 2 of term 1:
Structured question:
Q1 the graph below shows an enzymatic reaction:

a) Name P, Q, R and S. (2 marks)

- P: Reactant energy
Q: Activation energy of reaction with enzyme
R: Product energy
S: Activation energy of reaction without enzyme

b) What is meant by activation energy? (1 mark)

-Activation energy defines as energy required for reactant reaching to the
transition state before being changed to product.

c) State the effect of temperature on rate of enzyme activity. (1 mark)

-Rate of enzyme activity increases with temperature until optimum temperature is
reached.

d) Explain what happens after transition state? (3 marks)

 e) -The shape of substrate is slightly changed. The bonds in the substrate are broken,
whereby new bonds are formed. The substrate is changed into products. Products
are then departed from active site of enzyme. It is released.

Q2: The diagram below shows effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity.

a) Explain why
(i) The increasing temperature increases the reaction rate until it reaches
the optimum temperature.
(ii) The increasing temperature above the optimum decreases the reaction
rate

Total (3 marks)

i) The kinetic energy of substrate and enzyme molecules increases with

temperature. The molecules collide faster, colliding more with each other. This
increases reaction rate until a maximum point whereby the vibration of the
molecules reach to its limit. The limit is optimum temperature.
ii) The reaction rate decreases because the enzyme molecules vibrate until the
bonds maintaining the enzyme molecules break off. The configuration of
enzyme has been changed. Denaturation of enzyme is going to happen. Active
site is no longer compatible to substrate.
 b) Using the graph and the equation given, calculate the temperature coefficient
(Q10) for this enzyme when x=30‫ ﮿‬C. Show your working. (3 marks)

Rate of reaction at 30‫﮿‬C = 40

Rate of reaction at 40‫﮿‬C= 80
Q10 = (80/40)
=2
c) Give a possible explaination for the high optimum temperature of this enzyme.
(1 mark)
- The enzyme is found in organisms that live in an environment with high
temperature.

Q3: The diagram below shows the enzyme chymotrypsin that catalyses the
hydrolysis of protein peptide bonds. The active site of this enzyme is located in a
slight depression on one side of molecule. The three amino acids that form the active
site are Serine, histidine and Aspartic acid. These three amino acids are further apart
on the polypeptide chain but are close together in the active site.

a) Suggest how the substrate may be held in the active site of an enzyme while
the reaction occurs. (2 marks)
 - The substrate is held in the active site of enzyme by hydrophobic interactions,
hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds. These bonds help substrate bind to the enzyme,
forming enzyme-substrate complex. The shape of enzyme is distorted, causing it
being assumed a new configuration that lowers activation energy required.
Distortion of enzyme shape increases affinity of enzyme for substrate.

b) Explain how these amino acids are brought closer together to form the active
site. (2 marks)
- This is due to the globular shape of enzyme whereby its polypeptide helix coils and
folds into a compact tertiary structure. This enables the amino acids to be brought
closer to form the active site while the hydrogen bonds, disulphide bridges and
hydrophobic interactions help to maintain the structure. The folding of the enzyme
is also the result of hydrophobic R groups of amino acids coming close together to
repel water by pointing towards the centre of enzyme.

c) Describe how changes in pH could affect the structure and function of an

enzyme.(4 marks)
- Enzyme functions at a maximum rate over certain pH range. Changes in pH above
or below optimum pH will affect enzymatic activity rate.
- Hence, increasing or decreasing hydrogen ion concentration will alter the ionic
charges of acidic and basic groups of amino acids in an enzyme. The ionic bond is
no longer formed and thus it’s broken.
- This denatures the enzyme and stops the activity.

How does an enzyme interact with substrate?

- When an enzyme collides with the substrate molecules, the substrate binds to the
enzyme’s active site. The substrate is held by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and
hydrophobic interactions. An enzyme-substrate complex is formed. The binding
induces a slight change in the shape of an enzyme to enclose the substrate, making
the fit more precise. This close fit is known as induced fit. It causes distortion of
 chemical bonds of the substrate causing the bonds to break and new bonds to
form. As a result, product is formed.

Essay question

Q1 a) Describe the mechanism of enzyme action based on induced-fit hypothesis. (7

marks)

Based on induced-fit hypothesis, the active site is flexible. The active site is not exactly
complementary to the shape of substrate.

When an enzyme collides with the substrate, the substrate binds to the active site. The
binding causes slight change in configuration of enzyme in order to make the fit more
precise. Hence, the enzyme encloses the substrate because the active site has been fully
complementary with the substrate.

The close proximity of fitting brings the molecule closer to right position for reaction to
take place. As a result, it causes stressing and distortion of chemical bonds in substrate.
Some bonds are broken and new bonds are formed.

This process has enabled the lowering of initial activation energy required to convert
substrate into product. Products formed will depart from the active site of enzyme.

b) (15 marks)
i) What is an enzyme inhibitor? Explain by using suitable examples.
ii) By means of Lineweaver-Burk plots, differentiate between the competitive
and non-competitive inhibitors.
Answer for (i) is as follow:
The enzyme inhibitor is a chemical substance that causes a reduction rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction. There are two types of inhibition, namely competitive
inhibition and non-competitive inhibition.

In competitive inhibition, it involves an inhibitor that has a structure resembling

substrate molecule. The inhibitor binds temporarily to the active site of the enzyme, this
preventing the substrate from binding to it. The inhibitor and substrate compete for the
same active site. Km value decreases whereas Vmax still remains constant because the
affinity of enzyme for substrate decreases.

The inhibition can be reversed by increasing substrate concentration. For example, the
inhibitor malonate competes with substrate succinate for the active site of enzyme so-
called succinate dehydrogenase.

In non-competitive inhibition, although it does not have similar shape to the substrate
and does not compete with substrate for active site, the inhibitor binds to another site of
enzyme called allosteric site.

This binding induces conformational change of enzyme, unabling the substrate bind to
active site of enzyme. Maximum reaction velocity is said to be decreased. This type of
inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing concentration of substrate. For example,
heavy metallic ions like arsenic, silver and mercury that bind to sulphydryl side chain of
active site.

Answer for (ii) is as follow:

Competitive inhibition
Competitive inhibitors have similar shape
as substrate.
Competitive inhibition increases
Michaelis-Menten constant value (Km
value) without affecting maximum
reaction rate (Vmax)
The competitive inhibitors compete with
substrate for active site of enzyme.
In competitive inhibition, the
configuration of enzyme is not altered.
Increasing substrate concentration can
overcome competitive inhibition.
Competitive inhibition can be reversible
Non-competitive inhibition
Non-competitive inhibitor has different
shape compared to substrate.
Non-competitive inhibition decreases
maximum reaction rate without affecting Km
value.
The non-competitive inhibitors bind to
allosteric site of enzyme
In non-competitive inhibition, the
configuration of enzyme is altered.
Increasing substrate concentration cannot
overcome non-competitive inhibition.
Non-competitive inhibition is either
reversible or irreversible

Structured question:
Q1: The diagram below gives the Michaelis-Menten plots for enzymatic reaction.

a) State curves P, Q, and R. (3 marks)

P shows rate of enzymatic activity without an inhibitor.
Q shows rate of enzymatic activity with competitive inhibitor
R shows rate of enzymatic activity with non-competitive inhibitor.

b) Explain the shapes of the three curves. (3 marks)

Without any adding of inhibitors in P, at low substrate concentration, as substrate
concentration increases, the reaction rate rises. The reaction rate is maximum
when all the active sites of enzymes have been used. Therefore, enzyme
concentration will be a limiting factor. In Q, the competitive inhibitor binds
 reversibly to the active site of enzyme competing with substrate for active site. As
competitive inhibitor successfully competes for active site, the Km value increases.
However, P and Q will reach to same reaction velocity because reaction rate is not
changed. Increasing substrate concentration will overcome competitive inhibition.
In R, with non-competitive inhibitor, the rate of reaction reaches maximum at a
faster rate but has a lower maximum reaction rate. The inhibitors bind to the sites
on enzymes (allosteric site) instead of active site of enzyme, thus altering
conformation of enzyme and unabling the enzyme to catalyse the reaction.

