1. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in 6.

02 × 10 24 CO
molecules is :
(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 5
(4) 10

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 2. It equal weight of SO 2 and SO 3 are present in a flask
then mole fraction of SO 2 in the mixture :
(1) Is greater than that of SO 3
(2) Is smaller than that of SO 3
(3) Is equal to that of SO 3
(4) Is smaller than that of C 5 H 12 , if SO 3 is replaced
by same amount of C 5 H 12
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 3. Consider the following reactions
2Fe 2 S 3 (s) + 6H 2 O(l) + 3O 2 (g)  4Fe(OH) 3 (s) + 6S
The number of moles of Fe(OH) 3 that can be produced
by allowing 1 mole of Fe 2 S 3 2 moles of H 2 O and 3 moles
of O 2 to react are :
(1) 2.62
(2) 3.62
ALL INDIA (3) 1.33
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (4) 2.43
(T-02)
 4. Hardness in water sample is 300 ppm CaCO 3. Hence, its
molarity is :
(1) 0.300 M
(2) 0.030 M
(3) 0.003 M
(4) 0.0015 M

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 5. A mixture containing one mole each of NaHCO 3 and
Na 2 CO 3 is heated in an open test tube to a constant
weight. Total number of moles of residue is will be :
(1) 2.0
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.5
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 6. H 3 PO 4 (98 g mol –1 ) is 98% by mass of solution. If density
is 1.8 g mL –1 , then analytical molarity is :
(1) 18 M
(2) 36 M
(3) 54 M
(4) 0.18 M

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 7. The radius of second Bohr orbit of H-atom is :
(1) 0.053 nm
(2) 0.106 nm
(3) 0.2116 nm
(4) 0.4256 nm

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 8. Number of nodal planes in 4p - suborbit will be :
(1) 0
(1) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 9. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given
as :

h
(1)
2

3h
(2)
2

ALL INDIA 2h
FULL LENGTH (3)
2
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
6h
(4)
2
 10. The total number of atomic orbitals in third energy level
of an atom is :
(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 18
(4) 36

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 11. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence
electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is :

1
(1) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, m s = 
2

1
(2) n = 5, l = 1, m = 0, m s = 
2

ALL INDIA 1
(3) n = 5, l = 1, m = 1, m s = 
FULL LENGTH 2
TEST SERIES
(T-02) 1
(4) n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, m s = 
2
 12. For the subshell for
I. n = 3, l = 1
II. n = 5, l = 3
III. n = 2, l = 0
IV. n = 4, l = 2
energy order is :
(1) I < II < III < IV
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (2) II < III < IV < I
TEST SERIES (3) III < I < IV < II
(T-02)
(4) II < IV < I < III
 13. Which of the following has the smallest size :
(1) Na +
(2) Mg 2+
(3) Ne
(4) F –

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 14. Hi ghest amo unt of en erg y w ill be requi red fo r t he
removal of the electron from :
(1) s-subshell
(2) p-subshell
(3) d-subshell
(4) f-subshell

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 15. The element with highest electronegativity will belong
to :
(1) Period 2, group 17
(2) Period 3, group 17
(3) Period 2, group 16
(4) Period 2, group 15

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 16. The electronegativities of N, C, Si and P are such that :
(1) P < Si < C < N
(2) Si < P < N < C
(3) Si < P < C < N
(4) P < Si < N < C

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 17. Select the correct statement :
(1) M o r e a ct i ve metal s ar e o n t h e l eft si d e o f t h e
periodic table
(2) L e ss ac t i ve metal s a r e o n t h e l eft s i d e o f t h e
periodic table
(3) R e d u c i n g p o w e r d e c r e a s e s m o vi n g d o w n t h e
group

ALL INDIA (4) All of the above statement are correct

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 18. Which of the following ions has the largest heat of
hydration :
(1) Na +
(2) Al 3+
(3) F –
(4) Sr 2+

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 19. The increasing order of the density of alkali metals is
attains minimum and then increases :
(1) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs
(2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(3) Cs < Rb < Na < K < Li
(4) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 20. Point out the oxide which is amphoteric oxide in nature:
(1) CO
(2) Bi 2 O 3
(3) PbO
(4) CO 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 21. Which is/are correct order of ionic mobility :
(1) L i
+ < Na + < K +
(2) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na +
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 22. Tendency of I – , Br – , Cl – and F – to be oxidised is in order:
(1) I – > Br – > Cl – > F –
(2) I – < Br – < Cl – < F –
(3) I – < Cl – < F – < Br –
(4) I – = Br – < Cl – = F –

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 23. Which one of the following order is correct for the bond
dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules :
(1) Cl 2 > Br 2 > F 2 > I 2
(2) Br > I 2 > F 2 > Cl 2
(3) F 2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2
(4) I 2 > Br 2 > Cl 2 > F 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 24. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and
Tl increases in the sequence :
(1) Ga < In < Al < Tl
(2) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(4) In < Tl < Ga < Al

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 25. Among the compounds ; NO, CO, ClO 2 , N 2 O 5 , SO 2 and
O 3 . Which of the following pairs has odd number of
electrons :
(1) CO and SO 2
(2) SO 2 and O 3
(3) ClO 2 and CO
(4) NO and ClO 2
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 26. The correct order of the lattice energies of the following
ionic compounds is :
(1) NaCl > MgBr 2 > CaO > Al 2 O 3
(2) NaCl > CaO > MgBr 2 > Al 2 O 3
(3) Al 2 O 3 > MgBr 2 > CaO > NaCl
(4) Al 2 O 3 > CaO > MgBr 2 > NaCl

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 27. Which of the following has zero dipole moment :
(1) CO
(2) SO 2
(3) SO 3
(4) H 2 O

