Bee All MCQS' in 1 PDF

STUDY ZONE
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

DETAILED SYLLABUS
Unit Topic
DC Circuits
Electrical circuit elements (R, L and C), Concept of active and passive elements, voltage and current
I sources, concept of linearity and linear network, unilateral and bilateral elements, Kirchhoff’s laws, Loop
and nodal methods of analysis, Star-delta transformation, Superposition theorem, Thevenin theorem,
Norton theorem.
Steady- State Analysis of Single Phase AC Circuits

Representation of Sinusoidal waveforms – Average and effective values, Form and peak factors, Concept
of phasors, phasor representation of sinusoidal varying voltage and current.
Analysis of single phase AC Circuits consisting of R, L, C, RL, RC, RLC combinations (Series and
II Parallel), Apparent, active & reactive power, Power factor, power factor improvement.
Concept of Resonance in series & parallel circuits, bandwidth and quality factor.
Three phase balanced circuits, voltage and current relations in star and delta connections.
Transformers
Magnetic materials, BH characteristics, ideal and practical transformer, equivalent circuit, losses in
III transformers, regulation and efficiency. Auto-transformer and three-phase transformer connections.
Electrical machines
DC machines: Principle & Construction, Types, EMF equation of generator and torque equation of motor,
IV applications of DC motors (simple numerical problems)
Three Phase Induction Motor: Principle & Construction, Types, Slip-torque characteristics, Applications
(Numerical problems related to slip only) Single Phase Induction motor: Principle of operation and
introduction to methods of starting, applications.
Three Phase Synchronous Machines: Principle of operation of alternator and synchronous motor and
their applications.
Electrical Installations
V Components of LT Switchgear: Switch Fuse Unit (SFU), MCB, ELCB, MCCB, Types of Wires and Cables,
Importance of earthing. Types of Batteries, Important characteristics for Batteries. Elementary calculations
for energy consumption and savings, battery backup.
1 University Academy
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STUDY ZONE
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Solved MCQ
Content Page No
1. Unit-I ……………………………………………………..………....…...…….3
2. Unit-II………………………………………….……….…………….…..…….12
3. Unit-III …………………………………………………..….....…………….... 20
4. Unit-IV …………………………..…….…..……………………….………..…27
5. Unit-V …………………………………………………….......................….….34

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Unit-I
1. Kirchhoff’s voltage laws are not applicable to 6. According to KCL as applied to a junction in a
circuits with network of conductors
a. distributed parameters a. total sum of currents meeting at the
b. lumped parameters junction is zero
c. passive elements b. no current can leave the junction without
d. non-linear resistances some current entering it
Ans: (d) c. net current flow at the junction is positive
2. The algebraic sum of voltages in any closed path d. algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the
of network is equal to junction is zero
a. infinity Ans: (a)
b. zero 7. Kirchhoff’s current law at a junction deals with
c. two a. conservation of energy
d. one b. conservation of momentum
Ans: (b) c. conservation of angular momentum
3. Which network analysis states that the algebraic d. conservation of charge
sum of voltage on a closed-loop is zero? Ans: (d)
a. crammers method 8. A system which follows the superposition
b. nodal method of analysis principle is known as
c. loop current method of analysis a. System
d. current sources in loop current method of b. Control System
analysis c. Linear System
Ans: (c) d. Unilateral System
4. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is concerned with Ans: (c)
a. IR drop 9. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
b. Battery e.m.f a. principle of superposition
c. Junction voltage b. principle of homogeneity
d. both (a) and (b) c. both (a) and (b) above
Ans: (d) d. neither (a) and (b) above
5. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws are Ans: (c)
respectively based on conservation of 10. The superposition theorem is based on the
a. energy and charge a. Duality
b. charge and energy b. Linearity
c. mass and charge c. Reciprocity
d. mass and energy d. Non-linearity
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

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11. The superposition theorem can be applied only Ans: (c)

to circuits having 16. Superposition theorem is used to obtain current
a. resistive elements in or voltage across any conductor of the
b. passive elements a. AC network
c. linear bilateral elements b. magnetic network
d. non-linear elements c. non-linear network
Ans: (c) d. linear network
12. A non-linear network does not satisfy Ans: (d)
a. superposition condition 17. The superposition theorem is applicable to
b. homogeneity condition a. current only
c. both superposition as well as homogeneity b. voltage
condition c. both current and voltage
d. superposition, homogeneity and d. current, voltage and power
associative condition Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 18. A linear circuit contains ideal resistors and ideal
13. In applying superposition theorem, to determine voltage source. If values of all the resistors are
branch current and voltages halved then the voltage across each resistor
a. all current and voltage sources are shorted. becomes.
b. only current sources are open-circuited. a. halved
c. only voltage sources are shorted. b. doubled
d. Voltage sources are shorted and current c. remained unchanged
sources are open-circuited. d. decreased by 4 times
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
14. A linear circuit in one whose parameters 19. The application of Thevenin’s theorem in a
a. change with change in current circuit results in
b. change with change in voltage a. an ideal voltage source
c. do not change with voltage and current b. an ideal current source
d. none of the options c. a current source and a resistance in parallel
Ans: (c) d. a voltage source and a resistance in series
15. In electrical circuits states that for a response Ans: (d)
(voltage or current) in any branch of a bilateral 20. Thevenin’s theorem converts a circuit to an
linear circuit having more than one independent equivalent form consisting of
source equals the algebraic sum of the responses a. a current source and a series resistance
caused by each independent sources acting b. a voltage source and a parallel resistance
alone. c. a voltage source and a series resistance
a. norton’s theorem d. a current source and a parallel resistance
b. thevenin’s theorem Ans: (d)
c. superposition theorem
d. duality theorem 21. While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem

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a. all independent sources are made dead

b. only current sources are made dead Terminal voltage 12 V 0V
c. only voltage sources are made dead

Terminal current 0A 1.5 A
d. all voltage and current sources are made
a. 16 Ω
dead
b. 8Ω
Ans: (d)
c. 0
22. How can Thevenin’s resistance and Norton
d. ∞
resistance be correlated in an AC circuit
Ans: (b)
a. always the same
27. While Thevenizing a circuit between two
b. generally the same
terminals, Vth equals
c. sometimes the same
a. short circuit terminal voltage
d. always different
b. open circuit terminal voltage
Ans: (c)
c. emf of the battery nearest to the terminals
23. Thevenin’s theorem cannot be applied to
d. net voltage available in the circuit
a. linear circuit
Ans: (b)
b. non-linear circuit
28. Thevenin’s theorem cannot be applied to
c. active circuit
networks that contain elements which are
d. passive circuit
a. active
Ans: (b)
b. passive
24. While Thevenizing a circuit between two
c. linear
terminals, Vth is equal to
d. non-linear
a. short circuit terminal voltage
Ans: (d)
b. open circuit terminal voltage
29. For a network, Thevenin equivalent is given by
c. net voltage available in the circuit
Vth = 10V and Rth = 50 Ω. If this network is
d. E.m.f. of the battery nearest to the terminals
shunted by another 50 Ω at load. What is the new
Ans: (b)
Thevenin equivalent of the network?
25. Thevenin’s theorem is _______ form of an
a. 5 V, 50 Ω
equivalent circuit.
b. 5 V, 25 Ω
a. voltage
c. 10 V, 50 Ω
b. current
d. 10 V, 25 Ω
c. both voltage and current
Ans: (b)
d. none of these
30. The application of Norton’s theorem in a circuit
Ans: (c)
results in
26. The given result was obtained from
a. a voltage source and an impedance in series
measurements taken between the two terminals
b. an ideal voltage source
of a resistive network. The Thevenin resistance
c. a current source and an impedance in
of the network is
parallel
d. an ideal current source

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Ans: (c) 35. In a parallel circuit, with a number of resistors,

31. While applying Norton’s theorem to DC the voltage across each resistor is ________
networks, the network is replaced by a a. The same for all resistors
a. voltage source in series with a resistance b. Is divided equally among all resistors
b. voltage source is parallel with a resistance c. Is divided proportionally across all resistors
c. current source in series with a resistance d. Is zero for all resistors
d. current source in parallel with a resistance Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 36. The currents entering in the three branches of a
32. Norton’s theorem is ________ Thevenin’s parallel circuit are 3A, 4A and 5A. What is the
theorem. current leaving it?
a. the same as a. 0 A
b. converse of
b. Insufficient data provided
c. cannot say
c. The largest one among the three values
d. none of these
d. 12 A
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct
37. KCL is based on the conservation of
about Norton’s theorem?
a. Energy
i. the value of the current source is the short
b. Charge
circuit current between the two terminals of
c. Momentum
the network
d. Speed
ii. Resistance is the equivalent resistance
Ans: (b)
measured between the terminals of the
network with all the energy. Sources are
38. KVL is based on the conservation of
replaced by their internal resistance. a. Energy

a. only i is correct b. Charge
b. only ii is correct c. Momentum
c. both i and ii are correct d. Speed
d. both i and ii are incorrect Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 39. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed
34. If two bulbs are connected in parallel and one path in a network is equal to
bulb blows out, what happens to the other bulb? a. Infinity
a) The other bulb blows out as well b. 1
b) The other bulb continues to glow with the c. 0
same brightness d. Always greater than 1
c) The other bulb glows with increased Ans: (c)
brightness 40. A closed path in any circuit which have more
d) The other bulb stops glowing than two meshes is called _________.
Ans: (b) a. Branch

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b. Node c. Unilateral
c. Loop d. All of these
d. all are correct Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 47. Transmission line is the example of
41. KCL is applied at a. Active element
a. node b. Unilateral element
b. mesh c. Bilateral elements
c. loop d. None of these
d. none of these Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) 48. The ideal voltage source has _______

42. KVL is applied at resistance.
a. Node a. Unity
b. Junction b. Zero
c. Loop c. Infinite
d. All of these d. None of these

Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
43. Active elements are those which 49. The ideal current source has _______ resistance.
a. Consume electrical energy a. Unity
b. Generates electrical energy b. Zero
c. Dissipates electrical energy c. Infinite
d. Shows linear relationship between voltage and d. None of these
current Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) 50. The real voltage source has ____________ but
44. Passive elements are those which finite internal resistance.
a. Consume electrical energy a. Small
b. Generates electrical energy b. Zero
c. stores electrical energy c. Large
d. both (A) & (C) d. None of these
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
45. Example of linear element is 51. The real current source has ____________ but
a. diode finite internal resistance.
b. BJT a. Small
c. Capacitor b. Zero
d. Op-amp c. Large
Ans: (c) d. None of these
46. _______________ elements obey Ohm’s law. Ans: (c)
a. Linear 52. Mesh analysis is the application of

b. Non-linear a. KCL

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b. KVL Ans: (c)

c. Faraday law Superposition theorem is not applicable for
d. Lenz’s law a. Voltage calculations
Ans: (b) b. Bilateral elements
53. Nodal analysis is the application of c. Passive elements
a. KCL d. Power calculations

Ans: (d)
b. KVL
58. Minimum source requirement for superposition
c. Faraday law
theorem is
d. Lenz’s law
a. One
Ans: (b)
b. Two
54. Superposition theorem is valid for _________
c. Three
a. Linear systems
d. Four
b. Non-linear systems
Ans: (b)
c. Both linear and non-linear systems
59. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to
d. Neither linear nor non-linear systems
a. Linear, non-linear and time variant responses
Ans: (a)
b. Linear,non-linear circuits
55. In superposition theorem, when we consider the
c. Linear & bilateral circuits
effect of one current source, all the other current
d. All of these
sources are ____________
Ans: (c)
a. Shorted
60. Using Thevenin’s theorem we convert the given
b. Opened
circuit into ____________ across the load
c. Removed
terminals.
d. Undisturbed
a. An ideal voltage source in series with
Ans: (b)
resistance
56. In superposition theorem, when we consider the
b. An ideal voltage source in parallel with
effect of one voltage source, all the other voltage
resistance
c. A real voltage source in series with
a. Shorted
resistance
b. Opened
d. A real voltage source in parallel with
c. Removed
resistance
d. Undisturbed
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
61. A star connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in
57. The superposition theorem applicable to
each branch, what will be the resistance of each
calculate
branch of its equivalent delta connection.
a. Voltage only
a. 1 Ω
b. Current only
b. 3 Ω
c. Both current and voltage
c. 5 Ω
d. Current, voltage and power
d. 4 Ω

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Ans: (c)
62. A delta connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in
each branch, find the resistance of each branch
of its equivalent star connection.
a. 1 Ω
b. 2 Ω
a. 0.5 A
c. 3 Ω
b. 1A
d. 4 Ω
c. 1.5A
Ans: (a)
d. 2A
63. While calculating the Thevenin’s resistance,
Ans: (c)
a. Only voltage sources are removed
67. The current i as shown in Fig. is
b. Only current sources are removed
c. All sources should be present in the circuit
d. All sources must be removed from the circuit
Ans: (d)
64. The value of Io in the circuit of Fig. a. 0A
b. 1A
c. 2A
d. 3A
Ans: (c)
a. 5A 68. The voltage v1 across 20 Ω is _______ as shown
b. 8A in Fig.
c. 3A
d. 2A
Ans: (d)
65. In the circuit shown in Fig., the voltage and
a. 1V
current source are ideal. The voltage (Vout)
b. 20V
across the current source, in volts is
c. 200V
d. 2V
Ans: (b)
69. The value of R if V = 4V in the circuit shown in
a. 10V Fig. will be ____
b. 0V
c. 20V
d. cannot determine
Ans: (c)
66. The value of ‘i’ as shown in Fig..

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a. 12Ω a) 4 kΩ
b. 16Ω b) 5 kΩ
c. 4.36Ω c) 8 kΩ
d. None of these d) 14 kΩ
Ans: (a) Ans: a
70. The voltages v1, v2 & v3 as shown in Fig.7 are 73. Value of i1, i2, and i3 in the circuit in Fig.
_______ are______
a. 24V, 12V, 10V

a. 11 A, 4 A, 1 A
b. 24V, 22V, 10V
b. 1A, 4A, 11A
c. 46V, 12V, 10V
c. 4A, 11A, 1A
d. 46V, 22V, 10V
d. 4A, 1A, 11A
Ans: d
Ans: a
71. The equivalent resistance across ‘a’ & ‘b’
74. The Thevenin resistance at terminals a and b is
is______ for the circuit
______ of Fig.
a. 25Ω
b. 20Ω
a. 3Ω
b. 11Ω
c. 5Ω
c. 5Ω d. 4Ω
d. None of these Ans: d
Ans: b
75. Continuation of Question 74. The Thevenin

72. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is: voltage across terminals a and b of the circuit is
a. 50 V
b. 40 V
c. 20 V
d. 10 V
Ans: b

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76. Which pair of circuits in Fig. 12 are equivalent? a. 3.857Ω

b. 2.857Ω
c. 3.214Ω
d. 4.214Ω
Ans: (a)
a. a and b
80. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the Norton’s
b. b and d
equivalent resistance as seen from terminals: b-c
c. a and c
is
d. c and d
Ans: (c)
77. Using superposition theorem, the value of i in the
circuit is
a. 3.857Ω
b. 2.857Ω
c. 3.214Ω
a. 2A d. 4.214Ω
b. 5A Ans: (c)
c. 3A 81. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the Norton
d. 7A equivalent resistance at terminals a-b is
Ans: (b)
78. The Thevenin equivalent resistance at terminals
a-b of the circuit is _______
a. 5Ω
b. 10Ω
a. 60Ω c. 0
b. 20Ω b. 10/3Ω
c. 120/7 Ω Ans: (d)
d. 28Ω
Ans: (d)
79. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the
Thevenin’s equivalent resistance as seen from
terminals: a-b is

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Unit-II
1. The unit of Power is c. Conductance
a. Henry d. Resistance
b. Farad Ans: (c)
c. Watt 8. The unit of the reactive power is
d. Ohm a. Watt
Ans: (c) b. KWh
2. The unit of Resistance is c. VAr
a. Henry d. Ohms
b. Farad Ans: (c)
c. Watt 9. The SI unit of the susceptance is
d. Ohm a. Ohms
Ans: (d) b. Siemens
3. Coulomb is the unit of c. VAr
a. Charge d. KWh
b. Current Ans: (b)
c. Resistance 10. Farad/meter is the unit of
d. Reactance a. Permitivity
Ans: (a) b. Retentivity
4. Impedance is denoted by c. Reluctance
a. Z d. Resistance
b. R Ans: (a)
c. KWh 11. Tesla is the unit of
d. P a. Magnetic Flux Density
Ans: (a) b. Magnetic Flux
5. Permeance is reciprocal of c. Magnetic intensity
a. Conductance d. Magnetic susceptance
b. Retentivity Ans: (a)
c. Reluctance 12. The unit of the Capacitive reactance is
d. Resistance a. Henry
Ans: (c) b. Farad
6. C/s may be the unit of a/an c. Watt
a. Electric Current d. Ohm
b. Energy Ans: (d)
c. Reluctance 13. The RMS value of clipped waveform is-
d. Resistance
7. Siemens is the unit of
a. Reluctance
b. Retentivity

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c. 45o
d. 30
a. 0.583 Vm V Ans: (b)
b. 1.622 Vm V 18. A current is represented by i = 100 sin (314t −
c. 0.936 Vm V 30°) A. The rms value of the current and the
d. 0 V frequency are, respectively
Ans: (a) a. 100 A and 314 Hz
14. The current through ammeter A2 and A3 in b. 100 A and 50 Hz
given figure are 110° A and 170° A c. 70.7 A and 314 Hz
respectively. The reading of the ammeter A1 is- d. 70.7 A and 50 Hz.
Ans: (d)
19. If form factor of a sinusoidal wave is 1.11, then
the form factor of a triangular wave will
a. also be 1.11
a. 140° A b. be less than 1.11
b. 1.73240° A c. be more than 1.11
c. 260° A d. None of above

Ans: (b)
d. 10° A
20. Two impedances Z1 = 4 + j4 Ω and Z2 = 4 − j4
Ans: (b)
Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent
15. What is the relationship between current (i) and
impedance is
voltage (v) in a circuit consisting of a capacitor
a. 8 + j8 Ω
in series with a resistor?
b. 4 + j0 Ω
a. i and v are in phase across the capacitor
c. 8 − j8 Ω
b. i leads v across the resistor
d. 8 + j0 Ω
c. v leads i across the capacitor
Ans: b
d. i and v are in phase across the resistor
21. Form factor of an AC wave indicates
Ans. (b)
a. Low sharp or steep the wave shape is
16. The elements in RCL series circuit are
b. Low flat the wave shape is
a. Resistance only
c. Low symmetrical the wave shape is
b. Inductance only
d. The degree of its conformity to sinusoidal
c. Capacitance only
form
d. Resistance, inductance and capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: (d)
22. If v = 200 V, a current of 10 A is flowing
17. The voltage and current in an AC circuit is
through a circuit. The power factor is 0.5
represented by v = Vm sin (ωt + 30°) and i =
lagging. The instantaneous value of the current
Im sin (ωt − 45°). The power factor angle of the
can be written as
circuit is
a. i = 10 sin 60° A
a. 15°
b. i = 10 sin (ωt − 30°) A
b. 75°

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c. i = 14.14 sin (ωt − 60°) A d. 141.4 V

d. i = 14.14 sin (ωt + 60°) A Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 27. The value of VC if the supply voltage is
23. The ratio of active power to apparent power is 10√2sin314t as shown in fig.
known as factor.
a. Demand
b. Load
c. Power
d. Form
Ans: (c) a. 10.414V
24. In given circuit the value of capacitor C that b. 6V
make I=0 is. c. 9.16V
d. 10.78V
Ans: (c)
28. The expression of i (t) as shown in fig
a. 10cost
b. 10sint
b. 10cos(t-900)
c. 10
a. 10F Ans: (a)
b. 20F 29. The voltage v(t)=12sin(60t+450) is applied to a
c. 30F 0.1H inductor. The steady-state current through
d. 40F the inductor will be

a. 2sin(60t-450)
Ans: 20F
b. 2sin(60t +1350)
25. What will be the phase angle between two
c. 1.2 sin(60t-450)
alternating waves of equal frequency, when one
d. 1.22sin(60t +1350)
wave attains maximum value the other is at zero
Ans: (a)
value?
30. The power absorbed by an impedance
a. 0°
Z = (30 - j70) Ω is ______, when the voltage
b. 45°
V = 120sin314t is applied across it.
c. 90
a. 480W
d. 180
b. 144W
Ans: (c)
c. 240W
26. The r.m.s value of half wave rectified sine wave
d. 37.24W
is 200 V. The r.m.s value of full wave rectified
Ans: (d)
AC. will be
31. 42. Voltage and current in a two element series
a. 100 V
circuit are expressed as:
b. 111 V
V = 100 sin(314t + 150) V
c. 282.8 V

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I = 10 sin(314t - 300) A. The elements are 36. Which of the following conditions is true for
a. R & L both series and parallel resonance?
b. R & C a. impedance is minimum
c. L & C b. power factor is unity
d. None of these c. power factor is zero
Ans: (a) d. power is low
32. In an ac circuit, the voltage is given as Ans: (b)
V(t)= 200sin314t and the current is given as 37. A series RLC circuit has R = 50 Ω, L = 50 μH
0
I(t) =10sin(314t - 30 )A. The active power will and C = 2 μF. The Q-factor of the circuit is
be a. 0.1
a. 2kW b. 1
b. 1kW c. 10
c. 1.732kW d. 2
d. 866W Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) 38. In a series resonant circuit, a change in supply
33. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to voltage will cause a change in
a. R/Z a. the current drawn,
b. Cosine of phase angle difference between b. the Q-factor of the circuit,
current and voltage c. the bandwidth of the circuit,
c. Ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I d. the resonant frequency as well
d. All above Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) 39. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel
34. Poor power factor circuit is
a. Overloads alternators, transformers and a. Zero
distribution lines b. 0.08 lagging
b. Results in more power losses in the c. 0.8 leading
electrical system d. Unity
c. Reduces load handling capability of Ans: (d)
electrical system 40. The resonant frequency in R-L-C series circuit
d. Results in all above is
Ans: (d) 2π
a. f0 =
√LC
35. Power factor of the system is kept high √LC
b. f0 =
a. To reduce line losses 2π
1
b. To maximize the utilization of the capacities c. f0 =
2π√LC
of generators, lines and transformers 1 L
d. f0 = √
c. To reduce voltage regulation of the line 2π C
d. Due to all above reasons Ans: (c)

