UPSC Drug Inspector

Examination Paper 2011

1. Assume that for a digoxin, the therapeutic range is cited as Cavg 5.5 = 0.8 –2mg/ml. If the
patient is assumed tohave an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 hours, how longwould you
wait to take serum digoxin concentrationmeasurement and when during the dosing
intervalwould you schedule it?
(a) 28 days then 3–4 hours after the dose is administered
(b) 14 days then 6–8 hours after the dose is administered
(c) 7 days then 10–14 hours after the dose is administered
(d) 3 days then 1–2 hours after the dose is administered

2. Which drug is used to prevent embolism in lungs analso during myocardial infarction?
(a) Human growth hormone
(b) Alteplase
(c) Epogen (EPO)
(d) Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor(GM-CSF)

3. Which enzyme is used by the human immunodeficiencyvirus (HIV) to form

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNa) inthe host cell?
(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) DNA-directed polymerase only
(c) Reverse transcriptase only (d) Both (b) and (c)

4. For two drug products, generic and brand to be consideredbio-equivalent, the 90%
confidence intervalsabout the ratio of the means of the Cmax and AUCvalues for
generic/brand product must be within
(a) 80%–120% of the brand product (b) 80%–100% of the brand product
(c) 80%–85% of the brand product (d) 80%–90% of the brand product

5. The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

(a) Effective renal blood flow (b) Active renal secretion
(c) Glomerular filtration rate (d) Intrinsic enzyme activity

6. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolutionfrom a tablet?

(a) Increases in the particle size of the drug
(b) Use of the ionized or salt form of the drug
(c) Decreases in the surface area of the drug
(d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug

7. The amount of nitroglycerine that a transdermal patchdelivers within a 24

hour period will not depend on
(a) Occlusive backing on the patch
(b) Diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
(c) Surface area of the patch
 (d) Dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch

8. A very fine powdered chemical/drug is defined as onethat

(a) Completely passes through a sieve #240
(b) Completely passes through a sieve #120
(c) Completely passes through a sieve #60
(d) Passes through a sieve # 60 and not more than 40%through a sieve # 120

9. Which equation is used to predict the stability of adrug product at room

temperature from experiment ataccelerated temperature?
(a) The stokes equation (b) The Arrhenius equation
(c) The mickaelis-menten equation (d) The Hixson-Crowell equation

10. In 25 ml of a solution for injection, there are 4 mg ofthe drug. If the dose to be
administered to a patient is200 μg, what quantity of this solution should be used?
(a) 1.25 ml (b) 0.125 ml (c) 12 ml (d) 1.2 ml

11. The rate of drug administration that gives the mostrapid onset of the
pharmacologic effect is
(a) Per oral administration (b) Intradermal injection
(c) Intravenous injection (d) Subcutaneous injection

12. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of

(a) Soft gelatin capsules (b) Compressed tablets
(c) Hard gelatin capsules (d) Modified release drug products

13. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug isdependent on the

(a) Particle size and surface area of the drug
(b) Noyes-Whitney equation for the drug
(c) Polymorphic form of the drug
(d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug

14. The characteristic of an active transport process includesall of the

following except:
(a) Active transport moves drug molecules againstconcentration gradient
(b) Active transport follows Kick’s law of diffusion
(c) Active transport require energy
(d) Active transport of drug molecules may be saturatedat high drug
concentration

15. In order to determine the absolute bioavailability ofa drug given as an oral extended-
release tablet, thebioavailability of the drug must be compared to bioavailabilityof the
drug from,
(a) An immediate-release oral tablet containing thesame amount of the
active ingredient
(b) A reference (brand) extended-release that is apharmaceutical equivalent
 (c) A parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolusor IV infusion
(d) An oral solution of the drug in the same dose

16. A single dose four-way cross over fasting, comparativebioavailability study

was performed in 24 healthy, adultmale subjects. Plasma drug concentration
was obtainedfor each subject and following result was obtained: The relative
bioavailability of the drug from thecapsule compared to the reference tablet is

