Department of Mechanical Engineering Machine Design Objective Question

Department of Mechanical Engineering
Machine Design
Objective Question
4. Shank diameter of the rivet depends upon the ________

a) thickness of the plates to be joined
b) height of the shank
c) material of shank
d) standards of manufacturing
answer = a
5. d=6√t is the equation for diameter (d) and thickness (t) when _________
a) d and t are in millimeters
b) d and t are in inches
c) d is taken from standard chart and t is calculated
6. Rivets of 3 to 10 mm shank diameter size are not used for_______

a) sheet metal
b) light structural work
c) heavy steel structure
d) iron sheets
7. Size of large rivets varies from _______ shank diameter.

a) 3 to 10 mm
b) 5 to 20 mm
c) 10 to 15 mm
d) 12 to 48 mm
8. Thickness of the plates to be joined and the type of joint decides the _______ of the rivet needed.
a) type of head
b) diameter
c) length
d) holes
9. The plates to be joined with rivet are drilled with holes of a size slightly less than the shank diameter of
the rivet.
a) True
b) False
10. If the volume of the extra length is lesser than the head, the joint may be _________
a) loose
b) tight
c) broken
d)failed
11. Caulking tool is used for ________ joint.

a) loose
b) tight
c) leak-proof
d) every rivet
1. According to arrangements of plates, which of the following is not a type of riveted joints?
a) single cover plate butt joint
b) double cover plate butt joint
c) lap joint
d) zigzag joint
2. When Plate A and Plate B are joined by overlapping each other, the joint is _________
a) lap joint
b) single cover plate butt joint
c) double cover plate butt joint
d) chain joint
3. What is the purpose to increase the number of rows of rivets?

a) To increase the strength
b) To make it double riveted joint
c) To make a suitable design
d) Reduce the number of rivets in one row
4. For double riveted butt joint, number of rows of rivet is _______________

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) one
5. For butt joints, number of cover plates can be ________

a) one only
b) minimum two
c) two only
d) one or two
6. If one cover plate is used, thickness of cover plate is kept _________ times that of the main plate.
a) 0.75
b) 1.25
c) 1.125
d) 1.5
7. Average thickness of double cover plate butt joint is 0.75 times that of main plate.
a) True
b) False
8. If the number of rivets in each adjacent row goes on decreasing in subsequent rows towards edge, it is
called _________ riveting.
a) diamond
b) chain
c) square
d) zigzag
9. If the rivets are used along a number of rows such that the rivets in the adjacent rows are placed
directly opposite to each other, it is known as _________
a) diamond
b) chain
c) square
d) zigzag
10. In ________ riveting, the rivets in the adjacent rows are staggered and are placed in between those of
the previous row.
a) diamond
b) chain
c) square
d) zigzag
1. Which of the following structural section is not considered for rivet joints?
a) Tee section
b) Flat section
c) I section
d) Circular section
2. Explosive rivet is another type of ______ rivet.

a) blind rivet
b) gusset plates
c) zigzag riveting
d) chain riveting
3. ________ is a technique to form a rivet head without access to the other side of the joint.
a) full-tubular riveting
b) blind riveting
c) split riveting
d) flush joint
4. In explosive rivets, instead of mandrel _______ is used.

a) rod
b) explosive
c) breaking type of mandrel
d) non-breaking type of mandrel
5. Which type of rivet is used for applications like air-craft?

a) Counter sunk rivet
b) Blind rivet
c) Explosive rivet
d) Flat rivet
6. For light-work, the rivet size used varies from ______ mm.
a) 4 to 8
b) 2 to 4
c) 0 to 3
d) 3 to 6
7. L/D ratio for light work applications is kept not more than _______
a) 5:2
b) 6:1
c) 4:1
d) 5:1
8. In a __________ the body is sawn to produce a prolonged shank.

a) semi-tubular rivet
b) tubular rivet
c) split pin rivet
d) compression rivet
9. For plastics, the margin (i.e. center of rivet to the edge) is between _______
a) 2d to 4d
b) 1d to 3d
c) 2d to 3d
d) 1d to 2d
10. Structural drawings are prepared generally to a scale of _______

a) 1:15
b) 1:20
c) 1:10
d) 1:5
11. When two structural members are joined at an angle, sometimes ________ are used to impart strength
and stiffness to the joint.
a) gusset plates
b) end joints
c) end cover
d) cupped end cover
2. Rivets are usually made of ________

a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) aluminum
d) steel
3. Which of the following is not a type of rivet head?

a) Flat head
b) Mushroom head
c) High head
d) Low head
1. A rivet consists of a cylindrical part called _______

a) head
b) shank
c) cylinder
d) snap
1. A mechanical component may fail as a result of which of the following
a) elastic deflection
b) general yielding
c) fracture
d) each of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Failing simply means unable to perform its function satisfactorily.
2. Type of load affects factor of safety.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic load has higher factor of safety as compared to static loading.
3. For cast iron component, which of the following strength are considered to be the failure criterion?
a) Ultimate tensile strength
b) Yield Strength
c) Endurance limit
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultimate tensile strength is the highest stres a component can as a criterion.
4. For components made of ductile materials like steel, subjected to static loading which of the following
strength is used as a failure of criterion?
a) Yield strength
b) Ultimate strength
c) Endurance limit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In elastic material there is considerable plastic deformation at yielding point.
5. Pitting occurs on _____ of the component.

a) Surface
b) Inner body
c) Inside or on surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitting is a process in which small holes occur on a surface of component.
6. Buckling is elastic instability which leads to sudden large lateral deflection.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of buckling.
7. The critical buckling load depends upon which of the following parameters?
a) Yield strength
b) Modulus of elasticity
c) Radius of gyration
d) Each of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It depends on moment of inertia(which further depends on radius of gyration), elasticity and yield
strength.
8. If there are residual stresses in the material, than lower factor of safety is used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Residual stress increases the chance of failure.
9. Which of the following relationship is true? (p=Poisson’s ratio)

a) E=2G (1+p)
b) E=G (2+p)
c) E= 2(G+ p)
d) No relation exist between E, G and p
View Answer
10. Modulus of rigidity for carbon steels is greater than that of grey cast iron.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
11. According to principal stress theory, which option represents the correct relation between yield strength in
shear (YSS) and the yield strength in tension (YST)?
a) YSS=0.5YST
b) YSS=0.577YST
c) YST=0.5YSS
d) YST=0.577YSS
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shear diagonal is at 45’ and by equation of shear stress theory, the required relation is obtained.
12 .A beam subjected to bending moment undergoes which of the following stresses?
a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Both compressive & tensile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The portion above the neutral axis is under compression and the portion below it is under tensile
stress.
13. The bending stress varies _______ with the distance from the neutral axis.
a) Linearly
b) Inversely
c) Squarely
d) Bending stress is independent of distance from the neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending Stress= (Bending Moment x distance from neutral axis/ Moment of inertia).
1. Cotter joint is used when the members are subjected to which type of stresses?
a) Axial tensile
b) Axial compressive
c) Axial tensile or compressive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cotter joint is used when axial forces are applied.
2. The principle of wedge action is used in cotter joint.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wedge action imparts tightening to the cotter joint.
3. Can the cotter joint be used to connect slide spindle and fork of valve mechanism?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As long as axial forces act, cotter joint can be employed.
4. Which of the following is not a part of cotter joint?

a) Socket
b) Spigot
c) Cotter
d) Collar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no point of mentioning collar alone in a cotter joint. It has to be a spigot collar or socket
collar.
5. Cold riveting holds the connected parts better than hot riveting.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compression of connected parts in hot riveting causes friction, which resist sliding of one part
with respect to other. This force is greater in hot riveting.
6 .In cold riveting like hot riveting shank is subjected to majorly tensile stress.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In cold riveting there is no reduction in length and hence no tensile stress. Shear stress dominates.
7. Determine the width of the cotter used in cotter joint connecting two rods subjected to axial load of 50kN
and permissible shear stress in cotter is 50N/(mm² ). Given thickness of cotter=10mm
a) 5omm
b) 100mm
c) 150mm
d) 25mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cotter is subjected to double shear hence width=P/(2*τ*t).
8. If joint is to fail by crushing of socket collar then estimate the diameter of socket collar. Given Permissible
compressive stress= 126.67 N/mm².; Spigot dia=65mm; thickness 0f collar=15mm
a) 131mm
b) 139mm
c) 141mm
d) 149mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressive stress= P/ [(socket dia-spigot dia)*thickness].
9. Cotter joint can be used to connect two rods for torque transmission purpose.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cotter Joint is never used to connect two rods for torque transmission purpose.
10. Thickness of plate is required more in welding than in riveting.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In riveting, cross section is weakened due to the holes and to compensate this, thicker plates are
requiredin riveting.
1. Knuckle Joint can’t be used to connect two intersecting rods.

a) Yes
b) No, it can’t be used
c) It can be used with some modificatios
d) It is expensive and hence isn’t used
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Knuckle Joint is used to connect two rods whose axes coincide or intersect and lie in a same plane.
2. A knuckle joint is unsuitable for two rotating shafts, which transmit torque
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Knuckle joint can’t be used for torque transmission.
3. A maximum of how many roads may be connected using a knuckle joint?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In rare explanation, two rods with forks and one rod with eye is connected.
4. A knuckle joint is also called socket pin joint.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A knuckle joint is also called a Forked Pin Joint.
5. Which of the following are important parts of knuckle joint?

a) Eye
b) Pin
c) Fork
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned parts are important components of knuckle joint.
6. Calculate the diameter of pin from shear consideration with maximum shear stress allowed is 40NN/mm²
and an axial tensile force of 50kN is acting on the rod.
a) 39mm
b) 44mm
c) 49mm
d) 52mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the pin is subjected to double shear diameter (D) = √(2P/π x τ) = 38.80mm.
7. If knuckle joint is to fail by crushing failure of pin in fork, then determine the diameter of knuckle pin
when 50kN axial tensile force act on rods. Given: Max allowable compressive stress=25N/mm², thickness
of each eye of fork=25mm.
a) 40mm
b) 50mm
c) 60mm
d) 70mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: d=P/2aσ = 40mm.
8. If any cross section is subjected to direct tensile stress and bending stress, then find the dimension of
cross section. Given length & breadth are t and 2t respectively. F=25kN acts on the top fibre of the cross
section, M=F x t . Also maximum allowable tensile stress =100N/mm².
a) 25.5mm
b) 30.2mm
c) 27.55mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: σ= [P/A] + [My/I], where y=t & I=t(2t)ᴲ/12.
9. A knuckle joint can be used in valve mechanism of a reciprocating engine.

a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes but there are stress probles
d) No as it is very dangerous to use
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Knuckle joint can be used till the rods coincide or intersect in a plane.
1. The normal stress is perpendicular to the area under considerations, while the shear stress acts over the
area.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the convention used.
2. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y
axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm²Find the maximum amount of shear stress to which
the body is subjected.
a) 22.4mm
b) 25mm
c) 26.3mm
d) 27.2mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: τ(max)=√( [σ(x)-σ(y) ]²/2² + τ²).
3. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and
y axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 10N/mm². Find the inclination of the plane in which
shear stress is maximal.
a) 45’
b) 30’
c) 60’
d) 15’
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: tan (2Ǿ)=2τ/[σ(x) – σ(y)].
4. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y
axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm². Find the maximum normal stress.
a) 90
b) 92.4
c) 94.2
d) 96
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=[σ(x) +σ(y)]/2 + √( [σ(x)-σ(y) ]²/2² + τ²).
5. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and
y axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm². Find the minimum normal stress.
a) 45.4
b) 47.6
c) 48.2
d) 50.6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=[σ(x) +σ(y)]/2 – √( [σ(x)-σ(y) ]²/2² + τ²).
6. If compressive yield stress and tensile yield stress are equivalent, then region of safety from maximum
principal stress theory is of which shape?
a) Rectangle
b) Square
c) Circle
d) Ellipse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation of four lines is given by σ1=± S(yt), σ2=±S(yc) Now given S(yt)=S(yc), hence
the region of safety is of square shape.
7. Maximum Principal Stress Theory is not good for brittle materials.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Experimental investigations have shown that maximum principle stress theory gives good
results for brittle materials.
8. The region of safety in maximum shear stress theory contains which of the given shape
a) Hexagon
b) Rectangle
c) Square
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In maximum shear stress theory we have the following equations: σ1= ±S(yt)
σ2= ±S (yt), σ1 – σ2 =±S (yt) assuming S(yt)=S(yc).
9. The total strain energy for a unit cube subjected to three principal stresses is given by?
a) U= [(σέ) ₁ + (σέ) ₂+ (σέ) ₃]/3
b) U= [(σ₁²+σ₂²+σ₃²)/2E] – (σ₁σ₂+σ₂σ₃+σ₃σ₁)2μ
c) U= [(σέ) ₁ + (σέ) ₂+ (σέ) ₃]/4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: U= [(σέ) ₁ + (σέ) ₂+ (σέ) ₃]/2 is the basic formula. After substituting values of έ₁, έ₂ and έ₃,
we get the expression b.
10. Distortion energy theory is slightly liberal as compared to maximum shear stress theory.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hexagon of maximum shear theory falls completely inside the ellipse of distortion energy
theorem.
1. Mechanical advantage is the ratio of effort to load.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical advantage is the ratio of load to effort.
2. Leverage is the ratio of load arm to effort arm.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Leverage is the ratio of effort arm to load arm.
3. The distance between fulcrum and dead weights is 100mm. Dead weights are of 2945.2N. An effort of
294.52N acts on the other hand. Find the distance between the fulcrum and other end of the lever.
a) 1000mm
b) 100mm
c) 10mm
d) 10000mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: F ₂xl₂ =F₁ xl₁.
4. A right angled bell-crank is designed to raise a load of 5kN at short arm whose length is 100mm. Longer arm
is of length 500mm. Calculate the reaction or force acting on the fulcrum.
a) 5.1
b) 5.8
c) 6.1
d) 6.8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Force required for raising at longer end is found by F ₂xl₂ =F₁ xl₁. Reaction at fulcrum is
√ (F₁²+F₂²) as the two forces are perpendicular.
5. A right angled bell-crank is designed to raise a load of 5kN at short arm whose length is 100mm. Also
longer arm is of length 500mm. If permissible bearing pressure on pin is 10N/mm² and diameter of the
20mm, find the length of the pin.
a) 35.5mm
b) 25.5mm
c) 20mm
d) 30mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: R=p x d x L. Here R=√ (F₁²+F₂²).
6. A right angled bell-crank is designed to raise a load of 5kN at short arm whose length is 100mm. Also
longer arm is of length 500mm. If permissible bearing pressure on pin is 10N/mm² and diameter of the
20mm, find the shear stress in the pin.
a) 8.12
b) 8.51
c) 9.12
d) 9.51
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: τ=R/(2 x π x d²/4) as the pin is subjected to double shear. Also R=√ (F₁²+F₂²) and F ₂xl₂
=F₁ xl₁.
7. How many classes of levers are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three classes are Fulcrum in the middle, Resistance in the middle and Effort in the
middle.
8. A bottle opener belongs to which class of the levers.

a) Effort in the middle
b) Fulcrum in the middle
c) Resistance in the middle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a bottle opener fulcrum can be considered at the end and resistance in middle as the actual
work is done on the bottle cap which lies in middle of opener.
9. Fulcrum can be located at one end of the lever.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fulcrum can be located in middle or at one end of the lever.
1. Stress intensity factor is the critical value of stress at which crack extension occurs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stress intensity specifies the stress intensity at the tip of the crack.
2. The critical value at which crack extension occurs is called

a) Stress Intensity Factor
b) Toughness
c) Fracture Toughness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fracture toughness is the critical value of stress intensity at which crack extension occurs.
3. Fracture toughness does not depend upon geometry of the part containing crack
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fracture toughness is directly proportional to a factor Y that depends upon geometry of the
part having crack.
4. How many modes are there for crack propagation?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Opening, sliding and tearing are the 3 modes.
5. A curved beam has neutral axis is curved while loaded and straight when unloaded.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Curved beam’s neutral axis is always curved irrespective of the loading.
6. The bending stress in a straight beam varies linearly with the distance from neural axis like that in a
curved beam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bending stress in a curved beam varies hyperbolically with the distance from neutral axis.
7. If for a curved beam of trapezoidal cross section, radius of neutral axis is 89.1816mm and radius of
centroidal axis is 100mm, then find the bending stress at inner fibre whose radius is 50mm. Area of cross
section of beam is 7200mm² and the beam is loaded with 100kN of load.
a) 97.3
b) 95.8
c) 100.6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: e=100-89.816=10.8184mm, h=89.1816-50=39.1816mm, M=100 x 100 N-m
Therefore σ=Mh/AeR or σ=10000 x 39.1816/ [7200 x 10.8184 x 50] or σ=100.6N/mm².
8. A curved beam with eccentricity 0.02D is loaded with 1kN.Centroidal radius=4D and inner and outer
radii are 3.5D and 4.5D respectively. Area of cross section is 0.8D². Find the dimension D if allowable
stress is 110N/mm².Considering only bending stress.
a) 14.80mm
b) 13.95mm
c) 16.5mm
d) 17.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(b)=Mh/ AeR or σ(b)=1000x4Dx(4D-0.2D-3.5D)/ 0.8D²x0.02Dx3.5D , σ(b)=21428.6/D²
21428.6/D² = 110 or D=13.95mm.
stress is 110N/mm² and considering only direct tensile stress.
a) 4.7mm
b) 6.8mm
c) 13.95mm
d) 3.4mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Direct Tensile Stress=1000/0.8D² or σ (t) =1250/D²
1250/D²=110 or D=3.4mm.
stress is 110N/mm² and considering combined effect of direct stress and bending stress.
a) 15.8mm
b) 14.35mm
c) 17.9mm
d) 18.1mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(b)=Mh/ AeR or σ(b)=1000x4Dx(4D-0.2D-3.5D)/ 0.8D²x0.02Dx3.5D , σ(b)=21428.6/D²
DirectTensile Stress=1000/0.8D² or σ (t) =1250/D²
Total stress=22678.6/D² N/mm²= 110 or D=14.35mm.
11. If a hollow steel tube is heated from a temperature of 25’C to 250’C then fid the expansion of tube if
area of the cross section is 300mm²,length of tube=200mm and coefficient of thermal expansion is 10.8 x
10⁻⁶ per ⁰C.
a) 1.22mm
b) 0.486mm
c) 0.878mm
d) 1.52mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Expansion=ἀxlx∆T= 10.8 x 10⁻⁶ x 200 x 225=0.486mm.
12. All type of stresses vanishes after as soon as the applied load is removed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Residual stresses are independent of the load.
13. Residual stresses are always added in the load stresses and hence are always harmful.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Residual stresses may be beneficial when they are opposite to load stresses and hence are
subtracted from load stresses.
1. Stress concentration is defined as the localization of high stresses due to irregularities present in the
component and no changes of the cross section.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The given statement is true apart from the fact that there is no change in the cross section.
2. Stress Concentration Factor is the ratio of nominal stress obtained by elementary equations for
minimum cross-section and highest value of actual stress near discontinuity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress concentration factor is just the reciprocal of that cited in the question.
3. If a flat plate with a circular hole is subjected to tensile force, then its theoretical stress concentration
factor is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For any ellipse, K=1+2 x (semi major axis/semi minor axis).
4. For an elliptical hole on a flat plate, if width of the hole in direction of the load decrease, Stress
Concentration Factor will______
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
d) Can’t be determined. Varies from material to material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: K=1+2 x (semi major axis/semi minor axis. Hence K is inversely proportional to the semi
minor axis.
5. In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?

