128

MODEL PAPER 6
(2) a alkadienone
1. If in a metal oxide M2O3, 60% by
mass is metal, equivalent mass of (3) a alkadienedione
M is---g.equivalent-1
(4) alkadienetrione
(1) 36 (2) 12
5. When 1,3-butadiene is treated with
(3) 18 (4) 24 two moles of HBr, the least
probable product is
2. A sample of CaCO3 is 90% pure.
What mass of this sample has to be (1) 1,3-dibromobutane
treated with excess dilute sulphuric
acid to produce 100L of CO2 at (2) 2,3-dibromobutane
STP? (3) 1,4-dibromobutane
(1) 366.7g (2) 512.3g (4) 1,2-dibromobutane
(3) 489.5g (4) 613.7g 6. What is the general formula of a
3. In the open structures of glucose alkadienynoic acid?
and fructose molecules there are (1) CnH2n-6O2 (2) CnH2n-8O2
respectively --- and --- optically
active carbon centers. (3) CnH2n-10O2 (4) CnH2n-4O2
ଵ
(1) 4; 3 (2) 3; 3 7. A plot of PV Vs ் for a given amount
(3) 4; 5 (4) 3; 4 of gas will be

(1)

(2)

4. To a solution of acetic acid calcium

chloride solution was added; the
precipitate was strongly heated to
get compound A. Further A
undergoes condensation
trimerization when heated with dry
HCl to give a compound called
phorone; it is

(1) an alkanedione

NEET MODEL 6
 129

(3) of ammonium carbonate for group

V?

(1) there is no problem in using

sodium carbonate

(2) sodium carbonate does not

cause the precipitation of
carbonates of the fifth group.

(4) (3) sodium carbonate is too costly

(4) sodium carbonate causes the

precipitation of Mg2+, which is
not a V group cation

12. I n Gauche conformation of butane,

the dihedral angle between the two
terminal methyl groups is

(1) 300 (2) 600

8. As per Pauling’s scale, which is the
correct order of electronegativity (3) 1200 (4) 1800
values?
13. Density of AgCl is 5.56g.cm-3.10%
(1) Cl > O > N > S > C mol of silver ions were displaced by
cadmium ions from the crystal
(2) O > Cl = N > S > C lattice . What is the new density of
the crystal?(atomic masses Ag =
(3) O > Cl =N > C > S
108; Cd= 112.4; Cl = 35.5)
(4) O > Cl = N > S =C
(1) 5.12g.cm-3(2)
9. If a sample has 0.2 mol each, O2, 5.36g. cm-3
O2+, O22+, O2- and O22-, then total
(3) 7.42g.cm-3 (4) 5.58g. cm-3
number of unpaired electrons in
the sample is 14. Propene is heated with water gas
mixture under high pressure in the
(1) 6.0 x 1025 (2) 4.8 x 1023
presence of [Co(CO)4]2. The product
(3) 7.2 x 1023 (4) 8.4 x 1023 is

10. For a spontaneous process entropy (1) a primary alcohol

change within the system was
(2) a secondary alcohol
+340J and entropy change in the
surroundings was -280J, at 300K. (3) an aldehyde
The free energy change of the
system is (4) a ketone

(1) -24kJ (2) -18kJ 15. Molality of a NaOH solution is 5. Its

density is 1.2g.cm-3. Its molality is
(3) +32kJ (4) +16kJ
(1) 3.8 (2) 5.0
11. In cation analysis(qualitative), what
if sodium carbonate is used instead (3) 6.3 (4) 4.1

NEET MODEL 6
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16. An organic compound has one thiol (1) nitrate; 500ppm

group and two amino groups. If
percent mass of Sulphur in the (2) sulphate; 50ppm
compound is 20, the percent mass (3) nitrate; 50ppm
of nitrogen will be
(4) sulphate; 500pm
(1) 15.5% (2) 17.5%
22. Which statement about Rutherford
(3) 14.4% (4) 18.8% model is incorrect?
17. The monomer of the polymer, (1) it could not explain
acrylite is quantization of energy levels
(1) methyl acrylate (2) it could not account for
(2) ethyl methacrylate stabilities of atoms

(3) ethyl ethacrylate (3) it could not explain how

electrons can withstand
(4) methyl methacrylate nuclear attraction

18. 1,2-epoxy-2-methylpropane was (4) it explains electrical neutrality

treated with isopropyl magnesium of atoms.
bromide and the product was
hydrolysed. The main product at 23. The production of which polymer
the final stage is involves Lederer-Manasse reaction
in the first stage?
(1) 2,4-dimethylpentan-1-ol
(1) melamine (2) nylon-6,6
(2) 5-methylhexan-2-ol
(3) bakelite (4) nylon-6,10
(3) 2,3-epoxy-5-methylhexane
24. benzene diazonium chloride
(4) 3-ethyl-2,3-epoxypentane solution was mildly heated with
NaOH solution. The product is
19. Halothane a polyhaloalkane does
not have ---- in it (1) benzene