Essay question.
Q1:
a) What is meant by the term “cofactor”? Explain by using suitable examples. (9
marks)

Cofactor is a non-protein substance, that’s organic or inorganic required by

enzymes in order to function effectively. There are three types of cofactors which
are prosthetic groups, coenzymes and enzyme activators.

For prosthetic group, it is a non-protein organic molecule that binds tightly to

the enzyme. For an example, haem is a prosthetic group present in enzyme
catalase that catalyses decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

For coenzymes, coenzymes are small, non-protein organic molecules that

temporarily bind to the active site of enzyme and help to transfer chemical groups,
atoms or electrons from one molecule to another. The coenzymes are readily
detached from the enzyme. Many coenzymes are vitamin derivatives especially
vitamin B group. For example, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) which acts
as coenzyme for many dehydrogenase enzyme, which shows that it can be acted as
a hydrogen acceptor.
 For enzyme activator, enzyme activator is an inorganic metal ions such as Zn2+,
Ca2+ and Mg2+. The ions bind to enzyme and substrate together, making the
bonds less stable and easily to break. Some ions also fit onto active site of enzyme
in order to change the active site of enzyme in its shape. This will enable the shape
become more suitable for reaction to take place. Example of activator is Ca2+.
Ca2+ is required to activate thrombokinase which converts prothrombin to
thrombin in blood clotting.

b) Describe the classification of enzymes by giving examples of six enzyme

classes based on IUB system. (6 marks)

One of the enzymes include hydrolase. Hydrolase catalyses the hydrolysis of

complex substances into simple substances by the addition of water. Example,
starch is digested into maltose by amylase with the presence of water. Here is the
chemical equation of the reaction:

Besides, there is transferases which also categorized into one of the enzyme
classes. Transferases catalyses the transfer of group of atoms from one molecule to
another. For example, phosphorylase enzyme help to transfer phosphate group.
The chemical equation of the reaction is as follow:

In addition, oxidoreductases also help to catalyse the transfer of oxygen,

hydrogen atoms or electrons from one molecule to another. For example, oxidase
catalyses the oxidation reaction, that’s addition of oxygen to a molecule. Besides,
there’s dehydrogenase which itself receives hydrogen or electrons, acting as
hydrogen acceptor and catalysing the removal of hydrogen atom or electrons from
the substrate.
Reaction between glucose and oxygen requires oxidase:

Reaction between NAD+ and malate requires malate dehydrogenase:

Another class of enzyme includes isomerase. Isomerase catalyses conversion of

one isomer to another by rearrangement of atoms within the molecule. For
example, conversion of glucose-6-phophate to fructose-6-phosphate requires
phosphoglucoisomerase.

Lyases catalyse the breaking of chemical bonds without the addition of water.
For example, conversion of pyruvate into ethanol needs pyruvate decarboxylase.
Chemical equation is as follow:

Ligases catalyse reactions in which new chemical bonds are formed between
two molecules with the use of energy (ATP).
Q2: What is the difference between prosthetic group, coenzyme and enzyme
activator?
Prosthetic group Coenzyme Enzyme activator
Organic, non-protein Organic and non-protein Metal ions and non-organic

Covalently bound to Temporarily bound to Temporarily bound to

enzyme enzyme enzyme
Cannot be detached from Easily detached from Easily detached if required.
enzyme enzyme

Michaelis-Menten formula in two forms:

Y = Mx + C

Structured question about “biosensor” (8 marks)

Q1: The diagram below shows the components in a biosensor which uses
immobilised enzyme:

a) Identify the components P, Q, R and S. (2marks)

P: Enzyme Q: Transducer
 R: Amplifier S: data processor
b) On which the component are the enzyme molecules immobilised? (1 mark)
- Component P
c) Describe an example of applying enzyme immobilization in medical field. (3
marks)
- In medical field, the enzyme which is immobilized important for monitoring blood
glucose level. The enzyme immobilized is glucose-oxidase. The glucose-oxidase will
be attached by substrate (glucose). The attachment of glucose to the enzyme
induces the production of electrical signal by transducer and then being amplified
by component R. Amplified electrical signal will be processed to digital form in
order to be displayed.
d) What is the advantage of using biosensor in medical field? (1 mark)
- The blood glucose level of patient can be detected in a brief period, further saving
time.
e) Give an example of the use of enzyme immobilization in agriculture. (1 mark)
- Monitor the concentration of mineral ions in the soil.

Q2 (7 marks) Enzyme technology:

1) The diagram below shows a technique of enzyme immobilization:

a) What is meant by enzyme immobilization? (2 marks)

 o Enzyme immobilization is a process where an enzyme is attached onto
inert and insoluble material to increase enzyme efficiency because the
movement of enzyme is stabilized while restricted. This process ensures
that there is an increased enzyme availability for the substrate and a
greater turnover of products.

b) Name the enzyme immobilizing technique as shown in the diagram. (1

mark)
o Adsorption.

c) State one possible interaction exhibited by the technique above. (1 mark)

o Ionic bond.

d) An advantage of an enzyme immobilization is to make the enzyme to be

more stable. For example, glucose isomerase is stable at 65‫ ﮿‬C for almost
a year but denatures within a few hours at 45‫ ﮿‬C for free enzyme. Explain
how this is possible. (3 marks)

o The enzyme becomes stabilized due to strong bonding of the enzyme to an

inert support. This prevent the bonds (ionic//disulphide……) of enzyme
molecules from breaking and changing the shape at high temperature. As a
result, the enzyme will not be denatured compared to free enzymes which
are without support.

Essay Question (15 marks)

1) a) How does enzyme accelerate a chemical reaction? (6 marks)
- An enzyme catalyses the reaction by lowering activation energy. The active site
of enzyme binds to the substrate. When an enzyme binds to the substrate, it forms
an enzyme-substrate complex. The enzyme brings the substrate in correct
orientation. Chemical bonds in substrate are broken and new bonds are formed.
Thus, presence of enzyme has created an ideal environment for the reaction to
occur. After the enzyme has successfully catalysed the chemical reaction, the
products are released from active site of enzyme and the enzyme is free again to
repeat the process.

b) Explain the importance of Km value (4 marks).

o Km is a Michaelis-Menten constant that shows affinity of enzyme for
substrate. Km is a substrate concentration at half Vmax. The lower the Km
value is, the higher the affinity between an enzyme and substrate. The
higher the Km value is, the lower the affinity between an enzyme and
substrate.

c) Explain the role of resin beads in entrapment technique in enzyme

immobilization technique and advantages of enzyme immobilization
technique. (5 marks)
o Resin beads are used for trapping enzymes and hold the enzyme molecules
in an inert matrix. Advantages include: Ensure products obtain are purified
and not contaminated, stabilising the enzyme, enzyme can be easily
recovered from the reaction, lower the cost of production.

Essay question (15 marks) relating to enzyme technology:

Q1: a) i) What is meant by enzyme immobilization? (2 marks)

▪ Enzyme immobilization is a process where an enzyme is attached

onto inert and insoluble material to increase enzyme efficiency
because the movement of enzyme is stabilized while restricted. This
process ensures that there is an increased enzyme availability for
the substrate and a greater turnover of products.
iii) Explain what is a biosensor. (4 marks)

▪ A biosensor is an analytical device probe. It is used to detect

chemical substances in analytical technique. It contains biological
element such as immobilised enzyme which interacts with chemical
substances (substrate). It detects and then quantifies chemical
substances through electronic component.

iv) Give two applications of biosensor and give an example of its usage (3
marks)

▪ Health care monitoring and medical diagnosis. Example includes

detecting blood glucose level.

v) Give six advantages of immobilizing enzyme technique (6 marks)

▪ Can be reused

▪ Can be used continuously

▪ Can be functioned effectively

▪ Less cost involved in terms of labour and capital investment.

▪ Less chances of enzyme contamination

▪ High turnover rate of products

▪ Products formed are stable.

