DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL

SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI

PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE-
Class:-X Subject:- Science
Subject:
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
General Instructions:-
1. The question paper comprises three sections – A, B and C. Attempt all the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Internal choice is given in each section.
4. All questions in Section A are one
one-mark
mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and
assertion-reason
reason type questions. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. All questions in Section B are three-mark,
three short-answer
answer type questions. These are to be answered
in about 50 - 60 words each.
6. All questions in Section C are five-mark,
five long-answer type questions.
These are to be answered in about 80 – 90 words each.
7. This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.

Section-A
1. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles? [1]
2. Give an example of double displacement reaction which is endothermic also. [1]
3. Answer question numbers 3.1-3.43.4 on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts;
Another traditional source of energy was the kinetic energy of flowing water or the potential energy
of water at a height. Hydro- power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into
electricity. Since there are very few waterfalls which could be used as a source of potential energy ,
hydro- power plants are associated with dams. In the last century, a large number of dams were
built all over the world. Hydro--power
power plants meet a quarter (25% ) of our energy requir
requirement in
India.
In order to produce hydroelectricity, high rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow
of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs. But, construction of big dams has certain
problems associated with it. Oppositio
Oppositionn to the construction of Tehri dam on river Ganges and
Sardar Sarovar Project on river Narmada are due to such problems.
3.1 What percentage of our energy requirements is met by hydroelectric power? [1]
3.2 What sort of transformation
formation in ener
energy occurs in hydro electric plant? [1]
3.3 What problems are associated with construction of dams? [1]
3.4 What type of energy is hydro power? [1]
4. Question numbers 4.1-4.44.4 are based on the two tables given below. Study the tables and answer
the questions that follow:
Table-A:
A: Normal Blood Pressure
Systolic Pressure Diastolic Pressure (mm Pressure range
(mm Hg) Hg)
130 85 High Normal blood pressure
120 80 Normal blood pressure
110 75 Low Normal blood pressure
Pg- 1 of 6
 Table-B: Approx Ideal BP according to Age Chart

Age Female Male

10 111/73 112/73
13 117/75 117/76
14 120/75 119/77
15 120/76 120/78
19-24 120/79 120/79
25-29 120/80 121/80
30-35 122/81 123/82
40-45 124/83 125/83
50-55 129/85 128/85
60+ 134/84 135/88
4.1 Refer to the table B showing the blood pressure of male and female. Infer the disease which can
be diagnosed in a boy of 14 years who have same blood pressure as a 60 years old man. [1]
4.2 Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the rise in blood pressure in certain
situations. [1]
4.3 Which of the following trend in blood pressure range is seen with advancement of age from teenage
to old age?
a) Increase b) remains same
c) Decrease d) fluctuates [1]
4.4 Which of the following is incorrect in case of high blood pressure?
a) increased resistance to blood flow b) decreased resistance to blood flow
c ) rupture of an artery d) internal bleeding [1]
5. A battery of 6 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohm, 0.15 ohm, 0.2 ohm, 0.25 ohm and
6 ohm. How much current flows trough resistor of 0.15 ohm- [1]
(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.8 A (d )none of these.
6. Out of three bulbs of 25 W, 60 W and 100 W, which bulb as least resistance- [1]
(a) 25 W bulb (b) 60 W bulb (c) 100 W bulb (d) all bulbs have equal resistance.
7. The given figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. The refractive index
of medium B relative to medium A is- [1]

(a) √3/√2 (b) √2/√3 (c) 1/√2 (d) √2/1

8. An element E has following electronic configuration: [1]
K L M
2 8 6
Valency of E is …………….
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
OR
Position of a lustrous non metal which has 7 electron in its outermost shell
(a) Gr 17, Period 2 (b) Gr 17, Period 3 (c) Gr 17, Period 4 (d) Gr 17, Period 5
Pg- 2 of 6
9. In the reaction
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
(a) Cuo is oxidised , H2 is reduced. (b) H2 is oxidised and CuO is reduced
(c) Cu is oxidised and H2 is reduced (d) H2 is oxidesed and Cu is reduced [1]
10. What do you observe when you add few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing
NaHCO3 ? [1]
(a) H2 gas will evolve with pop sound.
(b) Colourless , odourless O2 gas will evolve.
(c) A brisk effervescence will be noticed due to evolution of CO2 gas.
(d) None of these
11. When calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide it forms calcium carbonate and water. This
is an example of: [1]
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Precipitation reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction
12. A colourless sample was tested with a strip of pH paper. The colour of the strip changed to green.
The sample should be [1]
(a) Tap water (b) Distilled water (c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Lemon Juice
OR
Four drops of red litmus solution were added to each one of the following substance. Which one
turns red litmus solution blue?
(a) Alcohol (b) Distilled water (c) NaOH solution (d) Hydrochloric acid
Directions:-The following questions No. 13. And 14 consist of two statements Assertion ( A ) and
Reason ( R ) .Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below :
( a ) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
( b ) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
( c ) A is true but R is false
( d ) A is false but R is true
( e ) Both A and R are false
13. Assertion: In modern periodic table metallic character of element increases down the group.
Reason: Atomic size of element increases down the group. [1]
14. Assertion- The strength of magnetic field at the centre of circular coil of a wire depends on the
radius of coil.
Reason –The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of coil of a wire depends on the number of
turns of the wire in the coil. [1]
Section-B
15. (i) Give reason for the following:
(a) Plaster of paris should be stored in a moisture proof container.
(b) Acids do not show acidic behaviour in absence of water.
(ii) How do you prepare bleaching powder from slaked lime? [2+1=3]
16. (a) An element ‘M’ has atomic no. 12.
(i) Write its electronic configuration.
(ii) Write its position in periodic table.
Pg- 3 of 6
 (iii) Is it metal or non-metal?
(iv) Write formula of its chloride. [1+2=3]
OR
(a) Write any two limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
(b) The atomic no. of three elements X, Y, and Z are 9, 11 and 17 respectively. Which two of
these elements will show similar chemical properties? Why?
17. (a) List any three disadvantages of building large dams.
(b) Why is it necessary to conserve wild life? [1½+1½=3]
18. (a) How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere?
(b) Why is the damaged if ozone layer a cause of concern to us? State the cause of this damage. [3]

OR
(a) What are biodegradable substances?
(b) Draw a terrestrial food chain of three trophic levels.’ A food chain cannot have more than four
trophic levels.’ Explain why?
19. State the reason why? [3]
a) Bile juice does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion.
b) Cigarette smoking is injurious to health.
c) It is essential to separate oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood in Mammals and Aves.

20. How has the method of artificial selection by humans helped in the evolution of different
vegetables? Explain in brief giving examples. [3]

21. a) Answer the following:

i) Name the endocrine gland associated with brain.
ii) Which endocrine gland secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones?
iii) Which endocrine gland is present in males but not in females?
b) What is the advantage of the fact that most reflex actions are governed by spinal cord? [3]
22. (a) With the help of labelled diagram, describe an activity to illustrate the pattern of the magnetic
fields lines around a straight current carrying long conducting wire.