The relative bioavailability of the drug from thecapsule compared to the

reference tablet is

(a) 82.3% (b) 91.7% (c) 96.2% (d) 103.9%

17. How many grams of aspirin should be used to prepare1.250 kg of the given
powder Powder formula:

ASA 6 parts
Phenacetin 3 parts
Caffeine 1 part

(a) 125 (b) 750 (c) 186 (d) 366

18. Which technique is typically used to mill Camphor?

(a) Levigation (b) Pulverization by Intervention
(c) Geometric dilution (d) Attrition

19. Content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensurewhich quality?

(a) Bioeuivalency (b) Potency
(c) Purity (d) Toxicity

20. The route of drug administration that provides complete(100%)

bioavailability is
(a) Intramuscular Injection (b) Intravenous Injection
(c) Intradermal Injection (d) Subcutaneous Injection
21. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when thedrug is formulated
as
(a) Controlled release product (b) Hard gelatin Capsule
(c) Solution (d) Compressed tablet

22. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can beminimized by which of

the following?
1. Adding Sodium Benzoate
2. Increasingthe viscosity of the suspension

3. Reducing the particle size of the active ingredient

4. Adding a suspending agentSelect the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only

23. Which one among the following statements is notcorrect?

(a) Vaccines stimulate active immunity
(b) Vaccines are used for long term prophylaxis
(c) Patient receives antibodies in active immunization
(d) Patient produces antibodies in active immunization

24. Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Vaccines are antigen containing preparations
(b) Toxoids are bacterial toxins modified to destroy orreduce their
toxicity
(c) Antibody containing preparations are known asAnti sera
(d) Vaccines are used for passive immunization

25. Class 100 clean room is defined as a room in which theparticle count in the
air is
(a) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5μm andlarger in size
(b) Not more than 120 per cubic foot of 0.5μm andlarger in size
(c) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5μm andlarger in size
(d) Not more than 99 per cubic foot of 0.3μm in size

26. Which of the following is not used as enteric coatingmaterial?

(a) Cellulose acetate phthalate (b) Pectin
(c) Acrylase Polymers (d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate

27. Which of the following cannot be used for buffering ofinjections?

(a) Phosphate buffers (b) Citrate buffers
(c) Borate buffers (d) Acetate buffers

28. Which one of the following chemical/pharmacologicalclasses of agents is

incorrectly matched with its nature?
 (a) Adrenergic agonist: Basic (b) Prostaglandin: Acidic
(c) 4-Quinolones: Basic (d) Meglitinides: Acidic

29. Which one of the following acids has the highestdegree of ionization in an
aqueous solution?
(a) Aspirin (pKa = 3.5) (b) Indomethacin (pKa = 4.5)
(c) Ibuprofen (pKa = 5.2) (d) Phenobarbital (pKa = 7.4)

30. All of the following statement about first order degradationare true,
except
(a) Its rate is dependent on the concentration
(b) Its half life is a changing parameter
(c) A plot of the log of concentration versus timeyields a straight line
(d) Its t90% is dependent of the concentration

31. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as

(a) A water soluble base (b) An oleaginous base
(c) An absoption base (d) An emulsion base

32. Rofecoxib
(a) Has a similar effect to diclofenac
(b) Provides protection against ischemic cardiovascularevents
(c) Is indicated for long term use in osteoarthritis
(d) Can be given to patients with active peptic ulceration

33. Schedule ‘R’ of drugs and cosmetics act wouldapply to

(a) Requirement of factory premises and hygienicconditions for ayurvedic
(including sidhha) drugs
(b) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
(c) Standard for medical devices
(d) None of these

34. An alcoholic solution contains 57.77% u/v alcohol.The strength will be

labelled as
(a) Over proof (b) Under proof (c) Proof spirit (d) Prof gallons

35. Probenecid increases serum levels and prolongsactivity of penicillin

derivatives by
(a) Plasma protein binding (b) Blocking their glomerular filtration
(c) Blocking their tubular secretion (d) Blocking their reabsorption

36. In the preparation of calamine lotion, sodium citrate isused as

(a) Suspending agent (b) Solubilizer
(c) Buffering agent (d) Bacteriostatic

37. Water which is free from volatile and non-volatileimpurities, microorganism

 and pyrogens is called
(a) Purified Water IP (b) Water for injection IP
(c) Sterile water for injection IP (d) Potable water