Q1: The respiration process begins with glycolysis, whereby a molecule of glucose is
split into two molecules of pyruvate.

a) Name the part of the cell where glycolysis occurs. (1 mark)

- Cytoplasm.

b) Describe what happens to the glucose molecule before it splits into two triose
phosphate molecules. (2 marks)
- Glucose is phosphorylated using ATP to form glucose-6-phosphate. After that, the
glucose-6-phosphate is isomerized into fructose-6-phosphate by
phosphoglucoisomerase enzyme.

c) The process below shown an equation:

i) Explain what happens to the NADH in an animal cell that respires

anaerobically. (2 marks)

o NAD+ is transported into the mitochondrion and then entered electron

transport chain. Hydrogen atom is used to reduce oxaloacetate to malate.
Malate then enters the mitochondria and reduce NAD+ to form NADH and
H+. In exchange, malate is oxidized again to oxaloacetate.

ii) Explain what happens to the NADH in a yeast cell that respires anaerobically. (2
marks)
o Anaerobic respiration in the yeast cell produces pyruvate. Since pyruvate
and NADH cannot enter the mitochondria, pyruvate is split into
acetaldehyde and carbon dioxide in the cytoplasm. NADH will be oxidized
to provide H to reduce acetaldehyde and ethanol.
 a) Explain why ATP may be described as a nucleotide with an extra
phosphate group attached. (1 mark)
Because ATP is made up of AMP and two extra inorganic phosphate.

b) The diagram on the right shows a metabolic pathway that occurs in

animals and plants

c) I) Name stages of P and Q. (2 marks)

P: glycolysis, Q: Krebs cycle

iii) State the precise location in the cell where each of these stage occur. (2
marks)
o Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm and Krebs cycle is occurred in mitochondria.

d) State where and why ATP is used in this pathway. (2 marks)

-During glycolysis, two molecules of ATP is invested in phosphorylation of
glucose to make it more reactive within cytoplasm of a cell.

e) State compounds A and B. (2 marks)

o A= acetyl , B= carbon dioxide
Q3: The diagram below shows the link reaction and Krebs cycle:

a) State precisely where the Krebs cycle occurs in cells. (1 mark)

o Matrix of mitochondria.

b) Label on the diagram all the stages where:

i) Decarboxylation reaction occurs. Label with the letter C.
ii) Dehydrogenation reaction occurs. Label with the letter H.
Total: 2 mark

c) Explain the role of NAD in the Krebs cycle. (2 marks)

 o NAD+ acts as hydrogen carrier to transfer hydrogen atom from Krebs cycle
to the electron transport chain in form of NADH. When NADH is oxidized,
the resulting product enters back into Krebs cycle to recollect hydrogen
again.

d) Explain briefly what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-

level phosphorylation. (1 mark)
o Oxidative phosphorylation means the formation of ATP from ADP and
phosphate in which oxygen is removed and substrate-level phosphorylation
is the formation of ATP from ADP with transfer of phosphoryl (PO3) group
to the ADP.
-

Structured question

A) Name compounds S, T, U ,V and structure R. (3 marks)

S and T: FADH2 and FAD
U and V: NADH and NAD+
R: ATP synthetase.

B) Name the process that uses the principles of chemiosmosis as shown

in the diagram above. (1 mark)
- Oxidative phosphorylation.

C) What is meant by the process in (B)? (3 marks)

- Oxidative phosphorylation is a process whereby ATP is generated via redox
reactions , either by oxidation-reduction or involve transfer of electrons. Process B
ensures synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is completed
through series of redox reaction. NADH and FADH2 is oxidized and reduced to
allow transfer of electrons in this chain so that difference in electrochemical
gradient is generated

Q4: The diagram below shows the important components of the electron tansport
chain in the mitochondrion membrane.

a) State the source of FADH2 and NADH. (1 mark)

o FADH2 - vitamin B2//riboflavin , NADH- vitamin B3 // niacin

b) i) Explain briefly the function of coenzyme Q, cytochrome b and

cytochrome aa3 complex. (3 marks)
o Coenzyme Q acts as hydrogen acceptor from NADH and FADH2. The
cytochrome b receives electron from coenzyme Q and transfers it to
cytochrome c1. The cytochrome complex aa3 transfers electrons to oxygen
in order to combine with proton to form water.

iii) Name another process that requires cytochrome (1 mark).

Photosynthesis
 iv) Explain why water molecule formed at the end of this chain. (1 mark).

Because oxygen combines with proton.

c) Give importance of electron transport chain (1 mark)

- When the electrons are transferred from one carrier to the next at decreasing
energy level, ATP is formed through oxidative phosphorylation.

d) Explain why the electron chain is found in the mitochondrion membrane

but not found in the mitochondrion matrix. (1 mark)
- Because the mitochondrion membrane contains cytochrome and coenzymes
whereas mitochondrion matrix contains 70S ribosomes, DNA, RNA and some
enzymes.

Q5: Glucose is an energy source that is needed in the cells by organisms to carry
out normal activities. The diagram below shows processes involved in the energy
production form one molecule of glucose.

a) State the name of processes I, II, III and IV. (4 marks)

- I: Glycolysis, II: Link reaction, III: Krebs cycle, IV: Electron transport chain.
 b) The stage in energy production occurs at two separate locations, P and Q in the
cell, P is…. (1 mark)
o P= cytoplasm.

c) State at which stage oxygen is required and its role. (2 marks)

o Oxygen is required at electron transport chain and it acts as final electron
acceptor when the electrons transferred from cytochrome aa3 to oxygen
and combine with proton.

Essay question (15 marks)

1) A) Describe the main stages of glycolysis in the cells. (9 marks)
* If the question mentions with aid of diagram*

Diagram:
 In glycolysis, it occurs in the cytoplasm of cell. Initially, glucose is phosphorylated
by receiving a phosphate group to from ATP, forming glucose-6-phosphate. This
reaction is catalysed by hexokinase in which the glucose-6-phosphate will be more
reactive.

Glucose-6-phosphate is then isomerized to form fructose-6-phosphate catalysed

by phosphoglucokinase. Fructose-6-phosphate is further phosphorylated by the
addition of phosphate group from ATP to produce fructose-1,6-diphosphate.

Through adolase enzyme, the fructose-1,6-diphosphate is split into two 3C sugars

namely dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

Mostly, dihydroxyacetone phosphate will be converted to glyceraldehyde-3-

phosphate through certain isomerase enzyme. As a result, two glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate is yielded.

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is oxidized by transfer of electrons and H+ to NAD+

to form glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate in which this reaction is also catalysed by
enzyme named triose phosphate dehydrogenase. (In this process, the reaction is
exergonic and the energy released is used to attach inorganic phosphate to the
oxidized form of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to form glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate).

One phosphate from each glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate will be transferred to ADP

to form ATP and glycerate-3-phosphate by the enzyme phosphoglycerokinase.
After that, the glycerate-3-phosphate is rearranged to form glycerate-2-phosphate
by phosphoglyceromutase.

Enzyme enolase is involved, causing removal of water molecule of glycerate-2-

phosphate to form phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Phosphate from PEP is then
 transferred to ADP to form ATP. Phosphate removed from PEP results in formation
of pyruvate.

c) Describe what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation. (6 marks)

Oxidative phosphorylation means formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic
phosphate through a series of redox reaction where this process takes place in
inner membrane of mitochondrion.

In this process, the hydrogen atoms are transferred by NAD and FAD from Krebs
cycle to the electron transport chain where other hydrogen carriers (all those
cytochromes) pass them along the chain.

The hydrogen atoms are split into protons (H+) and electrons, which will be
passed along by electron carriers. At the end of chain, the electrons and protons
recombine together with oxygen to form water molecules in which the reaction is
catalyzed by enzyme cytochrome oxidase.

Due to chemiosmosis, ATP is produced due to the driving force from the flow of
protons back to matrix for recombination with electrons to form hydrogen atoms.

Essay question
1) Describe chemiosmosis in electron transport system. (10 marks)
Chemiosmosis is a process in which protons are transported from intermembrane
space to the mitochondrial matrix which drives the creation of ATP by ATP
synthase protein. This is due to the fact that there is a presence of electrochemical
proton gradient or proton motive force between intermembrane space and the
mitochondrial matrix.
 The intermembrane space contains higher concentration of proton than in
mitochondrial matrix. This is because NADH donates hydrogen to the matrix and
being transported to the intermembrane space against concentration gradient.

Due to higher concentration of proton in intermembrane space, the protons are

then transported from higher concentration region (intermembrane space) to
lower concentration region (mitochondrial matrix) through facilitated diffusion.

This driving force down the electrochemical gradient activates ATP synthase
protein, enabling formation of ATP from ADP.

