Integer type Questions (‘0’ negative marking) Q.61 to Q.

75 (4 marks) [60]

SECTION - I
BITSAT
Straight Chemistry
Objective TypeSET 1
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. An element has ABAB......type close packed structure. It’s unit cell is hcp. The radius of an atom of
the element is 300 pm. What is the distance between two adjacent layers?
2 3 2 3
(1) 600 pm (2) 1200 pm (3) 1200 pm (4) 600 pm
3 2 3 2

2. Which of the following will show Schottky defect ?

(1) CaF2 (2) ZnS (3) AgCl (4) CsCl

3. How many next nearest neighbours are present for Zn+2 ions in FCC arrangment of ZnS
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 12 (4) 24

4. In FCC unit cell, what fraction of edge is not covered by atoms ?

1 1  3 1
(1) (2) 1– (3)  1–  (4) 1–
2 2  4  2 2


5. A metal crystallises into two cubic phases, face-centred cubic (FCC) and body-centred cubic (BCC).
Calculate the ratio of densities of BCC to FCC structure.
3 3 1 3 1 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

6. Silver has an atomic radius of 144 pm and the density of silver is 10.6 g cm –3. To which type of cubic
crystal, silver belongs?
(1) SC (2) BC (3) FCC (4) HCP

7. The density of a pure substance ‘A’ whose atoms pack in cubic close pack arrangement is 1 g/cc. If B
atoms can occupy tetrahedral void and if all the tetrahedral voids are occupied by ‘B’ atom. What is the
density of resulting solid in g/cc. [Atomic mass (1) = 30 g/mol and Atomic mass (2) = 50 gm/mol
(1) 3.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 2.33 (4) 5.33

8. In a hypothetical solid, ‘C’ atoms are found to form cubical closed packed lattice. ‘A’ atoms occupy all
tetrahedral void and ‘B’ atoms occupy all octahedral voids. There is no distortion in ccp lattice. Fraction
of body diagonal not covered up by atoms is :
(1) 0.76 (2) 0.24 (3) 0.68 (4) 0.32
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9. In a compound AB2O4, the oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packing arrangement and cation
‘A’ are present in octahedral voids, cation ‘B’ are equally distributed between octahedral and
tetrahedral voids. The fraction of octahedral voids occupied is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 6 8
10. A certain sample of cuprous sulphide is found to have the composition Cu 1.95S1.00 because of
incorporation of Cu2+ and Cu+ ions in the crystal then ratio of Cu2+ and Cu+ ions is
(1) 0.08 and 1.00 (2) 1 : 38 (3) 1 : 24 (4) 1.00 : 1.00

11. An element X (atomic weight = 24 g/mole) forms a face centered cubic lattice. If the edge length of the
lattice is 4 × 10–8 cm and the observed density is 2.40 × 103 kg/m3, calculate the percentage occupancy
of lattice points by X element. (Given NA = 6 × 1023)
(1) 50 % (2) 60 % (3) 88 % (4) 96 %

12. If NaCl is dopped with 10–3 mol % SrCl2, what is the numbers of cation vacancies?
(1) 6.02 × 1018 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1019 mol–1 (3) 6.02 × 1020 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1021 mol–1

13. Diamond structure can be considered as ZnS (Zinc blend) structure in which each Zn2+ in alternate
tetrahedral void and S2– in cubic close pack arrangement is replaced by one carbon atom. If C–C
covalent bond length in diamond is 1.5 Å, what is the edge length of diamond unit cell (z = 8).
2
(1) 3 Å (2) 2 3 Å (3) Å (4) 3Å
3

14. If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 20°C, how many ml (at STP) of N 2 gas would dissolve in a litre of
water? Partial pressure of N2 equal to 740 torr and Henery’s law constant for it is 7.40  107 torr at
20°C.
(1) 10 ml (2) 14 ml (3) 12.44 ml (4) 22.4 ml

