SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
NEET PAPER – 2019 (S6 – CODE)

1. Which of the following species is not Ans. 4

stable ? 3. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is
2−
(1) Sn ( OH )6 

(2) [SiCl6 ]2−

(1)
(3) [SiF6 ]2−
(4) [GeCl6 ]2−
Ans. 2
2. The major product of the following reaction is
(2)

(3)

(1)

(4)
Ans. 3
(2) 4. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300K
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
done by the gas is (Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)

(3) (1) 25 J
(2) 30 J
(3) - 30 J
(4) 5 kJ
Ans. 3

(4)

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5. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume (3) ( CH3 )2 NH > CH3 NH 2 > ( CH3 )3 N
20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct option
(4) ( CH3 )3 N > CH3 NH 2 > ( CH3 )2 NH
about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) Ans. 3

is 9. For a cell involving one electron

−
(1) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant E cell = 0.59V at 298 K, the equilibrium
(2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant constant for the cell reaction is [Given that
(3) Z > 1and attractive forces are dominant 2.303RT
= 0.059V at T = 298 K]
(4) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant F
Ans. 2
(1) 1.0 × 1010
6. A compound is formed by cation ‘C’ and
(2) 1.0 × 1030
anion ‘A’. The anions form hexagonal close
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy (3) 1.0 × 102
75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the (4) 1.0 × 105
compound is Ans. 1
(1) C3 A 4 10. Which of the following is incorrect statement ?

(2) C4 A3 (1) GeX 4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable

(3) C2 A3 than GeX 2

(4) C3 A 2 (2) SnF4 is ionic in nature

Ans. 1 (3) PbF4 is covalent in nature

7. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is (4) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
k, the time (t) required for the completion of Ans. 3
99% of the reaction is given by 11. Match the Xenon compounds in Column – I
(1) t = 4.606 k with its structure in Column – II and assign the
(2) t = 2.303 k correct code
Column – I Column – II
(3) t = 0.693 k
a) XeF4 i) pyramidal
(4) t = 6.909 k
b) XeF6 ii) square planar
Ans. 1
8. The correct order of the basic strength of c) XeOF4 iii) distorted octahedral

methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution d) XeO3 iv) square pyramidal

is Code
(1) ( CH3 )3 N > ( CH3 )2 NH > CH3 NH 2 a b c d

(2) CH3 NH 2 > ( CH 3 )2 NH > ( CH 3 )3 N (1) ii iii i iv

(2) iii iv i ii
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 (3) i ii iii iv (1) e3 t 32
(4) ii iii iv i
(2) e4 t 22
Ans. 4
12. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules (3) t 42g e 2g
required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
(4) t 62g e0g
through Haber’s process is
(1) 30 Ans. 4

(2) 40 16. Among the following, the one that is not a

(3) 10 green house gas is

(4) 20 (1) ozone

Ans. 1 (2) sulphur dioxide

13. The manganate and permanganate ions are (3) nitrous oxide

tetrahedral, due to (4) methane

(1) The π – bonding involves overlap of Ans. 2

p – orbitals of oxygen with p – orbitals of 17. For the cell reaction

manganese 2Fe3+ ( aq ) + 2I− ( aq ) 

→ 2Fe2+ ( aq ) + I 2 ( aq )
(2) The π - bonding involves overlap of −
E cell = 0.24V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
d – orbitals of oxygen with d – orbitals of
manganese (
energy ∆ r G − ) of the cell reaction is [Given
(3) The π - bonding involves overlap of that Faraday constant F = 96500C mol−1 )
p – orbitals of oxygen with d – orbitals of
(1) 46.32 kJ mol−1
manganese
(4) There is no π - bonding (2) 23.16 kJ mol−1

Ans. 3 (3) −46.32 kJ mol−1

14. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate
(4) −23.16 kJ mol−1
transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as
Ans. 3
the cofactor. ‘M’ is
18. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
(1) Ca
formation of negatively charged colloidal
(2) Sr
(3) Be [ AgI] I− sol ?
(4) Mg (1) 50 mL of 2M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M
Ans. 4 KI
15. What is the correct electronic configuration of
(2) 50 mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of
the central atom in K 4  Fe ( CN )6  based on 0.1M KI
crystal field theory ?

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 (3) 50 mL of 1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M 23. Which of the following diatomic molecular
species has only π bonds according to
KI
Molecular Orbital Theory ?
(4) 50 mL of 1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M
(1) C2
KI
Ans. 3 & 4 (2) Be 2
19. Which one is malachite from the following ? (3) O2
(1) Fe3O 4 (4) N2
(2) CuCO3 .Cu ( OH )2 Ans. 1
24. The biodegradable polymer is
(3) CuFeS2
(1) nylon – 6
(4) Cu ( OH )2 (2) Buna – S
Ans. 2 (3) nylon – 6, 6
20. Among the following, the narrow spectrum (4) nylon 2 – nylon 6
antibiotic is Ans. 4
(1) amoxicillin 25. In which case change in entropy is negative ?
(2) chloramphenicol (1) Sublimation of solid to gas
(3) penicillin G (2) 2H ( g ) 
→ H2 ( g )
(4) ampicillin
(3) Evaporation of water
Ans. 3
(4) Expansion of a gas at constant
21. Which of the following is an amphoteric
temperature
hydroxide ?
Ans. 2
(1) Mg ( OH )2
26. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(2) Be ( OH )2 point azeotrope is

