15 Đề Luyện Tập

PRACTICE TEST 1
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 01 to 05
Early writing and Alphabets
When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small
pictures to show the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there was a different
picture for (01) ______ word.
The Ancient Egyptians had a (2) ______ of picture writing that was called hieroglyphics. The
meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (3) ______ a
stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for over a thousand years. It had both Greek
and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to understand what the hieroglyphics meant.
An alphabet is quite different from picture writing. It (4) ______ of letters or symbols that
represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, which lived about 3,000
years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this alphabet is
now used (10) ______ throughout the world
Question 1: A. some B. all C. every D. any
Question 2: A. practice B. manner C. plan D. system
Question 3: A. discovered B. realized C. delivered D. invented
Question 4: A. consists B. includes C. contains D. involves
Question 5: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. disappearance B. conversation C. contaminate D. international
Question 7: A. eradicate B. technology C. incredible D. pessimist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 8: One difference between mathematics and language is that mathematics is precise
_________.
A. language is not B. while language is not
C. but language not D. while is not language
Question 9: Seldom _________ far enough north to disturb South Pacific shipping lanes
A. Antarctic icebergs will move B. will Antarctic icebergs move
C. will move Antarctic icebergs D. move Antarctic icebergs will
Question 10: _________ the United States consists of many different immigrant groups, many
sociologists believe there is a distinct national character
A. Even though B. Despite C. Whether D. In spite of
Question 11: The article analyzes the impact of the tax base _______ real estate prices and sales.
A. in B. on C. at D. with
Question 12: If I ______ following that other car too closely, I would have been able to stop in the
time instead of running into it
A. wasn’t B. weren’t C. hadn’t been D. would have been
Question 13: Our village had _______ money available for education that the schools had to close.
A. so little B. such little C. so much D. such much
Question 14: Fort Niagara was built by the French in 1762 on land ______ the Seneca Indians.
A. they buy from B. bought from C. buying from D. was bought from
Question 15: Experts ______ feel that they are related to the deep wishes and fears of the dreamer.
A. study dreams B. who dream study C. who study dreams D. whose dreams study
Question 16: Art critics and historians alike claim that Van Gogh’s art ______ from that of his
contemporaries.
A. is a considerable difference B. is considerably different
C. the difference is considerable D. is considerably and differently
Question 17: Most countries spend a large portion of their budgets _______ for their citizens
A. education provided B. provide education
C. to educational provides D. providing education
Question 18: Renoir is one of the most popular French impressionist painters. His paintings _______
masterpieces all over the world
A. have considered B. are considering C. considered D. are considered
Question 19: Sheila Hammond, who was only twenty-three when she was elected as a Member of
Parliament, said she owed her success all to the way she had been ________ by her mother, Margaret.
A. brought up B. taken after C. looked for D. caught for
Question 20: No one can decline the _______ of the Alaskan wildness.
A. breath-taking scene B. breath-taken view
C. breath-to-take scene D. breath-taking view
Question 21: A quick look would reveal that France has twice ____________ computers
A. more television than B. as many television as
C. as many as television D. many as television as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 22: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They meet each other at a gallery but Ken is in a
hurry.
Ken: “I’ve got to go, Tom. So long”
Tom: “So long, Ken. And _______.”
A. be careful B. take care C. don’t hurry D. don’t take it seriously
Question 23: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party.
Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening”
Lane: “________”
A. It depends on you. B. Thank you very much indeed.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it D. You are welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination
Question 25: A. humor B. honest C. hotel D. hurry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), was
established in 1946.
A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away
Question 27:She was a devoted teacher. She spent most of her time teaching and taking care of her
students.
A. intelligent B. dedicated C. polite D. honest
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPPOSITE in meaning
to underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 28: Scientists prove that choosing a career for money will make you less efficient, happy and
more selfish.
A. effective B. ineffective C. capable D. proficient
Question 29: A surprising percentage of the population in remote area is illiterate.
A. able to speak fluently B. unable to speak fluently
C. unable to read and write D. able to read and write
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The scholarship that Wilson received to study history at Cambridge presented an unique
opportunity.
A. that B. history C. at Cambridge D. an
Question 31: Amelia Earhart, the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic, disappeared on June
1937 while attempting to fly around the world
A. to fly B. the Atlantic C. on D. attempting
Question 32: The closer it gets to December 21, the first day of winter, the short the days become.
A. gets to B. first day C. short D. become
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education.
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The
distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a
tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of
informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people
debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain
predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may
lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from
infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts
long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies
little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the
same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take
exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an
understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the
subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in
their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are
experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 33: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects
B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework
D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is
Question 34: The word “distinction” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. similarity B. difference C. differently D. insignificance
Question 35: The word “bounds” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. rules B. experience C. limits D. exceptions
Question 36: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.
A. unplanned B. unusual C. lengthy D. lively
Question 37: The passage supports which of the followng conclusions?
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
Question 38: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. boundaries B. similar textbooks C. slices of reality D. seats
Question 39: The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
________.
A. similar textbooks B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
Question 40. The passage is organized by______.
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of schools
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anwser sheet to indicate the
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities,
came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims
landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period
were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these
universities graduates in the New World were determined that their sons would have the same
educational opportunities that they themselves had had, Because of this support in the colony for an
institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a
college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this
land was in an area called Newtown, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and
is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of
Charlestown, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the
fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court
named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest
may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had
found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that
in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of
four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire
teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
Question 41: The main idea of this passage is that________.
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 42: The passage indicates that Harvard is________.
A. One of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts
colony were________.
A. rather well educated B. rather rich
C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic
Question 44: The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to_______.
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. sons D. educational opportunities
Question 45: The “pounds” in the second paragraph are probably_______.
A. Types of books B. college students C. units of money D. school campuses
Question 46: The “ English cousin” in the second paragraph refers to a_______.
A. city B. relative C. person D. court
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence
given in each of the following questions
Question 48:The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
B. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
Question 49: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She promised to show John round her city.
C. She planned to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 50:There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.
A. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless.
B. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.
C. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to.
D. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.
PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaningto the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital
Question 2. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaningto
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 3. It was a heartfelt apology.
A. loving B. insincere C. unhealthy D. humorous
Question 4. A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. hostile B. biased C. unprejudiced D. apprehensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the restin
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. contaminate B. artificial C. intelligent D. encouragement
Question 6. A. argument B. difference C. employee D. category
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction
Question 7. It is time the government do something to help the unemployed to find some jobs.
A B C D
Question 8. I enjoy reading the article that you told me about it yesterday.
A B C D
Question 9. Many languages used around the world they do not have a form of writing.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
thecorrect answer to each of the following questions.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to
be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The
motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs,
boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of
packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try
to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is
to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away
and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-
quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same
way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the
bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved.
In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the
garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle
aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.
Question 10. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal
B. What people often understand about the term 'recycle'
C. What is involved in the recycling movement
D. How to live sensitively to the environment
Question 11. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT______.
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 12. Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away.
B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because they produce less energy.
Question 13. What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
Question 14. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
Question 15. What does the word “sensitive” in the phrase “sensitive to the environment” mean?
A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding
Question 16. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to_________
A. drill B. deed C. belief D. exercise
Question 17. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for each of
the blanks.
Many parents believe that their children (18)______be taught to read right after they have learnt
to talk. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counter-productive if
she or he isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a relaxed (19)______ and take the lead from their child.
What they should provide is a selection of stimulating toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there
is plenty of good (20)______ available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use
about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only (21)______ of stories and information. There is also a
huge range of videos, which can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are
(22)______ valuable in helping to increase too many children spend too much time watching
programmes not intended for their age group.
Question 18. A. couldn’t B. mustn’t C. had to D. should
Question 19. A. decision B. competition C. pastime D. attitude
Question 20. A. games B. amusement C. sense D. produce
Question 21. A. search B. site C. source D. basis
Question 22. A. perfectly B. worthily C. properly D. equally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
thefollowing questions.
Question 23. A trust employee was discovered to have ________ confidential plans to a competing
company.
A. stolen B. spread C. rumored D. leaked
Question 24. Poor management brought the company to ________ of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
Question 25. It never ________ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
Question 26. Do you have any objections ________ this new road scheme?
A. at B. with C. to D. for
Question 27. The reason why this game attracts so many youngster is that ________ other video
games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to B. in compared with C. on comparison to D. in comparison with
Question 28. ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
Question 29: ________ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
Question 30: Everyone in both cars ________ injured in the accident last night, ________?
A. were/ weren't they B. was/ weren't they
C. was/ wasn't he? D. were/ were they
Question 31: He ________ in trouble with the police now if he had listened to me in the first place.
A. isn’t B. won’t be C. wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have been
Question 32: She ________ the flowers. If she had, they wouldn’t have died.
A. may not have watered B. shouldn’t have watered
C. can’t have watered D. might not have watered
Question 33: Quite soon, the world is going to ________ energy resources.
A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against
Question 34: ________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As the boy was intelligent B. Intelligent as the boy was
C. As intelligent the boy was D. Intelligent as was the boy
Question 35: Many of the pictures sent from outer space are presently on ________ in the public library.
A. duty B. exchange C. display D. account
Question 36: ________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. Whatever it seems remarkable how B. No matter how does it seem remarkable
C. No matter how it seems remarkable D. No matter how remarkable it seems
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the the most suitable response to
Question 37: The mother is talking to her son in the kitchen.
Mother: Don’t forget to do as I have told you.
Son: ________.
A. Sure, I won’t B. Yes, I will C. Not at all D. No, I will remember
Question 38: A little girl and her friend are watching a concert in the thetrea
Girl: I can’t see the stage very well from here.
Boy: ________.
A. Neither can’t I. B. So do I C. Neither I can D. I can’t, either
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaningto each of the following questions.
Question 39: "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
Question 40: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 41: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that
ispronounced differently from the rest
Question 42. A. clown B. cow C. plough D. tough
Question 43. A. bear B. hear C. pear D. share
following questions.
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or
partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following
certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before takeoff and ask
questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as
possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During
takeoff and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should
locate the nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so
that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the even that you are forewarned of the possible
accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to
complete stop.
If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with
napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To
evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you.
Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms
and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane
as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Airline industry accident statistics. B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft.
C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. D. Safety instructions in air travel.
Question 45: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions ________.
A. in an emergency. B. before locating the exits.
C. if smoke is in the cabin. D. before take off.
Question 46: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor ________
A. throughout the flight. B. during takeoff and landings.
C. especially during landings. D. only if an accident is possible.
Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. exits B. the dark C. rows of seat D. landings
Question 48: It can be inferred that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they ________
A. keep their heads low. B. wear a safety belt.
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane. D. read airline safety statistics.
Question 49: The word “inflated” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________
A. lifted B. increased C. expanded D. assembled
Question 50: What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
A. How to recover your luggage. B. Where to go to continue your trip.
C. When to return to the aircraft. D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft.
PRACTICE TEST 3
Question 1: A. perpendicular B. capacity C. disorganized D. supposed
Question 2: A. approximate B. accomplished C. expectation D. invaluable
Question 3: A. beautiful B. accurate C. marvelous D. conspicuous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. enough B. tough C. rough D. though
Question 5: A. plant B. nature C. toxic D. contain
Question 6: Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this relatively
A B C D
small planet.
Question 7: A laser is the only device which aim coherent light at an object in a safe and
A B C
reliable way.
D
Question 8: The Earth travels at a high rate of speed around Sun.
A B C D
Question 9: On attaining maximum size, ______ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter
amoebas, each receiving identical nuclear materials.
A. the reproduction of the amoeba B. the amoeba, which reproduces
C. reproducing the amoeba D. the amoeba reproduces
Question 10: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as _________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 11: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night.
A. must B. must have C. may have D. might have
Question 12: We bought some _______.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
Question 13: Last night’s concert did not ______ our expectations
A. catch up with B. stand in for C. come up to D. look up to
Question 14: When Jack ______ me, I______ a letter.
A. phoned/ has been writing B. has phoned/ was writing
C. phoned/ was writing D. was phoning/ wrote
Question 15: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 16: Their eventual choice of house was ______ by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent
Question 17: It never ______ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. sprung D. paned
Question 18: All plants grow well because the soil was really ______.
A. kind B. fertile C. weathy D. comfortable
Question 19: I took someone else’s coat from the cloakroom by ______.
A. mistake B. forgetfullness C. error D. fortune
Question 20: The burglar ______ to open a window at the back of the house.
A. succeeded B. forced C. discovered D. managed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 21: A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______”
A. Sorry, the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad
C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
Question 22: A. “More coffee, anybody?” B. “______”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid. B. Yes, I’d love to.
C. Yes, please. D. It’s right. I think.
Question 23: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. connived B. survived C. surprised D. revived
Question 24: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are
facing.
A. poor B. wealthy C. kind D. broke
Question 26: : Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported
the surplus.
A. sufficiency B. small quantity C. large quantity D. excess
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 27: Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to
understand it.
A. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
B. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
C. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
D. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
Question 28: No one but Jane succeeded in giving the correct answer.
A. All but Jane managed to produce the correct answer.
B. Only Jane failed to answer the question correctly.
C. Jane was among those who failed to guess the answer.
D. Everyone but Jane failed to provide the correct answer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 30: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.
A. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
D. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The texting pigeons
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed,
some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (31)___ on young people's
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at (32)____
of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started
doing it. That is, in this case, it's difficult to view the results as anything but positive.
Twenty of the birds are about to (33) ____ to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each
armed with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically (34)
___ into text messages and beamed to the Internet - where they will appear on a dedicated 'pigeon blog'.
The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers are
building a tiny 'pigeon kit' containing all these gadgets Each bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, (35)
___ , that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck.
Question 31: A. result B. outcome C. conclusion D. effect
Question 32: A. danger B. threat C. risk D. peril
Question 33: A make B. launch C. reach D. take
Question 34: A. converted B. adapted C. revised D. applied
Question 35: A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Collecting maps can be an enjoyable hobby for antiquarian booksellers, a captivating interest for
cartographers, a lucrative vocation for astute dealers, and an inspirational part of the occupational
functioning of map catalogers, archivists, and historians. Among recognized collectibles, maps are
relatively rarer than stamps, but they have had their avid enthusiasts and admirers ever since copies
were made by hand only for affluent, the commanding officer, and the ship captain.
Whether the interest is business-related or amateur, the economic means abundant or slim, a
collection needs a theme, be it associated with contemporary changes in cartographic representation or
geographic knowledge, or a more accessible goal centered on a particular mapmaker, technique, or
type of subject matter. Collectors should not overlook topical maps issued predominantly or
exclusively after World War II, such as navigational charts, industrial compound
road layouts, or aerial projections. Potential collectors ought not to disregard two superficially prosaic,
yet important themes: maps of travel routes for family trips, and maps that, for aesthetic reasons, they
personally find intriguing or simply attractive. In the first case, like the box with old family photos, the
collection will give the travelers the opportunity to reminisce and relive the journey.
In most cases, photocopies are worthy alternatives to originals. For example, historical society
collections customarily include the high quality facsimiles needed to make a collection as
comprehensive and practical as possible, supplementing the contributions made by well-to-do donors
and benefactors. If not predisposed to wait patiently, and possibly ineffectually, for a lucky find,
collectors may choose to sift through dealer stock, peruse through advertisements in local, regional, or
national periodicals, and solicit the assistance of the U.S. Library of Congress and private agencies.
Government and public agencies, companies, and trade associations can advise the collector about maps
currently in circulation and pending sales of dated reproductions, editions, and prints.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Why hobbyists always flaunt their map collections.
B. How maps can be collected by professionals and enthusiasts.
C. How to assure an interrupted flow of collectibles.
D. What cartographers advocate as a worthy undertaking.
Question 37: In paragraph 1, the word lucrative is closest in meaning to____.