Ans: (d) 41. The bandwidth of a series R-L-C circuit is
C
a.
2πL

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R a. inductive
b.
2πL
C b. resistive
c.
2πR
c. capacitive
L
d. d. none of these
2πR
Ans: (d) 48. In LCR circuit which one of the following

42. An R, L, C circuit is in series resonance at statement is correct?
frequency of f Hz. If the value of all the a. L and R oppose each other
components is doubled, the new frequency will b. R values increases with frequency
be c. the inductive reactance increases with
a. f/4 frequency
b. f/2 d. the capacitive reactance increases with
c. 2f frequency
d. remains unchanged 49. Q factor of a coil measured by the meter is
Ans. (b) __________ the actual Q of the coil.
43. A high Q coil has a a. equal to
a. high bandwidth b. somewhat lesser than
b. low power factor c. somewhat higher than
c. high losses d. twice
d. a flat responses 50. Current at resonance in a series circuit is
44. The phenomena of resonance is used in ________ and in a parallel circuit is _________
a. radio a. Minimum, maximum
b. capacitor b. Maximum, minimum
c. transformer c. Maximum, maximum
d. amplifier d. Minimum, minimum
45. In a series RLC circuit, the magnitude of
resonance frequency can be changed by
changing the value of 51. In RLC circuits, the electric current at
a. R only resonance is
b. L only a. Maximum in series circuit and minimum in
c. C only parallel circuit
d. L or C b. Maximum in parallel circuit and minimum
46. Q of a resonant transmission line is in series circuit
a. Q = L/R c. Maximum in both the circuits
b. Q = ωL/R d. Minimum in both the circuits
c. Q = ωR/L 52. Power factor of a parallel RLC circuit at
d. Q = ω/LR resonance is
47. For frequencies below the resonant frequency, a. Unity
a parallel LC circuit behaves as a _________ b. Zero
load. c. 0.0707 leading

STUDY ZONE
d. 0.707 lagging a. 180°

53. The electric current in an RLC series circuit at b. 120
resonance is c. 45°
a. Maximum d. 90°
b. Minimum Ans: (b)
c. Infinity 59. Three identical impedances are connected in
d. Zero delta to a three phase supply of 400V. The line
54. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency current is 34.65A and the total power taken
a. Series circuit is capacitive and parallel from the supply is 14.4kw. What is the
circuit is inductive resistance of each impedance
b. Series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit a. 20
is capacitive b. 16
c. Both circuits are inductive c. 12
d. Both circuits are capacitive d. 10
55. In an R-C-L series circuit, during resonance, the Ans: (c)
impedance will be 60. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three
a. Zero generated voltages is ______?
b. Minimum a. Infinite (∞)
c. Maximum b. Zero (0)
d. None of these c. One (1)
56. The parallel circuit consists of an inductive d. None of the above
branch with R and L as its resistance and Ans: (b)
inductance in parallel with capacitance branch
with C farad. The impedance offered by this
circuit under resonance condition is given by 61. For a three-phase delta connected load, fed
a. Z = LCR from a star connected network, the power
b. Z = R/LC transferred to the load is _____?
c. Z = L/CR
d. Z = LC/R
57. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is
10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive
power in the circuit is
a. 16 kVAR a. 3 kW
b. 8 kVAR b. 4.7 kW
c. 6 kVAR c. 5 kW
d. 4 kVAR d. 7 kW
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
58. In a three-phase system, the voltages are

separated by

STUDY ZONE
62. In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each 67. In the R-L-C containing R=4.5Ω , L=0.06H, C=
line current is 0.6F the power factor will be
a. Three times the corresponding phase current a. Zero
b. Equal to the corresponding phase current b. Lagging
c. Zero c. Leading
d. One-third the phase current d. Unity
Ans: b Ans: (c)
63. The expression for total power output of a 68. Three equal impedances having a resistance of
delta connected system in terms of phase 25Ω and 40Ω are connected in star to a 400 V,
voltage and current is given by 3-phase, 50Hz supply the line current is
a. 3VpIpcos∅ a. IL=2.5A
b. √3VpIpcos∅ b. IL=4.9A
Vp Ip cos∅ c. IL=0A
c.
√3
Vp Ip cos∅
d. None of above
d.
3 Ans: (b)
Ans: a
64. Which of following equation is valid for a 3-
phase 4- wire balanced star- connected load?
a. IR+IY+IB = IN = 0 69. Continuation of question no. 46, the power
b. IR+IY - IB = IN factor and power consumed, respectively
c. IR - IY+IB = IN a. 0.53(lag), 1800W
d. VR+VY+VB = IN b. 1, 1800W
Z
Ans: a c. 0.53(lag), 1000W
65. The relation between the line and phase voltage d. None of above
of a star connected circuit is given by Ans. (a)
a. VL=VP 70. Continuation of question no. 46: the phase
b. VL=√3VP current is-
c. VL=3VP a. 30A
d. VL= VP b. 20A
2 c. 17.32A
Ans: (b)
d. Cannot be determine
66. The relation between the line and phase current
Ans. (c)
of a delta connected circuit is given by
71. Continuation of question no. 46: the power
a. IL=√3IP
factor -
b. IL= IP
a. 0.677
c. IL=3IP
b. 0.577
d. IL= IP
2 c. 0.32
Ans: (a) d. 0.707
Ans. (b)

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72. A delta connected balanced 3-phase load is

supplied from a 33-phase, 400 V supply. The
line current is 30A and power taken by the load
is 12kW, the impedance per phase is-
a. 20Ω
b. 30Ω
c. 23.09Ω
d. 10Ω
Ans: (c)
73. When phase sequence at the 3-phase load is
reversed
a. Phase currents are change in magnitude
b. Phase currents change in phase angle but not
in magnitude
c. Total power consumed is changed
d. Phase powers are changed
Ans. (b)
74. How much r.m.s current does a 300 W, 200 V
bulb take from the 200 V, 50 Hz supply?
a. 0.5A
b. 1.5A
c. 2A
d. 3A
Ans. (b)
75. What will be the total power consumed when
three coils, each having a resistance of 10 ohms
and an impedance of 0.02 H, are connected in
star across a 440-V, 50-Hz, three-phase supply?
a. 10 kW
b. 13.88 kW
c. 21.51 kW
d. 25 kW
Ans. (b)

STUDY ZONE
Unit-III
1. The air gap is usually inserted in (a) Low hysteresis loss
magnetic circuit to (b) High permeability
(a) Increase m.m.f. (c) Low retentivity
(b) increase the flux (d) High retentivity
(c) prevent saturation Ans: d
(d) none of the above 7. Higher the self-inductence of a coil
Ans: c (a) Lesser its weber-turns
2. The relative permeability of the (b) Lower the induced e.m.f
ferromagnetic material is (c) Greater the flux produced by it
(a) Less than one (d) Longer the delay in establishing
(b) More than one steady state current through it
(c) More than 10 Ans: d
(d) More than 100 8. Reciprocal of reluctance is:
Ans: b (a) Reluctivity
3. The unit of magnetic flux is (b) Permeance
(a) Henry (c) Permeability
(b) Weber (d) Susceptibility
(c) Ampere turn/meter Ans: b
(d) Ampere/meter 9. Hysteresis loss least depends on:
Ans: b (a) Volume of material
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit (b) Frequency
corresponds to ………………. In an (c) Steinmetz’s coefficient of material
electric circuit. (d) Ambient temperature
(a) Resistance Ans: d
(b) Resistivity 10. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss
(c) Conductivity than an iron core because _____.
(d) Conductance (a) Ferrites have high resistance
Ans: c (b) Ferrites have high hysteresis
5. The magnetizing force (H) and magnetic (c) Ferrites have low permeability
flux density (B) are connected by the (d) Ferrites are magnetic
relation Ans: a
(a) B=µrH/µo 11. What is the use of Laminated cores, in
(b) B=µH electrical machines?
(c) B=H/µo µr (a) Copper loss
(d) B=µH/µr (b) Eddy current loss
Ans: b (c) Hysteresis loss
6. A material used for good magnetic (d) All of the above
memory should have Ans: b

STUDY ZONE
12. While comparing magnetic and electric (c) High, low

circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is (d) Low, low
compared with which parameter of Ans: c
electrical circuit? 18. In a magnetic circuit the hysteresis loss
(a) E.M.F. takes place due to
(b) Current (a) Rapid reversals of its magnetization
(c) Current density (b) Flux density lagging behind
(d) Conductivity magnetizing force
Ans: b (c) Molecular friction
13. What is the unit of reluctance? (d) It high retentivity
(a) Meter/Henry Ans: d
(b) Henry/meter 19. Which of the following losses will be
(c) Henry minimum for a single phase no load
(d) 1/Henry transformer?
Ans: d (a) Copper losses
14. Conductance is analogous to: (b) Hysteresis losses
(a) Permeance (c) Eddy current losses
(b) Reluctance (d) Mechanical losses
(c) Flux Ans: a
(d) Inductance 20. In order to minimize loss due to hysteresis
Ans: a , the magnetic material should have
15. The unit of retentivity is ___. (a) High resistivity
(a) Weber (b) Low hysteresis co-efficient
(b) Weber/sq. m (c) Large B-H loop area
(c) Ampere turn/meter (d) High retentivity
(d) Ampere turns Ans: a
Ans: b 21. The property of the magnetic material
16. The property of a material which opposes which opposes the creation of magnetic
the creation of magnetic flux in it is flux in it known as
known as Reluctance (a) reluctivity
(a) True (b) magnetomotive force
(b) False (c) permeance
Ans: a (d) reluctance
17. Those magnetic materials are best suited Ans: d
for making armature and transform cores 22. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines
which have ____ permeability and ____ because it has
hysteresis loss. (a) Low coercive
(a) High, high (b) Low retentivity
(b) Low, high (c) Low hysteresis loss

STUDY ZONE
(d) High coercive 28. Which of the following does not change
Ans: c in a transformer ?
23. At city substation, the AC is stepped down (a) Current
to............... (b) Voltage
(a) 120 V (c) Frequency
(b) 130 V (d) All of the above
(c) 220 V Ans: c
(d) 320 V 29. A transformer core is laminated to
Ans: c (a) reduce hysteresis loss
24. Efficiency of a transformer is of the order (b) reduce eddy current losses
of........... (c) reduce copper losses
(a) 100 percent (d) reduce all above losses
(b) 98 percent Ans: b
(c) 50 percent 30. The path of a magnetic flux in a
(d) 25 percent transformer should have
Ans: b (a) high resistance
25. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material (b) high reluctance
is large, the hysteresis loss in this material (c) low resistance
will be (d) low reluctance
(a) Zero Ans: d
(b) Small 31. No-load on a transformer is carried out to
(c) Large determine
(d) None of the above (a) copper loss
Ans: c (b) magnetising current
26. The transformer ratings are usually (c) magnetising current and loss
expressed in terms of (d) efficiency of the transformer
(a) Volts Ans: c
(b) Amperes 32. The efficiency of a transformer will be
(c) kW maximum when
(d) kVA (a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
Ans: d (b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
27. The main advantage of auto transformer (c) eddy current losses = copper losses
over a two winding transformer is (d) copper losses = iron losses
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced Ans: d
(b) Saving in winding material 33. The purpose of providing an iron core in a
(c) Copper losses are negligible transformer is to
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated (a) provide support to windings
Ans: b (b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic

STUDY ZONE
path 39. In a given transformer for given applied

(d) reduce eddy current losses voltage, losses which remain constant
Ans: c irrespective of load changes are
34. While conducting short-circuit test on a (a) friction and windage losses
transformer the following side is short (b) copper losses
circuited (c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(a) High voltage side (d) none of the above
(b) Low voltage side Ans: c
(c) Primary side 40. No-load current of a transformer has
(d) Secondary side (a) has high magnitude and low power
Ans: b factor
35. A transformer transforms (b) has high magnitude and high power
(a) voltage factor
(b) current (c) has small magnitude and high power
(c) power factor
(d) frequency (d) has small magnitude and low power
Ans: a factor
36. Primary winding of a transformer Ans: d
(a) is always a low voltage winding 41. If R2 is the resistance of secondary
winding of the transformer and K is the
(b) is always a high voltage winding
transformation ratio then the equivalent
(c) could either be a low voltage or high secondary resistance referred to primary
will be
voltage winding
(a) K2R2
(d) none of the above (b) R2
K
Ans: c
(c) R2
37. Which winding in a transformer has more (d) R2
K
number of turns ?
Ans: a
(a) Low voltage winding 42. Material used for construction of
(b) High voltage winding transformer core is usually
(c) Primary winding (a) wood
(d) Secondary winding (b) copper
Ans: b (c) aluminium
38. Efficiency of a ideal transformer is of the (d) silicon steel
order of Ans: d
(a) 100 per cent 43. Which of the following does not change in
(b) 98 per cent an ordinary transformer ?
(c) 50 per cent (a) Frequency
(d) 25 per cent (b) Voltage
Ans: a (c) Current

STUDY ZONE
(d) Any of the above 49. Which of the following is the main
Ans: a advantage of an auto-transformer over a
44. 65. The leakage flux in a transformer two winding transformer?
depends upon (a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(a) load current (b) Saving in winding material
(b) load current and voltage (c) Copper losses are negligible
(c) load current, voltage and frequency (d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and Ans: b
power factor 50. An ideal transformer is one which has
Ans: a (a) no losses and magnetic leakage
45. The path of the magnetic flux in (b) interleaved primary and secondary
transformer should have windings
(a) high reluctance (c) a common core for its primary and
(b) low reactance secondary windings
(c) high resistance (d) core of stainless steel and winding of
(d) low resistance pure copper metal
Ans: b (e) none of the above
46. The full-load copper loss of a transformer Ans: a
is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss 51. When a given transformer is run at its
will be rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
(a) 6400 W (a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) 1600 W (b) iron losses are reduced
(c) 800 W (c) core flux density is reduced
(d) 400 W (d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d Ans: d
47. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. 52. An ideal transformer will have maximum
equation of a transformer is efficiency at a load such that
(a) average value (a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) r.m.s. value (b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) maximum value (c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) instantaneous value (d) none of the above
Ans: c Ans: a
48. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly 53. If the supply frequency to the transformer
reduces is increased,” the iron loss will
(a) hysteresis loss (a) not change
(b) eddy current losses (b) decrease
(c) copper losses (c) increase
(d) all of the above (d) any of the above
Ans: d Ans: c

STUDY ZONE
54. If primary number of turns is higher then, d) 3 A

transformer is called _________ Ans. c
a) Step-down 58. Assuming an ideal transformer, The
b) Step-up Thevenin's equivalent voltage and
c) One-one impedance as seen from the terminals x
d) Autotransformer and y for the circuit in figure are
Ans: a
55. If a transformer is having equal number of
turns at primary and secondary then
transformer is called as _______________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up a) 2sinꙍt, 4Ω
c) One-one b) 1sinꙍt, 1Ω
d) Autotransformer c) 1sinꙍt, 4Ω
Ans: c
d) 2sinꙍt, 0.5Ω
56. Which of the following statements support
Ans: a
the ideal transformer features?
59. The low voltage winding of a 400/230V,
a. Zero winding resistance
1-phase, 50Hz transformer is to be
b. Zero leakage flux
connected to a 25Hz, the supply voltage
c. Constant core losses
should be
i. I, II
a) 230 V
ii. III
b) 460 V
iii. I, III
c) 115 V
iv. I, II, III
d) 65 V
Ans: a
Ans: c
57. A single-phase transformer has a turns
60. The laws of electromagnetic induction
ratio of 1:2 and is connected to a purely
(Faraday's and Lenz's law) are
resistive load as shown in the figure. The
summarized in the following equation:
magnetizing current as well as the load
a) e = iR
current drawn is 1 A. If the core losses and di
b) e = L
leakage reactance are neglected, the dt
d∅
primary current should be c) e = −N
dt
d) None of these
Ans: c
61. The efficiency of a 100 kVA transform is
0.98 at full as well as at half load. For this
a) 1.41 A transformer at full load the copper loss is
b) 2 A a) less than core loss
c) 2.24 A b) equal to core loss

STUDY ZONE
c) more than core loss

d) none of these Ans: b
Ans: c 64. A 300 kVA transformer
62. A single phase transformer has a has 95% efficiency at full load 0.8
maximum efficiency of 90% at full load pf lagging and 96% efficiency at half load,
and unity power factor. Efficiency at half unity pf. The iron loss (Pi) and copper loss
load at the same power factor is (Pc) in kW, under full load operation are
a) 86.7% a) Pc=4.12W, Pi= 8.51W
b) 88.26% b) Pc=8.51W, Pi= 4.12W
c) 88.9% c) Pc=6.59W, Pi= 9.21W
d) 87.8% d) Pc=12.72W, Pi= 3.07W
Ans: d Ans: b
63. Figure shows an ideal single-phase
transformer. The primary and secondary
coils are wound on the core as shown.
N1
Turns = 2 The correct phasors of
N2
voltages E1, E2 currents I1, I2 and core

flux ϕ are as shown in fig.
a)
b)
c)
d)

STUDY ZONE
Unit-IV
1. The induced e.m.f. in d.c. generator is 7. What will happen when the field of a DC shunt
proportional to: motor gets opened while the motor is running?
a. Field flux a) Continue to run at the same speed
b. Armature current b) Speed of motor will be reduced
c. Speed of armature c) The motor will attain dangerous high speed
d. all of these d) Armature current will be reduced
Ans: d 8. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule if the
2. Hoists, cranes and battery powered vehicles forefinger points in the direction of the field than
use _________ motors in the locomotive. the middle finger will point in the direction of
a) dc series a) Current in the conductor
b) dc shunt b) Resultant force on the conductor
c) induction c) Movement of the conductor
d) reluctance d) None of the above
3. Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use 9. Which of the following rule is used to
__________ determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
a) shunt as well as induction motor motor?
b) only shunt motors a) Columb’s Law
c) only induction motor b) Lenz’s Law
d) none of the mentioned c) Fleming’s Right-hand Rule
4. Which DC motor is preferred for Elevator? d) Fleming’s Left-hand Rule
a) Differentially compound motor 10. The speed of a d.c. motor is
b) Series motor a) Directly proportional to flux per pole
c) Shunt Motor b) Inversely proportional to flux per pole
d) Cumulative compound motor c) Inversely proportional to the applied voltage
5. Which DC motor is preferred for constant d) None of the above
speed? 11. The torque developed by a d.c motor is directly
a) Compound motor proportional to
b) Series motor a) Flux per pole × Armature current
c) Shunt motor b) Armature resistance × Applied voltage
d) Differential motor c) Armature Resistance × Armature current
6. Why is the speed of DC shunt motor d) Square of armature resistance
dependent on Back EMF? 12. An 8-pole dc machine has 800 lap wound
a) Because flux is proportional to the armature conductors. The flux per pole of the machine is
current 36mWb. If a no-load induced voltage of 280V is
b) Because armature drop is negligible required. What should be the speed of rotation of
c) Because Back EMF is equal to armature the machine?
current a) 843 rpm
d) Because flux is constant in DC shunt motor b) 2332 rpm

STUDY ZONE
c) 292 rpm 18. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt

d) 583 rpm generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
13. As the load is increased, the speed of a dc 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the
shunts motor: terminal voltage will be:
a) Increases proportionately a) 640 V
b) Remain constant b) 620 V
c) Increases slightly c) 600 V
d) None of these. d) 580 V
Ans: a Ans: d
14. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually 19. The load current and field current of a DC shunt
made of: generator are 50A and 5A respectively. Its
a) mica armature current will be:
b) copper a)50A
c) cast iron b) 55A
d) carbon c) 45A
Ans: b d) 40A
15. In lap winding, the number of parallel path is Ans: b
always: 20. A 200V DC Generator has a shunt field
a) Double the number of poles resistance of 200 Ω. Its field current is:
b) same as the number of poles a) 1A
c) half the number of poles b) 2A
d) two c) 3A
Ans: b d) 4A
16. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of: Ans: a
a) Carbon 21. The EMF generated in armature of a D.C.
b) soft copper Motor is called as:
c) hard copper a) Back emf
d) all of above b) Generated emf
Ans: a c) both a & b
17. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has d) None of these
generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases Ans: a
to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be 22. The current drawn by a 120V D.C. shunt motor
nearly: of Ra = 0.5Ω and back emf 110V is:
a) 150 V a) 20A
b) 175 V b) 24A
c) 240 V c) 22A
d) 290 V d) 5A
Ans: a Ans: a