(3) Sr ( OH )2 (1) Acetone + Carbon disulphide

(2) Heptane + Octane
(4) Ca ( OH )2
(3) Water + Nitric acid
Ans. 2 (4) Ethanol + Water
22. The non – essential amino acid among the Ans. 3
following is 27. The structure of intermediate ‘A’ in the
(1) alanine following reaction, is
(2) lysine
(3) valine
(4) leucine
Ans. 1

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 (or) Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct
option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) ii iv i iii
Ans. 2
29. For the chemical reaction
(1)
N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ⇌ 2NH 3 ( g )
the correct option is
d ( N 2 ) 1 d [ NH 3 ]
(1) − =
dt 2 dt

d [H2 ] d [ NH3 ]
(2) (2) 3 =2
dt dt
1 d [H2 ] 1 d [ NH 3 ]
(3) − =−
3 dt 2 dt
d [ N2 ] d [ NH 3 ]
(4) − =2
dt dt
Ans. 1
(3) 30. Which will make basic buffer ?
(1) 100 mL. of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of
0.1M NH 4OH

(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of

0.1M NaOH
(4) (3) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of
Ans. 4 0.1 M CH 3COOH
28. Match the following : (4) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH 3COOH +
a) Pure nitrogen i) Chlorine 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
b) Haber process ii) Sulphuric acid Ans. 1
3) Contact process iii) Ammonia 31. The compound that is most difficult to
4) Deacon’s process iv) Sodium azide protonate is
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 34. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
order of decreasing energy. The correct option
(1)
is
(1) 6p > 6f > 4d > 5p

(2) (2) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

(3) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(4) 6p > 5f > 5p < 4d
(3)
Ans. 3
35. The number of sigma ( σ ) and pi ( π ) bonds
(4)
in pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne is
Ans. 2
(1) 11σ bonds and 2 π bonds
32. Which of the following reactions are
disproportionation reaction ? (2) 13σ bonds and no π bond

(a) 2Cu + → Cu 2+ + Cu o (3) 10σ bonds and 3π bonds

(b) 3MnO24− + 4H + → 2MnO 4− + MnO2 + 2H 2O (4) 8σ bonds and 5 π bonds

∆
(c) 2KMnO 4  → K 2 MnO 4 + MnO 2 + O 2 Ans. 3
36. Which is the correct thermal stability order for
(d) 2MnO 4− + 3Mn 2+ + 2H 2O → 5MnO 2 + 4H ⊕
H 2 E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po) ?
Select the correct option from the following
(1) a, c and d (1) H 2 Po < H 2Te < H 2Se < H 2S < H 2O

(2) a and d only (2) H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2 Po < H 2O < H 2S
(3) a and b only
(3) H 2S < H 2O < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2 Po
(4) a, b and c
(4) H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2 Po
Ans. 3
Ans. 1
33. Identify the incorrect statement related to
37. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H 2O and
PCl5 from the following
HF are
(1) Axial P – Cl bonds are longer than
equatorial P – Cl bonds (1) OH − and F− , respectively
(2) PCl5 molecule is non – reactive (2) H 3O + and H 2 F+ , respectively
(3) Three equatorial P – Cl bonds makes an (3) OH − and H 2 F+ , respectively
angle of 120° with each other
(4) H 3O + and F− , respectively
(4) Two axial P – Cl bonds make an angle of
Ans. 1
180° with each other
38. Which of the following series of transitions in
Ans. 2
the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible
region ?
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 (1) Paschen series 42. An alkene ‘A’ on reaction with O3 and
(2) Brackett series Zn - H 2O gives propanone and ethanol in
(3) Lyman series
equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene ‘A’
(4) Balmer series
gives ‘B’ as the major product. The structure
Ans. 4
of product ‘B’ is
39. The most suitable reagent for the following
conversion, is

(1)

(1) Zn HCl

(2) Hg 2+ H + , H 2O (2)
(3) Na liquid NH 3
(4) H 2 , Pd C, quinoline

Ans. 4
(3)
40. For the second period elements the correct
increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is
(1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4)
(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Ans. 1
(3) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
43. The method used to remove temporary
(4) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
hardness of water is
Ans. 4
(1) Ion – exchange method
41. pH of a saturated solution of Ca ( OH )2 is 9.
(2) Synthetic resins method

( )
The solubility product K sp of Ca ( OH )2 is (3) Calgon’s method
(4) Clark’s method
(1) 0.125 × 10−15
Ans. 4
−10
(2) 0.5 × 10 44. For an ideal solution, the correct option is
(3) 0.5 × 10 −15 (1) ∆ mix H = 0 at constant T and P

(4) 0.25 × 10−10 (2) ∆ mix G = 0 at constant T and P

Ans. 3 (3) ∆ mix S = 0 at constant T and P
(4) ∆ mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
Ans. 1