2) With the aid of flow chart, explain Krebs cycle. (9 marks) // Describe the steps
in Krebs cycle and indicate the energy produced through this reaction (10
marks)
Diagram:

During link reaction, pyruvate (3C) is converted to acetyl-coenzyme A. This

involves the removal of CO2 and NAD+ is reduced to NADH.(this sentence is not
necessary written, but skema answer includes link reaction…..) Acetyl-CoA
 combines with oxaloacetate (4C) to form citrate (6C), catalyzed by citrate synthase.
Coenzyme A is released.

Citrate will be rearranged to form its isomer, isocitrate (6C) by addition and
removal of water. Isocitrate is oxidized to form oxalosuccinate (6C) catalyzed by
isocitrate dehydrogenase. NAD+ will be reduced to NADH.

Oxalosuccinate will undergo decarboxylation to form alpha-ketoglutarate (5C)

catalyzed by decarboxylase enzyme. Then, alpha-ketoglutarate will undergo
oxidative-decarboxylation to form succinyl-coenzyme A. As a result, NAD+ is
reduced to NADH. The oxidative-decarboxylation is aided by dehydrogenase
enzyme and decarboxylase enzyme.

Succinyl coenzyme A is then converted to form succinate. The energy released

during this reaction for attachment of phosphate onto guanosine diphosphate to
form guanosine triphosphate. GTP then transfers its phosphate group to ADP,
forming ATP. The process involved is substrate-level phosphorylation.

The succinate is oxidized to form fumarate, with FAD reduced to form FADH2.
This reaction is catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase enzyme.

Removal of water of fumarate takes place to form malate. The malate is then
oxidized to produce oxaloacetate which can be reused again for another Krebs
cycle.

**From one molecule of glucose that enters the Krebs cycle in form of pyruvate,
there is production of total 10 NADH, 2 FADH and 2 ATP high energy molecules.**

3) Explain how the deadly poison, cyanide and carbon monoxide affect cellular
respiration. (10 marks)

Cyanide acts as a non-competitive inhibitor. It binds to the iron component of

cytochrome a3 in the cytochrome oxidase of electron transport chain. Hence, the
terminal transfer of electron to oxygen is inhibited because cytochrome a3 is a
final carrier of electron transport chain.

Consequently, the electron flow along the chain is blocked. Due to this, the
protons are not able to be pumped across from mitochondrial matrix into
intermembrane space by active transport. Then there will be a failure to create an
electrochemical proton gradient. The protons are unable to pass through ATP
synthase channel. No chemiosmosis takes place.

Therefore, there is no production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

As a result, cells are unable to carry out cellular activities. Hence, high dose of
cyanide will cause instantaneous death.

For carbon monoxide, it has higher affinity for haemoglobin compared to

oxygen. Hence, it will compete with oxygen to form carboxyhaemoglobin. The
carboxyhaemoglobin is very stable, hence preventing oxygen from binding to
haemoglobin. This reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, leading to
hypoxia.

Since oxygen acts as last electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, the
oxygen supply will decrease. The flow of electrons is blocked, inhibiting the
pumping of proton into the intermembrane space. Hence, there is failure to create
an electrochemical proton gradient between intermembrane space and
mitochondrial matrix.

This failure will cause no synthesis of ATP as chemiosmosis is halted. Without

ATP, the cells cannot carry out cellular activities. Large exposure to carbon
monoxide not only cause lacking of oxygen, but also damaging the central nervous
system and the heart.
Structured question:

A) I) Name P and R. (2 marks)

-P: Glycolysis R: Electron transport chain

II) How many ATP are produced at P and R? (2 marks)

-For P: 2 ATP, for R: 34//36 ATP.

B) How many NADH and FADH2 are produced at P and Q?

C) Where does R occur? (1 mark)
- Intermembrane space of mitochondrion.

D) What happen to electron at R? (1 mark)

- Release energy in form of ATP

Structured question (8 marks)

1) The diagram below shows a scheme for anaerobic respiration:

a) State the substances P, Q, R and S. (2 marks)

o P is pyruvate, Q is lactate, R is ethanal and S is carbon dioxide.

b) Name the process that produces substance P:

o Glycolysis.

c) State the ethanol production process in plants. (1 mark)

o Alcoholic fermentation.

d) Explain the role of NAD+ in respiration. (2 marks)

o NAD+ acts as a hydrogen acceptor, receiving hydrogen which is transferred
from the substrate.
 o NADH formed will enter the electron transport chain, donating its hydrogen
to the ETC for production of ATP. Oxidized form (NAD+) returns to the
matrix, waiting to be reduced by the substrate again.

e) State two examples of industrial processes that use this anaerobic

respiration. (2 marks)
o Beer making and making of bread.

Q2: The diagram below shows the reaction of an anaerobic respiration

a) State the energy X and molecule Y. (1 mark)

o X= ATP, molecule Y= NAD+

b) Give the reaction that converts glucose to pyruvate. (1 mark)

o Glycolysis.

c) Name the overall process shown by the diagram. (1 mark)

o Alcoholic fermentation.

d) State the location for this process in the cell. (1 mark)

o Cytoplasm.

e) Name three types of industries that apply this process. (3 marks)

 o Beer making, making of bread and fermentation of tapioca to form tapai.

Tapai

f) State the products formed if this process occurs in animal cells. (1 mark)
o Lactic acid and NAD+

Essay question (15 marks)

1) a) Explain what happens in an animal cell and yeast when there is

insufficient oxygen for aerobic respiration. (10 marks)

When there is insufficient oxygen, animal cell and yeast will carry out
anaerobic respiration.

During anaerobic respiration, glycolysis will still continue. In yeast, pyruvate

produced through glycolysis will be converted to ethanol, generating net gain
of 2 ATP. The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol is undergone through
decarboxylative reduction reaction. This is due to carbon dioxide has been
removed from ethanol to form ethanal. Ethanal//Acetalaldehyde (Naming will
be learnt in term 3 chemistry) accepts hydrogen from NADH to form NAD+ and
 ethanol. NAD+ is regenerated. However, if the fermentation still continues, the
high level of ethanol will kill the yeast cells. The pathway is written as follow:
( Can be applied in alcholic fermentation)

In animal cell, the pyruvate produced through glycolysis pathway will be

converted//reduced into lactate//lactic acid. At the same time, NADH will be
oxidized to form NAD+ High concentration of lactic acid will cause muscle
cramps and muscle fatigue. The oxygen that is required to break down the
lactate is called oxygen debt and is repaid by rapid breathing. When oxygen
debt is repaid, the lactate will be converted to carbon dioxide and water in the
liver cells.

Only two ATP molecules are produced.

c) State the five applications of fermentation in industrial process. (5 marks)

o Bread-making process.
o Brewing industry
o Process of making yoghurt.
o Biofuel production
 o Vinegar producton
o Making cheese and butter.

Further explaination for applications of fermentation is shown in picture here:

These applications will be learnt again in term 3 chapter biotechnology

Essay question: (15 marks)
Q1: a) Vigorous exercise could induce muscle cramp due to excess producion of
lactic acid. Explain process of producing lactic acid in the muscle. (5 marks)
P1- During vigorous exercise, there is an oxygen deficit/ oxygen debt where the supply of
oxygen through breathing process is not sufficient enough to meet the demand by the
body.

P2- The rate at which the blood sending the oxygen to the muscle is no longer
compensated to the rate at which the oxygen reuptake by muscle tissue.

P3- The muscles then carry out anaerobic respiration.

P4- Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm of muscle cells.

P5- Pyruvate is produced and converted into lactic acid. Only 2 ATP are formed.

P6- Accumulation of lactic acid causes muscle cramp and fatigue.

c) Describe steps of reaction occured in Krebs cycle (10 marks)

- Refer**

From TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE:

1) a) Describe electron transport chain.

The electron transport chain (ETC) consists of three protein complexes including
NADH dehydrogenase complex, cytochrome bf complex, cytochrome oxidase
complex and two mobile carriers (ubiquinone, Q and cytochrome c, (C)).

During onset of electron transport chain, NADH and FADH2 transfer the
hydrogen atoms to specific carriers on the inner membrane of mitochondrion and
are oxidized back into NAD+ and FAD.
 The hydrogen atoms produced through oxidation of NADH and FADH2 are
passed along the carriers and split into protons and electrons along the pathway of
ETC. Hence, the electrons are passed from one carrier to another. The carrier
molecule gaining electrons is reduced and the carrier molecule losing electron is
oxidized back and able to accept the electrons.