(1) fluorine (2) chlorine (2) phenol

(3) bromine (4) iodine (3) sodium phenoxide

20. In diborane molecule the inner H- (4) biphenyl

B-H bond angle is ---than outer H-
B-H bond angle and bridging B-H 25. Density of a 1.2M aqueous urea
bond length is ---than terminal B- solution is 1.8g.cm-3. Mole fraction
H bond length. of urea is

(1) more; more (2) more; less (1) 0.012 (2) 0.08

(3) less; more (4) less; less (3) 0.0005 (4) 0.1

21. Blue baby syndrome is caused by 26. Copper sulphate solution was
excessive presence of ---- ion in electrolyzed using copper
body, whose toleration limit is-----. electrodes of same mass. If 10F of
electricity was passed, what is the

NEET MODEL 6
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mass difference between the

electrodes at the end of the III. Seldane (3) antifertility
process? drug

(1) 635g (2) 317.5g

IV. Serotonin (4) cancer
(3) 1270g (4) 6350g treatment

27. Cubic unit cells have which all

V. Novestrol E. antihistamine
modifications?

i. simple cubic (1) A(D); B(A); C(E); D(C); E(B)

ii. bodycentered cubic (2) A(D); B(A); C(E); D(B); E(C)
iii. face centered cubic (3) A(A); B(E); C(C); D(B); E(D)
iv. end centered cubic (4) A(C); B(A); C(B); D(E); E(D)
(1) i, ii, iii and iv 30. Ortho chloro toluene is treated with
NaNH2 /NH3(l). Then the product(s)
(2) i, iii, iv
is/are
(3) i, ii, iv
(1) orthotoluidine
(4) i, ii, iii
(2) ortho and para toluidines
28. The correct order of basic character
(3) otho and meta toluidines
for the following amines
(4) paratoluidines
I . CH3NH2
31. Which of the following pair cannot
II. (CH3)2NH
disproportionate(with respect to
III. (CH3)3N the underlined element)?

IV. (CH3CH2)2NH (1) H2S, PH3

(1) III > IV > II > I (2) SO3, SCl4

(2) IV > II > I > III (3) HNO2, H3PO4

(3) IV > III > I > II (4) HClO3, Cl2

(4) IV > II > III > I 32. Which is the correct matching?

29. Make the correct matching for the

(1) Jam I. sol
following set:

(2) pumice stone II. solid sol

I. Dysidazirine (1) antidepressant

(3) enamel paint III. solid form

II. Nardil (2) tranquilizer

NEET MODEL 6
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37. About 3d series of d-block element

(4) cloud IV. aerosol of a halides which statements are
liquid incorrect?

I. only chromium forms CrF6

E. gems V. gel
II. copper forms Cu2X2
(1) A(I); B(III); C(V); D(IV); E(II) ( X= F, Cl Br, I)

(2) A(V); B(III); C(I); D(IV); E(II) III. FeI3 is unstable

(3) A(III); B(V); C(I); D(IV); E(II) IV. manganese forms MnF5

(4) A(V); B(III); C(I); D(II); E(IV) V. All FeX2(X = F, Cl, Br, I) are
stable
33. XeO2F2 has ---- hybridization and -
---- shape. (1) I, III, V (2) II, IV

(1) dsp2; square planar (3) III, IV (4) I, IV, V

(2) sp3; tetrahedral 38. EDTA is a hexa dentate ligand; this

ligation comes,
(3) sp3d; see saw
(1) four from O atoms; two from N
(4) dsp3; square pyramidal atoms
34. The first two densest metals are (2) all the six from O atom
(1) osmium, platinum (3) four from N atoms; two from O
atoms
(2) osmium, iridium
(4) three from O atms ; three from
(3) iridium, platinum
N atoms
(4) osmium, mercury
39. Half life of a second order reaction
35. The shell with n= 6, is expected is 40 minutes, when started with 2
contain maximum of ---- electrons molar of reactants; , then what
would be the half life if started with
(1) 50 (2) 72 one molar of the same reactant?