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 28. In which of the following compounds resonance does
not occur
(i) H2O
(ii) SiO 2
(iii) SO 3
(iv) CO 2
The correct answer is :
ALL INDIA (1) Both (i) and (iv)
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (2) Both (i) and (ii)
(T-02)
(3) Both (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
 29. Which are isoelectronic and isostructural :
(1) NO 3 – , CO 3 2–
(2) SO 3 – , NO 3 –
(3) ClO 3 – , CO 3 2–
(4) CO 3 2– , SO 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 30. Total number of lone pairs of e – on Xe in XeOF 4 is :
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 31. The bond energies of species NO, NO + and NO – are in
the order of :
(1) NO + > NO – > NO
(2) NO + > NO > NO –
(3) NO – > NO > NO +
(4) NO > NO – > NO +

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 32. I, II and III are three isotherms respectively at T 1 , T 2 and
T 3 . Temperature will be in order :

P
I
II
III
O V

(1) T 1 = T 2 = T 3
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
(2) T 1 < T 2 < T 3
TEST SERIES (3) T 1 > T 2 > T 3
(T-02)
(4) T 1 > T 2 = T 3
 33. At a given temperature, the density of an ideal gas is
proportional to :
(1) p 2
(2) p

(3) p

(4) 1/p
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 34. The rate of diffusion of a gas is proportional to :

p
(1)
d

p
(2)
d

p
ALL INDIA (3)
d
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
p
(4)
d
 35. Compressibility factor for H 2 behaving as real gas is :
(1) 1

 a 
(2) 1  
 RTV 

 pb 
(3) 1  
 RT 

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH RTV
TEST SERIES (4)
(1  a)
(T-02)
 36. A 34.0 L cylinder contains 212 g O 2 gas at 27°C. What
mass of O 2 (g) must be released to reduce the pressure
to 2.463 atm :
(1) 103.2 g
(2) 108.8 g
(3) 100.0 g
(4) 32.0 g
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 37. A gas in an open container is heated from 27°C to 127°C.
The fraction of the original amount of gas escaped from
the container will be :

3
(1)
4

1
(2)
2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH 1
(3)
TEST SERIES 4
(T-02)
1
(4)
8
 38. H vap = 30 kJ/mol and S vap = 75 J mol –1 K –1 . Find
temperature of vapour, at one atmosphere :
(1) 400 K
(2) 350 K
(3) 298 K
(4) 250 K

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 39. A quantity of 0.50 mole of an ideal gas at 20°C expands
isothermally against a constant pressure of 2.0 atn from
1.0 L to 5.0 L. Entropy change of the system is :
(1) 6.7 J K –1
(2) – 2.8 J K –1
(3) 3.9 J K –1
(4) None is correct
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 40. Which of the following conditions will always lead to a
non-sponetaneous change :
(1) Positive S and negative H
(2) Positive S and positive H
(3) Negative S and positive H
(4) Negative S and negative H

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 41. For an exothermic process :
(1) S system > 0
(2) S surrounding > 0
(3) S sytem = 0
(4) S surrounding = 0

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 42. For a chemical reaction the enthalpy and entropy change
are –2.5 × 10 3 cal and 7.5 cal deg –1 respectively. At 25°C
the reaction is "
(1) Spontaneous
(2) Non-spontaneous
(3) Reversible
(4) Irreversible
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 43. Lattice energy of NaCl(s) is 788 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy
of hydration is –784 kJ mol –1 . Hence, heat of solution of
NaCl(s) is :
(1) + 4 kJ mol –1
(2) – 4 kJ mol –1
(3) – 1572 kJ mol –1
(4) + 1572 kJ mol –1
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 44. H° f (C 2 H 4 ) and H° f (C 2 H 6 ) are x 1 and x 2 kcal mol –1 ,
I f

then heat of hydrogenation of C 2 H 4 is :

(1) x 1 + x 2
(2) x 1 – x 2
(3) –(x 1 – x 2 )
(4) x 1 + 2x 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 45. The heat of atomisation of PH 3 (g) and P 2 H 4 (g) are 953
and 1485 kJ mol –1 respectively. The P – P bond energy
in kJ mol –1 is :
(1) 214
(2) 426
(3) 318
(4) 1272
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 46. Consider the following chemical changes
H/kcal
I. 2Na(s) + 2H 2 O(l)  2NaOH(aq) + H 2 (g) – 88
H 2 (g) + 1/2O 2 (g)  H 2 O(l) –68
II. 2Na(s) + 1/2O 2 (g)  Na 2 O(s) –100
Na 2 O(s) + H 2 O(l)  2NaOH(aq) x
Value of x is :
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (1) – 68 kcal
TEST SERIES (2) – 88 kcal
(T-02)
(3) – 100 kcal
(4) – 56 kcal
 47. For the equilibrium,
2H 2 O(g) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
equilibrium constant is K 1 .
For the equilibrium,
2CO 2 (g) 2CO(g) + O 2 (g)
equilibrium constant is K 2 .
The equilibrium constant for
CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g) CO(g) + H 2 O(g) is :

ALL INDIA
K1 K1 K2
FULL LENGTH (1) K 1 K 2 (2) K (3) K (4) K
TEST SERIES 2 2 1

(T-02)
 48. The value of K C for the dissociation reaction

H 2 (g) 2H(g) is 1.2 × 10 –42

This equilbrium mixture contains mainly :

(1) H 2 (g)
(2) H(g) atoms
(3) 1 : 1 molar mixture of H 2 and H
(4) 1 : 2 molar mixture of H 2 and H
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 49. In the following equilibrium taking place at 298 K in 5 L
flask, moles of SO 2 and SO 3 are equal at equilibrium.