15. Dry air was passed successively through a solution of 5 g of a solute in 180 g of water and then through
pure water. The loss in weight of solution was 2.5 g and that of pure solvent was 0.04g. The molecular
mass of the solute is
(1) 31.25 g (2) 3.125 g (3) 312.5 g (4) none of these

16. 2 mole non-volatile solute is added to 1 kg water at -80C. Kf of water is 2 Kkgmole-1. Mass of ice that
separates out is :
(1) 250 g (2) 500 g (3) 750 g (4) 100 g

17. A 0.001 molal solution of a complex [MA8] in water has the freezing point of –0.0054°C. Assuming
100% ionization of the complex salt and Kf for H2O = 1.86 km–1, write the correct representation for the
complex
(1) [MA8] (2) [MA7]A (3) [MA6]A2 (4) [MA5]A3

18. Select the incorrect statement for a dilute solution containing non-volatile solute
(1) entropy of solution > entropy of pure solvent
(2) entropy of solvent vapours > entropy of solution
(3) Hvap of solvent from solution = Hvap of pure solvent
(4) Svap of solvent from solution < Svap of pure solvent

19. At 55oC, ethanol has a vapour pressure of 168 mm, and the vapour pressure of methyl cyclohexane is
280 mm. A solution of the two, in which the mole fraction of ethanol is 0.68, has a total vapour pressure
of 376 mm. This solution is formed from its components with
(1) the evolution of heat.
(2) the absorption of heat.
(3) neither absorption nor evolution of heat.
(4) nothing can be predicted on the basis of the given information.

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20. How many gram of glucose should be dissolved in 500 gram of water in order to produce a solution with
105°C difference between the freezing point and the boiling point ? For water, K f = 1.9 K-Kg/mol and
Kb = 0.6 K-Kg/mol
(1) 60 (2) 120 (3) 180 (4) 240

21. The vapour pressure of A, B and C are 75 torr, 22 torr and 10 torr at 20°C which of the following is not
possible value of vapour pressure of an equimolar binary/ternary solution of these at 20°C.
Assume all solution are ideal in nature.
107 107 97
(1) (2) (3) (4) 16
2 3 2

22. Water and chlorobenzene are immiscible liquids. Their mixture boils at 90 oC under a reduced pressure
of 9 ×104 Pa. The vapour pressure of pure water at 90oC is 7 × 104 Pa. Mass percentage of
chlorobenzene in the distillate is equal to
(1) 45 (2) 56 (3) 64 (4) 72

23. A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A ( PAo =100 mm Hg) and 3 moles of volatille liquid
B ( PBo = 80 mm Hg). If solution behaves ideally, the total vapour pressure of the distillate is
(1) 85 mm Hg (2) 85.88 mm Hg (3) 90 mm Hg (4) 92 mm Hg

24. 50 ml of 1 M oxalic acid dihydrate is shaken with 0.5 gm of wood charcoal. The final concentration of
the solution after adsorption is 0.5 M. Amount of oxalic acid absorbed per gm of charcoal is
(1) 3.45 gm (2) 3.15 gm (3) 6.30 gm (4) None

25. A catalyst
(1) Increases the free energy change in the reaction
(2) Decreases the free energy change in the reaction
(3) Does not increase or decrease the free energy change in the reaction
(4) Can either increase or decrease the free energy change depending on what catalyst we use

26. In the redox reaction 2MnO4  5C2O24  16H ⇌ 2Mn 2   10CO2  8H2O .
The ion acting as autocatalyst is
(1) MnO4– (2) C2O42– (3) H+ (4) Mn2+

27. On addition of one ml solution of 10% NaCl to 10 ml gold sol in the presence of 0.25 gm of starch, the
coagulation is just prevented. Starch has the following gold number
(1) 0.025 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 250

28. Point out the false statement

(1) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect is shown by colloidal systems
(2) Gold number is a measure of the protective power of a lyophilic colloid
(3) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is called is gel
(4) Hardy–Schulze rule is related with coagulation