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45. Among the following, the reaction that Select the correct option
proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, (1) a – v, b – iv, c – i, d - iii
is (2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d - i
Ans: 1
(1) 48. Use of an artificial kidney during
hemodialysis may result in:
(2)
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the
body
(3)
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium
ions
(4) (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions
Ans. 4 from gastro-intestinal tract
46. What is the site of perception of (d) Reduced RBC production
photoperiod necessary for induction of Which of the following options is the most
flowering in plants? appropriate?
(1) Shoot apex (1) (c) and (d) are correct
(2) Leaves (2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) Lateral buds (3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Pulvinus (4) (b) and (c) are correct
Ans: 1 Ans: 1
47. Match the following hormones with the 49. Which of the following ecological
respective disease: pyramids is generally inverted?
(a) Insulin (i) Addison’s (1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
disease (2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
(b) Thyrosin (ii) Diabetes (3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
Insipidus (4) Pyramid of energy
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly Ans: 2
(d) Growth (iv) Goitre 50. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
Hormone Devices
(v) Diabetes (1) Progestasert, LNG-20
mellitus (2) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
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 (3) Vaults, LNG-20 (2) Water, mineral salts, some organic
(4) Multiload 375, Progestasert nitrogen and hormones
Ans: 1 (3) Water only
51. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of (4) Water and mineral salts only
tripalmitin is: Ans: 2
(1) 0.07 55. Which one of the following equipments is
(2) 0.09 essentially required for growing microbes
(3) 0.9 on a large scale, for industrial production
(4) 0.7 of enzymes?
Ans: 4 (1) Industrial oven
52. Which of the following statements (2) Bioreactor
regarding mitochondria is incorrect? (3) BOD incubator
(1) Inner membrane is convoluted with (4) Sludge digester
infoldings Ans: 2
(2) Mitochondrial matrix contains single 56. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then
(3) Outer membrane is permeable to what will be the frequency of homozygous
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
proteins recessive individuals in the population?
(4) Enzymes of electron transport are (1) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
embedded in outer membrane (2) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
Ans: 4 (3) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
53. Which of the following can be used as a (4) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant Ans: 1
disease? 57. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to:
(1) Anabaena (1) DNA polymorphism
(2) Lactobacillus (2) Novel DNA sequences
(3) Trichoderma (3) Genes expressed as RNA
(4) Chlorella (4) Polypeptide expression
Ans: 3 Ans: 3
54. Xylem translocates: 58. Which of the following sexually
(1) Water, mineral salts and some organic transmitted diseases is not completely
nitrogen only curable?
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 (1) Genital herpes (3) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
(2) Chlamydiasis enzymes
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes
(4) Genital warts are active under acidic pH
Ans: 1 Ans: 2
59. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of 63. Which of the following statements is
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment incorrect?
with (1) Conidia are produced exogenously
(1) Methanol at room temperature and ascospores endogenously
(2) Chilled chloroform (2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with
(3) Isopropanol long thread-like hyphae
(4) Chilled ethanol (3) Morels and truffles are edible
Ans: 4 delicacies
60. Which of the following immune responses (4) Calviceps is a source of many
is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? alkaloids and LSD
(1) Inflammatory immune response Ans: 2
(2) Cell-mediated immune response 64. Identify the correct pair representing the
(3) Auto-immune response causative agent of typhoid fever and the
(4) Humoral immune response confirmatory test for typhoid
Ans: 2 (1) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
61. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed (2) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
by Hugo de Vries, are: (3) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(1) small and directional (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Widal test
(2) small and directionless Ans: 2
(3) random and directional 65. What is the genetic disorder in which an
(4) random and directionless individual has an overall masculine
Ans: 4 development, gynaecomastia, and is
62. Which of the following statements is not sterile?
correct? (1) Edward syndrome
(1) Lysosomes are membrane bound (2) Down’s syndrome
structures (3) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Lysosomes are formed by the process (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum Ans: 4
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66. Match the Column-I with Column-II 69. Which one of the following statements
Column – I Column – II regarding post-fertilization development in
(a) P-wave (i) Depolarisation flowering plants is in correct?
of ventricles (1) Central cell develops into endosperm
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation (2) Ovules develop into embryo sac
of ventricles (3) Ovary develops into fruit
(c) T-wave (iii) Coronary (4) Zygote develops into embryo
ischemia Ans: 2
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation 70. The correct sequence of phases of cell
size of T-wave of atria cycle is:
(v)Repolarisation (1) S→G1→G2→M
of atria (2) G1→S→G2→M
Select the correct option (3) M→G1→G2→S
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – v, d - iii (4) G1→G2→S→M
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – v, d – iv Ans: 2
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii 71. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – v regarding cell division was first proposed
Ans: 3 by:
67. Which of the following glucose (1) Schleiden
transporters is insulin-dependent? (2) Aristotle
(1) GLUT III (3) Rudolf Virchow
(2) GLUT IV (4) Theodore Schwann
(3) GLUT I Ans: 3
(4) GLUT II 72. What triggers activation of protoxin to
Ans: 2 active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in
68. Identify the cells whose secretion protects boll worm?
the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from (1) Alkaline pH of gut
various enzymes: (2) Acidic pH of stomatch
(1) Oxyntic Cells (3) Body temperature
(2) Duodenal Cells (4) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Chief cells Ans: 1
(4) Goblet Cells 73. Concanavalin A is:
Ans: 4 (1) a lectin
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 (2) a pigment Ans: 3
(3) an alkaloid 76. Durg called ‘Heroin” is synthesized by:
(4) an essential oil (1) glycosylation of morphine
Ans: 1 (2) nitration of morphine
74. Select the correct sequence for transport of (3) methylation of morphine
sperm cells in male reproductive system (4) acetylation of morphine
(1) Seminiferous tubules→Vasa Ans: 4
efferentia→Epididymis→Inguinal canal 77. Under which of the following conditions
→Urethra will there be no change in the reading
(2) Testis Epididymis→Vasa effenrentia frame of following mRNA?
→Vas deferens→Ejaculatory 5’AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3’
duct→Inguinal canal→Urethra→Urethral (1) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th
meatus positions respectively
(3) Testis→Epididymis→Vasa (2) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
effenrentia→Rete testis→Inguinal canal positions
→Urethra (3) Insertion of G at 5th position
(4) Seminiferous tubules→Rete testis (4) Deletion of G from 5th position
→Vasa efferentia→Epididymis→Vas Ans: 2
deferens→Ejaculatory duct→Urethra 78. Which of the following is true for Golden
→Urethral meatus rice?
Ans: 4 (1) It is drought tolerant, developed using
75. Which of the following statements is Agrobacterium vector
correct? (2) It has yellow grains, because of a
(1) Cornea is convex, transparent layer gene introduced from a primitive variety of
which is highly vascularised rice
(2) Cornea consists of dense matrix of (3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene
collagen and is the most sensitive portion from daffodil
of the eye (4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
(3) Cornea is an external, transparent and Bacillus thuringiensis
protective proteinacious covering of the Ans: 3
eye-ball
(4) Cornea consists of dense connective
tissue of elastin and can repair itself
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79. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to Ans: 3
move particles or mucus in a specific 83. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
direction. In humans, these cells are mainly alimentary canal of cockroach starting
present in: from mouth:
(1) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct (1) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Gizzard→
(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes Ileum→Crop→Colon→Rectum
(3) Bile duct and Bronchioles (2) Pharynx→Oseophagus→Ileum→
(4) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct Gizzard→Colon→Rectum
Ans: 2 (3) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Crop→
80. Pholem in gymnosperms lacks: Gizzard→Ileum→Colon→Rectum
(1) Companion cells only (4) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Gizzard→
(2) Both sieve tubes and companion cells Crop→Ileum→Colon→Rectum
(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells Ans: 3
(4) Sieve tubes only 84. Select the incorrect statement:
Ans: 2 (1) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
81. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry genes that reduce fertility and productivity
weather. Select the most appropriate (2) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
reason from the following: superior genes and elimination of
(1) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy undersirable genes
mesophyll (3) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) Tyloses in vessels (4) Inbreeding is essential to evolve
(3) Closure of stomata purelines in any animal
(4) Flaccidity of bulliform cells Ans: 1
Ans: 4 85. Select the correct group of biocontrol
82. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve agents.
Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 (1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
mL respectively. What will be his (2) Nostoc, Azospirillium,
Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Volume is 1200 mL? (3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco
(1) 2200 mL mosaic virus, Aphids
(2) 2700 mL (4) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
(3) 1500 mL thuringiensis
(4) 1700 mL Ans: 4
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86. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful 89. Polyblend, a find powder of recycled
in carrying out: modified plastic, has proved to be a good
(1) Nitrification material for:
(2) Denitrification (1) construction of roads
(3) Nitrogen fixation (2) making tubes and pipes
(4) Chemoautotrophic fixation (3) making plastic sacks
Ans: 2 (4) use as a fertilizer
87. Which of the statements given below is not Ans: 1
true about formation of Annual Rings in 90. The shorter and longer arms of a
trees? submetacentric chromosome are referred to
(1) Activity of cambium depends upon as:
variation in climate (1) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(2) Annual rings are not prominent in (2) m-arm and n-arm respectively
trees of temperate region (3) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(3) Annual ring is a combination of (4) p-arm and q-arm respectively
spring wood and autumn wood produced in Ans: 4
a year 91. Which of the following statements is
(4) Differential activity of cambium incorrect?
causes light and dark bands of tissue – (1) Infective constituent in viruses is the
early and late wood respectively protein coat
Ans: 2 (2) Prions consist of abnormally folded
88. It takes very long time for pineapple plants proteins
to produce flowers. Which combination of (3) Viroids lack a protein coat
hormones can be applied to artificially (4) Viruses are obligate parasites
induce flowering in pineapple plants Ans: 1