The final electron acceptor of this ETC is oxygen which will combine with
hydrogen ion to form water.

As electrons move along the electron transport chain at progressively lower

energy levels, the energy released is used to synthesis ATP. Three molecules of ATP
are produced for each NADH that enters the ETC and two ATP molecules are
produced for each FADH2 that enters ETC.

Essay question (15 marks)

1) A) Differentiate the aerobic respiration and fermentation in cells. (8 marks)

Aerobic respiration Fermentation.

Aerobic respiration requires oxygen Does not fully require oxygen.

Aerobic respiration involves Fermentation does not involve

complete oxidation of glucose. complete oxidation of glucose.

End products due to aerobic End products due to fermentation

respiration include carbon dioxide, include ethanol, energy and carbon
water and energy. dioxide

Aerobic respiration includes Fermentation process only includes

glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the glycolysis.
electron transport chain

38 ATP molecules are synthesized Fermentation only produces 2 ATP

 through aerobic respiration molecules.

NADH is used as electron carrier to NADH is used to reduce ethanol

produce energy.

Aerobic respiration occurs in Fermentation occurs in cytoplasm

cytoplasm and mitochondria. only.

Aerobic respiration occurs in most Fermentation only occurs in yeast/

cells. muscle cells

C) How does a person obtain energy during starvation. (7 marks)

P1- During starvation, alternative source of energy are lipids and proteins.

P2- Lipids are hydrolysed to produce glyrcerol and fatty acids.

P3- Glycerol is then phosphorylated to form glyceraldehyde phosphate and enters the
glycolysis.

P4- Fatty acids are oxidised to break into acetyl groups by B-oxidation.

P5- Acetyl groups combine with coenzyme A and enters the Krebs cycle

P6-P7: Amino acids//proteins are also deaminated, producing necessary keto acids
which can enter the Krebs cycle.

1) Ideas to differentiate ATP, NADH, and FADH2 OR describe these structures.

ATP NADH FADH2

It contains an adenine, a It contains a nicotinamide, It contains flavin, an
ribose and three phosphate two nucleotides and an adenine and two
group ( a nucleotide so- adenine. nucleotides.
called AMP + two
phosphate)
None. Acts as coenzyme Acts as prosthetic group for
certain reaction
None. Accept one hydrogen in its Accept two hydrogen in its
oxidized form (NAD+) oxidized form (FADH)
There is no phosphate There is a phosphate bridge There is no phosphate
bridge formed. formed bridge.
It acts as temporary energy It acts as temporary energy It acts as temporary energy
storage. carrier carrier

2) Compare and contrast alcoholic fermentation and lactate fermentation

Similarity: A type of anaerobic respiration which oxygen is absent. Both also produce 2
ATP molecules.

Alcoholic fermentation Lactate fermentation

Glucose is converted to ethanol
Occur in yeast cells.
NAD+ is regenerated.
Chemical equation: Glucose to 2 ethanol, 2
carbon dioxide and 2 ATP.
In the process, decarboxylase (from
pyruvate to ethanal) and dehydrogenase
enzyme (from ethanal to ethanol) are
involved
High concentration of ethanol will kill the
yeast cells.
Glucose is converted to lactic acid.
Occur in muscles of animal cells.
NADH is regenerated.
Chemical equation: Glucose to 2 lactic acid
and 2 ATP.
In this process, only dehydrogenase
enzyme (from pyruvate to lactate) is
involved.
High concentration of lactic acid will cause
muscle cramp and muscle fatigue.
Differentiate aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration. (10 marks)

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
Aerobic respiration involves complete
oxidation of glucose.
38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule is
produced through aerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration involves glycolysis
pathway, link reaction, Krebs cycle and
electron transport chain.
Equation: Glucose + oxygen to carbon
dioxide + water + 38ATP
Aerobic respiration occurs in cytoplasm
and mitochondria.
In aerobic respiration, ATP is produced
through oxidative phosphorylation and
substrate-level phosphorylation.
Anaerobic respiration does not require
oxygen
Anaerobic respiration involves incomplete
oxidation of glucose.
Only 2 ATP molecules per glucose
molecule is generated through anaerobic
respiration.
Anaerobic respiration only involves
glycolysis pathway.
1. Equation: Glucose to ethanol +
carbon dioxide + 2ATP (In yeast)
2. Equation: Glucose to lactate + 2ATP
( In muscle cells)
Anaerobic respiration only occurs within
cytoplasm.
In anaerobic respiration, ATP is produced
through substrate-level phosphorylation
only.

Explain importance of energy in living organism. (10 marks)

One of importance of energy is for active transport of molecules or ions against a

concentration gradient across the membranes of cells. Energy is also important in
endocytosis and exocytosis.

Not only that, energy is also important for metabolism (anabolic reaction) which
involves synthesis of complex biological molecules such as protein, nucleic acids and
phospholipids.
 Apart from that, energy is required for cell division, growth and development,
replacement of worn-out tissues.

Additionally, energy is needed for “mechanical work”. For example, muscle contraction
has enabled organisms carry out locomotion and movement. There is some energy also
used for movement of cytoskeleton.

It is needed for transmission of nerve impulses and production of hormones which

coordinate body activities to respond to external or internal stimuli.

Some energy is released in form of heat. This allows maintenance of optimum body
temperature for enzymes to function normally. In some species, bioluminescence also
carries out which requires energy in form of light to attract prey or for survival.

Structured question:

A) Name the reaction I and reaction II of the cycle. (2 marks)

- Reaction I: Isomerization

- Reaction II: Dehydrogenation

B) Name M and Q: (2 marks).

M: NADH + H+

Q: Carbon dioxide.

C) Name N and P compounds. (2 marks)

-N: Alpha-ketoglutarate. P: Succinyl-coenzyme A.

D) Name the coenzyme involved in reaction V. (1 mark)

- v:Succinate dehydrogenase.

E) State importance of Krebs cycle. (1 mark)

- Produce NADH and FADH2 which can be utilised to produce ATP.

Structured question:
Question 1: The chlorophyll in a pondweed consisted of several important photosynthetic
pigments, that is, chlorophyll a which is yellow, chlorophyll b which is blue-green and
carotenoid which is orange. The graph below shows absorption spectrum and action
spectrum of these pigments.
 a) i) Which light colours are absorbed by chlorophylls and carotenoids? (2 marks)
- Chlorophylls absorb blue and red parts of spectrum while carotenoids absorb blue
part of spectrum.

iv) Explain why the leaves of most plants appear grean. (1 mark).
- Green light is not absorbed// green light is reflected from the leaves.

b)
i) Explain the difference between the action spectrum and absorption
spectrum. (1 mark)
- Absorption spectrum shows amount of wavelength absorbed by each pigment
whereas action spectrum shows rate of photosynthesis by the plant at different
wavelengths.

ii) Explain why the shape of action spectrum is almost identical to that of
absorption spectrum. (1 mark)
- This is because rate of photosynthesis is highest at blue and red spectrum.

c) Explain the effect of a wavelength of 525 nm on the rate of photosynthesis. (1

mark)
- Rate of photosynthesis is low because not much of the light is absorbed//whereby
most are reflected.

d) How would have action spectrum data been collected using pondweed? (2 marks)
- Evolution of oxygen.
- Water displacement method.

Question 2: The diagram below shows the electron flow in the non-cyclic and cyclic
photophosphorylation.
 a) State the precise location of photophosphorylation in a chloroplast. (1 mark)
- Thylakoid of chloroplast.

b) Explain the role of light in photophosphorylation. (1 mark)

- To raise the energy level of electrons in chloroplast so that a flow of electrons is
initiated in PSI and PSII. As flow of electrons pass through the electron transport
chain, ATP and NADPH is produced.

c) Give the differences between cyclic photophosphorylation and non-cyclic

photophosphorylation. (4 marks)

Non-cyclic photophosphorylation Cyclic photophosphorylation

Photolysis of water is involved.
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation,
water molecules act as source of
electrons.
In non-cyclic photphosphorylation,
NADP is a last electron acceptor
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation,
PSI and PSII are involved.
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation,
the products are ATP, NADPH, and
oxygen.
Photolysis of water is not involved.
In cyclic photophosphorylation, PSI
acts as source of recycled electrons.
In cyclic photophosphorylation, PSI is a
last electron acceptor.
In cyclic photophosphorylation, only
PSI is involved.
In cyclic photophosphorylation, the
product is ATP only.

d) State two ways in which oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria resembles

photophosphorylation in chloroplasts. (2 marks)
- Both produce ATP.
- Both involves passing of electrons along electron carriers.