A. instructive B. insensitive C. profitable D. profuse
Question 38 : According to the passage, map collecting as a hobby is____.
A. not deserving of the time and resources
B. not as conventional as collecting stamps
C. as eccentric as collecting dolls
D. conformist in the best sense of the word.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that, at a time when maps were accessible to the
upper socioeconomic classes, they appealed also to a fair number of____.
A. professional copiers B. ardent devotees
C. buried-treasure hunters D. obscure amateur dealers
Question 40: In paragraph 2, the phrase “economic means” is closest in meaning to____.
A. economic maps B. fiscal responsibility
C. available funds D. capital investment
Question 41:. The author of the passage mentions all of the following as sources of procuring maps
EXCEPT__.
A. fellow collectors B. map vendors
C. personal archives D. publishers
Question 42: A paragraph following the passage would most likely discuss____.
A. specific organizations to contact about map acquisition
B. specific mapping techniques used to enlarge the scale
C. trimming and framing valuable acquisitions
D. volunteering time and work to maintain obsolete maps
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films,
or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public
performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a
single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect
machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called
"synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound,
characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented
gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The
biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example,
the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only
effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be
read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image,
guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This
system eventually brought us "talking pictures".
Question 43: The passage is mainly about the ______________.
A. research into sound reproduction. B. development of sound with movies.
C. disadvantages of synchronized sound. D. history of silent movies.
Question 44: According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened ___________.
A. as early as 1922 B. in 1927
C. before 1896 D. as early as 1896
Question 45: Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?
A. a Jazz Singer B. a single pianist C. a gramophone D. a small band
Question 46: It can be inferred that ___.
A. sound-effect machines were not common because they were expensive
B. gramophones were developed about the same time as moving pictures.
C. most movie theaters had a pianist
D. orchestras couldn't synchronize sound with the pictures
Question 47: According to the passage, gramophones were ineffective because they
_______________.
A. were newly invented and still had imperfections.
B. changed speeds when the needle jumped.
C. were too large for most movie theaters.
D. got out of synchronization with the picture.
Question 48: The word "sequence" is closest in meaning to __________
A. distribution B. organization C. interpretation D. progression
Question 49: The phrase "these signals" refers to _______.
A. sounds B. marks C. series D. sensors
Question 50: According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the
recording was ________.
A. inserted beside the image on the film
B. marked on the gramophone
C. read by an optical sensor
D. made during the film of the picture
PRACTICE TEST 4
Question 1: A. imagine B. satisfy C. environment D. attractive
Question 2: A. specialize B. anxious C. anticipate D. tendency
Question 3: A. medicine B. addition C. endanger D. survival
Question 4: The package containing books and records were delivered last week.
A B C D
Question 5: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are making to the environment
A B C D
Question 6: _______you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
Question 7: She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _______.
A. out of work B. out of order C. off chance D. off work
Question 8: ____have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the Internet is widely
recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
Question 9: To solve this problem, it is advisable__________
A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure
C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted
Question 10: There seems to be a large ________ between the number of people employed in service industries
and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discrepancy B. discretion C. discriminate D. distinguish
Question 11: _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was
B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult
D. Despite the homework was difficult
Question 12: We are indebted to the Arabs not only for reviving Greek works but also ____ from India.
A. to introduce useful ideas B. introducing useful ideas
C. for useful ideas introduced D. for introducing useful ideas
Question 13: “You missed a good chance in your career.” “Yes, I ______ that job when Mr.
Johnson offered.
A. shall take B. shall have taken
C. should take D. should have taken
Question14: I can’t understand how your father managed to ______ that man. He had deceived all the
rest of us.
A. see off B. see through C. see to D. see out
Question 15: Fast food is very popular. ______, a diet of burgers, pizzas and fried chicken is not very
healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. In contrast
Question 16: Before the product is put is put on the market, the company must _____whether it
complies with safety standards.
A. calculate B. ask C. argue D. ascertain
Question 17: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is ______ certain
A. at any rate B. by no means C. by all means D. by any chance
Question 18: The Press thought the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just
______.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. turned it down D. laughed it off
Question 19: “I’m sorry. I couldn’t come to your party last night.” -“______.”
A. That’s all right B. You’re welcome
C. Excuse me D. Don’t mention it
Question 20: “Do you have a minute please?” “______.”
A. That’s just fantastic. Thanks B. Sorry. I left my watch home
C. Well, it is not as good as I think D. Yes, but you should be brief
Question 21: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences
Question 22: Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I
heartily support.
A. inner part B. change C. entrance D. test
Question 23: Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
A. for everybody’s use B. most preferable
C. attracting attention D. widely used
Question 24: Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. Instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
Question 25: We are very grateful to Professor Humble for his generosity in donating this
wonderful painting to the museum.
A. gratitude B. sympathy C. meanness D. churlishness
Question 26: The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
B. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
C. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
D. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
Question 27: I certainly won’t be lending Bruce any books again anytime soon.
A. I may be lending some books to Bruce this time, but I probably won’t do so anymore.
B. It’ll be definitely be a long time before I allow Bruce to borrow any more books.
C. Bruce definitely won’t be returning any books that he borrowed from me soon.
D. It’s certain that I won’t let Bruce borrow any books for such a long time again.
Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed.
A. Fried tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. Fried tried hard to start the car, and with success.
C. However hard he tried, Fried couldn’t start the car.
D. It’s hard for Fried to start the car because he never succeeded.
Question 29: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
B. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
C. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 30: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on
advertising.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t
find the energy to get out of bed (31) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s
generation of children are in danger of getting so (32)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental
and physical health at (33)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night,
(34)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters
(35)________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their
age.
Question 31 A. behind time B. about time C.in time D. at time
Question 32 A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 33 A. jeopardy B. risk C. threat D. danger
Question 34 A. whereas B. because C. or D. so
Question 35 A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them.
Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be
different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a
person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant
notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends
of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between
syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress
and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual
language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or
terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody
of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One
researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six
languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed
certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are
only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also
exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that
tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter
the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they
are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen
to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language
is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
Question 37: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they
cannot understand them?
A. They can remember them easily.
B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word.
C. They enjoy the sound.
D. They understand the rhythm.
Question 38: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when
talking to babies EXCEPT ______________.
A. speaking with shorter sentences
B. giving all words equal emphasis
C. using meaningless sounds
A. speaking more loudly than normal
Question 39: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. different B. surrounding C. stimulating D. divided
Question 40: The word "They" refers to ______________.
A. words B. mothers C. investigators D. babies
Question 41: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. stress out B. leave C. explain D. repeat
Question 42: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to
acquire language?
A. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
B. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
C. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the atlas.
Atlases deal with such invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the best,
Pennycooke's World Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of its maps and
photographs, which not only show various settlements but also portray them in a variety of scales. In
fact, the very first map in the atlas is a cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of
each country if geographical size were proportional to population. Following the proportional layout, a
sequence of smaller maps shows the world's population density, each country's birth and death rates,
population increase or decrease, industrialization, urbanization, gross national product in term of per
capita income, the quality of medical care, literacy, and language. To give readers a perspective on
how their own country fits in with the global view, additional projections depict the world's patterns in
nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health care, number of physicians per unit of population,
and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental scale, as well as political
maps, convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array of scales.
Question 43. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The educational benefits of atlases
B. Physical maps in an atlas
C. The ideal in the making of atlases
D. Partial maps and their uses
Question 44. According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas shows____.
A. the population policy in each country
B. the hypothetical sizes of each country
C. geographical proportions of each country
D. national boundaries relative to population
Question 45. The word cleverly in the passage is closest in meaning to____.
A. clearly B. immaculately C. intelligently D. accurately
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Calorie consumption B. Currency exchange rates
C. A level of educations D. Population decline
Question 47. The word layout in the passage refers to____.
A. the cartogram B. the geographical size
C. population D. each country
Question 48. The phrase in term of used in the passage is closest in meaning to____.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of
C. with a view to D. in regard to
Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to____.
A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country
B. identify a shortage of qualified labour
C. give readers a new perspective in their own country
D. show readers photographs in a new form
Question 50. The word convey in the passage is closest meaning to____.
A. devise B. conjure up C. indicate D. demonstrate
PRACTICE TEST 5
Question 1. A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2. A. measure B. pleasure C. treasure D. ensure
Question 3. A. comfort B. nation C. apply D. moment
Question 4. A. decision B. reference C. refusal D. important
Question 5. Not only the students but also the teacher are very worried about the final exam.
A B C D
Question 6. Zika is primarily spread by the female Aedes aegypti mosquito, that is active
A B C
mostly in the daytime.
D
Question 7. The actor taught his student how to read, how to stand, how to cry, and talking
A B C D
with fans.
Question 8. Her eyes are full of tears whenever she _______ such a sad film.
A. watches B. has watched C. will watch D. watched
Question 9. They couldn’t help _______ when they heard the little boy singing a love song.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
Question 10. The harder we tried to solve the riddle, _______.
A. the more confused we got B. we got so confused
C. the most confused we got D. we got more confused
Question 11. Jason asked me _______ me the book the day before.
A. if who gave B. if who has given C. who had given D. that who had given
Question 12. Some film stars _______ difficult to work with
A. are said being B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 13. In Vietnam a school year lasts for nine months and is divided _______ two terms.
A. into B. to C. from D. on
Question 14. I would like to invite you to participate in the ceremony_______.
A. graduate B. graduated C. graduation D. graduating
Question 15. The program “I love Vietnam” is a project that uses short films to teach lessons in traffic
safety and _______.
A. protecting B. protector C. protective D. protection
Question 16. I cannot bear the noise of my brother’s radio; it _______ me from my work.
A. distracts B. perturbs C. interrupts D. disturbs
Question 17. ASEAN helps to _______ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of equality
and partnership
A. invest B. promote C. admit D. invest
Question 18. If it’s raining tomorrow, we shall have to put _______ the match till Sunday.
A. off B. away C. in D. on
Question 19. Let’s _______ the grammar one more time before the test.
A. go through B. come over C. get on D. go over
Question 20. “I’ve passed my final exam.” - Tom: “_______”
A. That’s a good idea. B. Good luck.
C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. Congratulations!
Question 21. Assistant: “Is there anything I can do for you, sir?”
Customer: “_______”
A. Yes, you are welcome. B. Not now. Thanks anyway.
C. Sure. Go ahead, please. D. OK. Your time.
Question 22. The unusual hues found in the artwork of some ancient civilizations are attributed to
plant dyes.
A. substances B. colors C. secretions D. elements
Question 23. On the whole, these students are among the best prepared who have been through this
university.
A. In conclusion B. In fact C. In particular D. In general
Question 24. The test instructions were so poorly written that the students were mixed up about what
to do.
A. were puzzled B. were clear C. were confused D. were nervous
Question 25. From the beginning of time, people have puzzled over the forces of the supernatural
although a large number of studies have been conducted
A. understood clearly B. doubted C. trusted D. destroyed
Question 26. "You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got
home!" the woman told her son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the
table.
C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the
keys on the table.
Question 27. Invitations were sent out as soon as the date of the conference was chosen
A. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
B. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference was chosen.
C. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out.
D. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
Question 28. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
Question 29. “Alice in the Wonderland” was written for children. It appeals to many adult readers.
A. Though for children written, “Alice in the Wonderland” appeals to many adult readers.
B. Though written for children, “Alice in the Wonderland” appeals to many adult readers.
C. Though it written for children, “Alice in the Wonderland” appeals to many adult readers.
D. Though writing for children, “Alice in the Wonderland” appeals to many adult readers.
Question 30. I am tired from staying up late last night studying. I am also worried about today's test.
A. Not only am I tired from staying up late last night studying, but I am also worried about today's test.
B. Because I am tired from staying up late last night studying, I am also worried about today's test.
C. Although I am tired from staying up late last night studying, I am also worried about today's test
D. Tired from staying up late last night studying, I am also worried about today's test
The task of being acceptable and enrolled in a university begins early for some students. Long before
they graduate from high school, these students take special courses to prepare for (31)______ study.
They may also take one of more examinations that test how well prepared they are for the university.
In the final year of high school, they complete applications and send them, with their student
(32)______, to the universities which they hope to attend. Some high school students may be (33)______
to have an interview with representatives of the university. Neatly dressed, and usually very frightened,
they are determined to show that they have a good attitude and the ability to succeed.
When the new students are finally accepted, there may be one more step they have to take before
registering for classes and getting to work. Many colleges and universities (34)______ an orientation
program for new students. In these programs, the young people get to know the procedures for
registration and student advising university rules, the use of the library and all the other major services
of the college or university.
Beginning a new life in a new place can be very confused. The more knowledge students have about
the school, the easier it will be for them to (35)______ to the new environment. However, it takes time
to get used to college life.
Question 31. A. advancing B. advanced C. progressed D. progressing
Question 32. A. records B. number C. books D. scores
Question 33. A. forced B. invited C. reminded D. required
Question 34. A. display B. offer C. afford D. make
Question 35. A. adapt B. adopt C. apt D. adjust
Anthropologists have pieced together the little they know about the history of left-handedness and
right-handedness from indirect evidence. Though early men and women did not leave written records,
they did leave tools, bones, and pictures. Stone Age hand axes and hatchets were made from stones
that were carefully chipped away to form sharp cutting edges. In some, the pattern of chipping shows
that these tools and weapons were made by right-handed people, designed to fit comfortably into a
right hand. Other Stone Age implements were made by or for left-handers. Prehistoric pictures, painted
on the walls of caves, provide further clues to the handedness of ancient people. A right-hander finds
it easier to draw faces of people and animals
facing toward the left, whereas a left-hander finds it easier to draw faces facing toward the right. Both
kinds of faces have been found in ancient painting. On the whole, the evidence seems to indicate that
prehistoric people were either ambidextrous or about equally likely to be left- or right-handed.
But, in the Bronze Age, the picture changed. The tools and weapons found from that period are mostly
made for right-handed use. The predominance of right-handedness among humans today had
apparently already been established.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The purpose of ancient implements
B. The significance of prehistoric cave paintings
C. The development of right-handedness and left-handedness
D. The similarities between the Stone Age and Bronze Age
Question 37. Which of the following helped lead to conclusions about whether Store Age people
preferred one hand to the other?
A. Petrified forms of vegetation B. Patterns of stone chipping
C. Fossilized waste material D. Fossilized footprints
Question 38. In line 7, the word “further” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. advanced B. additional C. artistic D. factual
Question 39. According to the passage, a person who is right-handed is more likely to draw people and
animals that are facing _______.
A. upward B. downward C. toward the right D. toward the left
Question 40. In line 13, the words “the picture” refer to which of the following?
A. Faces of animals and people B. People's view from inside a cave
C. People's tendency to work with either hand D. The kinds of paint used on cave walls
Question 41. Where in the passage does the author mention a type of evidence that was NOT studied
by anthropologists researching the handedness of ancient people?
A. Lines 2-3 B. Lines 6-7 C. Lines 10-11 D. Lines 13-14
Question 42. The author implies that which of the following developments occurred around the time of
the Bronze Age?
A. The establishment of written records B. A change in the styles of cave painting
C. An increase in human skill in the handling of tools D. The prevalence of right-handedness
If the salinity of ocean waters is analyzed, it is found to vary only slightly from place to place.
Nevertheless, some of these small changes are important. There are three basic processes that cause a
change in oceanic salinity. One of these is the subtraction of water from the ocean by means of
evaporation---conversion of liquid water to water vapor. In this manner, the salinity is increased, since
the salts stay behind. If this is carried to the extreme, of course, white crystals of salt would be left
behind; this, by the way, is how much of the table salt we use is actually obtained.
The opposite of evaporation is precipitation, such as rain, by which water is added to the ocean. Here
the ocean is being diluted so that the salinity is decreased. This may occur in areas of high rainfall or in
coastal regions where rivers flow into the ocean.