a) Ductile material under static load
b) Ductile material under fluctuating load
c) Brittle material under static load
d) Brittle material under fluctuating load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In ductile materials under static load, there is plastic deformation near yielding point and
hence redistribution of stresses take place. The plastic deformation is restricted to a smaller area and
hence no perceptible damage take place.
6. Is it logical to use fluid analogy to understand the phenomenon of stress concentration?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a similarity between velocity distribution in fluid flow in a channel and the stress
distribution in an axially loaded plate. The equations for flow potential and in fluid mechanics and stress
potential in solid mechanics are same.
7. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will

a) Reduce the stress concentration
b) Increase the stress concentration
c) No effect
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sharp bending of a force flow line is reduced due to multiple notches.
8. Which of the following reduces the stress concentration?

a) Use of multiple notches
b) Drilling additional holes
c) Removal of undesired material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options reduce the sharp bending of a force flow line.
9. A flat plate 30mm wide and “t”mm wide is subjected to a tensile force of 5kN. The plate has a circular
hole of diameter 15mm with the centre coinciding with the diagonal intersection point of the rectangle. If
stress concentration factor=2.16, find the thickness of the plate if maximum allowable tensile stress is
80N/mm².
a) 8mm
b) 9mm
c) 10mm
d) 12mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=P/ (w-d) x t or σ=5000/(30-15)xt ; σ(max)=K x σ or σ(max)=2.16 x σ or σ(max)=720/t;
Also σ(max)=80.
1. Stress concentration is defined as the localization of high stresses due to irregularities present in the
component and no changes of the cross section.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The given statement is true apart from the fact that there is no change in the cross section.
2. Stress Concentration Factor is the ratio of nominal stress obtained by elementary equations for
minimum cross-section and highest value of actual stress near discontinuity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress concentration factor is just the reciprocal of that cited in the question.
3. If a flat plate with a circular hole is subjected to tensile force, then its theoretical stress concentration
factor is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For any ellipse, K=1+2 x (semi major axis/semi minor axis).
4. For an elliptical hole on a flat plate, if width of the hole in direction of the load decrease, Stress
Concentration Factor will______
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
d) Can’t be determined. Varies from material to material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: K=1+2 x (semi major axis/semi minor axis. Hence K is inversely proportional to the semi
minor axis.
5. In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?

a) Ductile material under static load
b) Ductile material under fluctuating load
c) Brittle material under static load
d) Brittle material under fluctuating load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In ductile materials under static load, there is plastic deformation near yielding point and
hence redistribution of stresses take place. The plastic deformation is restricted to a smaller area and
hence no perceptible damage take place.
6. Is it logical to use fluid analogy to understand the phenomenon of stress concentration?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a similarity between velocity distribution in fluid flow in a channel and the stress
distribution in an axially loaded plate. The equations for flow potential and in fluid mechanics and stress
potential in solid mechanics are same.
7. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will

a) Reduce the stress concentration
b) Increase the stress concentration
c) No effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sharp bending of a force flow line is reduced due to multiple notches.
8. Which of the following reduces the stress concentration?

a) Use of multiple notches
b) Drilling additional holes
c) Removal of undesired material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options reduce the sharp bending of a force flow line.
9. A flat plate 30mm wide and “t”mm wide is subjected to a tensile force of 5kN. The plate has a circular
hole of diameter 15mm with the centre coinciding with the diagonal intersection point of the rectangle. If
stress concentration factor=2.16, find the thickness of the plate if maximum allowable tensile stress is
80N/mm².
a) 8mm
b) 9mm
c) 10mm
d) 12mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=P/ (w-d) x t or σ=5000/(30-15)xt ; σ(max)=K x σ or σ(max)=2.16 x σ or σ(max)=720/t;
Also σ(max)=80.
1. The stress represented by sin (t) + 1 belongs to which category?

a) Fluctuating Stresses
b) Alternating stresses
c) Repeated Stresses
d) Reversed Stresses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum stress value is zero and hence is belongs to Repeated Stress category.

b) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: The mean as well as the amplitude value is non zero hence it belongs to Fluctuation Stress
Category.

a) Alternating Stresses
b) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mean as well as the amplitude value is non zero hence it belongs to Alternation Stresses
category which is the other name of Fluctuation Stresses.
4. The stress represented by cos (t) belongs to which category?

b) Alternating Stresses
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Half cycle is in tensile stress and other half in compressive stress, hence it belongs to Reversed
Stresses Category.
5. If the mean stress value for a sinusoidal stress function is zero, then this type of stress falls in which
category?
b) Alternating Stresses
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If mean is to be zero, then there must be compressive as well as tensile stresses and hence
belongs to reversed stresses category.
6. The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main characteristic of
_____ failure.
a) Fracture
b) Fatigue
c) Yielding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fatigue failure of the material is the failure at low stress levels under fluctuating syresses.
7. Fatigue failure is time dependent failure.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fatigue failure is defined as time delayed fracture under cyclic loading.
8. There is sufficient plastic deformation prior to fatigue failure, which gives a warning well in advance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fatigue cracks are not visible until they reach the surface and by that time the failure has already
taken place. Material nevers enters in the plastic range.
1. Threaded joints are non-separable joints.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Threaded joints are separable joints of machine parts that are held together by means of a
threaded fastening such as nut and bolt.
2. Which type of joints is better when the product is subjected to large vibrations: welded or threaded?
a) Welded
b) Threaded
c) Both have same results
d) Depends on the magnitude of the vibrational force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Threaded joints loosen when subjected to vibrations.
3. If a fastener is threaded into a tapped hole, then the fastener is likely to be called as
a) Screw
b) Bolt
c) Washer
d) Screw or bolt
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bolt is threaded into a nut while screw is threaded into a tapped hole.
4. In nut and bolt fastener, nut is generally held stationary while bolt is rotated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bolt is always held stationary while nut is rotated.
5. Which of the following is not a function of washer?

a) Distributes load over a large area of clamped parts
b) Provides bearing surface over large clearance bolts
c) Prevents marring of the bolt head and nut surface
d) Helps in locking of the fastener
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Washer doesn’t help in locking of fasteners.
6. Shank is the portion of bolt between the head and the thread.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shank is the portion between head and the thread of the bolt.
7. If there is no place to accommodate the nut, then one would choose the
a) Through Bolts
b) Tap Bolts
c) Studs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tap bolts are directly threaded into the clamped parts and does not require any nut.
8. Which of the following are good for parts that are seldom dismantled.
a) Through Bolts
b) Tap Bolts
c) Studs
d) Cannot be stated
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tap bolts, if removed frequently will leave the threads in the part worn out and hence are used
where dismantling is rare.
9. Which of the following requires more space for the rotation of spanner?
a) Square Head
b) Hexagonal Head
c) Both require equal space of rotation
d) Cannot be stated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of rotation for hexagonal head is one sixth of a revolution to enable the next pair of flats to
be engaged while it is one fourth of a revolution in case of square head.
10. Fillister, button, flat and hexagonal heads are all tightened externally.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All of these are internal drive screws having a slot for the screw driver of different shape on the
head.
11. Set screws are subjected to tensile forces only.

a) Yes
b) No, they are subjected to compressive forces only
c) Both compressive and tensile
d) Can’t be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Set screws are subjected to compressive forces only.
12. If the lateral force acting on the set screw is large and tends to displace one part with respect to other than
which point is recommended?
a) Dog Point
b) Cone Point
c) Window Point
d) Cut Point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dog point is used when the lateral force is large provided the part has sufficient thickness to
accommodate a cylindrical hole for dog point.
1 .Find the torque required to raise the load of 15kN and mean diameter of triple threaded screw being 46mm.
Also given pitch=8mm and coefficient of friction is 0.15.
a) 11831.06N-mm
b) 11813.06N-mm
c) 12811.06N-mm
d) None of the listed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: tanἀ=l/πd or ἀ=9.429’ as l=3p. tan Ǿ=0.15 or Ǿ=8.531’. M=W x d x tan (Ǿ+ἀ)/2.
2. What is the collar friction torque if outer and inner diameters are 100mm and 65mm respectively. Coefficient
of friction is 0.15 and the load acting is of 15kN. Consider uniform wear theory.
a) 89886.6N-mm
b) 38796.5N-mm
c) 92812.5N-mm
d) 87645.5N-mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: M=0.15 x W(D+d)/4.
3. For a double threaded screw, what will be the tangent of helix angle if nominal diameter and pitch are
100mm and 12mm respectively?
a) 0.045
b) 0.081
c) 0.094
d) 0.023
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: tan ἀ= l/πd where l=2p, d=D-0.5p.
4. If for a trapezoidal thread, angle of thread is 15’ then what will be the replacement of the coefficient of
friction which is 0.15.
a) 0.1553
b) 0.1335
c) 0.1667
d) 0.1776
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: f=0.15 x sec 15’.
5. What will be efficiency of the screw in case of raising the load when coefficient of friction is 0.1553 and
tangent of helix angle is 0.0813?
a) 34%
b) 45%
c) 54%
d) 43%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency= tanἀ(1-0.1553 x tan ἀ)/(0.1553+tanἀ).
6. A machine vice whose length of the handle is 150mm and the coefficient of friction for thread and collar are
0.15 and 0.17 respectively has a force applied at handle of 125N. Also the outer and inner diameters of collar
are 55mm and 45mm respectively. Find the screw torque in terms of clamping force W if nominal
diameter=22mm and pitch=5mm.
a) 3.567W N-mm
b) 2.286W N-mm
c) 3.564W N-mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M₁=Wd x tan(Ǿ+ἀ)/2 or M₁=W x (22-0.5×2.5)x tan(4.66’+8.531’)/2 as tan(ἀ)=l/πd and tanǾ=0.15.
are 55mm and 45mm respectively. Find the collar torque in terms of clamping force W assuming uniform wear
theory if nominal diameter=22mm and pitch=5mm.
a) 4.5W
b) 5.4W
c) 4.25W
d) 3.37W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: M₂=0.17 x W x (55+45)/4 or M₂=4.25W N-mm.
are 55mm and 45mm respectively. Find the clamping force W if nominal diameter=22mm and pitch=5mm.
a) 4539.45N
b) 2868.73N
c) 3657.56N
d) 2134.34N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Net torque=M₁+M₂ or 125 x 150=2.286W + 4.25W or W=2868.73N.
are 55mm and 45mm respectively. Find the overall efficiency if nominal diameter=22mm and pitch=5mm.
a) 18.12%
b) 12.18%
c) 21.23%
d) 23.21%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency= W l/2π(M₁+M₂) where
M₁=2.286W [M₁=Wd x tan (Ǿ+ἀ)/2 or M₁=W x (22-0.5×2.5) x tan (4.66’+8.531’)/2 as tan(ἀ)=l/πd and tan
Ǿ=0.15].
M₂=4.25W [M₂=0.17 x W x (55+45)/4 or M₂=4.25W N-mm],
l=5mm,
W=2868.73N [Net torque=M₁+M₂ or 125 x 150=2.286W + 4.25W or W=2868.73N].
10. Find the bending stress to which a screw of nominal diameter 22mm is subjected when the clamp exerts a
force of 5kN acts on it. The screw is double threaded and pitch of screw is 5mm.Given: Coefficient of friction is
0.15.It is assumed operator exerts a force of 250N at the handle of length 275mm.
a) 123.45N/mm²
b) 132.54N/mm²
c) 142.54N/mm²
d) 124.45N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bending stress=32M/πdᵌ where M=250 x 275N-mm,d=22-2 x 0.5 x 5mm.
11. Find the torsional shear stress to which a screw of nominal diameter 22mm is subjected when the clamp
exerts a force of 5kN on it. The screw is double threaded and pitch of screw is 5mm.Given: Coefficient of
friction is 0.15.
a) 25.45N/mm²
b) 21.29N/mm²
c) 31.21N/mm²
d) 35.65N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: =16M/πd₂ᵌ where M=Wd₁ tan (Ǿ+ἀ)/2 where d₁=22-0.5 x 5,W=5000N,
tanἀ=2 x 5/[πx19.5] and d₂=19.5-0.5 x 5.
12. If bending stress in a screw is of magnitude 95N/mm² and torsional shear stress of magnitude 15N/mm²,
then what is the principal shear stress?
a) 48.7N/mm²
b) 54.3 N/mm²
c) 51.4 N/mm²
d) 49.8 N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: τ(max)=√(95/2)²+15².
13. The nominal diameter of the screw is 22mm and the allowable bearing pressure for the nut is
15N//mm². Find the length of the nut if pitch of the screw is
a) 15mm
b) 20mm
c) 25mm
d) 30mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: z=4W/π S(d₁²-d₂²) where S=15N/mm²,d₁=22mm and d₂=17mm. Hencez=2.2 or z=3.
Length of nut=zp or l=3 x 5= 15mm.
14. A but joint can be defined as a joint between two components lying approximately in a different plane.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Butt joint is defined a joint between two plates lying in the same plane.
15. A fillet weld is an approximately triangular cross section joining two surfaces lying parallels to each
other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two surfaces lie perpendicular to each other.
1. How many types of jacks are there which can be used in a screw jack?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic jack and mechanical jack.
2. Which of the following does not form the important part of the screw jack?
a) Frame
b) Nut
c) Cup
d) Coupling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no specific requirement of coupling in the screw jack.
3. The transverse shear stress at the root of the threads in the nut can be given by?(symbols have their usual
meaning, z=number of threads in nut)
a) 4W/πdz²
b) W/πdtz
c) 4W/πtd²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: At root of threads, the area parallel to direction of force is considered which is equal to
circumference x thickness x no. of threads.
4. What type of friction in cup design is recommended for the set screw?
a) Sliding
b) Rolling
c) Static
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sliding friction, the total force require to raise the load is quite large as compared to that required
in rolling friction. Hence length of handle in some cases becomes extremely large and thus it is impractical to
use cups with sliding friction.
5. A differential screw is defined as a mechanical device consisting of two screws connected in parallel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two screws are connected in series.
6. In a differential screw, two screws are connected in series such that the resultant motion is the summation of
the motion of the two screws.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resultant motion is the difference of the individual motion of two screws.
7. A compound screw consist of two screws in parallel such that the resultant motion is the summation of the
individual motion of screws.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two screws are connected in series with the resultant motion being the sum of individual
motion.
8. What is the output from differential screws when pitch of the two screws is 12mm and 8mm? Also the nut is
rotated by applying a force of 120N at a radius of 300mm and the two screws remain stationary. The torque of
raising and lowering for the two screws is 5k N-mm and 2.5k N-mm where k is the effective axial weight on the
screw.
a) 13200 N-mm
b) 15200 N-mm
c) 19200 N-mm
d) 17200 N-mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 120 x 300=5k+2.5k or k=4800N. Output=k x (12-8) or output=19200N-mm.
9. What is the efficiency of differential screws when pitch of the two screws is 12mm and 8mm? The nut is
rotated by applying a force of 120N at a radius of 300mm and the two screws remain stationary. The torque of
raising and lowering for the two screws is 5k N-mm and 2.5k N-mm where k is the effective axial weight on the
screw.
a) 6.48%
b) 8.48%
c) 23.1%
d) 42.8%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 120 x 300=5k+2.5k or k=4800N. Output=k x (12-8) or output=19200N-mm.
Efficiency=output/2πx120x300.
10. Efficiency of conventional power screw is greater than the efficiency of recirculating ball screw.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In recirculating ball screw, sliding friction is replaced by rolling friction and efficiency increases
from 40% to 90%.
11. In which case is the wear more?

a) Conventional power screw
b) Recirculating power screw
c) Equal in both the cases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In recirculating ball screw, there is a lubricant film between the contacting surfaces and hence
lesser wear.
1. Resilience is defined as the property of material to absorb energy when deformed _________ and to release
this energy when unloaded.
a) Elastically
b) Plastically
c) Up to fracture point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the definition of resilience.
2. The shock absorbing capacity of bolt can be increased by making the shank diameter ________ the root
diameter.
a) Lesser than
b) Equal to
c) Greater than
d) No effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If shank diameter is equal to the thread diameter than, the shank is subjected to higher stress and
thus absorbs a great portion of strain energy and relieves the thread portion of high stress.
3. The shock absorbing capacity of bolts can be increased by

a) Increasing the shank diameter
b) Decreasing the length of shank portion of bolt
c) Increase the shank diameter and decreasing the length of shank
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shock absorbing capacity can be increased by decreasing the shank diameter or increasing the
length of shank.
4. If the length of the shank is doubled, then strain energy absorbed by shank
a) Doubles
b) Remains same
c) Increases 4 time
d) Become half
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy absorbed by shank is linearly proportional to its length.
5. Which of the following help in accomplishing the locking?
a) Creating supplementary friction
b) Using special locking devices like split pins
c) By plastic deformation
d) All of the listed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the methods can be employed to lock the screw.
6. Crests and roots of the threads may lead to leakage in fluid tight threads if flattened or rounded to a circular
arc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As there is engagement in the threads, chances of leakage are reduced.
7. The static load carrying capacity of fine threads is greater than that of coarse threads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coarse threads have a higher load carrying capacity.
8. Coarse threads have helix angle _____ fine threads.

