FACULTY OF MEDICINE

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY MB 115

Examiner: Mr Mubanga

Date: 27/07/20

Time: 09:00-12:00 hrs

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

This paper consists of 4 sections.

Section A consists 50 multiple choice questions True/ False each

with five options (a) to (e). FOR EACH QUESTION INDICATE T FOR
TRUE AND F FOR FALSE IN THE MCQ GRID PROVIDED

Section B consists 50 multiple choice questions best option each

with five options (a) to (e). CHOOSE ONE BEST OPTION FOR EACH
QUESTION AND TYPE X IN THE PROVIDED MCQ ANSWER GRID.
NEGATIVE MARKING WILL NOT APPLY

Section C BACTERIOLOGY ANSWER TWO QUESTION IN PART 1

AND ONE QUESTION IN PART
Section D IMMUNOLOGY ANSWER TWO QUESTION IN PART 1 AND
ONE QUESTION IN PART

NOTE SECTION B AND D QUESTIONS MUST BE TYPED IN WORD

DOCUMENT.

ENSURE YOU UPLOAD YOUR ANSWER INTIME

MB 115 Exam. January 2021

SECTION A TRUE/FALSE

1. Which of the following are characteristics of the bacterial capsule?

a) All bacteria have one.
b) Made up of peptidoglycan.
c) Used for bacterial attachment.
d) It is responsible for the Gram reaction.
e) Important in protecting bacteria from ingestion by macrophages.

2. The following statements are typical of bacterial cell wall

a) Distinguish gram-positive from Gram –negative bacteria
b) Gives rigid support and protects against Osmotic pressure
c) Peptidoglycan is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative
d) Gram - negative bacteria stain red with gram stain
e) Gram- positive bacteria contain teichoic acid and liposaccharide

3. Stationary phase in bacteria growth in a closed culture environment is

characterised by limited population growth due to which factors:
a) Exhaustion(Depletion) of available nutrients
b) Cell number decreases at a logarithmic rate.
c) Inhibitory metabolites accumulation
d) Increased temperature
e) Accumulation of toxic products
4. The following statements are characteristic of differential cultural media;
a) Distinguish between closely related organisms whose growth they support by
coloured indicator
b) MacConkey agar is an example of this media
c) Permits growth of a wide range of bacteria
d) Favours the growth of a particular organism or group of organisms & inhibits
others
e) Dyes and metabolic substances incorporated in their formula

5. Which of the following antiseptics are not used to disinfect skin surfaces?
a) Phenol
b) Chlothexidine
c) Glutaradehyde
d) Iodine
e) aqueous isopropyl alcohol

6. The following statements’ concerning Plasmids is CORRECT:

a) Protects bacteria from lytic enzymes.
b) Inhibit phagocytosis.
c) Are antigenic.
d) Are extrachromosomal pieces of circular DNA.
e) Encodes enzymes that cause antibiotic resistance.

7. The following statements are true as regards to normal flora

a) The colon is major site for Bacteroides fragilis
b) They comprise of bacteria, fungi and viruses.
c) Members of the normal flora are low-virulence organisms.
d) Can be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
e) Resident flora is always present in or on the human body.

8. The following normal microbiota is predominant in the genitourinary tract in pre-

menopausal women;
a) Lactobacilli.
b) Clostridia species.
 c) Corynebacteria.
d) Staphylococci.
e) Neisseria spp.

9. Shigellae is distinguished from Salmonellae by

a) Does not produce gas from glucose fermentation
b) Non-motile
c) Motile
d) Ferments lactose
e) Produces H2S

10. Regarding the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae, which of the following
statement(s) is most accurate?
a) All do not have cytochrome oxidase thus oxidase-negative
b) All members of the family are anaerobic, which means they must be cultured
in the absence of oxygen.
c) All members of the family ferment glucose, an important diagnostic criterion in
the clinical laboratory.
d) All members of the family are motile
e) All members of the family contain endotoxin in their cell walls

11. Which of these pigments are produced by Pseudomonas Spp. is important in

early detection of skin infections?
a) Melanin
b) Pyocyanin
c) Actinorhodin
d) Zeaxanthin
e) Fluorescein