Thus salinity may be increased by the subtraction of water by evaporation, or decreased by the
addition of fresh water by precipitation or runoff.
Normally, in tropical regions where the Sun is very strong, the ocean salinity is somewhat higher than
it is in other parts of the world where there is not as much evaporation. Similarly, in coastal regions
where rivers dilute the sea, salinity is somewhat lower than in other oceanic areas.
A third process by which salinity may be altered is associated with the formation and melting of sea
ice: When seawater is frozen, the dissolved materials are left behind. In this manner, seawater directly
beneath freshly formed sea ice has a higher salinity than it did before the ice appeared. Of course,
when this ice melts, it will tend to decrease the salinity of the surrounding water.
In the Weddell Sea, off Antarctica the densest water in the oceans is formed as a result of this freezing
process, which increases the salinity of cold water. This heavy water sinks and is found in the deeper
portions of the oceans of the world.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The elements of salt B. The bodies of water of the world
C. The many forms of ocean life D. The salinity of ocean water
Question 44. According to the passage, the ocean generally has more salt in _______.
A. coastal areas B. tropical areas C. rainy areas D. turbulent areas
Question 45. All of the following are processes that decrease salinity EXCEPT _______.
A. evaporation B. precipitation C. runoff D. melting
Question 46. Which of the following statements about the salinity of a body of water can best be
inferred from the passage?
A. The temperature of the water is the most important factor.
B. How quickly the water moves is directly related to the amount of salt.
C. Ocean salinity has little effect on sea life.
D. Various factors combine to cause variations in the salt content of water.
Question 47. The word “it” in line 18 refers to which of the following?
A. Sea ice B. Salinity C. Seawater D. Manner
Question 48. Why does the author mention the Weddell Sea?
A. To show that this body of water has salinity variations
B. To compare Antarctic waters with Arctic waters
C. To give an example of cold-water salinity
D. To point out the location of deep waters
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT a result of the formation of ocean ice?
A. The salt remains in the water. B. The surrounding water sinks.
C. Water salinity decreases. D. The water becomes denser.
Question 50. What can be inferred about the water near the bottom of oceans?
A. It is relatively warm. B. Its salinity is relatively high.
C. It does not move. D. It is formed by melting sea ice.
PRACTICE TEST 6
Question 1. A. booked B. pronounced C. described D. missed
Question 2. A. communication B. compliment C. ceremony D. culture
Question 3. A. capture B. picture C. ensure D. pleasure
Question 4. A. periodical B. industry C. introduce D. entertainer
Question 5. The number of students getting poor marks since the beginning of the semester are
A B C D
appalling.
Question 6. The storm N09, for that we are waiting, has changed its direction.
A B C D
Question 7. When teenagers finish high school, they have several choices: going to college,
A B
getting a job, or the army.
C D
Question 8. He was writing to his friend when he _______ a noise.
A. was hearing B. heard C. had heard D. hears
Question 9. I remember _______ you before, but I have forgotten your name.
A. to meet B. meeting C. meet D. met
Question 10. It is necessary for parents these days to be _______ in dealing with their children.
A. more patient and patient B. more and more patient
C. more patient and more D. more patient and more patient
Question 11. John asked me _______ that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
Question 12. The X-ray _______ in 1895.
A. is said to have been discovered B. is said to be discovered
C. said to have been discovered D. said to be discovered
Question 13. Many parents do not let their children make a decision _______ their future career.
A. in B. about C. on D. out
Question 14. ASEAN also works for the _______ of peace and stability in the region.
A. promote B. promotion C. promotional D. promoter
Question 15. Many species of plants and animals are on the _______ of extinction.
A. verge B. risk C. danger D. top
Question 16. Being well-dress and punctual can help you create a good _______ on your interviewer.
A. effectiveness B. pressure C. employment D. impression
Question 17. Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in
particular.
A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic
Question 18. They’ve _______ a research project to investigate the harmful effects of air pollution.
A. brought in B. taken on C. set up D. turned down
Question 19. She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her _______ because of her poor
eyesight.
A. up B. back C. down D. over
Question 20. “Thank you very much for a lovely party” – Bill: “_______”
A. Have a good day B. You are welcome C. Thanks D. Cheers
Question 21. Mary: “I’ve got an interview for a job tomorrow.” – Peter: “_______.”
A. Thank you B. Same to me C. Good luck D. See you
Question 22. How long an animal or plant can live is governed by heredity, environment, and chance.
A. history B. genetics C. climate D. altitude
Question 23. When students do not have time to read a novel before class, they read an outline of the
plot instead.
A. an article B. a synopsis C. a passage D. an essay
Question 24. Are you finished with school for good, or will you continue your studies some day?
A. once and for all B. forever C. permanently D. for the time being
Question 25. I would be happy to go along with the idea.
A. to disagree with the idea B. to agree with the idea
C. to support the idea D. to approve with the idea
Question 26. It’s careless of you to leave the luggage over there unattended.
A. You shouldn’t have left the luggage over there unattended.
B. Leaving the luggage unattended is not permitted.
C. You shouldn’t leave the luggage over there unattended.
D. You could hardly leave the luggage over there unattended.
Question 27. "You’re always making terrible mistakes", said the teacher.
A. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes
C. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
Question 28. My brother regretted having bought the second-hand laptop.
A. My brother wished he had bought the second-hand laptop.
B. My brother wished he didn’t buy the second-hand laptop.
C. My brother wished he hadn’t bought the second-hand laptop.
D. If only my brother had bought the second-hand laptop.
Question 29. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement ended six-month negotiation which was signed yesterday.
B .The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
Question 30. Think it through very carefully. Or else, you will not come up with the right answer.
A. If you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
B. Although you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
C. However carefully you think it through, you will not come up with the right answer.
D. Unless you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
Some kids have a hard time (1)_______ to the new freedom that they acquire when they leave high
school and come to college. Here you are able to choose whether or not you want to go to class.
However, this responsibility comes with a great price. If you do not go to class, you may miss an
important lecture and these are very critical when it comes time for that test that is fifty percent of your
grade. With this responsibility I have learned how to manage my time more efficiently. (4) _______
hating every minute of school, I value it as a time for me to prepare for the big test. This new schedule
has also changed me in that now I (6) _______school is worth my time. I do not dread going to class.
Yes, it is boring some of the time but since I only have two to four classes a day for only four days out
of the week, it is not as unpleasant as high school. Also many of my courses require more in depth
thinking. As an alternative to doing worksheets and answering simple questions, college courses call
(9) _______ analysis and thought. Almost all of my homework now is writing papers and reading
books. These essays most often entail an examination of a subject and what it means or what it reveals
to me. Thanks to this routine, I have been able to investigate and recognize meaning more (10)
_______ and it has helped me in my thought process.
Question 31. A. content 　 B. adopt 　 C. finding 　 D. adjusting
Question 32. A. Instead of 　 B. Rather than 　 C. Instead 　 D. Other than
Question 33. A. should like 　 B. feel like 　 C. look like D. would like
Question 34. A. in 　 B. for 　 C. up 　 D. about
Question 35. A. likely　 B. prepared 　 C. ready 　 D. readily
Many of the computing patterns used today in elementary arithmetic, such as those for performing
long multiplications and divisions, were developed as late as the fifteenth century. Two reasons are
usually advance to account for this tardy development, namely, the mental difficulties and the physical
difficulties encountered in such work.
The first of these, the mental difficulties, must be somewhat discounted. The impression that the
ancient numeral systems are not amenable to even the simplest calculation is largely based on lack of
familiarity with these systems. It is clear that addition and subtraction in a simple grouping system
require only ability to count the number symbols of each kind and then to convert to higher units. No
memorization of number combinations is needed. In a ciphered numeral system, if sufficient addition
and multiplication tables have been memorized, the work can proceed much as we do it today.
The physical difficulties encountered, however, were quite real. Without a plentiful and convenient
supply some suitable writing medium, any very extended development of the arithmetic process was
bound to be hampered. It must be remembered that our common machine-made pulp paper is little
more than a hundred years old. The older rag paper was made by hand and was consequently
expensive and scarce.
Question 36. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To emphasize the importance of the mental process in
B. To explain why some elementary computing systems were not developed until the fifteenth century
C. To describe how ancient counting systems differ from those of the twentieth century
D. To compare the mental and physical processes used in arithmetic
Question 37. The word “tardy” in line 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. historical B. basic C. unusual D. late
Question 38. The word “these” in line 5 refers to
A. patterns B. reasons C. systems D. calculations
Question 39. The author states that doing calculations in a simple grouping system requires _______.
A. memorizing numerical combinations
B. using an adding machine
C. producing large quantities of a writing medium
D. converting number symbols to higher units
Question 40. The word “encountered” in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. faced B. caused C. increased D. discussed
Question 41. The author describes old rag paper as all of the following EXCEPT
A. handmade B. costly C. scarce D. delicate
Question 42. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Physical difficulties hindered the development of computing patterns.
C. Most people experience mental difficulties in learning long divisions and multiplications.
B. Memorizing addition and multiplication tables is necessary for most elementary arithmetic processes.
D. Numeral systems invented before the fifteenth century could not have been used to perform
elementary calculations.
There are two ways to create colors in a photograph. One method, called additive, starts with three
basic colors and adds them together to produce some other color. The second method called
subtractive starts with white light (a mixture of all colors in the spectrum) and by taking away some or
all other colors, leaves the one desired.
In the additive method, separate colored, lights combine to produce various other colors. The three
additive primary colors are green, red, and blue (each providing about one-third of the wavelengths in
the total spectrum). Mixed in varying proportions, they can produce all colors. Green and red light mix
to produce yellow; red and blue light mix to produce magenta; green and blue mix to produce cyan.
When equal parts of all three of these primary-colored beams of light overlap, the mixture appears
white to the eye.
In the subtractive process, colors are produced when dye (as in paint or color photographic
materials)absorbs some wavelengths and so passes on only part of the spectrum. The subtractive
primaries are cyan that absorb red, green, and blue wavelengths, respectively, thus subtracting them
from white light. These dye colors are the complementary colors to the three additive primaries of red,
green, and blue.
Properly combined, the subtractive primaries can absorb all colors of light, producing black. But
mixed in varying proportions, they too can produce any color in the spectrum.
Whether a particular color is obtained by adding colored lights together of by subtracting some light
from the total spectrum the result looks the same to the eye. The additive process was employed for
early color photography. But the subtractive method, while requiring complex chemical techniques,
has turned out to be more practical and is the basis of all modern color films.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Recent developments in camera technology
B. How to make white light
C. The additive and subtractive methods of producing color
D. The discovery of the spectrum
Question 44. The word “one” in line 4 refers to _______.
A. color B. method C. mixture D. light
Question 45. According to the passage, what color would be expected when green light overlap red light?
A. White B. Black C. Yellow D. Magenta
Question 46. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “passes on” as used in line 12?
A. judges B. lets through C. dies D. goes over
Question 47. What color filter would absorb red wavelengths
A. Red B. Cyan C. Magenta D. Yellow
Question 48. Which of the following is NOT a pair of additive and subtractive primary colors?
A. Yellow and blue B. Magenta and green C. Black and white D. Cyan and red
Question 49. What explanation is given for the use of the subtractive method in modern color films?
A. Subtractive colors are more realistic. B. The subtractive process is more efficient.
C. Additive chemical techniques are too complex D. The additive process is still being developed
Question 50. How is the passage organized?
A. The reasons for a choice are explained in depth.
B. A general statement is justified by a series of historical examples.
C. Two basic causes are compared.
D. Related processes are described, one after the other.
PRACTICE TEST 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. social B. educate C. country D. electronic
Question 2. A. prime B. service C. childbearing D. society
Question 3. A. labor B. country C. promote D. women
Question 4. A. development B. psychology C. information D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide interesting
A B C
titles for them to enjoy.
D
Question 6. The proportion of women spend 30 hours a week or more on unpaid
A B C
housework fell to 19.8 per cent in 2006 from 24.6 per cent in 1996.
D
Question 7. The number of students attending the seminar are smaller than registration numbers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 8. Peter ________ when we came into the discotheque.
A. was dancing Mary B. was dancing with Mary
C. was danced by Mary D. had danced Mary
Question 9. Women's rights have given them an _______ to pursue high schooling and well-paid career.
A. agency B. employment C. access D. economy
Question 10. UNESCO was established to encourage _______ among nations in the areas of
education, science, culture, and communication.
A. employment B. collaboration C. workforce D. independence
Question 11. Mary eats ________ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
Question 12. _______ in London, we will have sat on the bus for 10 hours.
A. When we will arrive B. As we are going to arrive
C. By the time we arrive D. By the time we will arrive
Question 13. Peter _______ for thirty minutes before Mary arrived.
A. would be waiting B. has been waiting
C. had been waiting D. was waiting
Question 14. ______ the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead
of going there by train.
A. Discovering B. To discover C. To have discovered D. Discovered
Question 15. We just jumped in a car on the ______ of the moment and drove to the seaside.
A. current B. top C. desire D. spur
Question 16. Many people are still in _____ habit of writing silly things in _____ public places.
A. the– the B.  -  C. the -  D.  - the
Question 17. Scientists have proposed a possible ______ to the problem of global warming.
A. solution B. effect C. result D. plan
Question 18. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 19. The two children tried as hard as they could do to _____ a reconciliation between their
parents.
A. bring up B. bring about C. bring in D. bring together
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. This afternoon Hoa’s visiting her hometown.
- Tom: “Don’t fail to send your family my regards.”
- Hoa: “________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Good idea, thanks C. Thanks, I will D. It’s my pleasure.
Question 21. John is watching television in his room and his mother came in.
- Mother: “Watching television is a waste of time”
- John: “_______”
A. I enjoy watching cartoons B. I don’t think so, either.
C. I love your new hairstyle D. I have no taste for news.
Question 22. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Question 23. Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information.
A. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24. My eldest brother tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be confident B. be smart C. be optimistic D. be pessimistic
Question 25. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. similar B. different C. fake D. genuine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Thanks to her high grades at university, she is offered the position.
A. If she had not got high grades at university, she would not be offered the position.
B. It was her high grades at university which offer her the position.
C. If she had not got high grades at university, she would not have been offered the position.
D. Without her high grades at university, she is not offered the position.
Question 27. We have decided that the work they do is unacceptable.
A. As they do the work which we have decided is unacceptable.
B. They have been decided that the work they do is unacceptable.
C. It has been decided that the work being done is unacceptable.
D. We have decided that we accept the work they do.
Question 28. “If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic,” the teacher said.
A. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.
B. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.
C. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic.
D. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of
several deadly diseases.
A. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
B. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
C. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
D. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
Question 30. He has been giving most of his money to charity. He hopes to ease the pain and
suffering of the disadvantaged.
A. Easing the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged made him give most of his money to charity.
B. Hoping to ease the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged, he has given them most of his money.
C. He has been giving most of his money to the disadvantaged to ease the oain and suffering.
D.Giving most of his money to charity, he hopes to ease the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged.
THE GENERATION GAP
People talk about the generation gap as a kind of division between young people and their parents. It is
something which is generally a problem when children enter their teenage years, and (31)______in
complaint in both sides. Parents, for example, can often be heard to say that young people are
(32)______ and disobedient and in addition tend to be irresponsible when spending because they don’t
appreciate the (33)_______ of money. Adolescents, on the other hand, complain that their parent don’t
understand them.
What has gone wrong? One explanation (34)_______ in how society has changed. In the past, children
would typically continue the way of love of their parents. In today’s world, parents are very
(35)______ for their children because they want them to achieve more than they did. The problem is
that the children often don’t agree with their parents’ plans. Teenagers also reach maturity at an earlier
age than they used to and want their independence sooner. The resulting conflict is painful to both
sides.