(b) A uniform wire of resistance 4 ohm is bent in the form of circle of radius ‘r’. A specimen of the
same wire is connected along the diameter of the circle. What is the equivalent resistance across
the ends of this wire? [3]

23. Refractive index of glass relative to water is 1.2 as that of water relative to a medium ‘X’ is 10/11. If
speed of a ray of light in glass is 1.785x 10 m/s, find its speed in the medium ‘X’. [3]

OR

A thin rod of length f/6 is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length f such
that its image which is real and elongated just touches the rod. What is the magnification?

24. (a) What is dispersion of light ? Show the dispersion of white light with the help of diagram. State
the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
Pg- 4 of 6
 (b) Make a diagram to show how hypermetropic eye is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic
eye is 50 cm. What is the power of lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of
the normal human eye is 25 cm. [3]

Section-C

25. A compound X having molecular formula C3H6O2 , reacts with ethyl alcohol in presence of mineral
acid form an ester Y. Y reacts with sodium hydroxide and produce the same alcohol. Identify X and
Y. Write their IUPAC name and give the relevant reactions. [5]

OR
(i) Write IUPAC name of the following : -

(a) H3C – CH- CH2 – C – OH

CH3

(b) H3C – C- CH3

(c) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3

C2H5 C2H5
(ii) Draw electron dot structure of ethanoic acid.
(iii) Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethane and ethene.
26. (a) Define Anodising.
(b) What happens when -
(i) Red hot iron reacts with steam?
(ii) Zinc Oxide reacts with causticsoda?
(c) How will you extract Cu from its sulphide ore? Write its steps clearly. [1+2+2=5]
27. a) Draw a neat diagram of an excretory unit of human kidney and label the following parts:
i) Bowman’s capsule ii) Renal artery
iii) glomerulus iv) collecting duct

b) What is the advantage of these excretory units in human kidneys?

c) List in tabular form the structural and functional difference between alveoli and nephron. [5]

28. i) Draw a neat diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts where following
functions occur?
a) Production of an egg
b) Fertilisation of sperm and ovum
c) Implantation of fertilised egg
ii) What happens to the lining of uterus:
a) before the release of fertilised egg.
b) if no fertilisation occurs.
iii) What is IUCD? Can it prevent STD’s in women? [5]

Pg- 5 of 6
 OR
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth and its entry into the ovule.
ii) Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation
iii) Mention the post fertilisation changes observed in a flower?

29. (a) Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and combination is connected to a battery
of V volt, an ammeter, a voltmeter and a key. Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an
expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination of the resistors.
(b) Draw a schematic diagram of circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 ohm, 8
ohm and 12 ohm resistors with an ammeter and a plug key , all connected in series. Find the current
flowing through the ammeter and potential difference across 5 ohm resistor. [5]
30. (a) State Snell’s law of refraction.
(b) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the light
ray emerges parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a ray diagram to
illustrate it.

(c) The size of an image formed by a mirror having focal length of 20 cm, is observed to be reduced
to 1/3 rd of the size of object. At what distance the object has been placed from the mirror? What is
the nature of the image and the mirror? [5]

OR
(a) What is meant by the power of a lens? What is its SI unit?
(b) A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted
down the position of the candle 12 cm, position of convex lens 50 cm, and position of the screen 88
cm.
(i) What is the focal length the convex lens?
(ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 31 cm?
(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts the candle towards the lens?

************

Pg- 6 of 6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE-
SET-A
Class:-X Subject:- Science
Subject:
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
General Instructions:-
1. The question paper comprises three sections – A, B and C. Attempt all the sections.
2. All questions are
re compulsory.
3. Internal choice is given in each section.
4. All questions in Section A are one
one-mark
mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and
assertion-reason
reason type questions. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. All questions in Section B are three-mark,
three short-answer
answer type questions. These are to be answered
in about 50 - 60 words each.
6. All questions in Section C are five-mark,
five long-answer type questions.
These are to be answered in about 80 – 90 words each.
7. This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.

Section-A
1. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles? [1]
2. Give an example of combination reaction which is exothermic also. [1]
3. Answer question numbers 3.1-3.43.4 on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts;
Another traditional source of energy was the kinetic energy of flowing water or the potential energy
of water at a height. Hydro- power plants convert onvert the potential energy of falling water into
electricity. Since there are very few waterfalls which could be used as a source of potential energy ,
hydro- power plants are associated with dams. In the last century, a large number of dams were
built all over the world. Hydro--power
power plants meet a quarter (25% ) of our energy requirement in
India.
In order to produce hydroelectricity, high rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow
of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs. But, construction of big dams has certain
problems associated with it. Opposition to the constru
construction
ction of Tehri dam on river Ganges and
Sardar Sarovar Project on river Narmada are due to such problems.
3.1 What percentage of our energy requirements is met by hydroelectric power? [1]
3.2 What sort of transformation
formation in energy occurs in hydro
hyd electric plant? [1]
3.3 What problems are associated with construction of dams? [1]
3.4 What type of energy is hydro power? [1]
4. Question numbers 4.1-4.44.4 are based on the two tables given below. Study the tables and answer
the questions that follow:
Table-A:
A: Normal Blood Pressure
Systolic Pressure Diastolic Pressure (mm Pressure range
(mm Hg) Hg)
130 85 High Normal blood pressure
120 80 Normal blood pressure
110 75 Low Normal blood pressure
Pg- 1 of 6
 Table-B: Approx Ideal BP according to Age Chart

Age Female Male

10 111/73 112/73
13 117/75 117/76
14 120/75 119/77
15 120/76 120/78
19-24 120/79 120/79
25-29 120/80 121/80
30-35 122/81 123/82
40-45 124/83 125/83
50-55 129/85 128/85
60+ 134/84 135/88
4.1 Refer to the table B showing the blood pressure of male and female. Infer the disease which can
be diagnosed in a boy of 14 years who have same blood pressure as a 60 years old man. [1]
4.2 Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the rise in blood pressure in certain
situations. [1]
4.3 Which of the following trend in blood pressure range is seen with advancement of age from teenage
to old age?
a) Increase b) remains same
c) Decrease d) fluctuates [1]
4.4 Which of the following is incorrect in case of high blood pressure?
a) increased resistance to blood flow b) decreased resistance to blood flow
c ) rupture of an artery d) internal bleeding [1]
5. A battery of 6 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohm, 0.15 ohm, 0.2 ohm, 0.25 ohm and
6 ohm. How much current flows trough resistor of 0.15 ohm- [1]
(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.8 A (d )none of these.
6. Out of three bulbs of 25 W, 60 W and 100 W, which bulb as least resistance- [1]
(a) 25 W bulb (b) 60 W bulb (c) 100 W bulb (d) all bulbs have equal resistance.
7. The given figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. The refractive index
of medium B relative to medium A is- [1]