throughout the year to increase yield? 92. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-
(1) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of
(2) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid glycolysis, is catalysed by:
(3) Auxin and Ethylene (1) Enolase
(4) Gibberellin and Cytokinin (2) Phosphofructokinase
Ans: 3 (3) Aldolase
(4) Hexokinase
Ans: 4
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93. Select the correctly written scientific name Ans: 4
of Mango which was first described by 97. Which of these following methods is the
Carolus Linnaeus: most suitable for disposal of nuclear
(1) Mangifera indica waste?
(2) Mangifera Indica (1) Dump the waste within rocks under
(3) Mangifera indica Car. Linn deep ocean
(4) Mangifera indica Linn (2) Bury the waste within rocks deep
Ans: 4 below the Earth’s surface
94. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as: (3) Shoot the waste into space
(1) Hilum (4) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-
(2) Tegmen cover
(3) Chalaza Ans: 2
(4) Perisperm 98. In some plants, the female gamete develops
Ans: 4 into embryo without fertilization. This
95. Placentation, in which ovules develop on phenomenon is known as:
the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral (1) Syngamy
part, is: (2) Parthenogenesis
(1) Parietal (3) Autogamy
(2) Free central (4) Parthenocarpy
(3) Basal Ans: 2
(4) Axile 99. Cells in G0 phase:
Ans: 1 (1) suspend the cell cycle
96. Match the following organisms with their (2) terminate the cell cycle
respective characteristics: (3) exit the cell cycle
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells (4) enter the cell cycle
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates Ans: 3
(c) Pleurobranchi (iii) Radula 100. Select the correct option:
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian (1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the
tubules ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic
(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
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 (2) There are seven pairs of 103. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by
vertebrosternal, three pairs of mother during the initial days of lactation
vertebronchondal and two pairs of is very essential to impart immunity to the
vertebral ribs new born infants because it contains:
th th th
(3) 8 , 9 and 10 pairs of ribs articulate (1) Macrophages
directly with the sternum (2) Immunoglobulin A
(4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are (3) Natural killer cells
connected to the sternum with the help of (4) Monocytes
hyaline cartilage Ans: 2
Ans: 2 104. Which of the following factors is
101. Match the hominids with their correct brain responsible for the formation of
size: concentrated urine?
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc (1) Secretion of erythropoietin by
(b) Homo (ii) 1350 cc Juxtaglomerular complex
neanderthalensis (2) Hydrostatic pressure during
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc glomerular filtration
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc (3) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
Select the correct option (4) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d - ii inner medually interstitium in the kidneys
(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii Ans: 4
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii 105. Which of the following protocols did aim
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv for reducing emission of
Ans: 1 chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?
102. The frequency of recombination between (1) Gothenburg Protocol
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a (2) Geneva Protocol
measure of the distance between genes was (3) Montreal Protocol
explained by: (4) Kyoto Protocol
(1) Alfred Sturtevant Ans: 3
(2) T.H. Morgan 106. Match the following genes of the Lac
(3) Gregor J. Mendel operon with their respective products:
(4) Boveri (a) i gene (i) α–galactosidase
Ans: 1 (b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
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 (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase (3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecular at
Select the correct option identified position within the DNA
(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii (4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific
(2) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii sites and cuts only one of the two strands
(3) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv Ans: 4
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv 110. Which of the following features of genetic
Ans: 1 code does allow bacteria to produce human
107. Purines founf both in DNA and RNA are: insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Guanine and cytosine (1) Genetic code is nearly universal
(2) Cytosine and thymine (2) Genetic code is specific
(3) Adenine and thymine (3) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(4) Adenine and guanine (4) Genetic code is redundant
Ans: 4 Ans: 1
108. What would be the heart rate of a person if 111. Match the following structures with their
the cardiac outputs is 5L, blood volume in respective location in organs:
the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 (a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancrease
mL and at the end of ventricular systole is (b) Glisson’s Capsule (ii) Dudenum
50 mL? (c) Islets of Langerhams (iii) Small intestine
(1) 100 beats per minute (d) Brunner’s Glands (iv) Liver
(2) 125 beats per minute Select the correct option from the
(3) 50 beats per minute following:
(4) 75 beats per minute (1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d - ii
Ans: 1 (2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
109. Following statements describe the (3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
characteristics of the enzyme Restriction (4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect Ans: 1
statement 112. Which of the following pairs of gases is
(1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate mainly responsible for gree house effect?
backbone at specific sites on each strand (1) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(2) The enzyme recognize a specific (2) Carbon dioxide and Methane
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the (3) Ozone and Ammonia
DNA (4) Oxygen and Nitrogen
Ans: 2
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113. What is the direction of movement of (3) Both (A) and (B) are true
sugars in phloem? (4) (A) is true but (B) is false
(1) Downward Ans: 1
(2) Bi-directional 116. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(3) Non-multidirectional nucleus occurs:
(4) Upward (1) before entry of sperm into ovum
Ans: 2 (2) simultaneously with first cleavage
114. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon) a red flower (3) after entry of sperm but before
was crossed with a white flower and in F1 fertilization
generation, pink flowers were obtained. (4) after fertilization
When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 Ans: 3
generation showed white, red and pink 117. Which of the following contraceptive
flowers. Choose the incorrect statement methods do involve a role of hormone?
from the following : (1) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptive
(1) Ratio of F2 is 1/4 (Red): 2/4 (Pink): (2) Pills, Emergency contraceptives,
1/4 (White) Barrier methods
(2) Law of Segregation does not apply in (3) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills,
this experiment Emergency contraceptives
(3) This experiment does not follow the (4) Barrier method, Lactational
Principle of Dominance amenorrhea, Pills
(4) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete Ans: 3
dominance 118. Consider the following features:
Ans: 2 (a) Organ system level of organization
115. Consider the following statements: (b) Bilateral symmetry
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly (c) True coelomates with segmentation of
bound to enzyme protein is called body
prosthetic group Select the correct option of animal groups
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme which possess all the above characteristics.
with its bound prosthetic group is called (1) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
apoenzyme (2) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
Selec the correct option (3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false (4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(2) (A) is false but (B) is true Ans: 3
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119. Which one of the following is not a method
of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
(1) Botanical Garden
(2) Sacred Grove
(3) Biosphere Reserve
(4) Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans: 1
120. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in
the construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross over
(2) A unit of distance beween genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross over
(3) A unit of distance between two
expressed genes, representing 10% cross
over
(4) A unit of distance between two
expressed genes, representing 100% cross
over
Ans: 1
121. What is the fate of the male gametes
discharged in the synergid?
(1) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
fuse(s) with synergid nucleus
(2) One fuses with the egg and other
fuses with central cell nuclei
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
degenerate(s) in the synergid
(4) All fuse with the egg
Ans: 2
122. Which of the following muscular disorders
is inherited?
(1) Myasthenia gravis
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(2) Botulism
(3) Tetany
(4) Muscular dystrophy
Ans: 4
123. Which of the following is a commercial
blood cholesterol lowering agent?
(1) Streptokinase
(2) Lipase
(3) Cyclosporin A
(4) Statin
Ans: 4
124. Which of the following is the most
important cause for animals and plants
being driven to extinction?
(1) Economic exploitation
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Drought and floods
Ans: 3
125. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in
1992 was called:
(1) to assess threat posed to native
species by invasive weed species
(2) for immediate steps to discontinue use
of CFCs that were damaging the ozone
layer
(3) to reduce CO2 emissions and global
warming
(4) for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilization of its benefits
Ans: 4
126. How does steroid hormone influence the
cellular activities?
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19
 (1) Activating cyclic AMP located on the (d) Acetobacter (iv) Bread
cell membrane aceti
(2) Using aquaporin channels as second (v) Acetic acid
messenger Select the correct option
(3) Changing the permeability of the cell (1) a – iii, b – iv, c – iv, d - i
membrane (2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – v
(4) Binding to DNA and forming a gene- (3) a – ii, b – iv, c – v, d – iii
hormone complex (4) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – v
Ans: 4 Ans. 4
127. Which part of the brain is responsible for 130. Match Column-I with Column-II
thermoregulation? Column – I Column – II
(1) Corpus callosum (a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic
(2) Medulla oblongata association of fungi
(3) Cerebrum with plant roots
(4) Hypothlamus (b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition
Ans. 4 of dead organic
128. Select the incorrect statement materials
(1) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny (c) Lichens (iii) Living on
depends on the type of sperm rather than living plants of
egg animals
(2) Human males have one of their sex- (d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic
chromosome much shorter than the other association of algae
(3) Male fruits fly is heterogametic and fungi
(4) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms Choose the correct anser from the options
have no sex-chromosomes given below:
Ans. 1 (1) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv
129. Match the following organism with the (2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
products they produce (3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd Ans. 2
cerevisiae 131. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish
(c) Aspergillus (iii) Citric acid without fungi association. This is because:
niger (1) It has very hard seed coat
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 (2) Its seeds contain inhibitors that (3) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal
prevent germination cavity