Question 31. A. leads B. brings C. results D. contributes
Question 32. A. disrespected B. disrespectful C. disrespectable D. disrespecting
Question 33. A. cost B. worth C. value D. amount
Question 34. A. puts B. stays C. lies D. comes
Question 35. A. ambitious B. demanding C. required D. expectant
Each society has its own beliefs, attitudes, customs, behaviors, and social habits. These give people a
sense of who they are, how they are supposed to behave, and what they should or should not do. These
'rules' reflect the 'culture' of a country.
People become conscious of such rules when they meet people from different cultures. For example,
in some cultures, being on time can mean turning up several hours late for an appointment, even for a
business meeting; in others, 3 p.m. means 3 p.m. Also, the rules about when to eat vary from culture to
culture. Many North Americans and Europeans are used to having three mealtimes a day and
organizing their timetable around them. In other countries, on the other hand, it’s not the custom to
have strict rules like this - people eat when they want to, and every family has its own timetable.
When people visit or live in a country for the first time, they are often surprised at the differences that
exist between their own culture and the culture in the other country. The most common way of
comparing two cultures is in terms of their differences - not their similarities. For some people,
traveling abroad is the thing they enjoy most in life; for others, though, cultural differences make them
feel uncomfortable, frightened, or even insecure. This is known as "culture shock".
When you are visiting a foreign country, it is important to understand and appreciate cultural
differences. This can help people avoid misunderstandings, develop friendships more easily, and feel
more comfortable when traveling or living abroad.
Here are several things to do to avoid “culture shock”:
 Avoid quickly judgment; try to understand people in other culture from their own point of
view.
 Become aware of what is going on around you, and why?
 Don’t think of your cultural habits as “right” and other people as “wrong”.
 Be willing to try new things and to have new experiences.
 Try to appreciate and understand other people’s values.
 Think about your own culture to see how it influences your attitudes and actions.
 Avoid having negative stereotypes about foreigners and cultures.
 Show interests in as well as respect, sincerity acceptance and concern for things that are
important to other people.
Question 36. There are _______ different factors of cultures.
A. four B. six C. three D. five
Question 37. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage?
A. There are no similarities between a culture in one country and that in another.
B. There are no countries having strict rules of mealtimes.
C. There are no strict rules of mealtimes in some countries.
D. There are no problems for people who visit a country for the first time.
Question 38. People _______ differences when they face with another culture.
A. organize B. enjoy C. are aware of D. appreciate
Question 39. The word conscious in paragraph 2 most nearly means ________.
A. known B. aware C. frightened D. doubtful
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. People traveling abroad are influenced by “culture shock”.
B. Rules about when to eat are not the same.
C. Understanding cultural differences is important.
D. Cultural differences cause “culture shock”.
Question 41. What does the writer want to tell you?
A. Culture similarities. B. Mealtimes day.
C. Culture differences. D. Culture in a country.
Question 42. The title of this passage is _______.
A. Understanding Cultural Differences for Foreign Travels
B. Consciousness of Cultural Rules
C. Traveling Abroad in Life
D. Developing Friendship
It is not easy to choose a career today. Hundreds of students are leaving schools and universities
every year to seek employment in the various professions, though employment opportunities are
not increasing proportionately. As a result, there is a lot of unemployment.
The inability of the various professions to absorb all those seeking employment makes the choice
of a career more difficult. Before one leaves school or university, one has many plans, confident that
choosing a career will not be difficult. But when, the time comes to choose a career, one finds that
there are others with better qualifications waiting to enter the same profession. Disillusioned, one
then looks for any kind of employment. In this way, many who wanted to become police
inspectors or field assistants in the rubber estates in this country, become teachers instead, and
many who wanted to become teachers, have become clerks.
The lack of institutions where people could acquire the skills necessary for a particular career
makes the choice of a career even more difficult. For example, if one desires to become a journalist,
one has to receive some training and instruction in a school of journalism. But if there is no such
school, one is compelled to think of some other career.
Question 43. Hundreds of students ________ every year to seek employment.
A. wait to enter the same profession. B. make the choice of a career.
C. want to become police inspectors. D. finish their study.
Question 44. Employment opportunities are not increasing _______.
A. in disillusion B. in the rate of size C. in various D. in a lot of unemployment
Question 45. Before one leaves school or university, ________.
A. they should make the way to achieve something. B. they absorb all employment.
C. they have to receive some training and instruction. D. they become police inspectors
Question 46. Another example of unsatisfying job is that many who wanted to become teachers, have
become _______.
A. journalists B. police inspectors C. instructors D. shop assistants
Question 47. The inability of various professions to absorb all those seeking employment makes
_____ more difficult.
A. schools or universities B. better qualifications
C. the job finding D. particular careers
Question 48. One must find that ________.
A. it is easy to choose a career today
B. more people with good knowledge applying for the vacuum as well.
C. employment opportunities are increasing proportionately.
D. there is not a lot of unemployment today.
Question 49. _______ makes the choice of a career even more difficult.
A. Employment opportunities are not increasing B. The lack of skilled training centers
C. School or university leavers D. Students with better qualifications
Question 50. The title of this passage is __________.
A. students leaving schools and universities seek employment.
B. the difficulties of choosing the right career.
C. seeking employment.
D. the same profession.
PRACTICE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. approached B. sacrificed C. unwrapped D. obliged
Question 2. A. communication B. compliment C. ceremony D. culture
Question 3. A. couple B. secure C. across D. attack
Question 4. A. determine B. tradition C. sacrifice D. terrific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Preceding by four nice children, the bride and the groom entered the wedding hall.
A B C D
Question 6. The examination will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read
A B
non-technical language, and writing correctly.
C D
Question 7. In several parts of Asia, there is still a strong market for traditional
A B
medicines making from these animal parts.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
Question 8. Thanks to labor-saving devices, women have more time to take part in _______ activities.
A. society B. social C. socially D. socialize
Question 9. I had drunk a cup of coffee _______ I went to work.
A. before B. until C. since D. as soon as
Question 10. The more exercise you do, ________
A. you become fitter B. so fitter you become
C. more fitter you become D. the fitter you become
Question 11. Communities in remote areas are extremely________ to famine if crops fail.
A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable
Question 12. My students promised that they would hand in their assignments________.
A. yesterday B. tomorrow C. the following day D. the previous day
Question 13. The money that I earn is enough to________ my family’s basic needs.
A. take B. meet C. give D. see
Question 14. I’ve been spending a lot of time looking for ______ sports car.
A. an expensive modern red Italian B. a modern Italian expensive red
C. a red expensive Italian modern D. an Italian expensive red modern
Question 15. Julia, ______ had worked for many hours without interruption, was finding it difficult to
remember her lines.
A. that B. which C. who D. whom
Question 16. Not having read the article, _______.
A. it was difficult for Jenifer to answer the question B. Jenifer could not answer the question
C. the question could not be answered by Jenifer D. the question was too difficult to answer
Question 17. _______ the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
A. Had she not lost B. Should she not lose
C. Were she not to lose D. If she had lost
Question 18. We ______ spend much time on this topic. It’s not going to be in the exam.
A. can’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. must
Question 19. “Are you ill? You look terrible!” “Well, I am a bit ______. The doctor says I must rest.”
A. run-down B. run-off C. run-out D. run-up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. "That's the 16th job interview I've failed. What should I do?" - "________."
A. Don't give over B. Don't give out C. Don't give up D. Don't give on
Question 21. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.
- Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.”
- Anne: “_______”
A. I’ll go myself. B. No, thank you.
C. Don’t you have one like this in blues? D. That’s a long way to go, dear.
Question 22. Paid employment has undoubtedly brought economic and social gains to many women.
A. easily B. freely C. independently D. certainly
Question 23. Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise.
A. reduced B. encouraged C. recognized D. practiced
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24. In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments.
A. revolutionary B. backward C. important D. recent
Question 25. In the final match between Liverpool and Manchester United, viewers witnessed the
deadly striker's 11th goal of the season.
A. mortal B. alive C. lethal D. immortal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to
understand it.
A. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
B. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
C. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
Question 27. Thanks to the efforts of environmentalists, people are becoming better aware of the
problems of endangered species.
A. Environmentalists are expressing their gratitude towards people who are better aware of the
problems of endangered species.
B. Environmentalists are doing their best to make people aware of the problems of endangered species.
C. People have no idea about the problems of endangered species in spite of the efforts of
environmentalists.
D. People owe their growing awareness of the problems of endangered species to the efforts of
Environmentalists
Question 28. The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.
A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.
B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric hospital.
C. The writer Kate Millett's family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.
D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Societies doubted about women’s intellectual ability. Therefore, they could not get
access to education.
A. Women’s intellectual ability was doubted about due to their lack of education.
B. Not getting access to education, societies showed their uncertainty to women’s intellectual ability.
C. The denial of education to women was caused by societies’ doubt about their intellectual ability.
D. Failure to get access to education resulted in the doubt about women’s intellectual ability.
Question 30. Think it through very carefully. Or else, you will not come up with the right answer.
A. If you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
B. Unless you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
C. Although you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
D. However carefully you think it through, you will not come up with the right answer.
Online Dating
Dating people online has become an extremely popular custom that has developed as more and more
people have figured out the advantages of using the internet as a way of finding love. People of all
ages submit to dating online, teens and grownups (31)_____searching for that special person by setting
up (32)______ on online dating sites and browsing through other people’s profiles. On dating
websites, singles are provided the (33)______of learning a few things about various potential partners,
making their decision of contacting them based on dating profile descriptions and photos.
Dating may vary across the globe, countries being known for peculiar and outrageous dating traditions,
yet as time passes, people develop new dating customs, such as dating with the help of the internet.
Although this (34)______ of dating is mostly practiced in the Western civilization, no one can tell for
sure what other customs will emerge as the world changes, and whether strict dating will come against
some people’s right of choosing whatever partner they see (35)______for themselves.
Question 31. A. alike B. like C. unlike D. likely
Question 32. A. arrangements B. accounts C. records D. details
Question 33. A. situation B. time C. development D. opportunity
Question 34. A. document B. arrangement C. form D. chance
Question 35. A. fit B. ready C. excited D. interesting
The economic depression in the late-nineteenth-century United States contributed
significantly to a growing movement in literature toward realism and naturalism. After the 1870’s, a
number of important authors began to reject the romanticism that had prevailed immediately
following the Civil War of 1861-1865 and turned instead to realism. Determined to portray life as it
was, with fidelity to real life and accurate representation without idealization, they studied local
dialects, wrote stories which focused on life in specific region of the country, and emphasized the
“true” relationships between people. In doing so, they reflected broader trends in the society, such as
industrialization, evolutionary theory which emphasized the effect of the environment on humans, and
the influence of science.
Realists such as Joel Chandler Harris and Ellen Glasgow depicted life in the South; Hamlin
Garland described life on the Great Plains; and Sarah One Jewett wrote about everyday life in rural
New England. Another realist, Bret Harte, achieved fame with stories that portrayed local life in the
California mining camps. Samuel Clemens, who adopted the pen name Mark Twain, became the
country’s most outstanding realist author, observing life around him with a humorous and skeptical
eye. In his stories and novels, Twain drew on his own experiences and used dialect and common
speech instead of literary language, touching off a major change in American prose style.
Other writers became impatient even with realism. Pushing evolutionary theory to its limits,
they wrote of a world in which a cruel and merciless environment determined human fate. These
writers, called naturalists, often focused on economic hardship, studying people struggling with
poverty, and other aspects of urban and industrial life. Naturalists brought to their writing a passion for
direct and honest experience. Theodore Dreiser, the foremost naturalist writer, in novels such as Sister
Carrie, grimly portrayed a dark world in which human beings were tossed about by forces beyond
their understanding or control. Dreiser thought that writers should tell the truth about human affairs,
not fabricate romance, and Sister Carrie , he said, was “not intended as a piece of literary
craftsmanship, but was a picture of conditions.”
Question 36. Which aspect of late-nineteenth-century United States literature does the passage mainly
discussed?
A. The influence of science on literature B. The importance of dialects for realist writers
C. The emergence of realism and naturalism C. The effects of industrialization on romanticism
Question 37. The word “prevailed” in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. dominated B. transformed C. entered D. generalized
Question 38. According to the passage, a highly significant factor in the development of realist and
naturalist literature was ______.
A. the Civil War B. a recognition
C. an increased interest in the study of common speech D. an economic depression
Question 39. Realist writers took an interest in all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. human relationships B. characteristics of different regions
C. the idealization of life D. social and historical theories
Question 40. Why does the author mention “mining camps” in the passage?
A. To contrast the themes of realist and naturalist writers.
B. To illustrate how Bret Harte differed from other authors.
C. As an example of a topic taken up by realist writers.
D. As an example of how setting can influence literary style.
Question 41. Mark Twain is considered an important literary figure because he ______.
A. was the first realist writer in the United States
B. rejected romanticism as a literary approach.
C. wrote humorous stories and novels.
D. influenced American prose style through his use of common speech
Question 42. The word “foremost” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. most difficult B. interesting C. most focused D. leading
Robert Capa
1. Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war photography.
2. Born in Hungary in 1913 as Friedmann Endre Ernő, Capa was forced to leave his native country
after his involvement in anti government protests. Capa had originally wanted to become a writer, but
after his arrival in Berlin had first found work as a photographer. He later left Germany and moved to
France due to the rise in Nazism. He tried to find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that he
changed his name to Robert Capa, mainly because he thought it would sound more American.
3. In 1936, after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war, Capa went to Spain and it was here over the
next three years that he built his reputation as a war photographer. It was here too in 1936 that he took
one of his most famous pictures, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier. One of Capa’s most famous quotes
was 'If your pictures aren't good enough, you're not close enough.' And he took his attitude of getting
close to the action to an extreme. His photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime example
of this as Capa captures the very moment the soldier falls. However, many have questioned the
authenticity of this photograph, claiming that it was staged.
4. When World war II broke out, Capa was in New York, but he was soon back in Europe covering the
war for Life magazine. Some of his most famous work was created on 6th June 1944 when he swam
ashore with the first assault on Omaha Beach in the D-Day invasion of Normandy. Capa, armed only
with two cameras, took more than one hundred photographs in the first hour of the landing, but a
mistake in the darkroom during the drying of the film destroyed all but eight frames. It was the images
from these frames however that inspired the visual style of Steven Spielberg's Oscar winning movie
‘Saving Private Ryan’. When Life magazine published the photographs, they claimed that they were
slightly out of focus, and Capa later used this as the title of his autobiographical account of the war.
5. Capa’s private life was no less dramatic. He was friend to many of Hollywood’s directors, actors
and actresses. In 1943 he fell in love with the wife of actor John Austin. His affair with her lasted until
the end of the war and became the subject of his war memoirs. He was at one time lover to actress
Ingrid Bergman. Their relationship finally ended in 1946 when he refused to settle in Hollywood and
went off to Turkey.
6. In 1947 Capa was among a group of photojournalists who founded Magnum Photos. This was a co-
operative organisation set up to support photographers and help them to retain ownership of the
copyright to their work.
7. Capa went on to document many other wars. He never attempted to glamorise war though, but to
record the horror. He once said, "The desire of any war photographer is to be put out of business."
8. Capa died as he had lived. After promising not to photograph any more wars, he accepted an
assignment to go to Indochina to cover the first Indochina war. On May 25th 1954 Capa was
accompanying a French regiment when he left his jeep to take some photographs of the advance and
stepped on a land mine. He was taken to a nearby hospital, still clutching his camera, but was
pronounced dead on arrival. He left behind him a testament to the horrors of war and a standard for
photojournalism that few others have been able to reach.
9. Capa’s legacy has lived on though and in 1966 his brother Cornell founded the International Fund
for Concerned Photography in his honor. There is also a Robert Capa Gold Medal, which is given to
the photographer who publishes the best photographic reporting from abroad with evidence of
exceptional courage. But perhaps his greatest legacy of all are the haunting images of the human
struggles that he captured.
Question 43. Why did Capa change his name?