(a) √3/√2 (b) √2/√3 (c) 1/√2 (d) √2/1

8. An element E has following electronic configuration: [1]
K L M
2 8 3
Valency of E is …………….
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
OR
Position of a lustrous non metal which has 7 electron in its outermost shell
(a) Gr 17, Period 2 (b) Gr 17, Period 3 (c) Gr 17, Period 4 (d) Gr 17, Period 5
Pg- 2 of 6
9. In the reaction
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
(a) Cuo is oxidised , H2 is reduced. (b) H2 is oxidised and CuO is reduced
(c) Cu is oxidised and H2 is reduced (d) H2 is oxidesed and Cu is reduced [1]
10. What do you observe when you add few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing
NaHCO3 ? [1]
(a) H2 gas will evolve with pop sound.
(b) Colourless , odourless O2 gas will evolve.
(c) A brisk effervescence will be noticed due to evolution of CO2 gas.
(d) None of these
11. When solution of Pb(NO3)2 reacts with colourless KI Solution it forms a yellow ppt. This is an
example of: [1]
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Combination reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction
12. A colourless sample was tested with a strip of pH paper. The colour of the strip changed to green.
The sample should be [1]
(a) Tap water (b) Distilled water (c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Lemon Juice
OR
Four drops of red litmus solution were added to each one of the following substance. Which one
turns red litmus solution blue?
(a) Alcohol (b) Distilled water (c) NaOH solution (d) Hydrochloric acid
Directions:-The following questions No. 13. And 14 consist of two statements Assertion ( A ) and
Reason ( R ) .Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below :
( a ) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
( b ) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
( c ) A is true but R is false
( d ) A is false but R is true
( e ) Both A and R are false
13. Assertion: In modern periodic table metallic character of element increases down the group.
Reason: Atomic size of element increases down the group. [1]
14. Assertion- The strength of magnetic field at the centre of circular coil of a wire depends on the
radius of coil.
Reason –The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of coil of a wire depends on the number of
turns of the wire in the coil. [1]
Section-B
15. (i) Give reason for the following:
(a) Plaster of paris should be stored in a moisture proof container.
(b) Acids do not show acidic behaviour in absence of water.
(ii) How do you prepare bleaching powder from slaked lime? [2+1=3]
16. (a) An element ‘M’ has atomic no. 12.
(i) Write its electronic configuration.
(ii) Write its position in periodic table.
Pg- 3 of 6
 (iii) Is it metal or non-metal?
(iv) Write formula of its chloride. [1+2=3]
OR
(a) Write any two limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
(b) The atomic no. of three elements X, Y, and Z are 9, 11 and 17 respectively. Which two of
these elements will show similar chemical properties? Why? [1+2=3]
17. (a) List any three disadvantages of building large dams.
(b) Why is it necessary to conserve wild life? [1½+1½=3]
18. Mention three limitations of harnessing wind energy? [3]

OR
What are biodegradable substances? Draw a terrestrial food chain of three trophic levels.’ A food
chain cannot have more than four trophic levels.’ Explain why?
19. State the reason why? [3]
a) Trachea is lined by rings of cartilage.
b) Valves are present in heart.
c) Villi are present in the inner walls of ileum.
20. In Human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or a female child is 50:50.
Give a suitable explanation. [3]

21. a) Answer the following:

i) Name the endocrine gland associated with brain.

ii) Which endocrine gland secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones?
iii) Which endocrine gland is present in males but not in females?
b) What is the advantage of the fact that most reflex actions are governed by spinal cord? [3]
22. (a) With the help of labelled diagram, describe an activity to illustrate the pattern of the magnetic
fields lines around a straight current carrying long conducting wire.

(b) A house hold uses refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 hours per day. The cost of consumption of
one unit of electricity is Rs 3.00. Calculate the energy consumed per day and cost of electricity used
per day? [3]

23. (a) What is meant by the term power of accommodation of human eye?
(b) A person is unable to see clearly the objects kept beyond the distance of 1 m. Name the defect of
vision the boy is suffering from. State the two possible cause of this defect of vision. Explain the
method of correcting this defect of vision with the help of a ray diagram. If the far point of a
defective eye is 100 cm then find the power of lens required to correct this defect? [3]

OR
(a) What is the role of ciliary muscle in human eye?
(b) Make a diagram to show how hypermetropic eye is corrected. The near point of a
hypermetropic eye is 50 cm. What is the power of lens required to correct this defect? Assume
that the near point of the normal human eye is 25 cm.

24. (a) What is dispersion of light ? Show the dispersion of white light with the help of diagram. State
the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
Pg- 4 of 6
 (b) How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms, shows that white light is made of seven
colours? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when two identical glass prisms are
arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light
is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the prisms. [3]

Section-C

25. (i) Complete the following reaction:

H+
(a) CH3 COOH + CH3CH2OH
(b) CH3 COOH + NaHCO3
(c) CH4 + Cl2 Sunlight

(ii) Write the mechanism of cleansing action of soap. [3+2=5]

OR
(i) Write IUPAC name of the following : -

(a) H3C – CH- CH2 – C – OH

CH3

(b) H3C – C- CH3

(c) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3

C2H5 C2H5
(ii) Draw electron dot structure of ethanoic acid.
(iii) Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethane and ethene.
26. (a) Define Alloy with example.
(b) What happens when -
(i) Red hot iron reacts with steam?
(ii) Zinc Oxide reacts with causticsoda?
(c) How will you extract Cu from its sulphide ore? Write its steps clearly. [1+2+2=5]
27. a) Draw a neat diagram of an excretory unit of human kidney and label the following parts:
i) Bowman’s capsule ii) Renal artery
iii) glomerulus iv) collecting duct

b) What is the advantage of these excretory units in human kidneys?

c) List in tabular form the structural and functional difference between alveoli and nephron. [5]

28. i) Draw a neat diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts where following
functions occur?
a) Production of an egg
b) Fertilisation of sperm and ovum
c) Implantation of fertilised egg
ii) What happens to the lining of uterus:
a) before the release of fertilised egg.
b) if no fertilisation occurs.
iii) What is IUCD? Can it prevent STD’s in women? [5]

Pg- 5 of 6
 OR
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth and its entry into the ovule.
ii) Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation
iii) Mention the post fertilisation changes observed in a flower?

29. (a) Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and combination is connected to a battery
of V volt, an ammeter, a voltmeter and a key. Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an
expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination of the resistors.
(b) Draw a schematic diagram of circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 ohm, 8
ohm and 12 ohm resistors with an ammeter and a plug key , all connected in series. Find the current
flowing through the ammeter and potential difference across 5 ohm resistor. [5]
30. (a) State Snell’s law of refraction.
(b) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the light
ray emerges parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a ray diagram to
illustrate it.

(c) Define absolute refractive index. Refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3 and glass is
3/2 . What is the refractive index of glass with respect to water? [5]

OR
(a) What is meant by the power of a lens? What is its SI unit?
(b) An object placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 12 cm. Find the position and nature of the image.

(c) Why the sun appears radish during sunrise and sunset.