12. The following are CORRECT statements of the characteristics of genera of non-
fermentative gram negative rods;
a) All are strict aerobes
b) Aeromonas and Acinetobacter are oxidase positive
 c) Pseudomonas and Burkholderia are contaminants of disinfectants and soap
solutions in hospitals
d) Moraxella and Acinetobacter are catalase positive
e) All are motile

13. The following are accurate statements concerning differences between the
genera Staphylococcus and Streptococcus;
a) Streptococcus cell arrangement is in chains and Staphylococcus in grape-like
clusters
b) Streptococcus are not fastidious bacteria whereas, Staphylococcus are
fastidious
c) Habitat in humans, Streptococci found in the respiratory tract and
Staphylococci found on the skin.
d) The binary fission in Staphylococcus occurs in one linear direction whereas, in
Streptococcus occurs in various directions
e) Streptococcus is catalase negative whereas, Staphylococcus is catalase
positive

14. Haemolysis on blood agar is one of the tests which distinguish gram positive
cocci species. Which of the following are α- haemolytic cocci?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Streptococcus bovis
c) Streptococcus pyrogenes
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis
e) Staphylococcus aureus

15. Bacterial exotoxins:

a) Include leukocidins and haemolysins.
b) Include the cholera toxin.
c) Have two parts A and B subunits.
d) Are antigens that provoke a very intense immune response.
e) Disrupts the plasma membrane and cause lysis of the cell.
16. Spores are dormant forms of bacteria. Which of the following are spore-forming
bacteria?
a) Staphylococcus aureus.
b) Escherichia coli
c) Bacillus anthracis.
d) Clostridium tetani.
e) Clostridium difficile.

17. Botulism and tetanus:

a) Are both caused by exotoxins.
b) Virulence factors of their causative agents are encoded on plasmids.
c) Are both neurotoxins.
d) Are both caused by endotoxins.
e) Mechanism of action of toxins produced by the causative agent is the same.

18. Which of the following statements is true?

a) LD50 is the number of microbes that will kill infected individuals.
b) Adhesins of bacteria are most frequently carbohydrates.
c) Toxins inhibit protein synthesis, destroy blood vessels and disrupts the
nervous system.
d) AB exotoxins are type II toxins.
e) Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

19. Which one of the following is an infection due to Rickettsia typhi ?

a) Yellow fever
b) HIV
c) Epidemic typhus
d) Rocky mountain spotted fever
e) Herpes simplex Virus 1

20. Which of the following is NOT the proper preventive method to control rickettsial
infections?
 a) Use of antiviral drugs in treatment
b) Use of insecticides to control vectors and reservoirs
c) Elimination of rats and mites
d) Proper hygiene and cleanliness to eliminate lice and fleas
e) Use of antifungal drugs

21. Among the following,which of the following is the most common infection due to
Mycoplasma?.
a) Tuberculosis
b) Food poisoning
c) Urethritis
d) Skin infections
e) Brain infections

22. Which of these causes sexually transmitted disease?

a) Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
b) Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
c) Borrelia recurrentis
d) Wuchereria bancrofti
e) Neisseria gonorrhea

23. ___________________________are not examples of infections due to

Mycoplasma spp?.

a) Pneumonia
b) Food poisoning
c) Bronchitis
d) Otitis
e) Diarrhoea
24. A blood sample from a 19-year-old sexually active woman with genital infections
was taken and cultured for the isolation of the responsible pathogen. Which of
these is the least likely bacterial organism to be found?

a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Mycoplasma pneumonia
c) Mycoplasma hominis
d) Mycoplasma genitalium
e) Herpes simplex virus type 2

25. ____________________transmits Classical typhus fever.

a) Ticks
b) Mites
c) Fleas
d) Lice
e) Dogs
26. The principal requirement for complement activation through the alternative
pathway requires?
a) Sialomucins
b) Sialic acids
c) Lipoproteins
d) Lipopolysaccharides
e) All of the above

27. C3 protein in complement activation is important in that?

a) Its active component C3a is responsible for opsonization
b) C3b is going to be responsible for macrophage recruitment
c) C3b degranurates mast cells
d) C3b is needed for MAC formation
e) All of the above