Question 3: The diagram below shows the photophosphorylation process during light
reaction in plants. (8 marks)
 a) State the photosystems labelled W and Y. Give the wavelengths of their
appropriate reaction centres. (2 marks)
- W: Photosystem II; 680nm. Y: Photosystem I; 700nm.

b) Give the forms of energy represented by X and Z. (2 marks)

- X: ATP, Z: NADPH.

c) State the process that occurs at W. (1 mark)

- Photolysis of water.

d) Describe how a high energy can be produced at Y. (3 marks)

- The electrons reach to the end of PSI at Y. The electrons are accepted by
chlorophyll a at PSI.
- When the light energy is absorbed by the primary electron acceptor of PSI, the
energy excites the electrons.
- The photoexcited electrons with high energy is passed to an electron acceptor then
to ferredoxin and then finally to NADP+ reductase.
- These electrons and protons from photolysis of water can reduce NADP+ to NADPH.
Question 4: The diagram below shows the photophosphorylation process during light
reaction in plants. (8 marks)
 a) Name the systems A and C and the products B and D. (2 marks)
- System A: Photosystem II, system C: Photosystem I, B: ATP. D: NADPH.

b) Describe the production process of B and D. (4 marks)

- PSI absorbs light energy and becomes photoactivated. The electrons in PSI are
photoexcited and then released. The excited electrons are passed along different
electron carriers in PSI with progressively decreasing energy level. The energy
released is used to synthesise ATP (Product B). The electrons are passed from the
final electron carrier in PSI to accessory pigments in PSII. The excited electrons are
released and accepted by primary acceptor and then finally to NADP+ reductase.
As a result, NADP+ is reduced to NADPH by presence of protons which result from
photolysis of water.

c) What happens to the products B and D after the light reaction? (2 marks)
- ATP provides energy required in carbon dioxide fixation in Calvin cycle and NADPH
supplies hydrogen atom which provides reducing power to reduce carbon dioxide
in the fixation process in order to allow conversion of carbon dioxide to complex
organic compounds such as sugar, amino acids and lipids.

Question 5: The diagram below summarises the light-dependent event in photosynthesis:

a) State where in the chloroplast does this reaction take place. (1 mark)
- Thylakoid membrane.

b) During this reaction, water is broken down to yield oxygen, electrons and
hydrogen ions (protons). Name the process in which the water molecules are
broken down. (1 mark)
- Photolysis of water.

c) Explain briefly what happens to the electrons produced in this light-dependent

reaction. (2 marks)
- The electrons are passed to electron carriers. This allow replacement of the
electrons lost from photosystem and chlorophyll.

d) State what happens to hydrogen ions produced during the break down of water. (1
mark)
- Reduce NADP+ to NADPH.

e) State two products of light-dependent reaction and what happens to these

products. (3 marks)
- The products include ATP and NADPH. They are used in light-independent reaction
which takes place in stroma.

Essay question (15 marks)

Question 1:
a) During light reaction in plants, ATP and NADPH are produced. Describe how ATP
and NADPH molecules are formed. (10 marks)

With labelled diagram:

 ATP and NADPH are produced through light reaction. Light reaction occurs in
thylakoid of chloroplast and it consists of non-cyclic photophosphorylation and
non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, light energy is absorbed by accessory

(antenna) pigments of Photosystem II. The energy is then transferred from one
accessory pigment to another, and then to chlorophyll a molecule (P680) in PSII. PSII
becomes activated and high energy electrons are ejected/released.

The electrons are accepted by first electron acceptor so-called phaeophytin. Then,
the electons are passed along series of electron carriers in thylakoid membrane
including quinone, cytochrome b6f complex and then plastocyanin) to PSI with
progressively decreasing energy level.

As a result, the energy released when the electrons pass from higher energy level
to lower energy level will cause synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. When the
electrons are passed to PSI, light energy is further absorbed to photoexcite the
accessory pigments of PSI, which energy is transferred to reaction centre in PSI.
Therefore, the electrons are photoactivated to higher energy level.
 These high energy electrons pass on to the electron acceptor containing Fe-S,
then to ferredoxin and finally to NADP+. NADP+ reductase catalyses conversion of
NADP+ to NADPH by transferring proton to NADP+. As a result, NADP+ will be
reduced to NADPH which will be used during Calvin cycle.

During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, photolysis of water also takes place.

Water molecules are split into protons (H+), resulting in production of electrons
and oxygen. Photolysis of water occurs to ensure the electrons produced from
water can replace the electrons lost from Photosystem II. The protons are released
into the thylakoid space. The cytochrome b6f complex helps to pass protons from
stroma to the thylakoid space for creating proton gradient. Due to presence of
difference in H+ concentration between these two mediums, chemiosmosis takes
place so that ATP synthesis can occur.

In cyclic photophosphorylation, the photoactivated electrons released from

Photosystem I (P700) can flow through first electron acceptor (protein containg Fe-S)
to ferredoxin. The electrons are passed from ferredoxin to cytochrome b6f
complex, plastocyanin and then back to Photosystem I.

Energy is released during flow of electron and the energy is used to synthesise
ATP through chemiosmosis. In this type of photophosphorylation, only ATP is
produced.

b) Compare the differences between cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation. (5

marks)
Answer:
 Structured question (8 marks)
Q1: The diagram below shows the Calvin cycle:

TP= Triose phosphate// Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, GP= Glycerate-3-phosphate

a) i) Name the stage of Calvin cycle at A. (1 mark)
Stage A: Carbon dioxide fixation
iii) State the enzyme involved in stage of Calvin cycle at A. (1 mark)
- Enzyme involved is ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase// Rubisco// RuBP
carboxylase.
 iv) Give two examples of substance C:
- Lipids and starch. // cellulose// fatty acids// sucrose.

b) Describe briefly what is happening at stage B of Calvin cycle. (1 mark)

- There is rearrangement of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecules to regenerate
RuBP.

c) Explain why there is a ring of mesophyll cells around the bundle sheath cells in
C4 plant leaves. (2 marks)
- To prevent oxygen from reaching to Rubisco so that oxygen does not react with
Rubisco. Hence, there will be no photorespiration which causes wastage of RuBP.

Q2: The diagram below shows a summary of carbon dioxide fixation in a CAM plant.

a) State organelles P and Q. (1 mark)

- P is vacuole and Q is chloroplast.

b) State compounds X, Y and Z. (2 marks).

- X: glucose, Y: Phosphoenolpyruvate, Z: malate.

c) Give three differences between CAM and C4 plants. (3 marks) cannot be in table
form oh, remember. ( just for clear writing and obvious understanding)

CAM plants C4 plants

In CAM plants, carbon dioxide fixation
occurs at night when the stoma is open.
There is no Krantz anatomy of leaf in
CAM plants
In CAM plants, malate is stored in
vacuole at night.
In C4 plants, carbon dioxide fixation
occurs at day when the stoma is open.
In C4 plants, there is Krantz anatomy of
leaf.
In C4 plants, carbon dioxide is
concentrated in bundle sheath cells.

d) i) Give an advantage of CAM plant. (1 mark)

 - During the day, the stoma is closed, hence reducing the loss of water through
transpiration. The plants can fix CO2 during the night when the stoma is open, so
this allows the plants to grow in very hot and arid conditions.

iii) State an example of CAM plant. (1 mark)

-Cactus.