************

Pg- 6 of 6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE-
Class:-X Subject:- Mathematics (Standard)
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
General Instructions:-
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 40 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C and D. Section A
comprises of 20 questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each,
Section C comprises of 8 questions of 3 marks each and Section D comprises of 6 questions of 4
marks each.
3. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in 2 questions of 2 marks
each, 2 questions
estions of 3 marks each and 1 question of 4 marks. You have to attempt only one of the
alternatives in all such questions.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted.
SECTION – A [1x20=20]
1. A five digit number is a multiple of 11 and 91. If the second digit fr from
om the left is 8, then the fourth
digit from the left of the number is
(a) 0 (b) 9 (c) 4 (d) 8
2. The pair of equations x =0 and x=3 has
(a) Only one solution (b) two solutions (c) no solutions (d) infinitely many solutions
3. The number of terms from 1 to 1000 divisible by 7 are
(a) 142 (b) 143 (c) 144 (d) 141
4. The value of (sin θ + cos θ )2 - 2 sin (900 -θ) cos (900 - θ) is equal to
(a) -2 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) 1
5. The altitude of an equilateral triangle having the length of its side 10cm is
(a) 5√2 (b) 5√3 (c) 6√2 (d) 6√3
6. By melting a solid cylindrical metal , a few conical materials are to be made. If three times the
radius of the cone is equal to twice the ra radius
dius of the cylinder and the ratio of the height of the
cylinder and height of the cone is 4 : 3 , then number of cones which can be made is
(a) 9 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
7. The minute hand of a clock is 10cm long. The area swept by the minute hand between be 8:00 am to
8:25 is
(a) 120.95 cm2 (b) 130. 95 cm2 (c) 140.95 cm2 (d) 150.95 cm2
8. Distance between two parallel tangents of a circle of radius 3 cm is
(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 6cm (d) 8cm
9. Two poles of height 6m and 11m stand vertically upright on a plane ground. If the distance between
their foot is 12m, the distance between their tops is
(a) 12 m (b) 14 m (c) 13 m (d) 11m
10. If ( 3, 2 ) , ( x , 22/5 ) and ( 8, 8) lie on a line, then x is equal to
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
11. An equation involving trigonometric ratios of an angle is called …………………
12. If a cylinder is filled with water and spherical ball of r is dropped into the cylinder, the quantity of
water spread out is …………………..
Pg- 1 of 3
13. Two congruent triangles are always ………………..
14. ………………. of a class is the frequency obtained by adding the frequencies of all the classes
preceding the given class.
15. The probability of getting a face card from a pack of cards is …………….
16. Which term of the AP, 21 , 18, 15 …….. is -81?
17. Find the discriminant of the quadratic equation 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0.
18. If x = 2 and x = 0 , are the zeroes of the polynomials f(x) = 2x3 – 5x2 + ax + b. Find the values of a
and b.
19. A number when divided by 53 gives 34 as quotient and 21 as a remainder. Find the number.
20. In a grouped data, if ∑ = 20, ∑ xi = 2p + 20 and mean of distribution is 12, then find the value
of p.
SECTION - B [2x6=12]
21. If m and n are the zeroes of the polynomial 3x2 +11x – 4, find the value of + .
OR
If the polynomial 6x4 +8x3 + 17x2 + 21x +7 is divided by another polynomial 3x2 +4x + 1, the
remainder comes out ( ax +b), find the values of a and b.
22. Find a relation between x and y such that the point P(x,y) is equidistant from the points A(-5,3) and
B(7,2).
OR
Prove that the point (3,0) , (6,4) and (-1,3) are the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle.
23. If cos θ - sin θ = √2 sin θ, then prove that cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ .
24. In a rectangle ABCD, E is a point on AB such that AE = AB. If AB = 6 km and AD = 3 km, then
find DE.
25. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the word ‘ASSASSINATION’ . Find the probability
that the letter chosen is a (i) vowel (ii) consonant.
26. If the sum of the deviations of a set of values x1 , x2, x3 ,………..xn measured from 50 is (-10) and
the sum of deviations of the values from 46 is 70, then find its mean.

SECTION – C [3x8=24]
27. Find the HCF and LCM of the smallest odd composite number and the smallest odd prime number.
If an odd number p divides q2 , then will it divide q3 also? Explain.
28. The time taken by a person to cover 150km was 2 hours more than the time taken in the return
journey. If he returned at a speed of 10km/hour more than the speed while going, find the speed
per hour in each direction.
OR
The total cost of a certain length of cloth is Rs. 200. If the piece was 5m longer and each metre of
cloth costs Rs 2 less, the cost of the piece would have remained unchanged. How longer is the piece
and what is its original rate per metre?
29. If the sum of the first n terms of an A.P. is ( 3n2 + 7n ), then find its nth term. Hence write its 20th
term.
OR
In an A.P., if the 12th term is -13 and the sum of its first four terms is 24. Find the sum of its
first ten terms.

30. XY and X’ Y’ are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB with point
of contact C, is intersecting XY at A and X’ Y’ at B. Prove that ∠AOB =900 .
Pg- 2 of 3
31. Let ABC be a right triangle in which AB = 6cm, BC = 8cm and ∠B = 900. BD is the perpendicular
from B on AC. The circle through B,C,D is drawn. Construct the tangents from A to the circle.
32. If P and Q are two points whose coordinates are (at2 , 2at) and ( , ) respectively and S is the
point ( a , 0 ). Show that + is independent of t.
33. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 60m above a lake is 300 and the angle of depression of
the reflection of the cloud in the lake is 600 . Find the height of the cloud from the surface of the lake.
34. The inner perimeter of a race track is 400m and the outer perimeter is 488m. The length of each
straight portion is 90m. Find the cost of developing the track at the rate of RS 12.50/m2 .

SECTION – D [4x6=24]
35. If the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x3
- 12x + 39x + a are in AP, find the value of a.
2

36. Two candles of equal height but different thickness are lighted. The first burns off in 6 hours and
the second in 8 hours. How long, after lighting both, will the first candle be half the height of the
second?
37. State and prove Basic proportionality theorem.
θ θ
38. Prove that: + = 1 + tanθ + cot θ
θ θ

OR

If a cos3 θ + 3 a cos θ sin2 θ = m, a sin3 θ + 3 a cos2θ sin θ = n,

Prove that ( m+n)2/3 + (m-n)2/3 = 2a2/3 .

39. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle of length 20m and width 14m. A pit 6m long, 3m
wide and 2.5m deep is dug in the corner of the field and the earth taken out of the pit is spread
uniformly over the remaining area of the field. Find the extent to which the level of the field has
been raised.
40. The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of electricity of 68 consumers
of locality. Find the mean of the monthly consumption of electricity of 68 consumers.
Monthly consumption Number of consumers
(in units)
65 - 85 4
85 - 105 5
105 - 125 13
125 - 145 20
145 - 165 14
165 - 185 8
185 - 205 4

********

Pg- 3 of 3
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE- 20)
Class:-X Subject:- Mathematics (Basic)
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
General Instructions:-
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 40 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C and D. Section A
comprises of 20 questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each,
Section C comprises of 8 questions of 3 marks each and Section D comprises of 6 questions of 4
marks each.
3. There is no overall choice. However, in ou have to attempt only
internal choice has been provided, you
one of the alternatives in all such questions.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted.

SECTION – A [1x20=20]
1. In a frequency distribution , the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The lower
limit of the class is ………….
a. 6 b. 7 c. 2 d. 8
2. The probability of getting a number greater than 2 in throwing a dice is ……….
a. 2/3 b. 1/3 c. 4/3 d. 1/4
3. The pair of linear equations 2 * 5) + 7, 6 ! 5) + 11 has unique solution, if

a. !3 b. c. 5 d. 6

4. If the points "#, 0%, "0, &%#'( "1,1

1% are collinear, then * equals
7

a. 1 b. 2 c. 0 d. –1
5. The point which divides the line segment joining the points "7, !6%#'( "3,4% in ratio 1: 2 internally
lies in the
a. I quadrant b. II quadrant c. III quadrant d. IV quadrant
6. If ! 2) * % :"0,4%
+ 0 is a median of triangle whose vertices are at points 9"!1,3%, : #'( @"!5,2%,
then the value of is
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
7. Tickets numbered from 1 to 20 are mixed up together and then a ticket is drawn at random, then the
probability that the ticket has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 7, is
;
a. b. c. d.
, , , ,
0 0 0 0
8. The value of tan 1 1#'2 1#'3 … … . 1#'89 is
a. 0 b. 1 c. ∞ d. None of these
Pg- 1 of 4
9. If tan 29 + cot "9 ! 180 ), where 29 is an acute angle, then the value of 9 is.
a. 120 b. 180 c. 360 d. 480
10. If median = 137 and mean = 137.05, then the value of mode is
a. 156.90 b. 136.90 c. 186.90 d. 206.90
,
11. If is a root of the equation + − ; = 0 then the value of is __________.