2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g)

KC = 5
Thus number of moles of O 2 (g) at equilibrium are:
(1) 1
(2) 2
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (3) 5
TEST SERIES (4) 2.5
(T-02)
 50. F o r t h e r e a c t i o n , A 2 ( g ) + B 2 ( g ) 2 AB ( g ) , t h e
standard free energy is ΔGΘ > 0 . The equilibrium constant
(K) would be :
(1) K = 1
(2) K > 1
(3) K < 1
(4) K = 0
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 51. For a physical equilibrium,
H 2 O(s) H 2 O(l)
Which of the following is true :
(1) At l o w p r e s s u r e , t h e n a t u r e o f e q u i l i b r i u m
changes to H 2 O(s) H 2 (g) + 1/2O 2 (g)
(2) M o r e o f l i q u i d f r e e z e s i f t h e p r e s s u r e o n t h e
system is increased
ALL INDIA (3) T h e p r e s s u r e c h a n g e d o e s n o t a f f e c t t h e
FULL LENGTH
equilibrium
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (4) More of ice melts if the pressure on the system
is increased
 52. Solubility of BaSO 4 in aqueous solution is 1 × 10 –5 M.
Hence solubility in 0.1 M BaCl 2 is :
(1) 1 × 10 –10 M
(2) 1 × 10 –9 M
(3) 1 × 10 –4 M
(4) 1 × 10 –5 M

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 53. The Bronsted acid which gives the weakest conjugate
base is :
(1) HF
(2) H 2 S
(3) HCl
(4) H 2 O

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 54. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5
are mixed in a vessel. What w ill be the H + ion
concentration in the mixture :
(1) 1.11 × 10 –4 M
(2) 3.7 × 10 –4 M
(3) 3.7 × 10 –3 M
(4) 1.11 × 10 –3 M
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 55. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer :
(1) HNO 2 and NaNO 2
(2) NaOH and NaCl
(3) HNO 3 and NH 4 NO 3
(4) HCl and KCl

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 56. pH of a solution made by mixing 50 mL of 0.2 M NH 4 Cl
and 75 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is [pK b of NH 3 (aq) = 4.74] :
(1) 7.02
(2) 13.0
(3) 4.26
(4) 9.74

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 57. W h i c h of the following is the example of a
disproportionation reaction :
(1) CaCO 3  CaO + CO 2
(2) 2HCuCl 2  Cu + Cu 2+ + 4Cl – + 2H +
(3) PCl 5  PCl 3 +Cl 2
(4) 2H 2 S + SO 2  3S + H2O

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 58. EΘ values of some redox couples are given below. On
the basic of these values choose the correct option.
Θ
E values : Br 2 /Br – = +1.90
Ag + / Ag(s) = + 0.80
Cu 2+ / Cu(s) = + 0.34
I 2 (s) / I – = + 0.54
(1) Cu will reduce Br –
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (2) Cu will reduce Ag
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (3) Cu will reduce I –
(4) Cu will reduce Br 2
 59. NH 3 is oxidised to NO by O 2 (air) in basic medium.
Number of equivalent of NH 3 oxidised by 1 mole of O 2
is:
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 60. Which of the following is not true :
(1) Ordinary water is electrolysed more rapidly than
D2O
(2) D 2 O freezes aat lower temperature than H 2 O
(3) Reaction between H 2 and Cl 2 is much faster than
D 2 and Cl 2
(4) Bond dissociation energy for D 2 is greater than
ALL INDIA H2
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 61. The produce obtained on heating LiNO 3 will be :
(1) LiNO 2 + O 2
(2) Li 2 O + NO 2 + O 2
(3) Li 3 N + O 2
(4) Li 2 O + NO +O 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 62. Select the correct statement(s) :
(1) All alkali metals form bicarbonates and carbonates
(2) Except LiHCO 3 , all alkali metals bicarbonates are
solid
(3) Li 2 CO 3 decomposes into CO 2 and Li 2 O
(4) All are correct statements

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 63. Al k al i me ta l s r ea ct w i t h w at er vi g o r o u sl y t o f o r m
hydroxide and dihydrogen. Which of the following alkali
metals react with water least vigorously :
(1) Li
(2) Na
(3) K
(4) Cs
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 64. Select the incorrect statement about alkaline earth
metals :
(1) Solubility of sulphates decreases down the group
(2) Solubility of hydroxide decreases down the group
(3) Thermal stability of carbonates increases down
the group
(4) Basic nature increases down the group
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 65. Which of the following do not resemble to Be and Al :
(1) Both become passive on reaction with HNO 3 due
to formation of oxide layer
(2) Their chlorides are Lewis bases
(3) Chlorides exist in polymeric form
(4) Hydroxides are soluble in alkali as well as in acid

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 66. Which of the following oxides is strongly basic :
(1) B 2 O 3
(2) Al 2 O 3
(3) Ga 2 O 3
(4) Tl 2 O

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 67. When borax is heated strongly it gives :
(1) B 2 O 3
(2) Na 2 B 4 O 7
(3) NaBO 2
(4) NaBO 2 + B 2 O 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 68. Ultimate product is obtained on heating B 2 H 6 with NH 3
is :
(1) B 3 N 3 H 6
(2) (B – N) 3
(3) N 2 H 4
(4) BH 4 –

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 69. Which of the following is not hydrolysed easily :
(1) CCl 4
(2) SiCl 4
(3) GeCl 4
(4) SnCl 4

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 70. Which of the following is not attacked by hot sodium
hydroxide solution :
(1) Silicon
(2) Carbon
(3) Tin
(4) Lead

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 71. Which silicon compound is used as lubricant :
(1) Asbestos
(2) Silicones
(3) Zeolite
(4) Mica

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 72. Which of the follow ing is the correct structure for
4-cyano-2,6-dimethyl benzaldehyde :

CHO
OHC Me Me Me
(1) (2)
CN
Me CN

ALL INDIA
CHO Me
FULL LENGTH
CN
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (3) (4)
Me CN Me
Me CHO
 73. The absolute configuration of the following is :
CH3
2
H Cl
3
Cl H
C2H5
(1) 2S, 3R
(2) 2S, 3S
(3) 2R, 3S
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) 2R, 3R
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 74. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g p a i r s o f c o m p o u n d s a r e
enantiomers :