28. MASP1 and MASP2 in the lectin pathway functions as?

 a) Binding proteins to mannose binding proteins
b) Activators of C4 proteins
c) Activators of C2 proteins
d) C3 convertase
e) All of the above

29. Proteosomic degradation of antigens is important in?

a) CD8+ bound antigens
b) CD4+ bound antigens
c) Cytosolic derived antigens
d) Exogenic antigens
e) Both CD8+ and CD4+ bound antigens

30. The ability of DCs to recognize an array of pathogens is due to?

a) Presence of a number of pattern recognition receptors of its surfaces
b) Its strategic location on epithelial lining
c) Its ability to sample antigenic differences on epithelial surfaces
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

31. The T cell receptors are specific for the following antigens?
a) Insoluble protein antigens
b) Soluble protein antigens
c) Antigens bound to adjuvants
d) Chemical antigens bound to proteins
e) All of the above

32. B cell activation occurs through the following mechanisms?

a) Polysaccharide mediated
b) T cell mediated
c) C3b receptor mediated
d) TLR mediated
e) All of the above
33. After activation by antigen recognition and co-stimulation, there are
characteristic changes in the expression of various surface molecules in T cells
including?
a) CD69
b) CD 40L
c) IL-2R
d) CTLA-4
e) All of the above

34. The anti-viral state that is achieved by production of INF α and INF β induces?

a) MHC I molecule production

b) MHC II molecule production
c) Both a and b
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

35. MHC molecules?

a) Are only found on professional antigen presenting cells
b) Are made up of α and β chains encoded for by MHC genes
c) β2 micro-globulin is the only polymorphic peptide of MHC peptides
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

36. In T cell activation?

a) Signal 1 is conferred by TCR/MHC-peptide interaction
b) Signal 1 is as a result of TCR/antigen interaction
c) Co-stimulation is rendered by CD28/CD3 interaction
d) Co-stimulation is mediated by CTLA-4/B7 complex interaction
e) All of the above

37. The CD3 on T cells?

a) Recognition MHC/antigen complexes
 b) Are found in close contact with the TCR
c) Functions in signal transduction that leads to the expression of cytokines
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

38. The difference between cytotoxic and immune-complex hypersensitivity is

a) The class (isotype) of antibody involved
b) The participation of complement
c) The participation of T cells
d) Type of cells involved
e) Whether antigen is free or on a cell

39. Concerning hypersensitivity reactions

a) All reactions involve the humoral part of the immune system
b) Less antigen is needed to trigger anaphylaxis than immune complex reactions

c) Most reactions manifest after 48 hours

d) Phagocytic cells have a very important role in Type III reactions

e) Type II and Type IV both involve Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes

40. A patient skin-testes with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous
exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site
48 hours later. Histological analysis reveals
a) B cells
b) Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes
c) Helper T cells
d) Macrophages
e) Neutrophils

41. Which of the following cells play a role in innate immunity

a) Natural killer cell
b) Macrophages
c) Monocytes
 d) T helper lymphocytes
e) T cytotoxic lymphocytes

42. Immunity can be affected by

a) Age
b) sex
c) Nutrition
d) predisposition to a pathogen
e) Bone marrow transplant

43. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding lymph node
a) It is essential for T cell maturation
b) It is a secondary lymphoid organ
c) It is a primary lymphoid organ
d) Stores mature T cells
e) It has germinal follicles

44. The following are secondary lymphoid organs

a) Payers patches
b) Thymus
c) Bone marrow
d) Adenoids
e) Gut associated lymphoid tissue

45. Regarding adaptive immunity

45.1. Mediated by T cells, NK cells and B cells
45.2. Stimulated by microbial antigens
45.3. Requires clonal expansion and differentiation of B and T lymphocytes
45.4. The response to the antigen is increases with repeated exposure
45.5. Its Diverse

46. Which of the following are antigen presenting cells?

a) B cells
 b) T cells
c) Macrophages
d) Dendritic cells
e) Basophils

47. The difference between adaptive immune responses and innate immune
responses include:
a) Adaptive immune responses are specific while innate immune responses
are non-specific
b) Innate immune responses increase with repeated exposure while adaptive
immune responses remain the same
c) Innate immune responses recognise self from non self while adaptive
immune responses don’t
d) Adaptive immunity has memory while Innate immunity has no memory
e) Innate immunity is played by T and B lymphocyte while adaptive immunity
is mainly played by NK lymphocytes