(3) 84 (4) 96 (1) 40 minutes (2) 20 minutes

36. Which statement about Nylon-6 is (3) 10minutes (4) 80minutes.

incorrect?
40. Covalent hydrides belong to the
(1) it is a condensation solid type,
homopolymer
(1) ionic solids
(2) caprolactam is used in its
manufacture (2) covalent solids

(3) it is an polyester (3) metallic solids

(4) Its raw material can be (4) molecular solids

cyclohexane

NEET MODEL 6
 133

41. ortho hydroxybenzaldehyde is 46. Two Positive charges q1 and q 2 are

treated with alkaline hydrogen
peroxide. The product is
(1) salicylic acid (2) benzaldehyde
(3) bezene-1,2-diol
moving with velocities v1 and v1
when they are at points A and B,
respectively, as shown in figure.
The magnetic force experienced by
charge q1 due to other charge q 2 is

(4)
O
O

42. If same current is passed though

µ0q1q 2υ1υ2 µ0q1q 2υ1υ2
solutions of AgNO3. CuSO4 and (1) (2)
molten AlCl3 for same time period, 8 2πa 2 4 2πa 2
number of gram atoms of Ag, Cu µ0q1q 2υ1υ2 µ0q1q 2υ1υ2
and Al deposited will be (3) (4)
2 2πa 2 2πa 2
(1) 1:1:1 (2) 1:2:3
47. In an A.C. sub–circuit (See in
(3) 3: 2: 1 (4) none of these figure),the resistance R = 0.2Ω . At
a certain instant VA − VB = 0.5V ,
43. Making use of the ionization energy ∆L
for ten moles Li2+ ions, how many I = 0.5A, = 8A /s . The
∆t
moles He+ can be ionized?
inductance of the coil is :
(1) 12.5 (2) 18.5

(3) 22.5 (4) 28.5

44. Among s-block elements, down the (1) 0.01 H (2) 0.02 H
group densities regularly increase,
except for (3) 0.5 H (4) 0.5 H

(1) sodium (2) potassium 48. A satellite of mass ms revolving in

a circular orbit of radius rs round
(3) rubidium (4) cesium the earth of mass M has a total
45. Which of the following statement is energy E. Then its angular
incorrect? momentum will be :

(1) copper can be extracted from (1) ( 2Em r )

2 1/2
s s (2) ( 2Ems rs )
azurite
(3) ( 2Ems rs2 ) (4) ( 2Ems rs )
1/2

(2) anglesite is an ore of tin

(3) gravity separation is applied for
iron ores
(4) slag in most cases are lighter
than the molten metals.
49. Three identical stars, each of mass
M, form an equilateral triangle
(stars are positioned at the corners)
that rotates around the centre of
the triangle. The system is isolated

NEET MODEL 6
 134

and edge length of the triangle is L. 52. Container is accelerating by an

The amount of work done, that is acceleration a as shown. Density of
required to dismantle the system is liquid ρ , density of sphere d, ρ > d ,
a spherical object is held by string,
GM2 3GM2 radius of sphere is r.
(1) (2)
2L 2L

3GM2 3GM2
(3) (4)
4L L

50. A satellite can be in a geostationary

orbit around earth at a distance r
4 
from the centre. If the angular (1) Net force on sphere= d  πr 3  a
velocity of earth about its axis  3 
doubles, satellite can now be in a
(2) Tension in string
geostationary orbit around earth if
4
its distance from the centre is : T = ( ρ − d ) πr 3 ( g + a )
3
r r
(1) (2) (3) Force due to gravity on
( 4)
1/3
2 2
4
sphere= d × πr 3g
r r 3
(3) (4)
( 2)
1/3
2
(4) (1), (2) and (3) are correct

51. A liquid is filled upto height h in a
vessel, as shown. Find the incorrect
option.
53. Two men P and Q are standing at
corners A and B of square ABCD of
side 8m. They start moving along
the track with constant speed
2 m /s respectively. Find the time
when they will meet for the first
time :

(1) If α = β horizontal component

of forces on left and right side of
inclined faces will be equal and
opposite.

(2) If α ≠ β horizontal component of

forces on left and right side of
inclined faces will be equal and (1) 2s (2) 3s
opposite.
(3) 1s (4) 6s
(3) If A is the area of the base of the
vessel, then force exerted by 54. A cylinder of mass M and radius R
liquid on walls of the vessel is is resting on two corner edges A and
greater than ( Patm + ρgh ) A . B as shown in the following figure.
The normal reaction at the edges A
(4) As above, the force exerted by and B are : (Neglect friction)
liquid on walls is equal to
( Patm + ρgh) A .