38. A new drug has completed phase-I clinical trial inUSA, the pharmaceutical
company wants to do theMulticentricmultinational trial including in India
The firm will apply in India to conduct
(a) Phase-I trial (b) Phase-II trial
(c) Pre-clinical trial (d) Pharmacolimetric data trial

39. Match the following:

1. Schedule V I. Particulars to be shown inthe various records of
manufactureof drugs
2. Schedule T II. List of drugs which canbe marketed under genericnames
only
3. Schedule U III. Life period of Drugs
4. Schedule W IV. Standards of patent of proprietorymedicines
5. Schedule P V. Requirements of factorypremises and conditions for
ayurvedic and Unani drugsWhich is the correct match?
(a) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-V, 5-II (b) 1-V, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
(c) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III (d) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-II, 4-I, 5-III

40. 0.9% w/v sodium chloride has a freezing point depressionof

(a) –0.50oC (b) –0.52oC (c) –0.56oC (d) –0.58oC

41. Subcoating is given to the tablets to

(a) Prevent dissolution in acidic medium
(b) Round the edges and build up the tablet size
(c) Prevent moisture penetration in to the tablet
(d) Avoid Deterioration due to microbial attack

42. Which one among the following is observed in firstorder kinetic?

(a) Clearance is constant
(b) Dose dependent elimination occurs
(c) Rate of elimination decreases with increases inplasma concentration
(d) Rate of elimination does not depend on plasmaconcentration

43. Which one of the following drug is not metabolized byliver?

(a) Phenytoin (b) Erythromycin (c) Penicillin-G (d) Cefotaxime

44. Which one among the following is not an oral thirdgeneration cephalosporin?
(a) Cefditoren (b) Cefdinir (c) Cefaclor (d) Ceftibuten

45. Which one among the following statements regardingPlacebo is correct?

(a) Placebo does not produce any effect
(b) Placebo is a dummy medication
 (c) All patients respond to placebo
(d) Placebo is the inert material added to drug formaking tablets

46. Pharmacovigilance is used to monitor

(a) Unauthorized drug manufacturing (b) Drug toxicity
(c) Pharmacokinetics (d) Cost of drugs and pharmaceuticals

47. Clonidine is
(a) Alpha one selective agonist (b) Alpha two selective agonist
(c) Alpha one selective antagonist (d) Alpha two selective antagonist

48. Mala-N contains

(a) Ethinyl Estradiol (b) Norethisterone (c) D-norgestrel (d) Norepinephrine

49. Prolonged use of steroids may cause

(a) Hypoglycemia (b) Hypotension
(c) Decrease in bone matrix protein (d) Early healing of wound

50. Anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids is due toblocking of

(a) Prostaglandin synthase (b) Thromboxane synthase
(c) 15-lipoxygenase (d) Breakdown of phospholipids

51. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification inIndia is

(a) Mandatory for all pharmaceutical industries
(b) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturingof biologicals
(c) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturingof non-
biologicals
(d) Optional for pharmaceutical industries

52. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification is issuedin Indiaby

(a) Controller, Weights and measure, Government ofIndia
(b) Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS), Government ofIndia
(c) Department of science and Technology, Governmentof India
(d) Drug controller General of India (DCGI), Governmentof India

53. Which one of the following is second generationH1-Anti histamine?

(a) Cetrizine (b) Cinnarizine (c) Pheneramine (d) Promethazine

54. Prostaglandins have effect on a variety of tissues inhuman body. The

different Prostaglandins may havedifferent effects. Which one of the
following statementis not correct?
(a) PGE2 is bronchodilator where as PGF2 alpha is abroncho constrictor
(b) PGE2 has marked oxytoxic action while PGF2alpha has tocolytic action
(c) PGE1 and PGE2 inhibit platelet aggregation,whereas TXA2 facilitate
aggregation
(d) The human arteriolar smooth muscle is relaxed byPGE2 AND PGI2, whereas
 TXA2 and PGF2 alphacause vasoconstriction