(3) Its embryio is immature (4) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

Ans. 4
(4) It has obligate association with
135. From evolutionary point of view, retention of
mycorrhizae
the female gametophyte with developing
Ans. 4
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for
132. Which of the following pair of organelles
some time, is observed in
does not contain DNA?
(1) Pteridophytes
(1) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (2) Gymnosperms
(2) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria (3) Liverworts
(3) Mitochondria and Lysosomes (4) Mosses
(4) Chloroplast and Vacuoles Ans. 1
Ans. 1 136. In which of the following processes, heat is
133. In a species, the weight of new born ranges neither absorbed nor released by a system?
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the new born with (1) Isobaric
an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg (2) Isochoric
survive whereas 99% of the infants born (3) Isothermal
with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 (4) Adiabatic
kg die. Which type of selection process is Ans. 4
taking place? 137. Two point charges A and B, having
(1) Disruptive Selection charges + Q and –Q respectively, are
(2) Cylical Selection placed at certain distance apart and force
(3) Directional Selection acting between them is F. If 25% charge
(4) Stabilizing Selection of A is transferred to B, then force between
Ans. 4 the charges becomes
134. Due to increasing air – borne allergens and 16F
(1)
pollutants, many people in urban areas are 9
suffering from respiratory disorder causing 4F
(2)
3
wheezing due to
(1) proliferation of fibrous tissues and (3) F
damage of the alveolar walls 9F
(4)
16
(2) reduction in the secretion of surfactants
by pneumocytes
Ans. 4