48. The following play a role in providing innate immunity

a) Skin
b) B lymphocytes
c) Neutrophil
d) T helper cell
e) Gastric PH

49. Inflammation is characterised by

a) Heat
b) Pain
c) Oedema due to vascular dilation
d) Oedema due to vascular constriction
e) All of the above
50. Regarding the Cell mediated immunity
a) Its essential in fighting intracellular pathogens
b) Its mediated by B lymphocytes play a role and becomes activated when they
receive peptide presented to then on MHC
c) Natural killer cells play a role and becomes activated when they receive
peptide presented to then on MHC I
d) Is essential in combating extracellular pathogens
e) May lead to secretions of cytokines

SECTION B BEST ANSWER

51. In Gram stain, the decolourization of gram-negative bacteria by alcohol is most

closely related to:
a) Ribosomes
b) Proteins encoded by F plasmids
c) Branched polysaccharides in the capsule
d) Lipids in the cell wall
e) Glycoprotein

52. In terms of nutrition growth requirements, which of the following is fastidious

organism?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Enterobacter aerogenes
c) Escherichia coli
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Staphylococcus aureus

53. Campylobacter jejunii is an organism that grows well in the presence of trace
oxygen of about 2- 10%. It is considered to be
a) Microaerophilic
 b) Facultative anaerobe
c) Facultative aerobe
d) Obligate aerobes
e) Aerotolerant anaerobe

54. Which one of the following statement best describes the advantage of using
Ethylene oxide for sterilizing medical equipment and supplies?
a) Low-maintenance method and simple to use
b) its penetrating ability
c) useful method for the industrial Sterilization of heat sensitive products
d) Non-toxic and odourless
e) High temperature process

55. Which of the following anatomical locations in adults is the least colonised with
normal flora?
a) Conjunctiva
b) Skin
c) Stomach
d) Colon
e) Nasopharynx

56. Which the following are the beneficial effects of normal microbiota EXCEPT;
a) Immune modulation.
b) Biosynthesis of vitamin K.
c) Biosynthesis of vitamin B.
d) Conversion of bile acids to pro-carcinogens.
e) Fermentation of dietary fibre

57. Which one of the following enteric bacteria is both primary and opportunistic
pathogen?
a) Enterobacter
b) Yersinia pestis.
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
 d) Proteus mirabilis.
e) Shigella dysenteriae.

58. Which among the following enteric bacteria causes plague?

a) Yersinia pestis.
b) Proteus mirabilis.
c) Shigella sonnei.
d) Escherichia coli
e) Salmonella typhi.

59. Which of the following gram-negative rod produces β-lactamase blamed for
“protecting” the other organisms when β-lactam treatment fails?
a) Moraxella catarrhalis
b) Burkholderia cepacia
c) Acinetobacter baumannii
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Salmonella typhimurium

60. The following non-fermentative gram negative rods are evenly matched with the
diseases they cause EXCEPT;
a) Burkholderia mallei - Melioidosis
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Cellulitis
c) Moraxella catarrhali - Otitis media
d) Aeromonas - Bacteremia
e) Acinetobacter baumannii – Pneumonia

61. β-haemolysis on blood agar shown by pyrogenic streptococcal species is due to

production of which of the following enzyme?
a) Coagulase
b) Collagenase
c) Streptolysin
d) Protease
e) Hyaluronidase
62. Which one of following laboratory test is the most appropriate to distinguish
Enterococcus faecalis from other medically important Lancefield streptococci?
a) Bacitracin sensitive
b) Esculin hydrolysis
c) Growth in 6.5% NaCl
d) Growth in the presence of bile
e) Inhibition by optochin

63. Skin rash, mucocutaneous lesions, and lymphadenopathy are signs of:
a) Primary syphilis infection
b) Secondary syphilis infection
c) Tertiary syphilis infection
d) Asymptomatic syphilis infection
e) HIV