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H OH HO H H OH H OH
(1) and (2) and
HO H H OH HO H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

ALL INDIA HO H HO H H OH HO H
FULL LENGTH (3) and (4) and
H OH HO H HO H HO H
TEST SERIES CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(T-02)
 75. Which of the follow ing show s the correct order of
decreasing the basic strength in benzene medium:
(1) CH 3 NH 2 > (CH 3 ) 3 N > (CH 3 ) 2 NH > NH 3
(2) (CH 3 ) 2 NH > NH 3 > (CH 3 ) 3 N > CH 3 NH 2
(3) (CH 3 ) 2 NH > (CH 3 ) 3 N > NH 3 > CH 3 NH 2
(4) (CH 3 ) 3 N > (CH 3 ) 2 NH > CH 3 NH 2 > NH 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 76. Which of the following carbocation is least stable:
+
(1) C6H5CH2

+
(2) p – NO2 – C6H4 – CH2
+
(3) p – CH3O – C6H4 – CH2
+
(4) p – Cl – C6H4 – CH2
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 77. Which of the following alkyl halides would be most likely
to give a rearranged product under S N 1 conditions :

(1)
Br

Br
(2)

ALL INDIA (3) Br

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
(4)
Br
 78. Most stable radical is :

(1) CH2 = CH

(2) CH2 = CHCH2

(3) CH2

ALL INDIA (4) CH3

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 79. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the
following cations :

CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH – OCH3

(I) (II)

CH3 – CH – CH 2 – OCH3
(III)

ALL INDIA (1) II > I > III

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (2) II > III > I
(T-02)
(3) III > I > II
(4) I > II > III
 80. Arrange these compounds in order of increasing S N 1
reaction are :

CH3
(I) Ph Br (II)
CH3 Br

CH3

ALL INDIA (III) CH3 Br (IV)

FULL LENGTH CH3 Cl
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
(1) IV < II < III < I (2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV < I < III < II (4) IV < I < II < III
 81. In adsorption chromatography, adsorbent and eluent are
respectively :
(1) Solid, liquid
(2) Liquid, solid
(3) Solid, solid
(4) Liquid, liquid

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 82. In the estimation of Duma's method 1.18 g of an organic
c o m p o u n d g a v e 2 2 4 m L o f N
2 (g) at NTP. The percentage
of N in the compound is about :
(1) 20.0
(2) 11.8
(3) 47.5
(4) 23.7
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 83. Tyrosine is one of the amino acids present in protein.
Its content in protein in 0.22% and its molecular weight
is 181 g mol –1 . Lowest molecular weight of protein is :
(1) 18100
(2) 2200
(3) 82273
(4) 18132

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 84. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g h a s t h e s m a l l e s t h e a t o f
hydrogenation per mole :
(1) 1-butene
(2) Trans-2-butene
(3) Cis-2-butene
(4) 1,3-butadiene

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 85. An alkene on vigorous oxidation with KMnO 4 gives only
acetic acid. The alkene is :
(1) CH 3 CH 2 CH = CH 2
(2) CH 3 CH = CHCH 3
(3) (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2
(4) CH 3 CH = CH 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 86. In the following sequence of reactions the alkene forms
the compound B,

O3 H2O
CH 3 CH = CHCH 3 A B
Zn

The compound B is :
(1) CH 3 CHO
(2) CH 3 CH 2 CHO
ALL INDIA
(3) CH 3 COCH 3
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (4) CH 3 CH 2 COCH 3
(T-02)
 87. Polymerisation of alkenes takes place through :
(1) Free-radical mechanism
(2) Ionic mechanism
(3) S
N1 mechanism
(4) S N 2 mechanism

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 88. In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium succinate, ethene
is formed at which electrode along with which gas :
(1) Anode, H 2
(2) Cathode, H 2
(3) Anode, CO 2
(4) Cathode, CO 2

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 89. Major product of the dehydration of the following is :

(CH3)3CCHCH3
OH

(1) (CH 3 ) 3 CCH = CH 2

(2) (CH3)2CHC = CH2

CH3

ALL INDIA (3) (CH 3 ) 2 C = C(CH 3 ) 2

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (4) CH 3 CH 2 CH = CHCH 2 CH 3
(T-02)
 90. Which of the following crystal systems has the edge length
par amet er s as a  b  c an d an g l e par ame t er s as
    90 o :
(1) Tetragonal
(2) Trigonal
(3) Monoclinic
(4) Triclinic
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 91. How mnay bravais lattices are possible in cubic crystal
system :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 92. ABCABC pattern of arrangement is found in :
(1) scc
(2) bcc
(3) hcp
(4) ccp

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 93. Per cent of space present as void in a bcc structure is :
(1) 52%
(2) 48%
(3) 68%
(4) 32%

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 94. Which of the following crystal has higest limiting radius
ratio :
(1) B2O3
(2) CuCl
(3) CsCl
(4) NaCl.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 95. In which of the following defects, stoichiometry of the
crystal is not maintained:
(1) Interstitial defect
(2) Metal excess defect
(3) Schottky defect
(4) Frenkel defect.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 96. T h e vap o u r p r e s s u r e o f a l i q u i d i n p u r e s ta t e i s
50 mm Hg while that in solution state is 40 mm Hg. Find
the mole fraction of that liquid in solution state :
(1) 0.40
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.80
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 97. The value of Henry's constant, K H is ........ :
(1) greater for gases with higher solubility
(2) greater for gases with lower solubility
(3) constant for all gases
(4) not related to the solubility of gases.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 98. Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionised in 0.01 molal aqueous
solution. Hence T b/K b is :
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.0175
(4) 0.02

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 99. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the
highest boiling point :
(1) 1.0 M NaOH
(2) 1.0 M Na 2SO 4
(3) 1.0 M NH 4NO 3
(4) 1.0 M KNO 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 100.The osmotic pressure of 12% solution of cane sugar at
17 oC is :
(1) 2.42 atm
(2) 4.33 atm
(3) 8.35 atm
(4) 16.30 atm