A. To hide his identity B. Because he had been involved in protests
C. To sound more American D. Because he had to leave Hungary
Question 44. Capa originally wanted to be
A. A photojournalist B. A writer C. American D. A protestor
Question 45. Capa went to Spain to ______.
A. fight in the civil war B. build his reputation
C. have a holiday D. take photographs
Question 46. Capa’s famous picture Death of a Loyalist Soldier _______.
A. was taken by someone else B. was definitely genuine
C. wasn’t even taken in Spain D. cannot be proven genuine or staged
Question 47. When World War II broke out Capa _______.
A. went to New York. B. swam ashore on Omaha Beach
C. went to Europe. D. went to Normandy.
Question 48. A mistake meant that _______.
A. only one hundred of Capa’s photographs were published
B. Capa lost both of his two cameras.
C. Capa’s images inspired an Oscar winning movie
D. Most of Capa’s images of the D-Day landing were destroyed
Question 49. Capa’s private life was
A. less dramatic than his professional life B. spent mostly in Hollywood
C. very glamorous D. spent in Turkey.
Question 50. Capa wanted his work to _______.
A. be very famous B. show how glamorous war can be
C. show the true horror of war. D. make lots of money
PRACTICE TEST 9
Question 1: A. country B. encourage C. ground D. young
Question 2: A. supposed B. reduced C. dissolved D. encouraged
Question 3: A. common B. verbal C. polite D. social
Question 4: A. approach B. attract C. install D. decent
Question 5: I will take up golf this year.
A. I will stop playing golf this year. B. I will enter a golf competition this year.
C. I will build a golf court this year. D. I will begin to play golf this year.
Question 6: Housewives do not have to spend a lot of time doing housework any more.
A. Housewives have to spend more and more time to do housework.
B. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now.
C. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework.
D. Housework will never be done by housewives any more.
Question 7: The sign says, "Keep off the grass."
A. The sign says, "Water the grass, please."
B. The sign says, "Grass should not be grown here."
C. The sign says, "Have someone cut the grass immediately."
D. The sign says, "Don't walk on the grass."
Question 8: We always stand by you when you are in need.
A. Whenever you are in need, we stand next to you.
B. We cannot do anything for you though you are in need.
C. We can never stand your necessity.
D. We always continue to support and help you when you are in need.
Question 9: Go over the report before you submit it.
A. Read the report carefully before you submit it.
B. Before you write the report you have to find enough information.
C. Type the report quickly and then submit it.
D. Before you submit the report, you should be finished writing it.
correction in each of the following questions
Question 10: Education can often to be considered to be the most important element to develop a
A B C D
country.
Question 11: The major goal of primary education is to achieve basis literacy and innumeracy
A B C
among all students.
D
Question 12: Most parents prefer an education system which offers children widest study options
A B C D
in the world.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere
in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution
requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws
were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that
could be seen or smelt - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As
technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the
list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapour might be considered an air
pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered
by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an
air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a
global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air.
The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that
the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be
large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how
much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For
example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about
400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not
usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 13: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions……
A. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
B. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
C. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
D. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
A. How much harm air pollutants can cause. B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.D. The economic impact of air pollution.
Question 15: The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to........
A. the components in biogeochemical cycles B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil D. the various chemical reactions
Question 16: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that......
A. water vapour is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
C. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelt
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 17: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance
is only useful if.......
A. it can be calculated quickly B. the other substances in the area are known
C. the natural level is also known D. it is in a localized area
Question 18: The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to......
A. quickly B. considerably C. negatively D. admittedly
Question 19: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution
laws.
B. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
C. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
D. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution
laws.
Question 20: Punctuality is imperative in your new job.
A. Being on time B. Being cheerful C. Being efficient D. Being courteous
Question 21: If petrol price go up any more, I will have to use a bicycle.
A. increase B. raise C. ascend D. develop
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Scientists proof that choosing a career for money will make you less efficient, happy
and more selfish.
A. proficient B. capable C. effective D. ineffective
Question 23: A surprising percentage of the population in remote areas is illiterate.
A. unable to speak fluently B. unable to read and write
C. able to speak fluently D. able to read and write
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
In the western customs ...(24)... hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the
head or slight bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are
often ...(25)... and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more
respectful to present your card or a gift or -any other article using both hands. The Chinese are ...(26)...
applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. When a person is
applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When
walking in public places, direct eye contact and staring is uncommon in the larger cities, especially in
those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. ...(27)... , in smaller communities, visitors may be the
subject of much curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares. Generally speaking, the Chinese
are not a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid ...(28)... or any prolonged form
of body contact. Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may 3note people of
the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship.
Do not worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or
trains. In this case, Apologies are neither offered or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than
Westerners.
Question 24:A. shaking B. grasping C. hugging D. taking
Question 25:A. exchanged B. transferred C. converted D. changed
Question 26:A. enthusiast B. enthusiasm C. enthusiastic D. enthusiastically
Question 27:A. Moreover B. Furthermore C. Whatever D. However
Question 28:A. touch B. to touch C. touching D. touched
Question 29: .......colleges and......universities are the main institutions that provide tertiary
education.
A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. Ø / Ø D. The/the
Question 30: That........boy often plays tricks on his friends.
A. honest B. mischievous C. obedient D. well-behaved
Question 31: Ann: ".............." ~ Bill: "I start at nine and finish at four."
A. How long do you work? B. What time do you work?
C. What are your working hours? D. When do you start and finish working?
Question 32: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn't have enough.......
A. confidential B. confidence C. confide D. confident
Question 33: He graduated with doctorates of....... and surgery from Sorbonne, gaining the highest
honours that year.
A. medication B. medical C. medicine D. medicate
Question 34: A school year is often divided.......two semesters.
A. about B. in C. into D. for
Question 35: Whenever something goes wrong, everyone.......it on me.
A. accuses B. blames C. insists D. charges
Question 36: The college he........to has accepted him.
A. decided B. required C. applied D. submitted
Question 37: He was the only.......that was offered the job.
A. applicant B. apply C. application D. applying
Question 38: The making of good habits.......a determination to keep on training your child.
A. requirement B. requires C. require D. required
Question 39: Taking part.......the Advanced Engineering project gave me a chance to use my
knowledge to help society.
A. on B. in C. at D. to
Question 40: You can choose to get a job when you have finished the........part of your education.
A. primary B. school C. compulsory D. secondary
Question 41: Tom: "............." ~ Alice: "Yes, a bit. On certain courses I work until 5:30."
A. Do you work any overtime? B. Do you have any overtime hours?
C. Are you working overtime? D. Have you ever worked till 5.30?
Question 42: Most of the students are strongly........of the school's approach.
A. supportive B. support C. supported D. supporter
The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920’s
and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” –the exotically
ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related structures
such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California. The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and
stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs, sunbursts,
astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief and
mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were shaped in the
ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in
progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.
The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s “streamlined moderne” style—a Futuristic-
looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed stripes.” In
architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass
block, and flat rooftops.
The third style, referred to as “ international stripped classicism” also came to the forefront
during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was a more
conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and
stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style were
erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression .
Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was strongly
influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like “art
nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted
repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese
craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials, geometricized
shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement
in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the
domestic environment through well-designed furniture and household accessories.
Question 43: What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories
B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco
C. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California
D. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s
Question 44: The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ___________ .
A. include B. Enhance C. separate D. replace
Question 45: The phrase “The first” in line 2 refers to __________ .
A. the 1920’s and 1930’s B. design trends
C. the term “art deco” D. Skyscrapers
Question 46: In line 8, the author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to
__________.
A. emphasize the extent of architectural advances
B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles
C. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings
D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design
Question 47: The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
___________.
A. animal motifs B. “speed stripes” C. round windows D. flat roofs
Question 48: The phrase “came to the forefront” in line 15 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. went through a process B. grew in complexity
C. changed its approach D. became important
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes
the relationship between art deco and art nouveau?
A. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England.
B. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.
C. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the
depression era.
D. They were essentially the same art form.
Question 50: According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would
most probably have been designed in the style of ____________.
A. classical moderne B. zigzag moderne
C. streamlined moderne D. the Arts and Crafts Movement
PRACTICE TEST 10
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
1. A. combination B. dioxide C. nitrogen D. pipe
2. A. kissed B. stopped C. laughed D. closed
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest. Circle the
corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
3. A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
4. A. different B. important C. impressive D. attractive
5. After her illness, Lam had to work hard to ……….. his classmates.
A. catch sight of B. keep pace with C. get in touch with D. make allowance for
6. It was difficult to ................. a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. agree B. organize C. arrange D. provide
7. He wasn't …………. the job
A. experienced enough doing B. experienced to do enough
C. experienced enough to do D. enough experienced to do
8. Be careful with these scissors! Don’t point them ……….. me.
A. for B. in C. with D. at
9. I ……………. understand this letter. Will you translate it for me?
A. mustn’t B. can’t C. may not D. shouldn’t.
10. After you write your report, give it to your boss. He will ………… it and make any necessary
changes.
A. fill in B. bring up C. look after D. go over.
11. The disappearance of one or several species may result in the loss of ……………...
A. university B. biology C. biodiversity D. diversity
12. The doctor suggested that the patient ………….. smoking.
A. stop B. should stop C. would stop D. both A and B are correct
13. I'd rather you ……………….. in here. There's a room for smokers out there.
A. not smoke B. don't smoke C. didn't smoke D. won't smoke
14. Being well-dressed and punctual can help you create a good …………. on your interviewer.
A. impression B. pressure C. employment D. effectiveness
15. They decided to go……. the danger.
A. in spite B. despite C. due to D. and
16. ……. purpose of volunteer work is to help poor people how to improve their life.
A. A B. An C. The D. X
17. - Tom: "Make yourself at home."
- Jane: “…………….”
A. Not at all. Don't mention it. B. Thanks. Same to you.
C. That's very nice. Thank you. D. Yes, can I help you?
18. I don’t like hunting. - ………………….
A. Either do I B. I do, too C. Neither do I D. I don’t neither
19. In the future many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.
A. companies B. services C. supermarkets D. farms
20. Domestic chores will no longer be a burden thanks to the inventions of laborsaving devices.
A. Official B. Household C. Schooling D. Foreign
21. After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. guilty B. naive C. innovative D. benevolent
22. Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with
other countries.
A. boosted B. expanded C. restricted D. balanced
Choose the word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting.
23. The gardener used the scissors which he had bought them from a village shop to cut the
A B C D
flowers.
24. The windows at the front of the house need to repair.
A B C D
25. Identify the one that is not correct "I'd like to have some informations about the flights to
A B C D
Bangkok tomorrow, please”
meaning to each of the following sentences.
26. He started learning French six years ago
A. He has learned French for six years
B. It is six years ago since he started learning French
C. He hasn’t learned French for six years
D. He has learned French since six years
27. Tom goes to school by bicycle. His friends go to school by bicycle, too.
A. Both Tom and his friends goes to school by bicycle.
B. Both Tom and his friends go to school by bicycle.
C. Either Tom or his friends go to school by bicycle.
D. Not only Tom but also his friends goes to school by bicycle.
28. There’s no point in persuading him to do this.
A. He is able to do this although he does not want to.
B. It would be useful to persuade him to do this.
C. I enjoy persuading him to do this.
D. It is useless to persuade him to do this.
Choose the correct option to complete each of the following sentences.
29. The harder you study for these exams, ……………..
A. the best you will do B. the better you will do
C. you will do better D. the gooder you will do
30. I met one of my old friends …………...
A. while I was doing the shopping in the supermarket two days ago.
B. when I did the shopping in the supermarket two days ago.
C. as I was done the shopping in the supermarket two days ago.
D. while I was doing the shopping to the supermarket two days ago.
correct word for each of the blanks from 41 to 45.
It can be shown in facts and figures that cycling is the cheapest, most convenient, and most
environmentally desirable form of transport (31) ______ towns, but such cold calculations do not
mean much on a frosty winter morning. The real appeal of cycling is that it is so (32) ______. It has
none of the difficulties and tensions of other ways of travelling so you are more cheerful after a ride,
even through the rush hour.
The first thing a non-cyclist says to you is: "But isn't it (33) ______ dangerous?" It would be foolish to
deny the danger of sharing the road with motor vehicles and it must be admitted that there are an
alarming (34) ______ of accidents involving cyclists. However, although police records (35) ______
that the car driver is often to blame, the answer lies with the cyclist. It is possible to ride in such a way
as to reduce risks to a minimum.
Question 31: A. at B. in C. to D. on
Question 32: A. careful B. boring C. enjoyable D. excited
Question 33: A. comfortably B. expectedly C. strangely D. terribly
Question 34: A. number B. deal C. size D. digit
Question 35: A. display B. exhibit C. point D. indicate
correct answer to each of the questions.
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an
empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have
something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children". They
are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a
subject of concern. Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, "We had a
school rule against wearing jewellery. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I
was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my
mind what they meant." Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began
talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents
were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in
three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were
worried about their own safety. The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by
hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn
the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are
slow to admit that they leave their children alone.
Question 36: The phrase “an empty house" in the passage mostly means ......
A. a house with no people inside B. a house with no furniture
C. a house with nothing inside D. a house with too much space
Question 37: One thing that the children in the passage share is that ......
A. they all watch TV B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they are from single-parent families D. they all wear jewelry
Question 38: The phrase “latchkey children" in the passage means children who ......
A. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
B. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
C. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
D. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
Question 39: The main problem of latchkey children is that they.......
A. are also found in middle-class families
B. watch too much television during the day
C. suffer a lot from being left alone
D. are growing in numbers
Question 40: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. How kids spend free time. B. Why kids hate going home.
C. Bad condition of latchkey children. D. Children's activities at home.
Question 41: Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?
A. They had to use the keys to open school doors.
B. Schools didn't allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead,
C. They were fully grown and had become independent.
D. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.
Question 42: What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?
A. Fear. B. Tiredness. C. Boredom. D. Loneliness.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages
can grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international
trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater
freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the
rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because
reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of
goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas
and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater
poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the
most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade
but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of
South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow
neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is,
industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of
money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized
by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the
economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out
of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against
globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The
question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is
whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition
takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be
regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global
scale.
From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]
Question 43: It is stated in the passage that ______.
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. supporters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
Question 44: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that ______.
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased D. investment will be allocated only to rich
countries
Question 45: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “_____”.
A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed
Question 46: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_____”.
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed D. prevents sellers from selling new products
Question 47: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich
because of ____.
A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies
Question 48: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____.
A. successful economies B. young companies C. development strategies D.young industries
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
Question 50: The debate over globalization is about how_____.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
PRACTICE TEST 11
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
EAT YOUR GREEN
People become vegetarians for a number of (1) _____. For some it’s an ethical (2) ____, as they don’t
like the idea of any animal suffering to provide them with food. For others, it might be for reasons of
health, culture or religion. Vegetarianism has been around for a long time. The earliest recorded
(3)_____ of vegetarianism were in India, but it was also (4)______ in ancient Greece in the 6th century
B.C. In both of these cultures, all forms of violence toward animals were strongly discouraged, and
vegetarianism was promoted by religious (5)______ and philosophers.
Question 1: A. motives B. explanations C. causes D. reasons
Question 2: A. subject B. issue C. theme D. topic
Question 3: A. examples B. choices C. samples D. selections
Question 4: A. worked B. rehearsed C. practiced D. used
Question 5: A. teams B. gangs C. groups D. bands
Mickey Mouse was not Walt Disney’s first successful cartoon creation, but he is certainly his most
famous one. It was on a cross-country train trip from New York to California in 1927 that Disney first drew
the mouse with the big ears. Supposedly, he took his inspiration from the tame field mice that used to
scamper into his studio in Danas City. No-one is quite sure why he dressed the mouse in the now-familiar
shorts with two buttons and gave him the yellow shoes. But we do know that Disney had intended to call
him Mortimer until his wife Lillian intervened and christened him Mickey Mouse.