NEET MODEL 6
 135

57. If the radius of Bohr’s second orbit

of hydrogen atom is α , then the
radius of the fourth Bohr’s orbit in
hydrogen like species ( Z = 3 ) is :

4α α
(1) (2)
3 4
(1) NA = 2NB (2) NB = 3NA 16α α
(3) (4)
3 3
Mg 2 3Mg
(3) NA = (4) NB =
4 5 58. A string of length ‘L’ is fixed at both
ends. It is vibrating in its 3rd
55. A thin rod of length 4ℓ , mass 4m overtone with maximum amplitude
is bent at the points as shown in α . The amplitude at a distance L/3
the following Fig. What is the from one end is:
moment of inertia of the rod about
the axis passing point O and (1) α (2) 0
perpendicular to the plane of the
paper. 3α α
(3) (4)
2 2

59. A 40cm long wire having a mass

3.2g and area of cross- section
1mm2 is stretched between two
supports 40.05cm apart. In its
fundamental mode, it vibrates with
mℓ2 10mℓ 2 a frequency 1000/64 Hz. If the
(1) (2)
3 3 Young’s modulus of the wire is
x × 108 Nm2 , then the value of x is
mℓ2 mℓ2
(3) (4)
12 24 (1) 1 (2) 2

56. Consider a YDSE that has (3) 3 (4) 4

different slits width, as a result,
60. A concave mirror having the focal
amplitudes of waves from two slits
are A and 2A, respectively. If Io be length 15cm forms an image having
twice of the linear dimensions of
the maximum intensity of the
the object .If the image is virtual,
interference pattern, then intensity
then the position of the object will
of the pattern at a point where
be
phase difference between waves is
φ , is : (1) 7.5cm (2) 22.5cm

IO φ (3) 40cm (4) 30cm

(1) IO cos 2 φ (2) sin2
3 2
61. Two material having the dielectric
IO constants K1 and K 2 are filled
(3) [5 + 4cos φ]
9 between two parallel plates of a
capacitor, where area of each plate
IO
(4) [5 + 8 cos φ] is A and the distance between the
9 plates is d.

NEET MODEL 6
 136

3E
(1) − (2) −E
2

E
The capacity of the capacitor is (3) − (4) −2E
2
Aε0 ( K1 × K 2 ) Aε0 ( K1 − K 2 ) 66. Which of the following pairs does
(1) (2)
d ( K1 + K 2 ) d not have similar dimensions?

Aε0K1 × K 2 Aε0 ( K1 + K 2 ) (1) Tension and surface tension

(3) (4)
( K1 + K2 ) 2d (2) Stress and pressure

62. A closely wound flat circular coil of (3) Planck’s constant and angular
25 turns of wire has diameter of momentum
10cm which carries current of 4A,
then flux density at the centre of a (4) Angle and strain
coil will be
67. The current gain of a transistor
(1) 1.256 × 10 −3 T working in common base amplifier
is 0.96. If the emitter current is
(2) 1.679 × 10 −5 T 7.2mA, the base current will be

(3) 1.512 × 10−5 T (1) 0.42mA (2) 0.49mA

(4) 2.28 × 10−4 T (3) 0.29mA (4) 0.35mA

63. Four lenses having the focal length 68. In an atom bomb, the energy is
of +15cm, 20cm, +15cm and released due to
+250cm respectively are provided
(1) Chain reaction by neutrons in
to make an astronomical telescope. 238
92 U
The focal length of the eyepiece to
produce the largest magnification (2) Chain reaction by neutrons in
should be 235
92 U

(1) +250cm (2) +155cm

(3) Chain reaction by neutrons in
236
(3) 25cm (4) +15cm 92 U

64. When radioactive substance emits (4) Chain reaction by neutrons in

an α − particle, the its position in 92 U
240

the periodic table is lowered by

69. A metal ball of mass 2kg moving
(1) two places (2) three places with speed of 36km/h has a
collision with a stationary ball of
(3) five places (4) one place
mass 3kg. If after collision, both the
65. The point charge Q and −2Q are ball moves together, the loss in
placed at some distance apart. If kinetic energy due to collisions is
the electric field at the location of Q
(1) 80J (2) 40J
is E, then electric field at the
locations of −2Q will be (3) 60J (4) 160J

NEET MODEL 6
 137

70. The length and breadth of a metal
sheet are 3.124m and 3.002m.
respectively, the area of this sheet
up to four correct significant figure
is
acceleration a 2 .If they travel equal
distance is 5s, after the start of A,
the ratio a1 : a 2 will be equal to
(1) 9:5 (2) 5:7

(1) 9.378m2 (2) 9.37m2 (3) 5:9 (4) 7:9

(3) 9.378248m2 (4) 9.3782m2 76. In a sinusoidal wave the time

required for a particular point to
71. The tension in piano wire is 10N. move form equilibrium position to
The tension in piano wire to maximum displacement is 0.17s,
produce a note of double frequency then the frequency of wave is
is
(1) 1.47Hz (2) 0.36Hz
(1) 20N (2) 40N
(3) 2.94Hz (4) 2.48Hz
(3) 10N (4) 120N
77. One mole of a mono atomic ideal
72. A sings with a frequency n and B gas is mixed with one mole of
sings with a frequency 1/8 that of diatomic ideal gas. The molar
A. If the energy remains the same specific heat of the mixture at
and the amplitude of A is a, then constant volume is
amplitude of B will be
3
(1) 2a (2) 8a (1) 8R (2) R
2
(3) 4a (4) a (3) 2R (4) 2.5R
73. The velocity of a bullet is reduced 78. The coefficient of thermal
from 200m/s to 100m/s , while conductivity of copper, mercury
travelling through a wooden block and glass are respectively
of thickness 10cm. Assuming it to Kc ,K m ,K g such that K c > K m > K g .If
be uniform, then retardation will be
the same quantity of heat is to flow
(1) 15 × 104 m /s 2 (2) 10 × 104 m /s 2 per second per unit area of each
and corresponding temperature
(3) 12 × 104 m /s2 (4) 14.5m /s2 gradients are Xc , Xm , and X g , then