STUDY ZONE
23. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor c) 4%

can be changed by: d) 2%
a) Interchanging supply terminals Ans: d
b) Interchanging field terminals 29. The slip of an induction motor normally does
c) either of (a) and (b) above not depend on
d) None of the above a) rotor speed
Ans: b b) synchronous speed
24. The equation for slip speed is ____________ c) shaft torque
Ns− Nr
a) d) core-loss component
Ns
b) Ns − Nr Ans: d
c) Nr
d) Ns 30. If any two phases for an induction motor are
Ans: b interchanged
25. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has
a) The motor will run in the reverse direction
4% slip. The frequency of rotor current will be:
b) The motor will continue to run in the same
a) 50 Hz
direction
b) 25 Hz
c) The motor will stop
c) 5 Hz
d) The motor will Burn
d) 2 Hz
Ans: a
Ans: d
31. An induction Motor is
26. The frame of an induction motor is usually
a) Self-starting with high torque
made of
b) Self-starting with zero torque
a) Silicon steel
c) Self-starting with low torque
b) Cast iron
d) Not self-starting
c) Aluminum
Ans: a
d) Bronze
32. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors
Ans: b
a) Rotor conductors are kept open
27. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full
b) Rotor conductor ends are short-circuited
load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles
through slip rings
in the motor is
c) Rotor conductors are short-circuited through
a) 2 pole
end rings
b) 4 pole
d) Rotor conductors are connected to the
c) 6 pole
insulation
d) 8 pole
Ans: c
Ans: b
33. At standstill condition the value of slip is
28. A three phase, 4 poles, 50 Hz induction motor
a) 0
has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. The full load
b) Infinity
slip will be
c) One
a) 3%
d) None of the above
b) 5%
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE
34. Rotor resistance speed control method is not Hz. Then the full load slip and the corresponding
applicable in speed.
a) Slip Ring induction motor a) 4% & 750
b) Squirrel cage induction motor b) 4% & 720
c) Synchronous motor c) 5% & 1000
d) None of the above d) 5% & 1500
Ans: b Ans: b
35. If the terminal voltage of an induction motor is 40. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs
decreased then current at a speed of 1470 r.p.m. speed. Then the
a) Decreased frequency of the induced e.m.f. in the rotor
b) Increased under this condition.
c) Remain same a) 1 Hz
d) None of the above b) 2 Hz
Ans: a c) 5 Hz
36. A 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at d) 6 Hz
1300 rpm. Find the speed of stator magnetic Ans: a
field with respect to the rotor? 41. A single-phase induction motor is:
a) 1500 rpm a) Inherently self-starting motor
b) 200 rpm b) Inherently self-starting with low torque
c) 1300 rpm c) Inherently not-self-starting motor
d) 3000 rpm d) none of these
Ans: b Ans: c
37. Induction motors have the advantage of 42. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch;
a) Less Maintenance a) Disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
b) Less cost b) Disconnects main winding of the motor
c) Simple in construction c) Reconnects the main winding the motor
d) All of the above d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: d Ans: a
38. If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator 43. In a split phase motor, the running winding
of a 3-phase induction motor is increased, then should have
synchronous speed a) High resistance and low inductance
a) Increased b) low resistance and high inductance
b) Decreased c) High resistance as well as high inductance
c) Remain unchanged d) low resistance as well as low inductance
d) None of the above Ans:b
Ans: a 44. Which of the following methods is used to start
39. An 8 pole, three phase induction motor is a synchronous motor ?
supplied from 50 Hz, a.c. supply. On full load, a) Damper winding
the frequency of induced EMF in the rotor is 2 b) Star-delta starter

STUDY ZONE
c) Damper winding in conjunction with star- 50. Which of the following law/rule can be used to
delta starter determine the direction of rotation of DC
d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit motor?
Ans: a a) Lenz's law
45. Synchronous motors are; b) Faraday's law
a) Not-self starting c) Coloumb's law
b) self-starting d) Fleming's left-hand rule
c) essentially self-starting Answer: (d)
d) None of the above 51. The power mentioned on the nameplate of an
Ans: a electric motor indicates
46. A synchronous motor will always stop when: a) the power drawn in kW
a) Supply voltage fluctuates b) the power drawn in kVA
b) load in motor varies c) the gross power
c) excitation winding gets disconnected d) the output power available at the shaft
d) Supply voltage frequency changes Answer: (d)
Ans: c 52. The speed of a DC motor can be varied by
47. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph varying
is drawn between: a) field current
a) Field current and armature current b) applied voltage
b) terminal voltage and load factor c) resistance in series with armature
c) Power factor and field current d) any of the above
d) armature current and power factor Answer: (d)
Ans: d 53. When the armature of a DC motor rotates, emf
48. Synchronous motor always runs at induced is
a) The synchronous speed a) self-induced emf
b) less than synchronous speed b) mutually induced emf
c) more than synchronous speed c) back emf
d) None of the above d) none of the above
Ans: a Answer: (c)
49. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be 54. Torque developed by a DC motor depends upon
easily confirmed that a particular motor is DC a) magnetic field
motor? b) length of the conductors
a) Frame c) number of conductors
b) Shaft d) all of above
c) Commutator Answer: (d)
d) Stator 55. Synchronous motor always runs at
Answer: (c) a) the synchronous speed
b) less than synchronous speed
c) more than synchronous speed

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d) none of above b) Voltage

Answer: (a) c) Speed
56. The working of synchronous motor is similar to d) None of the above
a) gear train arrangement Answer: (c)
b) transmission of mechanical power by shaft 61. Brushes of DC machines are made of
c) distribution transformer a) Carbon
d) turbine b) Soft copper
Answer: (b) c) Hard copper
57. Mostly, synchronous motors are of d) All of above
a) alternator type machines Answer: (a)
b) induction type machines 62. For a DC machines laboratory following type of
c) salient pole type machines DC supply will be suitable
d) smooth cylinderical type machines a) Rotary converter
b) Mercury arc rectifier
Answer: (c)
c) Induction motor DC generator set
58. In which of the following motors the stator and d) Synchronous motor DC generator set
rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed? Answer: (c)
a) Universal motor 63. The emf generated in a DC generator is directly
b) Synchronous motor proportional to
c) Induction motor a) Flux/pole
d) Reluctance motor b) Speed of armature
Answer: (b) c) Number of poles
59. When load is placed on 3-phase induction d) All of the above
motor its slip Answer: (b)
a) increases 64. A DC generator can be considered as
b) decreases a) Rectifier
c) remains constant b) Prime mover
d) does not depend on load c) Rotating amplifier
Answer:(a) d) Power pump
59. Capacitor start and run 1-phase IM is basically Answer: (c)
a 65. A DC generator works on the principle of
a) 1-ph induction motor a) Lenz's law
b) 2-ph induction motor b) Ohm's law
c) 1-ph reluctance induction motor c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
d) 3-ph induction motor d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Answer: (c)
60. In case of DC machines, mechanical losses are 66. A DC series motor is that which
primary function of a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire
a) Current and less turns

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b) has a poor torque

c) can be started easily without load
d) has almost constant speed
Answer: (a)
67. These days DC motors are widely used in
a) pumping sets
b) air compressors
c) electric traction
d) machine shops
Answer: (c)

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Unit-V
1. Fusing factor should be d) Tin
a) Equal to zero Ans: (b)
b) Less than now 7. H.R.C. fuses has
c) Equal to one a) High rating of current
d) More than one b) High rupturing capacity
Ans: (d) c) High resistance capacity
2. Fuse wire should possess d) None of these
a) High specific resistance and high melting Ans: (b)
point 8. Selection of fuse is based on
b) High specific resistance and low melting a) Steady load
point b) Fluctuating load
c) Low specific resistance and low melting c) a & b
point d) None of these
d) Low specific resistance and high melting Ans: (c)
point 9. Which among these are the main characteristics
Ans: (d) of a fuse element?
3. Fusing factor is defined as the ratio between a). Low melting point
a) Maximum fusing current and rated voltage b). High conductivity
b) Maximum fusing current and rated current c). Least deterioration due to oxidation
c) Minimum fusing current and rated current d). All of the above
d) Minimum fusing current and rated voltage Ans (d)
Ans: (c) 10. For a current upto 10A which material is used
4. Fuses can serve upto a current of as the fusing element?
a) 25 A a) Copper
b) 50 A b) Silver
c) 75 A c) Alloy of lead and tin
d) 100 A d) Zinc
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
5. Cut-off current in a fuse is the 11. What is fusing factor?
a) Maximum value actually reached a) The ratio of current rating of the fuse to the
b) R.m.s. value actually reached minimum fusing current.
c) Average value actually reached b) The ratio of minimum fusing current to the
d) None of these current rating of the fuse.
Ans: (a) c) The ratio of maximum fusing current to the
6. Best practicable material for a fuse wire is current rating of the fuse.
a) Aluminium d) The ratio of minimum fusing current to the
b) Copper voltage rating of the fuse
c) Iron Ans: (b)

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12. Fuse is a device which is used for d) two way switch

___________. Ans: (c)
a) protection 18. A circuit breaker is
b) amplification a) power factor correcting device
c) impedance matching b) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
d) none of above c) a waveform correcting device
Ans: (a) d) a current interrupting device.
13. Fuse is used in circuit for ________________. Ans: (d)
a) Equipment Safety 19. Which device can be used as switch and as well
b) Human Safety as protective device?
c) None of Above a) Triple pole iron clad switch
d) a & b are correct b) Intermediate switch
Ans: (d) c) Miniature circuit breaker
14. The melting point of Fuse element is d) Earth leakage circuit breaker
____________. Ans. (c)
a) low 20. ELCB stands for ......
b) medium a) Electrical Leakage Circuit Breaker
c) high b) Earth Leakage Current Breaker
d) all are correct c) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
Ans: (c) d) Electrical Line Circuit Breaker
21. Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) works
15. Fuse wire are always connected with on the principle of......
_________. a) Over load current
a) Phase b) Short circuit current
b) neutral c) Residual current
c) earth d) Neutral current
d) all are correct Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) 22. An ELCB must always be connected in the
16. The cheapest form of protection is circuit......
___________. a) Before energy meter
a) relay b) After energy meter
b) circuit breaker c) At the entry of supply to load after energy
c) fuse meter
d) switch d) Tail end of the installation
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
17. Miniature circuit breaker is a small 23. ELCBs are specially used to disconnect the
a) fuse supply under......
b) magnetic switch a) Short circuit condition
c) electromagnetic switch b) Ground fault condition

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c) Open circuit condition c). Simplified design earth fault protection

d) Over load condition d). All of the above
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
24. The expansion form of RCCB is ...... 30. The advantage of neutral earthing
a) Residual Current Circuit Breaker a). Safety of personnel
b) Residual Circuit Current Breaker b). Reduction of earth fault current
c) Residual Current Control Breaker c). Elemination of arcing ground
d) Residual Control Circuit Breaker d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
25. Expansion of MCCB is ...... 31. Ground resistance should be designed such that
a) Moulded Case Circuit Breaker a) Grounding resistance should be always zero
b) Main Case Circuit Breaker b) Grounding resistance should be as low as
c) Main Control Circuit Breaker possible
d) Main Current Circuit Breaker c) Grounding resistance should be as high as
Ans: (a) possible
26. What is the purpose of Earth Leakage Circuit d) All of the above
Breaker in building wiring installation? Ans. (b)
a) It protects the appliances from excess current 32. The earthing rod orientation in the pit should
b) It prevents the waste of electrical energy be:
consumption a) 45°
c) It establishes the supply voltage b) Horizontal
d) It protects the energy meter from short circuit c) Vertical
Ans: (b) d) 75°
27. The main disadvantage of ELCB is ...... Ans. (c)
a) Less reliable in operation 33. Moisture content in the soil _______ the earth
b) Not easy to install soil resistance.
c) Not easy to maintain a) increase
d) More costly b) decrease
Ans: (d) c) does not affect
28. Earthing is necessary to give protection against d) none of the above
a). Danger of electric shock Ans. (b)
b). Voltage fluctuation 34. Which of the following will damage when High
c). Overloading voltages originated due to Line to Ground faults
d). High temperature of the conductors in ungrounded system?
Ans: (a) a) Insulation damage
29. The advantage of neutral earthing is b) Conductors melt down
a). Freedom from persistent arcing grounds c) Will not have any effect
b). Over voltages due to lightning can be d) Fires
discharged to earth Ans. (a)

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35. The objective of earthing or grounding is ____. Ans. (a)

a). to provide as low resistance possible to the 41. In the cables, the location of fault is usually
ground found out by comparing
b). to provide as high resistance possible to the a) The resistance of the conductor
ground b) The inductance of conductors
c). to provide flow of positive, negative and c) The capacitances of insulated conductors
zero sequence currents d) All above parameters
d). None of the above Ans: (a)
Ans. (a) 42. A cable carrying alternating current has
36. Which type of earthing is used by transmission a) Hysteresis losses only
lines? b) Hysteresis and leakage losses only
a) Plate earthing c) Hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
b) Rod earthing d) Hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction
c) Strip earthing losses
d) All of the above Ans: (b)
Ans. (c) 43. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
37. What is earthing? a) Presence of moisture
a) connecting electrical machines to earth b) Working temperature
b) providing a connection to the ground c) Time of application of the voltage
c) connecting the electrical machines to source d) All of the above
d) providing a source of current Ans: (d)
Ans. (a) 44. Solid type cables are considered unreliable
38. The bedding on a cable consists of beyond 66 kV because
a) Hessian cloth a) Insulation may melt due to higher
b) Jute temperature
c) Any of the above b) Skin effect dominates on the conductor
d) None of the above c) Of corona loss between conductor and
Ans. (c) sheath material
39. _________ cables are used for 132 kV lines. d) There is a danger of breakdown of
a) High tension insulation due to the presence of voids
b) Super tension Answer: (d)
c) Extra high tension 45. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be
d) Extra super voltage avoided economically by the use of
Ans. (d) a) Inter-sheaths
40. High tension cables are generally used up to b) Insulating materials with different dielectric
a) 11 kV constants
b) 33 kV c) Both (a) and (b)
c) 66 kV d) None of the above
d) 132 kV Answer: (c)

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46. The bedding on a cable consists of b) Voltage rating

a) Hessian cloth c) Ampere hour rating
b) Jute d) None of the above
c) Any of the above Ans: (c)
d) None of the above 53. The storage battery generally used in electric
Answer: (c) power station is
47. Cables are used for 132 kV lines. a) Nickel-cadmium battery
a) High tension b) Zinc carbon battery
b) Super tension c) Lead-acid battery
c) Extra high tension d) None of the above
d) Extra super voltage Ans: (c)
Answer: (d) 54. Battery charging equipment is generally
48. PVC stands for installed
a) Polyvinyl chloride a) In well ventilated location
b) Post varnish conductor b) In clean and dry place
c) Pressed and varnished cloth c) As near as practical to the battery being
d) Positive voltage conductor charged
Answer: (a) d) In location having all above features
49. High tension cables are generally used up to Ans: (d)
a) 11 kV 55. What gets deposited on the plates of a
b) 33 kV discharged lead-acid battery?
c) 66 kV a) PbO2
d) 132 kV b) Pb2O4
Answer: (a) c) Pb
50. The insulating material for cables should d) PbSO4
a) Be acid proof Answer: (d)
b) Be non-inflammable 56. Which is the electrolyte used in Li-ion battery?
c) Be non-hygroscopic a) Lead dioxide
d) Have all above properties b) Lithium-based gel
Answer: (a) c) Sulfur dioxide
51. The insulating material for a cable should have d) Cobalt
a) Low cost Answer: (b)
b) High dielectric strength 57. Which of the following statement is true for the
c) High mechanical strength movement of electrons concerning the direction
d) All of the above of current?
Answer: (c) a) Same as the direction of current
52. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms b) Opposite direction of current
of c) Does not depend on the direction of current
a) Current rating d) No movement of electrons

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Answer: (b) b) Discharge rate is higher

58. Which is the material used to as anode in a c) Delivers large amount of power
lithium-ion battery? d) All of the above
a) Brass foil coated with graphite Answer: (d)
b) Aluminum foil coated with graphite 64. Number of cells connected in series provide a
c) Copper foil coated with graphite —–
d) Stainless steel coated with graphite a) High current carrying capacity
Answer: (b) b) Higher Voltage
59. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of c) Higher power
a lithium-ion battery? d) None of the above
a) Complex to manufacture Answer: (b)
b) Sophisticated chargers 65. Number of cells connected in parallel provide
c) More expensive a——-
d) High energy density a) High current carrying capacity
Answer: (d) b) Higher voltage
60. In Ideal case, the Charging current for 200Ah c) Higher power
battery would be ____ ? d) None of the above
a) 10 A Answer: (a)
b) 12 A 66. Active materials of a lead acid cell are
c) 15 A a) Spongy lead
d) 20 A b) Lead peroxide
Answer: (d). c) Dilute H2SO4
61. In Ideal case, the Charging Time for 200Ah d) All of the above
battery would be ______ ? Ans: (d)
a) 5 hours 67. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to
b) 10 hours a) Heavy charging
c) 15 hours b) Fast charging
d) 20 hours c) Trickle charging
Answer: (b) d) Incomplete charging
62. One (1) Ah = ________? Ans: (d)
a) 1C 68. During the charging of a lead acid cell
b) 1200C a) It's voltage increases
c) 2400C b) It gives out energy
d) 3600C c) It's cathode becomes dark chocolate brown
Answer: (d) in colour
63. Nickel-Cadmium batteries are preferred more d) Specific gravity of H2 SO4 decreases
than Lead-Acid batteries in military Ans: (a)
applications because——– 69. Which of the following statement is correct
a) Can be easily charged and discharged. about lead acid batteries

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a) it delivers current as soon as its components b) slightly increases with the increase in
are put together temperature
b) density of electrolyte increases while c) decreases with the increase in temperature
delivering current d) both (a) and (b)
c) it does not deliver current on putting its Answer: (d)
components together until it is supplied 75. A bulb has a power of 200W. What is the
electrical energy from external source energy dissipated by it in 5 minutes?
d) it has lead as positive plates a) 60J
Answer: (c) b) 1000J
70. During discharging of lead acid cells, the c) 60kJ
terminal voltage decreases with the decrease in d) 1kJ
a) temperature Answer:( c)
b) discharge rate 76. Which among the following is an expression
c) state of charge for energy?
d) none of these a) V2It
Answer: (b) b) V2Rt
71. In a lead acid battery, separators are provided to c) V2t/R
a) reduce internal resistance d) V2t2/R
b) facilitate flow of the current Answer: (c)
c) avoid internal short circuits 77. A 100 W bulb will consume how much energy
d) increase the energy efficiency when switched on for 10 hours:
Answer: (c) a) 0.1 kWh
72. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is b) 1 Wh
a) dust particles c) 1 kWh
b) iron d) 10 kWh
c) lead crystals Answer: (c)
d) sodium chloride 78. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-
Answer: (b) hour efficiency of a lead acid cell is
73. In a lead acid battery, excessive formation of a) just one.
lead sulphate occurs due to b) always greater than one.
a) idleness of battery for a long time c) always less than one.
b) low level of electrolyte d) none of the above.
c) persistent undercharging Ans: b
d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
74. The EMF of a lead acid battery
a) increases with the increase in specific gravity
of the electrolyte

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1. The total impedance of a series resonant circuit is___________________

a. Purely Inductive
b. Purely capacitive
c. Purely resistive
d. None of the above
2. A series LCR circuit is resonant at 150 kHz and has a Q of 50. The lower half power
frequency is ___________
a. 153 kHz
b. 148.5 kHz
c. 147.5 kHz
d. 200 kHz
3. A power triangle can provide information about___________

a. Power Factor
b. kVA
c. kVAR
d. All of these
4. The bandwidth of a series resonant circuit in which the half power points occurs at 150
kHz and 180 kHz is
a. 30 kHz
b. 115 kHz
c. 330 kHz
d. 15 kHz
5. An RLC series resonant circuit has a Q of 50 and source voltage of 5V. The voltage Vc
across the capacitor is_____________
a. 10 V
b. 250 V
c. 125 V
d. 500 V
6. A series RLC circuit has R= 5 Ω, L = 0.2 H and C= 50 µF. The applied voltage is 200 V.
The quality factor of the circuit at resonance is___________
a. 9.52
b. 18.72
c. 23.65
d. 12.65

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7. In Question 6, the bandwidth of series resonant circuit is _____________________

a. 3.98 Hz
b. 5.82 Hz
c. 19.25 Hz
d. 14.28 Hz
8. In Question 6, the upper half power frequency is_______________

a. 15.85 Hz
b. 52.32 Hz
c. 20.62 Hz
d. 28.28 Hz
9. An RLC series circuit has R= 2.5 Ω, C = 100µF and a variable inductance. The applied
voltage is 50 V at 800 rad/sec. The inductance is varied till voltage across resistance is
maximum. The value of inductance is________________
a. 0.012 H
b. 0.1 H
c. 0.0156 H
d. 0.1348 H
10. In Question 9, the current at half power points is

a. 20 A
b. 10 A
c. 30 A
d. 14.14 A
11. In an RL series AC circuit, XL = R. The Phase angle is ___________________________

a. 90o
b. 30o
c. 45o
d. Cannot be predicted
12. The current in a circuit is wattles if

a. Inductance in the circuit is zero
b. Resistance in the circuit is zero
c. Current is alternating
d. Resistance and Inductance are both zero

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13. In an AC series circuit, the inductive reactance is 20 Ω, the capacitive reactance is 60 Ω,

the resistance is 30 Ω and the current is 2 A. The impedance of the circuit
is____________
a. 50 Ω
b. 25 Ω
c. 12.5 Ω
d. 8.4 Ω
14. In a series RL circuit supplied with 50 V, the circuit current is measured as 100 mA with
a phase angle of 25o. What is the reactive power supplied to the circuit?
a. 4 VAR
b. 2.1 VAR
c. 3.2 VAR
d. 7.8 VAR
15. In the Question 14, what is the true power supplied to the circuit?
a. 9 W
b. 18 W
c. 4.5 W
d. 36.8 W
Answer
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. A

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14. B
15. C

UNIT 1
1. KCL is based on the conservation of 6. KVL is applied at
A. Energy A. Node
B. Charge B. Junction
C. Momentum C. Loop
D. Speed D. All of these
ANS: B ANS: C
2. KVL is based on the conservation of 7. Active elements are those which

A. Energy A. Consume electrical energy
B. Charge B. Generates electrical energy
C. Momentum C. Dissipates electrical energy
D. Speed D. Shows linear relationship between voltage and current
ANS: A ANS: B
3. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a 8. Passive elements are those which
network is equal to A. Consume electrical energy
A. Infinity B. Generates electrical energy
B. 1 C. stores electrical energy
C. 0 D. both (A) & (C)
D. Always greater than 1 ANS: D
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ANS: C
9. Example of linear element is