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 101.Which of the following statements is incorrect:
(1) Equivalent conductance increases with dilution
(2) Specific conductance increases with dilution
(3) Molar conductance of the soluiton increase with
dilution
(4) At infinite dilution each ion (cation or anion) plays a
definite role towards electrical conductance.
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 102.Which of the following graph is/are correct :

m KCl  eq HCN

(1) (2)
C C

(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct (4)None of these

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 103.If an aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed, w hich
phenomenon is not observed :
(1) The concentration of Na + ion decreases
(2) Cl 2(g) is produced at the anode
(3) The solution become more basic
(4) H 2(g) is produced at the cathode.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 104.The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of
aluminium from Al 2O 3 is ....... :
(1) 1 F
(2) 6 F
(3) 3 F
(4) 2 F

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 105.Electrochemical cell stops w orking after sometime
because :
(1) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes
zero
(2) the reaction reverts its direction
(3) one of the electrode completely vanishes
(4) electrode potential of both the electrodes equalise
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 106.For the cell given below
Zn | Zn 2+ || Cu 2+ | Cu, (E cell – E ocell ) is –0.12 V. It will be
when :
(1) [Zn 2+ ] / [Cu 2+ ] = 10 2
(2) [Zn 2+ ] / [Cu 2+ ] = 10 –2
(3) [Zn 2+ ] / [Cu 2+ ] = 10 4
(4) [Zn 2+ ] / [Cu 2+ ] = 10 –4
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 107.For Pt(H2 ) | H + (1 M) | Pt(H2 ) (where p 1 and p 2 are pressure)
p 1 2p

cell reaction will be spontaneous if :

(1) p 1 = p 2
(2) p 1 > p 2
(3) p 2 > p 1
(4) p 1 = 1 atm.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 108.If a steady current of 15.0 A is passed through an aqueous
soltuion of CuSO 4, how many minutes will it take to deposit
0.250 mol of Cu at the cathode, assuming 100% efficiency:
(1) 3.217 × 10 3
(2) 1.613 × 10 3
(3) 53.62
(4) 0.893
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 109.Equivalent conductance of 1 M CH 3COOH is 10 –1 cm 2
equiv–1 and at infinite dilution 200 –1 cm 2 equiv–1 . Hence,
percentage ionisation of CH 3COOH is :
(1) 5%
(2) 2%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 110.If the following half-life have the E o values as
Fe 3+ + e –  Fe 2+ ; E = +0.77V
and Fe 2+ + 2e –  Fe; E o = –0.44V, the E o of the half-cell
Fe 3+ + 3e –  Fe will be :
(1) 0.605 V
(2) 0.33 V
(3) –1.21 V
ALL INDIA (4) –0.037 V
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 111. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 2 moles of
electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59V. The equilibrium
constant for the redox reaction of the cell is :
(1) 10 20
(2) 10 5
(3) 10
(4) 10 10
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 112.Rate law for the reaction, A + 2B  C is found to be
Rate = k[A] [B]
Concentration of reactant 'B' is doubled, keeping the
concentration of 'A' constant, the value of rate constant
will be ....... :
(1) the same
(2) doubled
ALL INDIA (3) quadrupled
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (4) halved.
(T-02)
 113.Which of the following statements is not correct about
order of a reaction :
(1) The order of a reaction can be a fractional number
(2) Order of a reaction is experimentally determined
quantity
(3) The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of
the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the
balanced chemical equation for a reaction
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of
TEST SERIES
(T-02) molar concentration of the reactants in the rate law
expression.
 114.For the reaction,
A+BC

d[A]
S.No. [A] [B] 
dt

1. 1.0 M 1.0 M 0.25 M min –1

2. 2.0 M 1.0 M 0.50 M min –1
3. 1.0 M 2.0 M 0.25 M min –1 .
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH Hence, rate law is :
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (1) k[A] [B] (2) k[A] [B] 1/2
(3) k[A] (4) k[B]
 115.The activation energy of a reaction is zero. At 280K rate
constant is 1.6 × 10 –6 s –1 . The rate constant at 300 K is :
(1) zero
(2) 3.2 × 10 –6 s –1
(3) 1.6 × 10 –5 s –1
(4) 1.6 × 10 –6 s –1

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 116.The temperature coefficient of a certain reaction is found
to be 3. It temperature changes from 25 o to 55 o, the new
rate of reaction will be :
(1) 9 times
(2) 27 times
(3) 16 times
(4) 8 times.
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 117.In a first order reaction, A P, the ratio of a/(a – x) was
found to be 8 after 60 min. If the concentration is 0.1 M
then the rate of reaction is:
(1) 2.226 × 10 –3 mol L –1 min –1
(2) 3.466 × 10 –3 mol L –1 min –1
(3) 4.455 × 10 –3 mol L –1 min –1
(4) 5.532 × 10 –3 mol L –1 min –1
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 118.Consider a first order gas phase decomposition reaction
given below : A(g)  B(g) + C(g)
The initial pressure of the system before decomposition
of A was p i. After lapse of time 't' total pressure of the
system increased by x units and became 'p t '. The rate
constant k for the reaction is given as ........ :

2.303 pi 2.303 pi
(1) k log (2) k  log
t pi  x t 2pi  pt
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES 2.303 pi 2.303 p
(3) k log (4) k  log i
(T-02) t 2pi  pt t pi  x
 119.Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
X 2 + Y 2  2XY is given below :

i) 

X 2 
 X + X (fast)

ii) X + Y 2  XY + Y (slow)
iii) X + Y  XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be :

ALL INDIA (1) 1.5

FULL LENGTH
(2) 1
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (3) 2
(4) 0
 120.The heat of adsorption of physical adsorption is nearly :
(1) 20-40 kJ/mol
(2) 40-100 kJ/mol
(3) 40-200 kJ/mol
(4) 40-400 kJ/mol

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 121.W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s n o t a ch a r a c t er i st i c o f
chemisorption :
(1) it is irreversible
(2) it is specific
(3) it is multilayer phenomenon
(4) heat of adsorption is of about –240 kJ

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 122.H 2O 2 can be prevented from decomposition in presence
of :
(1) glycerine
(2) acetanilide
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 123.Which part of the soap (RCOO – ) dissolves grease and
forms micelle :
(1) R part (called tail of the anion)
(2) –COO – part (called head to the anion)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 124.The method usually employed for the destruction of a
colloidal solution is :
(1) dialysis
(2) addition of electrolytes
(3) diffusion through animal membrane
(4) condensation.