OR
A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are C #'( D, is ___________.
12. 30th term of the AP: 10, 7, 4, …….. is _________.
JK N∆JKO
13. Given ∆9:@~∆GHI, if = , 1ℎM' N∆ P
is __________.

14. A line that intersects a circle in one point only is called ___________.
15. Probability of an event Q + Probability of the event ‘not Q’ = ______________.
;
16. The decimal expansion of the rational number R ×,T will terminate after how many places of

decimal?
17. Find the value (s) of for the following quadratic equation, so that they have two equal roots.
2 + +3=0
18. Check whether – 150 is a term of the AP: 11, 8, 5, 2, ……
OR
Find the 7th term of A.P. ; 13,8,3,……………
19. From the following frequency distribution , find the median class:
Cost of living index 1400 – 1550 1550-1700 1700-1850 1850-2000
Number of weeks 8 15 21 8

20. Two cubes each of volume 8 cm3 are joined end to end, then what is the surface area of resulting
cuboid.
Section – B
21. Show that 5 − √3 is irrational.
22. If x = - ½ , is a solution of the quadratic equation 3x2 + 2 kx – 3 = 0 , find k.
23. In ∆9:@, ∠:@9 = 900 , H is the mid-point of :@, prove that (9:) = 49H − 39@ .
Or
In a ∆GHI, GI − GH = HI #'( U is a point on side GI such that HU ⊥ GI. Prove that HU =
GU × UI.
;Y Z [\YZ]
24. If 41#'W = 3, evaluateX ^
;Y Z][\YZ

25. Find the number of cubes of side 2cm which can be cut from a cube of side 4cm.
Pg- 2 of 4
26. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that
i. 5 will come up atleast once?
ii. 5 will not come up either time?
OR
Two customers, Shyam and Ekta are visiting a particular shop in the same week (Tuesday to
Saturday). Each is equally to visit the shop on any day as on another day.
What is the probability that both will visit the shop on
i. the same day? ii. Consecutive days?
Section – C
27. Show that the cube of any positive integer is of form 4_, 4_ + 1 `a 4_ + 3, for the some integer _.
OR
By using Euclid’s division algorithm, find the largest number which when divides 969 and 2059,
gives the remainders 9 and 11, respectively.
28. If one zero of the polynomial 2 − 5 − (2 + 1) is twice the other, then find both the zeroes of the
polynomial and the value of K.
29. Solve graphically, the pair of equations 2 + ) = 6 #'( 2 − ) + 2 = 0. Find the area of triangle
formed by the lines representing these equations with X-axis .
30. Construct an isosceles triangle whose base is 8cm and altitude 4cm and then another triangle whose

sides are 1 times the corresponding sides of the isosceles triangle.

OR
Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 4cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6cm and
measure its length. Also, verify the measurement by actual calculation.
31. If P and Q are the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points
9(2, −2)#'( :(−7,4). Find the coordinates of G #'( H.
J][\Yb[ J ][\YJ
32. Prove that J [\Yb[J]
= Y J
.

OR
If c`dMc 9 − cot 9 = e, show that
f
+ cos 9 = 0.
f ]

33. In the given figure, diameter AB of a circle is 12cm long. AB is trisected at points P and Q. Find the
area of the shaded region. hi# M j = 3.14k

Pg- 3 of 4
34. If mean of the following data is 53, then find the missing frequencies.
Ages (in years) 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 Total
Number of people 15 21 17 100
Section – D
35. Solve for :
;
l]
+ l] = l]; , ≠ −1, −2, −4

OR

Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 11 6 minutes. If one pipe takes 5 minutes more than
the other to fill it. Find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.
36. State and prove Basic Proportionality Theorem.
37. The ratio of the sum of ‘n’ terms of two A.P. is (7n+1) : (4n+27). Find the ratio of their mth term.
OR
Find four numbers in AP whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.
38. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 300 and the angle of
elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 600 . If the tower is 60m high, then
find the height of the building.
39. A wooden article as shown in the figure was made from a cylinder by scooping out a hemisphere
from one end and a cone from the other end. Find the total surface area of the article.

Or
A bucket made up of a metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16cm with radii of
its lower and upper ends as 8cm and 20cm, respectively. Find the cost of the bucket, if the cost of
metal sheet used is Rs. 15 per 100c_ . [take, j=3.14]
40. Draw ‘less than ogive’ and ‘more than ogive’ for the following distribution and hence find its
median.