Question 3: The diagram below shows carbon fixation of C4 plants using Hatch-Slack
pathway.

a) State the enzymes W and X which catalyse the respective reactions. (1 mark)
W: Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase// PEP carboxylase
X: RuBP carboxylase.

b) State compounds Y and Z. (1 mark)

- Y: Malate// Aspartate Z: Malate//Aspartate

c) State cells P and Q. (2 marks)

- P: Mesophyll cell, Q: Bundle sheath cell.
d) Explain the processes that occur in cell P (3 marks)
- Carbon dioxide fixation occurs. Phosphoenolpyruvate accepts the carbon dioxide
to form oxaloacetate, catalysed by phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase. The
oxaloacetate formed is converted to malate and stored in vacuole.

e) Give an importance of Hatch-Slack pathway to C4 plants. (1 mark)

 - Prevent photorespiration as the enzyme PEP carboxylase has higher affinity for
carbon dioxide than oxygen. There is no wastage of RuBP.
- Rate of carbon dioxide fixation will be higher.
- Plants in tropical regions with high light intensities and suitable temperature are
able to produce food.

Structured question.

A) Name R, S and T. (3 marks)

R: Carbon dioxide fixation phase
S: Reduction phase
T: Regeneration of carbon dioxide acceptor.

B) State the enzyme involved in phase R. (1 mark)

- Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (RubisCo)

C) Describe what happens in phase S. (3 marks)

- Glycerate-3-phosphate (GP) receives an additional phosphate to form 1,3-
bisphosphoglycerate. ATP is utilised to provide phosphate group to the GP.
- The GP is then reduced by receiving hydrogen to form PGAL which is
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. NADPH is used to provide reducing power to the
PGAL.
- **ATP and NADPH are used.**
D) What happens to G3P in phase T? (1 mark)
- Regeneration occurs to allow G3P being converted into RuBP through a series of
rearrangement reaction.

Structured question:

A) Name the cells X and Y. (2 marks)

X: Mesophyll cells
Y: Bundle sheath cells
B) Name S:
-S: Carbon dioxide
C) I) Name the reaction which occurs at step P: (1 mark)
- P: Oxidation reaction.
Ii) Suggest a way how the reaction in c)I) helps to sustain the higher rate of photosynthesis.
(1 mark)
- Increases carbon dioxide concentration which enters the Calvin cycle. Thus, sugar
production increases.
D) State the significance of having calvin cycle in cell Y instead of cell X. (2 marks)
P1- Products of photosynthesis can be quickly transferred from bundle sheath cells to
adjacent phloem tissue for faster translocation.
P2- Bundle sheath cells that are surrounded by mesophyll cells can prevent oxygen from
reaching to them, further helping in halting photorespiration. RubisCo can now fix CO2
without competition with O2.
E) State the habitat of C4 plant. (1 mark)
- Hot or dry habitat.

Essay question (15 marks)

With the aid of labelled diagram, describe the dark reaction of carbohydrate synthesis in
C3 plants and C4 plants.
a) C3 plant.
b) C4 plant.
Labelled diagram of dark reaction in C3 plants:

Initially, carbon dioxide from atmosphere diffuses through the stomata into the stroma
of chloroplast in the mesophyll cells. The carbon dioxide combines with a molecule of
ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) to produce an unstable 6C sugar. The process of carbon
dioxide fixation is catalysed by ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco).
 The six-carbon sugar is immediately split into 2 molecules of glycerate-3-phosphate
(GP). ATP is hydrolysed to provide energy required to bind another phosphate group to GP
to form glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate.
NADPH from the light reaction is used to reduce glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate to
glyceraldehyde-1,3-bisphosphate. In exchange, NADPH will be oxidized to regenerate
NADP+ again. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate//triose phosphate (TP) is formed when a
phosphate group is removed from glyceraldehyde-1,3-bisphosphate.
About five sixth (5/6) of the TP will be rearranged through reactions to regenerate
RuBP. The remaining one sixth (1/6) is used to produce hexose, undergo beta-oxidation to
form fatty acids and proteins. (OR synthesise biological molecules).
The cycle is repeated once there is regeneration of RuBP. The cycle is known as Calvin
cycle.
For labelled diagram of C4 plants:

Generally, C4 plants grow in hot climates and this type of plant has higher rate of
photosynthesis compared to C3 plants.
The pathway in C4 plants is known as Hatch-Slack pathway. First, carbon dioxide is fixed
by phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) in the mesophyll cells to form oxaloacetate (4C). This
reaction is catalysed by PEP carboxylase that has high affinity for carbon dioxide even at
low carbon dioxide concentration.
Oxaloacetate is then reduced by NADPH from light reaction to form malate. The malate
formed is shunted through plasmodesmata of mesophyll cells into bundle sheath cells. In
the bundle sheath cells, malate is oxidized by removing hydrogen and decarboxylated at
the same time to produce carbon dioxide and pyruvate.
As a result, carbon dioxide concentration increases in bundle sheath cells. The carbon
dioxide then enters the Calvin cycle to undergo fixation. The pyruvate formed is returned
to mesophyll cells and is reduced by NADPH and phosphorylated to form PEP again.

Essay question (15 marks)

a) State the difference between C3 , C4, and CAM plants

Types of plants C3 plant C4 plant CAM plant

Examples Tomato, tobacco, Sugar cane, maize Cacti and
wheat, legume. (Zea mays), sorghum. pineapples.
Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide
fixation fixation occurs fixation occurs twice fixation occurs
once by ribulose by twice by PEP and
bisphosphate in phosphoenolpyruvate RuBP both being
mesophyll cells. in mesophyll cells and processed in
ribulose mesophyll cells.
bisphosphate in
bundle sheath cells.
Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide
acceptor acceptor includes acceptor include PEP acceptor include
RuBP and RuBP PEP and RuBP
First product of First product First product formed First product
carbon dioxide formed through through CO2 fixation formed through
fixation CO2 fixation is is oxaloacetate CO2 fixation is
glycerate-3- oxaloacetate.
phosphate.
Separation There is neither There is spatial There is temporal
spatial separation separation of steps. separation of
nor temporal steps.
separation
Efficiency in The enzyme, The enzyme PEP is Same explaination
photosynthesis Rubisco is less efficient when [CO2] as C4 plant.
efficient when is low. Hence,
[CO2] is low. photosynthesis is
Hence, more efficient. The
photosynthesis is yield is efficient than
less efficient. Yield that of C3 plant.
is lower.
Krantz anatomy There is no Krantz There is Krantz There is no Krantz
anatomy. anatomy of leaf. anatomy.
Hatch-Slack There is no hatch- Hatch-Slack pathway Similar to Hatch-
pathway. slack pathway in is present in C4 plant. Slack pathway.
C3 plant (Crassulacean acid
metabolism)
Opening of Stomata of C3 plant Stomata of C4 plants Stomata open at
stomata open during the open during the day. night.
day.
Photorespiration Photorespiration Photorespiration is Photorespiration is
occurs in C3 plants inhibited in C4 plants inhibited in CAM
plants

Essay question
Question 2: Describe the anatomy of the leaves and give the importances of C4 plants. (10
marks)
Anatomy is shown in diagram here (not necessary actually if question doesn’t mention):

The leaf anatomy of C4 plants is known as Krantz anatomy. The leaf has two rings of
cells surrounding the vascular bundle, which are mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells.
The layer of mesophyll cells form the outer ring surrounding the bundle sheath cells and
the bundle sheath cells form the inner ring surrounding the vascular bundle.
The mesophyll cells have few, small chloroplasts that have large-well developed grana.
The bundle sheath cells have large chloroplasts but have fewer grana. The chloroplast in
mesophyll cells have no starch grains while chloroplast of bundle sheath cells have many
starch grains. (These sentences can also be used when the question asks about difference
between mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells)
 The mesophyll cells are the site for the first carbon dioxide fixation to form
oxaloacetate followed by malate. While the bundle sheath cells carry out Calvin cycle to
produce sugar.
For importance of C4 plants, the plants are able to carry out photosynthesis at low
carbon dioxide concentration. This is because the PEP enzyme has higher affinity to CO2
than O2. Hence, this inhibits photorespiration and increases rate of photosynthesis. This
type of plant is common in the tropics.
Besides, the carbon dioxide can be stored temporarily for later use when required. The
malate formed can be stored temporarily in the bundle sheath cells. Hence, when
required, the malate can be oxidized to pyruvate. This increases carbon dioxide
concentration in bundle sheath cells.
In C4 plants, its importance includes inhibition of photorespiration. This permits
efficient photosynthesis, producing higher yield at low carbon dioxide concentration
together with suitable temperature and high light intensities.

b) Describe the process of carbon dioxide fixation in CAM plants. (5 marks)

Cactus is an example of CAM plant that lives in arid condition. The plants only
have mesophyll cells and have no Krantz anatomy. The pathway for photosynthesis
is same as C4 plants. However, the carbon dioxide fixation occurs at night when the
stomata are open.