4. A closed path in any circuit which have more than two meshes A. diode
is called _________. B. BJT
A. Branch C. Capacitor
B. Node D. Op-amp
C. Loop ANS: C
D. all are correct
ANS: C 10. _______________ elements obey Ohm’s law.
A. Linear
5. KCL is applied at B. Non-linear
A. node C. Unilateral
B. mesh D. All of these
C. loop ANS: A
D. none of these
ANS: A
11. Transmission line is the example of 16. Mesh analysis is the application of
A. Active element A. KCL
B. Unilateral element B. KVL
C. Bilateral elements C. Faraday law
D. None of these D. Lenz’s law
ANS: C ANS: B
12. The ideal voltage source has _______ resistance. 17. Nodal analysis is the application of
A. Unity A. KCL
B. Zero B. KVL
C. Infinite C. Faraday law
D. None of these D. Lenz’s law
ANS: B ANS: A
13. The ideal current source has _______ resistance. 18. Superposition theorem is valid for _________
A. Unity A. Linear systems
B. Zero B. Non-linear systems
C. Infinite C. Both linear and non-linear systems
D. None of these D. Neither linear nor non-linear systems
ANS: C ANS: A
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14. The real voltage source has ____________ but finite internal 19. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one
resistance. current source, all the other current sources are ____________

A. Small A. Shorted
B. Zero B. Opened
C. Large C. Removed
D. None of these D. Undisturbed
ANS: A ANS: B
15. The real current source has ____________ but finite internal 20. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one
resistance. voltage source, all the other voltage sources are ____________
A. Small A. Shorted
B. Zero B. Opened
C. Large C. Removed
D. None of these D. Undisturbed
ANS: C ANS: A
21. The superposition theorem applicable to calculate 26. Using Norton’s theorem we convert the given circuit into
A. Voltage only ____________ across the load terminals.
B. Current only A. An ideal current source in series with resistance
C. Both current and voltage B. An ideal current source in parallel with resistance
D. Current, voltage and power C. A real current source in series with resistance
ANS: C D. A real current source in parallel with resistance
ANS: B
22. Superposition theorem is not applicable for
A. Voltage calculations 27. A star connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in each branch, what
B. Bilateral elements will be the resistance of each branch of its equivalent delta
C. Passive elements connection.
D. Power calculations A. 1 Ω
ANS: D B. 3 Ω
C. 9 Ω
23. Minimum source requirement for superposition theorem is D. 4 Ω
A. One ANS: C
B. Two
C. Three 28. A delta connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in each branch, find the
D. Four resistance of each branch of its equivalent star connection.
ANS: B A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
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24. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to C. 3 Ω

A. Linear,non-linear and time variant responses D. 4 Ω

B. Linear,non-linear circuits ANS: A
C. Linear & bilateral circuits
D. All of these 29. While calculating the Thevenin’s resistance,
ANS: C A. Only voltage sources are removed
B. Only current sources are removed
25. Using Thevenin’s theorem we convert the given circuit into C. All sources should be present in the circuit
____________ across the load terminals. D. All sources must be removed from the circuit
A. An ideal voltage source in series with resistance ANS: D
B. An ideal voltage source in parallel with resistance
C. A real voltage source in series with resistance 30. While calculating the Norton’s resistance,
D. A real voltage source in parallel with resistance A. Only voltage sources are removed
ANS: A B. Only current sources are removed
C. All sources should be present in the circuit
D. All sources must be removed from the circuit
ANS: D
31. The value of Io in the circuit of Fig. 1. 34. The current i as shown in Fig.4 is
Fig.4
a) 0A b) 1A c) 2A d) 3A
Fig.1 Ans: c
a) 5A b) 8A c) 3A d) 2A
Ans: d 35. The voltage v1 across 20 Ω is _______ as shown in Fig.5.
32. In the circuit shown in Fig.2, the voltage and current source are
ideal. The voltage (Vout) across the current source, in volts is
Fig.5
a) 1V b) 20V c) 200V d) 2V
Ans: b
Fig.2
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a) 10V b) 0V c) 20V d) cannot determine 36. The value of R if V = 4V in the circuit shown in Fig.6. will be ____
Ans: c

33. The value of ‘i’ as shown in Fig.3.
Fig.6
a) 12Ω b) 16Ω c) 4.36Ω d) None of these
Ans: a
Fig.3
a) 0.5 A b) 1A c) 1.5A d) 2A
Ans: c
37. The voltages v1, v2 & v3 as shown in Fig.7 are _______ 40. Value of i1, i2, and i3 in the circuit in Fig.10 are______
Fig.7
a) 24V, 12V, 10V b) 24V, 22V, 10V Fig.10
c) 46V, 12V, 10V d) 46V, 22V, 10V a) 11 A, 4 A, 1 A c) 1A, 4A, 11A
Ans: d b) 4A, 11A, 1A d) 4A, 1A, 11A
Ans: a
38. The equivalent resistance across ‘a’ & ‘b’ is______ for the circuit
in Fig.8. 41. The Thevenin resistance at terminals a and b is ______ of Fig.11
STUDY ZONE
Fig.11
a) 25Ω b) 20Ω c) 5Ω d) 4Ω

Fig.8 Ans: d
a) 3Ω b) 11Ω c) 5Ω d) None of these 42. The Thevenin voltage across terminals a and b of the circuit in
Ans: b Fig.11 is:
a) 50 V b) 40 V c) 20 V d) 10 V
39. The equivalent resistance of the circuit in Fig.9 is: Ans: b
43. Which pair of circuits in Fig. 12 are equivalent?
Fig.9 Fig.12
a) 4 kΩ b) 5 kΩ c) 8 kΩ d) 14 kΩ a) a and b b) b and d c) a and c d) c and d
Ans: a Ans: c
47. For the circuit in Fig.15, the Norton’s equivalent resistance as seen from
44. Using superposition theorem, the value of i in the circuit of Fig.13 terminals: b-c is
is a) 3.857Ω b) 2.857Ω c) 3.214Ω d) 4.214Ω
Ans: c
Fig.13
48. For the circuit in Fig.16, the Norton equivalent resistance at terminals a-
b is
a) 2A b) 5A c) 3A d) 7A
Ans: b
45. The Thevenin equivalent resistance at terminals a-b of the circuit in

Fig.14.is _______
Fig.14 Fig.16
STUDY ZONE
a) 60Ω b) 20Ω c) 120/7 Ω d) 28Ω a) 5Ω b) 10Ω c) 0 d)10/3Ω

Ans: d Ans: d

46. For the circuit in Fig.15, the Thevenin’s equivalent resistance as
seen from terminals: a-b is
Fig.15
a) 3.857Ω b) 2.857Ω c) 3.214Ω d) 4.214Ω
Ans: a
STUDY ZONE
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Unit -2
1. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit is 6. A series RLC circuit has R = 50 Ω, L = 50 μH and C = 2 μF. The
a. Zero Q-factor of the circuit is
b. 0.8 lagging a. 0.1
c. 0.8 leading b. 1
d. Unity Ans: d c. 10
d. 2 Ans: a
2. The voltage and current in an AC circuit is represented by v =
Vm sin (ωt + 30°) and i = Im sin (ωt − 45°). The power factor angle 7. In a series resonant circuit, a change in supply voltage will cause a
of the circuit is change in
a. 15° a. the current drawn,
b. 75° b. the Q-factor of the circuit,
c. 45o c. the bandwidth of the circuit,
d. 30° Ans:b d. the resonant frequency as well Ans: a
3. A current is represented by i = 100 sin (314t − 30°) A. The rms 8. Which of the following conditions is true for both series and
value of the current and the frequency are, respectively parallel resonance?
a. 100 A and 314 Hz a. impedance is minimum
b. 100 A and 50 Hz b. power factor is unity
c. 70.7 A and 314 Hz c. power factor is zero
STUDY ZONE
d. current is minimum
d. 70.7 A and 50 Hz.
Ans: b
Ans: d

9. Two impedances Z1 = 4 + j4 Ω and Z2 = 4 − j4 Ω are connected in
4. A current of 10 A is flowing through a circuit. The power factor is
parallel. Their equivalent impedance is
0.5 lagging. The instantaneous value of the current can be written as
a. 8 + j8 Ω
a. i = 10 sin 60° A
b. 4 + j0 Ω
b. i = 10 sin (ωt − 30°) A c. 8 − j8 Ω
c. i = 14.14 sin (ωt − 60°) A d. 8 + j0 Ω Ans: b
d. i = 14.14 sin (ωt + 60°) A Ans: c
10. Form factor of an AC wave indicates
5. Form factor is defined as ratio of a. Low sharp or steep the wave shape is
a. Active power to the total power b. Low flat the wave shape is
b. RMS value to maximum value c. Low symmetrical the wave shape is
c. Average value to maximum value d. The degree of its conformity to sinusoidal form Ans: a
d. RMS value to average value Ans: d
11. A current of 10 A is flowing through a circuit. The power factor is b. Results in more power losses in the electrical system
0.5 lagging. The instantaneous value of the current can be written as c. Reduces load handling capability of electrical system
a. i = 10 sin 60° A d. Results in all above Ans: d
b. i = 10 sin (ωt − 30°) A
c. i = 14.14 sin (ωt − 60°) A
d. i = 14.14 sin (ωt + 60°) A Ans: c 17. Power factor of the system is kept high
a. To reduce line losses
12. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor. b. To maximize the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines
a. peak and transformers
b. Load c. To reduce voltage regulation of the line
c. Power d. Due to all above reasons Ans: d
d. Form Ans: c
18. The resonant frequency in R-L-C series circuit is
13. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of π
a. f =
equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other √
√
is at zero value?
π
b. f =
a. 0°
π√
c. f =
b. 45°
c. 900 Ans:c
π
d. f =
d. 1800 Ans: c
STUDY ZONE
19. The bandwidth of a series R-L-C circuit is

14. The r.m.s value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The a. π
r.m.s value of full wave rectified AC. will be

a. 100 V b. π
b. 111 V
c.
c. 282.8 V π
d. 141.4 V Ans: c d. Ans: d
π
15. Power factor of an electrical circuit is defined as

a. R/Z 20. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active
b. Cosine of phase angle difference between current and voltage power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
c. Ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I a. 16 kVAR
d. All above Ans: d b. 8 kVAR
c. 6 kVAR
16. Poor power factor d. 4 kVAR Ans:c
a. Overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
21. In a balanced three-phase system, the voltages are separated by b. Equal to the corresponding phase current
a. 180° c. Zero
b. 1200 d. One-third the phase current
c. 45° Ans: b
d. 90° Ans:b
26. The expression for total power output of a delta connected
22. Three identical impedances are connected in delta to a three phase system in terms of phase voltage and current is given by
supply of 400V. The line current is 34.65A and the total power
a. 3VpIpcos∅
taken from the supply is 14.4kw. What is the resistance of each
impedance b. √3VpIpcos∅
∅
a. 20 c.
√
b. 16 ∅
c. 12 d. Ans: a
d. 10 Ans: c
27. Which of following equation is valid for a 3-phase 4- wire balanced
23. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages star- connected load?
is ___ a. IR+IY+IB = IN = 0
a. Infinite (∞) b. IR+IY - IB = IN
b. Zero (0) c. IR - IY+IB = IN
c. One (1) d. VR+VY+VB = IN Ans: a
Ans: b
STUDY ZONE
d. None of the above Z

24. In given circuit the value of capacitor C that make I=0 is.

28. The current through ammeter A2 and A3 in given figure are 1∠10°
A and 1∠70° A respectively. The reading of the ammeter A1 is-
a. 10µF
b. 20µF
c. 30µF a. 1∠40° A
d. 40µF Ans: b b. 1.732∠40° A
c. 2∠60° A
25. In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each line current is d. 1∠0° A Ans:b
a. Three times the corresponding phase current
29. The relation between the line and phase voltage of a star connected 34. In a series RC circuit, the power factor will be
circuit is given by a. Zero
a. VL=VP b. Unity
b. VL=√3VP c. Lagging
c. VL=3VP d. Leading Ans: d
d. VL= Ans: b
35. In a series RL circuit, the power factor will be
a. Zero
30. The relation between the line and phase current of a delta connected
b. Unity
circuit is given by
c. Lagging
a. IL=√3IP
d. Leading Ans: c
b. IL= IP
c. IL=3IP
36. An ac is given as i = 20sin314t amp. The average value of current
d. IL= Ans: a is____
a) 20A
31. A delta connected balanced 3-phase load is supplied from a 33- b) 14.14A
phase, 400 V supply. The line current is 30A and power taken by c) 12.73A
the load is 12kW, the impedance per phase is- d) 28.28A
a. 20Ω Ans: c
b. 30Ω
STUDY ZONE
c. 23.09Ω 37. If VL< VC as shown in Fig.17, the value of VL is

d. 10Ω Ans. c

32. When phase sequence at the 3-phase load is reversed
a. Phase currents are change in magnitude
b. Phase currents change in phase angle but not in magnitude
c. Total power consumed is changed
d. Phase powers are changed Fig.17
Ans. b a) 0V
b) 86.6V
33. How much r.m.s current does a 300 W, 200 V bulb take from the c) 136.6V
200 V, 50 Hz supply? d) 36.6V
a. 0.5A Ans: d
b. 1.5A
c. 2A
d. 3A Ans. b
38. The expression of i (t) as shown in Fig18 is 43. In an ac circuit, the voltage is given as V(t)= 200sin314t and the
current is given as I(t) =10sin(314t - 300)A. The active power will
be
a) 2kW b) 1kW c)1.732kW d) 866W
Ans: d
44. For a three-phase delta connected load, fed from a star connected
Fig.18 network, as shown in Fig.20 the power transferred to the load is
a) 10cost b) 10sint c)10cos(t-900) d) 10 _____?
Ans: a
39. The value of VC if the supply voltage is 10√2sin314t as shown in

Fig.19
Fig.20
a) 3 kW b)4.7 kW c)5 kW d)7 kW
Fig.19
a) 10.414v b) 6v c) 9.16v d) 10.78v Ans: b
STUDY ZONE
Ans: c
40. The voltage v(t)=12sin(60t+450) is applied to a 0.1H inductor. The

steady-state current through the inductor will be
a) 2sin(60t-450) c)2sin(60t +1350)
0
b) 1.2 sin(60t-45 ) d)1.22sin(60t +1350)
Ans: a
41. The power absorbed by an impedance Z = (30 - j70) Ω is ______,

when the voltage V = 120sin314t is applied across it.
a) 480W b) 144W c) 240W d)37.24W
Ans: d
42. Voltage and current in a two element series circuit are expressed as:
V = 100 sin(314t + 150) v & I = 10 sin((314t - 300) amp. The elements are
a) R & L b) R & C c) L & C d) None of these
Ans: a
UNIT - 3
1. The air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuit to 6. A material used for good magnetic memory should have
(a) Increase m.m.f. (a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) increase the flux (b) High permeability
(c) prevent saturation (c) Low retentivity
(d) none of the above Ans: c (d) High retentivity Ans: b
2. The relative permeability of the ferromagnetic material is 7. Higher the self-inductance of a coil
(a) Less than one (a) Lesser its weber-turns
(b) More than one (b) Lower the induced e.m.f
(c) More than 10 (c) Greater the flux produced by it
(d) More than 100 Ans: d (d) Longer the delay in establishing steady state current through it
Ans: d
3. The unit of magnetic flux is 8. Reciprocal of reluctance is:
(a) Henry (a) Reluctivity
(b) Weber (b) Permeance
(c) Ampere turn/meter (c) Permeability
(d) Ampere/meter Ans: b (d) Susceptibility Ans: b
STUDY ZONE
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to ………………. in

9. Hysteresis loss least depends on:
an electric circuit. (a) Volume of material
(a) Resistance (b) Frequency
(b) Resistivity (c) Steinmetz’s coefficient of material
(c) Conductivity (d) Ambient temperature Ans: d
(d) Conductance Ans: c
10. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
5. The magnetizing force (H) and magnetic flux density (B) are (a) Ferrites have high resistance
connected by the relation (b) Ferrites have high hysteresis
(a) B=µ rH/µ o (c) Ferrites have low permeability
(b) B=µH (d) Ferrites are magnetic Ans: d
(c) B=H/µ o µ r
(d) B=µH/µ r Ans: b
11. What is the use of laminated cores, in electrical machines? (a) Reluctance
(a) To reduce copper loss (b) Permeance
(b) To reduce eddy current loss (c) Inductance
(c) To reduce hysteresis loss (d) None of these Ans: a
(d) All of the above Ans: b
17. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and
12. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic transform cores which have ____ permeability and ____ hysteresis
circuit is compared with which parameter of electrical circuit? loss.
(a) E.M.F. (a) High, high
(b) Current (b) Low, high
(c) Current density (c) High, low
(d) Conductivity Ans: b (d) Low, low Ans: c
13. What is the unit of reluctance? 18. In a magnetic circuit the hysteresis loss takes place due to
(a) Meter/Henry (a) Rapid reversals of its magnetization
(b) Henry/meter (b) Flux density lagging behind magnetizing force
(c) Henry (c) Molecular friction
(d) 1/Henry Ans: d (d) It high retentivity Ans: d
STUDY ZONE
14. Conductance is analogous to: 19. Which of the following losses will be minimum for a single phase

(a) Permeance transformer on no load?
(b) Reluctance (a) Copper losses
(c) Flux (b) Hysteresis losses
(d) Inductance Ans: a (c) Eddy current losses
(d) Mechanical losses Ans: a
15. The unit of retentivity is ___.
(a) Weber 20. In order to minimize loss due to hysteresis , the magnetic material
(b) Weber/sq. m should have
(c) Ampere turn/meter (a) High resistivity
(d) Ampere turns Ans: b (b) Low hysteresis co-efficient
(c) Large B-H loop area
16. The property of a material which opposes the flow of magnetic flux (d) High retentivity Ans: b
in it is known as
21. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has 26. Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
(a) Low co-ercivity (a) Hysteresis loss
(b) Low retentivity (b) Copper loss
(c) Low hysteresis loss (c) Core loss
(d) High co-ercivity Ans: c (d) Eddy current loss Ans: b
22. At city substation, the AC is stepped down to............... 27. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of
(a) 120 V (a) Volts
(b) 130 V (b) Amperes
(c) 220 V (c) kW
(d) 320 V Ans: c (d) kVA Ans: d
23. Efficiency of a transformer is of the order of........... 28. The main advantage of auto transformer over a two winding
(a) 100 percent transformer is
(b) Above 90% (a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(c) 70 -80% (b) Saving in winding material
(d) 80-90% Ans: b (c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated Ans: b
24. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss
STUDY ZONE
in this material will be 29. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable in the

(a) Zero material for transformer core?
(b) Small (a) Mechanical strength
(c) Large (b) Low hysteresis loss
(d) None of the above Ans: c (c) High thermal conductivity
(e) High permeability Ans: c
25. Open circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
(a) Hysteresis loss 30. A transformer transforms
(b) Copper loss (a) frequency
(c) Core loss (b) voltage
(d) Eddy current loss Ans: c (c) Current
(d) voltage and current Ans: d
31. In an ideal transformer (c) eliminate magnetic hysteresis
(a) windings have no resistance (d) decrease reluctance of the common magnetic path Ans: d
(b) core has no losses
(c) core has infinite permeability 37. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW because
(d) all of the above Ans: d (a) load power factor is often not known
(b) KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load power factor
32. The frequency of the secondary voltage of a transformer will be..... (c) Total transformer loss depends on volt ampere
(a) less than frequency of the primary voltage (d) It has become customary Ans: c
(b) equal to the primary voltage
(c) greater than the frequency of the primary voltage 38. In a two winding transformer, the primary and secondary induced
(d) much greater than the frequency of the primary voltage emf E1 & E2 are always
Ans: b (a) equal in magnitude
33. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when (b) anti phase with each other
(a) It runs at half full load (c) in phase with each other
(b) it runs at full load (d) determined by load on transformer secondary Ans: c
(c) its Cu loss equal iron loss
(d) it runs over load Ans: c 39. In a two winding transformer, the emf /turn in secondary winding is
always......the induced emf per turn in primary
34. A step-up transformer increases (a) equal to k times
STUDY ZONE
(a) voltage (b) equal to 1/k times

(b) current (c) equal
(c) power (d) greater than Ans: c
(d) frequency Ans: a
40. In an auto-transformer the primary and secondary windings are
35. The transformer core is laminated to connected
(a) Reduce the copper losses (a) Electrically
(b) Reduce the core losses (b) Magnetically
(c) Reduce the eddy current losses (c) Electrically as well as magnetically
(d) None of the above Ans: c (d) None of these Ans: c
36. The main purpose of using steel core in a transformer is to

(a) Decrease iron losses
(b) prevent eddy current loss
Unit-4
Q9: A 200V DC Generator has a shunt field resistance of 200ohms. Its field
Q1: The induced e.m.f. in d.c. generator is proportional to: current is:
(a) Field flux (b) Armature current (c) Speed of armature (a) 1A (b) 2A (c) 3A (d) 4A
(d) all of these Ans: d Ans: a
Q2: As the load is increased, the speed of a dc shunts motor: Q10: The EMF generated in armature of a D.C. Motor is called as:
(a) Increases proportionately (b) Remain constant (a) Back emf (b) Generated emf (c) both a & b (d) None of these
(c ) Increases slightly (d) None of these. Ans: a Ans: a
Q11: The current drawn by a 120V D.C. shunt motor of Ra 0.5Ω and back
Q3: The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of:
emf 110V is:
(a) mica (b) copper (c) cast iron (d) carbon
(a) 20A (b) 24A (c) 22A (d) 5A
Ans: b
Q4: In lap winding, the number of parallel path is always: Ans: a
Q12. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by:
(a) Double the number of poles (b) same as the number of poles
(a) interchanging supply terminals (b) interchanging field terminals
(c) half the number of poles (d) two Ans: b
(c) either of (a) and (b) above (d) None of the above
Ans: b
Q5: Brushes of D.C. machines are made of:
(a) Carbon (b) soft copper (c) hard copper (d) all of above Q13: A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of
Ans: a rotor current will be:
STUDY ZONE
(a) 50 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 5 Hz (d) 2 Hz