Class interval 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90

Frequency 10 8 12 24 6 25 15

***********

Pg- 4 of 4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE- 20)
Class:-X Subject:-English
Subject:
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
M.M.
General Instructions:-
1. This paper is divided into 3 sections: A,B, and C. All the sections are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Read the instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
Section A : Reading (20)
I. Read the following passage carefully: (8 marks)
1. Many a time, people feel fatigue because of poorly designed workspaces. Your desk, your
chair, your computer and keyboard – the placement, height and angle of each of them – play
a crucial role in preventing muscle and eye strain. That is what has given riseri to an interest
in the study of ergonomics. It is the applied science of equipment design at the workplace.
Ergonomics is intended to reduce fatigue and discomfort for people sitting and working in
offices. So, why does it make sense for organizations to follow ergonomic principals? In a
recent study, it has been found that over 60% of individuals diagnosed with Repetitive
Strain Injury (RSI) had received no training in strain injury at their offices and another 30%
had received incorrect ergonomic advice.
advice
2. Another interesting finding has been that employees who turn up to work in spite of being
in pain can cause massive productivity losses, amounting to thousands of dollars annually.
Research findings have shown that most offices in India are operating wit with furniture that is
a mismatch to the highly networked work-culture
work culture that exists and there is hardly any
awareness among employees about ergonomics and how it impacts them. This has resulted
in an alarming 71% of employees suffering from rapidly spreading Musculo M Skeletal
Disorders (MSD). The symptoms are back pain, shoulder pain of varying intensity, leading
to lowering of productivity of employees at work.
3. To counter this problem, some companies have created volunteers who are part of a ‘train
and trainers’’ initiative. They act as custodians of their bays and monitor their colleagues’
postures and advise them on a day day-to-day
day basis. Talking about the part that employees can
do to make their workplaces comfortable, some experts say that from an employees’
perspective,
spective, having knowledge of what is a safe working position, and what are the right
ways of relieving fatigue, how the current setset-up
up can be optimized, what simple solutions
can be incorporated, can go a long way in creating a stress-freefree environment with
wit healthy
employees.
A. Choose the correct option to complete the following sentences. (1x4=4)
(i) ________ is intended to reduce fatigue and discomfort for people sitting and working in
offices.
(a) Ergonomics (b) Productivity (c)Fatigue (d)Eye-strain
(ii) ________ of employees are suffering from rapidly spreading Musculo Skeletal Disorders
(MSD).
(a) 30% (b) 70% (c) 60% (d) 45%
Pg- 1 of 5
 (iii) Symptoms of MSD are _______.
(a) Back-pain (b) Shoulder pain (c) Lowering of productivity (d) All of these
(iv) _________ act as custodians of their bays and monitor their colleagues’ postures and
advise them on a day-to-day basis.
(a) Employees (b) Government (c) Trainers (d) Work-places
B. Answer the following questions briefly. (1x4=4)
(i) What is the latest finding about work-places?
(ii) What is ergonomics?
(iii) What is the finding about furniture in Indian workplace?
(iv) How are work-places in India countering this problem?
II. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: (12)
1. It’s not “cool” to be fat, but that has not prevented an obesity epidemic from occurring
among America’s youth. Childhood has seen obesity increased from 5% in1964 to about 13%
in 1994. Today, it is about 20 % and rising. Excessive time spent watching television, using
the computer and playing video-games is partly to be blamed for this escalating rate.
Children, on an average, spend up to five to six hours a day involved in these sedentary
activities. Perhaps it wouldn’t matter if they were sufficiently active at other times, but most
of them aren’t. to make matters worse, children are bombarded with well-crafted TV
advertisements from fast-food chains and other purveyors of high-fat, high-sugar meals and
snacks. A recent study reported that two to six years old who watch television are more
likely to choose food products advertised on television than children who do not watch such
commercials. These highly effective advertising campaigns, combined with a physically
inactive life-style, have produced a generation of kids who are at high risk of obesity-
associated medical conditions.
2. The major health threat is the early development of Type 2 diabetes (adult onset),
particularly in children with a family history of the disease. Doctors are reporting a surge in
young adolescents developing Type 1 diabetes which can lead to heart disease, high blood
pressure, kidney disease, stroke, limb-amputations, and blindness. People who develop
diabetes in adolescence face a diminished quality of life and shortened lifespan, particularly
if the disease progresses untreated. It’s a scary prospect for our children but, in many cases,
obesity and diabetes are preventable.
3. When children are spending most of their free time sitting in front of the televisions and
computers, they are not outside running, jumping or engaging in team-sports that would
keep their weight down. Parents need to set limits on the time their children spend doing
passive activities. Paediatricians recommend restricting children to one to two hours per day
on television and computers combined, though older children may need additional time for
learning activities.
4. Parental involvement remains the most important key to our children’s healthy diets.
Programmes to educate parents about nutrition are essential. Fast food should be consumed
only in moderation. Caregivers, who are often busy and harried, must avoid the temptation
to whisk their kids into fast-food restaurants or to pick up fast food for dinner at home.
Changing eating habits and lifestyles is not easy, but the health benefit for our children is a
wonderful payoff for parents willing to take on the task.
A. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions in 30-40
words each: (2x4=8)
(i) It is not considered ‘cool’ to be fat, yet obesity has become an epidemic in
America. State reasons for it.
Pg- 2 of 5
 (ii) Which two factors have produced a generation of children who suffer from
obesity-associated medical problems?
(iii) According to the doctors which disease has now started attacking young
adolescents and why?
(iv) Parents are now supposed to be educated about nutrients. Why?
B. On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in the following blanks with appropriate
words/phrases. (1x2=2)
(i) The major health threat is the early development of ___________.
(ii) _____________ remains the most important key to our children’s healthy habits.
C. Find out the words from the passage that mean the same as under. (1x2=2)
(i) Increasing rapidly. (paragraph 1)
(a) Escalating
(b) Epidemic
(c) Purveyors
(ii) Eerie (paragraph 2)
(a) Threat
(b) Scary
(c) Untreated
Section B: Writing and Grammar (30)
III. Write a letter to M/s Laxmi Stationery Mart, Chawri Bazaar, Delhi, in about 100-150 words,
asking them to send their rates and terms of supply of stationery items. You are R.K.Mittal,
Office Superintendent, Bundelkhand Public School, Jhanshi. (8 Marks)
OR
You are Karitk/Kritika of class X. You have noticed the rise in number of student flying
abroad for higher education. Write an article in about 100-150 words expressing your concern
over this issue of ‘Brain Drain’ and suggest ways to control it. Take help from the hints given
below.
• Flight of raw and native talent.
• High Quality Education
• Better Job Opportunities
• Better scope and recognition of international graduates.
• Setting up quality educational institution.
• Relief from government policies and Reservation of seats.

IV. Write a short-story, in about 150-200 words, with the help of given outlines. Give a suitable
title to the story. (10 Marks)
While strolling in the park near my house, I spotted a cobra. I panicked but stood there like a
statue. Frightening thoughts were arising in my mind and then………
OR
A young man setting out on a journey-accompanied part way by an old man-they part under
a peepal tree-young man asks old man to keep Rs. 100 for him till he returns-old man agrees
and takes the money-old man later says he never gave him any money to keep- young man
takes him before judge-judge sends young man to summon tree to court- a long time away-
judge asks old man, “Why?” – old man says tree is long way off – judge sees that the old man
knows which tree it is – when young man returns, judge gives verdict in his favour.
Pg- 3 of 5
V. Complete the following passage by choosing the most appropriate option from the ones
given below. Atempt any four. (1x4=4)
A couple (i) _______ million years ago, a small water body containing (ii) ________ ancient
group of microbes was sealed beneath (iii) _______ thick layer of ice (iv) _______ the Taylor
Glacier. The trapped lake has (v) _______ isolated from light, heat, and oxygen ever since.
(i) (a) into (b) in (c) on (d) of
(ii) (a) the (b) the (c) an (d) in
(iii) (a) the (b) a (c) an (d) on
(iv) (a) on (b) under (c) over (d) in
(v) (a) became (b) become (c) becoming (d) because
VI. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect
word and the correction against the correct blank number in your answer sheet. Attempt any
four. (1x4=4)
Incorrect Correct
Facebook which has more then 1.2 billion users, _______ ______
was celebrated its 10th birthday this year. _______ ______
The company was launching by _______ ______
Mark Zuckerberg at February 4, 2004 _______ ______
from a Harward University. _______ ______
VII. Rearrange any four of the following words or phrases to form meaningful sentences
(1x4=4)
(i) of mankind/the habit/reading is/one of/resources/of/the greatest
(ii) are/we enjoy/that/belong to us/than the ones/much more/that/ borrowed
/reading books
(iii) book/formality/a certain/considerate/must be treated with/a borrowed
(iv) or book/that/afraid to/you should/mark up/lose/you are
(v) should begin/everyone/a private/library/youth/collecting/in
Section –C : Literature (30 Marks)
VIII. Read any one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow. (1x4=4)
Suddenly Valli clapped her hands with glee. A young cow, tail high in the air, was running very
fast, right in the middle of the road, right in front of the bus. The bus slowed to a crawl, and the
driver sounded his horn loudly again and again. But the more he honked, the more frightened
the animal became and the faster it galloped- always right in front of the bus.
(i) Why did Valli clap her hands with glee?
(ii) Why did the bus slow?
(iii) Which animal is mentioned in the given lines?
(iv) What did the driver do again and again?
OR
I sit inside, doors open to the veranda
Writing long letters
In which I scarcely mention the departure
Of the forest from the house
The night is fresh, the whole moon shines
In a sky still open
The smell of leaves and lichen
Still reaches like a voice into the rooms.
Pg- 4 of 5
 (i) Name the poem and the poet.
(ii) Who is “I” here?
(iii) Whose departure is mentioned in the given lines?
(iv) What is the speaker doing?