64. Neurosyphilis is:

a) An infection of the liver due to syphilis.
b) Infection of bones
c) An infection of the kidneys due to syphilis.
d) A major illness of the eyes of babies due to syphilis.
e) A major illness of the nervous system due to syphilis

65. Which of the following is not considered a safe sexual behavior?

a) Correct use of condom
b) Avoiding multiple sexual behaviour
c) Casual sex
d) Careful selection of partners
e) Abstaining

66. What other infection is commonly found with gonorrhoea?

a) Trichomonas
b) Bacterial vaginosis
 c) Syphilis
d) Chlamydia
e) HIV

67. Babies who have contracted gonorrhea of the eye from their infected mother
have the disorder called ?
a) Pelvic inflammatory disease
b) Opthalmia neonatorum
c) Epididymitis
d) Pharengeal gonorrhoea
e) PID

68. What is the most common cause of meningococcal meningitis?

a) Neisseria meningitidis
b) Virus
c) Poor water sanitation
d) Herpes simplex
e) HIV

69. Gonorrhea causing bacteria is which type of bacteria?

a) Gram – positive
b) Gram – negative
c) Gram neutral
d) Gram acidic
e) Acid fast

70. Chlamydia causing bacteria is which type of bacteria?

a) Gram – positive
b) Gram – negative
c) Gram neutral
d) Gram acidic
e) Acid fast
71. Which of the following is an intracellular bacterium?
a) Chlamydia
b) HIV
c) Herpes simplex virus
d) Varicella zoster
e) Staphylococcus

72. When do the symptoms of neonatal pneumoniae in babies start to show caused
by Chlamydia trachomatis?
a) In 1 week after the birth
b) In 2 to 12 weeks after birth
c) In 5 to 10 days after the birth
d) In 2 to 3 weeks after the birth
e) 2 years after birth

73. COVID 19 corona virus

a) Can be a nosocomial infection
b) Can be transmitted in the hospital by touching infected beds in the hospital
c) Is transmitted through injections of drugs
d) Is air borne
e) Aerosols are common modes of transmission among health care givers

74. The vast majority of the postoperative incisional or superficial wound infections
are caused by micro organisms that are:
a) From hands of the surgeon or surgeon’s assistant
b) Present in the operating
c) Present in other surgical staff
d) Normally found on the patient’s skin or from mucous membranes adjacent to
the surgical site
e) None of the above

75. Normal flora are found in all the following areas of the body Except
a) In the eyes
b) In the nose
 c) In the mouth
d) In the upper throat
e) On the Skin

76. Which of the following immunoglobulin(s) mediate(s) allergic reactions

a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgE and IgM
d) IgG
e) IgM
77. The major chemical messenger involved in hypersensitivity reactions is
a) Complement
b) Histamines
c) Interferons
d) Interleukins
e) Lymphokines
78. Complement plays an important role in which type of hypersensitivity
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
e) Anaphylaxis

79. The main cell(s) involved in Type III Hypersensitivity reactions is(are):
a) Basophils
b) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Mast cells
e) Neutrophils
80. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AHA) is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
 c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
e) Type V hypersensitivity
81. Which of the following factors does not contribute to autoimmunity
a) Infection
b) Host immune-competency
c) Host genetics
d) Abnormalities in immune cells
e) None of the above
82. HLA DR genes are associated with all of the following autoimmune diseases
except
a) Ankylosing spondilytis
b) Crohn’s disease
c) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
d) Rheumatoid Arthritis
e) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

83. The production of super antigens that inappropriately activate the immune
system is an example of which type of autoimmunity pathogenesis mechanism
a) Cytokine dysregulation
b) Defective dendritic cells
c) Molecular mimicry
d) T-cell bypass
e) B-cell dysregulation

84. Chemotaxis is mediated by a number of well-known chemokines and can also

be influenced by activated complement proteins such as?

a) C5a
b) C5b
c) C3b
d) C2a
e) All of the above
85. Formation of the C3 convertase is mediated by?
a) Formation of the C4bC2a complex
b) Formation of the C4C5a complex
c) Formation of the C2aC4b comlex
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