Capitalizing on the interest in Charles Lindsborg, Disney planned Mickey’s debut in the short
cartoon Plane Crazy with Minnie as a co-star. In the third short cartoon, Steamboat Willie, Mickey was
whistling and singing through the miracle of the modern soundtrack. By the 1930s, Mickey’s image
had circled the globe. He was a superstar at the height of his career.
Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his life time, most notably the
addition of white gloves and rounder forms of a more childish body, he had remained true to his nature
since those first cartoons. Mickey is appealing because he is nice. He may get into trouble, but he
takes it on the chin with a grin. He is both good-natured and resourceful. Perhaps that was Disney’s
own image of himself. Why else would he have insisted on doing Mickey’s voice in all the cartoons
for twenty years? When interviewed, he would say, “There is a lot of the mouse in me”. And that
mouse has remained one of the most pervasive images in American popular culture.
Question 6: Which of the following is the main topic of this passage?
A. The history of cartoon. B. The life of Walt Disney.
C. The definition of American culture. D. The image of Mickey Mouse.
Question 7: What distinguished Steamboat Willie from earlier cartoons?
A. Better color B. The longer format
C. Minnie Mouse as co-star D. A sound track
Question 8: The word appealing in paragraph 3 means most nearly the same as _______
A. exceptional B. famous C. attractive D. distinguishable
Question 9: The word pervasive in paragraph 3could be best replaced by _______
A. often copied B. expensive to buy C. widespread D. well loved
Question 10: What did Disney mean when he said “There is a lot of the mouse in me”?
A. He was proud of the mouse that he created.
B. He created the mouse with many of his own qualities.
C. He had worked very hard to create the mouse.
D. He knew that the mouse would be a famous creation.
Question 11: The first image of Mickey Mouse is described as all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. He had big ears. B. He wore yellow shoes.
C. He was dressed in short with two buttons D. He was wearing white gloves.
Question 12: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses __________
A. other images in popular culture B. the voices of cartoon characters
C. the history of cartoons D. Walt Disney’s childhood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 13:A. supposed B. collected C. admired D. posed
Question 14:A. booth B. cloth C. breathe D. southern
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 15: After her mother died, she was raised by her grandparents.
A. put up B. brought up C. come into D. grown up
Question 16: In the end, her neighbor decided to speak his mind.
A. are given the right to B. say a few words
C. have a chat D. say exactly what he thought
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 17:The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. severe B. beneficial C. physical D. damaging
Question 18:We left New York when I was six; so my recollections of it are rather faint.
A. misunderstood B. clear C. ambiguous D. explanatory
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
Question 19: “It’s hard to get around because you don’t have a car.”
- “Not since I got used to _____ the bus.”
A. to ride B. riding C. ride D. to riding
Question 20: After finishing a degree in English, she went on _______Law at Harvard.
A. studying B. to study C. studied D. studying
Question 21: It is imperative _________towards a solution to global warming before the climate
patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably.
A. that the world worked B. that the world work
C. the world to work D. the world would work
Question 22: He hasn’t tried it himself. He would like to, _______.
A. though B. although C. even though D. despite
Question 23:We bought some __________glasses.
A. German lovely old B. German old lovely
C. lovely old German D. old lovely German
Question 24:The color of your shoes really _______that of your dress.
A. suits B. fits C. matches D. goes
Question 25: Only after I explained it to him __________the problem.
A. he understood B. did he understand C. he did understood D. did he understood
Question 26: During the early period of ocean navigation, _____any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques.
A. hardly was B. when there hardly was C. there was hardly D. so that hardly
Question 27:_____cricket, I enjoy watching football and basketball.
A. As well as B. Apart from C. In addition D. Beside
Question 28: Your voice is _______to hers and I sometimes can’t realize who I am talking to.
A. the same B. identical C. literary D. louder
Question 29: He was suffering from stress _________by overwork.
A. turned down B. taken up C. brought on D. put down
Question 30: I think you said she was out of work, _______?
A. don’t I B. don’t you C. didn’t you D. wasn’t she
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges
Question 31: Mary: “Thanks for helping me out.”
John: “ _______.”
A. It’s kind of you to say so B. That’s right C. You bet D. Don’t mention it
Question 32: Lucy: “A motorbike knocked Ted down."
Mark : "_________"
A. What is it now? B. What a motorbike! C. How terrific! D. Poor Ted!
Most people go to a doctor in their own town or suburbs. But people in the Australian outback
can’t get a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of kilometers away so they have
to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called the “flying doctor”. He visits sick people
by plane for a special examination.
When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on a flat
piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patent to hospital.
Flying doctors takes about 8,600 people to hospitals each year.
However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to visit. He
can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell the patient to use
some medicine chest. There is one of these chests in every home in the outback. Each bottle, tube and
packet in the chest has a number. The doctor often says something like this, “Take two tablets from
bottle number 5 every 4 hours.”
A man called John Flynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. He had only one
plane. Today there are 14 flying-doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and several part-time
doctors, nurses and dentists.
Question 33: The flying doctors mentioned in this passage treat their patients _______
A. in hospital B. over great distance C. by telepathy D. by plane
Question 34: Which happens first?
A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home.
B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way radio.
C. The plane lands near the patient’s house.
D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio.
Question 35: From the article, we can assume that Australia has quite a number of _______.
A. remote areas B. good highways C. mountainous regions D. strange animals
Question 36: The word outback mostly means ____.
A. a large field of the Aborigines B. an isolated island
C. a vast and remote area D. a far-off forest
Question 37: The fleet initially was _______
A. very small B. full-scaled C. very large D. relatively big
Question 38: The word chest in this context probably means _____ .
A. a body part B. a machine C. a remote control D. a small box
Question 39:When a patient needs a special examination, the doctor has to ______
A. take him/her to a special holy place B. fly him/her to a military clinic
C. give him/her all kinds of medicine D. fly to the patient’s place
Question 40: The writer of this passage shows a/an ______attitude to the flying-doctor service.
A. critical B. supportive C. curious D. indifferent
Question 41:
It was suggested that he studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam
. A B C D
Question 42: Five miles beyond the hills were a fire with its flames reaching up to the sky.
A B C D
Question 43: Alike all other mammals, dolphins have lungs.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is
different from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 44:A. experimental B. confidentially C. centenarian D. insupportable
Question 45: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If he were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 47: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and the drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drink.
B. The hostess tried hard to please the guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
Question 48: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
pair of the sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
D. Jim, his car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
Question 50: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue his work.
A. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue his work.
B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue his work.
C. Feeling tired, he was determined to continue his work.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue his work
PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. outstanding B. victim C. castle D. title
Question 2: A. walked B. talked C. marked D. crooked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 3: Computer hardware and software have been enormously beneficial in the editing of
newspapers, magazines and journals.
A. tremendously B. slightly C. massively D. immensely
Question 4: Mosquitoes and other parasite insects can be so bothersome to deer that entire herds have
been known to throw themselves off cliffs to be rid of the incessant attacks.
A. irritating B. excessive C. comfortable D. annoying
correction in the questions
Question 5: Because of the light, the city looked differently from the way that I had remembered it.
A B C D
Question 6: Of the two lectures, the first was by far the best, partly because the person who delivered it
A B C D
had such a dynamic style.
Question 7: I have three brothers; one is a farmer, another is a dentist, and other a teacher.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in the following questions.
Question 8: A. certificate B. kindergarten C. compliment D. general
Question 9: A. information B. generation C. television D. education
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions
One of the most popular foods in the world today is pizza. Pizza restaurants are popular
everywhere from Beijing to Moscow to Rio, and even in the United States, the home of the hamburger,
there are more pizza restaurants than hamburger places. This worldwide love of pizza is a fair recent
phenomenon. Before the 1950s, pizza was a purely Italian food, with a long history in southern Italy.
The origins of pizza are somewhat uncertain, though they may go back to the Greeks (pita bread) or
even earlier. Under the Roman Empire, Italians often ate flat circles of bread, which they may have
flavoured with olive oil, cheese and herbs. By about the year 1,000 A.D. in the area around Naples,
this bread had a name: picea. This early kind of pizza lacked one of the main ingredients we associate
with pizza – the tomato. In fact, tomatoes did not exist in Europe until the sixteenth century, when
Spanish explorers brought them back from South America. The Spanish showed little interest in
tomatoes, but southern Italians soon began to cultivate them and use them in cooking. At some point in
the 1960s, Neapolitan tomatoes were added to pizza, as it was known by then.
The next development in pizza making came bout, according to legend, in June 1889, when a
Neapolitan pizza maker was asked to make pizza for the king and the queen. To show his patriotism,
he decided to make it green, white and red, like the Italian flag, using basil leaves, mozzarella and
tomatoes. He named his pizza “Margherrita”, after the queen, and that is what this classic kind of pizza
is still called today. In Italy, pizza remained a specialty of Naples and other areas in the south until the
20th century. Then, in the 1950s and 60s, when many southerners moved to the north to work in the
new factories, pizzerias opened up in many northern Italian cities. By the 1980s, they could be found all
over the country and pizza had become a part of Italian way of life.
Today pizza has become so common in so many countries that its Italian origins are often forgotten.
Indeed, the global versions of pizza made with all kinds of ingredients have little in common with the
Neapolitan original, as anyone knows who has tasted a pizza in Naples.
Question 10: The early version of pizza in Naples ______.
A. did not have a name B. lacked many main ingredients
C. had a Greek name D. did not have tomatoes
Question 11: The author says that the love for pizza _______.
A. just started a few decades ago B. started first in Rome
C. has a long history D. is quite new
Question 12: The origin of pizza is __________.
A. thought to begin in the 1950s B. uncertain
C. well-known D. confirmed
Question 13: The Spanish at first ______.
A. knew tomatoes from Europe B. grew tomatoes in farms
C. were not much keen on tomatoes D. added tomatoes to pizza in the 1960s
Question 14: Nowadays, there is ______ similarity between global versions of pizza and its original version.
A. much B. not much C. not D. no
Question 15: According to the passage, the pizza maker made the pizza colourful to _______.
A. give it an interesting look. B. catch the king and the queen’s attention
C. show he loved his country D. make it look delicious
Question 16: The best title of the passage is _______.
A. The history of pizza B. The reason why pizza becomes so popular
C. The main ingredients of pizza D. The globalization of pizza
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for
each of the blanks
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on
at school and hopefully go on to university (17) ______? Do I leave and start work or begin a training
(18) ______ ?
The decision is yours, but it may be worth remembering two things. There is more unemployment
(19) ______ people who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right skills will have a
big advantage in the competitions for jobs.
If you decide to go straight into a job, there are more opportunities for training. Getting
qualifications will (20) ______ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow
you to learn while you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (21)
______ possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days as well as getting practical
work experience.
Question 17: A. later B. after C. then D. past
Question 18: A. course B. class C. school D. term
Question 19: A. with B. between C. among D. through
Question 20: A. let B. make C. help D. give
Question 21: A. another B. again C. also D. always
Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete each of the sentences
Question 22: If I had listened to my parents, I ______ in trouble now.
A. wouldn’t have been B. don’t have to C. am not D. wouldn’t be
Question 23: Heavy snowfall made______ planes to land or take off.
A. it impossible for B. it impossible C. impossible for D. impossible
Question 24: I wonder if you could ______ a favour.
A. do B. give C. bring D. make
Question 25: Her brother was offered the manager’s job, but he ______. He said he didn’t want the
responsibility.
A. turned it off B. threw it away C. put it off D. turned it down
Question 26: During the interview, it’s important to make a good impression ______ your interviewer.
A. to B. at C. on D. with
Question 27: Hamlet, ______ Shakespeare in 1600, is considered to be his greatest work.
A. writing by B. written by C. that was written by D. which written by
Question 28: E-mails allow people ______ in touch, regardless of distance.
A. staying B. to have stayed C. stay D. to stay
Question 29: I’m afraid I don’t ______ your view on this matter, Jim.
A. share B. agree C. have the same D. accord
Question 30: Do you ______ your roommate, or do you two argue?
A. keep in touch with B. get used to C. get along with D. get away with
Question 31: Jim’s father agreed to buy him a new cell phone ______ he took lessons.
A. in case B. unless C. as long as D. otherwise
Question 32: ______ migrate long distances is well documented.
A. It is birds that B. That is birds C. That birds D. Birds that
Question 33: ______ global solidarity, the world would not be better prepared for the influenza H1N1
pandemic.
A. On account of B. If not C. But for D. Thanks to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges
Question 34: “Sorry, I’m late.” – “______.”
A. That’s all right. B. No, I wouldn’t mind at all.
C. Not on my account. D. Well, it’s worth a try.
Question 35: “I think women are usually better with children than men.” - “______.”
A. Why not? B. That’s right C. No problem D. No, it isn’t
pair of the sentences in the following questions
Question 36: The boy didn’t have any friends. He felt lonely.
A. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.
B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.
C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.
D. Having no friends, the boy felt lonely.
Question 37: Paul was absent so often. He failed the examination.
A. Paul's frequent absence cost him his chance of passing the examination.
B. Being absent so often caused Paul fail his examination.
C. Paul failed his examination although he was absent quite often.
D. Paul's failure in his examination accounted for his frequent absence.
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions
These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees
have made their way from South America to North America. Killer bees are reported to be extremely
aggressive in nature, although experts say that their aggression many have been somewhat inflated.
The killer bee is a hybrid – or combination – of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the
considerably more agreesive African bees, which was created when the African strain was imported
into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was
considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they
spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued to work longer in inclement weather
than did the European bees.
These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have
occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all
as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A
killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a
disturbed bee stings and flies away, it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached
to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odour that attracts other bees.
As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, this disturbing other
bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate, which
attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters
or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.
Question 38: The main idea of the passage is that killer bees ______.
A. have been in the news a lot recently
B. are not as aggressive as their reputation suggests
C. have been moving unexpectedly rapidly through the Americas
D. are a hybrid rather than a pure breed
Question 39: The word inflated could be best replaced by _________.
A. exaggerated B. blown C. aired D. burst
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that the killer bee ______.
A. travelled from Brazil to Africa in 1955
B. was a predecessor of the African bee
C. was carried from Africa to Brazil in 1955
D. did not exist early in the twentieth century
Question 41: Why were African bees considered beneficial?
A. They produced an unusual type of honey. B. They spent their time travelling.
C. They were very aggressive. D. They hid from inclement weather.
Question 42: The word hybrid is _______.
A. a mixture B. a relative C. a predecessor D. an enemy
Question 43: It is stated in the passage that killer bees _______.
A. are more deadly than African bees B. never attack animals
C. always attack African bees D. are less aggressive than African bees
Question 44: The word They refers to ______.
A. Killer bees B. Humans and animals C. Fatalities D. Experts
Question 45: What is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees?
A. Panic by the victim B. An odorous chemical
C. Inclement weather D. Disturbance of the bees
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from
Question 46: Since the widespread use of chemical pesticides, scientists have documented pesticide
resistance in more than 500 species of insects.
A. noticed B. recorded C. viewed D. reviewed
Question 47: Trees have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear fruit.
A. trimmed B. weeded C. harvested D. fertilized
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 48: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
Question 49: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
Question 50: In spite of his tiredness, Kevin managed to finish his work.
A. Although he is tired, Kevin managed to finish his work.
B. Kevin managed to finish his work but he is tired.
C. Despite he was tired, Kevin managed to finish his work.
D. Tired as he seemed to be, Kevin managed to finish his work.
PRACTICE TEST 13
Question 1:A. area B. arrange C. arise D. arrive
Question 2:A. forced B. locked C. touched D. reserved
Question 3: They drove fifteen miles off the main road. Also, they had nothing to eat for the day.
A. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
B. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
C. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the day.
D. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day.
Question 4: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
A. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning,
C. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
D. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
Question 5: A. preview B. commit C. recipe D. index
Question 6: A. continental B. considerate C. territorial D. economic
Question 7: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.