Q6: A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. Ans: d

If the speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly:
(a) 150 V (b) 175 V (c) 240 V (d) 290 V Q14: The frame of an induction motor is usually made of
Ans: a (a) Silicon steel (b) Cast iron (c) Aluminum (d) Bronze
Ans: b
Q7: The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The
Q15: A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m.
armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal
The number of poles in the motor is
voltage will be:
(a) 2 pole (b) 4 pole (c) 6 pole (d) 8 pole
(a) 640 V (b) 620 V (c) 600 V (d) 580 V
Ans: b
Ans: d
Q16: A three phase, 4 poles, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of
Q8: The load current and field current of a DC shunt generator are 50A and 1440 rpm. The full load slip will be
5A respectively. Its armature current will be: (a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 4% (d) 2%
(a)50A (b) 55A (c) 45A (d) 40A Ans: d
Ans: b
Q17: If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged Q24: Induction motors have the advantage of
(a) The motor will run in the reverse direction (a) Less Maintenance (b) Less cost (c) Simple in construction
(b) The motor will continue to run in the same direction (d) All of the above Ans: d
(c) The motor will stop
(d) The motor will Burn Ans: a Q25: If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator of a 3-phase induction
motor is increased, then synchronous speed
Q18: An induction Motor is (a) Increased (b) Decreased (c) Remain unchanged
(a) Self-starting with high torque (b) Self-starting with zero torque (d) None of the above Ans: a
(c) Self-starting with low torque (d) Not self-starting
Ans: a Q26: An 8 pole, three phase induction motor is supplied from 50 Hz, a.c.
supply. On full load, the frequency of induced EMF in the rotor is 2 Hz.
Q19: In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors Then the full load slip and the corresponding speed.
(a) Rotor conductors are kept open (a) 4% & 750 (b) 4% & 720 (c) 5% & 1000
(b) Rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings (d) 5% & 1500 Ans: b
(c) Rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(d) Rotor conductors are connected to the insulation Q27: A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 1470 r.p.m.
Ans: c speed. Then the frequency of the induced e.m.f. in the rotor under this
condition. (a) 1 Hz (b) 2 Hz (c) 5 Hz (d) 6 Hz
Q20: At standstill condition the value of slip is Ans: a
(a) 0 (b) Infinity (c) One (d) None of the above
Ans: c Q28: A single-phase induction motor is:
(a) Inherently self-starting motor
STUDY ZONE
Q21: Rotor resistance speed control method is not applicable in (b) Inherently self-starting with low torque
(a) Slip Ring induction motor (b) Squirrel cage induction motor (c) Inherently not-self-starting motor

(c) Synchronous motor (d) None of the above (d) none of these Ans: c
Ans: b Q29: In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch;
(a) Disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
Q22: If the terminal voltage of an induction motor is decreased then current
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Remain same
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) None of the above Ans: a (d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor Ans: a
Q23: A 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at 1300 rpm. Find the speed
of stator magnetic field with respect to the rotor?
Q32: In a split phase motor, the running winding should have
(a) 1500 rpm (b) 200 rpm (c) 1300 rpm (d) 3000 rpm (a) High resistance and low inductance
Ans: b (b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) High resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductance Ans:b
Q33: Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding (b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: a
Q34: Synchronous motors are;

(a) Not-self starting (b) self-starting (c) essentially self-starting
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Q35: A synchronous motor will always stop when:

(a) Supply voltage fluctuates (b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) Supply voltage frequency changes
Ans: c
Q36: For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between:
(a) Field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) Power factor and field current
STUDY ZONE
(d) armature current and power factor Ans: d

Q37: Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) The synchronous speed (b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed (d) None of the above
Ans: a
Ans: b
Unit 5 6. Best practicable material for a fuse wire is
1.Fusing factor should be a) Aluminium
a) Equal to zero b) Copper
b) Less than now c) Iron
c) Equal to one d) Tin
d) More than one Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)
7. H.R.C. fuses has
2. Fuse wire should possess a) High rating of current
a) High specific resistance and high melting point b) High rupturing capacity
b) High specific resistance and low melting point c) High resistance capacity
c) Low specific resistance and low melting point d) None of these
d) Low specific resistance and high melting point Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)
8. Selection of fuse is based on
3. Fusing factor is defined as the ratio between a) Steady load
a) Maximum fusing current and rated voltage b) Fluctuating load
b) Maximum fusing current and rated current c) A & b
c) Minimum fusing current and rated current d) None of these
d) Minimum fusing current and rated voltage Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
STUDY ZONE
9. Which among these are the main characteristics of a fuse element?

4.. Fuses can serve upto a current of a). Low melting point

a) 25 A b). High conductivity
b) 50 A c). Least deterioration due to oxidation
c) 75 A d). All of the above
d) 100 A Ans (d)
Ans: (d)
10.For a current upto 10A which material is used as the fusing element?
5. Cut-off current in a fuse is the a. Copper
a) Maximum value actually reached b. Silver
b) R.m.s. value actually reached c. Alloy of lead and tin
c) Average value actually reached d. Zinc
d) None of these Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
11. What is fusing factor? 16. The cheapest form of protection is ___________.
a. The ratio of current rating of the fuse to the minimum fusing current. a) relay
b. The ratio of minimum fusing current to the current rating of the fuse. b) circuit breaker
c. The ratio of maximum fusing current to the current rating of the fuse. c) fuse
d. The ratio of minimum fusing current to the voltage rating of the fuse d) switch
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
12. Fuse is a device which is used for ___________. 17. Miniature circuit breaker is a small
a) protection a) fuse
b) amplification b) magnetic switch
c) impedance matching c) electromagnetic switch
d) none of above d) two way switch
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
13. Fuse are used in circuit for ________________. 18. A circuit breaker is
a) Equipment Safety a) power factor correcting device
b) Human Safety b) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
c) None of Above c) a waveform correcting device
d) a & b are correct d) a current interrupting device.
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
STUDY ZONE
14. The melting point of Fuse element is ____________. 19. Which device can be used as switch and as well as protective device?
a) low (a) Triple pole iron clad switch

b) medium (b) Intermediate switch
c) high (c) Miniature circuit breaker
d) all are correct (d) Earth leakage circuit breaker
Ans: (c) Ans. (c)
15. Fuse wire are always connected with _________. 20. ELCB stands for ......
a) Phase (a) Electrical Leakage Circuit Breaker
b) neutral (b) Earth Leakage Current Breaker
c) earth (c) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
d) all are correct (d) Electrical Line Circuit Breaker
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
21. Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) works on the principle of ...... 26. What is the purpose of Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker in building wiring
(a) Over load current installation?
(b) Short circuit current (a) It protects the appliances from excess current
(c) Residual current (b) It prevents the waste of electrical energy consumption
(d) Neutral current (c) It establishes the supply voltage
Ans: (c) (d) It protects the energy meter from short circuit
Ans: (b)
22. An ELCB must always be connected in the circuit ......
(a) Before energy meter 27. The main disadvantage of ELCB is ......
(b) After energy meter (a) Less reliable in operation
(c) At the entry of supply to load after energy meter (b) Not easy to install
(d) Tail end of the installation (c) Not easy to maintain
Ans: (c) (d) More costly
Ans: (d)
23. ELCBs are specially used to disconnect the supply under ......
(a) Short circuit condition 28. Earthing is necessary to give protection against
(b) Ground fault condition a). Danger of electric shock
(c) Open circuit condition b). Voltage fluctuation
(d) Over load condition c). Overloading
Ans: (b) d). High temperature of the conductors
Ans: (a)
STUDY ZONE
24. The expansion form of RCCB is ......

(a) Residual Current Circuit Breaker 29. The advantage of neutral earthing is

(b) Residual Circuit Current Breaker a). Freedom from persistent arcing grounds
(c) Residual Current Control Breaker b). Over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
(d) Residual Control Circuit Breaker c). Simplified design earth fault protection
Ans: (a) d). All of the above
Ans: (d)
25. Expansion of MCCB is ......
(a) Moulded Case Circuit Breaker 30. The advantage of neutral earthing
(b) Main Case Circuit Breaker a). Safety of personnel
(c) Main Control Circuit Breaker b). Reduction of earth fault current
(d) Main Current Circuit Breaker c). Elemination of arcing ground
Ans: (a) d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
31. Ground resistance should be designed such that 36. Which type of earthing is used by transmission lines?
a) Grounding resistance should be always zero a) Plate earthing
b) Grounding resistance should be as low as possible b) Rod earthing
c) Grounding resistance should be as high as possible c) Strip earthing
d) All of the above d) All of the above
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
32. The earthing rod orientation in the pit should be: 37. What is earthing?
a) 45° a) connecting electrical machines to earth
b) Horizontal b) providing a connection to the ground
c) Vertical c) connecting the electrical machines to source
d) 75° d) providing a source of current
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
33. Moisture content in the soil _______ the earth soil resistance. 38. The bedding on a cable consists of
a) increase A) Hessian cloth
b) decrease B) Jute
c) does not affect C) Any of the above
d) none of the above D) None of the above
Ans. (b) Ans. (C)
STUDY ZONE
34. Which of the following will damage when High voltages originated due 39. _________ cables are used for 132 kV lines.
to Line to Ground faults in ungrounded system? A) High tension

a) Insulation damage B) Super tension
b) Conductors melt down C) Extra high tension
c) Will not have any effect D) Extra super voltage
d) Fires Ans. (D)
Ans. (a)
40. High tension cables are generally used up to
35. The objective of earthing or grounding is ____. A) 11 kV
a). to provide as low resistance possible to the ground B) 33 kV
b). to provide as high resistance possible to the ground C) 66 kV
c). to provide flow of positive, negative and zero sequence currents D) 132 kV
d). None of the above Ans. (A)Correct Answer
Ans. (a)
41. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing 46. The bedding on a cable consists of
A) The resistance of the conductor A) Hessian cloth
B) The inductance of conductors B) Jute
C) The capacitances of insulated conductors C) Any of the above
D) All above parameters D) None of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
42. A cable carrying alternating current has 47. Cables are used for 132 kV lines.
A) Hysteresis losses only A) High tension
B) Hysteresis and leakage losses only B) Super tension
C) Hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only C) Extra high tension
D) Hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses D) Extra super voltage
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
43. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on 48. PVC stands for
A) Presence of moisture A) Polyvinyl chloride
B) Working temperature B) Post varnish conductor
C) Time of application of the voltage C) Pressed and varnished cloth
D) All of the above D) Positive voltage conductor
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
STUDY ZONE
44. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because 49. High tension cables are generally used up to
A) Insulation may melt due to higher temperature A) 11 kV

B) Skin effect dominates on the conductor B) 33 kV
C) Of corona loss between conductor and sheath material C) 66 kV
D) There is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of D) 132 kV
voids Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
50. The insulating material for cables should
45. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically A) Be acid proof
by the use of B) Be non-inflammable
A) Inter-sheaths C) Be non-hygroscopic
B) Insulating materials with different dielectric constants D) Have all above properties
C) Both (A) and (B) Answer: Option D
D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
51. The insulating material for a cable should have 56. Which is the electrolyte used in Li-ion battery?
A) Low cost a) Lead dioxide
B) High dielectric strength b) Lithium-based gel
C) High mechanical strength c) Sulfur dioxide
D) All of the above d) Cobalt
Answer: Option D Answer: b
52. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of 57. Which of the following statement is true for the movement of electrons
A. Current rating concerning the direction of current?
B. Voltage rating a) Same as the direction of current
C. Ampere hour rating b) Opposite direction of current
D. None of the above c) Does not depend on the direction of current
Ans: C. Ampere hour rating d) No movement of electrons
Answer: b
53. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
A. Nickel-cadmium battery 58. Which is the material used to as anode in a lithium-ion battery?
B. Zinc carbon battery a) Brass foil coated with graphite
C. Lead-acid battery b) Aluminum foil coated with graphite
D. None of the above c) Copper foil coated with graphite
Ans: C. Lead-acid battery d) Stainless steel coated with graphite
Answer: b
STUDY ZONE
54. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

A. In well ventilated location 59. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a lithium-ion battery?

B. In clean and dry place a) Complex to manufacture
C. As near as practical to the battery being charged b) Sophisticated chargers
D. In location having all above features c) More expensive
Ans: D. In location having all above features d) High energy density
Answer: d
55. What gets deposited on the plates of a discharged lead-acid battery?
a) PbO2 60. In Ideal case, the Charging current for 200Ah battery would be ____ ?
b) Pb2O4 a) 10 A
c) Pb b) 12 A
d) PbSO4 c) 15 A
Answer: d d) 20 A
Explanation: PbSO4 gets deposited on the plates of a discharged lead-acid Answer: (d). 20 A.
battery. During discharging the reaction happens in the right direction. Explanation:
PbSO4 gets deposited on both negative and positive plates. Charging current should be 10% of the Ah (Ampere hour) rating of battery.
Therefore, Charging current for 120Ah battery would be = 200Ah x b) Higher Voltage
(10/100) = 20A. c) Higher power
61. In Ideal case, the Charging Time for 200Ah battery would be ______ ? Answer: ( b )
a) 5 hours
b) 10 hours 65. Number of cells connected in parallel provide a——-
c) 15 hours a) High current carrying capacity
d) 20 hours b) Higher voltage
Answer: (b). 10 hours c) Higher power
Explanation: d) None of the above
Charging current should be 10% of the Ah (Ampere hour) rating of battery. Answer: ( a )
Therefore, Charging current for 120Ah battery would be = 200Ah x
(10/100) = 20A 66. Active materials of a lead acid cell are
Hence, Charging Time for 200 Ah battery = Ah rating of battery / Charging A. Spongy lead
Current B. Lead peroxide
= 200Ah/20 = 10 hours. C. Dilute H2SO4
D. All of the above
62. One (1) Ah = ________? Ans: D.
a) 1C
b) 1200C 67. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to
c) 2400C A. Heavy charging
STUDY ZONE
d) 3600C B. Fast charging

Answer: (d). 3600C C. Trickle charging
Explanation:

D. Incomplete charging
1Ah = (1A) x (3600s) = (C/s) x (3600s) = 3600 C. Ans: D.
∴ A (One Ampere) = One Coulomb per second = C/s
68. During the charging of a lead acid cell
63. Nickel-Cadmium batteries are preferred more than Lead-Acid batteries A. It's voltage increases
in military applications because——– B. It gives out energy
a) Can be easily charged and discharged. C. It's cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
b) Discharge rate is higher D. Specific gravity of H2 SO4 decreases
c) Delivers large amount of power Ans: A.
d) All of the above
Answer: (d) 69. Which of the following statement is correct about lead acid batteries
a) it delivers current as soon as its components are put together
64. Number of cells connected in series provide a —– b) density of electrolyte increases while delivering current
a) High current carrying capacity c) it does not deliver current on putting its components together until it is
supplied electrical energy from external source (c) decreases with the increase in temperature
d) it has lead as positive plates (d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (c) Answer: (d)
70. During discharging of lead acid cells, the terminal voltage decreases 75. A bulb has a power of 200W. What is the energy dissipated by it in 5
with the decrease in minutes?
a) temperature a) 60J
b) discharge rate b) 1000J
c) state of charge c) 60kJ
d) none of these d) 1kJ
Answer: (b) Answer: c
Explanation: Here, Power = 200w and time = 5min. E=Pt => E= 200*5=
71. In a lead acid battery, separators are provided to 1000Wmin=60000Ws= 60000J= 60kJ
(a) reduce internal resistance
(b) facilitate flow of the current 76. Which among the following is an expression for energy?
(c) avoid internal short circuits a) V2It
(d) increase the energy efficiency b) V2Rt
Answer: (c) c) V2t/R
d) V2t2/R
72. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is Answer: c
(a) dust particles
STUDY ZONE
(b) iron 77. A 100 W bulb will consume how much energy when switched on for 10
(c) lead crystals hours:

(d) sodium chloride a) 0.1 kWh
Answer: (b) b) 1 Wh
c) 1 kWh
73. In a lead acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to d) 10 kWh
(a) idleness of battery for a long time Answer: c
(b) low level of electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging 78. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead
(d) all of the above acid cell is
Answer: (d) a) just one.
b) always greater than one.
74. The EMF of a lead acid battery c) always less than one.
(a) increases with the increase in specific gravity of the electrolyte d) none of the above.
(b) slightly increases with the increase in temperature Ans: b
STUDY ZONE
BASIC ELECTRICAL UNIT-1

DC CIRCUIT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1. Find the value of v if v1=20V and the value of current source is 6A.
a) 10V
b) 12V
c) 14V
d) 16V
Answer: b
2. Calculate the current A.
a) 5A
b) 10A
c) 15A
d) 20A
Answer: c
3. Calculate the current across the 20 ohm resistor.
a) 20A
b) 1A
c) 0.67A
FORd)IMPORTANT
0.33A NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
Answer: d
STUDY ZONE
4. Calculate the value of I3, if I1= 2A and I2=3A.
a) -5A
b) 5A
c) 1A
d) -1A
Answer: a
5. Find the value of i2, i4 and i5 if i1=3A, i3=1A and i6=1A.
a) 2,-1,2
b) 4,-2,4
c) 2,1,2
d) 4,2,4
Answer: a
6. KCL deals with the conservation of?

a) Momentum
b) Mass
c) Potential Energy
d) Charge
Answer: d
7. KCL is applied at _________

a) Loop
b) Node
c) Both loop and node
d) Neither loop nor node
FOR IMPORTANT
Answer: b NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
STUDY ZONE
8. Calculate the value of V1 and V2.
a) 4V, 6V
b) 5V, 6V
c) 6V, 7V
d) 7V, 8V
Answer: a
9. KVL deals with the conservation of?

a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Charge
d) Energy
Answer: d
10. Calculate the voltage across the 10 ohm resistor.
a) 12V
b) 4V
c) 10V
d) 0V
Answer: b
STUDY ZONE
11. Find the value of the currents I1 and I2.
a) 0.3, 0.1
b) -0.1, -0.3
c) -0.3, -0.1
d) 0.1, 0.2
Answer: d
12. What is the basic law that has to be followed in order to analyze the circuit?
a) Newton’s laws
b) Faraday’s laws
c) Ampere’s laws
d) Kirchhoff’s law
Answer: d
13. Every____________ is a ____________ but every __________ is not a __________

a) Mesh, loop, loop, mesh
b) Loop, mesh, mesh, loop
c) Loop, mesh, loop, mesh
d) Mesh, loop, mesh, loop
Answer: a
14. What is the voltage across the 5 ohm resistor if current source has current of 17/3 A?

STUDY ZONE
a) 2.32V
b) 5.21V
c) 6.67V
d) 8.96V
Answer: b
15. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one voltage source, all the other voltage
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: a
16. Find the value of Vx due to the 16V source.
a) 4.2V
b) 3.2V
c) 2.3V
d) 6.3V
Answer: b
17. Find Vx due to the 3A source.
a) 56V
b) 78V
c) 38V
FORd)IMPORTANT
48V NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
Answer: d
STUDY ZONE
18. Superposition theorem is valid for _________

a) Linear systems
b) Nonlinear systems
c) Both linear and nonlinear systems
d) Neither linear nor nonlinear systems
Answer: a
19. Superposition theorem does not work for ________

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Works for all: current, voltage and power
Answer: c
20. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one current source, all the other current
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: b
21. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one current source, all the other voltage
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: a
22. Calculate the Thevenin resistance across the terminal AB for the following circuit.
a) 4.34 ohm
b) 3.67 ohm
c) 3.43 ohm
d) 2.32 ohm
Answer: b

STUDY ZONE
23. Calculate Vth for the given circuit.
a) 5.54V
b) 3.33V
c) 6.67V
d) 3.67V
Answer: c
24. The Thevenin voltage is the__________

a) Open circuit voltage
b) Short circuit voltage
c) Open circuit and short circuit voltage
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit voltage
Answer: a
25. Thevenin’s theorem is true for __________

a) Linear networks
b) Non-Linear networks
c) Both linear networks and nonlinear networks
d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer: a
26. In Thevenin’s theorem Vth is __________

a) Sum of two voltage sources
b) A single voltage source
c) Infinite voltage sources
d) 0
Answer: b
27. Can we use Thevenin’s theorem on a circuit containing a BJT?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the BJT
d) Insufficient data provided
Answer: b
28. Thevenin resistance is found by ________

a) Shorting all voltage sources
b) Opening all current sources
c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer: c
STUDY ZONE
29. The Norton current is the_______

a) Short circuit current
b) Open circuit current
c) Open circuit and short circuit current
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit current
Answer: a
30. Norton resistance is found by?

a) Shorting all voltage sources
b) Opening all current sources
c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer: c
31. Norton’s theorem is true for __________

a) Linear networks
b) Non-Linear networks
c) Both linear networks and nonlinear networks
d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer: a
32. In Norton’s theorem Isc is__________

a) Sum of two current sources
b) A single current source
c) Infinite current sources
d) 0
Answer: b
33. Calculate the Norton resistance for the following circuit if 5 ohm is the load resistance.
a) 10 ohm
b) 11 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 13 ohm
Answer: c

STUDY ZONE
34. Calculate the short circuit current is the 5 ohm resistor is the load resistance.
a) 0.72A
b) 0.32A
c) 0.83A
d) 0.67A
Answer: a
35. Find the current in the 5 ohm resistance using Norton’s theorem.
a) 1A
b) 1.5A
c) 0.25A
d) 0.5A
Answer: d
36. In a DC Circuit, Inductive reactance would be

(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) 100
(d) 100000
(e) Answer: a
37. Kirchhoff’s laws are useful in determining

(a) current
(b) Voltage
(c) Resistance
(d) Both (a )and (b)
Answer: d
38. Cramer’s rule is used to determine value of circuit parameters using

(a) Linear Equations
(b) Quadratic Equation
(c) Both (a )and (b)
(d) None
STUDY ZONE
Answer: a
39. According to Thevenin’s theorem, any bilateral network can be replaced by a network
(a) With an independent voltages source in series with the equivalent resistance.
(b) With an independent current source in series with the equivalent resistance.
(c) With an independent voltages source in parallel with the equivalent resistance.
(d) With an independent current source in parallel with the equivalent resistance.
Answer: a
40. KCL deals with the conservation of

(a) Energy
(b) Charge.
(c) Both (a )and (b)
(d) None
Answer: b
41. KCL is applied at

(a) Branch
(b) Node
(c) Loop
(d) Node
Answer: b
42. KVL deals with the conservation of

(a) Energy
(b) current
(c) Charge
(d) None
Answer: a

STUDY ZONE
ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTIONS

STUDY ZONE
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

NO OF
UNIT NAME QNS
1A DC GENERATORS 124
1B DC MOTORS 123
2 TRANSFORMERS 135
THREE PHASE INDUCTION
3A MOTORS 101
SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
3B MOTORS 110
4 SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS 124
TRANSMISSION AND
5A DISTRIBUTION 102
5B CABLES 56
TOTAL 875
1. A. DC GENERATORS
1. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C.

machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to

(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur

STUDY ZONE

Ans: d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b

STUDY ZONE

9. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction
of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
10. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates

(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the
thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated
e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Ans: d

STUDY ZONE

14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors
is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator

(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

(a) current

STUDY ZONE

(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen
coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b

STUDY ZONE
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors
which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic
neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is

(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts

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(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in

(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is

(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have

(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to

(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set

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(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has

(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature
winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)

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Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing
direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for

(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature
while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A
and B will be
(a) 2 : 3

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(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon

(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires

(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is

(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is

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connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure
that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used

(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to

(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the
coil

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(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is

(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of'the above
Ans: c
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of

(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles

(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral
axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load

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(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the
coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is

(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact

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(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means

(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of

(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as
to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies

(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt

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(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine

(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to

(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f.
induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor

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(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of

(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a

(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator

(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespec¬tive of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?