a) Equal to
b) Greater than
c) Lesser than
d) There is no relation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Finer threads have lower helix angle.
9. Which threads have greater resistance to unscrewing?

a) Coarse
b) Fine
c) They have equal resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fine threads have greater resistance to unscrewing as a result of lower helix angle.
10. Which type of threads is recommended for fluctuating loads?

a) Fine threads
b) Coarse Threads
c) Either of fine or coarse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fine threads have lesser helix angle and hence greater resistance for unscrewing and thus are
recommended for fluctuating loads.
1. If core diameter of bolt is 13.8cm the it’s nominal diameter is given by?
a) 17.27mm
b) 15.34mm
c) 14.67mm
d) 16.34mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: D=d/0.8.
Figure 1
machine-design-questions-answers-eccentric-loaded-bolted-joints-q2
2. Refer to fig 1.Two plates are fastened by means of two bolts. The yield strength of bolt is 400N/mm² and
factor of safety is 4. Determine the permissible shear stress in the bolts.
a) 100N/mm²
b) 50N/mm²
c) 25N/mm²
d) 75N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Permissible hear stress=0.5 x 400 /4 =50N/mm².
3. Refer to fig 1. Two plates are fastened by means of two bolts. The yield strength of bolt is 400N/mm² and
factor of safety is 4. Determine the size of the bolts.
a) 8mm
b) 9mm
c) 10mm
d) 11mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Permissible hear stress=0.5 x 400 /4 =50N/mm². P=2 (π xd²/4) x τ or 5000=2 x π x d² x 50/4 or
d=7.97mm.
4. Referring to fig 2, Determine the primary shear force.

a) 625N
b) 1250N
c) 2500N
d) 1000N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Primary shear force P₁=P₂=P₃=P₄=P/4 =1250N.
5. Referring to fig 3, Determine the secondary shear force.

a) 2000N
b) 2500N
c) 1500N
d) 5000N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Secondary shear force=Moment about CG x distance from CG/sum of squares of distance of bolts
from CG. F= (Pe)xr₁/(r₁²+r₂²+r₃²+r₄²). Here r₁=r₂=r₃=r₄=125mm hence F= 5000 x 500/(4×125) or F=5000N.
6. Referring to figure 2, determine the resultant shear force on the bolt lying left and above the CG.
a) 4068.58N
b) 4168.58N
c) 5068.58N
d) 5168.65N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After breaking shear force into primary and secondary shear force, primary acts along the vertical
positively and secondary acts at an angle of 180-36.87’ ACW from the vertical. Hence net shear force= √
[5000cos36.8-1250]²+ [5000sin36.8]² =4068.58N.
7. In figure 2, determine the resultant shear force on the bolt lying right and above the CG.
a) 654334N
b) 6047.44N
c) 5047.44N
d) 5989.32N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After breaking net shear force into primary and secondary shear force, primary acts along the
vertical positively and secondary acts at an angle of 36.8’CW from the vertical. Hence net shear force = √
[5000cos36.8+1250]²+ [5000sin36.8]².
8. In figure 2, determine the size of the bolts.

a) 10.74mm
b) 9.23mm
c) 11.54mm
d) 8.68mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum shear force to which any bolt is subjected is 6047.44N. Hence 0.5 x 400/3= 4 x
6047.44/πd² or d=10.74mm.
Figure 3
machine-design-questions-answers-eccentric-loaded-bolted-joints-q9
Answer the questions 9-14 while considering figure 3
9. Which bolt is under maximum shear stress?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) All are under equivalent shear stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary shear force acts equally on the three bolts in the vertically upward direction while
the moment is CW along CG so its effect on bolts will be ACW. Hence secondary shear force acts vertically
upward on bolt 3 and vertically downward on bolt 1.
10. Arrange the bolts in order of decreasing shear stresses.

a) 1>2>3
b) 2>1>3
c) 3>1>2
d) 3>2>1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On bolt 3,primary and secondary shear stress act in same direction, on bolt 2 there is no
secondary shear stress and on bolt 1 the two act in opposite direction.
11. Determine the primary shear stress to which the bolts are subjected if P=3kN.
a) 3000N
b) 1000N
c) 2000N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Primary shear force=P/3.
12. Determine the secondary shear stress acting on the bolt 3 and its direction. The bolts are equidistant
having separated by 60mm and the margin to the left and right is 25mm.Also P=5kN acts at a distance of
200mm from the channel.
a) 6100N vertically up
b) 4500N vertically down
c) 6100N vertically up
d) 4500N vertically down
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment about CG=3000 x (75+30+200). On bolt 3 secondary shear force will be M x r₁/
(r₁²+r₂²) and will act in a direction perpendicular the line joining CG and bolt 3. As moment is CW about
CG, o bolts its effect will be ACW.
13. Determine the size of the bolts if yield strength of bolt is 400N/mm² and factor of safety is 4. The bolts
are equidistant having separated by 60mm and the margin to the left and right is 25mm. Also P=5kN acts
at a distance of 200mm from the channel.
a) 14.34mm
b) 13.44mm
c) 15.44mm
d) 12.66mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clearly bolt 3 is under maximum shear stress. Net shear stress= Primary shear stress +
Secondary shear stress or τ= (1000+6100) N or 0.5 x 400//4=7100 x 4/πd².
1. Find the direct shear stress in bolts if diameter =18mm

a) 16.9N/mm²
b) 19.6 N/mm²
c) 78.6 N/mm²
d) 76.8 N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Direct shear stress=one fourth of P/A.
2. If distance between the bolts from the axis of tilting is 125mm and 25mm, then find the effective tensile
force acting on the bolts lying at 125mm from tilting axis.
a) 6765.2N
b) 8798.2N
c) 7692.3N
d) 7962.11N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tensile force=Pe x 125/2(125²+25²).
3. If distance between the bolts from the axis of tilting is 125mm and 25mm, then find the effective tensile
force acting on the bolts lying at 25mm from tilting axis.
a) None of the listed
b) 7692.3N
c) 2345.2N
d) 1538.46N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tensile force=Pe x 25/2(125²+25²).
4. Which bolt can be used as criteria for designing?

a) Left top bolt
b) Both top bolts
c) Left bottom bolt
d) Both bottom bolt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bolts farthest from the tilting axis are under the maximum tensile force.
5. Find the principal shear stress in the top bolts in terms of area A?
b) 5309.2/A
c) 6308.2/A
d) 6980.4/A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Stress in one bolt=5000/A and tensile stress in upper bolt=7692.3/A. τ(max)=√[(σ/2)²+ τ²].
6. Find the size of the bolt using maximum shear stress theory.
a) 11mm
b) 12mm
c) 13mm
d) 14mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 400 x 0.5/3 =6308.2 x 4 /πd².
7. Find the size of the bolt using maximum principal stress theory.
b) 19.2mm
c) 15.3mm
d) 21.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(max)=σ/2 + √[(σ/2)²+ τ²]=10154.35/A = 35N/mm².
For questions 8-13
A wall bracket is attached to the wall by means of 2 identical bolts, one at A and one at B. The force of 20kN
acts at a distance of 400mm. Bolt A lies at a distance of 50mm from axis of tilt and bolt B 500mm.
Allowable shear stress in the bolts is 100N/mm² and tensile is 40N/mm².
machine-design-test-q8
8. Which bolt is used a criterion for designing?

a) A
b) B
c) A or B
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bolt lying farthest from the axis of tilt experience the maximum stress.
9. Find the effective tensile force acting in the two bolts.

a) Bolt B=792.07N & Bolt A=792.07N
b) Bolt B=792.07N & Bolt A=7920.8N
c) Bolt B=7920.8N & Bolt A= 792.07N
d) Bolt B=7920.8N & Bolt A=7920.8N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: F₁=Pel₁/2(l₁² + l₂²) and F₂= Pel₂/2(l₁² + l₂²).
10. Find the radius of Mohr circle which can be made from the shear stress and tensile stress acting on
bolts.(Consider bolt under max stress and area of bolt is A)
a) 10000/A N/mm²
b) 6378.5/A N/mm²
c) 10755.7/A N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: r=√(σ/2)²+ τ² where σ=7920.8/A and τ=20000/4A.
11. Find the ratio of the effective tensile load to which the two bolts are subjected.
a) 1
b) 10
c) 12
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: F₁=Pel₁/2(l₁² + l₂²) and F₂= Pel₂/2(l₁² + l₂²) or F₁/F₂ =l₁/ l₂.
12. Determine the size of bolts using maximum shear stress theory.
a) 12mm
b) 9mm
c) 16mm
d) 18mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Considerig bolt B as a criterion, τ(max)= √(σ/2)²+ τ² where σ=7920.8/A and τ=20000/4A
or 4 x 6378.5/πd²=100.
13. Determine the size of bolts using maximum principal stress theory.
a) 16.1mm
b) 22.2mm
c) 20.2mm
d) 18.1mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: σ(max)=σ/2 + √[(σ/2)²+ τ²] = 7920.8/2A + 6378.5/A =40.
1. A flange of radius 200mm is fastened to the machine screw by means of four cap screws of pitch circle radius
150mm. The external force P is 20kN which is loaded at 160mm from the machine screw. There are two dowel
pins to take shear load. Determine the maximum effective tensile force acting on the bolt. The four bolts are
equally spaced radially.
a) 4777.6N
b) 5777.6N
c) 6777.6N
d) 7777.7N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum force F=2Pl[a+bCos(90/2)] / 4(2a²+b²).
2. A flange of radius 200mm is fastened to the machine screw by means of four cap screws of pitch circle radius
150mm. The external force P is 20kN which is loaded at 160mm from the machine screw. There are two dowel
pins to take shear load. Determine the core diameter of cap screw if permissible tensile stress in cap screw is
40N/mm².
b) 11.21mm
c) 12.33mm
d) 14.12mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum tensile force=4777.6N or πd² x σ/4=4777.6N.
6. Which of the following statements are true about eccentrically loaded circular base?
a) All bolts are symmetrically spaced with equal angle on either side of vertical
b) Bolts are not preloaded
c) Bearing is rigid
d) Dowel pins are used to relieve stresses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bolts are symmetrically placed only in a special case.
7. Certain types of radial bearings can also take thrust load.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sometimes radial bearings can take thrust load and vice versa.
8. Balls and the races of the deep groove ball may roll freely without any sliding.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a point contact between the balls and the races.
1. All welding processes require pressure along with heat.

a) Yes
b ) No, fusion doesn’t require
c) Can’t be stated
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Welding processes involving only heat and no pressure are called the fusion welding processes.
2. The capacity of welded structures to damp vibrations is quite good.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacity of welded joints to damp vibrations is poor.
3. Themit consists of a finely divided mixture of iron oxide and copper.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermite is a mixture of iron oxide and copper.
4. Rails in the field are generally welded by using

a) Thermit welding
b) Gas welding
c) Electric arc welding
d) Forge welding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wherever it is uneconomical to carry welding equipments, thermit welding is used.
5. In gas welding which of the following is generally used?

a) Oxygen-Hydrogen
b) Oxygen-Acetylene
c) Oxygen-Hydrogen or Oxygen-Acetylene
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Intense heat is released I a controlled way and at a moderate temperature.
6. Among gas and electric arc welding, which has the higher rate of heating?
a) Gas welding
b) Electric arc welding
c) Gas welding and electric arc welding have equal rate of heating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gas welding has a gas temperature of about 3200’C while arc temperature is about 40000’C.
7. Forge welding involves heating of parts to elastic stage and joint is prepared by impact force.
a) Yes
b) No, it is done up to plastic stage
c) Heating is done up to boiling point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heating is done up to plastic stage.
8. Filler material is used in electric resistance welding.

a) Yes
b) No filler material used
c) Depends on the type of welding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: No filler material is used. Only the heat released from resistance of metallic parts to current is
used for melting the adjoining parts.
9. Which type of welding is generally used in automobile sector?

a) Electric arc welding
b) Electric resistance welding
c) Gas welding
d) Forge welding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric resistance welding can be easily automated and hence is used in automobile sector.
10. Hard peening is

a) Hammering the weld across the length while the joint is hot
b) Hammering the weld along the length while the joint is hot
c) Hammering the weld along the length while the joint is cold
d) Hammering the weld across the length while the joint is cold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hammering is doe to relieve stresses and inducing compressive stresses to improve the fatigue
strength of the joint.
1. If force act in a direction parallel to the direction of weld, then fillet weld is called as?
a) Transverse
b) Longitudinal
c) Parallel
d) Longitudinal or Parallel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Parallel fillet weld consist of force acting in a direction of weld.
2. Convex weld is generally preferred over normal weld.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is more stress concentration in convex weld and hence is less preferred.
3. Parallel fillet weld and transverse fillet weld both have the plane in which maximum shear stress occurs at 45’
to the leg dimension.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transverse fillet weld has that plane inclined at 67.5 .
4. The length of each of the two equal sides of a parallel fillet weld is called
a) Leg
b) Throat
c) Arm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Leg is the length of each of the two equal sides of a parallel fillet weld.
5. Relation between throat and leg for a parallel fillet weld is

a) t =h Cos (45’)
b) h =t Cos (45’)
c) h= t
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Throat is the minimum cross section of the weld and that plane lies at 45’ for a parallel fillet weld.
6. If length of weld is l and leg h, then area of throat can be given by
a) 0.707 hl
b) 1.414hl
c) hl
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Area=t x l where t=h Cos (45’).
machine-design-questions-answers-butt-joints-fillet-joints-q7
Figure 1
https://www.sanfoundry.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/06/machine-design-questions-answers-butt-joints-
fillet-joints-q7.png
7. A steel plate is welded to another steel plate as shown in the figure 1. This is an example of transverse fillet
weld.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The force acts parallel to the direction of weld and hence is an example of double parallel fillet
weld.
8. Referring to figure 1, determine the required length of the weld joining two steel plates which are 10mm
wide and 10mm thick. The permissible shear stress in the weld is 80N/mm²
a) 18mm
b) 15mm
c) 16mm
d) 14mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P=2 x 0.707 hlτ or 20000=1.414x10xlx80 or l=17.68mm.
9. The two plates are welded as shown in the figure 1. It is an example of

a) Parallel fillet weld
b) Transverse fillet weld
c) Parallel as well as transverse fillet weld
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In two welds force acts parallel as well as perpendicular to the direction of weld.
10. With reference to figure 1, a plate, 75mm wide and 10mm thick, is joined with another plate as shown. The
permissible tensile and shear stress in the welds are 50/mm² and 40N/mm². Determine the required length of
each parallel fillet weld if length of transverse weld is 40mm.
a) 11mm
b) 9mm
c) 8mm
d) 7mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.707hl₁σ+1.414hl₂τ=20000 or 0.707x10x50x40+1.414x10xl₂x40=20000.
11. Strength of parallel fillet weld is greater than strength of transverse fillet weld.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strength of transverse fillet weld is 1.17 times the strength of parallel fillet weld.
1. The two welds shown in the figure experience equal resisting force?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the welded joints are unsymetrically loaded hence resisting forces are different in the two
welds.
2. The moment of forces about the CG is ?

a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) P₁y₁+P₂y₂
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: External force passes through CG hence moment is zero.
3. Which equations can be used to find the resisting force in the two welds?
a) P=P₁+P₂
b) P₁+P₂=0
c) Both P=P₁+P₂ and P₁y₁=P₂y₂
d) P₁y₁=P₂y₂
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One equation is of equilibrium and the other conservation of moment about CG.
4. For the following welded joint l₁y₁=l₂y₂.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P₁y₁=P₂y₂ and P₁=0.707hl₁τ and P₂=0.707hl₂τ.
5. Find the total length of weld required to with stand the load of 100kN. Permissible shear stress in weld is
70kN/mm².
b) 101.03mm
c) 202.06mm
d) 30309mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 100000=0.707x10xlx70.
6. Find the length of weld 2 required to with stand the load of 100kN. Permissible shear stress in weld is
70kN/mm².
b) 102.22mm
c) 132.4mm
d) 70.16mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By finding CG y₂=103.9mm, therefore l₁y₁=l₂y₂ and l₁+l₂=202.06mm.
7. Find the length of weld 1 required to with stand the load of 100kN. Permissible shear stress in weld is
70kN/mm².
b) 102.22mm
c) 132.4mm
d) 70.16mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By finding CG y₂=103.9mm, therefore l₁y₁=l₂y₂ and l₁+l₂=202.06mm.
Figure 2
machine-design-quiz-q8
Answer the following questions with respect to figure 2
8. The following welded joint is an example of

a) Eccentric Load in plane of welds
b) Axial load in plane of welds
c) Axial load in plane perpendicular to plane of welds
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The figure clearly depicts.
9. What kind of stresses does the welded joint undergo?