74. In an adiabatic change, the (1) Xc = Xm = Xg

pressure and temperature of a
mono atomic gas are related as (2) Xc > Xm > Xg
P ∝ TC , where C is equal to
(3) Xc < Xm < Xg
5 5
(1) (2)
4 3 (4) Xm < Xc < Xg
5 3
(3) (4) 79. The amplitude of a particle
2 5 executing SHM is 4cm. At the mean
75. A body A starts from rest with an position the speed of the particle is
acceleration a1 . After 2s another 16cm /s . The distance of the
body B starts from rest with an particle from the mean position at

NEET MODEL 6
 138

which the speed of the particle 1 1

(3) (4)
becomes 8 3cm /s will be ρ ρ

(1) 2 3cm (2) 3cm 83. A helium nucleus makes a full

rotation in circle of radius 0.8
(3) 1cm (4) 2cm metre in two seconds. The value of
the magnetic field B at the centre of
80. Between the plates of a parallel
the circle will be
plate condenser a plate of thickness
t1 and dielectric constant k1 is 10−19
(1) (2) 10 −19 µ0
placed . In the rest of the space, µ0
there is another plate of thickness
t 2 and dielectric constant k 2 .The 2 × 10−10
(3) 2 × 10−10 µ0 (4)
potential difference across the µ0
condenser will be
84. Five very long, straight wires are
Q  t1 t 2  bound together to form a small
(1)  + 
Aε0  k1 k 2  cable . Currents carried by the
wires are I1 = 20A, I2 = −6A,
ε0O  t1 t2  I3 = 12A, I4 = −7A, I5 = 18A. The
(2)  + 
A  k1 k 2  magnetic induction at a distance of
10cm from the cable is
Q  k1 k 2 
(3)  +  (1) 34µT (2) 74mT
Aε0  t1 t 2 
(3) 34mT (4) 74µT
εQ
(4) 0 ( k1t1 + k 2t2 )
A 85. Two solid rubber balls A and B
having masses 200g and 400g
81. The specific resistance of a wire is respectively are moving in opposite
ρ , its volume is 3m3 and its directions with velocity of A equal to
resistance is 3ohms, then its length 0.3m/s. After collision the two balls
will be come to rest, then the velocity of B
is
1 3
(1) (2)
ρ ρ (1) 0.15m/s (2) 1.5m/s

(3) −0.15m/s
1 1
(3) 3 (4) ρ
ρ 3 (4) None of the above

82. According to Joule’s law, if the 86. In making an alloy, a substance of

potential difference across a specific gravity s1 and mass m1 is
conductor having a material of mixed with another substance of
specific resistance remains specific gravity s2 and mass m2
constant, then the heat produced then the specific gravity of the alloy
in the conductor is directly is
proportional to
 m + m2   s1s2 
(1) ρ (2) ρ2 (1)  1  (2)  
 s1 + s 2   m1 + m2 

NEET MODEL 6
 139

 m1 m2  (1) 4% (2) 8%
 + 
m1 + m2  s1 s2 
(3) 16%
(3) (4)
 m1 m2  m1 + m2
 +  (4) None of the above
 s1 s2 
91. Upward movement of water in
87. The real coefficient of volume
plants is called
expansion of glycerine is
−1
0.000597°C and liner coefficient (1) Sucking
of expansion of glass is
−1
0.000009°C . Then the apparent (2) Ascent of sap
volume coefficient of expansion of
(3) Translocation
glycerine is .
(4) None of these
(1) 0.000558°C −1
92. Hormone working antagonistic to
(2) 0.00057°C −1 ABA is
(3) 0.00027°C −1 (1) Gibberellins
(4) 0.00066°C −1 (2) Cytokinin
88. The rms velocity of a gas at a (3) Ethylene
certain temperature is 2 times
than that of the oxygen molecules (4) All of these
at that temperature. The gas can be 93. If the number of chromosome in
(1) H2 (2) He root cell is 14, then what will be the
chromosome number in synergids?
(3) CH4 (4) SO4
(1) 14 (2) 21
89. The specific heat of hydrogen gas at (3) 7 (4) 28
constant pressure is
C = 3.4 × 10 cal / kg °C
3
and at 94. Adventives polyembryoni occurs in
constant volume is
(1) Poa (2) Brassica
C1 = 2.4 × 10 cal / kg °C.
3
If one
kilogram hydrogen gas is heated for (3) Allium (3) Citrus
10°C to 20°C at constant pressure,
the external work done on the gas 95. Lichens are good indications of
maintain it at constant pressure is _____pollution.