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(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the
following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c

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95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit
voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will
be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would
produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its
own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field

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(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
101. Wave winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in
parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for
which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed

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(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of

(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the
load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field
resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load

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circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
'
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred ?

(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by

(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c

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118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
120. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by

(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
121. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
122. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
123. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over
compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances

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Ans: a
124. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run,
the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resis¬tance
Ans: a
1. B. DC MOTOR
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?

(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
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(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring

(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant

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(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy
is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed

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(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors

(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the
armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current

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(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular
motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for

(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the
efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%

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(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of

(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of
D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated
torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current

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(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the
motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
Ans: c

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42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in

(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive
atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor

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Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease
?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio
of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is

(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of

(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent

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(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor

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(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly opens

(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make
use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to

(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?

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(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a
heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by

(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b

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71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed
by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed

(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b

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77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?

(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the

(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
Ans: c

(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher
H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer
following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor

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(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?

(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds
of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a

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(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by

(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and gen¬erator together
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is

(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency

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(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load
current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving

(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
99. In a manual shunt motor starter

(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in paral¬lel and no volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a

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100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a
D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is

(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage

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Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors
of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at

(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a

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112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?

(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor

(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is

(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing
and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop

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Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time
and some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle
and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is
possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and

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driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
2. TRANSFORMERS
1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
Ans: c
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary

(a) through cooling coil
(b) through air
(c) by the flux
Ans: c
3. A transformer core is laminated to

(a) reduce hysteresis loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses
(c) reduce copper losses
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a transformer

depends on
(a) tightness of clamping
(b) gauge of laminations
(c) size of laminations
Ans: d

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5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load
current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(c) 12 to 15 per cent
(d) 20 to 30 per cent
Ans: b
6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have

(a) high resistance
(b) high reluctance
(c) low resistance
(d) low reluctance
Ans: d
7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine

(a) copper loss
(b) magnetising current
(c) magnetising current and loss
(d) efficiency of the transformer
Ans: c
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be

(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Ans: b
9. Sumpner's test is conducted on trans-formers to determine

(a) temperature
(b) stray losses
(c) all-day efficiency
Ans: a
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around

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(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when

(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses
Ans: d
12. No-load current in a transformer

(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75°
(b) leads the voltage by about 75°
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15°
(d) leads the voltage by about 15°
Ans: a
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to

(a) provide support to windings
(b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) reduce eddy current losses
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?

(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Exciter
Ans: d
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short
circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side

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(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
17. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux
is zero
Ans: c
19. Primary winding of a transformer

(a) is always a low voltage winding
(b) is always a high voltage winding
(c) could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
Ans: c
20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?

(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding

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Ans: b
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of

(a) 100 per cent
(b) 98 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
Ans: c
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is

(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of
about
(a) 180°
(b) 120"
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon

(a) supply frequency
(b) load current
(c) power factor of load
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d

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26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to

(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
Ans: c
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers upto a rating of

(a) 3000 kVA
(b) 1000 kVA
(c) 500 kVA
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at

(a) nearly full load
(b) 70% full load
(c) 50% full load
(d) no load
Ans: a
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is

(a) at no load
(b) at 50% full load
(c) at 80% full load
(d) at full load
Ans: b
30. Transformer breaths in when

(a) load on it increases
(b) load on it decreases
(c) load remains constant
Ans: b
31. No-load current of a transformer has

(a) has high magnitude and low power factor

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(b) has high magnitude and high power factor
(c) has small magnitude and high power factor
(d) has small magnitude and low power factor
Ans: d
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils

(a) to provide free passage to the cool¬ing oil
(b) to insulate the coils from each other
Ans: a
33. Greater the secondary leakage flux

(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Ans: a
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is

(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
(c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
(d) to provide all above features
Ans: c
35. The power transformer is a constant

(a) voltage device
(b) current device
(c) power device
(d) main flux device
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings

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Ans: b
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the

transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of
common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: b
39. Ifthe percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different,
then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the trans-formers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
Ans: d
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

(a) primary side
(b) secondary side
(c) low voltage side
(d) high voltage side
Ans: c
41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

(a) reduces weight per kVA
(6) reduces iron losses

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(c) reduces copper losses
(d) increases part load efficiency
Ans: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
43. The chemical used in breather is

(a) asbestos fibre
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride
(d) silica gel
Ans: d
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The
statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of

(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Ans: d
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c

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47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum flux density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually

(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) silicon steel
Ans: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually

(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Ans: a
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is

(a) to project against'internal fault
(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of
temperature of sur-roundings
Ans: d
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is

(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV
(c) 132 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: d
52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is

(a) zero

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(b) 1 ohm
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) infinite
Ans: d
53. A transformer oil must be free from

(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on

(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil
temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be

(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
(d) saturation of core
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load

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(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when

(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when

(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: c
61. Buchholz's relay gives warning and protection against

(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself
(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
Ans: a
62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because it has

(a) small air gap
(b) large leakage flux
(c) laminated silicon steel core
(d) fewer rotating parts
Ans: a

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63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer ?

(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) Any of the above
Ans: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon

(a) load current
(b) load current and voltage
(c) load current, voltage and frequency
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have

(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance
Ans: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a

(a) special test
(b) routine test
(c) type test
Ans: c
68. Which of the foJIowing is not a routine test on transformers ?

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(a) Core insulation voltage test
(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at

(a) leading power factor
(b) lagging power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) zero power factor
Ans: a
70. Helical coils can be used on

(a) low voltage side of high kVA trans¬formers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: a
71. Harmonics in transformer result in

(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
Ans: d
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually

(a) copper core
(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
(d) mild steel core
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will
be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W

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(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is

(a) average value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value
Ans: c
L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces

(a) hysteresis loss
(b) eddy current losses
(c) copper losses
Ans: a
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?

(a) Primary winding
(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two
winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated

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Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the trans¬formers is leading while that of the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has

(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
(c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced

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(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to
fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,"the iron loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Ans: c
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is

(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
Ans: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by

(a) low power factor wattmeter
(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter

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Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by

(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
Ans: b
91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type
(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type
Ans: b
92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage
(b) primary is supplied full-load current
(c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a
93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: c
94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

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(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should
have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is

(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on

(a) frequency
(b) area of the core

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(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up to

(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has

(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero

(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d

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105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer
employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily
insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting
capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers
are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses

STUDY ZONE

Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having
a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
111 The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under operating

conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
Ans: a
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means

(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
(c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
(d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
Ans: a
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur
at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor

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(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor
Ans: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution
transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to
lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be
determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature
safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside ?

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(a) Bushings
(b) Core
(c) Primary winding
Ans: a
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as

(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur
in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
Ans: b
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to

(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer

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(c) magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations
Ans: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure

(a) insulation resistance
(b) copper loss
(c) core loss
(d) total loss
(e) efficiency
(f) none of the above
Ans: c
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine

(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
(d) magnetising current
(e) magnetising current and loss
Ans: e
129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the ratio of

(a) primary turns to secondary turns
(b) secondary current to primary current

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(c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced e.m.f.
(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Ans: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
131. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated voltage

(a) its power factor will deteriorate
(b) its power factor will increase
(c) its power factor will remain unaffected
(d) its power factor will be zero
Ans: a
132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
Ans: a
133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results
in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A

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(c) 15 A
Ans: a
135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same
power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
Ans: c
3. A. THREE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS
1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?

(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
Ans: c
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: b
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
Ans: a
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) high speed steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) carbon steel
(d) cast iron

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Ans: c
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Ans: a
6. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around

(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order
to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
8. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b
9. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz

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(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly

(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Ans: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Ans: a
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has

(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction
(b) two parallel windings in stator
(c) two parallel windings in rotor
(d) two series windings in stator
Ans: c
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors

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(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
17. The term 'cogging' is associated with

(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators
(c) D.C. series motors
(d) induction motors
Ans: d
18. In case of the induction motors the torque is

(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(c) inversely proportional to slip
(d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have

(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Ans: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux
density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
21. An induction motor is identical to

(a) D.C. compound motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) asynchronous motor
Ans: d
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip fre-quency

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(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) low voltage supply
(b) high loads
(c) harmonics develped in the motor
(d) improper design of the machine
Ans: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction
motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is
constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b

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28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following
methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
Ans: b
30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for

(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(b) slip ring induction motors only
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: b
33. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged

(a) the motor will run in reverse direction
(b) the motor will run at reduced speed
(c) the motor will not run
(d) the motor will burn
Ans: a

STUDY ZONE
34. An induction motor is

(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with low torque
(d) non-self starting
Ans: c
35. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on

(a) frequency
(b) rotor inductive reactance
(c) square of supply voltage
Ans: d
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors

(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE
40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is caused by

(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
42. The 'cogging' of an induction motor can be avoided by

(a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
(c) auto-transformer starter
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of stator slots (not equal)
Ans: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the
normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
44. Slip of an induction motor is negative when

(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the syn-chronous speed of the field and are in the same
direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the syn-chronous speed of the field and are in the same
direction
Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motorfor the same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same

STUDY ZONE

Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to

(a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) poorely regulated power supply
(c) any one of the above
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
Ans: c
50. Slip ring motor is recommended where

(a) speed control is required
(6) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required
(c) high starting torque is needed
(d) all above features are required
Ans: d
51. As load on an induction motor goes on increasing

(a) its power factor goes on decreasing

STUDY ZONE

(b) its power factor remains constant
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing upto full load and then it falls again
Ans: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its fullload current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload
characteristics of which of the
following machines
(c) universal motor
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft
?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage.
The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d

STUDY ZONE
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m.
Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has

(a) double cage rotor
(6) wound rotor
(c) short-circuited rotor
Ans: b
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is

(a) twice the full load torque
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(c) equal to full load torque
Ans: b
60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to determine

(a) windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) transformation ratio
(d) power scale of circle diagram
Ans: a
61. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(6) iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
(c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
(d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor
Ans: d
62. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means

(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter
(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
(d) interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping

STUDY ZONE

Ans: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction
motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor
to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
65. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running
(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running
(c) power factor at starting in the same as that while running
Ans: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by

(a) open-circuit test only
(b) short-circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is

(a) parabola
(b) hyperbola
(c) rectangular parabola
(d) straigth line

STUDY ZONE

Ans: c
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of

appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Ans: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data
found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip

STUDY ZONE

(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance
per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of
the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to find out

(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage
Ans: d
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually

(a) graphite
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil
(d) molasses
Ans: b
79. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Ans: d
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
(a) Air motor

STUDY ZONE

(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: a
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends on

(a) rotor current
(b) rotor power factor
(c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
Ans: d
82. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Ans: a
83. In induction motor, percentage slip depends on

(a) supply frequency
(b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
Ans: c
84. When /?2 is tne rotor resistance, .X2 the

rotor reactance at supply frequency
and s the slip, then the condition for maximum torque under running condi-tions will be
(a) sR2X2 = 1 (b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2 id) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resis¬tance
Ans: a
86. The low power factor of induction motor is due to

(a) rotor leakage reactance

STUDY ZONE

(b) stator reactance
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the magnetic flux
Ans: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit

(a) reduces starting torque as well as maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as maximum torque
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque remains unchanged
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque decreases
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is

(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
(b) to short circuit the starting resis¬tances in the starter
(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form star
Ans: a
92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is

(a) dependent on the shaft loading
(b) dependent on the number of slots

STUDY ZONE

(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Ans: c
93. Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case of

(a) slip ring induction motor
(6) squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: b
94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected when

(a) initial cost is the main consideration
(b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(c) higher starting torque is the main consideration
(d) all above considerations are involved
Ans: c
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with

(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor

(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
(d) applied voltage per1 stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip

STUDY ZONE

Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at

(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
Ans: c
101. Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction motor

(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
Ans: b
3. B. SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have

(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited

(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
3. In capacitor start single-phase motors

(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage

STUDY ZONE

(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with
the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and running
winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor

(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is

(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?

STUDY ZONE

(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of

(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and carries only induced
current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect 'starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the
following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor

(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch

(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be
ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with its
capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?

(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?

(a) Split motor
(b) Shaded-pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b

STUDY ZONE
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is determined by

(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to

(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in

(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is

(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is replaced by a resistance

(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d

STUDY ZONE
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually

(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for

(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of

(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?

(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually

(a) universal motor
(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
(d) 3-phase synchronous motor
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE

33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is

(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on

(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on

(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control
purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on

(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading
(d) unity power factor
Ans: a

STUDY ZONE

39. In split-phase motor iauxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oilfilled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to

(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time
phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE

45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of

(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?

STUDY ZONE

(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?

(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using

(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low
because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow
of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
Ans: c

STUDY ZONE

57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore
these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor

(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of

(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c

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63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting is

(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of

(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the" slots
Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is at 45° electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90° electrical to the field axis
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of

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motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor

(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for

(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft
because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as that of

(a) A.C. motor
(c) D.C. series motor
Ans: c

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75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is

(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is 45° electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90° electrical to field axis
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about ____
percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b

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81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is disconnected from the
circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?

(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent
reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rush¬ing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small
home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to
open then
(a) motor will not come upto speed
(b) motor will not carry the load

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(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking is

(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding"
(d) high commutator mica
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either

(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start motor is incorrect ?

(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to shaded pole motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we
should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed
connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to
rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and im-mediately
connect it to supply

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Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain
synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess

(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is incorrect ?

(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronous-induction motor
(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic construction in order to vary
reluctance path bet¬ween stator and rotor
Ans: a
97. A universal motor is one which

(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the same speed and
output
(b) can be marketed internationally

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(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with

(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no

(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will

(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from
supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start induction motor is

incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other mechanical devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has

(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns

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(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is

(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by

(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
106. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-
recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of upto 1 W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
107. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is in incorrect ?

(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
108. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct
?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d

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109. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
110. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using

(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
4. SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because

(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a

(a) small induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a
4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque

(a) when under loaded
(b) while over-excited
(c) only at synchronous speed

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(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by

(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
Ans: d
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have
(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur
?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets
disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a synchronous motor
varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle
is
(a) zero

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(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is

(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on
the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of

(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines
(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because

(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an instant is
absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency currents
Ans: a
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature current
because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
Ans: b

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16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Ans: a
17. An over-excited synchronous motor takes

(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to

(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
(d) turbine
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £& depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its value in
mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b

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22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at

(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?

(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing

(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
Ans: d
27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

(a) maintaining constant excitation
(b) running the motor on leading power factors
(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
(d) oscillations cannot be damped
Ans: c

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28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of
(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always

(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is

(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
33. A synchronous motor will always stop when

(a) supply voltage fluctuates
(b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) supply voltage frequency changes
Ans: c
34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place

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(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded
Ans: b
35. When load on an over-excited or under excited synchronous*motor is increased, rate

of change of its armature current as compared with that of power factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are met by

(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of poles
are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same
speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor

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Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is

(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are

(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
Ans: a
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load increases
essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent
induction motor. This is mainly
because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used as

(a) voltage booster
(b) phase advancer

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(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
46. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for

(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following
will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry

(a) direct current
(b) alternating current

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(c) no current
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has

(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to load
variations
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load is increased
three times, its torque angle
becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?

(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c

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59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more than the
synchronous speed during hunting, the
damper bars develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor
is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator, in polyphase
multipolar synchronous motors
running at full load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when

(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes

(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field winding is

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usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks ?

(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor
Ans: d
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging
power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with such an
excitation that it takes power
at lagging power factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes down,
the power factor of the
synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor action and
connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and accelerting torque is
produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e

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69. Armature of a synchronous machine is

(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is decreased from
its normal value, ignoring effects of armature reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power factor lagging load,
the armature field affects
the main field in the following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
Ans: b
72. Stability of a synchronous machine

(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of induction motor
because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and drawing current at a
leading power factor from
constant voltage supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor

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(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is increased,
the armature current drawn
by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
Ans: d
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, motor

(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor gets suddenly open-
circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(c) Universal motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
79. The speed of a synchronous motor

(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant

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Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a

(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase synchronous motor is

(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by conducting insulation

resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field
current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on all of the
following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c

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85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when the motor
is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on

(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with normal
excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is equal to the

(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
Ans: d
90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a synchronous motor is

(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinity
Ans: a

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91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb depends on

(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: b
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of its field current
is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor

(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between

(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to

(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a synchronous motor can be
changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage

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(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent relation between

(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole number and load
torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant full load, 100%
excitation and unity power fac
tor. On changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
100. Which of the following motors is non-self starting ?

(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the armature at noload is
approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is generally used to

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(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing
its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
Ans: a

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108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in

(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will pull into
synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has

(a) lower stability limit
(6) high stability limit
(c) good speed regulation
(d) good voltage regulation
Ans: a
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles

(a) a series motor

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(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open circuited,
the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115 For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at

(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are

(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines
(c) d.c. compound machines
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as the angle
between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
Ans: b

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119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is running on no load
and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
Ans: a
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor

(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
Ans: c
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor will depend on

(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle (90°)
Ans: d
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not drive a
mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
Ans: c
123. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is

(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
124. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is

(a) directly proportional to applied voltage

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(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
Ans: a
5. A. TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION
1. By which of the following systems electric power may be transmitted ?

(a) Overhead system
(b) Underground system
Ans: c
2 are the conductors, which connect the consumer's terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
Ans: b
3. The underground system cannot be operated above

(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans: d
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation upto
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital
outlay is equal to the
annual cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be
minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most economical. This statement
is known as
(a) Kelvin's law
(b) Ohm's law

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(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday's law
Ans: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative compound
have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of
electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as

(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
Ans: d
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are

(a) 40—50 metres
(b) 60—100 metres
(c) 80—100 metres
(d) 300—500 metres
Ans: c
10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following ?

(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?

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(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
Ans: d
12. 310 km line is considered as

(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
Ans: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly
loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a 'constant voltage transmission system' ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal
reactances
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-
distance heavy power
transmission
Ans: a
16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to

(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV

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(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e
17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is upto

(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: d
18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is upto

(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is upto

(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Ans: d
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst

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(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with
temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost
?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for
solution of network problems
in interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin's theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?

(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation
Ans: d
27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is

(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration
(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth
(c) mechanical damage

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Ans: d
28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is

(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Ans: c
29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are

(a) underground
(b) overhead
Ans: b
30. The distributors for residential areas are

(a) single phase
(b) three-phase three wire
(c) three-phase four wire
Ans: c
31. The conductors of the overhead lines are

(a) solid
(b) stranded
(c) both solid and stranded
Ans: b
32. High voltage transmission lines use

(a) suspension insulators
(b) pin insulators
Ans: a
33. Multicore cables generally use

(a) square conductors
(b) circular conductors
(c) rectangular conductors
(d) sector-shaped conductors

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Ans: d
34. Distribution lines in India generally use

(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles
(c) steel towers
Ans: b
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
Ans: b
36. The loads on distributors systems are generally

(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
Ans: b
37. The power factor of industrial loads is generally

(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: b
38. Overhead lines generally use

(a) copper conductors
(b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
(d) none of these
Ans: c
39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of

(a) copper
(b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
(d) steel

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Ans: d
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. Transmission line insulators are made of

(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Ans: b
42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is

(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Ans: a
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at

(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c

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46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans: d
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans: c
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is
increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Ans: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As
compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
Ans: a
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum
voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a
51. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 8.8 kV

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(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Ans: b
52. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as

(a) 20-30 ohms
(b) 70—80 ohms
(c) 100—200 ohms
(d) 500—1000 ohms
Ans: c
53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it

(a) reduces power factor
(b) corrodes the material
(c) gives odour
(d) transfer energy to the ground
Ans: b
54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to

(a) distributors
(b) generating stations
(c) service mains
Ans: a
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when

(a) corona losses are minimum
(b) reactance is high
(c) sending end voltage is more
(d) receiving end voltage is more
Ans: c
56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on

(a) primary transmission
(b) secondary transmission
(c) primary distribution
(d) secondary distribution
Ans: d
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium

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(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
Ans: d
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Ans: d
59. There is a greater possibility of occurence of corona during

(a) dry weather
(b) winter
(c) summer heat
(d) humid weather
Ans: d
60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines ?

(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mho's relay
(c) Reactance relay
Ans: b
61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually

(a) alloy steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel
Ans: c
62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?

(a) Radial system
(b) Tree system
(c) Ring main system
(d) All are equally reliable
Ans: c
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines

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possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life
Ans: d
64. Transmission voltage of llkV is normally used for distances upto

(a) 20—25 km
(b) 40—50 km
(c) 60—70 km
(d) 80—100 km
Ans: a
65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?