a) Torsional shear stress
b) Direct shear stress
c) Direct and torsional shear stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After shifting force to CG, we have a force and a moment about CG.
10. While considering moment of inertia for calculating torsional shear stress, J=I(xx) + I(yy), which of the
following can be neglected in context with the following figure?
a) I(xx)
b) I(yy)
c) Both I(xx) and I(yy)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: I(xx) is negligible as compared to I(yy) as I(xx)=ltᵌ/12 and t is very less as compared to l so I(xx) is
neglected in comparison to I(yy).
11. Calculate the direct shear stress in the welds by ignoring torsional shear stress if P=8kN and thickness of
weld is 5mm.
b) 12.33N/mm
c) 13.33N/mm
d) 14.33N/mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct Shear=P/2xtx60.
12. Determine the torsional shear stress in the welds if P=8kN and thickness of the welds is assumed t.
b) 456.34/t
c) 543.13/t
d) 589.31/t
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: M=8000×150,r(farthest point)=√25²+25²,J=2x[tlᵌ/12 + Ar₁²] ; τ=Mr/J.
13. Find the thickness of the weld if P=8kN and permissible shear stress in the welds is 100N/mm²
a) 4mm
b) 5mm
c) 6mm
d) 7mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct shear stress and torsional shear stress act at an angle of 45’,135’,225’ and 315’.
Maximum stress will be at the point where they act at 45’. Direct=8000/120t or 66.67/t and torsional
=543.13/t. Hence net shear=592.1/t =100.
1. The following bracket is welded to the vertical column. The joint undergoes torsional stresses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This joint undergoes bending stresses but not torsional stresses.
2. A bracket is shown welded to a vertical column by means of two fillet welds. The bending stress induced in
the welds can be given by
a) My/I
b) 2My/I
c) My/2I
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formula.
3. Calculate the moment of inertia about the axis parallel to welds and shift it to CG by considering thickness of
welds t.
a) tᵌ+2000t
b) None of the listed
c) 250000 t
d) 125000 t
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: I=[50tᵌ/12 + (50t)x50² ] x 2, ignoring tᵌ term.
4. Find the bending stress in the top weld is if thickness of weld is t. Given P=15kN and e=120mm.
a) 230/t
b) 360/t
c) 200/t
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=My/I or M=15000×120, y=50 and I=250000t.
5. Find the thickness of the weld is if allowable shear stress in the welds is 70N/mm². Given P=15kN and
e=120mm.
b) 3.35mm
c) 4mm
d) 4.73mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: σ=My/I or M=15000×120, y=50 and I=250000t,τ₁=15000/100t or 150/t. Τ=√(σ/2)²+τ₁² or 234.3/t
=70 or t=3.35mm and leg=3.35/0.707.
6. The bracket welded to the vertical plate by means of two fillet welds. Calculate the bending stress in the
welds if P=40kN, leg=4mm and e=400mm.
b) 34N/mm²
c) 24 N/mm²
d)44 N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=My/I where y=250mm,I=2xtx500ᵌ/12 where t=4/.707.
1. The following bracket is welded to the vertical column. The joint undergoes torsional stresses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This joint undergoes bending stresses but not torsional stresses.
2. A bracket is shown welded to a vertical column by means of two fillet welds. The bending stress induced in
the welds can be given by
a) My/I
b) 2My/I
c) My/2I
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formula.
3. Calculate the moment of inertia about the axis parallel to welds and shift it to CG by considering thickness of
welds t.
a) tᵌ+2000t
c) 250000 t
d) 125000 t
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: I=[50tᵌ/12 + (50t)x50² ] x 2, ignoring tᵌ term.
4. Find the bending stress in the top weld is if thickness of weld is t. Given P=15kN and e=120mm.
a) 230/t
b) 360/t
c) 200/t
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=My/I or M=15000×120, y=50 and I=250000t.
5. Find the thickness of the weld is if allowable shear stress in the welds is 70N/mm². Given P=15kN and
e=120mm.
b) 3.35mm
c) 4mm
d) 4.73mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: σ=My/I or M=15000×120, y=50 and I=250000t,τ₁=15000/100t or 150/t. Τ=√(σ/2)²+τ₁² or 234.3/t
=70 or t=3.35mm and leg=3.35/0.707.
6. The bracket welded to the vertical plate by means of two fillet welds. Calculate the bending stress in the
welds if P=40kN, leg=4mm and e=400mm.
b) 34N/mm²
c) 24 N/mm²
d)44 N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=My/I where y=250mm,I=2xtx500ᵌ/12 where t=4/.707.
advertisement
7. The bracket welded to the vertical plate by means of two fillet welds. Calculate size of the welds if
P=40kN, leg=4mm and e=400mm. Maximum permissible value of shear stress in the weld is 70N/mm².
a) 1.4mm
b) 1.7mm
c) 2.1mm
d) 3mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: σ=My/I where y=250mm,I=2xtx500ᵌ/12 and τ₁=P/2xtx500.τ=√σ²+τ₁² or 104/t=70 and
h=t/0.707.
8. While calculating bending stress in the following welded joints which of the welds moment of inertia can
be neglected?
a) 1
c) Both 1 & 3
d) Both 2 & 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Moment of inertia of 1 & 3 can be neglected about their axes but while shifting it to CG, the
term Al² cannot be neglected.
9. If a circular shaft is welded to the plate by means of circumferential fillet, then the shaft is subjected to
torsional moment M. If throat of weld is t, then torsional shear stress is given by
a) M/2πtr²
b) M/πtr²
c) M/4πtr²
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress=Mr/J, here J=2πtrᵌ[I(xx)+I(yy)].
10. Magnetic crack detection method in the welds is destructible examination.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Examination: Magnetic crack detector passes magnetic waves through the sample and thus flux leakage is
observed.
11. Testing the ultimate strength of the weld falls in nondestructive examination.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Testing the ultimate strength leads to fracture of material and hence destructive.
1. The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and __________ diameter at the
shaft ends.
a) Minimum, maximum
b) Maximum, minimum
c) Minimum, minimum
d) Zero, infinity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum diameter is in the middle portion while it is minimum at the ends.
2. ______ is used for a shaft that supports rotating elements like wheels, drums or rope sleaves.
a) Spindle
b) Axle
c) Shaf
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: That is axle and not a spindle.
3. Axle is frequently used in torque transmission.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Axle is a shaft supporting rotating elements.
4. Is it necessary for an axle to be ______ with respect to rotating element?

a) Stationary
b) Moving
c) Moving or stationary
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The axle may be stationary or rotate with the element.
5. Counter shaft is a secondary shaft.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a secondary shaft used to counter the direction of main shaft.
6. Hot rolling produces a stronger shaft then cold rolling.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cold rolling produces stronger shaft as grain structure isn’t deformed in cold working.
7. Shafts are subjected to ______ forces.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Shear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shafts are subjected to tensile forces.
8. Which of the following act on shafts?

a) Torsional moment
b) Bending Moment
c) Both torsional and bending
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shaft is subjected to torsional moment as well as bending moment.
9. When the shaft is subjected to pure bending moment, the bending stress is given by?
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stress =My/I where y=d/2 and I=πd⁴/64.
10. When the shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment, the torsional stress is given by?
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress=Mr/J where r=d/2 and J=πd⁴/64.
1. While designing shaft on the basis of torsional rigidity, angle of twist is given by?
a) Ml/Gd⁴
b) 584Ml/Gd⁴
c) 292 Ml/Gd⁴
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: θ=(180/π)xMl/GJ where J=πd⁴/32.
2. According to ASME code, maximum allowable shear stress is taken as X% of yield strength or Y% of ultimate
strength.
a) X=30 Y=18
b) X=30 Y=30
c) X=18 Y=18
d) X=18 Y=30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ASME Standard. The lesser value is taken among the two.
3. Does ASME Standard take into consideration shock and fatigue factors?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Moment is multiplied by a number to consider these factors while designing the shaft.
Figure 1
machine-design-questions-answers-shaft-design-q4
The layout of a shaft supported on bearings at A & B is shown. Power is supplied by means of a vertical belt on
pulley B which is then transmitted to pulley C carrying a horizontal belt. The angle of wrap is 180’ and
coefficient of friction is 0.3. Maximum permissible tension in the rope is 3kN. The radius of pulley at B & C is
300mm and 150mm.
4. Calculate the torque supplied to the shaft.

a) 453.5N-m
b) 549.3N-m
c) 657.3N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M=(P₁-P₂)xR where P₁=3000N, P₂=P₁/e^(Coeff of friction x Angle of wrap).
5. Calculate the tension in the rope of pulley C.

a) 6778.3N and 7765.3N
b) 5948.15N and 2288.75N
c) 5468.4N ad 8678.3N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: (P₃-P₄)x150=549.3×1000 and P₃/P₄=2.6. Hence P₃=5948.15N and P₄=2288.75N.
6. If allowable shear stress in the shaft is 70N/mm² and torsional and bending moments are M=1185000N-mm
and m=330000N-mm, find the diameter of the shaft.
a) 36.8mm
b) 39.7mm
c) 44.7mm
d) 40.3mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 70=(16/πdᵌ)x√M²+m².
7. If bending moment on point B in horizontal plate is M and in vertical plane is m, then the net bending
moment at point B is?
a) M
b) m
c) M+m
d) √M²+m²
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two moments act perpendicularly to each other.
8. Calculate the shaft diameter on rigidity basis if torsional moment is 196000N-mm, length of shaft is
1000mm. Permissible angle of twist per meter is 0.5’ and take G=79300N/mm².
b) 41.2mm
c) 35.8mm
d) 38.8mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: d⁴=584Ml/Gθ.
9. If yielding strength=400N/mm², the find the permissible shear stress according to ASME standards.
a) 72 N/mm²
b) 76 N/mm²
c) 268 N/mm²
d) 422 N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.18×400.
10. The stiffness of solid shaft is more than the stiffness of hollow shaft with same weight.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hollow shaft is more stiff.
11. The strength of hollow shaft is more than the strength of solid shaft of same weight.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Outer fibers are more effective in resisting the applied moments. In hollow shafts material is
removed and spread on a larger radius.
12. Solid shaft is costlier than hollow shaft of same weight.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hollow shaft cost is more as material is to be selectively emplaced.
13. Solid shafts are used in epicyclic gearboxes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In epicyclic gears, one shaft rotates inside other and hence hollow shafts are used.
14. Flexible shafts have ___ rigidity in torsion making them flexible.
a) Low
b) High
c) Very high
d) Infinitely small
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flexible shafts have high rigidity in torsion making then capable to transmit torque.
15. Flexible shafts have ______ rigidity in bending moment.
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Extremely low
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flexible shafts have low rigidity in bending moments making them flexible.
1. A force 2P is acting on the double transverse fillet weld. Leg of weld is h and length l. Determine the shear
stress in a plane inclined at θ with horizontal.
a) PSinθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
b) P(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
c) Pcosθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: F=PSinθ and width=h/(Sinθ+Cosθ).
2. Maximum shear stress in transverse fillet weld of leg h and length l is

a) P/hl
b) 1.21P/hl
c) P/1.21hl
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: τ= PSinθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl, by maximising it θ=67.5’ and hence find corresponding τ.
3. A sunk key fits in the keyway of the _____ only.
a) Hub
b) Sleeve
c) Both hub and sleeve
d) Neither hub nor sleeve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sunk key fits halfway in the hub and halfway in the shaft.
4. Hollow saddle key is superior to flat saddle key as far as power transmitting capability is concerned.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to slip in case of flat key is more.
5. Saddle key is more suitable than sunk key for heavy duty applications.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In sunk key, relative motion is also prevented by shear resistance of sunk key and hence sunk key
is recommended.
6. The main advantage of sunk key is that it is a _____ drive.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sunk key is a positive drive and no slip occurs.
7. Woodruff key permits _____ movement b/w shaft and the hub.
a) Axial
b) Radial
c) Eccentric
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Woodruff key is a sunk key and doesn’t permit axial moment.
8. Determine the length of kennedy key required to transmit 1200N-m and allowable shear in the key is
40N/mm². The diameter of shaft and width of key can be taken as 40mm and 10mm respectively.
a) 49mm
b) 36mm
c) 46mm
d) 53mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: l=M/[dbτ√2].
9. Splines are keys.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Splines are keys made with shafts.
10. Involute splines have stub teeth with a pressure angle of ___
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
View Answer
Answer: b
Explannation: Pressure angle is 30’ and not 60’.
1. A coupling is a mechanical device that temporarily joins two rotating shafts to each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A coupling permanently joins two rotating shafts.
2. In distortion energy theorem, if a unit cube is subjected to biaxial stress, then S(yt) is given by which of the
following?
a) √ (σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
b) σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
c) √ (σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
d) σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: S(yt)=√[(σ₁ -σ₂)²+(σ₂ -σ₃)²+(σ₃ -σ₁)²]/2, for σ₃=0; expression a is obtained.
3. Oldham coupling i used to connect two shafts having intersecting axes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Oldham coupling is used to connect two parallel shafts separated by a small distance.
4. A machine started malfunctioning due to some issues with the coupling. The coupling emplaced in the
machine was Oldham. The only coupling available in the workshop is Hooke’s coupling. So Oldham coupling can
be replaced by Hooke’s coupling.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is not possible to replace Oldham by Hooke’s coupling as Hooke’s is used to connect intersecting
axes and not parallel axes shafts.
5. A muff coupling is connecting two shafts. The torque involved is 650N-m. The shaft diameter is 45mm with
length and breadth of the key being 14mm and 80mm respectively. Find the shear stress induced in the key.
a) 30.2N/mm²
b) 25.8N/mm²
c) 34.4N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: τ =2M/dbl.
6. The region of safety for biaxial stresses is of which shape in the case of maximum distortion energy theorem.
a) Ellipse
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: S(yt)= √ (σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²) or S²(yt)= (σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²). This is an equation of ellipse.
7. Distortion energy theorem is not recommended for ductile materials.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Experimental investigations have shown that distortion energy theorem gives good results
for failure of ductile component.
8. Among maximum shear stress theory and distortion energy theory, which gives the higher value shear
yield strength?
a) Maximum shear stress theory
b) Distortion energy theory
c) Both give equal values
d) Vary from material to material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum shear stress theory gives S(sy)=0.5S(yt) while Distortion energy theorem gives
S(sy)=0.577(Syt).
9. A muff coupling is connecting two shafts. The torque involved is 650N-m. The shaft diameter is 45mm
with length and height of the key being 14mm and 80mm respectively. Find the compressive stress
induced in the key.
a) 70.1 N/mm²
b) 51.6N/mm²
c) 45.5N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=4M/dhl.
1. Clamp coupling employ bolts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two halves of sleeve are clamped together by bolts.
2. Entire torque is transmitted by friction in the clamp coupling.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some torque is transferred by friction and some by key.
3. Does shaft has to be shifted i axial direction to remove clamp coupling.

a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clamp coupling unlike muff coupling is easily removed without shifting the shaft in axial direction.
4. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the diameter of sleeves in clamp coupling.

a) 100mm
b) 80mm
c) 60mm
d) 40mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dia=2.5d.
5. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the length of sleeves in clamp coupling.

a) 80mm
b) 140mm
c) 100mm
d) 120mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: L=3.5d.
6. If 8 bolts are emplaced in a clamp coupling with shaft diameter 80mm d, calculate the tensile force on each
bolt if coefficient of friction is 0.3 and torque transmitted is 4000N-m.
a) 51234.4N
b) 45968.3N
c) 41666.7N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P=2M/fdn.
7. If 8 bolts are emplaced in a clamp coupling with shaft diameter 80mm d, calculate the diameter of each bolt
if coefficient of friction is 0.3 and torque transmitted is 4000N-m. Permissible tensile stress is 80N/mm².
a) 27mm
b) 25mm
c) 23mm
d) 21mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ax80=2M/fdn.
8. Power is transmitted by only in rigid flange coupling.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power is transmitted by key as well as bolts.
9. If shaft diameter is 60mm, how many bolts are recommended for rigid flange coupling?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If shaft diameter is between 40mm and 100mm, 4 bolts are used.
10. Determine the diameter of the bolts used in rigid flange coupling if transmitted torque is 270N-m, pitch
circle diameter=125mm and four bolts are emplace in the coupling. Permissible shear stress in the bolts is
70N/mm².
a) 3.8mm
b) 3.6mm
c) 4.4mm
d) 4mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: d²=8M/πDNτ.
11. The hub is treated as a solid shaft while calculating torsional shear stress in the hub.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hub is treated as a hollow shaft.
12. Find the shear stress in a flange at the junction of hub in rigid flanged coupling if torsional moment is
2980N-m and diameter of hub being 125mm. Also the thickness of flange is 25mm.
a) 6.77N/mm²
b) 10.24N/mm²
c) 4.84N/mm²
d) 4.22N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: τ=2M/πd²t.
13. If shaft diameter is 30mm and number of pins emplaced are 6, then the diameter of the pin will be?
a) 6.4mm
b) 5.6mm
c) 6.1mm
d) 5.9mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: d₁=.5d/√N.
14. Calculate the force acting on the each pin in flexible coupling if torque transmitted is 397N-m and
PCD=120mm with number of pins 6.
a) 1400.3N
b) 1102.8N
c) 1320.3N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P=2M/DN.
1. Which of the following function can the spring perform?

a) Store energy
b) Absorb shock
c) Measure force
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spring can easily perform all the listed functions.
2. The helix angle is very small about 2⁰. The spring is open coiled spring.
a) Yes
b) It is closed coiled spring
c) That small angle isn’t possible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the helix angle is small, the plane containing each coil is almost at right angles and hence it
is called closed coiled spring.
3. The helical spring ad wire of helical torsion spring, both are subjected to torsional shear stresses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The wire of helical torsion sprig is subjected to bending stresses.
4. The longest leaf in a leaf spring is called centre leaf.

a) It is called middle leaf
b) It is called master leaf
c) Yes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called master leaf.
5. Multi leaf springs are not recommended for automobile and rail road suspensions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are highly used in automobile and rail road suspensions.
6. The spring index is the ratio of wire diameter to mean coil diameter.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter.
7. If spring index=2.5, what can be concluded about stresses in the wire?

a) They are high
b) They are negligible
c) They are moderate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If indexis <3 then stresses are high due to curvature effect.
8. A spring with index=15 is prone to buckling.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to large variation, such a spring is prone to buckling.
9. If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other,the the length of spring is
called as?
a) Solid length
b) Compressed length
c) Free length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Terminology.
10. If number of coils are 8 and wire diameter of spring 3mm, then solid length is given by?
b) 27mm
c) 24mm
d) 21mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solid length=8×3.
11. Compressed length is smaller than the solid length.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Compressed is length of spring under maximum compressive force. There is some gap between
the coils under maximum load.
12. Pitch of coil is defined as axial distance in compressed state of the coil.
a) Yes
b) It is measured in uncompressed state
c) It is same in uncompressed or compressed state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitch is measured in uncompressed state.
13. If uncompressed length of spring is 40mm and number of coils 10mm, then pitch of coil is?
a) 4
b) 40/9
c) 40/11
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitch=Uncompressed length/N-1.
15. Active and inactive, both types of coils support the load although both don’t participate in spring action.
a) Active coils don’t support the load
b) Inactive coils don’t support the load
c) Both active and inactive don’t support the load
d) Both active and inactive support the load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inactive coils don’t support the load.
1. If a spring has plain ends then number of inactive coils is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are no inactive coils in plain ends.
2. Spring having square ends has 1 inactive coil.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 inactive coils.
3. Martin’s factor compensates for curvature effect in springs.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wahl’s factor accommodates curvature effect while designing spring.
4. The angle of twist for the equivalent bar to a spring is given by? (Symbols have their usual meaning)
a) 8PD²N/Gd⁴
b) 16PD²N/Gd⁴
c) 16PDN/Gdᵌ
d) 8PDN/Gdᵌ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: θ=Ml/GJ where M=PD/2, l=πDN and J=πd⁴/32.
5. The axial deflection of spring for the small angle of θ is given by?
a) 328PDᵌN/Gd⁴
b) 8PDᵌN/Gd⁴
c) 16PDᵌN/Gd⁴
d) 8PD²N/Gdᵌ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Deflection=θxD/2.
6. A spring of stiffness constant k is cut in two equal parts. The stiffness constant of new spring will be k/2.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: k=Gd⁴/8DᵌN, hence k is inversely proportional to number of coils. Thus result will be 2k.
7. For two spring connected in series, the force acting on each spring is same and equal to half of the external
force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Te force on each spring is equal to the external force.
8. For two springs connected in series, the net deflection is equal to the sum of deflection in two springs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The net deflection is sum of the deflection of sprigs connected in series.
9. For two springs connected in parallel, net force is equal to the sum of force in each spring.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Net force applied is distributed in the two springs.
10. Patenting is defined as the cooling below the freezing point of water.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Patenting is heating steel above critical range followed by rapid cooling.
11. Find the Wahl’s factor if spring index is 6.