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138. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is (1) V1 =V2 and i1 = i2
uniformly charged. The electric field due (2) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
to the sphere at a distance r from the
(3) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
centre:
(4) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(1) Zero as r increases for r < R,
Ans. 1
increases as r increases for r>R
141. A force F= 20 + 10y acts on a particle in
(2) Decreases as r increases for r<R and
y-direction where F is in newton and y in
for r > R
meter. Work done by this force to move
(3) Increases as r increases for r<R and
the particle from y = 0 to y =1 m is
for r > R
(1) 25 J
(4) Zero as r increases for r <R, decreases
(2) 20 J
as r increases for r>R
(3) 30 J
Ans. 4
(4) 5 J
139. In an experiment the percentage of error
Ans. 1
occurred in the measurement of physical
142. At a point A on the earth’s surface the
quantities A,B,C and D are 1%, 2%, 3%
angle of dip, δ = +250 . At a point B on the
and 4% respectively. Then the maximum
earth’s surface the angle of dip, δ = −250 .
percentage of error in the measurement X,
1
We can interpret that :
A2B 2
where X= 1 , will be (1) A is located in the northern
C 3 D3
hemisphere and B is located in the
(1) -10%
southern hemisphere
(2) 10%
(2) A and B are both located in the
3
(3)  % southern hemisphere.
 13 
(3) A and B are both located in the
(4) 16%
northern hemisphere
Ans. 4
(4) A is located in the sourthern
140. In the circuits shown below, the readings
hemisphere and B is located in the
of the voltmeters and the ammeters will be:
northern hemisphere.
Ans. 4