A. have been B. The C. together with D. to court
Question 8: My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures for his new house.
A. for B. just bought C. furnitures D. some
Question 9: Women's movements work for the purpose of guaranteeing women the enjoyment of
human rights and fundamental freedoms on a basis of equal with men.
A. guaranteeing B. for the purpose C. of equal D. rights and
Question 10: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. connect B. put together C. cooperate D. separate
Question 11: You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the
graduation exam
A. wear a backpack B. check up your back C.praise yourself D. criticize yourself
Question 12: Trang: "I live in Vietnam.” Thomas: "______”
A. How about in Hanoi? B. Whereabouts? C. About where? D. What is it about?
Question 13: Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected."
Thomas: "______."
A. That's brilliant enough! B. Good Heavens!
C. Never mind, better job next time! D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Question 14: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. confided himself B. went up C. surrendered D. accommodated himself
Question 15: For many people, business socializing is a very important aspect of working life - but some people
find it quite tricky, especially if English isn’t their first language.
A. strict B. difficult C. endurable D. ingenious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 16: By the end of next year, George ______ English for 2 years.
A. would learn B. will have learnt C. will have D. has learnt
Question 17: Neither Peter nor his parents______ going to spend the summer abroad.
A. is B. are C. was D. has been
Question 18: The Lake District, ______was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number of tourists
every year.
A. which B. that C. where D. what
Question 19: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid ______ we asked.
A. four times as much as B. four time much than
C. four time as many as D. four times much as
Question 20: ______ my mother’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have made such a daring decision.
A. In spite B. Providing C. Until D. But for
Question 21: Fiona loves reading______ novels in her leisure time to help her unwind from her hectic life.
A. escaping B. escapist C. escapable D. escapism
Question 22: The politician tried to arouse the crowd, but most of them were______ to his arguments.
A. closed B. careless C. indifferent D. dead
Question 23: After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst______ in the last fifty
years.
A. draughts B. floods C. eruptions D. droughts
Question 24: John failed again. He______ harder.
A. may have tried B. must have tried C. can tried D. should have tried
Question 25: The kind-hearted woman______ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. wasted B. lived C. spent D. dedicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: Mum bought a lottery ticket. She won a big prize three days later.
A. Mum bought a lottery ticket three days after she had won a big prize.
B. Before Mum won a big prize three days, she had bought a lottery ticket.
C. Three days after Mum had bought a lottery ticket, she won a big prize.
D. After Mum had bought a lottery ticket three days, she won a big prize.
Question 27: Their party was a din. I was unable to concentrate on my work.
A. Their party made a din for me to be able to concentrate on my work.
B. The din coming from their party could make me not concentrate on my work.
C. Their party was such a din that I was unable to concentrate on my work.
D. The din from their party enabled me to concentrate on my work.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions
below it.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery
has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was
passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that
provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses,
those forms have not much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of
ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a
simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny
electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal
ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than
atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the
world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with
incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances. To
generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to
drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting
the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always
the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant
used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation. Now
scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment.
They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap
sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the
capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be
viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 28: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph
to______.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
C. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
D. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
Question 29: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Generators or turbines. B. Electric magnets. C. Voltages. D. Pipes and radiators,
Question 30: Electric magnets are used in steel works to______.
A. test the steel for strength B. boil a jug of water
C. lift heavy weights up to ten tons D. heat the molten steel
Question 31: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are______.
A. atomic power and water B. sunlight and wind power
C. wind and gas D. water and coal
Question 32: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be made with ease. D. It can be adapted to various uses.
Question 33: The best title for this passage could be______
A. "Types of Power Plants” B. "How to Produce Electricity”
C. "Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life” D. "Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
Question 34: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that
they______.
A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable
C. do not require attention D. are more adaptable
Question 35: The word "they" in the paragraph refers to______.
A. the tides B. scientists C. new ways D. harmful effects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 36: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colours.
A. That his brother graduated with flying colours must have been appreciated by him.
B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.
C. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.
D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colourful baloon.
Question 37: “Send this urgent document immediately!” the officer told the soldier.
A. The officer ordered the soldier to deliver the urgent document instantly.
B. The officer advised the soldier to send the urgent document right away.
C. The officer requested that the soldier rush out due to the document’s urgency.
D. The officer recommended the soldier leave right away because of the urgent document.
Question 38: The president placed his car at my disposal as a bonus for my good work.
A. To get rid of the car, the president decided to sell it to me, his good worker, at a bonus price.
B. I was willing to drive the president’s car as a compliment for my good performance at work.
C. In order to praise me as a good worker, the president took me home in his own car.
D. To show his appreciation for my good work, the president allowed me to use his car whenever I liked.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
No one can say when sports began. Since it is impossible to (39) ______ a time when children did not
spontaneously run races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play,
but one can only speculate about the emergence of sports as autotelic physical contests for
(40)______ . Hunters are depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known (41)..... the hunters
pursued their prey in a mood of grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. It is certain,
(42)______, from the rich literary and iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that hunting
soon became an end in itself at least for royalty and nobility. Archaeological evidence also indicates
that ball games were common among ancient peoples as different as the Chinese and the Aztecs. If ball
games were contests rather than (43) ______ ritual performances, such as the Japanese football game
kemari, then they were sports in the most rigorously defined sense. That it cannot simply be assumed
that they were contests is clear from the evidence presented by Greek and Roman antiquity, which
indicates that ball games had been for the most part playful pastimes like those recommended for
health by the Greek physician Galen in the 2nd century AD.
Question 39: A. think B. see C. have D. imagine
Question 40: A. people B. children C. adult D. society
Question 41: A. when B. whether C. how D. why
Question 42: A. therefore B. so C. consequently D. however
Question 43: A. competitive B. competitively C. non-competitive D. competition
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of
language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is
pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by
speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and
melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or
fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and
above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here, the participant’s tone can consciously or
unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety,
enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener.
Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques
for obtaining effects by voice and/or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of
singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create
empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and
emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy,
aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a
clue to the façade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident
front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given
conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the
speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by
constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.
A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles
C. The production of speech D. The connection between voice and personality
Question 45: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words “chosen"?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 46: The word “Here” in line 9 refers to______.
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Question 47: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's______.
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 48: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide______.
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 49: The word “drastically” is closest in meaning to______.
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Question 50: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. lethargy B. depression C. boredom D. anger
PRACTICE TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined parts’ pronunciation is
different from the others.
Question 1:A. private B. active C. right D. minority
Question 2:A. beliefs B. towards C. rights D. overlooks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. investigate B. aborigine C. convenient D. supervisor
Question 4: A. determine B. diversity C. occupation D. miraculous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The students have to sift through all the journals in the library to find the information their professor
want them to find.
A. sort and select from B. read carefully C. immaculately tidy up D. go over
Question 6: I wanted to prove to my family that I could make something of myself.
A. get through the difficult times by myself B. put my back into studying
C. make up my mind without any help D. become successful through my own efforts
correction.
Question 7: Having served lunch, the committee members discussed the problem among themselves.
A. discussed B. Having served C. among themselves D. the committee members
Question 8: Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
A. confusing B. the C. unclear D. Almost
Question 9: Although assemblage has been a part of art for centuries, its appearance in the West as a
serious art form is quite fairly recent.
A. a part of B. quite fairly C. has been D. its appearance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 10: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carried out the
manned space activities.
A. put off B. put on C. put up D. put in
Question 11: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 12: Tom: "Can I bring a friend to your party?" Mary: "______"
A. That's right B. Beggars can't be choosers
C. straight away D. The more the merrier
Question 13: Dick: “You haven’t done your homework, have you, Don?
Sarah: “______”
A. Not till tomorrow, Dad. B. But I did, Dad.
C. I was assigned two days ago. D. Yes, I haven’t.
Question 14: The accident is said ______ the driver's careless driving and the thick fog.
A. having resulted in B. to have resulted from
C. to have been resulted in D. to result from
Question 15: Since drinking water is a ______ resource, we should let children know how precious it is, and
teach them to conserve it.
A. limiting B. limitless C. limitation D. limited
Question 16: The number of people travelling by air has been growing______
A. by hook or by crook B. from time to time C. by leaps and bounds D. slow but sure
Question 17: When disaster______, organizations such as Oxfam quickly provide help.
A. comes B. strikes C. arrives D. approaches
Question 18: ___to caring for the poor, Mother Teresa is greatly respected throughout the world.
A. Devoting B. Having devoted C. Devoted D. Being devoted
Question 19: The boss told the workers that he would try his best to continue running the company and
promised not to ______ any employees during the economic recession.
A. shut down B. lay off C. cross out D. take over
Question 20: It ______ me as strange that my front door was open when I got home.
A. struck B. appeared C. occurred D. seemed
Question 21: The film didn’t really______ our expectation, unfortunately.
A. put in for B. come up to C. fall short of D. meet with
Question 22: ______to get through to Jackie for days now. Either she’s away or her phone’s out of order. A. I
had tried B. I’m trying C. I’ve been trying D. I tried
Question 23: many gases, including the nitrogen and oxygen in the air, ______color and odor.
A. they do not have B. have no C. which have no D. not having
Question 24: Mary walked away from the discussion. Otherwise, she ______ something she would regret later.
A. might have said B. might say C. said D. will say
Question 25: Nobody can ______ how long we will be able to live in the 21st century.
A. predict B. forewarn C. forego D. forbid
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
We know that there is no life on Mars. The Viking robot missions to the Red Planet proved that. The
mission was (26) ______ to one man for the most part. Percival Lowell, a rich American businessman,
suggested that Mars contained life. He was fascinated by Mars. He spent 23 years studying it. He was
so (27) ______ involved in the search for Martian life that he built his own laboratory. It housed a
huge telescope. At 7,000 feet (2.13km) (28) ______ sea level in a dry climate, it was a perfect site to
view Mars. Lowell believed that he saw a network of lines (29) ______Mars. He also thought that the
lines were built by intelligent life. There was also the chance that water was on the planet. He drew
many maps in his notebooks. His idea (30) ______ the public's attention. People soon believed that life
on Mars could exist.
Question 26:A. instead B. due C. because D. except
Question 27:A. deeply B. deepen C. deep D. depth
Question 28:A. above B. up C. over D. on
Question 29:A. cross B. crossing C. to cross D. crossed
Question 30:A. achieved B. made C. absorbed D. drew
Question 31: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Tam Vy.”
A. Tam Vy’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. It is doctor’s recommendation that Tam Vy rested shortly.
C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
D. The doctor suggested that Tam Vy should take a short rest.
Question 32: Living in Sapa is strange to her.
A. She’s not used to living in Sapa. B. She is used living in Sapa.
C. She’s not used to live in Sapa. D. She used to live in Sapa.
Question 33: The police questioned two men but neither of them could speak English.
A. The police questioned two men who could not speak English.
B. The police questioned two Englishmen in English.
C. Either of the men could answer the police questions in English.
D. Neither of the Englishmen was questioned by the police.
What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason as anything falls to Earth. The Earth's
gravity pulls it. But every cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals. Why doesn't rain or snow fall
constantly from all clouds? The droplets or ice crystals in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of
gravity on them is minute. Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward displacement
is zero, even though the droplets are in constant motion.
Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air made visible in a shaft of sunlight. To
the casual observer, dust seems to act in a totally random fashion, moving about chaotically without
fixed direction. But in fact dust particles are much larger than water droplets and they finally fall. The
cloud droplet of average size is only 1/2500 inch in diameter. It is so small that it would take sixteen
hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air, and it does not fall out of moving air at all. Only when the
droplet grows to a diameter of 1/125 inch or larger can it fall from the cloud. The average raindrop
contains a million times as much water as a tiny cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size
large enough to fall out is the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation. This important growth
process is called "coalescence."
A. The mechanics of rain B. The climate of North America
C. How gravity affects agriculture D. Types of clouds
Question 35: The word “minute” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. second B. tiny C. slow D. predictable
Question 36: Why don't all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to earth?
A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.
B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.
C. They are kept aloft by air currents.
D. The heat from the sun's rays melts them.
Question 37: The word “visible” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. uncertain B. vague C. invisible D. obvious
Question 38: What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in diameter?
A. They never occur.
B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.
C. In still air they would fall to earth.
D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty-two miles per hour.
Question 39: In this passage, what does the term “coalescence” refer to______.
A. The gathering of small clouds to form larger clouds
B. The growth of droplets
C. The fall of raindrops and other precipitation
D. The movement of dust particles in the sunlight
Question 40: What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?
A. 1/16 inch B. 1/125 inch C. 1/2500 inch D. One million of an inch
One of the most difficult questions to answer is how much a job is worth. We naturally expect that a
doctor's salary will be higher than a bus conductor's wage. But the question becomes much more
difficult to answer when we compare, say, a miner with an engineer, or an unskilled man working on
an oil-rig in the North Sea with a teacher in a secondary school. What the doctor, the engineer and
teacher have is many years of training in order to obtain the necessary qualifications for their
professions. We feel instinctively that these skills and these years, when they were studying instead of
earning money, should be rewarded. At the same time we recognize that the work of the miner and the
oil-rig laborer is both hard and dangerous, and that they must be highly paid for the risks they take.
Another factor we must take into consideration is how socially useful a man's work is, regardless of
the talents he may bring to it. Most people would agree that looking after the sick or teaching children
is more important than, say, selling secondhand cars or improving the taste of toothpaste by adding a
red stripe to it. Yet it is almost certain that the used car salesman earns more than the nurse, and that
research chemist earns more than the school teacher.
Indeed, this whole question of just rewards can be turned on its head. You can argue that a man who
does a job which brings him personal satisfaction is already receiving part of his reward in the form of
a so-called "psychic wage", and that it is the man with the boring, repetitive job who needs more
money to make up for the soul-destroying monotony of his work. It is significant that that those jobs
which are traditionally regarded as "vocations" - nursing, teaching and the Church, for example -
continue to be poorly paid, while others, such as those in the world of sport or entertainment, carry
financial rewards out of all proportion to their social worth.
Although the amount of money that people earn is in reality largely determined by market forces, this
should not prevent us from seeking some way to decide what is the right pay for the job. A starting
point for such an investigation would be to try to decide the ratio which ought to exist between the
highest and the lowest paid.
The picture is made more complicate by two factors: firstly by the "social wage", i.e., the welfare
benefits which every citizen receives; and secondly, by the taxation system, which is often used as an
instrument of social justice by taxing high incomes at a very high rate indeed. Allowing for these two
things, most countries now regard a ratio of 7:1 as socially acceptable. If it is less, the highly-qualified
people carrying heavy responsibilities become disillusioned, and might even end up by emigration
(the so-called "brain-drain" is an evidence that this can happen). If it is more, the gap between rich
and poor will be so great that it will lead social tensions and ultimately to violence.
(Adapted from “How Much Is Job Worth?”)
Question 41: The author mentions "brain-drain" as an evidence to show that______.
A. well-educated people are prepared to emigrate whenever they can get a better paid job
B. high taxation is a useful and effective instrument of social justice
C. the poor are generally more patriotic than the rich
D. people with jobs or responsibility expect to be highly paid
Question 42: The word "disillusioned" in the passage is closest in meaning to______.
A. disagreeable B. disenchanted C. discreditable D. dishonest
Question 43: According to the passage, the professional man, such as the doctor, should be well paid
because______.
A. he has to work much harder than most other people
B. he has spent several years learning how to do his job
C. his work involves much great intelligence than, say, a bus conductor's
D. he knows more than other people about his subject
Question 44: The argument of the "psychic wage" is used to explain why______.
A. you should not try to compare the pay of different professions
B. some professional people are paid more than others
C. people who do socially important work are not always well paid
D. people who do monotonous jobs are highly paid
Question 45: Which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. People should find a proper ratio between high and low pay.