During carbon dioxide fixation, CAM plants take in carbon dioxide (CO2), then
PEP combines with CO2 to form oxaloacetate. Oxaloacetate is reduced to form
malate. Malate is then stored in cell vacuole to prevent decrease in pH in plant
cells.

During the day, malate is oxidized to produce pyruvate and carbon dioxide. The
carbon dioxide produced is used in Calvin cycle for biosynthesis process. THe
stomata of CAM plants are closed during daytime to carry out dark reaction. As a
result, monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides will be produced, as
well as proteins and lipids.

Essay question ( 10 marks)

- Photosynthesis is a process in which organic compounds are produced, especially
carbohydrate from inorganic compounds. Explain how photosynthesis converts CO2 from
the atmosphere into a carbohydrate molecule.

-Answer can refer to “Calvin cycle”

Concept relating to photorespiration:
Photorespiration is an entirely negative term because it represents a severe loss to the
process of using light energy in photosynthetic organisms to fix carbon for subsequent
carbohydrate synthesis. By leading to the loss of up to half of the carbon that has been
fixed at the expense of light energy, photorespiration undoes the work of photosynthesis.
Photorespiration happens in C3 plants when the CO2 concentration drops to about 50
ppm. The key enzyme that accomplishes the fixing of carbon is rubisco, and at low
concentrations of CO2 it begins to fix oxygen instead.

Under moderate temperature conditions when C3 plants have sufficient water, the supply
of carbon dioxide is abundant and photorespiration is not a problem. The
CO2 concentration of the atmosphere as of 2004 was about 380 ppm and this CO2 freely
diffuses through the stomata of leaves and across the membranes of
the chloroplasts while water diffuses out through the stomata. But during hot and dry
conditions, the stomata close to prevent excessive water loss and the continuing fixation
of carbon in the Calvin cycle dramatically reduces the relative concentration of CO2.
When it reaches a critical level of about 50 ppm the rubisco stops fixing CO2 and begins to
fix O2 instead. Even though the detoured process feeds some PGA back into the cycle, the
photorespiration process causes rubisco to operate at only about 25% of its optimal rate.
The C4 plants and CAM plants avoid photorespiration and therefore operate at much
higher efficiencies in hot and dry climates.

Essay question (15 marks)

1) A) Differentiate the leaf anatomy of C3 and C4 plant. (4 marks)

C3 plants
C3 plants consist of one type of
photosynthetic cells which includes
mesophyll cells.
Krantz anatomy is absent in C3 plants.
Has only one type of chloroplast
C3 plants cannot inhibit photorespiration,
thus rate of photosynthesis is lower.
C4 plants
C4 plants consist of two photosynthetic
cells which include mesophyll cells and
bundle sheath cells
Krantz anatomy is present in C4 plants.
Have two types of chloroplast.
Rate of photosynthesis is higher in C4 plants
due to inhibition of photorespiration.

B) Explain the reaction in photosynthesis which involves light energy but does not
involve photolysis of water. (8 marks)
P1- Cyclic photophosphorylation.
P2- It is a light reaction occuring on the thylakoid membrane of chloroplast.
P3- Light energy is harvested by Photosystem I/ P700 and the photosystem is
photoactivated.
P4- Electrons from the chlorophyll molecule are photoexcited.
P5- The electrons are accepted by the primary electron acceptor containing FeS.
P6- The electrons are then passed down an electron transport chain to ferredoxin (Fd),
plastoquinone (Pq), cytochrome complex and plastocyanin (Pc)
P7- The electrons are finally passed back to Photosystem I/ p700
P8- As the electrons move down the electron transport chain, energy is released through
chemiosmotic mechanism.
P9- ATP molecules are synthesized which is the only product of cyclic
photophosphorylation.
C) State three limiting factors which affect rate of photosynthesis. (3 marks)
- Light intensity, Carbon dioxide concentration and temperature.

Three essay questions (2019 U1 -2020), choose two from the three questions
Each question 15 marks.
Q1 a) Amino acids are classified into four main groups based on the properties of their
side chain. Differentiate between polar and non-polar amino acid groups. (5 marks)
The four main groups of amino acids are non-polar, polar uncharged, acidic and
basic.
The polar amino acid chains contain groups that are charged while non-polar
amino acid side chains are not charged.
Polar amino acids can form hydrogen bonding whereas non-polar amino acid side
chain cannot form hydrogen bonding. Besides, polar amino acids are hydrophilic in nature
while non-polar amino acids are hydrophobic in nature.
Polar amino acids are found on the outside of the protein structure and can attract
water while non polar amino acids are located inside the protein structure and repel
water.
B) Explain the efficiency of photosynthesis in sugar cane plants in an extremely hot
and dry season.
P1- Sugar cane is C4 plant. (A necessary point)
P2- In very hot and dry weather, the stomata close and carbon dioxide level is low in
leaves.
P3- Sugar cane carries out carbon dioxide fixation using Hatch-Slack pathway.
P4- Carbon dioxide is fixed by phosphoenolpyruvate using PEP carboxylase enzyme.
P5- PEP carboxylase has high affinity toward carbon dioxide even at low level of carbon
dioxide in extremely hot and dry weather.
P6- Oxaloacetate which is a 4-carbon compound is formed. This reaction takes place in
mesophyll cells
P7- Oxaloacetate is converted to malate and the malate is shunted into bundle sheath
cells
P8- In bundle sheath cells, carbon dioxide is released by decarboxylation of malate and
the pyruvate is formed.
P9- High concentration of carbon dioxide/CO2 is retained in the bundle sheath cells and
CO2 enters Calvin cycle to produce sugars.
P10- Pyruvate returns to mesophyll cells where it is converted back to
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP).

Q2: a) Describe the structure of parenchyma cells. (4 marks)

P1- Parenchyma cells consist of thin-walled cells.
P2- The wall of parenchyma cells are made up of cellulose and/or calcium pectate.
P3- Each parenchyma cell has a prominent nucleus and a large central vacuole.
P4- Carry out metabolic process.
b)List out seven functions of parenchyma cells. (7 marks)
P1- Parenchyma cells contain chloroplast carrying out photosynthesis for example
palisade mesophyll cells.
P2- Parenchyma cells act as packaging tissues in various parts of plant such as leaves,
stems and roots.
P3- Parecnchyma cells are meristematic cells which carry out cellular division.
P4- Act as storage cells where they can store large amounts of soluble organic nutrients,
water and ions.
P5- Provide support
P6- Act as protective layer
P7- AIds in transport process as they are parts of xylem and phloem.

Q3: a) Describe three types of cofactors and their roles in enzymatic reaction. ( 9 marks)
c) Amyloglucosidase is an enzyme that breaks down starch to glucose. Explain why
hydrolysis of starch stops when heavy metal ions is added to enzymatic reaction (6
marks)
 Reference:
Complete all the structured questions below:
1)
2)
 Essay question. Choose either two from three questions. Each question has 15
marks.
1)a) Cellulose is the structural carbohydrates in plants. Describe the structure of
cellulose and explain how the structure is related to its function. (9 marks)

C) Explain why the human alimentary canal is able to digest starch present in cereals
and tubers but unable to digest celluloe found in vegetables. (3 marks)

D) Explain why the sucrose is the main form of carbohydrate that is transported
through phloem in plants. (3 marks)

3) a) Explain the roles of structures of the cell membranes in the transportation of

substances into the cell. (10 marks)
c) Some membrane proteins act as transport proteins to move substances across the
membrane. Give five other types of membrane proteins and their functions in
living organism. (5 marks)

4) A) Name three different classes of enzymes based on classification according to the

International Union of Biochemistry system. Give an example of each class of the named
enzyme and state each of its function. (6 marks)
c) State the difference between coenzyme and prosthetic group. (4 marks)
D) Cyanide is a deadly poison. It is a non-reversible inhibitor of cyctochrome oxidase.
Describe how cyanide affects cellular respiration. (5 marks)