(1) CO2 (2) O3

(1) 105 cal (2) 104 cal
(3) CFC (4) SO2
(3) 103 cal (4) 5 × 103 cal
96. Main cause behind destruction of
90. A thin copper wire of length/metre
biodiversity is
increases in length by 2% when
heated through 10°C .What is the (1) Deforestation
percentage increase in area when a
square copper sheet of (2) Illegal hunting
length/metre is heated through
(3) Air pollution
10°C ?

NEET MODEL 6
 140

(4) Interspecific competition (2) Rhodospirillum

97. Which of the following cannot be (3) Azotobacter

recycled in an ecosystem?
(4) Bacillus subtilis
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen
103. Which of the following
(3) Energy (4) Water chromosomal constitution refers to
jacob’s syndrome in human?
98. Energy flow in ecosystem is
(1) 44 + XO (2) 44 + XXY
(1) Unidirectional
(3) 44 + XYY (4) 45 +XYY
(2) Bidirectional
104. Polytene chromosomes were
(3) Multidirectional discovered in
(4) Stable (1) Chironomous
99. Which of the following relations is (2) Drosophila
correct regarding GPP and NPP of
an ecosystem? (3) Neurospora

(1) NPP = GPP – Animal (4) Rattus

consumption
105. Z – DNA and B – DNA differ in
(2) NPP = GPP + Plant respiration
(1) Constitution of bases
(3) NPP = GPP – Plant respiration
(2) Conformation
(4) NPP = GPP + Animal
consumption (3) Number of helix

100. Which of the following enzymes is a (4) Base pairing

RNA dependent DNA polymerase 106. Insertion or deletion of a single
enzyme? base cause
(1) DNA Polymerase (1) Inversion mutation
(2) RNA polymerase (2) Transition mutation
(3) Reverse transcriptase (3) Frame – shift mutation
(4) Taq polymerase (4) Transversion mutation
101. Ecosystem having highest primary 107. Transposons were discovered by
productivity is
(1) Jacobson
(1) Ocean (2) Pond
(2) Fleming
(3) Desert (4) Forest
(3) Mc Clintock
102. Which of the following is a free –
living obligate anaerobic bacteria? (4) Sharp and Roberts

(1) Clostridium 108. Polypeptide synthesis in

prokaryotes is initiated by

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(1) AUG (2) GUU 115. Which of the following pigments is

water soluble?
(3) UGA (4) VUG
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Xanthophyll
109. Photosynthetic roots are found in
(2) Phycobilin (4) Carotenoids
(1) Mirabilis (2) Trapa
116. Excitation of chlorophyll due to
(3) Vanda (4) Ficus light is a
110. Albinism is due to deficiency of (1) Photooxidation reaction
(1) Tryosinase (2) Endergonic reaction
(2) Amylase (3) Thermochemical reaction
(3) Acetyl cholinesterase (4) Photochemical reaction
(4) Carbonic anhydrase 117. During movement of electron
111. UV radiations cause through ETC

(1) Formation of thymine dimmers (1) pH of matrix increases

(2) Deletion of base pairs (2) Electrons are transported by

active transport
(3) Methylation of bases
(3) Electrons are resonated
(4) Addition of base pairs
(4) Electrons how fluorescence
112. Paramoecium exhibits cytoplasmic
inheritance through 118. Biological clock in plants is
controlled by
(1) Chromosome
(1) Phytochrome
(2) Nuclear gene
(2) Cryptochrome
(3) Kappa particles
(3) Both a and b
(4) DNA
(4) Gibberellin
113. In orange which part is edible?
119. Sporopollenin is formed by
(1) Mesocarp (2) Endocarp polymerization of

(3) Aril (4) Placental hairs (1) Fat and phenols

114. For a plasmolysed cell which (2) Carotenoids and fat

equation is correct?
(3) Fat and esters
(1) DPD = OP + TP
(4) Carotenoids and esters
(2) DPD = - TP
120. Photosynthetically active radiation
(3) DPD = OP (PAR) represents which of the
following range of wavelength?
(4) DPD = OP - TP
(1) 500 – 600 nm

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(2) 450 – 950 nm 127. Due to which of the following

organisms, yield of rice is
(3) 340 – 450 nm increased?
(4) 400 – 700 nm (1) Sesbania