55. Which one of the following statements is true regardingNSAID’s?

(a) They cause release of histamine
(b) They cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
(c) They indirectly increase leukotriene production
(d) They cause airway irritation

56. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) Rate of killing of bacteria by antibiotic follows thefirst order
kinetics
(b) The bactericidal effects of Penicillin depends uponits attained C max
(c) The antibiotics having time dependent bactericidaleffects are given in
a large single dose rather thanmultiple daily doses
(d) Aminoglycosides produce bactericidal effect in aconcentration dependent
manner

57. Which of the following is not a correct combination ofdrug and its important adverse
effect?
(a) Rifampicin: Hepatotoxicity (b) Isoniazide: Pepripheral neuropathy
(c) Ethambutol: Increased uric acid (d) Streptomycin: Ototoxicity

58. Chemotherapeutic agent, which does not inhibit themicrotubule formation is

(a) Paclitaxel (b) Colchicine (c) Vincristine (d) Vinblastine

59. Following antibiotics have been correctly paired totheir mechanism of

action, except:
(a) Vancomycin-Inhibits synthesis of phospholipidsand peptidoglycan
polymerization
(b) Tetracyline-Binds to 30s ribosome and inhibitsprotein synthesis
(c) Erythromycin-Binds to bacterial 70s ribosome andinhibits protein
synthesis
(d) Ciprofloxacin-Interferes with the action of bacterialtopoisomerase II

60. The pharmacokinetics ‘half-life’ of which one ofthe following resembles

to its pharmacodynamichalf-life’?
(a) Morphine (b) Terfenadine (c) Isoprenaline (d) Suxamethonium

61. The following properties of a drug encourage itsaccumulation in breast milk, except:
(a) High lipid solubility (b) Unionized state
(c) Low molecular weight (d) Weak acid

62. As per the schedule ‘Y’ of the Drugs and CosmeticsAct, the animal
toxicity study requirement for marketingof a drug depends upon tentative
route andduration of administration in humans. In this context,which one of
the following statements is incorrect?
 (a) Single dose human use–animal toxicity for 2weeks in 2 species
(b) Oral use for 2 weeks in human-animal toxicity for4 weeks in 2 species
(c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans-animaltoxicity in 2 species for
24 weeks
(d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration-irrigation test in
1 species for 3 weeks

63. In one of the clinical trails of vaccine, there were 6 deathsreported by

the media. You have been deputed by authorityto investigate the causality
of incidence. Inspection ofthe following documents will be helpful except:
(a) Source data (b) Standard operating procedures
(c) Data safety monitoring records (d) Informed consent forms

64. Which one among the following is an antimalarialdrug having a metabolite with
triazine moiety?
(a) Quinine (b) Proguanil (c) Pyrimethamine (d) Primaquine

65. Which one among the following is an antituberculardrug with hydrazine moiety?
(a) Ethionamide (b) Isoniazide (c) Pyrazinamide (d) Thiacetazone

66. Codeine differ from morphine structurally in

(a) Methaylation of phenolic hydroxyl group (b) Methaylation of alcholic group
(c) Methaylation of nitrogen group (d) Oxidation of phenolic hydroxyl group

67. Tropane system is fusion of

(a) Pyrrolidine and piperdine (b) Pyrrolidine and Pyrimidine
(c) Prrole and pyrazine (d) Thiophene and Piperdine

68. The local anesthetics exert their action by blocking ofthe following types of ion
channels:
(a) Ligand gated sodium channel (b) Voltage gated sodium channel
(c) Ligand gated calcium channel (d) Voltage gated calcium channel

69. Which one of the following statements with regard tothe SAARC summit held in
Bhutan in April, 2010 isnot correct?
(a) The summit has held in Bhutan for the first time
(b) It was the silver jubilee summit of SAARC
(c) The summit recommended to declare 2010–2020as the ‘Decade of intra-
regional connectivity inSAARC’
(d) The summit-central theme was ‘Cross BorderTerrorism’