B. Those receiving high salary should carry heavy responsibilities.
C. The market will decide what the right pay is for a job.
D. It's difficult to define the social value of a job.
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that a man who does a boring, repetitive job______.
A. should receive more money as a compensation for the drudgery of his work
B. can only expect more money if his job is a highly-skilled one
C. has no interest in his work apart from the money he receives for doing it
D. receives less money than he deserves
Question 47: In Paragraph 2 and 3, the author indicates that______.
A. unskilled jobs have less social responsibility
B. people want to pay more to important services
C. the talented should do more important work
D. those with more socially useful jobs earn less
Question 48: As far as rewarding people for their work is concerned, the writer, believes that______.
A. market forces will determine how much a person is paid
B. qualified people should be the highest paid
C. we should pay people according to their talents
D. we should pay for socially-useful work, regardless of the person's talent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the
pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.
Question 49: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
Question 50: He didn't take his father's advice. That's why he is out of work.
A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
PRACTICE TEST 15
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1. A. knowledge B. towards C. forward D. award
Question 2. A. laughed B. ploughed C. coughed D. disliked
Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others.
Question 3. A. application B. advisable C. denial D. adventure
Question 4. A. volunteer B. competition C. advantage D. capability
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 5. The purpose of the United Nations, broadly speaking, is to maintain peace and
A
security and encourages respect for human rights.
B C D
Question 6: Being sick is the ultimate weapon that some children use so that to get their parents'
A B C
attention and to make sure that their demands are met
D
Question 7: Not only the number of mahogany trees has decreased markedly during the last
A B
decade, but other valuable trees are becoming scarcer and scarcer as well.
C D
Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words
or phrases.
Question 8 She asked me ______ I was looking at.
A. if B. what C. when D. why
Question 9. The reason why this game attracts so many youngster is that ____ other video games, this
one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to B. in compared with C. on comparison to D.in comparison with
Question 10. Gale-force winds caused destruction _______ the buildings ______ the seafront.
A. to / along B. of / in C. for / by D. with / on
Question 11. Human carelessness has been ______ damaging marine life.
A. accused of B. prevented C. said to D. warned against
Question 12. Anne was not______ to think that the test was too difficult.
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 13. The teacher always ______that the student make an outline before writing the complete
essay.
A. reports B. tells C. says D. recommends
Question 14. Education in many countries is compulsory _____ the age of 16.
A. for B. forwards C. until D. when
Question 15. Helen is ___________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to
Question 16. ___________one day by a passing car, the dog never walked proper again.
A. Having injured B. Injuring C. Injured D. To be injured
Question 17. Poor management brought the company to ___________of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
Question 18. It never ___________ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
Question 19. The doctors are examining the dog______the child for rabies, which is a dangerous
disease ______ immediate treatment
A. biting/ required B. bitten/ required C. bitten/ requiring D. biting/ requiring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmea
ning to each of the following questions.
Question 20. The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the President.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
Question 21. A house in that district will cost at least $ 100,000.
A. If you have $ 100,000, you can buy a house in that district.
B. $ 100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district.
C. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for more than $ 100,000.
D. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for less than $ 100,000.
Question 22. To get to work on time, they have to leave at 6.00 a.m.
A. They always leave for work at 6.00 a.m.
B. Getting to work on time, for them, means leaving at 6.00 am
C. They have to leave very early to catch a bus to work
D. Leaving at 6.00 am, they have never been late for work.
complete each of the following exchanges
Question 23. “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” -“_____________”
A. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk.B. You will be OK.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. I’m afraid you will have to do it.
Question 24. " Would you like another coffee?" - "__________________"
A. I'd love one B. Willingly C. Very kind of your part D. It's a pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined words in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning
money.
A. fearsome B. expected C. excited D. optimistic
Question 26. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 27. The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A.look down on B. put up with C. take away from D. give on to
Question 28. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A.unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 29: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It
greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for
the experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the
experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn't
genuine.
Question 30: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business
If you're an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become
a symbol of our wasteful, throwaway society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the
truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous ___(31)___ even environmental evil- it's the way
society chooses to uses and ___(32)___ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal- non-
renewable natural ___(33)___. We import well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each
year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual consumption is in
the form of packaging, and this constitutes about seven per cent by weight of our domestic refuse.
Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling ___(34)___ is
growing fast.The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich- they have a higher calorific vatue than
coal and one ___(35)___ of "recovery" strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the
conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.
Question 31. A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits
Question 32. A. abuse B. endanger C. store D. dispose
Question 33. A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels
Question 34. A. industry B. manufacture C. plant D. factory
Question 35. A. medium B. method C. measure D. mechanism
What we today call American folk art was, indeed, art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday "folks"
who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds, and especially for
portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics - whether ancient Romans,
seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century Americans - have always shown a marked
taste for portraiture. Starting in the late eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing
numbers of such people, and of the artists who could meet their demands.
The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England - especially
Connecticut and Massachusetts - for this was a wealthy and populous region and the center of a strong
craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the Declaration of Independence in 1776, the
population was pushing westward, and portrait painters could be found at work in western New York,
Ohio, Kentucky, Illinois, and Missouri. Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States'
population had increased roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original
thirteen. During these years the demand for portraits grew and grew, eventually to be satisfied by the
camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in the age of photography,
and within a generation the new invention put an end to the popularity of painted portraits. Once again
an original portrait became a luxury, commissioned by the wealthy and executed by the professional.
But in the heyday of portrait painting - from the late eighteenth century until the 1850's -anyone with
a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a portraitist was called. Local craftspeople
- sign, coach, and house painters - began to paint portraits as a profitable sideline; sometimes a talented
man or woman who began by sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged
with requests for portraits; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and
brushes and to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting.
Question 36. In lines 3- 4 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an example of a
group that____.
A. consisted mainly of self-taught artists B. appreciated portraits
C. influenced American folk art D. had little time for the arts
Question 37. According to the passage, where were many of the first American folk art portraits
painted?
A. In western New York B. In Illinois and Missouri
C. In Connecticut and Massachusetts D. In Ohio
Question 38. The word this refers to____.
A. a strong craft tradition B. American folk art C. New England D. western New York
Question 39. How much did the population of the United Stats increase in the first fifty years
following independence?
A. It became three times larges B. It became five times larger
C. It became eleven times larger D. It became thirteen times larger
Question 40. The phrase ushering in is closest meaning to____.
A. beginning B. demanding C. publishing D. increasing
Questio 41. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in the demand
for painted portraits?
A. The lack of a strong craft tradition B. The westward migration of many painters
C. The growing preference for landscape paintings D. The invention of the camera
Question 42. The phrase worth their while in line 21 is closest in meaning to____.
A. essential B. educational C. profitable D. pleasurable
Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the
U.S. Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being
homeschooled. Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the
ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every
year.
At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students
who could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more
parents are taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their
dissatisfaction with the educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as
problems inside the classroom. Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one
teacher is responsible for thirty or forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention
they need. Escalating classroom violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children
from school.
Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has
become a multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of
websites, support groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to
learn more about educating their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children,
homeschooling today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
Question 43. The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “_____at
home”.
A. taught B. self-learned C. untaught D. self-studied
Question 44. This estimated number was presented by _____.
A. a governmental office B. school teachers C. the parents D. homeschooled children
Question 45. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the
last year of the 20th century must be _____.
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
Question 46. More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational
system.
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
Question 47. The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by
“_____”.
A. rows B. quarrels C. viewpoints D. discussions
Question 48. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____
A. acceptable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable
Question 49. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____.
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same C. going up D. going down
Question 50. Which is the best tittle for the passage?
A. Reasons for Homeschooling in the USA. B. The Trend of homeschooling in the USA.
C. Homeschooling - one of the ways of education in the USA. D. Education system in the USA.
PRACTICE TEST 16
Question 1: A. experienced B. worked C. watched D. arrived
Question 2: A. bought B. caught C. ought D. laughed
Question 3: A. important B. commitment C. applicant D. together
Question 4: A. necessity B. professional C. appropriate D. economics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 5: A customs union is an organization of autonomous country that agree that international
trade between member states is free of restrictions.
A. boring B. massive C. dependent D. prosperous
Question 6: The point at which pain becomes intolerable is known as the pain perception threshold.
A. elusive B. altered C. intensified D. bearable
Question 7: The explorers were too tired that they found a site to camp overnight.
A B C D
Question 8: We are working, that means that we are contributing goods and services to our society.
A B C D
Question 9: What I told her a few days ago were not the solution to most of her problems.
A B C D
correct answer to each of the questions from 10 to 16
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car
of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of
automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as
electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is
the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other
dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric
vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood
cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are
focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging
facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in
commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while
they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient
parking in transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit
centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of
electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline
hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling
five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
Question 10: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
A. vans B. trolleys C. trains D. planes
Question 11: The author’s purpose in the passage is to ______
A. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars
C. criticize conventional vehicles
D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
Question 12: The passage would most likely be followed by details about
A. pollution restrictions in the future B. automated freeways
C. electric shuttle buses D. the neighborhood of the future
Question 13: In the second paragraph, the author implies that ______.
A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
Question 14: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ______.
A. as common as today’s gas stations B. equipped with charging devices
C. more convenient than they are today D. much larger than they are today
Question 15: The word “foresee” in this passage could best be replaced with ______.
A. rely on B. imagine C. count on D. invent
Question 16: The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. shoppers B. cab drivers C. daily travelers D. visitors
Question 17. If only I had taken that job in the bank.
A. I wish I took that job in the bank. B. I regret not taking that job in the bank.
C. I wish I have taken that job in the bank. D. I regret not take that job in the bank.
Question 18. They left early because they didn’t want to get caught in the traffic.
A. They left early so as to not get caught in the traffic.
B. They left early so that they not to get caught in the traffic.
C. They left early in order to not get caught in the traffic.
D. They left early to avoid getting caught in the traffic.
Question 19. I tried hard. I couldn’t open the door.
A. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t open the door.
B. Try as hard as I might, I couldn’t open the door.
C. It is difficult for me to open the door.
D. I could open the door with difficulty.
Question 20. I lost my key. I had to wait in the dark for hours.
A. Having to wait in the dark for hours because I had lost my key.
B. If I hadn’t lost my key, I wouldn’t have had to wait in the dark for hours.
C. If I hadn’t lost my key, I wouldn’t have to wait in the dark for hours.
D. If I didn’t lose my key, I wouldn’t have to wait in the dark for hours.
Question 21. He is very hardworking and well-behaved. This pleases his parents a lot.
A. He is very hardworking and well-behaved, that pleases his parents a lot.
B. He is very hardworking and well-behaved, which never pleases his parents.
C. He is very hardworking and well-behaved, which disappoints his parents.
D. He is very hardworking and well-behaved, which pleases his parents a lot.
Question 22: Marta and Patrice is a couple. They are going to a friend’s party.
Marta: Do I still have to change my clothes? Patrice: _________.
A. Sure, take your time B. Let’s discuss that some time
C. Don’t change your mind, please D. The party begins at 2 pm
Question 23: Hung and Derek are classmates. They are talking about their sports hobby.
Hung: Don’t you like watching football? Derek: _________.
A. Yes, I don’t B. No, I do. I like it a lot C. It’s nice D. Yes, I love it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning
tothe underlined words in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The news should be put in the most noticeable place so that all the students can be well-
informed.
A. suspicious B. popular C. easily seen D. beautiful
Question 25: Parents regard facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. read B. translate C. display D. consider
I was raised on a farm in a remote village in the 1950s. The winter months were endless and
everything was covered in snow. I was always ___(26)___ for the warmer weather to come. When
spring arrived, everything came alive- flowers would bloom and the animals would come out of
hibernation. I would follow the bear tracks and search for them. Once, however, I ___(27)___ an angry
mother bear who saw me as a threat. ___(28)___ the sight of the bear, I did what my father had told
me. I stood still until she stopped growling and walked away. The trick was effective, but looking back
now, I realized that the situation was far more serious than I thought at the time. By the age of twelve,
I had lots of camping experience , as I used to go camping with my dog on my school holidays. We
would spend days ___(29)___ the forest, catching fish for dinner, looking at the frogs and the
___(30)___ of birds and the insects hopping up and down on the surface of the water. Of course, this
was possible only during the warm months. When the autumn came, everything went quiet, which was
quite usual in those parts. It wasn’t long before the animals disappeared, the birds flew south and the
snow took over. The place became deserted once again.
Question 26: A. willing B. keen C. eager D. enthusiastic
Question 27: A. found out B. came across C. dealt with D. reached
Question 28: A. By B. At C. On D. In
Question 29: A. investigating B. detecting C. researching D. exploring
Question 30: A. sets B. swarms C. bunches D. flocks
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 39
The concept of obtaining fresh water from iceberg that is towed to populated areas and arid
regions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life. But now it
is being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have warned that the
human race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food. Glaciers are a possible
source of fresh water that has been overlooked until recently.
Three-quarters of the Earth's fresh water supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of
untapped fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years.
Floating on the oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs that
break away from the polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.
Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs throughout the
year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes; rather, they are formed
entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they drift away from the polar
region, icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite to the wind, pulled by
subsurface currents. Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces of ice, icebergs have been
known to drift as far north as 35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean.
The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as the prevention of rapid melting in warmer
climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the icebergs lost half of
their volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper than that produced by
desalination, or removing salt from water.
A. The movement of glaciers B. Icebergs as a source of fresh water
C. Future water shortages D. The future of the world's rivers
Question 32: The word “arid” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. anhydrous B. fruitful C. remote D. distant
Question 33: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. an iceberg that is towed B. obtaining fresh water from icebergs
C. the population of arid areas D. real life
Question 34: According to the author, most of the world's fresh water is to be found in ________.
A. oceans B. rivers C. glaciers D. reservoirs
Question 35: The word “currents” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. pulls B. waves C. weather D. flows of water
Question 36: How are icebergs formed?
A. They break off from glaciers B. Seawater freezes
C. Rivers freeze D. Small pieces of floating ice converge
Question 37: The word "that" in the last paragraph refers to _________.
A. the volume B. the water C. the iceberg D. the towing
Question 38: What are the technical matters mentioned as the difficulty arising in the process of
obtaining fresh water from the iceberg?
A. The prevention of rapid melting iceberg
B. The filtering water and the funneling it to shore in a large amount
C. The purifying the fresh water and carrying it to shore
D. The prevention of rapid melting and the funneling to shore in great volume
Question 39: My relative, __________ you met yesterday, is an engineer.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. B and C are correct
Question 40: I __________ the bell three times when he answered the door.
A. would ring B. rang C. had rung D. was ringing
Question 41: If Joe had practised tennis more when he was younger, he _____ able to play it then.
A. would be B. would have been C. will be D. wouldn’t be
Question 42: I bitterly regret __________ him the story yesterday.
A. to be telling B. telling C. to tell D. to have told
Question 43: The water company will have to __________ off water supplies while repairs to the
pipes are carried out.
A. cut B. set C. take D. break
Question 44: There was ________ to prevent the accident. It happened while everyone was sleeping.
A. nothing we couldn’t do B. anything we could do
C. nothing we could do D. something could do
Question 45: Only when you grow up __________ how to organize things more neatly.
A. do you know B. you will know C. you know D. will you know
Question 46: You can go where you like __________ you get back before dark.
A. although B. as long as C. or else D. despite
Question 47: Your fare, accommodation and meals are all __________ in the price of this holiday.
A. included B. collected C. enclosed D. composed
Question 48: We are looking __________ to receiving a prompt reply to our letter.
A. round B. through C. forward D. after
Question 49: Would it be possible to make an early __________ to have my car serviced tomorrow?
A. appoint B. appointing C. appointed D. appointment
Question 50: A great __________ of people go to different places to enjoy their holidays.
A. part B. majority C. mass D. number

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PRACTICE TEST 1

Question 43. Why did Capa change his name?

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