29. The density of gold is 19 g/cm 3. If 1.9 × 10–4 g of gold is dispersed in one litre of water to give a sol
having spherical gold particles of radius 10 nm, then the number of gold particles per mm 3 of the sol will
be
(1) 1.9 × 1012 (2) 6.3 × 1014 (3) 6.3 × 1010 (4) 2.4 × 106

30. The volume of N2 at NTP required to form a mono-layer on the surface of iron catalyst is 8.15 ml per
gram of the adsorbent. What will be the surface area of the adsorbent if each nitrogen molecule
occupies 16 × 10–20 m2 ?
(1) 16 × 10–16 cm2 (2) 39 m2 (3) 35 m2 (4) 22400 cm2

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31. Statement-1: Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical miceller concentration
(CMC).
Statement-2: The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at the
CMC.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

32. Choose the correct reason(s) for the stability of the lyophobic colloidal particles.
(1) Preferential desorption of ions on their surface from the solution
(2) Preferential adsorption of solvent on their surface from the solution
(3) Attraction between different particles having opposite charges on their surface
(4) Potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges around the
colloidal particles.

33. Select the correct option

(1) Activation energy for physisorption is higher than chemisorption.
(2) Zeta potential provides stability to the colloidal sols
(3) Brownian movement is due to collision among colloidal particles
(4) Multimolecular layer is formed in chemisorption.

34. A negatively charged suspension of clay in water will need for precipitation the minimum amount of
(1) Aluminium chloride (2) Potassium sulphate (3) Sodium hydroxide (4) Hydrochloric acid

35. When a freshly precipitated substance is converted into a colloidal solution with the help of a third
substance, the process is known as
(1) Coagulation (2) Peptization (3) Electrodispersion (4) Dialysis

36. The given graphs/data I, II, III and IV represents general trends observed for different physisorption and
chemisorption processess under mild conditions of temperature and pressure. Which of the following
choice(s) about I, II, III and IV is/are correct ?

(1) I is physisorption and II is chemisorption (2) I is physisorption and III is chemisorption

(3) IV is chemisorption and II is physisorption (4) IV is chemisorption and III is chemisorption

37. Pick out the complex compound in which the central metal atom obeys EAN rule strictly
(1) K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (2) K3 [Fe(CN)6 ] (3) [Cr(H2O)6 ] Cl3 (4) [Cu(NH3 )4 ] SO4

38. Total number of isomers possible for square planar complex K 2 PdClBr2 (SCN) is :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

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39. Mixture X was prepared in 2 litre of solution by dissolving 0.02 mol of [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ] Br and 0.02 mol
of [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4
1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3  Y.
1 litre of mixture X + excess BaCl2  Z.
Number of moles of Y and Z are
(1) 0.01, 0.01 (2) 0.02, 0.01 (3) 0.01, 0.02 (4) 0.02, 0.02

40. Which one of the following has largest number of isomers ? (R = alkyl group; en = ethylenediamine)
(1) [Ir(PR3 )2 H(CO)]2 (2) [Co(NH3 ) 4 (CN)Cl]  (3) [Ru(NH3)4Cl2]+ (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]+

41. The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is :
(1) [Ni(NO2 )6 ] 4   [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2   [Ni(H2O)6 ]2  (2) [Ni(NO2 )6 ] 4   [Ni(H2O)6 ]2   [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2 
(3) [Ni(H2O)6 ]2   [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2   [Ni(NO2 )6 ]4  (4) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2   [Ni(H2O)6 ]2   [Ni(NO2 )6 ]4 

42. Which of the given statements is not true for the following reaction?
[Cu(H2O)4]2+ + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4]2+ + 4H2O
(1) It is a ligand-substitution reaction.
(2) NH3 is a relatively strong-field ligand while H2O is a weak-field ligand.
(3) During the reaction, there is a change in colour from light blue to dark blue.
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ has a tetrahedral structure, and is paramagnetic.