a) 1.2020
b) 1.2424
c) 1.2525
d) 1.5252
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: K=[4C-1/4C-4]+0.615/C.
12. Find the shear stress in the spring wire used to design a helical compression sprig if a load of 1200N is
applied on the spring. Spring index is 6, and wire diameter 7mm.
a) 452.2N/mm²
b) 468.6N/mm²
c) 512.2N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: τ=K x 8PC/πd² where K=[4C-1/4C-4]+0.615/C.
13. Find the mean coil diameter of a helical compression sprig if a load of 1200N is applied on the spring. Spring
index is 6, and wire diameter 7mm.
a) 7/6mm
b) 42mm
c) 1200×6/7 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D=Cd.
14. Find total number coils in a spring having square and ground ends. Deflection in the spring is 6mm when
load of 1100N is applied. Modulus of rigidity is 81370N/mm². Wire diameter and pitch circle diameter are
10mm and 50mm respectively.
a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deflection=8PDᵌN/Gd⁴ or N=4.4 or 5. Total coils=5+2(square grounded ends).
15. A railway wagon moving with a speed of 1.5m/s is brought to rest by bumper consisting of two springs.
Mass of wagon is 100kg. The springs are compressed by 125mm. Calculate the maximum force acting on each
spring.
a) 1200N
b) 1500N
c) 1800N
d) 2000N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: mv²/2=Pxdeflection/2.
1. In concentric springs, vibrations called surge are amplified.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explantion: Surge are eliminated.
2. Can concentric springs be used to obtain a force which is not proportional to its deflection?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two sprigs having different free length can be meshed to obtain such a result.
3. The load shared by each spring is inversely proportional to the cross section of wire.
a) Yes
b) No, it is directly proportional
c) It is proportional to its square
d) It is proportional to its square root
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is directly proportional to the cross section of wire.
4. A concentric spring consists of 2 sprigs of diameter 10mm and 4mm. The net force acting on the composite
spring is 5000N. Find the force acting on each of the two springs.
a) 1232.2N and 3767.8N
b) 786.4N and 4213.6N
c) 689.7N and 4310.3N
d) 645.3N and 4354.7N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P₁/P₂=d₁²/d₂² and P₁+P₂=5000.
5. If the spring have same solid length and number of coils in the two springs are 8 and 10, then find the
diameter of the spring with 8 coils. It is given diameter of spring with 10 coils is 12mm.
a) 9.6mm
b) 9mm
c) 12mm
d) 15mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: N₁d₁=N₂d₂.
6. Two spring having stiffness constants of 22N/mm and 25N/mm are connected in parallel. They are to be
replaced by a single spring to have same effect. The stiffness of that spring will be?
a) None of the mentioned.
b) 3N/mm
c) 47N/mm
d) 11.7N/mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: k=22+25.
7. What will happen if stresses induced due to surge in the spring exceeds the endurance limit stress of the
spring.
a) Fatigue Failure
b) Fracture
c) None of the listed
d) Nipping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If endurance limit is passed, fatigue failure will follow.
8. Surge is caused by resonance effect in the spring.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the natural frequency of vibrations of the spring coincides with frequency of external
periodic force, resonance occurs.
9. Surge is a desirable effect in the sprigs.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surge means vibratory motion which isn’t welcomed anywhere in the machinery.
10. For a helical torsion sprig, the stress concentration factor at inner fibre is? Give spring index=5.
a) 1.005
b ) 1.175
c) 1.223
d) 1.545
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: K=4C²-C-1/4C(C-1).
11. For a helical torsion sprig, the stress concentration factor at outer fibre is? Give spring index=5.
a) 0.78
b ) 0.87
c) 1.87
d) 0.69
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: K=4C²+C-1/4C(C+1).
12. Spiral spring is quite rigid.

a) Yes
b) No it is flexible
c) It is of moderate rigidity
d) Rigidity can’t be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spiral spring is made of very thin wire which imparts great flexibility.
13. The strip of spiral spring is never subjected to pure bending moment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The strip of spiral spring is subjected to pure bending moment.
14. Calculate the bending stress induced in the strip of the helical spring. The spring is subjected to a moment
of 1250N-mm with breadth and thickens of the strip being 11mm and 1.5mmm respectively.
a) 508.8N/mm²
b) 612.2N/mm²
c) 606.1N/mm²
d) 564.3N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: σ=12M/bt².
15. Angle of rotation o arbour with respect to drum is given by?

b) 12ML/Ebtᵌ
c) 8 ML/Ebtᵌ
d) 16ML/Ebtᵌ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: θ=ML/EI where I=btᵌ/12.
1. Bending stress in graduated length leaves are more than that in full length leaves.
a) Yes
b) No
c) In some cases
d) Can’t be stated
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bending stress in full length leaves is around 50% higher than graduated length leaves.
2. Nip is the initial gap between extra full length leaf and the graduated length leaf before the assembly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nipping is done to balance the bending stress in the full length leaf and graduated length leaf.
3. Nipping is defined as leaving the gap between full length leaf and graduated length leaf.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nipping is pre stressing achieved by a difference in radii of curvature.
4. A leaf spring consists of 3 extra full length leaves and 14 graduated length leaves. The maximum force that
can act on the spring is 70kN and the distance between eyes of the spring is 1.2m. Width and thickness of the
leaves are 100mm and 12mm respectively. If modulus of elasticity is 207000N/mm², calculate the initial nip.
a) 26.8mm
b) 24.9mm
c) 22.5mm
d) 23.1mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: C=2PLᵌ/Enbtᵌ where L=1.2/2, n=3+14,P=70/2.
5. A leaf spring consists of 3 extra full length leaves and 14 graduated length leaves. The maximum force that
can act on the spring is 70kN and the distance between eyes of the spring is 1.2m. Width and thickness of the
leaves are 100mm and 12mm respectively. Calculate the initial pre load required to close the nip.
a) 4332.2N
b) 4674.1N
c) 4985.4N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P=2x3x14x35000/17(3×3+2×14).
6. Belleville spring can be used in clutch application.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When h/t=2.1, the Belleville spring can be used in clutches.
7. Belleville spring can only produce linear load deflection characteristics.

a) Only linear
b) Linear as well as non linear
c) Non-linear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Beliville spring can provide any linear or non-linear load deflection characteristics.
8. When two Belleville sprigs are arranged in series, half deflection is obtained for same force.
a) One fourth deflection
b) Double deflection
c) Four time deflection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double deflection is obtained.
9. When two Belleville springs are in parallel, half force is obtained for a given deflection.
a) Half force
b) Double force
c) Same force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double force is obtained.
10. Propagation of fatigue failure is always due to compressive stresses.

a) Due to bending
b) Due to tensile
c) Due to fatigue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Propagation is always due to tensile stresses.
11. The strain energy stored in a spiral spring is given by?

a) 12M²L/Ebtᵌ
b) 6M²L/Ebtᵌ
c) 8M²L/Ebtᵌ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: U=Mθ/2 where θ=12ML/Ebtᵌ.
1. Clutch and coupling perform the same action.
a) Both being permanent joints
b) No they are different type of joints
c) Both being temporary joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clutch is a temporary joint while coupling is a permanent joint.
2. Eddy current clutch is a type of friction clutch.

a) Yes
b) No, it is an electromagnetic type clutch
c) It is a mechanical clutch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eddy current clutch is a type of electromagnetic clutch.
3. In positive contact clutches, power transmission is achieved by means of friction.

a) Yes
b) It is achieved by shear contact
c) Major part is achieved by friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power transmission is achieved by interlocking of jaws or teeth.
4. The jaw clutches show great amount of slip.

a) Yes
b) Zero slip
c) Used in non-synchronous applications
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Jaw clutches do not slip and are used in synchronous applications.
5. For a new friction lining, uniform wear theory is used.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Uniform pressure theory is used.
6. A plate clutch consists of 1 pair of contacting surfaces. The inner and outer diameter of the friction disk is
100mm and 200mm respectively. The coefficient of friction is 0.2 and permissible intensity of pressure is
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform wear theory, calculate the operating force in the clutch.
a) 15546N
b) 12344N
c) 23562N
d) 24543N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P=πpd(D-d)/2.
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform wear theory, calculate the torque transmitting capacity of the clutch.
a) 412.23N-m
b) 353.43N-m
c) 334.53N-m
d) 398.34N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P=πpd(D-d)/2 and M=μP(D+d)/4.
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform wear theory, calculate the power transmitting capacity of the clutch at 80rad/s.
a) 27.8kW
b) 32.4kW
c) 21.2kW
d) 34.5kW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P=πpd(D-d)/2 and M=μP(D+d)/4.Power=Mxω.
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform pressure theory, calculate the operating force in the clutch.
a) 15546N
b) 12344N
c) 23562N
d) 35343N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: P=πp(D²-d²)/4.
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform pressure theory, calculate the torque transmitting capacity of the clutch.
a) 412.23N-m
b) 549.78N-m
c) 567.54N-m
d) 678.86N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P= πp(D²-d²)/4 and M=μP(Dᵌ-dᵌ)/3(D²-d²).
1.5N/mm². Assuming uniform wear theory, calculate the power transmitting capacity of the clutch at 80rad/s.
a) 27kW
b) 32kW
c) 39kW
d) 44kW
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: P= πp(D²-d²)/4 and M=μP(Dᵌ-dᵌ)/3(D²-d²).Power=Mxω.
12. If number of contacting surfaces are 5, then number of disks required in multi disk clutch are?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Disks=Contacting surfaces+1.
13. Multi disk clutches are dry clutches.
a) Plasma clutches
b) Wet clutches
c) Yes
d) Depends on the lubrication used
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are wet clutches as a lot of heat is dissipated due to more contacting surfaces.
14. In scooters, generally single plate clutches are used.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multi disk plate clutches which are compact are used.
15. The coefficient of friction is high in multi disk plate clutch.

a) Yes
b) Coefficient of friction is less
c) Coeffficient of friction is high
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In multi disk clutch, due to oil cooling, coefficient of friction decrease.
1. A cone clutch consists of inner conical surface and outer cylindrical surface.
a) Both cylindrical
b) Both conical
c) Outer conical and inner cylindrical
d) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It consists of both inner and outer conical surfaces.
2. Power is transmitted only by key and friction in the cone clutch.

a) Only by spline
b) By key, spline and friction
c) By friction only
d) By key only
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power is transmitted via key, friction and spline.
3. The torque transmitting capacity of cone clutch increases as its semi vertical angle increase.
a) True
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Torque transmitted is inversely proportional to the sin of the semi vertical angle.
4. When semi vertical angle is greater than angle of static friction, clutch results in self-engagement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Self engagement takes place when semi vertical angle is reduced so low to increase torque
capacity that it become smaller than static friction angle.
5. A cone clutch with a small semi cone angle requires a relatively large force to engage and small force to
disengage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It requires large force to disengage.
6. A cone clutch transmits 24kW at 490rpm. The coefficient of friction is 0.2 and allowable intensity of pressure
is 0.35N/mm². The semi cone angle is 12⁰. The outer diameter is fixed as 310mm.Assuming uniform wear
theory; find the maximum torque which is transmitted.
a) 502.4N-m
b) 542.3N-m
c) 467.72N-m
d) 454.5N-m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: M=Powerx10ᵌx60/2πN.
theory; find the inner diameter.
a) 275mm
b) 300mm
c) 290mm
d) 280mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M=πpμd(D²-d²)/8Sinἀ.
theory; find the face width of friction lining.
b) 48.1mm
c) 52.2mm
d) 56.8mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: b=D-d/2Sinἀ.
theory; calculate force required to engage clutch.
a) 3546.9N
b) 2231.5N
c) 3241.5N
d) 4354.5N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P=4MSinἀ/μ(D+d).
10. Centrifugal clutches are not recommended for IC engine applications.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IC engine is not able to start under load ad hence centrifugal clutches are used.
11. In a centrifugal clutch, when the centrifugal force is slightly more than the spring force, shoe begins to move
in a radially inward direction.
a) Radially outwards
b) Radially upwards
c) Radially downwards
d) Radially inwards
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It moves in radially outward direction.
12. Chain saws, lawnmowers, golf carts etc. never use centrifugal clutches.
a) True
b) No, it is highly used
c) Depends on the load required
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The electric motor has time to accelerate to reach the operating speed before it takes the load and
hence centrifugal clutches are used.
13. The centrifugal clutches are used in light duty vehicles and not in heavy duty vehicles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal clutches are used in heavy uty applications as they provide a time delay that is
sufficient to permit the prime mover to gain momentum before taking over the load.
14. Find number of contacting surfaces for a multi disk clutch plate transmitting torque of 10N-m and inner and
outer diameters of friction lining are 70mm and 100mm respectively. The operating force is of magnitude 305N
and coefficient of friction is 0.2.
a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: z=4M/μP(D+d).
1. The energy absorb by brake is always kinetic.

a) No, potential
b) Kinetic or potential
c) Potential
d) Strain Energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It can be either kinetic or potential.
2. Pneumatic brakes are same as electrical brakes.

a) Yes both are concerned with electricity
b) No, one deals with pressure and other with electricity
c) Yes both deals with pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic brakes are operated by fluid pressure.
3. Disc brakes are radial brakes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Disc brakes are axial brakes.
4. Internal shoe brakes are radial while external shoe brakes are axial brakes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Both internal and external shoe brakes are radial brakes.
5. A solid cast iron disk of mass 1000kg is rotating at 350rpm. Diameter of the disk is 1m and time taken to
come to stop the disk by brake is 1.6sec.Calculate energy absorbed by the brake if square of radius of gyration
is 0.2.
a) None of the mentioned
b) 134.3kJ
c) 165.3kJ
d) 134.2kJ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: E=mk²ω²/2.
come to stop the disk by brake is 1.6sec.Square of radius of gyration is 0.2. Calculate the average angular
velocity during braking period.
a) 15.45rad/s
b) 17.32rad/s
c) 18.32rad/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanaton: ω(avg)=[ω()initial+ω(final)]/2.
come to stop the disk by brake is 1.6sec.Square of radius of gyration is 0.2. Calculate the angle through which
disk rotated during braking period.
a) 27.5rad
b) 24.6rad
c) 29.3rad
d) 32.4rad
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ω(avg)=[ω()initial+ω(final)]/2 and θ=ωt.
come to stop the disk by brake is 1.6sec.Square of radius of gyration is 0.2. Calculate the torque capacity of the
brake.
a) 812.4N-m
b) 4583.6N-m
c) 612.4N-m
d) Noe of the listed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M=E/θ.
9. An automobile brake is only used to reduce the speed or bring the vehicle to hault.
a) Yes
b) No, it also be used to hold the car
c) Brake acts only onmoving vehicles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It can also be used to hold the car stationary.
1. Block brakes are never used in railway trains.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Blocks brakes are commonly employed in railway trains.
2. If torque capacity of a block brake is 240N-m and radius of drum is 210mm with coefficient of friction 0.4.
b) 2857.14N
c) 3443.42N
d) 2334.62N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: N=M/μR.
3. If initially drum of radius 200mm is rotating at 100rpm, then calculate the heat generated if frictional force
acting is 1140N.
a) 3345W
b) 4456W
c) 5969W
d) 11938W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heat=Frictional forcexaverage velocity.
4. In a block brake with short shoe, it is assumed that friction force and normal reaction are concentrated at the
midpoint of the shoe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of contact is less than 45⁰ and hence the assumption is valid.
5. The pressure intensity at an element on long shoe brake varies directly with the sin of the pressure angle of
the element of friction lining.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: p=Cxcos(Ǿ).
6. The equivalent coefficient of friction in case of block brake with long shoe is denoted by μ[4Sinθ/2θ+sin4θ].
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: μ[4Sinθ/2θ+sin2θ].
7. In pivoted block brakes, moment of frictional force about pivot is non zero.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pivot point is selected such that moment of frictional force about pivot point is zero.
8. Shoe is constrained to move towards the drum to compensate for the moment acting.
a) Yes
b) It compensates for wear
c) It compensates for both wear and moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It compensates for the wear which is constant for all points.
9. A pivoted double block brake has a drum radius of 280mm with two shoes subtending an angle of 100⁰.
Calculate the distance of pivot from axis of drum.
a) 321.5mm
b) 314.3mm
c) 289.5mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: h=4Rsinθ/2θ+sin2θwhere θ=100/2.
Maximum pressure intensity is 0.5N/mm². If the width of friction lining is 90mm, find the torque capacity f each
shoe. Assume coefficient of friction as 0.2.
a) 789N-m
b) 1081N-m
c) 945N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M=2μR²wpsinθ.
Maximum pressure intensity is 0.5N/mm². If the width of friction lining is 90mm, find the reaction at pivot in
horizontal direction. Assume coefficient of friction as 0.2.
b) 21123N
c) 17200N
d) 16789N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: R(x)=Rwp(2θ+sin2θ)/2.
Maximum pressure intensity is 0.5N/mm². If the width of friction lining is 90mm, find the reaction at pivot in
horizontal direction. Assume coefficient of friction as 0.2.
b) 2113N
c) 1720N
d) 3440N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: R(y)=μRwp(2θ+sin2θ)/2.
1. Which of the following are functions of bearings?

a) Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
b) Holding shaft in a correct position
c) Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bearings are used for all the above listed purposes.
2. A radial bearing supports the load that acts along the axis of the shaft.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radial bearing supports the load acting perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
3. A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a) Thrust
b) Radial
c) Longitudinal
d) Transversal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thrust bearing supports load acting along axis of shaft.
4. Sliding contact bearings, also called plain bearings have no problem of wear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface of shaft slide over surface of the bush resulting in friction and wear.
5. In steam and gas turbines, rolling contact bearings are used.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sliding contact bearings are generally used.
6. Which of the following are true about plasticity?

a) Permanent Deformation
b) Ability to retain deformation under load or after removal of load
c) Plastic deformation is greater than elastic deformation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This is the basic definition of plasticity.
7. Which of the following is measure of stiffness?

a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of plasticity
c) Resilience
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stiffness is the ability of material to resist deformation under external load. Hence it is measured
by modulus of elasticity.
8. Which of the following facts are true for resilience?

a) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically
b) Ability to retain deformation under the application of load or after removal of load
c) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed plastically
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Toughness is ability to store energy till proportional limit during deformation and to release this
energy when unloaded.
9. Modulus of resilience is defined as

a) Strain energy per unit volume
b) Strain energy per unit area
c) Independent of strain energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulus of resilience is strain energy per unit volume.
10. In gear boxes and small size motors, rolling contact bearings are used.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In small size applications, rolling contact bearings are preferred.
1. Deep groove ball bearings creates a lot of noise.

a) Yes
b) They create very less noise
c) Depends on the application
d) No reference frame for comparison is mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They create very less noise due to point contact.
2. There is problem of alignment in deep groove ball bearings.

a) Yes
b) No, it is self-aligning
c) It aligns itself only in some particular cases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not self-aligning.
3. Deep groove ball bearing has immense rigidity.

a) True
b) No it has point contact and hence low rigidity
c) It has surface contact
d) It has line contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to point contact, rigidity is not so good.
4. Cylindrical load bearing has lower load capacity as compared to deep groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cylindrical load bearing has a line contact and hence higher load capacity.
5. Angular contact bearing can take thrust as well as radial loads.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line of reaction at the contact surfaces makes an angle with axis of bearing and thus has two
components, hence allowing it to take both type of loads.
6. In angular contact bearings, ____ bearings are required to take thrust load in both directions.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angular contact bearing has this disadvantage of needing two bearings.
7. The angular play bearing must be mounted without axial play.

a) Yes
b) Little tolerance is adjusted
c) Little tolerance is necessary
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no tolerance of misalignment.
8. Taper rolling supports

a) Axial loads
b) Thrust loads
c) Both axial and thrust loads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The line of reaction makes an angle with the axis of bearing and hence both type of loads can be
carried.
9. Which of the following isn’t the property of taper roller?

a) High rigidity
b) Easy dismantling
c) Take low radial and heavy loads
d) All are the properties of tapper roller
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to line contact it can take high radial and thrust loads.
10. Which of the following cannot take radial load?

a) Cylindrical Roller bearing
b) Taper roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no inclination in the line of reaction and hence only thrust loads can be carried.
11. Which of the following cannot tolerate misalignment?

a) Angular contact bearing
b) Cylinder roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearings
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of these require précised alignment.
12. Cylinder roller creates lesser noise than deep groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to line contact, cylinder roller creates far more noise.
1. Static load is defined as the load acting on the bearing when shaft is _____
a) Stationary
b) Rotating at rpm<10
c) Rotating at rpm<5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As name suggests, static load means load during stationary position of the shaft.
2. A total permanent deformation of 0.0001 of the ball diameter is taken for considering static load capacity of
the shaft.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Permissible magnitude of deformation is set as per the experimental data.
3. Stribeck equation gives dynamic load capacity of the bearing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It gives static load capacity of the bearing.
4. Which of the following is expression for stribeck equation?(Number of balls=z)?

a) C=kd²z/5
b) C=kd²z/15
c) C=kd²z/10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C=(1/5)zP and P=kd².
5. The life of an individual ball bearing is the time period for which it works without any signs of failures.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is measured by number of revolutions and not by time.
6. For majority of bearings, actual life is considerably greater than rated life.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stastically it has been proved that life which 50% of a group of bearings will exceed is
approximately five times rating of rated life.
7. The dynamic load carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be
carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is for 1 million revolutions.
8. In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVF(r) + YF(a), V stands for ?

a) Race rotation factor
b) Radial factor
c) Thrust factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It represent race rotation factor which depends upon whether inner race is rotating or outer race.
9. Calculate the bearing life if expected life for 90% bearings is 9000h and shaft is rotating at 1500rpm.
a) 850 million rev
b) 810 million rev
c) 810 h
d) 850h
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: L=60x1500x9000/10⁶ million rev.
10. The bearing is subjected to a radial load of 4000N. Expected life for 90% bearings is 9000h and shaft is
rotating at 1500rpm. Calculate the dynamic load capacity.
a) 42.21kN
b) 37.29kN
c) 26.33kN
d) 35.22kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: C=4000x(810)⅓.
11. A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Calculate the bearing diameter.
a) 35mm
b) 28mm
c) 21mm
d) 7mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Diameter=5 times the last two digits.
12. A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Determine the series.

a) Extra light series
b) Light series
c) Medium series
d) Heavy series
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1- Extra light series,2-Light series,3-Medium series,4-heavy series.
13. Needles bearing consist of rollers of small diameter and very small length.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Also called as quill bearings, they consist of small diameter and comparatively longer b=rollers.
14. Extreme pressure causes ______ wear in the bearing parts.

a) Abrasive
b) Corrosive
c) Pitting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme pressure elements in EP additives are added in lubricating oils.
15. Scoring is a ________ phenomenon.

a) Stick-slip
b) Fracture
c) Fatigue
d) In-out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alternative welding and shearing takes place.
1. Thick film lubrication describes a phenomenon where two surfaces are _______ separated.
a) Completely
b) Partially
c) Not
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no contact between the two surfaces.
2. Hydrodynamic bearing is a self-acting bearing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure in the bearing is created within the system due to rotation of the shaft.
3. A journal bearing is a ______ contact bearing working on the hydrodynamic lubrication and which supports
load in____ direction.
a) Sliding, Axial
b) Rolling, Radial
c) Sliding, Radial
d) Rolling, Axial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is how journal bearing works. It derives its name from the portion of the shaft inside the
bearing.
4. Partial bearing is preferred over journal bearing.

a) True
b) No
c) More friction losses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Friction losses are lesser and construction is simple.
5. Temperature rise in partial bearing is ____ than full bearing.

a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) Undeterminable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to lesser friction, temperature rise is less.
6. A clearance bearing is design accurately to keep the radius of journal and bearing equal.
a) Journal radius is kept larger
b) Journal radius is kept smaller
c) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Journal radius is kept smaller.
7. Fitted bearing must be partial bearing.
a) True
b) No
c) No lubricating space is required
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To provide space for lubricating oil.
8. Footstep bearing is an axial load bearing.

a) True
b) Thrust load
c) Shear load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a thrust bearing in which shaft end is in contact with bearing surface.
9. Hydrostatic and hydrodynamic lubrication are the same thing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In hydrodynamic, motion is provided by the shaft while in hydrostatic the motion is provided by an
external source.
10. If we exclude the cost factor, which bearing is preferred?

a) Hydrostatic
b) Hydrodynamic
c) Both are equally preferred
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High load capacity, no starting friction and no rubbing action.
11. If fluid film pressure is high and surface rigidity is low than mode of lubrication is called as
elastohydrodynamic lubrication.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In such cases, elastic deflections of the parts causes development of the film.
1. Viscosity is defined as the external resistance offered by a fluid to change its shape or relative motion of its
parts.
a) Yes
b) It is internal resisting force
c) It is not offered but exerted on the fluids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is an internal resisting force.
2. Stream line flow happens when intermediate layers move with velocities proportional to the square of
distance from the stationary plate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is proportional to distance and not square of it.
3. Newton law of viscosity states that shear stress is proportional to rate of shear at any point in the fluid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P/A proportional to U/h.
4. Calculate the kinematic viscosity if Saybolt viscosity is 400cSt.

a) 400SUS
b) 40.25SUS
c) 86.32SUS
d) 87.55SUS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: z=0.22t-[180/t] where t=400.
5. Viscosity of lubricating oil decrease with increasing temperature.

a) Yes
b) It increases linearly
c) It increases hyperbolically
d) it remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intermolecular forces decrease on the increase of temperature.
6. Which of the following lubricant has least rate of change of viscosity w.r.t temperature.
a) VI=20
b) VI=30
c) VI=40
d) VI=50
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Greater the VI, lesser is the rate of change w.r.t temperature.
7. Which of the following are not true for petroff’s equation?

a) Shaft is considered concentric with the bearing
b) Bearing is subjected to light load
c) Is used to find coefficient of friction
d) Frictional torque is given by fpr²l
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: M=fWr=f(2prl)r, W=projected area of bearing x pressure.
8. In hydrodynamic lubrication, film thickness remains unaffected by change in speeds.

a) True
b) Increase with increase in speed
c) Decrease with increase in speed
d) Disappear as the speed tends to infinty
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As speed increases more and more lubricant is forces and pressure builds up thus separating the
two surfaces. There is transition from thin film thick film.
9. For a hydrostatic thrust bearing,

Thrust load=450kN, shaft speed=730rpm, shaft diameter=450mm, recess diameter=310mm, film
thickness=0.15mm, viscosity of lubricant=160SUS and specific gravity=0.86.
Calculate supply pressure
a) 10.2Pa
b) 4.01Pa
c) 4.01Mpa
d) 10.2Mpa
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P=2Wln(225/155)/[π(225²-155²)] N/mm².

Thrust load=450kN, shaft speed=730rpm, shaft diameter=450mm, recess diameter=310mm, film
thickness=0.15mm, viscosity of lubricant=160SUS and specific gravity=0.86.
Calculate flow requirement
a) 0.89l/s
b) 38.94l/min
c) 28.8l/min
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Q=πPhᵌ/6µln(225/155) whereµ=z/10⁹ and z=0.86x[0.22×160-180/160]. µ=29.3 x 10¯⁹N-s/mm².

Thrust load=450kN, shaft speed=730rpm, shaft diameter=450mm, recess diameter=310mm,film
thickness=0.15mm,viscosity of lubricant=160SUS and specific gravity=0.86.
Calculate power loss in pumping.
a) 2.68kW
b) 3.35kW
c) 2.6kW
d) 4.2kW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: kW=Q(P-0)x10¯⁶.
12. For a hydrostatic thrust bearing, Thrust load=450kN, shaft speed=730rpm, shaft diameter=450mm, recess
diameter=310mm,film thickness=0.15mm,viscosity of lubricant=160SUS and specific gravity=0.86.
Calculate frictional power loss.
b) 2.3kW
c) 3.56kW
d) 4.2kW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: kW=µn²(225⁴-155⁴)/hx58.05×10⁶.
1. The bearing characteristic number shown in the graph is directly proportional to the unit bearing pressure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: BCN=µN/P.
2. In the graph shown, which regions points the partial metal to metal contact.
a) BC
b) CD
c) Both BC and CD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanatiion: BC is the condition of thin film and hence surfaces are not completely separated.
3. Hydrodynamic lubrication takes place in region?

a) BC
b) CD
c) Both BC and CD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In CD thick film of lubrication has developed.
4. Coefficient of friction is minimum at

a) It is same at each point
b) B
c) C
d) D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is minimum at the transition zone.
5. Bearing modulus is the bearing characteristic number at

a) B
b) C
c) D
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: BCN modulus is the the BCN number corresponding to the minimum coefficient of friction.
6. If viscosity of the lubricant is very low than BCN will lie in the region
a) BC
b) Point C
c) CD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to low viscosity, lubricant will not separate the two surfaces resulting in partial contact.
7. The fundamental equation for viscous flow is given by ∆pbhᵌ/6µl where symbols have their usual
meanings.
a) 6 is to be replaced by 3
b) 6 is to be replaced by 12
c) 6 is to be replaced by 9
d) 6 is to be replaced by 15
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is givenby ∆pbhᵌ/12µl.
8. A single transverse weld is preferred over double transverse fillet weld.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A single transverse weld is not preferred because the edge of the plate which is not welded
can warp out of shape.
9. Transverse fillet weld can be designed using the same equations as of parallel fillet weld.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vice versa is true as strength of transverse fillet weld is greater than that of parallel fillet
weld.
1. The common normal to the curves of the two teeth must not pass through the pitch point.
a) True
b) It must pass
c) It may or may not pass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The common normal must pass through the point where two mating gears meet.
2. Which of the following can be used for power transmission in intersecting shafts.
a) Spur Gear
b) Helical Gear
c) Bevel Gear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gears are used for power transmission in case of intersecting shafts.
3. Is it possible to transmit power between shafts lying in different planes using gears?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Worm or crossed helical gears can be used in this case for power transmission.
4. The two gears are said to have conjugate motion if

a) They have constant angular velocity ratio
b) Variable angular velocity ratio
c) Infinitely small angular velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two gear are said to have conjugate motion and tooth profiles are said to have conjugate curves if
they have constant angular velocity ratio.
5. Which of the following is not true about gears?

a) Positive drive
b) Constant velocity ratio
c) Transmit large power
d) Bulky construction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They have compact construction.
6. Gear drive don’t require precise alignment of shafts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A minute level of misalignment isn’t tolerated in gears.
7. Spur gears can be used only when the two shafts are parallel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The teeth are cut parallel to the axis of shaft.
8. The teeth of the helical gears are cut parallel to the shaft axis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are cut at an angle with the shaft axis.
9. Herringbone gear can be used in

a) Intersecting shafts only
b) Parallel shafts only
c) Both intersection and parallel shafts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It consist of two helical gears with the opposite hand of the helix.
10. Bevel gears impose ____ loads on the shafts.

a) Radial and thrust
b) Radial
c) Thrust
d) Neither radial nor thrust
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bevel gears have the shape of a truncated cone and tooth is cut straight or spiral.
11. Which of the following are true for worm gears?

a) Worm is in the shape of threaded screw
b) Threads on the worm have small lead
c) Worm imposes high thrust loads
d) Characterised by low speed reduction ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They are characterised by high speed reduction ratio.
12. Greater the velocity ratio, smaller the gearbox.

a) True
b) Greater the gearbox
c) Size of gearbox remains unaffected
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Greater velocity leads to increase in size of gear wheel which results in size of gearbox.
13. Required velocity ratio is 60:1, which of the following are recommended?
a) Worm
b) Spur
c) Bevel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For high speed reduction ratio, worm gears are recommended.
14. For a constant velocity ratio, the common normal to the tooth profile at point of contact must pass through
a continuously variable point.
a) True
b) It pass through a fixed point
c) Constant velocity ratio isn’t required, hence variable point is preferred
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It must pass through a fixed point called pitch to maintain a constant velocity ratio.
1. In cycloidal gears contact area is

a) Comparatively smaller
b) Comparatively larger
c) Can’t be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Convex flank on one tooth meets with concave on the other thus increasing the contact area.
2. Involute gears have greater contact area as compared to cycloidal gears.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is mating of two convex surfaces and hence lesser contact area.
3. Cycloidal teeth consist of
a) Hypocycloid curve
b) Epicycloid gear
c) Both hypocycloid curve and epicycloid curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consist of both and thus are hard to manufacture.
4. Pressure angle remains constant in case of involute profile.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The common normal always passes through the pitch point and thus maintain the constant
inclination.
5. Pressure angle is _____ in case of cycloidal teeth.

a) Constant
b) Variable
c) zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cycloidal teeth consist of two profiles.
6. Velocity ratio is the ratio angular velocity of driving gear to that of driven gear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity ratio is simply the angular velocities ratio.
7. Velocity ratio and transmission ratio are the same thing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission ratio is measured between first and last gear.
8. Contact ratio is always

a) =1
b) >1
c) <1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some overlapping is essential for continuous transfer of power.
9. Product of diametric pitch and circular pitch is?

a) π
b) 1/π
c) None of the listed
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CP=πd/z and circular pitch=z/d.
10. Diameteral pitch is 5, then calculate module of the gear.

a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 5
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Module is the inverse of diameteral pitch.
1. If driving gear rotates CW, driven gear will rotate?

tricky-machine-design-questions-answers-q1
a) ACW
b) CW
c) Both CW and ACW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If there are even number of intermediate gears between driving gears and driven gears, first and
last gear rotate in the opposite direction.
2. If driving gear rotates ACW, driven gear will rotate in which direction?
a) ACW
b) CW
c) Both CW & ACW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of idler gears are even, then first and last gear rotate in same direction.
3. A compound gear train consists of at least 3 shafts connected to each other.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compound gear train is characterised by one shaft carrying two gears atleast.
4. If driving gear rotates in CW, then driven gear will rotate in?
a) CW
b) ACW
c) CW & ACW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 3-ACW,2-ACW and driven gear CW.
5. If centre distance between the two gears on same shaft is unequal to the centre distance on the other two
gears on the second shaft, then this gear train is called reverted gear train.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre distance is equal in both the shafts.
6. If one gear is fixed while the other gear has motion of two types i.e. rotary about its own axis and rotation
about axis of fixed gear, than the gear train is _____
a) Epicyclic gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Kepler gear train
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of epicyclic gear train.
7. Which of the following are true about epicyclic gear train?

a) Fixed gear is called sun gear
b) Rotating gear are called earth gear
c) Crank is called sun carrier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotating gears are called planet gears.
8. Epicyclic gears are not generally recommended due to bulky construction.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Epicyclc gears have compact construction.
1. Interference is caused by?