Circuit 1 Circuit 2
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143. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u (2) Rainbow is a combined effect of
collides with another body B of mass 2m, dispersion refraction and reflection of
at rest . The collision is head on and sunlight
elastic in nature. After the collision the (3) When the light rays undergo two
fraction of energy lost of the colliding internal reflections in a water drop, a
body A is: secondary rainbow is formed
4 (4) The order of colours is reversed in the
(1)
9 secondary rainbow
5
(2) Ans. 1
9
147. In a double slit experiment, when light of
1
(3) wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
9
8 width of the first minima formed as a
(4)
9 screen placed 1m away, was found to be
Ans. 4 0.2O . What will be the angular width of the
144. Increases in temperature of a gas filled in a first minima, If the entire experimental
container would lead to : apparatus is immersed in water ?
(1) Decrease in its pressure
( µwater = 4 / 3)
(2) Decrease in intermolecular distance
(1) 0.050
(3) Increase in its mass
(2) 0.10
(4) Increases in its kinetic energy
(3) 0.2660
Ans. 4
145. Which of the following acts as a circuit (4) 0.150

protection device? Ans. 4

(1) Switch 148. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is

(2) Fuse carrying a constant current. The plot of the

(3) Conductor magnitude of the magnetic field, B with
(4) Inductor the distance, d, from the centre of the

Ans. 2 conductor, is correctly represented by the

146. Pick the wrong answer in the context with figure
rainbow
(1) An observer can see a rainbow when
his front is towards the sun

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23
 y- projection of the radius vector of
rotating particle P is:
 3π t 
(1) y ( t ) = 3cos   , where y in m
 2 
 πt 
(1) (2) y ( t ) = 3cos   , where y in m
 2

(3) y ( t ) = −3cos 2π t , where y in m

 πt 
(4) y ( t ) = 4sin   , where y in m
 2
Ans. 2
(2) 150. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium
rod of unknown length have their increase
in length independent of increase in
temperature. The length of aluminium rod
is (α Cu = 1.7 ×10−5 K −1 and α Al = 2.2 ×10 −5 K −1 )
(3)
(1) 88 cm
(2) 68 cm
(3) 6.8 cm
(4) 113. 9 cm
Ans. 2
151. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
(4) whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is
Ans. 1 most likely to break when
149. The radius of circle, the period of (1) The mass is at the lowest point
revolution, initial position and sense of (2) Inclined at a angle of 600 from
revolutuion are indicated in the fig. vertical
(3) The mass is at the highest point
(4) The wire is horizontal
Ans. 1

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152. An electron is accelerated through a 155. Average velocity of a particle executing
potential difference of 10,000 V. its de SHM in one complete vibration is
Broglie wavelength is (nearly) Aω 2
(1)
(m e = 9 ×10 −31 kg )
2
(2) zero
(1) 12.2 ×10−14 m
Aω
(2) 12. 2nm (3)
2
(3) 12.2 × 10−13 m (4) Aω
(4) 12.2 × 10−12 m Ans. 2
Ans. 4 156. Two particles A and B are moving in
153. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact uniform circular motion in concentric
against the inner wall of a hollow circles of radii rA and rB with speed
cylindrical drum of radius 1m. The υ A and υ B respectively. Their time period of
coefficient of friction between the block rotation is the same. The ratio of angular
and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. speed of A to that of B will be
The minimum angular velocity needed for (1) rB : rA
the cylinder to keep the block stationary
(2) 1 : 1
when the cylinder is vertical and rotating
(3) rA : rB
about is axis, will be
(4) υ A : υ B
(1) 10 rad/s
Ans. 2
(2) 10π rad/s
157. The unit of thermal conductivity is
(3) 10 rad/s
(1) Wm K -1
10
(4) rad/s
2π (2) W m -1K -1
Ans. 1 (3) Jm K −1
154. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
(4) J m −1 K −1
earth. How much will it weigh half way
Ans. 2
down to the centre of the earth? 
158. A particle moving with velocity V is
(1) 250 N
acted by three force shown by the vector
(2) 100 N
triangle PQR. The velocity of the particle
(3) 150 N
will
(4) 200 N
Ans. 2

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25
 (1) Equal to angle of incidence
(2) 900

(3) 1800
(4) 00
Ans. 2
(1) remain constant 162. In which of the following devices, the eddy
(2) change according to the smallest force current effect is not used ?