70. Which one of the following statements with regard tothe Right to Education Act, 2010
is notcorrect?
(a) All children in 6–14 year age group must get freeand compulsory
education.
(b) No children shall be held back, expelled or requiredto pass a board
 examination till Class VIII.
(c) There must be 25% reservation for poor childreneven in private schools.
(d) Gram Panchayats and Municipal Councils are responsibleto lookinto
violations of Right to Educationlaws.
The next three items are based on the following passage:
The detritus food chain (DFc) begins with dead organicmatter. It is made up
of decomposers which are heterotrophicorganisms, mainly fungi and bacteria.
They meet theirenergy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic
matter or detritus. These are the saprotrophs which secretedigestive
enzymes to break down the dead and waste matterinto simple inorganic
materials,which are subsequentlyabsorved by them. DFC may be connected with
the grazingfood chain at some levels—some of the organisms ofDFC are prey
to the grazing food chain animals. Someanimals like cockroaches, crows
etc., are omnivores. Theseinterconnections create a food web.Organisms
occupy a place in their natural surroundingsaccording to their feeding
relationship with others. Thesource of their nutrition of food dictates its
tropic level.Autotrophs belong to the first tropic level and in turn
feedthe next tropic level of herbivores. Primary and secondarycarnivores
constitute the third and fourth levels. Only about10% energy gets
transferred from the lower to the nexthigher tropic level which eventually
restricts the number oflevels in a food chain.71. Which trophic level in the
grazing food chain do lionsbelong to?
(a) Trophic level 1 (b) Trophic level 2
(c) Trophic level 3 (d) Trophic level 4

72. The number of trophic levels in grazing food chain isrestricted because
(a) the higher levels like to restrict their number toimprove availability
(b) of loss of avalibility of food from consumption inthe lower levels
(c) of an incremental number of organisms in the nexthigher level
(d) of sequential transfer loss of energy

73. The trophic level of a given species depends on it

(a) functionality (b) strength (c) number (d) size

74. The president of India has no power to grant pardonunder Article 72 of the
Constitution of India wheresentence
(a) is given by court martial
(b) of death has been awarded
(c) is for an offence relating to a matter to which theexecutive power to
the Union extends
(d) is for an offence relating to a matter to which theexecutive power to
the State extends

75. Who among the following won the Australian OpenTennis Cup (Men’s Singles) 2011?
(a) Andy Murray (b) Novak Djokovic (c) Rafael Nadal (d) Roger Federer
The next three items are based on the following passage:
 Before performing an operation in the hospital, a doctoradministes a drug
or a gas to make the patient unconsciousof pain. This stat unconsciousness
is known asAnaesthesia’ from greek word meaning ‘loss of feeling’
.Thesubstance causing loss of feeling is called an anaesthetic.The
discovery of anaesthetic in the 19th century was oneof the greatest
achievement in the field of medicine. Beforeanaesthetics, operations were
done in very rare cases.Patients needing surgery were given alcohol or
various drugsextracted from plant juices to reduce the pain. Even
then,operations were always very painful and were undertakenonly in extreme
emergency. Today, with anaesthetics, it ispossible to produce many hours of
pain free unconsciousnessand this enables surgeons to perform complex life
savingoperations.

76. Before performing an operation, how does a doctorlessen the pain of the patient?
(a) Gives alcohol
(b) Gives a drug or gas to make patient unconscious
(c) Give juice extract of plants
(d) Use extreme methods to dull the pain

77. Before 19th century, operations were done in very rarecases because
(a) Patient could not be given anything except alcoholto lessen pain
(b) There was absence of one of the greatest achievementin the field of
science and medicine
(c) Anesthetics were discovered only in the 19th century
(d) Drug extracted from plant juice could not dull painsufficiently

78. Today, surgeons can perform complex life savingoperations due to

(a) There being emergency facilities
(b) The fact that patient can be kept pain free for manyhours with
anaesthetics
(d) Powerful plant extract are available today
(d) The fact that operations are done in rare cases

79. The Chairman of the Investigational New Drug (INd)committee in India is

(a) Drugs Controller General of India, Government ofIndia
(b) Secretary, Department of Health Research, Governmentof India
(c) Directorate General of Health Sciences, Governmentof India
(d) Secretory Department of Biotechnology, Governmentof India

80. In India, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)can issue an order to ban a drug
on the recommendationof
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research (b) Pharmacy council of India
(c) Drug Technical Advisory Board (d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory
Board

81. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect whichsubstance?