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 125.Fixed parts of a collodial sol of AgI are respectively [AgI]
Ag + and [AgI] I – in presence of :
(1) KI and AgNO 3
(2) KI and KI
(3) AgI and KI
(4) AgNO 3 and KI

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 126.Which of the following processes is not responsible for
the process of electric charge on the sol particle :
(1) Electron capture by sol particular
(2) Adsorption of ionic species from solution
(3) Formation of Helmholtz electric double layer
(4) Absorption of ionic species from solution

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 127.Gold number of some lyophilic sols are
I. Casein : 0.01
II. Haemoglobin : 0.03
III. Gum arabic : 0.15
IV. Sodium oleate : 0.40
Which has maximum protective power :
(1) Only I
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (2) Only II
TEST SERIES (3) Only III
(T-02)
(4) Only IV
 128.50 mL of 1 M oxalic acid (molar mass = 126) is shaken with
0.5g of wood charcoal. The final concentration of the
solution after adsorption is 0.5 M. What is the amount of
oxalic acid adsorbed per gram of carbon :
(1) 3.15
(2) 1.575
(3) 6.30

ALL INDIA (4) 12.60

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 129.During smelting an additional substance is added which
combines with impurities to form a fusible product which
is known as :
(1) mud
(2) slag
(3) flux
(4) gangue.
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 130.A carbonate ore is :
(1) carnallite
(2) limonite
(3) siderite
(4) horn silver

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 131.Which one of the following is not a method of concentration
of metals :
(1) Gravity separation
(2) Froth floatation process
(3) Electromagnetic separation
(4) Smelting

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 132.Which of the following statements is correct wrt the
following graph :
0 2Mg + O2  2MgO
–900 4/3 Al + O2  2/3 Al2O2
–1000
o
G

kJ mol
–1100

T 1623 K

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
(1) Below 1623 K, Mg reduces Al 2O 3
TEST SERIES (2) Above 1623K, Al reduces MgO
(T-02)
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong.
 133.Which of the following compoounds will not give ammonia
on heating :
(1) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4
(2) NH 2CONH 2
(3) NH 4NO 2
(4) NH 4Cl

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 134.The structure of white phosphorus is :
(1) square planar
(2) pyramidal
(3) tetrahedral
(4) trigonal planar

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 135.Holme’s signal uses chemical compound :
(1) calcium carbide
(2) calcium phosphide
(3) calcium carbide and calcium phosphide
(4) calcium carbide and aluminium carbide

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 136.How many P–O–P bonds appear in cyclotrimetaphosphoric
acid :
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 137.Arrange the following hydrodes of group 16 elements in
order of increasing stability :
(1) H 2S < H 2O < H 2Te > H 2Se
(2) H 2O < H 2Te < H 2Se < H 2S
(3) H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te
(4) H 2Te < H 2Se < H 2S < H 2O

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 138.Which of the following is not correctly matched :
(1) Acidic oxides – P 2O 5, NO 2, Cl 2O 7
(2) Basic oxides – Na 2O, CaO, MgO
(3) Neutral oxides – CO 2, CO, BeO
(4) Amphoteric oxides – ZnO, SnO, Al 2O 3

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 139.Dry SO 2 does not bleach dry flowers because :
(1) nascent hydrogen responsible for bleaching is
produced only in presence of moisture
(2) water is the actual reducing agent responsible for
bleaching
(3) water is stronger acid than SO 2
(4) the OH – ions produced by waer cause bleaching.
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 140.Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate
choice :
Column I Column II
A. Thiosulhuric acid i. H 2SO 5
B. Caro’s acid ii. H 2S 2O 6
C. Marshall’s acid iii. H 2S 2O 3
D. Dithionic acid iv. H 2S 2O 8
ALL INDIA (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(T-02)
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
 141.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched :
(1) Allotropic form of sulphuric which is more stable at
room temperature - Rhombic
(2) The hydride of group 16 which is liquid at room
temperature - Water
(3) The gas formed in the upper layers of atmosphere by
action of UV radiations - Nitrogen
ALL INDIA (4) The catalyst used in the manufacture of H 2 SO 4 by
FULL LENGTH
contact process - Vanadium pentoxide.
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 142.Fluorine is the best oxidising agent because it has:
(1) highest electron affinity
(2) highest reduction potential
(3) highest oxidation potential
(4) lowest electron affinity

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 143.Which of the following is not correctly matched with the
given example :
(1) An element of first transition series which has highest
second ionisation enthalpy-Cu
(2) An element of first transition series with highest third
ionisation enthalpy - Zn
(3) An element of first transition series with lowest
enthalpy of atomisation - Zn
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) Last element of third transition series - Cd
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 144.In which of the following pairs of ions, the higher oxidation
state in aqueous solution is more stable than the other :
I. Tl +, Tl 3+
II. Cu +, Cu 2+
III. Cr 2+ , Cr 3+
IV. V 2+ , VO 2+ , (V 4+ )
(1) I, II
ALL INDIA (2) II, III
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (3) II, IV
(T-02)
(4) II, III, IV
 145.Which of the following transition metal ions is colourless:
(1) V 2+
(2) Cr 3+
(3) Zn 2+
(4) Ti 3+