(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Ans: d
66. Skin effect is proportional to

(a) (conductor diameter)
(b) (conductor diameter)
(c) (conductor diameter)
(d) (conductor diameter)
Ans: c
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Ans: d

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69. Which of the followingbus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Ans: b
70. Owing to skin effect

(a) current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and core of the
conductor carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the conductor
carries more current
Ans: b
71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be improved ?

(a) Using a guard ring
(b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
Ans: d
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to

(a) compensate for skin effect
(b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
(d) increase the tensile strength
Ans: d
73. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated ?

(a) Current only
(b) Current and voltage
(c) Current, voltage and frequency
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current
Ans: d
74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when

(a) line is energized
(b) there is no current in the line
(c) line is on full load

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(d) circuit breaker is not open
Ans: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed

(a) exciters
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors
(d) voltatre transformers
Ans: a
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor
exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum v^lue)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
Ans: c
80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is

(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal

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(c) triangular
(d) square
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of

(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Ans: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should
be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values
except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder,
will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Ans: d
86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on

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(a) primary winding
(b) secondary winding
(c) high voltage winding
Ans: b
87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage

(a) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(b) short-circuit current of the system is increased
Ans: b
88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends ?

(a) Frequency of the current
(b) Size of the conductor
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material
Ans: d
89. The effect of corona can be detected by

(a) presence of zone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour
Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should
be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Ans: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance

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(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step because of large angular displacement between the
stations
Ans: c
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be increased by

(a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
(c) adjusting the governor
(d) reducing the terminal voltage
Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
Ans: a
96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in

(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
Ans: b
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR
requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
Ans: b

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98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due
to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
Ans: c
100. The following system is not generally used

(a) 1-phase 3 wire
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
Ans: a
101. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

(a) resistivity of conductor material increases
(b) permeability of conductor material increases
(c) diameter increases
(d) frequency increases
Ans: a
102. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth
which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
Ans: a
5. B. DC GENERATORS
1. The insulating material for a cable should have

(a) low cost

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(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?

(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?

(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
6. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian cloth
(b) jute
Ans: c
7. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof
(b) be non-inflammable

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(c) be non-hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is provided.

(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
11 cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect _____ cables.

(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

(a) armour
(b) bedding

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(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to

(a) avoid excessive sheath losses
(b) make it flexible
Ans: a
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around

(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
16. Low tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at

(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
18. High tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
19. The surge resistance of cable is

(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms

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(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
20. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) post varnish conductor
(c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor
Ans: a
In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing

(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______ dielectric.

(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond

(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually

(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
Ans: c
25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are

(a) oil filled
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted

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(d) armoured
Ans: a
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is

(a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10
(d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because

(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conduc¬tor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids
Ans: d
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: c
29. In cables the charging current

(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced
by one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm

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(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Ans: a
33. The intersheaths in the cables are used to

(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
37. A cable carrying alternating current has

(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only

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(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
38. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at

(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies

(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of
inductance
Ans: a
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is

(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually

(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably

(a) mica insulated

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(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as

(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
47. The insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Ans: d
48. The advantage of oil filled cables is

(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d

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49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
Ans: d
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
51. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system'
of laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
53. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
54. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
55. Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing properties.

(a) Yes

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(b) No
Ans: b
56. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b

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QUESTION BANK (KEE-201T )
1) These days D.C. motors are widely used in:
a. pumping sets
b. air compressors
c. electric traction
d. machine shop
2) An inductive circuit of resistance 16.5 Ω and inductance of 0.14 H takes a current of 25 A. if the
frequency is 50Hz, find the supply voltage.
a. 1501 V
b. 1174 V
c. 1877 V
d. 991 V
3) Salient pole type motors have

a. Large diameter and large axial length
b. Small diameter and small axial length
c. Large diameter and small axial length
d. Small diameter and large axial length
4) In transformer if the secondary is open circuited then its terminal voltage is

a. Same as the induced emf
b. Greater than the induced emf
c. Lesser than the induced emf
d. None of these
5) Slip ring induction motor are employed only for
a. Speed control
b. High starting torque
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
6) The field winding of dc series motor consists of few turns of
a. Thin wire with low resistance

b. Thick wire with low resistance
c. Thin wire with high resistance
d. Thick wire with high resistance
7) An over excited synchronous motor operating on no load condition is called as
a. Synchronous capacitor

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b. Synchronous condenser
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
8) In a step-up transformer when the voltage delivered is higher than that received, the current
delivered is
a. Higher than that received
b. Lower than that received
c. Equal to that received
d. Equal to half of that received
9) For transformers ratings are always given in kVA, not in kW because

a. It is conventional
b. Power factor of load is not known
c. For higher efficiency
d. To make calculation simple
10) A transformer is said to be isolation transformer if its primary to secondary ratio is

a. Equal to one
b. More than one
c. Less than one
d. Equal to 0.5
11 A 5kV /250V, 50Hz single phase core type transformer with average flux in the
core is 0.05wb. The number of turns in the primary winding is
a. 273
b. 278
c. 280
d. 287
12) A 10 kVA, 2000 /100v transformer has R1=1.5 ohm, R2=0.005 ohm, X1=2.5 ohm and
X2=0.08 ohm. The equivalent resistance referred to primary is
a. 3 ohm
b. 3.25 ohm
c. 3.5 ohm
d. 3.8 ohm
13) A 600 kVA transformer has iron losses of 400 kW and copper losses of 500 kW. Its
kVA rating for maximum efficiency is given by
a. 537 kVA
b. 548 kVA
c. 555 kVA

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d. 585 kVA
14 ) Which type of rotor is generally used for high speed alternators or turbo alternators?
a. Salient pole type

b. Projected pole type
c. Smooth cylindrical type
d. Both (a) & (b)
15 ) In a parallel circuit, we consider admittance instead of

a. Resistance
b. Capacitance
c. Inductance
d. Impedance
16 ) If the resonant frequency in a series RLC circuit is 50kHz along with a bandwidth of 1kHz, find the
quality factor.
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500
17 ) The current leads the supply voltage in a series RLC circuit has its frequency the
resonant frequency.
a. Above
b. Below
c. Equal to
d. Cannot be determined
18) What is the voltage across the capacitor when the source voltage is 100V and the Q factor is 10?
a. 100V
b. 10V
c. 1000V
d. 0V
19 ) For a sharp resonance, bandwidth is

a. low
b. high
c. zero
d. infinity
20 ) A voltage source of 100 V has internal impedance of 2 ohm and supplies a load having that same
impedance . The power absorbed by the load is :
a. 1200 W
b. 1250 W

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c. 1275 W
d. 1260 W
21) The instantaneous voltage and current for an ac circuit are v= 155.6 sin377t V , i= 7.07
Sin (377t -36.87º). The Reactive and active power are :
a. 166 VAR , 225 VA
b. 330 VAR , 550VA

c. 550 VAR , 330 VA
d. 300 VAR, 500 VA
22 ) A balanced star connected load is supplied from a symmetrical 3- phase , 400 V supply . The line
current of each phase is 50 A and lags 30 deg behind the phase voltage . The phase resistance is
equal to .( 4 ohm)
23) An alternator is delivering power to a balanced load at unity power factor . The phase angle between
the line voltage and the line current is :
a. 90 deg
b. 60 deg
c. 30 deg
d. 0 deg
24) A Shunt generator supplied 500 A at 500 V . The motor armature current will be if its armature and
shunt field resistances are 0.02 ohm and 125 ohm respectively . (504 A)
25) A 4-pole , 3-phase ,50 Hz , star connected Induction motor has a full load slip of 4%. The full load
speed of motor is .(1440 rpm)
26) Ceiling Fan is :

a. Three phase IM
b. Single Phase IM
c. Three phase synchronous motor .
d. None of these .
27) A 4- pole lap wound dc generator generates 200 V at 1000 rpm . If this generator is now wave
wound and runs at 500 rpm , the Generated voltage will be . ( 200V)

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28) A 100 KVA single phase transformer operating at 0.9 power factor has 90% maximum efficiency . The
Iron Losses will be .(5 KW)
29) The Short circuit test of transformer is done to determine :

a. Iron Losses
b. eddy current losses
c. copper losses at full load .
d. copper losses at desired load.
30 )The full load copper –loss and Iron- loss of a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W respectively . The
above losses at half load are . ( 1600W , 5000W)
31) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) works on the principle of ......
a. Over load current
b. Short circuit current
c. Residual current
d. Neutral current
32) Which device can be used as switch and as well as protective device?
a. Triple pole iron clad switch
b. Intermediate switch
c. Miniature circuit breaker
d.Earth leakage circuit breaker
33) The inter-sheets in the cables are used to

a. Minimise the stress
b. Avoid the requirement of good insulation
c. Provide proper stress distribution
d. Any of the above
e. None of the above
34) Which one of the following is used in earth pit:

a. Aluminum and Iron
b. Graphite and Silver
c. Graphite and magnesium
d. Salt and charcoal
35) The advantage of neutral earthing is

a. Freedom from persistent arcing grounds
b. Over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
c. Simplified design earth fault protection
d. All of the above
36) The capacity of a lead acid cell depends on

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a. Amperes
b. Ampere-hours
c. Watts
d. Watt-hours
37 ) An offline UPS requires

a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Battery
d. Resistor
38) The back up time of a UPS if it is backed by 150 Ah , 12 V battery driving a load of 150 W is
a. 14 h
b. 16 h
c. 10 h
d. 12 h
39) A Battery is taking charging current of 5.2A for 24 hours at a voltage of 2.25V while discharging it
gives a current of 4.5A for 24 hours with an average voltage of 1.85V. The energy efficiency of
battery is . (71.15%)
40) The total time for which 15 CFLs of 10W each is to be operated in order to consume 1 unit of
electrical energy is .(400 minutes)
41 ) Norton’s equivalent resistance is the same as Thevenin’s equivalent resistance :
a. True
b. False
42) Two resistors give combined resistance of 4.5 ohm when in series and 1ohm when in parallel . The

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resistances are :
a. 2 and 2.5 ohm
b. 1 and 3.5 ohm
c. 1.5 and 3 ohm
d. 4 and 0.5 ohm
43 ) The three resistances each of value 3 ohm are connected in delta . Their value
In each branch of equivalent star-connection will be
a. 9 ohm
b. 6 ohm
c. 3 ohm
d. 1 ohm
44 ) Superposition theorem is not applicable for
a. voltage calculations .
b. bilateral elements.
c. power calculations.
d. passive elements .
45) The power delivered by the 2V source is

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(a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) -2W (d) -4W
46) For the circuit shown in figure , the nortons equivalent source current value is
and its resistance is ohm.( 2A . 4.5 ohm)
47) The value of resistance “R” shown in the figure is :
(a) 3.5 ohm (b) 2.5 ohm (c) 1 ohm (d) 4.5 ohm

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48 ) In the figure Ra , Rb and Rc are 20 ohm , 10 ohm and 10 ohm respectively . The resistances R1 , R2 and
R3 in ohms of an equivalent star – connection are
a. 2.5, 5, 5
b. 5, 2.5, 5
c. 5, 5, 2.5
d. 2.5 ,5,2.5
49) An ideal current source has zero resistance -- TRUE / FALSE .
50) If the diameter of the wire is halved ,its current carrying capacity will become
approximately . (one-fourth )
X X X

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Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad
EN Department
Multiple Choice Questions
Subject Name/Subject Code: Basic Electrical Engineering (KEE-201T)

Year/Semester: II
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
UNIT I: DC CIRCUITS
Q1. If the area of cross section of a wire with a given length is doubled its resistance
will
(A) Be doubled
(B) Be halved
(C) Remain same
(D) Be four times more
Q2. If all the elements in a particular network are linear, then the superposition theorem
would hold, when the excitation is
(A) DC only
(B) AC only
(C) Either AC or DC
(D) None of these
Q3. Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is

(A) zero
(B) infinite
(C) finite
(D) None of these
Q4. Internal resistance of ideal current source is
(A) zero
(B) infinite
(C) finite
(D) None of these
Q5. Nodal analysis can be applied for

(A) planar networks
(B) non planar networks
(C) both planar and non planar networks
(D) neither planar and non planar networks

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Q6. Mesh analysis is applicable for

(A) planar networks
(B) non planar networks
(C) both planar and non planar networks
(D) neither planar and non planar networks
Q7. KCL works on the principle of

(A) law of conservation of charge.
(B) law of conservation of energy.
(C) both
(D) none of the above
Q8. KVL works on the principle of

(A) law of conservation of charge.
(B) law of conservation of energy.
(C) both
Q9. When we use super node technique

(A) current source branch is common for two meshes.
(B) ideal voltage source is connected between two non reference nodes.
(C) ideal voltage source is connected between non reference node and reference.
(D) All of the above.
Q10. Resistor stores the energy in the form of

(A) magnetic field.
(B) electric field.
(C) both A and B
Q 11. Four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of
the following statement is true?
(A) The current through each bulb is same.
(B) The voltage across each bulb is not same.
(C) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same.
(D) None of the above.
Q 12. In given figure, the value of resistance R in Ω is
(A) 3.5 Ω
(B) 2.5 Ω
(C) 1 Ω
(D) 4.5 Ω
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Q13. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(A) there will be heavy current in the main line.
(B) rest of two bulbs will not light.
(C) all three bulbs will light.
(D) the other two bulbs will light.
Q14. In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is
(A) 6 V.
(B) -6 V.
(C) 10 V.
(D) 12 V.
Q 15. The value of current I flowing in the 1 Ω resistor in the circuit shown in the given
figure will be
(A) 5 A
(B) 6 A
(C) 0A
(D) 10A
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Q 16. In the network shown, what is the current I in the direction shown?
(A) 0A
(B) 1/3 A
(C) 5/6 A
(D) 4A
Q17.In given figure, the value of resistance R in Ω is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Q18. In the circuit shown below, what is the voltage across 5 Ω resistor?
(A) -28.4 V.
(B) 34.4 V
(C) -27.4V
(D) none of these

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Q19. In the given figure the value of the source voltage is
(A) 12V
(B) 30V
(C) 44V
(D) 24V
Q20. Three resistances of two ohms each are connected in star. In the equivalent delta representation
each resistance will have a value of _______________ Ω
(A) 3.4
(B) 6
(C) 5.6
(D) 5.2
Q21. In what connection we get neutral?
(A) Star
(B) Delta
(C) Mesh
(D) Both A and B
Q22. Whenever current is supplied by a source its terminal voltage
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
(D) none of these
Q23. A branch of a network is said to be active when it consists of one
(A) voltage source
(B) Resistor
(C) inductor
(D) capacitor

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Q24. A branch of a network is said to be passive when it contains

(A) voltage source
(B) voltmeter
(C) current source
(D) battery
Q25. Which of the following is not a bilateral element?
(A) resistor
(B) diode
(C) capacitor
(D) inductor
Q26. The internal resistance of a practical voltage source is considered to be connected in
(A) series
(B) parallel
(C) either series or parallel
Q27. The basic circuit elements are
(A) R, L and C
(B) Vs and Is
(C) both A and B
Q28. In given figure, the value of resistance R in Ω is
(A) 2.5 Ω.
(B) 5 Ω.
(C) 7.5 Ω.
(D) 10 Ω.

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Q29. When 125 V is applied across a 250 V, 100 W filament incandescent bulbs, the power
consumption is
(A) 25 W.
(B) 12.5 W.
(C) 50 W.
(D) 100 W.
Q30. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is used for
(A) nodal analysis.
(B) finding equivalent resistance.
(C) representing a current source
(D) loop analysis.
Q31. Kirchhoff’s current law is used for
(A) nodal analysis.
(B) finding equivalent resistance.
(C) representing a current source
(D) loop analysis.
Q32. For Norton’s equivalent circuit
(A) Isc = Voc / Req.
(B) Isc = Voc Req.
(C) Voc = Isc / Req.
(D) Voc = Req / Isc.
Q33. Which of the following is applicable for both linear and non-linear circuits?
(A) None of these .
(B) Thevnin’s theorem.
(C) Norton’s theorem.
(D) Superposition theorem.
Q34. The Thevenin equivalent of the circuit shown in the figure is

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(A) 0.75V, 5/6 Ohm

(B) 0.75 V, 1.5 Ohm
(C) 1.5 V, 1.5 Ohm
(D) 1.5 V, 5/6 Ohm
Q35. The Norton equivalent of the circuit shown in the figure is
(A) 0.75A, 5/6 Ohm

(B) 0.75 A, 1.5 Ohm
(C) 1A, 1.5 Ohm
(D) 1A, 5/6 Ohm
Q36. The terminals across the source are ___________ if a current source is to be neglected.
(A) short circuited.
(B) open circuited.
(C) replaced by a shunt resistance.
(D) replaced by a series resistance.
Q37. The delta eqivalent of given star connected impedance ZQR is equal to
(A) 40 Ω.
(B) (20+j10) Ω.
(C) (5 + j10 / 3) Ω.
(D) (10 + j30) Ω.
Q38. In the circuit shown below, find the Thevenin equivalent resistance.
STUDY ZONE
(A) 6/5 Ohm

(B) 5/6 Ohm
(C) 5 Ohm
(D) 1.5 Ohm
Q39. If a large resistance is connected in parallel to a small resistance then net resistance will be
(A) greater than the large resistance.
(B) smaller than the small resistance.
(C) smaller than the greater but larger than the smaller resistance.
Q40. For the network shown in figure, the value of current through 8Ω resistor is
(A) 4.8 A.
(B) 2.4A
(C) 1.5A
(D) 1.2A
Answer Key Unit-1
1.B 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.B 9.B
10.D 11.A 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.B 18.A
19.B 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.B 26.A 27.A
28.C 29.A 30.A 31.D 32.A 33.A 34.C 35.C 36.B
37.D 38.A 39.B 40.B

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UNIT II: Steady state analysis of single phase AC circuits
Q1) An alternating voltage is represented by: v = 141·4 sin 377 t. It’s time period will be
A 20 ms
B 16.67 ms
C 12.48 ms
D 10.28 ms
Q2) The power factor of tungsten bulb is

A0
B1
C 0.5
D 0.8
Q3) The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. The average value is
A 254.8 V
B 200 V
C 278.4 V
D 282.8 V
Q4) In a parallel RC circuit, the line current will
A in phase with the voltage

B lag the voltage
C lead the voltage
D None of the above
Q5) When the current and voltage in a circuit are out of phase by 90°, the power consumed is
A maximum
B minimum
C zero
D none of the above
Q6) In a series RC circuit as frequency increases

A current decrease
B current remains the same
C current increases
D none of the above
STUDY ZONE
Q7) A 500 V sine wave appears across a 10 k Ω resistor. What is the instantaneous current in the
resistor at a phase angle of 35º ?
A 5 mA
B 40.6mA
C 28.67 mA
D 50 mA
Q8) An alternating voltage is given by v = 20 sin 157 t. The frequency of the alternating voltage is
.............
A 50 Hz
B 100Hz
C 25 Hz
D 75 Hz
Q9) An alternating voltage is given by v = 100 sin 314 t volts. Its average value will be.............
A 70.7 V
B 50 V
C 63·7 V
D 100 V
Q10) A 100 V peak a.c. is as effective as ............. d.c

A 100 V
B 50 V
C 70.7 V
D 63.7 V
Q 11) The impedance of an a.c. circuit is 45 ∠ –30° ohm. The circuit will be
A resistive
B inductive
C capacitive
D none of above
Q12) A circuit has an impedance of (1 – j 2) Ohm. The susceptance of the circuit is

A 0.1 S
B 0.2 S
C 0.4 S
D none of the above
STUDY ZONE
Q 13) In a 3-phase system, VYN = 100 ∠ − 120° V and VBN = 100 ∠ 120° V. What is VYB ?
A 200 ∠0 V
B0V
C 173.2 ∠-90 V
D None of the above
Q14) The r.m.s. value of sinusoidally varying current is ............ that of its average value.
A more than
B less than
C same
D none of the above
Q15) The form factor of a sinusoidal wave is .............

A 1.21
B1
C 1.11
D 1.414
Q 16)The peak factor of a square wave is .............

A 1.21
B1
C 1.414
D2
Q 17) In a series L-C-R circuit, the voltages across R, L and C are shown in Fig. . The voltage of the
applied source is
A 110v
B 50V
C 70V
D None of the above

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Q18) In a circuit element, the p.d. is higher than the applied voltage of the source. That will be
A dc circuit
B ac circuit
C neither dc or ac circuit
D None of the above
Q 19) Fig. shows an R-L-C series circuit connected across an a.c. source Ev. If the frequency of a.c.
source is more than the resonant frequency, the circuit current (Iv)
A is in phase with the applied voltage

B is leading the applied voltage
C is lagging the applied voltage
D None of the above
Q20) Fig. shows an R-L-C series circuit connected across an a.c. source Ev, if the frequency of source
is less than the resonant frequency, then circuit current (Iv)
A is in phase with the applied voltage

B is leading the applied voltage
C is lagging the applied voltage
D None of the above
Q21) The magnitude of the impedance of a circuit in which I = (2 + j 3)A and V = (10 – j 6)V will be
A 2.75 ohm
B 3.24 ohm
C 5 ohm
D 4.75 ohm
Q 22)The resistance and inductance of series connected elements that will draw a current of 20 ∠ –
30° A from a 60 Hz sinusoidal generator whose voltage is 100 ∠ 0° V will be
A 3.2 ohm, 5.5 mH
B 2.75 ohm, 5 mH
C 4.35 ohm, 6.6 mH
D None of the above

STUDY ZONE
Q 23) The p.d. across and the current in a circuit are represented by (100 + j 200) V and (10 + j5) A
respectively. The power consumed will be
A 2000W
B 1200 W
C 1000W
D None of the above
Q 24) When a phasor is multiplied by j, it is rotated through ......... in the counter-clockwise direction.
A 60 degree
B 90 degree
C 180 degree
D 120 degree
Q 25) If a phasor is multiplied by j, then .......

A only its magnitude changes
B only its direction changes
C both magnitude and direction changes
D none of the above
Q 26) For addition or subtraction of phasors, we use .............. form.