QR (1) Electromagnet

(3) Increase (2) Electric heater

(4) Decrease (3) Induction furnace

Ans. 1 (4) Magnetic braking in train

159. The displacement of a particle executing Ans. 2

simple harmonic motion is given by 163. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength ?
y=A 0 + A sin ωt + B cos ωt
(1) Green
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is
(2) Violet
given by:
(3) Red
A + ( A+B )
2 2
(1) 0
(4) Blue
(2) A+B Ans. 3
(3) A 0 + A 2 +B2 164. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius
4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of
(4) A 2 +B2
3 rpm. The torque required to stop after
Ans. 4
2 π revolutions is
160. α - particle consists of :
(1) 12 ×10−4 Nm
(1) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
(2) 2 ×106 Nm
(2) 2 protons only
(3) 2 ×10 −6 Nm
(3) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(4) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons (4) 2 ×10 −3 Nm

Ans. 3 Ans. 3

161. In total internal reflection when the angle 165. Ionized hydrogen atoms and α - particles

of incidence is equal to the critical angle with same momenta enters perpendicular

for the pair of media in contact, what will to a constant magnetic field B. The rate of

be angle of refraction ? their radii of their paths rH : rα will be

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 (1) 4 :1
(2) 1 :4
(3) 2 :1
(4) 1 : 2
Ans. 3
166. When an object is shot from the bottom of
a long smooth inclined plane kept at an The correct Boolean operation represented

angle 600 with horizontal, it can travel a by the circuit diagram drawn is

distance x1 along the plane. But when the (1) NAND

(2) NOR
inclination is decreased to 300 and the
(3) AND
same object is shot with the same velocity,
(4) OR
it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will
Ans. 1
be
169. A soap bubble, having radius of 1mm, is
(1) 1: 3
blown from a detergent solution having a
(2) 1: 2 3 surface tension of 2.5 ×10−2 N/m . The
(3) 1: 2 pressure inside the bubble equals at a
(4) 2 :1 point Z 0 below the free surface of water in
Ans. 1 a container . Taking g=10 m / s 2 density of
167. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance water = 103 kg / m3 , the value of Z 0 is:
20 µ F is being charged by a voltage source
(1) 1cm
whose potential is changing at the rate of (2) 0.5 cm
3 V/s. The conduction current through the (3) 100 cm
connecting wires, and the displacement (4) 10 cm
current through the plates of the capacitor, Ans. 1
would be respectively 170. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg
(1) 60 µ A , zero rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of
(2) zero , zero mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much
(3) zero, 60µ A work is needed to stop it?
(4) 60µ A , 60µ A (1) 2 J

Ans. 4 (2) 1 J

168. (3) 3J
(4) 30 kJ
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Ans. 3 (4) -3. 4 eV – 6. 8 eV
171. When a block of mass M is suspended by a Ans. 1
long wire of length L , the length of the 174. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown
wire becomes ( L + l ) . The elastic potential in the figure with a DC source of emf E,

energy stored in the extended wire is and zero internal resistance.

1 The ratio of power consumption by the

(1) Mgl
2 bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in
1 the situation when two from section A and
(2) MgL
2 one from section B are glowing will be
(3) Mgl
(4) MgL
Ans. 1
172. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of
focal length f each, are kept coaxially in
contact with each other such that the focal
length of the combination is F1 . When the
sopace between the two lenses is filled
with glycerin (which has the same
refractive index ( µ = 1.5 ) as that of glass) (1) 1:2
then the equivalent focal length is F2 . The (2) 2 : 1

ratio F1 : F2 will be (3) 4 : 9

(4) 9 : 4
(1) 2:3
Ans. 4
(2) 3:4
(3) 2 :1 175. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m 2

(4) 1:2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field

Ans. 4 5 ×10−5 T. When the plane of the coil is

173. The total energy of an electron in an atom rotated by 900 around any of its coplanar

in an orbit as – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and axis in 0.1s, the emf induced in the coil

potential energies are respectively will be

(1) 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV (1) 2 ×10 −3 V

(2) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (2) 0.02V
(3) -3.4 eV, -3.4 eV (3) 2V
(4) 0.2V
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28
Ans. 2 (3) 300 west
176. A small hole of area of cross- section 2 (4) 00
mm 2 is present near the bottom of a fully Ans. 3
filled open tank of height 2m. Taking 179. The work done to raise a mass m from the
2
g=10m/s , the rate of flow of water through surface of the earth to a height h, which is
the open hole would be nearly equal to the radius of the earth is
(1) 2.23 ×10−6 m3 / s 1
(1) mgR
2
(2) 6.4 × 10−6 m3 / s
(3) 12.6 ×10−6 m3 / s 3
(2) mgR
2
(4) 8.9 × 10−6 m3 / s
(3) mgR
Ans. 3 (4) 2 mgR
177. Two parallel infinite line charges with
Ans. 1
linear charge densities +λ C / m and 180. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
−λC / m are placed at a distance of 2R in
following statements is true?
free space. What is the electric field mid- (1) Holes are the majority carriers and
way between the two line charges? pentavalent atoms are the dopants
λ
(1) N /C (2) Electrons are the majority carriers and
π ∈0 R
pentavalent atoms are the dopants
λ
(2) N /C (3) Electrons are the majority carriers and
2π ∈0 R
trivalent atoms are the dopants
(3) Zero
(4) Holes are the majority carriers and
2λ
(4) N /C trivalent atoms are the dopants
π ∈0 R
Ans. 4
Ans. 1
178. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20
m/s. The speed of river water is 10 ms and
is flowing due east. If he is standing on
the south bank and wishes to cross the
river along the shortest path, the angle at
which he should make his strokes w.r.t
north is given by:
(1) 600 west
(2) 450 west
Sri Chaitanya Page Hyderabad
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