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 146.Con sider th e fol low i ng statements w ith respect to
lanthanides :
1. The basic strength of hydroxides of lanthanides
increases from La(OH) 3 to Lu(OH) 3.
2. T h e l an t h an i d e i o n s L u 3+ , Y b 2+ an d Ce 4+ a r e
diamagnetic.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct :

ALL INDIA (1) 1 only

FULL LENGTH
(2) 2 only
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
 147.Hexaamminenickel(II) hexanitrocobaltate(III) can be written
as :
(1) [Ni(NH 3) 6 ] 2[Co(NO 2 ) 6 ] 3
(2) [Ni(NH 3) 6 ] 3[Co(NO 2 ) 6 ] 2
(3) [Ni(NH 3) 6] [Co(NO 2) 6]
(4) [Ni(NH 3) 6 (NO 2) 6] Co

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 148.Arrange the following complexes in increasing order of
conductivity of their solutions :
i. [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
ii. [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl
iii. [Co(NH 3 ) 6]Cl 3
iv. [Co(NH 3 ) 5Cl]Cl 2
(1) i < ii < iv < iii
ALL INDIA (2) ii < i < iii < iv
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES (3) i < iii < ii < iv
(T-02)
(4) iv < i < ii < iii
 149.Which of the following pairs of isomers is not correctly
matched with its types of isomerism :
(1) [ Cr ( NH 3 ) 6 ] [ C r ( CN ) 6 ] an d [ C r ( N H 3 ) 4 ( CN ) 2 ]
[Cr(NH 3) 2(CN) 4] – Coordination isomerism
(2) [Co(NH 3 ) 5NO 2 ]Cl 2 and [Co(NH 3) 5ONO]Cl 2 – Linkage
isomerism
(3) [Co(py) 2 (H 2 O) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl and [Co(py) 2 (H 2 O)Cl 3 ]H 2 O –
Coordination isomerism
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 Br 2 ]Cl 2 and [Pt(NH 3) 4 Cl 2 ]Br 2 – Ionisation
TEST SERIES
(T-02) isomerism
 150.W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g sta t em e n ts i s co r r ec t f o r
[Mn(CN) 6] 3– according to valence bond theory :
(1) d 2sp 3, inner orbital complex, paramagnetic, 2.87 BM
(2) d 2 sp 3 , inner orbital complex, diamagnetic, zero
magnetic moment
(3) d 2sp 3, outer orbital complex, paramagnetic, 3.87 BM
(4) dsp 2 , outer orbital complex, paramagnetic, zero
ALL INDIA magnetic moment
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 151.The magnitude of CFSE (Crystal Field Splitting Energy,  0)
can be related to the configuration of d-orbitals in a
coordination entity as :
(1) If  0 < P, the configuration is T 32g e 1g = weak field
ligand and high spin complex.
(2) If  0 > P, the configuration is T 32g e 1g = strong field
ligand and low spin complex.
(3) If  0 > P, the configuration is T 42g e 0g = strong field
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH ligand and high spin complex.
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (4) If  0 = P, the configuration is T 42g e 0g = strong field
ligand and high spin complex.
 152.Which of the following complexes formed by Cu 2+ ions is
most stable :
(1) Cu 2+ + 4NH 3  [Cu(NH 3) 4] 2+ , log K = 11.6
(2) Cu 2+ + 4CN –  [Cu(CN) 4] 2– , log K = 27.3
(3) Cu 2+ + 2en  [Cu(en) 2] 2+ , log K = 15.4
(4) Cu 2+ + 4H 2O  [Cu(H 2O) 4] 2+ , log K = 8.9

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 153.Which of the following compounds can yield only one
monochlorinated product upon free radical chlorination:
(1) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(2) 2-Methylpropane
(3) 2-Methylbutane
(4) n-Butane

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 154.The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be
added) adds on to the carbon atom of the double bond
containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule
is known as :
(1) Saytzeff’s rule
(2) Peroxide rule
(3) Markovnikov’s rule

ALL INDIA (4) Hoffmann rule

FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 CH=CH–CH3

155. + HBr  X, X in the reaction is :

OH

Br
Br
CH–CH2–CH3
CH2–CH–CH3
(1) (2)
OH
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH Br Br
TEST SERIES CH2–CH–CH3 CH–CH2CH3
(T-02)
(3) (4)
Br Br
 156.Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling
point :
(1) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
(2) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
(3) CH 3 CH(CH 3 )CH 2 Cl
(4) (CH 3 ) 3 CCl

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 157.Which of the following statements is not correct about S N2
reactions of alkyl halides :
(1) Nucleophile attacks the carbon from the side opposite
to where the leaving group is attached.
(2) The bond formation and bond breaking take place in
one step.
(3) The rate of reaction depends upon the concentration
of nucleophile.
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) S N 2 mechanism is predominant in tertiary alkyl
TEST SERIES
(T-02) halides.
 158.Which of the following haloalkanes reacts with aqueous
KOH most easily :
(1) 1-Bromobutane
(2) 2-Bromobutane
(3) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(4) 2-Chlorobutane

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 159.2-chloro-2-methylpropane on reaction with alc. KOH gives
X as the product. X is :
(1) but-2-ene
(2) 2-methylbut-1-ene
(3) 2-methylprop-1-ene
(4) 2-methylbutan-2-ol

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 160.The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen
acids is ________:
i. CH 3CH 2 –CH 2–OH

ii. CH 3CH 2–CH–OH

CH3

CH3
ALL INDIA iii. CH3CH2–C–OH
FULL LENGTH
CH3
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
(1) i > ii > iii (2)iii > ii > i
(3) ii > i > iii (4)i > iii > ii.
 161.Which reagent will you use for the following reaction :
CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 3CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2Cl+CH 3CH 2CHClCH 3
(1) Cl 2/UV light
(2) NaCl + H 2SO 4
(3) Cl 2 gas in dark
(4) Cl 2 gas in the presence of iron in dark