a) Overlapping of tooth profiles
b) Large size of dedendum
c) Meshing of involute and no-involute profiles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In some cases, portion of tooth below base circle is not involute due to large dedendum. This leads
to overlapping of involute portion of teeth with the non-involute portion of the teeth.
2. Interference can be removed by under cutting.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Undercutting removes the interfering portion of the tooth.
3. Interference is maximum when the largest pinion is in mesh with the smallest gear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is maximum when smallest pinion is in mesh with the largest gear.
4. Undercutting is consider healthy for the tooth as it eliminates undercutting.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Although it eliminates undercutting but it also weakens the strength of the tooth and removes a
small involute portion near to the base circle.
5. Backlash is defined as
a) Difference in the width of tooth space and engaging tooth thickness
b) Amount by which engaging tooth thickness exceeds the tooth space
c) Other name for interference
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Backlash is the amount by which tooth space exceeds the engaging tooth thickness.
6. The amount of backlash depends on

a) Diameteral pitch
b) Module
c) Centre distance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Module and diameteral pitch are the same thing, and centre distance is also a factor while
deciding the magnitude of the backlash.
7. The two teeth have thickness t₁ and t₂. If backlash of t₁ is greater than that of t₂, than
a) t₁ > t₂
b) t₁ < t₂
c) t₁ = t₂
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash=Tooth space-tooth thickness, greater the backlash lower is the tooth thickness.
Answer the following questions with respect to the following questions

A gear train consist of spur gear as shown. Gear A receives 4kW of power at 750rpm through its shaft and
rotates in CW direction.
tough-machine-design-questions-answers-q8
8. Calculate the torque on the gear A.

a) 51N-m
b) 48N-m
c) 46N-m
d) 44N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: M=60×10⁶x4/2πx750.
9. Calculate the torque on the gear B.

a) 47N-m
b) 51N-m
c) 0
d) Infinity
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation: Gear B is an idler gear and thus transmits no torque.
10. A gear train consist of spur gear as shown. Gear A receives 4kW of power at 750rpm through its shaft and
rotates in CW direction. Calculate the torque on the gear C if number of teeth on gear A, B and C are 40, 70 and
30.
a) 66N-m
b) 68N-m
c) 53N-m
d) 45N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: M(a)xN(a)=M(c)xN(c) as the power transmitted is same.
11. Calculate the tangential gear tooth force. Module of the gear is 5mm.
a) 510N
b) 526N
c) 544N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P=2M/d or P=2×51/5×40.
A planetary gear train is shown in the figure. Number of teeth on the sun gear A, planet gear B and fixed ring
gear D are given by 30, 70 and 140 respectively. Module is taken as 5mm
tough-machine-design-questions-answers-q12
12. Calculate the length of the arm C.

a) Missing data
b) 250mm
c) 330mm
d) 240mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: L=[Da+Db]/2 where da=5×30 and Db=5×70.
13. Calculate the tangential component of gear tooth force.

a) 220.6N
b) 303.2N
c) 454.7N
d) 633.2N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P=2M/5×30 where M=60×10⁶x(kW)/2πN.
14. A pair of spur gears consist of 25 teeth pinion meshing with a 115 teeth gear. The module is 5mm. Calculate
the gear ratio.
a) 5
b) 4.6
c) 5.2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: i=115/25.
15. Calculate the shaft angle for opposite hand of helix if helix angle of two gears are 20⁰ and 17⁰.
a) 17⁰
b) 20⁰
c) 37⁰
d) 3⁰
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For same hand of helix, shaft angle=difference of helix angles of two gears.
1. There are ____ standard systems for the shape of gear teeth.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 14.5⁰ full depth involute system, 20⁰ full depth involute system and 20⁰ stub involute system.
2. When the number of teeth reaches infinity, circle radius approaches infinity the gear becomes an infinite
loop.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It becomes a rack with straight sided teeth.
3. Which of the following statements are not true?

a) Increasing pressure angle improves the tooth strength
b) Contact duration is decreased with increase in pressure angle
c) 20⁰ pressure angle has quieter operation then 14.5⁰
d) All of the statements are true
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lower the pressure angle, quieter is the operation. Lower the pressure angle, lower is the breadth
of the tooth at root.
4. 20⁰ stub involute system have comparatively smaller interference.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They have shorter addendum and shorter dedendum.
5. Which of the following have stronger teeth?
a) Stub teeth
b) Full depth teeth
c) Both have equal strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Smaller moment arm of bending force leads to stronger stub teeth.
6. As the module increases, index of size of gear decreases.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Module is the measure of size of index of the gear tooth.
7. Crowning is an abrasive process that debars the gear strength.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crowningis used to strengthen the tooth.
8. Inaccuracies in tooth profile lead to concentration of pressure on the middle of tooth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inaccuracies lead to shift of pressure at the end of tooth which can be improved by crowning.
the centre distance.
a) 280mm
b) 269mm
c) 350mm
d) 305mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C=m(z(p)+z(g))/2.
pitch circle diameter of the pinion.
a) 95mm
b) 105mm
c) 115mm
d) 125mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: D=5×25.
the pitch circle diameter of the gear.
a) Cannot be determined
b) 31mm
c) 475mm
d) 575mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: D=5×115.
the addendum.
b) 4.75mm
c) 5.25mm
d) 5mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: H=m=5mm.
the dedendum.
a) 4.75mm
b) 5mm
c) 6.25mm
d) 6.68mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: H=1.25xm=1.25x5mm.
the tooth thickness.
a) 6.23mm
b) 5.44mm
c) 7.854mm
d) 8.16mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: T=1.5708xm=1.5708x5mm.
the bottom clearance.
b) 1.75mm
c) 2.5mm
d) 1.25mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C=0.25m=0.25x5mm.
1. Among spur gear and helical gear, which has smooth engagement and thus lesser noise?
a) Helical Gears
b) Spur Gears
c) Both have equal noises
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a gradual pick up of load in helical gears and hence smooth operation.
2. There is same type of tooth meshing in helical and spur gear.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In spur gears contact occurs along entire face width which leads to impact condition while in
helical contact begins from a single point and then there is gradual increase in load.
3. Among the normal module and transverse module, which one has greater value?
a) Normal Module
b) Transverse Module
c) Both have equal module
d) Insufficient information
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal Module=Transverse modulexCos(helix angle).
4. Below is a representation of a helical gear. Blue lines in the figure signify?

tough-machine-design-questions-q4
a) Pinion right handed helical teeth
b) Pinion left handed helical teeth
c) Both right and left handed
d) Symmetric helical teeth
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: The lines are slopping downwards to the right side.
5. Below is a representation of a helical gear. Blue lines in the figure signify?

tough-machine-design-questions-q5
a) Pinion right handed helical teeth
b) Pinion left handed helical teeth
c) Both right and left handed
d) Symmetric helical teeth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The lines are slopping upwards to the right side.
6. A pair of parallel helical gears consist of 15 teeth pinion meshing with a 40 teeth gear. The helix angle is 22⁰
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the transverse module.
a) 4.3mm
b) 4.1mm
c) 3.9mm
d) 3.7mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: m=4/Cos(22⁰).
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the transverse pressure angle in
degrees.
a) 17.9
b) 20.4
c) 19.6
d) 18.4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: tanᾰ=tan(19⁰)/Cos(22⁰).
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the axial pitch.
b) 34.2mm
c) 33.4mm
d) 29.6mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: p=πx(transverse module)/tan(22).
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the pitch circle diameter of
pinion.
a) 64.7mm
b) 52.6mm
c) 56.6mm
d) 68.8mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: d=zxm/Cos(22).
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the pitch circle diameter of the
gear.
a) 172.6mm
b) 142.6mm
c) 180.3mm
d) 202.4mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: d=zxm/Cos(22).
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the centre distance.
a) 125.4mm
b) 132.6mm
c) 118.65mm
d) 145.4mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: C=Sum of diameter of pinion and gear/2.
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate addendum circle diameter of
the pinion.
a) 59.2mm
b) 72.7mm
c) 65.4mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D(a)=m[z/Cos(22) + 2].
and normal pressure angle 19⁰. The normal module is taken as 4mm. Calculate the dedendum circle diameter
of the pinion.
a) 64.5mm
b) 54.7mm
c) 59.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D(f)=m[z/Cos(22) – 2.5].
14. The direction of tangential component for a driving gear is same to the direction of rotation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction is opposite and not same.
15. If tangential component of force on tooth is 200N and helix angle is 25⁰, calculate the axial component of
the force.
a) 200N
b) 302.5N
c) 93.26N
d) 215.6N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: P(a)=200xtan(25).
1. Lewis form factor is based on real number of teeth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is based on virtual umber of teeth only.
2. Beam strength indicates the maximum value of radial force that a tooth can transmit without fatigue failure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It indicates maximum force for bending failure and not fatigue failure.
3. A pair of helical gears consist of 25 teeth pinion gear meshing with a 90 teeth gear. Calculate the ratio factor.
a) 0.74
b) 0.88
c) 1.57
d) 1.44
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ratio factor Q=2×90/90+25.
4. A pair of helical gears consist of 25 teeth pinion gear meshing with a 90 teeth gear. Calculate the material
constant k If surface hardness is 260BHN.
a) 0.64N/mm²
b) 0.88N/mm²
c) 1.08N/mm²
d) 2.66N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: K=0.16x[BHN/100]².
5. A pair of helical gears consist of 25 teeth pinion gear meshing with a 90 teeth gear. Calculate the wear
strength If surface hardness is 260BHN. Also face width=35mm, module=4mm and helix angle=25⁰.
a) 443.5N
b) 1125.6N
c) 7971.9N
d) 1014.2N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: S=bQdK/cos²Ɯ where Ɯ=25⁰, d=zm/cosƜ, Q=2×90/90+25, K=0.16x[BHN/100]².
6. A pair of helical gears consist of 25 teeth pinion gear meshing with a 90 teeth gear. Calculate the tangential
force If surface hardness is 260BHN. Also face width=35mm, module=4mm and helix angle=25⁰. The velocity of
operation is 3.5m/s and service factor 1.5.
a) 1136.5N
b) 3983.7
c) 2012.6N
d) 3226.5N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: S=1.5xP/C where C=5.6/5.6+√v and S=bQdK/cos²Ɯ where Ɯ=25⁰, d=zm/cosƜ,
Q=2×90/90+25, K=0.16x[BHN/100]².
7. Which of the following is herringbone gear?

machine-design-questions-answers-strength-helical-gears-q7
a) Left one
b) Right one
c) Both
d) None
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Herringbone gear is without any groove.
8. The net axial force acting on bearing is zero in case of double helical gears while none zero in case of
herringbone gears.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is zero in both the cases.
9. Helix angle of herringbone and double helical gears is relatively higher.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no thrust force and hence higher angles are permitted.
10. A herringbone speed reducer consist of 20 teeth pinion driving a 100 teeth gear. The normal module of
gear is 2mm. The face width of each half is 30mm and Lewis factor is 0.4. If permissible bending stress is
500N/mm², then calculate the beam strength.
a) 15000N
b) 12000N
c) 8000N
d) 10000N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: S=mbσY.
gear is 2mm. The face width of each half is 30mm and Lewis factor is 0.4. Calculate the ratio factor Q.
a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.7
d) 1.4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Q=2×100/100+20.
gear is 2mm. The face width of each half is 30mm and Lewis factor is 0.4. Calculate the material constant K
if surface hardness is 400BHN.
a) 1.25 N/mm²
b) 4.05 N/mm²
c) 3.25N/mm²
d) 2.56N/mm
View Answer
Answer: c
13. Helical gears mounted on parallel shafts are called crossed helical gears.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crossed helical gears are the helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts.
14. Crossed helical gears have very low load carrying capacity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is point contact and hence very less area and thus wear is comparatively rapid.
15. Calculate the shaft angle for same hand of helix if helix angle of two gears are 20⁰ and 17⁰.
a) 17⁰
b) 20⁰
c) 37⁰
d) 3⁰
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For same hand of helix, shaft angle=sum of helix angles of two gears.
1. There are ____ common types of bevel gears.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spiral and straight.
2. Straight bevel gears are easy to design and manufacture and give reasonably good service with quieter
operation.
a) True
b) No, noise problem
c) No, vibration problem
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They produce a lot of noise while working.
3. Which of the following creates smoother motion?

a) Straight bevel gears
b) Spiral bevel gears
c) Equal for straight and spiral
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spiral bevel gear has smooth engagement which results in quieter operation.
4. When the pitch angle is greater than 90⁰, it is called external bevel gear.
a) True
b) Internal
c) Helical
d) Herringbone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For external bevel gear, pitch angle is less than 90⁰.
5. For crown bevel gear, pitch angle is

a) <90
b) =90
c) >90
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crown gears are characterised by pitch angle of 90⁰.
6. If pitch angle is >90, the bevel gear is?

a) Internal
b) External
c) Crown
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nomenclature.
7. Miter gears are the bevel gears mounted on shaft which are intersecting at angle greater than 90.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shafts which are intersecting at 90.
8. Crown gears having a pitch angle of 90⁰ are mounted on shafts intersecting at an angle
a) =90
b) <90
c) >90
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Application of crown gear according to its structure.
9. Which of the following are characteristics of skew bevel gears?

a) Straight teeth
b) Mounted on parallel shafts
c) Mounted on intersecting shafts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are used in non-parallel and non-intersecting shafts.
10. Hypoid gears are based on surfaces that are paraboloids of revolution.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They are hyperboloids of revolution.
11. When two hyperboloids are rotated, the resulting motion is

a) Sliding
b) Turning
c) Combination of turning and sliding
d) Rotary
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is turning as well as sliding motion.
12. In hypoid bevel gears, shafts may continue past each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Offset of the shaft is quite considerable in case of hypoid gears.
13. Hypoid gears have the following characteristics.

a) Curved teeth
b) Mounted on non -parallel non intersecting shafts
c) Efficiency of 97%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It has curved teeth and are mounted on non-parallel non intersecting shafts with efficiency of 96-
98%.
14. Zerol gears are straight bevel gears with zero spiral angle.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They happen to fall in the category of spiral bevel gears.
15. Zerol gears give lesser contact ratio.

a) True
b) No, larger contact ratio
c) Zero contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Zerol gears have more gradual contact and slighter larger contact ratio.
1. If pitch angle and addendum angles are 5⁰ and 12⁰ respectively, then face angle is equal to?
a) 17⁰
b) 7⁰
c) 5⁰
d) 12⁰
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Face angle=pitch angle+ addendum angle.
2. If pitch angle is 8⁰ and dedendum angle is 4⁰, then find root angle.
a) 12⁰
b) 4⁰
c) 8⁰
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Root angle=pitch angle-dedendum angle.
3. If back cone distance is 12mm and module at large end of the tooth is 4mm, then formative number of teeth
will be?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Formative number=2r/m.
4. If back cone distance is 12mm and module at large end of the tooth is 4mm, and virtual number of teeth is 12
then find the diameter of the tooth.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 12/z = 2×12/4.
5. Calculate the cone distance of in a pair of bevel gears if pitch circle diameter of pinion and gear are 20mm
and 24mm respectively.
a) 44mm
b) 22mm
c) 15.6mm
d) 20.2mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A=√(20/2)²+(24/2)².
6. Calculate the pitch angle if pitch circle diameter of the pinion and gear are 150mm and 210mm.
a) 28.14⁰
b) 35.54⁰
c) 36.22⁰
d) 63.22⁰
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: tanϒ=D(p)/D(g)=150/210.
7. Calculate the radius of pinion at midpoint along the face width if PCD of pinion is 150mm and of gear is
210mm. Also face width of the tooth is 35mm.
a) 56.35mm
b) 64.83mm
c) 66.57mm
d) 58.69mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: r=(Dp/2)-(bsinϒ/2).
8. Calculate the tangential component of gear tooth force if power transmitted is 6kW and diameters of
pinion and gear are 150mm and 210 mm with face width of tooth being 35mm. Power is transmitted at
3000rpm.
a) 1668N
b) 2946N
c) 3000N
d) 3326N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P=M/r. r=(Dp/2)-(bsinϒ/2) where ϒ is ptch angle and is calculated by
tanϒ=D(p)/D(g)=150/210.
9. Calculate the radial component of gear tooth force if power transmitted is 6kW and diameters of pinion
and gear are 150mm and 210 mm with face width of tooth being 35mm. Power is transmitted at 3000rpm.
Also pressure angle is 20⁰.
a) 996.6N
b) 332.6N
c) 489.2N
d) 739.2N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: P radial=P tangential x[tan20 Cos ϒ].
10. Calculate the axial component of gear tooth force if power transmitted is 6kW and diameters of pinion
and gear are 150mm and 210 mm with face width of tooth being 35mm. Power is transmitted at 3000rpm.
Also pressure angle is 20⁰.
a) 660.05N
b) 528.06N
c) 448.21N
d) 886.6N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanaton: P radial=P tangential x[tan20 Sin ϒ].
11. The pinion of a face gear is a

a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Either spur or helical
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Face gear consist of a spur or helical gear mating with a conjugate gear of disk form.
1. Lewis equation is used to obtain ____ strength of bevel gears.

a) Beam
b) Abrasive
c) Wear
d) Corrosive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Lewis equation, Beam strength=product of module, face width of elemental section,
permissible bending stress and Lewis form factor.
2. Beam strength of the bevel gear is independent of the cone distance.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In other form S=mbσY[1- b/A] where A= cone distance.
3. Beam strength indicates the maximum value of the ___________ force at the large end of the tooth that the
tooth can transmit without bending.
a) Tangential
b) Radial
c) Axial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Beam strength is analysed by using the pitch radius at the larger end of the tooth.
4. Wear strength of the bevel gear can be calculated by using ________ equation.
a) Buckingham
b) Lewis
c) Newtonian
d) Rayleigh
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bevel gear is considered to be equivalent to a formative spur gear in a plane which is
perpendicular to the large end and hence Buckingham equation is applied.
5. If back cone distance is 10mm, then pitch circle diameter of the formative pinion is given by?
a) 10mm
b) 20mm
c) 5mm
d) 10√2 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCD=2xr.
6. The wear strength indicates the maximum value of radial force at the large end of the tooth that the
tooth can transmit without pitting failure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It indicates the maximum value of tangential force.
7. If velocity is 5m/s, then velocity factor for a cut teeth is

a) 0.55
b) 0.66
c) 1.55
d) 1.66
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C=6/6+v.
8. If velocity is 5m/s, then velocity factor for generated teeth is

a) 0.71
b) 1.1
c) 0.9
d) 1.71
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C=5.6/5.6+√v.
9. Calculate the ratio factor Q if a pair of bevel gear consist of 25 teeth pinion meshing with a 40 teeth gear.
a) 1.964
b) 1.438
c) 1.554
d) 0.998
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: tanϒ=25/40 or ϒ=32⁰. Q=2×40/ [40+25xtan(32)].
10. If surface hardness for a par of bevel gears is 400BHN, then material constant is
a) 3N/mm²
b) 2.56N/mm²
c) 0.98N/mm²
d) 1.44N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
11. Calculate the wear strength for a pair of bevel gears having face width=20mm, module=5mm, No of
teeth on pinion and gear 25 and 40 respectively and PCD of pinion=75mm.
a) 3668.5N
b) 4884.5N
c) 5126.6N
d) 4117.3N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: S=0.75xbxQxDxK/Cos ϒ. Tan ϒ=25/40 or ϒ=32⁰. Q=2×40/ [40+25xtan(32)]
K=0.16x[BHN/100]².
12. If service factor is 1.4 & tangential ad dynamic load is 1180N and 1500N respectively, then calculate
the effective load.
a) 3662N
b) 2889N
c) 3152N
d) 2236N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective load=1.4×1180 + 1500.
1. Worm gear drives are used to transmit power between two non-intersecting shafts which are generally at
right angles to each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is how the worm gear design fits into use.
2. The worm and worm wheel both are threaded screw.