121. Which of the following shows (2) Bacillus popilliae

aplanetism?
(3) Anabaena
(1) Ulothrix
(4) Bacillus subtilis
(2) Spirogyra
128. The long plants are capable of
(3) Saprolegina standing erect due to presence of

(4) Chlamydomonas (1) Sclerenchyma

122. Which of the following carbon is (2) collenchymas

anomeric in glucose? (3) Parenchyma
(1) C1 (2) C2 (4) Prosenchyma
(2) C4 (4) None of these 129. The term synaptonemal complex
refers to site of
123. The cofactor of nitrate reductase is
(1) Chromatid separation
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(2) Spindle attachment
(3) Ca (4) Mo
(3) Replication
124. The highest amount of carbon
dioxide is evolved from (4) Chromosome alignment and
recombination
(1) Oceans (2) River
130. The substrate for pentose –
(3) Forest (4) Ponds phosphate pathway is

125. In biotechnical processes cDNA is (1) Glucose – 6 – phosphate

prepared from
(2) Glucose – 1 – phosphate
(1) B – DNA (2) hnRNA
(3) Fructose – 6 – phosphate
(3) Z – DNA (4) mRNA (4) Fructose – 1 – phosphate
126. All the following are included under 131. Which of the following is the most
in situ conservation except? abundant type of antibody?
(1) National park (1) IgA *2) IgG
(2) Sanctuary (3) IgE (4) IgD

(3) Botanical garden 132. Which of the following is

pseudocoelomate?
(4) Biosphere reserve
(1) Roundworm (2) Flatworm

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(3) Tapeworm (4) Hydatid worm (1) Rat (2) Squirrel

133. Which of the following is a (3) Porcupine (4) rabbit

coelenterate?
139. The disease due to which maximum
(1) Balanoglossus death in children occur is

(2) Physalia (1) Diphtheria

(3) Sycon (2) Whooping cough

(4) Branchiostoma (3) Tuberculosis

134. The human vertebrae is (4) Measles

(1) Amphicoelus 140. Presence of tail in a human baby is

an example of
(2) Acoelus
(1) Vestigial organ
(3) Proceolous
(2) adaptive radiation
(4) Heterocoelous
(3) Natural selection
135. Human kidney is
(4) atavism
(1) Metanephric
141. Which of the following is not used
(2) Meronephric for the treatment of cancer?
(3) Protonephric (1) I131 (2) Co60
(4) Archinephric (3) Taxol (4) Streptokinase
136. In which segment in earthworm is 142. ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their
the ovary present? arteries preserved due to the
(1) 13th segment presence of

(2) 14th segment (1) Yellow elastic connective tissue

fibers
(3) 15th segment
(2) White fibrous connective tissue
(4) 16th segment fibers

137. Peripatus is a connecting link (3) Cartilage

between
(4) Valves
(1) Arthropoda and mollusca
143. Which one of the following vitamins
(2) Aves and reptilla is manufactured in human liver?

(3) Annelid and arthropoda (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D

(4) Aves and mammalia (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin K

138. Which of the following four animals 144. During absorption of

does not come under the same carbohydrates in the blood the
order as the other three?

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most rapidly transported (2) Darwin (4) MacDougall

monosaccharide is
152. Mouth develops first in the embryo
(1) Glucose (2) Galactose and anus is formed later in

(3) Fructose (4) Sucrose (1) Deuterostomes

145. Vital capacity is (2) Protostomes

(1) TV + IRV (2) TV + ERV (3) Echinoderms

(3) RV + ERV (4) TV + IRV + ERV (4) Chordates

146. Increase in body temperature 153. Laurer’s canal is found in

makes oxygen haemoglobin
dissociation curve (1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris

(1) Shift to left (2) Shift to right (3) Sea anemone (4) Sea horse

(3) Hyperbolic (4) Parabolic 154. Species inhabiting the same

geographical area are known as
147. Duration of cardiac cycle is
(1) Allopatric species
(1) 0.6 s (2) 0.6 min
(2) Synchronic species
(3) 0.8 s (4) 08. min
(3) Allochronic species
148. The other term for heart attack is
(4) Sympatric species
(1) Coronary thrombosis
155. ‘Origin of species’ by Darwin was
(2) Myocardial infarction published in

(3) Cardiac arrest (1) 1849 (2) 1859

(4) Ischemia (3) 1869 (4) 1879

149. Human vertebral column consist of 156. Coenozoic era is the

33 vertebrae and______ bones
(1) Age of mammals
(1) 33 (2) 26
(2) Age of reptiles
(2) 27 (4) 29
(3) Age of amphibians
150. Brunner’s glands are found in
(4) Age of fishes
(1) Mucosa of duodenum
157. Which of the following is not a reflex
(2) Mucosa of ileum action?