 (a) Leutinizing Hormone (b) Progesterone
(c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (d) Estrogen

82. Which one among the following is neither an input noroutput device?
(a) CD-ROM (b) Floppy disk (c) Hard disk (d) Pen drive

83. Which among the following is/are units of RAM?

1. Giga byte and Mega byte
2. RPM
3. GBPS and MBPS
Select the correct answer the using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

84. If you mix four parts of 40% with 1 part of 90%alcohol you will get
(a) 45.7% alcohol (b) 40% alcohol (c) 50% alcohol (d) 57% alcohol

85. The loading dose (DL) of a drug is usually based on the

(a) Total body clearance of the drug
(b) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
(c) Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) and desireddrug concentration in
plasma
(d) Area under the plasma drug concentration versustime curve(AUC)

86. The activity of which one of the following drugs isdependent on a p-phenyl-
N-alklypiperidine moiety?
(a) Phenobarbital (b) Chlorpromazine
(c) Imipramine (d) Meperidine

87. Flurazepam has pKa of 8.2. What percentage offlurazepam will be ionized at
a urine pH of 5.2?
(a) 0.1% (b) 1% (c) 99% (d) 99.9%

88. Recrudescene of malaria refers to the

(a) Re-infection of patient my mosquito bite
(b) Re-infection by exoerythocytic hypozoites
(c) Incomplete clearance of sporozoites from blood
(d) Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood

89. Which one of the following drugs should not beprepared in a horizontal
laminar flow hood?
(a) Ampicillin (b) Dopamine (c) Cisplatin (d) Niteoglycerine

90. Prostaglandin plays a major role in the biologicalactivity of proton pump

inhibitor such as omeprazoleand Esomeprazole. The protonation takes placeon the
(a) Aromatic Methyl chain (b) Bemzimidzole ring
(c) Methoxy side chain (d) The ring that has dimethyl groups
91. The carboxyl group aspirin after esterification withN-acety-P-aminophenol gives
(a) 3-acetamidophenyl-O-acety salicylate
(b) 4-acetamidophenyl-O-acety salicyate
(c) O-(2-hydroxybenzoyl) salicyclic acid
(d) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylaye

92. A prescription order calls for 500 ml 2.0% aminosyn,but the pharmacy has
8.0% solution in stock. Howmuch of the aminosyn 8.0% solution is required toprepare
500 ml of above solution?
(a) 120 ml (b) 147 ml (c) 125 ml (d) 250 ml

93. Which of the following is/are the symptoms of venousthrombosis?

1. Oedema
2. Lower leg becoming bluish in colour
3. Dry skin
Select the correct answer using the code givenbelow:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

94. Interferon beta

1. Can be administered orally.
2. May cause myalgia
3. Is used in multiple sclerosis
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

95. Which of the following is/are the side effects associatedwith testosterone?
1. Headache
2. Hirustism
3. Gynaecomastia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

96. Rosiglitazone
1. Should be used with caution in patients withcardiovascular disease.
2. Should not be used with glicazide.
3. Is a biguanide.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

97. Iron salts

1. Should always be taken on empty stomach.
2. Should be given by mouth unless there are goodreasons for using another
route.
3. In the form of ferric salts are better absorbed thanthe ferrous salts.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

98. Doxycycline
1. Is bacteriostatic
2. Is a broad spectrum antibacterial drug.
3. May be administered in renal impairment.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

99. Testosterone may be used

1. To treat breast and endometrial cancer is females.
2. To treat hypogonadismin males.
3. To suppress postpartum breast enlargement

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

100. Following adverse effects are rightly paired with acausative anti-malarial
drug except:
(a) Lichenoid skin eruptions : Chloroquine
(b) Steven-Johnson Syndrome : Quinine
(c) Hallucinations : Mefloquine
(d) Prolongation of QT interval : Halofantrine