IX. Answer any five of the following questions in about 30-40 words each. (2x5=5)
(i) How did Natalya justify that the Oxen Meadows were theirs?
(ii) What happened when the dust of snow fell on Robert Frost?
(iii) What did experience teach Kisa Gotami?
(iv) How did Hari Singh’s heart sink when Anil met him in the morning?
(v) What story did Ausable tell Max about the balcony? Why did he tell him so?
(vi) What promise did Horace make before the young lady?

X. Answer any one of the following questions in about 100-150 words. (8 marks)
How did Gautama Buddha attain enlightenment as given in the story? Explain.
OR
How did author describe otter when he saw it for the first time and what changes took place
later on?

XI. Answer any one of the following questions in about 100-150 words. (8 Marks)

Griffin indeed made a great discovery, yet we do not sympathise with him. Why?
OR
Based on the understanding of the story, give a character sketch of Bholi.

***************

Pg- 5 of 5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE- 20)
SET - B
Class:-X Subject:- Social Science
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
General Instructions:-
a) The question paper has 35 questions in all.
b) Marks are indicated against each question.
c) Questions from serial number 1 to20 are objective type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Answer them as instructed.
d) Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not
exceed 80 words each.
e) Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not
exceed 120 words each.
f) Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts – 35 A from History (2 marks)
and 35 B from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION A VERY SHORT ANS. QUESTIONS

1. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below: [1]
COLUMN A COLUMN B

A. Viceroy Lord Irwin 1.Harijans

B. Lion of Punjab 2.Abdul Ghaffer Khan

C. Frontier Gandhi 3.Dominion status

D. Gandhi 4.Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Identify the language which is NOT spoken in Belgium from the options given below
a. German b. Wallonia c. French d. Dutch [1]
3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows. [1]

What was Gandhiji’s demand related to this picture?

a) Demand for swaraj
b) Repeal of the Rowlatt Act
c) Abolition of the salt tax
d) The Britishers should quit India.
4. Who destroyed democracy in France by establishing dictatorship? [1]
Pg- 1 of 4
5. Which state of the following is not rich in minerals and coal deposits? [1]
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Jharkhand d) Chhattisgarh
6. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Sugarcane:
Sugarcane Rainfall Temperature
(A) - ? (B) - ?
7. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets. [1]
OR
Why is limestone essential for iron and steel industry?
8. Correct the following statement and rewrite: [1]
In the country side ,rich peasant communities like the Patidars of Uttar Pradesh and Jats of Haryana
were enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience movement.
9. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon? [1]

A cartoon of the state policy is given.

a)Demand for a separate state from democratic government .
b).Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state.
c)States placed for more powers
d)running a coalition government.
10. _______is an example of coming together federation. [1]
11. Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India? [1]
12. Why have scientists been warning that present type and level of development are not
sustainable? [1]
13. Besides seeking more income, people also want [1]
a) equal treatment (b) freedom (c) security (d) all of the above
14. ____________ is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as
a percentage of total number of children in the same age group. [1]
15. The activity bee-keeping is an example of [1]
a) Tertiary sector b) Secondary sector c) Primary sector d) None of these
16. GDP is the total value of ________________ produced during a particular year. [1]
OR
According to Planning Commission (now known as NITI Aayog) nearly ______ lakh jobs can
be created in the education sector alone.
17. Informal sources of credit does not include [1]
a) Traders b) Cooperatives c) Relatives d) Employers
18. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to [1]
a) set up new companies b) form partnerships with local companies
c) buy existing local companies d) use the local companies for supplies
Pg- 2 of 4
19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and chose the correct option: [1]
Assertion (A): Credit would be useful or not depends on the risk involved in a situation.
Reason (R): The chance of benefitting from credit is highest in agriculture sector.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is wrong.
d. A is wrong but R is correct.
20. Raghav receives his salary at the end of each month, has extra cash at the beginning of the month.
He deposits it with the bank by opening a bank account in his name. This kind of deposit with the
bank is known as [1]
a) demand deposit b) term deposit c) surplus deposit d) None of these

SECTION – B SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. How did the plantation workers response to the call of Non Cooperation movement? [3]
OR
Dalit participation was limited in Civil Disobedience movement .Justify
22. Why hand labour was preferred over machines in Europe? [3]
23. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows [1+1+1=3]
Source A
Proto Industrialization
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries ,merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to
the countryside ,supplying money and raw materials to peasants and artisans, persuading them to
produce cloth for an international cloth for an international market .When merchants came and
offered advances to produce goods for them ,peasant households eagerly agreed .Merchants were
based in towns but the work was done mostly in the country side .
Source B
Slow Technological Changes
Technological changes in industries occurred slowly. New technology was expensive and
merchants and industrialists were cautious about using it .The machines often broke down and
repair was costly .They were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.
Source C
In Victorian Britain ,the upper classes ,i.e. the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie ,preferred things
produced by hand .Handmade products came to symbolize refinement and class .They were better
finished ,individually produced ,and carefully designed .Machine made goods were for export to
the colonies.
Questions:-
1. How was cloth for an international market produced in Europe during the seventeenth
and eighteenth centuries ? (Source A)
2. Why did technological changes industries occur slowly ? (Source B)
3. Why did upper classes in Victorian Britain prefer handmade products? (Source C)
Pg- 3 of 4
24. “Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of
Agricultural Development”. Support the statement with three points. [3x1 = 3]
OR
“Considering the importance of agriculture in India, the Government of India made concerted
efforts to modernize agriculture”. Justify the statement with three points.
25. What were the majoritarian measures taken in SriLanka to establish Sinhala supremacy? [3]
26. What is the role of an opposition party in a democracy? [3]
27. Why is tertiary sector becoming more important sector in India? Give three reasons. [3x1= 3]
28. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain. [3x1 = 3]
SECTION – C LONG ANS. QUESTIONS
29. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike rest of Europe? Briefly trace the process of
unification of Britain . [5]
30. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows: [1+2+2 = 5]
In 2016 with 95.6 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked 3rd among the world crude
steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In 2016 per capita consumption of steel in
the country was only 63 kg per annum against the world average of 208 kg.
Most of the public sector undertakings market their steel through Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(SAIL). In the 1950s China and India produced almost the same quantity of steel. Today, China is
the largest producer of steel. China is also the world’s largest consumer of steel.
Chhotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries. It is
largely, because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of this industry.
30.1 On the basis of character of raw material and finished product, iron and steel industry
belong to which category?
30.2 Why is the per capita consumption of steel low in India? Explain any two reasons.
30.3 Why has the Chhotanagpur region maximum concentration of iron and steel
industries? Explain any two reasons.
31. Describe any five major sea ports along the western coast with their features and roll played. [5x1 = 5]
32. Explain the forms of power sharing in modern democracy. [5X1=5]
33. What is decentralization ? What benefits can be derived from it ? [5]
OR
“Women are discriminated against or disadvantaged in India “. Justify the statement with
examples
34. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement. [5 x 1 = 5]
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION
35. A .On the given political outline map of India mark and locate the following [1+1=2]
a. Place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1927.
b. The place where Mahatma Gandhi conducted Satyagraha for the cotton mill workers.
B. On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. [4 x 1 = 4]
i. Naraura- Nuclear Power Plant
ii. Ankaleshwar - Oil Field
iii. Bhilai– Iron and Steel Plant
iv. Bengaluru - Software Technology Park
v. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Airport
vi. Tuticorin - Major Sea Port
Pg- 4 of 4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
PRE BOARD-II EXAMINATION (2019-20)
PRE- 20)
SET - A
Class:-X Subject:-- Social Science
Time- 3 Hrs. M.M.-80
80
General Instructions:-
a) The question paper has 35 questions in all.
b) Marks are indicated against each question.
c) Questions from serial number 1 to20 are objective type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Answer them as instructed.
d) Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not
exceed 80 words each.
e) Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not
exceed 120 words each.
f) Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts – 35 A from History (2 marks)
and 35 B from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION A VERY SHORT ANS. QUESTIONS

1. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below: [1]
COLUMN A COLUMN B

A. Viceroy Lord Irwin 1.Harijans

B. Lion of Punjab 2.Abdul Ghaffer Khan

C. Frontier Gandhi 3.Dominion status

D. Gandhi 4.Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Identify the language which is NOT spoken in Belgium from the options given below
a. German b. Wallonia c. French d. Dutch [1]
3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows. [1]

What was Gandhiji’s demand related to this picture?

a) Demand for swaraj
b) Repeal of the Rowlatt Act
c) Abolition of the salt tax
d) The Britishers should quit India.
4. Who destroyed democracy in France by establishing dictatorship? [1]
Pg- 1 of 5
5. Which state of the following is not rich in minerals and coal deposits? [1]
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Jharkhand d) Chhattisgarh

6. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Sugarcane:
Sugarcane Rainfall Temperature
(C) - ? (D) - ?
7. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets. [1]
OR
Why is limestone essential for iron and steel industry?
8. Correct the following statement and rewrite: [1]
In the country side ,rich peasant communities like the Patidars of Uttar Pradesh and Jats of Haryana
were enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience movement.
9. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon? [1]

A cartoon of the state policy is given.

a)Demand for a separate state from democratic government .
b).Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state.
c)States placed for more powers
d)running a coalition government.
10. _______is an example of coming together federation. [1]
11. Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India? [1]
12. Why have scientists been warning that present type and level of development are not
sustainable? [1]
13. Besides seeking more income, people also want [1]
a) equal treatment (b) freedom (c) security (d) all of the above
14. ____________ is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as
a percentage of total number of children in the same age group. [1]
15. The activity bee-keeping is an example of [1]
a) Tertiary sector b) Secondary sector c) Primary sector d) None of these
16. GDP is the total value of ________________ produced during a particular year. [1]
OR
According to Planning Commission (now known as NITI Aayog) nearly ______ lakh jobs can
be created in the education sector alone.
17. Informal sources of credit does not include [1]
a) Traders b) Cooperatives c) Relatives d) Employers
Pg- 2 of 5
18. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to [1]
a) set up new companies b) form partnerships with local companies
c) buy existing local companies d) use the local companies for supplies

19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and chose the correct option: [1]
Assertion (A): Credit would be useful or not depends on the risk involved in a situation.
Reason (R): The chance of benefitting from credit is highest in agriculture sector.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is wrong.
d. A is wrong but R is correct.
20. Raghav receives his salary at the end of each month, has extra cash at the beginning of the month.
He deposits it with the bank by opening a bank account in his name. This kind of deposit with the
bank is known as [1]
a) demand deposit b) term deposit c) surplus deposit d) None of these

SECTION – B SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. How did the plantation workers response to the call of Non Cooperation movement? [3]
OR
Dalit participation was limited in Civil Disobedience movement .Justify
22. Explain how the European managing agencies controlled a large sector of Indian Industries
after the first world war. [3]
23. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows [1+1+1=3]
Source A
Proto Industrialization
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries ,merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to
the countryside ,supplying money and raw materials to peasants and artisans, persuading them to
produce cloth for an international cloth for an international market .When merchants came and
offered advances to produce goods for them ,peasant households eagerly agreed .Merchants were
based in towns but the work was done mostly in the country side .
Source B
Slow Technological Changes
Technological changes in industries occurred slowly. New technology was expensive and
merchants and industrialists were cautious about using it .The machines often broke down and
repair was costly .They were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.
Source C
In Victorian Britain ,the upper classes ,i.e. the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie ,preferred things
produced by hand .Handmade products came to symbolize refinement and class .They were better
finished ,individually produced ,and carefully designed .Machine made goods were for export to
the colonies.
Pg- 3 of 5
 Questions:-
1. How was cloth for an international market produced in Europe during the seventeenth
and eighteenth centuries ? (Source A)
2. Why did technological changes industries occur slowly ? (Source B)
3. Why did upper classes in Victorian Britain prefer handmade products? (Source C)

24. “Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of
Agricultural Development”. Support the statement with three points. [3x1 = 3]
OR
“Considering the importance of agriculture in India, the Government of India made concerted
efforts to modernize agriculture”. Justify the statement with three points.
25. “Power is shared between different social groups.” Comment on this statement with the help of an
example. [3]
26. What is the role of an opposition party in a democracy? [3]
27. ‘There has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, but a similar shift has not
taken place in employment.’ Explain the statement on the basis of facts. [3x1 = 3]

28. Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country’s development? Explain any
three reasons [3x1 = 3]

SECTION – C LONG ANS. QUESTIONS

29. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike rest of Europe? Briefly trace the process of
unification of Britain . [5]
30. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows: [1+2+2= 5]

The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The
market is the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called
international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes.
Local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages. State level trade is carried between two
or more states. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic
prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country.
As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade.
Export and import are the components of trade. The balanced of trade of a country is the
difference between its export and import. When the value of exports exceeds the value of
imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports
exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.

30.1 What is trade balance?

30.2 “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic
prosperity”. Justify the statement.
30.3 “No country can survive without international trade in the present global world”.
Explain the statement.
Pg- 4 of 5
31. Explain any five factors responsible for the concentration of jute industry in Hugli
basin. [5x1= 5]
32. “The constitution did not use the word ‘Federation’ but the Indian Union is based on the
principles of federations.” Explain the statement. [5X1=5]

33. What is decentralization ? What benefits can be derived from it ? [5]

OR
“Women are discriminated against or disadvantaged in India “. Justify the statement with
examples.

34. How can government ensure fair globalisation to its people? Explain. [5x1 =5]

MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION

35. A .On the given political outline map of India mark and locate the following [1+1=2]
a. Place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1927.
b. The place where Mahatma Gandhi conducted Satyagraha for the cotton mill workers.
B. On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. [4 x 1 = 4]
i. Naraura- Nuclear Power Plant
ii. Ankaleshwar - Oil Field
iii. Bhilai– Iron and Steel Plant
iv. Bengaluru - Software Technology Park
v. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Airport
vi. Tuticorin - Major Sea Port

***********

Pg- 5 of 5