43. The sturcutres of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh3)2Cl2 are

(1) square planar (2) tetrahedral and square planar respectively
(3) tetrahedral (4) square planar and tetrahedral respectively

44. The tris (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) cation, [Co(en)3]3+, can have
(1) three stereoisomers, all chiral and optically active
(2) two chiral stereoisomers (enantiomers)
(3) three stereoisomers, all achiral
(4) two stereoisomers, both achiral

45. In which of the following are the chemical formula and the name incorrectly matched ?
(1) K[Pt(NH3)Cl5] - potassium amminepentachloroplatinate (IV)
(2) [Ag(CN)2]– - dicyanoargentate (I) ion
(3) K3[Cr(C2O4)3] - potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
(4) Na2[Ni(EDTA)] - Sodium ethylenediaminetetraacetatonickel (II)

46. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the chirality (optical isomerism) of the cis and
trans isomers of the type M(AA)2b2 (where M stands for a metal, a and b are achiral monodentate
ligands, and AA is a symmetrical bidentate achiral ligand)?
a b
a b a a
M M
a b a a
a b
cis trans
(1) The trans form is achiral and optically inactive while the cis form is chiral and exists in two
enantiomeric forms.
(2) The cis as well as the trans form are achiral and optically inactive.
(3) The trans form is chiral and exists in two enantiomeric forms while the cis form is achiral and
optically inactive.
(4) The cis as well as the trans form are chiral, and each of the them exists in two enantiomeric forms.

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47. Which of the following pairs of structures represents facial and meridianal isomers (geometrical
isomers) respectively ?
Cl Cl Cl Cl
H3N Cl H3N Cl H3N Cl H3N Cl
(1) Co and Co (2) Co and Co
H3N Cl H3N NH3 H3N NH3 H3N Cl
NH3 Cl Cl NH3
Cl Cl Cl NH3
H3N NH3 H3N Cl H3N NH3 Cl Cl
(3) Co and Co (4) Co and Co
H3N Cl H3N NH3 Cl Cl H3N NH3
Cl Cl NH3 Cl

48. [CoCI2(NH3)4]+ + CI–  [CoCI3(NH3)3] + NH3. If in this reaction two isomers of the product are
obtained, which is true for the initial (reactant) complex :
(1) compound is in cis-from (2) compound is in trans-form
(3) compound is in both (cis and trans) form (4) can`t be predicted

49. Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric forms?

(i) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (ii) K3[Co(C2O4)3] (iii) K3[CoCI2(C2O4)2] (iv) [CoBrCI(en)2]
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) (iv) only (4) All four

50. Which of the following complex compound(s) is/are paramagnetic and have low spin?
(I) K3[Fe(CN6)] (II) [Ni(CO)4]0 (III) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (IV) [Mn(CN)6]4–
Choose the correct code :
(1) I only (2) II and III (3) I and IV (4) IV only

51. Formula of argentite, horn silver and Galena are respectively?

(1) Ag2S, AgCl and PbS (2) AgCl, PbS and Ag2S
(3) PbS, Ag2S and AgCl (4) AgCl, Ag2S and PbS

52. Which statement is correct

(1) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the slag present in the ore to produce easily fusible
flux to carry away the impurities
(2) Slags are carefully chosen to combine with the flux present in the ore to produce easily fusible
gangue to carry away the impurities
(3) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the flux present in the ore to produce easily fusible
slag to carry away the impurities
(4) Fluxes are carefully chosen to combine with the gangue present in the ore to produce easily fusible
slag to carry away the impurities

53. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore by

(1) Carbon reduction and self reduction respectivley.
(2) Self reduction and carbon reduction respectivley.
(3) Electrolysis and self reduction respectivley.
(4) Self reduction and electrolysis respectivley.

54. During the extraction of aluminium,

(1) a graphite-lined steel tank serves as an anode and a graphite rod as a cathode
(2) a graphite-lined steel tank acts as a cathode and a graphite rod as an anode
(3) cryolite acts as an anode as well as a cathode
(4) a graphite rod acts as an anode and molten aluminium as a cathode

55. Silver is extracted from Ag2S by

(1) fusing it with KCl, and electrolyzing the melt
(2) reducing it with zinc
(3) treating it with sodium cyanide and O2 gas followed by zinc
(4) roasting it and reducing the resultant product by smelting

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56. When copper ore is heated with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte
is produced. The copper matte contains :
(1) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II) (2) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)
(3) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II) (4) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

57. Zone refining is based on the principle that :

(1) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.
(2) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.
(3) different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adosrbent.
(4) vapours of volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal.

58. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(A) Cyanide process (1) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Froth Floatation Process (2) Dressing of ZnS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (3) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (4) Extraction of Au
(5) Purification of Ni
Code :
(1) A (4) B (2) C (3) D (1) (2) A (2) B (3) C (1) D (5)
(3) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) (4) A (3) B (4) C (5) D (1)

59. Match the items of Column I with items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(A) Blisterred Cu (1) Aluminium
(B) Blast furnace (2) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2
(C) Reverberatory furnace (3) Iron
(D) Hall-Heroult process (4) FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
(5) 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
Code :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) (2) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (5)
(3) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2) (4) A (4) B (5) C (3) D (2)

60. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
(i) In gold schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii) Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution of MgCl2
(iii) Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting
(iv) Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck’s process
(1) T T T F (2) T F F T (3) F T T T (4) T F T F

SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

 This section contains Fifteen (15) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with
two digit integer and decimal upto one digit.

61. If SR = 100 torr and PR = 350 torr, then the mole fraction of A in vapour phase and mole fraction of A
in liquid phase respectively are Y & X respectively. Report your answer as 15XY.

62. Calculate the value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) for infinity dilute solution of H3PO4 ( Ka1  Ka2  Ka3 , 3 = 0.8).
Assume ( K a1  Ka2   ). Report your answer after multiplying by 10/19.
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63. Aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid (molar mass = 180 g) of 0.18 % w/v at 300 K has
observed osmotic pressure 0.369 atm. What should be its % dissociation in above aqueous solution?
(R = 0.082 atm L / K mole). Report your answer after dividing by 10.

64. The number of atoms in unit cell content for a bcc lattice is X. In bcc, unit cell packing fraction is Y%.
Report your answer as Y/17X.

65. If ‘Z’ is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the 3D closest packing sequence
ABCABC....., the sum of number of tetrahedral & octahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to nZ.
Determine n.

66. The number of nearest neighbours and next near neighbours of a Na+ ion in a crystal of NaCl are Y & X
respectively. Determine |Y – 2X|.

67. Analysis shows that nickel oxide consist of nickel ion with 96% ions having d 8 configuration and 4%
having d7 configuration. NixO100 best represents the formula of the oxide. Report your answer as
(105 – x).

68. Ammonia gas adsorbs on 3 g charcoal having rough surface area of about 10 16 m2 and area occupied
103
by per molecule of NH3 is cm2. What are the moles of ammonia adsorbed per gram of charcoal ?
36

69. Following data of osmotic pressure () is obtained when different moles of C17H35COONa are present in
1 L solution at 25°C :
Moles 0 0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04

(moles/liter) 0 0.02 0.04 0.058 0.076
RT
At as well as greater than X/100 M concentration, the mixture is colloidal solution. Determine X.

70. Number of chelate rings in [Fe(EDTA)]– = ?

71. On the basis of the following observations made with aqueous solutions, assign the secondary valences
to metals in the following. Report your answer as (sum of secondary valences / 5).
Compound formula Mole of AgCl precipitated per mole of the compounds with excess AgNO 3
(i) PdCl2.4NH3 2
(ii) NICl2.6H2O 2
(iii) CoCl3.4NH3 1
(iv) PtCl2.2NH3 0

72. Sum of number of unpaired electrons in brown ring complex and K3[Co(C2O4)3] is ______.

73. Total number of isomers (including stereoisomers) for the complex [Pd(NH3)(H2O)(NO2)2] is :

74. What is the coordination number of aluminium in mineral cryolite ?

75. The number of reducing agents involved in the extraction of iron (as pig iron) using blast furnace from
ore haematite is
ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 1
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (5)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (0) 67. (7) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (5)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (7) 74. (6) 75. (2)
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