a) True
b) Worm wheel is a toothed gear
c) Worm is a toothed gear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Worm wheel is a toothed gear.
3. Which of the following is not true about worm gears?

a) Compact
b) Smooth and silent operation
c) Low speed reduction
d) All the mentioned are true
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed reduction can be high up to 100:1.
4. Is it possible to use worm gears in cranes for lifting purpose?

a) True
b) No self-locking and hence not possible
c) Possible up to a threshold load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Worm gears support self-locking operation and hence are advantageous to use in lifting
operations.
5. The power transmitting capacity of worm gears is high although efficiency is low.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Both power transmitting capacity and efficiency of worm gears are low.
6. Can worm gears be used in steering mechanism?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In steering mechanism, efficiency is of little importance but major requirement is of large
mechanical advantage.
7. The worm helix angle is the _____ of the worm lead angle.
a) Complement
b) Half
c) Double
d) Supplement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Worm helix angle+worm lead angle=90⁰.
8. If worm helix angle is 30⁰, then worm should have at least ___ threads.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The permissible helix angle is 6⁰ and hence there should be at least five threads i.e. 30/6.
9. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the centre distance.

a) 40mm
b) 156mm
c) 200mm
d) 80mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: C=m(q+z)/2 where m=6mm, q=12 and z=40.
10. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the speed reduction.
a) 2
b) 20
c) 15
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: i=40/2.
11. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the pitch circle diameter of worm wheel.
a) 72mm
b) 240mm
c) 260mm
d) 320mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: d=mxz where m=6mm and z=40.
12. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the throat diameter of the worm wheel.
a) 220.5mm
b) 246.4mm
c) 190.44mm
d) 251.7mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: d(t)=m[z+4cosϒ-2] where ϒ=9.46⁰ is the lead angle. tanϒ=2/12, z=40 and m=6mm.
13. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the root diameter of the worm wheel.
a) 186.22mm
b) 250.4mm
c) 225.6mm
d) 250.44mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: d=m[z-2-0.4cosϒ] where ϒ=9.46⁰ is the lead angle. tanϒ=2/12, z=40 and m=6mm.
14. If tangential force on worm is 1500N, then axial force on worm wheel will be?
a) 1500N
b) 3000N
c) 1500√2 N
d) 750N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P₂(axial)=P₁(tangential).
1. Is use of a flywheel recommended when a large motor is required only for a small instant of time?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fly wheel allows the large motor to be replaced by a smaller motor as the peak power is
required only for a small instance of time and not through the entire operation.
2. Flywheels are used in punching and shear operation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flywheels store the kinetic energy imparted during idle positions and delivers this energy
during actual shearing or punching.
3. Which of the following are functions of flywheel?

a) Store and release energy during work cycle
b) Reduce power capacity of the electric motor
c) Reduce amplitude of speed fluctuations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flywheel provides uniform motion by storing energy during idle positions and using this at
actual operational time and thus reducing the power capacity of the electric motor.
4. When comes down to stress reduction, which one is preferred?

a) Solid flywheel
b) Split flywheel
c) Both have equal stresses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The arms are free in split flywheel to contract and hence are better for stress reduction.
5. Flywheel and governor can be interchanged.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flywheel influences cyclic speed fluctuations while governor control mean speed.
6. If load on the engine is constant, the mean speed will be constant and ___ will not operate.
a) Flywheel
b) Governor
c) Both flywheel and governor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Governor is used to control the mean speed and if mean speed is held constant then the
governor will not operate.
7. The operation of flywheel is continuous.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flywheel is used to control the fluctuations and thus is continuously working.
8. Which of the following doesn’t waste energy?

a) Flywheel
b) Governor
c) Both flywheel and governor
d) Neither flywheel nor governor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flywheel has kinetic energy which is 100% convertible while governor suffer from friction
losses.
9. Which of the following is not true for cast iron flywheels?

a) Excellent damping
b) Cheap
c) Given complex shape
d) Sudden failure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to low tensile strength failure is sudden.
10. When the driving torque is more than load torque, flywheel is ______
a) Accelerated
b) Decelerated
c) Constant velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: I[dω/dt]=Driving torque-load torque.
Answer the following in context of this figure
The following is a work cycle graph for a flywheel. T₂ is the torque supplied by motor while T₁ and T₃ are
the torques required by machine.
machine-design-questions-answers-flywheel-q11
11. During the portion AB the flywheel is _____

a) Accelerated
b) Decelerated
c) Maintain constant speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Driving torque is more than the torque supplied by motor.
12. During the portion BC the flywheel is _____

a) Accelerated
b) Decelerated
c) Maintain constant speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Driving torque is lesser than the torque supplied by motor.
13. The flywheel is accelerated during the

a) AB
b) BC
c) CD
d) Both AB and CD
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever the torque supplied by the motor is greater than the torque needed by machine,
flywheel will accelerate.
1. Calculate the coefficient of fluctuation of speed if maximum speed is 2500rpm and minimum speed is
1800rpm.
a) 1.44
b) 1.33
c) 0.33
d) 0.44
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: C=2[(Max-Min)/(Max+Min)].
2. Calculate the coefficient of steadiness if maximum speed of flywheel is 2500rpm and minimum speed is
1800rpm.
a) 3.03
b) 0.33
c) 0.44
d) 3.99
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C=1.Coeffecient of fluctuation of speed.
Figure1
Answer the questions 3-7 with respect to figure1.
machine-design-questions-answers-coeffecient-flywheel-q3
3. Calculate the mean torque T supplied by motor (Torque vs. theta graph of a flywheel is shown above).
a) 3000N-m
b) 1500N-m
c) 2000N-m
d) 2500N-m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: T[1000+2000/2]x2π/2π.
4. The point where angular velocity is maximum is?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The flywheel is decelerated in the portion BC and hence rpm is least at C.
5. The point where velocity of flywheel is maximum is

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flywheel is accelerated in the portion AB and hence velocity is maximum at B.
6. Calculate the energy output from flywheel.

a) 500π
b) 150π
c) 200π
d) 250π
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: U=Area of ΔBCD as max and min velocities are at B and C.
7. Torque vs. theta graph of a flywheel is shown. Coefficient of fluctuation of speed is 0.2 and the mean
angular velocity of the machine is 25 rad/s. Thickness of flywheel is 20mm and density of steel used is
7700kg/mᵌ.
Calculate the outer radius of the flywheel.

a) 402mm
b) 202mm
c) 540mm
d) 468mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: I=U/ω²C and I=πptR⁴/2.
Figure 2
The turning moment diagram of a multi cylinder engine is shown. The intercepted areas between torque
developed by the engine and the mean resisting torque of the machine taken in order from one end are -
300,+850 -500, + 900, -550, + 430 and -700 mm².
machine-design-questions-answers-coeffecient-flywheel-q8
Answer questions 8-13 with respect to figure 2
8. Calculate the energy at point B if energy assumed at point A is U.

a) U
b) U-300
c) U+300
d) U-150
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Simple addition of energy.
9. Calculate the energy at point C if energy at point A is U.

a) U-550
c) U+550
d) U+550
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: E=U-300+ 850.
10. Calculate the energy at point F if energy at A is u.

a) U+340
b) U+260
c) U+400
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: E=U-300+850-500+900-550.
11. Calculate the maximum energy.

a) U+1000
b) U+950
c) U+630
d) U+600
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum energy is at E. E=U-300+850-500+900.
12. Calculate the point of minimum energy.

a) U+480
b) U+650
c) U-300
d) U-450
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Minimum energy is at B. E=U-300.
13. Calculate the net energy output from the flywheel.

a) 1300mm²
b) 1400mm²
c) 1250mm²
d) 1500mm²
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum energy at E[U+950] and minimum at B[U-300]. Thus net energy=[U+950]-[U-
300].
14. Feather key can be used to prevent axial motion between two elements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All types of key but feather key can be used to prevent axial motion between two machine
elements.
15. Keyed joints never lead to stress concentration on shafts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Keyway results in stress concentration in the shaft and makes the part weak.
1. A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is more than 5.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is more than
15.
2. Tangential stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual meanings].

a) PD/2t
b) 2PD/t
c) PD/4t
d) 4PD/t
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Considering equilibrium in half portion of cylinder of unit length, DP=2σt.
3. Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual meanings].

a) PD/2t
b) 2PD/t
c) PD/4t
d) 4PD/t
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Considering equilibrium PxπD²/4=σxπDt.
4. A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of 21MPa. The
ultimate strength of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the length of the cylinder if it is twice the
diameter of the cylinder.
a) 540mm
b) 270mm
c) 400mm
d) 350mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.03=πd²L/4 and L=2d.
5. A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of 21MPa. The
ultimate strength of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the thickness of the cylinder if it is twice
the diameter of the cylinder.
a) 12mm
b) 4mm
c) 8mm
d) 16mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: t=PD/2σ.
6. Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are
a) Thin cylinders
b) Thick Cylinders
c) Moderate cylinders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Smaller dia to thickness ratio implies more thickness and hence these are classified under
thick cylinder.
7. Lame’s equation used to find the thickness of the cylinder is based on maximum strain failure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is based on maximum principal stress theory.
8. Lame’s equation is generally used for ductile materials.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lame’s equation is used to determine thickness of the brittle as it used principal stress
theory.
9. The piston rod of a hydraulic cylinder exerts an operating force of 10kN. The allowable stress in the
cylinder is 45N/mm². Calculate the thickness of the cylinder using Lame’s equation. Diameter of the
cylinder is 40mm and pressure in cylinder is 10MPa.
a) 2.05mm
b) 4.2mm
c) 5.07mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: t=D/2[√[σ+ P /σ-P] -1 ].
10. The piston rod of a hydraulic cylinder exerts an operating force of 10kN. The allowable stress in the
cylinder is 70N/mm². Calculate the thickness of the cylinder using Clavarinoe’s equation. Diameter of the
cylinder is 240mm.μ=0.3 and pressure in cylinder is 15MPa.
a) 35mm
b) 30mm
c) 27mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: t=D/2[√[σ+(1-2μ) P /σ-(1+μ)P] -1 ].
4. A compound cylinder consists of

a) 2 cylinders
b) Cylinder and a jacket
c) 2 jackets
d) At least two cylinders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inner diameter of jacket increase and outer diameter of cylinder decreases when the jacket is
heated.
5. A high pressure cylinder consists of a steel tube with inner and outer diameters 30 and 60mm
respectively. It is jacketed by an outer steel tube, having an outer diameter of 90mm. Maximum principal
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the shrinkage pressure.
a) 5.88N/mm²
b) 2.28N/mm²
c) 4.56N/mm²
d) 3.66N/mm²
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ=P[D₃²+D₂²]/[D₃²-D₂²] where D₂=40mm and D₃=60mm.
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the interference [E=210kN/mm²].
a) 2.8mm
b) 4.6mm
c) 5.4mm
d) 4.8mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Δ=PD₂[2D₂²(D₃²-D₁²)] / Ex[(D₃²-D₂²)(D₂²-D₁²)].
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the radial stresses due to shrink shift in jacket.
a) +2.56[(45/r) ² – 1]
b) 1.824[(45/r) ² – 1]
c) -1.824[(45/r) ² – 1]
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: σ(r)=-PD₂²[D₃²/4r² – 1]/ [D₃²-D₂²].
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the tangential stresses due to shrink shift in jacket.
a) +2.56[(45/r) ² – 1]
b) 1.824[(45/r) ² – 1]
c) -1.824[(45/r) ² – 1]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(t)=+PD₂²[D₃²/4r² – 1]/ [D₃²-D₂²].
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the radial stress due to shrink shift in inner tube.
a) +3.04[1-(15/r) ²]
b) -3.04[1-(15/r) ²]
c) -3.04[1-(10/r) ²]
d) +3.04[1-(10/r) ²]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(r)= σ(r)=-PD₂²[1-D₁²/4r² ]/ [D₂²-D₁²].
stress induced is 80N/mm². Calculate the tangential stress due to shrink shift in inner tube.
a) +3.04[1+ (15/r) ²]
b) -3.04[1+ (15/r) ²]
c) -3.04[1-(10/r) ²]
d) +3.04[1-(10/r) ²]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(r)= σ(r)=-PD₂²[1+D₁²/4r² ]/ [D₂²-D₁²].
stress induced is 80N/mm². In service the cylinder is further subjected to an internal pressure of 25MPa.
Calculate the radial stress in compound cylinder.
a) -3.75[(45/r) ² – 1]
b) +3.75[(45/r) ² – 1]
c) -3.75[(45/r) ² -+1]
d) +3.75[(45/r) ² +1]
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: σ(r)=-PD₁²[D₃²/4r² – 1]/ [D₃²-D₁²]. Here P=30.
stress induced is 80N/mm². In service the cylinder is further subjected to an internal pressure of 25MPa.
Calculate the tangential stress in compound cylinder.
a) -6.75[(45/r) ² + 1]
b) +3.75[(45/r) ² +1]
c) -3.75[(45/r) ² +1]
d) -3.75[(45/r) ² -1]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: σ(t)=+PD₁²[1+ D₃²/4r² ]/ [D₃²-D₁²]. Here P=30.
13. A gasket is a device to allow easy diffusion of fluids across mating surfaces of a mechanical assembly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gasket acts as a barrier between two mating surfaces to prevent fluid flow.
14. Asbestos gaskets like other non-metallic gaskets can be used only up to a temperature of 70⁰C.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Asbestos can be used upto a temperature of 250⁰C while all other non-metallic gaskets can be
used only upto a temperature of 70⁰C.
1. Autofrettage is beneficial for the high pressure cylinder.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It increases pressure capacity of the cylinder and reduces compressive stresses.
2. Autogreggate is a process of ___ stressing the cylinder.

a) Pre
b) Post
c) Over
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a pre stressing phenomenon to improve pressure capacity.
3. Can we pre-stress the cylinder by subjecting cylindrical portion near inner diameter in plastic range and outer
diameter is still in the elastic range.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: On releasing the pressure, outer portion contracts exerting pressure on the inner portion which
has undergone permanent deformation. This induces residual compressive stresses at the inner surface.

Department of Mechanical Engineering Machine Design Objective Question

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Department of Mechanical Engineering Machine Design Objective Question

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Department of Mechanical Engineering

4. Shank diameter of the rivet depends upon the ________

6. Rivets of 3 to 10 mm shank diameter size are not used for_______

7. Size of large rivets varies from _______ shank diameter.

11. Caulking tool is used for ________ joint.

3. What is the purpose to increase the number of rows of rivets?

4. For double riveted butt joint, number of rows of rivet is _______________

5. For butt joints, number of cover plates can be ________

2. Explosive rivet is another type of ______ rivet.

4. In explosive rivets, instead of mandrel _______ is used.

5. Which type of rivet is used for applications like air-craft?

8. In a __________ the body is sawn to produce a prolonged shank.

10. Structural drawings are prepared generally to a scale of _______

2. Rivets are usually made of ________

3. Which of the following is not a type of rivet head?

1. A rivet consists of a cylindrical part called _______

5. Pitting occurs on _____ of the component.

6. Buckling is elastic instability which leads to sudden large lateral deflection.

9. Which of the following relationship is true? (p=Poisson’s ratio)

4. Which of the following is not a part of cotter joint?

1. Knuckle Joint can’t be used to connect two intersecting rods.

4. A knuckle joint is also called socket pin joint.

5. Which of the following are important parts of knuckle joint?

9. A knuckle joint can be used in valve mechanism of a reciprocating engine.

7. Maximum Principal Stress Theory is not good for brittle materials.

1. Mechanical advantage is the ratio of effort to load.

2. Leverage is the ratio of load arm to effort arm.

7. How many classes of levers are there?

8. A bottle opener belongs to which class of the levers.

9. Fulcrum can be located at one end of the lever.

2. The critical value at which crack extension occurs is called

4. How many modes are there for crack propagation?

5. In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?

6. Is it logical to use fluid analogy to understand the phenomenon of stress concentration?

7. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will

8. Which of the following reduces the stress concentration?

5. In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?

6. Is it logical to use fluid analogy to understand the phenomenon of stress concentration?

7. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will

8. Which of the following reduces the stress concentration?

1. The stress represented by sin (t) + 1 belongs to which category?

2. The stress represented by sin (t) + 2 belongs to which category?

3. The stress represented by sin (t) + 4 belongs to which category?

4. The stress represented by cos (t) belongs to which category?

7. Fatigue failure is time dependent failure.

1. Threaded joints are non-separable joints.

5. Which of the following is not a function of washer?

11. Set screws are subjected to tensile forces only.

11. In which case is the wear more?

3. The shock absorbing capacity of bolts can be increased by

8. Coarse threads have helix angle _____ fine threads.

9. Which threads have greater resistance to unscrewing?

10. Which type of threads is recommended for fluctuating loads?

4. Referring to fig 2, Determine the primary shear force.

5. Referring to fig 3, Determine the secondary shear force.

8. In figure 2, determine the size of the bolts.

9. Which bolt is under maximum shear stress?

10. Arrange the bolts in order of decreasing shear stresses.

1. Find the direct shear stress in bolts if diameter =18mm

4. Which bolt can be used as criteria for designing?

8. Which bolt is used a criterion for designing?

9. Find the effective tensile force acting in the two bolts.

7. Certain types of radial bearings can also take thrust load.