(3) Submucosa of duodenum (1) Blinking of eyes

(4) Submucosa of ileum (2) Salivation

151. Recapitulation theory was given by (3) Sweating

(1) Dollo (2) Haeckel (4) Withdrawal of hand on touching

some hot object

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158. Blood – brain barrier is formed by (2) Phenylalanine and methionine

(1) Microglial cells (3) Isoleucine and leucine

(2) Astrocytes (4) Valine and glutamic acid

(3) Oligodendrocytes 164. Which of the following is the correct

sequence of units of genetics
(4) Ependymal cells arranged in descending order of
159. Which of the following causes size?
parasitic castration of crab? (1) Gene → ‫→ ݊݋ݐݑܯ → ݊݋ݎݐݏ݅ܥ‬
(1) Sacculina (2) Adamsia ܴ݁ܿ‫݊݋‬

(3) Spongilla (4) None of these (2) Gene → ‫→ ݊݋ݎݐݏ݅ܥ → ݊݋ݐݑܯ‬

ܴ݁ܿ‫݊݋‬
160. Triticale is developed through
intergeneric hybridization of (3) Gene → ܴ݁ܿ‫→ ݊݋ݎݐݏ݅ܥ → ݊݋‬
‫݊݋ݐݑܯ‬
(1) Wheat and rye
(4) Gene → ‫→ ݊݋ܴܿ݁ → ݊݋ݎݐݏ݅ܥ‬
(2) Maize and rice ‫݊݋ݐݑܯ‬

(3) Wheat and rice 165. The gene for diabetes mellitus is

(4) Wheat and barley (1) Autosomal dominant

161. Sports persons are frequently (2) Autosomal recessive

accused of abusing the drug known
as (3) Sex – linked dominant

(1) Morphine (4) Sex linked recessive

(2) Cocaine 166. Which of the following is excluded

in Whittaker’s five kingdom system
(3) Heroin of classification?

(4) Amphetamine (1) Viruses (2) Algae

162. The pioneer contributor towards (3) Fungi (4) Bacteria

the use of human DNA
fingerprinting in forensic science in 167. The smallest organisms which are
India is self reproducing in free living state
are known as
(1) Lalji (2) H. Khorana
(1) Bacteria (2) Viruses
(3) Swaminathan
(3) PPLO (4) Prions
(4) J.C. Bose
168. In Cycas dehiscence of
163. Dr. Hargobind Khorana deduced microsporangium occurs when
the code for which of the following pollen grains are at
amino acids?
(1) 3 celled stage
(1) Serine and leucine
(2) 4 celled stage

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(3) 2 celled stage (1) Blocking the acetylcholine

receptor sites
(4) 1 celled stage
(2) Inhibiting the release of
169. During cellulose fermentation by acetylcholine
anaerobic bacteria in rumen and
reticulum, cellulose is majorly (3) Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
converted into
(4) Enhancing the release of
(1) Lactic acid acetylcholine

(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Volatile fatty acid
(4) CO2
170. The prokaryotic enzymes with 5’ →
3′ exonuclease property is/are
175. The heart beat increases at the time
of interview due to
(1) Secretion of adrenaline
(2) Corticotrophic hormone
(3) Hypersecretion of rennin

(1) DNA Polymerase I (4) Autidiurectic hormone secretion

(2) DNA Polymerase II 176. Which extraembryonic membrane

in humans prevents desiccation of
(3) DNA Polymerase III the embryo inside the uterus?
(4) Both a and c (1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion
171. An organism with non – cellulosic (3) Chorion (4) Allantois
cell wall and autotrophic nutrition
will be included in which of the 177. The hereditary disease in which the
following kingdoms? urine of a person turns black on
exposure to air due to the presence
(1) Protista (2) Monera of homogentisic acid is known as
(3) Fungi (4) Animalia (1) Ketonuria
172. Ommatidia serve the purpose of (2) Phenylketonuria
photoreception in
(3) Haematuria
(1) Cockroach (2) Frog
(4) Alkaptonuria
(2) Humans (4) Sunflower
178. Saline solution is given to patient of
173. The thickening of walls of arteries cholera because?
is called
(1) Na+ prevents water loss from
(1) Arteriosclerosis body
(2) Arthritis (2) NaCl function as regulatory
(3) Aneurysm material

(4) Both b and c (3) NaCl produces energy

174. Nerve gas affects neuromuscular (4) NaCl is antibacterial

activity by

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179. What is the scientific name of

pinworm of man?

(1) Trichinella spiralis

(2) Dracunculus medinensis

(3) Trichuris trichuria

(4) Enterobius vermicularis

180. Fresh water bony fishes maintain

water balance by

(1) Excerting a hypotonic urine

(2) Drinking small amount of water

(3) Excerting salt across their gills

(4) Excerting wastes in form of uric

acid

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