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 162.Which of the following reactions will not yield phenol :

Cl

(i) Fussion with NaOH at 300 atm

(1) 

(ii) H2O / H

NH2

(2) (i) NaNO / HCl

2


(ii) H2O (war min g)

ALL INDIA (i) Oleum

(3) 

(ii) NaOH, (heating)
FULL LENGTH (iii) H
TEST SERIES
(T-02) Cl
(i) NaOH(aq), 298 K / 1atm
(4) 

(ii) HCl
 163.Unlike phenol, 2, 4-dinitrophenol is soluble in sodium
carbonate solution in water because :
(1) presence of two –NO 2 groups in the ring makes
2, 4-dinitrophenol a stronger acid than phenol
(2) presence of two –NO 2 groups in the ring makes
2, 4-dinitrophenol a weaker acid than phenol
(3) presence of two –NO 2 groups make the hydrogen
bonding easier, making 2, 4-dinitrophenol soluble
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) nitro group reacts with Na 2CO 3 while –OH group does
TEST SERIES
(T-02) not.
 164.In the following reaction sequence,

[O] CH MgBr
3  
CH3  CH  CH3   
 Y   Z
H / H2O
OH
(x)

Z is :
(1) butan-1-ol
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (2) butan-2-ol
TEST SERIES (3) 2-methylproan-2-ol
(T-02)
(4) 1, 1-dimethylethanol
 165.C o n ve r s i o n o f p h e n o l t o s al i cyl i c a ci d a n d t o
salicyaldehyde are known as (respectively) :
(1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction
(2) Williamson’s synthesis and hydroboration oxidation
(3) Kolbe’s reaction and Williamson’s synthesis
(4) Kolbe’s reaction and Reimer-Tiemann reaction

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 166.Identify the final product of the reaction sequence:

OH
Zn 3 CH COCl
 X 
 Y

distillation AlCl3

(1) Benzophenone
(2) Acetophenone
(3) Diphenyl
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (4) Methyl salicylate
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 167.The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl
chloride is called :
(1) Etard reaction
(2) Riemer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Wurtz reaction
(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 168.The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example
of :
(1) nucleophilic addition
(2) electrophilic addition
(3) free radical addition
(4) elimination addition

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 169.An organic compound (X) with molecular formula C 3H 6O
is not readily oxidised. On reduction it gives C 3H 8O (Y)
which reacts with HBr to give a bromoide (Z) which is
converted to Grignard reagent. Grignard reagent reacts
with (X) to give 2, 3-dimethylbutan-2-ol. (X), (Y) and (Z)
respectively are :
(1) CH 3COCH 3, CH 3CH 2CH 2OH, CH 3CH(Br)CH 3
(2) CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3CH=CH 2, CH 3CH(Br)CH 3
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (3) CH 3COCH 3, CH 3CH(OH)CH 3, CH 3CH(Br)CH 3
TEST SERIES
(T-02) (4) CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3CH 2CH 2OH, CH 3CH 2CH 2Br
 O
H+
170. R–CH=CH–CHO+NH2–C–NHNH2 X

(X) in the above reaction is :

OH
(1) R–CH=CH–CH–NH2CONHNH2

O
(2) R–CH=CH–CH=N–NH–C–NH2
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
(3) R–CH=NH 2CONH 2
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
(4) R–CH=CH–CH–NH2COCH=NHNH 2
OH
 171.Identify (X), (Y) and (Z) in the given reaction :

2 I +NaOH Ag
2 4 4 Z H SO /HgSO
CH3 COCH3  X 
  Y 
Heat Heat Heat

(1) X = CHI 3, Y=CH 3CHO, Z=HCHO

(2) X=CHI 3, Y=CH 3OH, Z=CH 3CHO
(3) X=CHI 3, Y=CHCH, Z=CH 3CHO
(4) X=CH 3COCl 3, Y=CH 2=CH 2, Z=CH 3CHO
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 172.Which of the following aldehydes will show Cannizzaro
reaction :
(1) HCHO
(2) C 6H5CHO
(3) (CH 3) 3CCHO
(4) All of these

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 173.Which of the following compounds would have the smallest
value for pKa :
(1) CHF 2CH 2CH 2COOH
(2) CH 3CH 2CF 2COOH
(3) CH 2FCHFCH 2COOH
(4) CH 3CF 2CH 2COOH

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 174.In a set of the given reaction, acetic acid yieled a product
C:

C6H6 C2H5MgBr
CH3COOH + PCl5  A  B  C
Anh. AlCl3 ether

Product C would be :
(1) CH 3CH(OH)C 2H 5
(2) CH 3COC 6H5
ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH (3) CH 3CH(OH)C 6H 5
TEST SERIES
(T-02) C2H5
(4) CH3–C(OH)C6H5
 175.What happens when a carboxylic acid is treated with
lithium aluminium hydride :
(1) Aldehyde is formed
(2) Primary alcohol is formed
(3) Ketone is formed
(4) Grignard reagent is formed

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 176.Which of the following will not undergo HVZ reaction :
(1) Propanoic acid
(2) Ethanoic acid
(3) 2-Methylpropanoic acid
(4) 2, 2-Dimethylpropanoic acid

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 177.On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br 2/H 2O, the
glucose is oxidised to :
(1) saccharide acid
(2) glucaric acid
(3) gluconic acid
(4) valeric acid

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 178.Which of the following is not an example of addition
polymer :
(1) Polythene
(2) Polystyrene
(3) Neoprene
(4) Nylon 6, 6

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 179.The S in buna-S refers to :
(1) sulphur
(2) styrene
(3) sodium
(4) salicylate

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)
 180.Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as :
(1) tranquilizers
(2) antiseptics
(3) analgesics
(4) antipyretics

ALL INDIA
FULL LENGTH
TEST SERIES
(T-02)