86. MHC 1 are characterized by?

a) Presence of α and β chains
b) α2 and α3 form the antigen presenting cleft
c) presence of β2 microglobulin
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
87. In which compartment of the thymus does recombination processes occur?
a) In the medulla
b) In the cortex
c) In between the cortex and the medulla
d) In the paracortex
e) None of the above
88. Medullary thymic epithelial cells functions as?
a) Antigen presenting cells to the thymocytes
b) Antigen presenting cells to b cells
c) Antigen presenting cells to both B and T cells
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

89. Function of CTLA-4 in T-cell activation is?

a) Inhibition
b) Signal transduction
c) Ligand to ICOS molecules
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

90. The following are the characteristics of T cell antigens:

 a) Linear lipids
b) Carbohydrate
c) Free
d) MHC bound
e) Particulate

91. Peptide binding cleft in the MHC I molecules is formed by?

a) α2 and α3 domains
b) β2 and β3 domains
c) α1 and α3 domains
d) α1 and α2 domains
e) α1 and β2 domains

92. After antigen capture at different epithelia DC’s?

a) Destroy the endocytosed pathogens
b) Migrate to primary lymphoid organs
c) Increase the expression of CCR2
d) Begin to respond CCL17
e) Increase expression of CCR7

93. The T-cell ligand binding B7 on a professional antigen-presenting cell is:

a) CD28
b) CD2
c) LFA-1
d) ICAM-1
e) VCAM-1

94. Co-receptors on cytotoxic t cells are?

a) CD3 molecules
b) CD25 molecules
c) CD4 molecules
d) CD8 molecules
e) CD 80 molecules

95. B cells mature in the………. while T cells mature in the

 a) Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b) Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
c) Bone marrow and /Thymus
d) Liver/Kidneys
e) Brain/Thymus

96. The following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying

intracellular pathogens?
a) T helper cells
b) B cells
c) Antibodies
d) Complement
e) T cytolytic cells

97. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is
considered:
a) A toxoid
b) Dormant
c) Virulent
d) Attenuated
e) Denatured

98. B cells proliferate in_____ and release large amounts of antibody:

a) Memory cells
b) Basophils
c) Plasma cells
d) Killer cells
e) Neutrophils

99. The specificity of an antibody is determined by?

a) its valence
b) The constant region of the heavy and light chain
c) The heavy chains
 d) The Fc portion of the molecule
e) The variable portion of the heavy and light chain

100. Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response
unless they are bound to a larger molecule?
a) Antigen
b) Virus
c) Hapten
d) Miligen
e) Antibody

SECTION C BACTERIOLOGY

PART 1 ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS

1. Describe mode to action of Ionising Radiation in sterilization of medical

supplies and give two examples of medical supplies sterilized by this method?
2. Describe the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin
3. Briefly discuss stage 1 and stage 2 syphilis

PART 2 CHOOSE ONE QUESTION

1. Bacillus is a very diverse genus with more than 200 species, including Bacillus
anthracis and Bacillus cereus.
a) Bacillus cereus causes two types of foodborne poisoning. What are the two
types of food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus? (2 marks)
b) Using a table, outline the differences between the two types of food poisoning
caused by Bacillus cereus. (10 marks)
c) Bacillus anthracis is another medically important Bacillus. List the three (3)
types of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis. (3 marks)

2. LONG ESSAY
3. Regarding Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. State the main differences of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from members of
Enterobacteriaceae
5. ii) Describe its antigenic structure and toxins and
6. iii) Name three diseases caused by this organism.

SECTION D IMMUNOLOGY

Part 1 choose two questions

1. Specific immunity exhibits four characteristic attributes, which are mediated by

lymphocytes. List these four attributes and briefly explain how they arise

2. Name three features of a secondary immune response that distinguish it from a
primary immune response 


3. Describe the process of T independent B cell activation

Part 2 choose one question

1. Adaptive immunity has evolved in vertebrates but they have also retained innate
immunity. What would be the disadvantages of having only an adaptive immune
system? Comment on how possession of both types of immunity enhances
protection against infection.

2. Some microorganisms produce enzymes that can degrade the Fc portion of

antibody molecules. Why would such enzymes be advantageous for the survival
of microorganisms that possess them?