A rectangular
B polar
C exponential
D none of the above
Q27) The voltage and current in an a.c. series circuit are 230 ∠ 0° volts and 100 ∠ 30° A respectively.
The circuit will be ................
A resistive
B capacitive
C inductive
D none of the above
Q 28)A resistor of 10 ohm is connected in parallel with an inductor of 31·8 mH. A 200 V, 50 Hz supply
is connected to the circuit. The line current will be
A 28.28 A
B 20 A
C 24.14 A
D None of the above

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Q29) In a series circuit at resonance,

A impedance is maximum
B impedance is minimum
C current is minimum
D none of the above
Q 30) In parallel resonance condition, power factor is
A zero
B unity
C 0.5
D 0.707
Q31) Q factor is inversely proportional to

A resonant frequency
B current
C bandwidth
D None of the above
Q 32)A coil of resistance 25 ohm and inductance 0.5 H is in parallel with a 5µF capacitor. The
bandwidth of the circuit is
A 6.1 Hz
B 12.48 Hz
C 7.96 Hz
D 8.76 Hz
Q 33) The conductance and susceptance components of admittance are .................

A series elements
B parallel elements
C series- parallel elements
D none of the above
Q 34) The admittance of a circuit is (0.1 + j 0.8) S. The circuit is ..............

A resistive
B inductive
C capacitive
D none of the above
Q 35) Three similar coils each having a resistance of 5 ohm and an inductance of 0.02H are connected
in delta to a 440V, 3-phase, 50Hz supply. The line current will be
A 94.8 A
B 108.2 A
C 146 A
D 148.2 A

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Q 36) The load to a 3-phase supply consists of three similar coils connected in star. The line currents
are 25 A and the kVA and kW inputs are 20 and 11 respectively. The resistance and reactance of each
coil is
A 5.87 ohm, 6.27 ohm
B 6.27 ohm, 7.82 ohm
C 5.87 ohm, 8.92 ohm
D 6.27 ohm, 7.19 ohm
Q 37) A balanced star-connected load of impedance (6 + j 8) ohm per phase is connected to a 3-
phase, 230 V, 50Hz supply. The line current will be
A 15.2A
B 13.3 A
C 9.6 A
D 6.8 A
Q 38) Three similar resistors are connected in star across 400 V, 3-phase supply. The line current is 5
A. The value of each resistance per phase is
A 80 ohm
B 62.5 ohm
C 46.2 ohm
D 34.8 ohm
Q 39) A 220 V, 3-phase voltage is applied to a balanced Delta-connected 3-phase load of phase
impedance (15 + j 20) ohm. The power consumed per phase is
A 1865 Watt
B 1465 Watt
C 1210 Watt
D 1162 Watt
Q 40) The resistance between any two terminals of a balanced star-connected load is 12 Ω. The
resistance of each phase is ....................
A 12 Ω
B 18 Ω
C6Ω
D None of the above
Q 41) Power factor of a circuit can be improved by using

A induction motor
B Choke
C Capacitor
D None of the above
Q 42) The phase sequence generally used for circuit analysis is

A RBY
B RYB
C YRB
D None of the above

STUDY ZONE

STUDY ZONE
ANSWER KEY
Q No. Option Q No. Option
1 B 23 A
2 B 24 B
3 A 25 B
4 C 26 A
5 C 27 B
6 C 28 A
7 C 29 B
8 C 30 B
9 C 31 C
10 C 32 A
11 C 33 B
12 C 34 C
13 C 35 A
14 A 36 D
15 C 37 B
16 B 38 C
17 B 39 D
18 B 40 C
19 C 41 C
20 B 42 B
21 B
22 C
UNIT 3-TRANSFORMER
Q1. In order to minimize hysteresis loss, the magnetic material should
have
(A) High resistivity
(B) Low hysteresis co-efficient
(C) Large B - H loop area
(D) High retentivity
Q2. The B/H ratio is not constant for ________

(A)Diamagnetic materials
(B) Ferromagnetic materials
(C) Paramagnetic materials
(D) Non-magnetic materials

STUDY ZONE
Q3. B/H curve shows the relationship between?

(A) Magnetic field strength and magnetic flux
(B) Magnetic field strength and magnetic flux density
(C) Current and magnetic flux density
(D) Voltage and magnetic flux density
Q4. The silica Gel in a breather of a transformer is-

(A) To maintain oil level
(B) To avoid overflow of oil
(C) To prevent entry of dust to the transformer
(D) To prevent entry of moisture into the transformer
Q5. The transformer ratio of a transformer is given by-

(A) N2 /N1
(B) V2 /V1
(C)I1 /I2
(D) All of the above
Q6. Which material is used for construction of core of transformer

(A) Silicon iron steel
(B) Mild steel iron
(C) carbon steel iron
(D) pig iron steel
Q7. If the full load iron loss of the transformer is 1000 watts, what will be the
iron loss at half load?
(A)125 w
(B) 250 w
(C)500 w NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
FOR IMPORTANT
STUDY ZONE
(D)1000w
Q8. A transformer core is laminated to
(A) reduce hysterissis loss
(B) reduce eddy current losses
(C) reduce copper losses
(D)reduce all above cases.
Q9.Open circuit test on a transformer is carried out to determine-

(A)copper loss
(B)magnetizing current
(C)magnetizing current and loss
(D)efficiency of the transformer
Q10. The efficiency of the transformer will be maximum when

(A) copper loss= hysteresis loss
(B) hysteresis loss = eddy current losses
(C) eddy current loss= copper loss
(D) copper loss = iron loss
Q11. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain
constant irrespective of load changes are
(A) friction and windage losses
(B) copper losses
(C) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(D) None of the above
Q12. NO-load current of a transformer has

(A) has high magnitude and low power factor
(B) has high NOTES
FOR IMPORTANT magnitude and high
TOUCH TOpower factor !!"
"!! ADITYA
STUDY ZONE
(C) has small magnitude and high power factor

(D) has small magnitude and low power factor
Q13. The thickness of the laminations used in a transformer is usually

(A) 0.4mm to 0.5mm
(B) 4mm to 5 mm
(C)14mm to 15 mm
(D) 25mm to 40 mm
Q14. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer?

(A) frequency
(B) voltage
(C) current
(D) all of the above
Q15. A transformer can have negative voltage regulation for

(A)leading power factor
(B)lagging power factor
(C)unity power factor
(D) zero power factor
Q16. Which type of winding is used in shell type of transformer

(A) circular type
(B) sandwich type
(C) cylindrical type
(D) rectangular type
Q17. Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
(A) hysteresis losses
(B) copper losses
STUDY ZONE
(C) core losses

(D) eddy current losses
Q18. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a single phase
transformer on load
(A) E2 = V2 + I 2 R2 + I2 X2
(B) V1 = E1 + I1 R1 + I1X1
(C) V1 = - E1 + I1 R1 + I2 X2
(D) A and C both
Q19. A 600 kVA transformer has iron losses of 400 kW and copper losses of 500 kW.
Its kVA rating for maximum efficiency is given by
(A) 537kVA
(B) 548kVA
(C) 555kVA
(D) 585 kVA
Q20. In a 20 kVA, 2200 / 220 volts transformer iron and copper losses are 300 and
400 watts respectively. Its efficiency at half load and unity power factor is
(A) 95.11%
(B) 96.15%
(C) 97.77%
(D) 98%
Q21. A 500 kVA single phase transformer has 90% efficiency at both half load and
full load at unity power factor. Then iron losses will be
(A)12.55KW
(B)13.55kW
(C)16.55kW
(D)18.55 KW
Q22. The no-load current drawn by the transformer is usually what percent of

STUDY ZONE
the full-load current?

(A) 0.2 to 0.5 percent
(B) 2 to 5 percent
(C) 12 to 15 percent
(D) 20 to 30 percent
Q23. When a 400Hz transformer is operated at 50Hz its KVA rating is
(A) Reduced to 1/8
(B) Increased 8 times
(C) Unaffected
(D) Increased 64 times
Q24. If K is the transformation ratio of step up autotransformer and Wtw is the total
weight of copper in two winding transformer. Then the saving of copper is given by
(A) K Wtw
(B) Wtw/ K
(C) Wtw/ K2
(D) K2 Wtw
Q25. A transformer is working at full load with maximum efficiency. Its iron loss is
1000W. What will be its copper loss at half of full load
(A)1000W
(B)500W
(C)250 W
(D)4000W
Q26. A 50KVA 1000/200V transformer takes 5A current at a power factor of 0.2
lagging, when connected to 1000V side at no load is connected at other side. The core
loss in transformer will be
(A)1000W
(B)250W
(C)500W
(D)750W

STUDY ZONE
Q27. In the transformer, the resistive drop is 2% and reactive drop is 5%. What will be
its regulation at full load unity power factor?
(A)1%
(B)3%
(C)2%
(D)4%
Q28. If P1 and P2 be the iron and copper losses of a transformer at full load and the
maximum efficiency is at 75 % of the full load, then what is the ratio of P1 and P2?
(A)9/16
(B)10/16
(C)3/4
(D)3/16
Q29. A 2 kVA transformer has iron loss of 150 W and full load coper loss of 250 W.
The maximum efficiency of the transformer would occur when the total loss is
(A)500w
(B)400w
(C)300w
(D)275w
Q30. The desirable properties of transformer core material are
(A)Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
(B)High permeability and high hysteresis loss
(C) High permeability and low hysteresis loss
(D)Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
Answer Keys:
Q1.B
Q2.B
Q3.B
Q4.D

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Q5.D
Q6.A
Q7.D
Q8.B
Q9.C
Q10.D
Q11.C
Q12.D
Q13.A
Q14.A
Q15.A
Q16.B
Q17.B
Q18.B
Q19.A
Q20.B
Q21.D
Q22.B
Q23.A
Q24.B
Q25.C
Q26.A
Q27.C
Q28.A
Q29.C
Q30.C

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UNIT 3-TRANSFORMER
SET -B
Q1. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

A. Reduces the weight per kVA
B. Increases the weight per kVA
C. Has no relation with the weight of transformer
D. Increases the weight per KW
Q2. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
A. Flux density remains unchanged
B. Iron losses are reduced
C. Core flux density is reduced
D. Core flux density is increased
Q3. Conservator for transformer is used

A. To take up the expansion of oil due to temperature rise
B. To act as an oil storage
C. For better cooling of transformer
D. None of the above
Q4. A Buchholz relay is used for
A. Protection of a transformer against all internal faults

B. Protection of a transformer against external faults
C. Protection of a transformer against both internal and external faults
D. Protection of induction motors
Q5. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
A. Increase m.m.f
B. Increase the flux
C. Prevent saturation

STUDY ZONE
Q6. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

A. Less than one
B. More than one
C. More than 10
D. More than 100 or 1000
Q7. The unit of magnetic flux is

A. Henry
B. Weber
C. Ampere-turn/weber
D. Ampere/meter
Q8. Permeability of a magnetic circuit corresponds to………. in an electrical circuit

A. Resistance
B. Resistivity
C. Conductivity
D. Conductance
Q9. The magnetising force (H) and magnetic flux density (B) are connected by the relation
A. B = µrH/µ0
B. B = µH
C. B = H/µrµ0
D. B = µr/Hµ0
Q10. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
A. Reluctivity
B. Magnetomotive force
C. Permeance
D. Reluctance
Q11. When does delta/star transformer work satisfactorily?
A. Load is balanced only
STUDY ZONE
B. Load is unbalanced only

C. On balanced as well as unbalanced loads
D. Independent of load type
Q12. The transformer which is more feasible to use in the distribution ends should be ___________
A. star-delta
B. delta-star
C. scott
D. delta-delta
Q13. In a three-phase star – delta transformer, what is the angle difference between primary and
secondary phase voltages?
A. Delta side leads by 300
B. Delta side lags by 300
C. Star side leads by 300
D. Star side lags by 300
Q14. When a resistance is to be transferred from primary to secondary side of transformer with the
turns ratio as k, it must be
A. Multiplied by k2
B. Multiplied by k
C. Divided by k
D. Divided by k2
Q15. A 10 kVA, 2000 / 100v transformer has R1=1.5 ohm, R2=0.005 ohm, X1=2.5 ohm and
A. 3 ohm
B. 3.25 ohm
C. 3.5 ohm
D. 3.8 ohm
Q16. A transformer when connected to a 230V, 50Hz supply, under no load draws a current of 4A at
a power factor of 0.2 lagging. The magnetizing current (Im) and core loss (Pc) is equal to
A. 3.919A, 184W
B. 1.84A, 391.9W
C. 39.19A, 184W
D. 3A, 180W
STUDY ZONE
Q17. Permanent magnets should have

A. High retentivity and low coercivity.
B. Low retentivity and high coercivity.
C. High retentivity and high coercivity.
D. Low retentivity and low coercivity.
Q18. A 25 KVA transformer has a voltage ratio of 3300/400V. calculate the primary and secondary
Currents.
A. 8.5 A, 70 A …
B. 7.58 A , 62.5A
C. 75.8A, 6.25 A
D. 85A, 7A
Q19. A 200 KVA ,1 phase transformer with a voltage ratio of 6350/660V has the following winding
resistance and reactances:
R1 = 1.56Ω, R2 = 0.016Ω , X1 = 4.67 Ω , X2 = 0.048Ω
Calculate the equivalent resistance and reactance of the transformer referred to high voltage winding.
A. 0.0328 Ω, 0.0984 Ω
B. 0.328 Ω , 0.984 Ω
C. 3.04 Ω, 9.12 Ω
D. 30.4 Ω, 9.12 Ω
Q20. In a transformer, the core loss is 100 W at 40 Hz and 72 W at 30 Hz. Find the hysteresis and
eddy current losses at 50 Hz
A. 25W, 105W
B. 105 W, 25 W
C. 250 W, 100 W
D. 200 W, 144W
Q21. A single phase transformer working at unity power factor has an efficiency of 90% at both half
load and at full load of 500 W. Determine the maximum efficiency .
A. 90.51%
B. 92.51%
C. 95.5 %
D. 97.5%

STUDY ZONE
Q22. An Autotransformer is used as ___________________ in laboratory to give continuous

variable voltage.
A. Generator
B. Step up transformer
C. Variac
Q23. The winding used in the core type transformer is:
A. multilayer disc type
B. concentric type
C. sandwich type
Q24. A 1-phase, 440V/110V, 50 Hz transformer takes a no-load current of 5A at 0.2 power factor
lagging. If the secondary supplies a current of 120 A at a power factor of 0.8 lagging to a load,
determine the primary current and the primary power factor.
A. 33.9A, 0.737 lagging
B. 40 A, 0.9 lagging
C. 35A, 0.5 lagging
D. 40 A, 0.9 leading
Q25. The S.I unit for reluctance is ________________.
A. AT
B. Wb
C. AT/Wb
D. AT/M
Q26. Which of the following statements is true about magnetic field intensity?
A. Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit volume.
B. Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit area.
C. Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole.
D. Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic moment per unit volume.
Q27. Silver, mercury, diamonds are _______________________ materials.

A. Ferromagnetic
B. diamagnetic
STUDY ZONE
C. paramagnetic
Q28. Which of the following statement is true for paramagnetic material.
A. relative permeability is less than unity
B. relative permeability is greater than unity
C. relative permeability is very large
D. relative permeability is equal to unity
Q29. The EMF in the secondary of the two winding transformer is due to:
A. mutual induction
B. self Induction
C. conduction
Q30. Which of the following statement is correct as referred to transformer at no load
A. E2 = V2 + I2 R2 + I2 X2
B. V2 = E2 + I2 R2 + I2 X2
C. E2 = -V2 + I2 R2 + I2 X2
D. V2 = E2
Answer keys:
Q1.A
Q2.D
Q3.A
Q4.A
Q5.C
Q6.D
Q7.B
Q8.C
Q9.B
Q10.D
Q11.C
Q12.A
Q13.A
Q14.A
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Q15.C
Q16.A
Q17.C
Q18.B
Q19.C
Q20.B
Q21.A
Q22.C
Q23.B
Q24.A
Q25.C
Q26.C
Q27.B
Q28.B
Q29.A
Q30.D

STUDY ZONE
Unit 4: Electrical Machines

Q1: The direction of induced e.m.f in a generator is given by…………..
(A) Fleming’s right hand rule
(B) Right hand thumb rule
(C) Fleming’s left hand rule
(D) Cork screw rule
Q2: If the angle between the plane of flux and the plane of relative motion is 0 degree then the induced emf
is:
(A) zero
(B) maximum
(C) infinite
(D) none of these
Q3: ……………….provides mechanical support to the d.c. machine.
(A) poles
(B) armature
(C) yoke
(D) bearings
Q4: Yoke is made up of……….
(A) copper
(B) aluminium
(C) cast steel
(D) cast iron
Q5: Air ducts are provided in the armature core to……………
(A) Increase the core area

STUDY ZONE
(B) cool the machine
(C) to accommodate the winding
(D) none of these
Q6: The generation of e.m.f takes place in………..of a d.c. machine.
(A) armature winding
(B) field winding
(C) pole core
(D) Interpoles
Q7: The brushes are made up of………………..
(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) silver
(D) carbon
Q 8: A d.c. machine having……………...poles has four magnetic circuits.
(A) 8
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 16
Q9: The armature of a d.c. machine is laminated because:
(A) to reduce hysteresis loss
(B) to reduce eddy current loss
(C) to reduce copper loss
(D) to reduce mechanical loss
Q10: The basic nature of the induced e.m.f in the armature is……………….
STUDY ZONE
(A) pure d.c.
(B) a.c.
(C) rotating
(D) d.c. with pulsating d.c.
Q11: The brushes are made up of soft material because…………
(A) it is easy to collect e.m.f
(B) they are rotating
(C) to avoid wear and tear of commutator
(D) to reduce friction losses
Q12: The number of parallel paths equal to the number of poles in……….winding.
(A) wave
(B) distributed
(C) concentrated
(D) lap
Q13: The brush drop in dc machines is about……….V/brush.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) zero
Q14: In a shunt generator, which of the following relations is true ?
(A) Ia = Iₗ + Ish
(B) Iₗ = Ia + Ish
(C ) Iₗ - Ia = Ish
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(D) Iₗ + Ia + Ish = 0
(Iₗ = line current)
Q15: When the fluxes produced by series and shunt field windings help each other , the compound
generator is called…………….
(A) differentially compound
(B) long shunt compound
(C) cumulatively compound
(D) short shunt compound
Q16: The back e.m.f in a motor is due to………………..
(A) generating action
(B) motoring action
(C) reverse action
(D) none of these
Q17: The condition for maximum power developed in a d.c. motor is……………..
(A) Eb = V
(B) Eb = 0.5 V
(C) V = 0.5Eb
(D) Eb = √V

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Q18: ………...rotor is permanently short circuited.
(A) slip ring
(B) wound
(C) squirrel cage
(D) cup type
Q19: The value of slip is………..at start.
(A) zero
(B) infinite
(C ) 100
(D) 1
Q20: For a 6 pole, 50 Hz induction motor, the full load speed is 950 r.p.m hence full load slip is……………..
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.08
Q21: The rotor of an induction motor rotates in the same direction as that of the rotating magnetic field ,
according to………………….
(A) Coulomb’s law
(B) Lenz’s law
(C) faraday’s Law
(D) Ohm’s Law
Q22: ……… induction motor is preferred when maintenance is the main consideration.
(A) slip ring

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(B) wound rotor
(C) split ring
(D) squirrel cage
Q23: The rotor construction of the single phase induction motor is………..
(A) squirrel cage
(B) slip ring
(C) salient pole
(D) cylindrical
Q24: The single phase induction motors are:
(A) of large size
(B) of large power rating
(C) unity power factor motors
(D) not self starting
Q25: In shaded pole induction motor, the stator loss…..
(A) salient poles
(B) cylindrical poles
(C) square poles
(D) none of these
Q26: The direction of rotation of the shaded pole induction motor is……..
(A) clockwise
(B) from non shaded part to the shaded part of pole
(C) counter clockwise
(D) from the shade part to the non shaded part.

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Q27: The efficiency of the shaded pole motor is………….
(A) high
(B) moderate
(C) very low
(D) zero
Q28: In a capacitor start motor, the phase angle between starting winding current and main winding current
is nearly………..
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 0°
Q29: The range of speed of the salient pole synchronous machine is…………………
(A) above 500 r.p.m
(B) above 1000 r.p.m
(C) 125 to 500 r.p.m
(D) none of these
Q30: ……………….rotor construction is used for turbo alternators.
(A) non-salient
(B) salient
(C) squirrel cage
(D) slip ring
Q 31: For an alternator, 1° mechanical = ………………… electrical

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(A) P°
(B) 2P°
(C) 4P°
(D) P°/2
Q32: The synchronous motor always runs at………….speed.
(A) subsynchronous
(B) synchronous
(C) more than synchronous
(D) none of these
Q33: The working principle of synchronous motor.
(A) magnetic locking
(B) magnetic hunting
(C) magnetic induction
(D) none of these
Q34: The torque at which a synchronous motor comes out of synchronism is called…….
(A) shaft torque
(B) armature torque
(C) pull out torque
(D) slip torque
Q35: In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally
(A) less than 1%
(B) 5%
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(C) 2%
(D) 4%
Q36: The shaft of the induction motor must be……….
(A) solid
(B) hollow
(C) flexible
(D) any of the above
Q37: A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor current will be:
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 25 Hz
(C) 5 Hz
(D) 2 Hz
Q38: The efficiency of an induction motor is about:
(A) 100%
(B) 80-90%
(C) 50-60%
(D) less than 50%
Q39: In …..motor, the speed can be controlled from the rotor side
(A) AC series
(B) Slipring
(C) Squirrel cage
(D) Universal

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Q40: Induction motor is generalized
(A) generator
(B) capacitor
(C) transformer
(D) none of these
Answer Keys:
Q1 A Q2 A
Q3 C Q4 D
Q5 B Q6 A
Q7 D Q8 C
Q9 B Q10 B
Q11 C Q12 D
Q13 C Q14 A
Q15 C Q16 B
Q17 B Q18 C
Q19 D Q20 A
Q21 B Q22 D
Q23 A Q24 D
Q25 A Q26 B
Q27 C Q28 C
Q29 C Q30 A
Q31 D Q32 B
Q33 A Q34 C
Q35 B Q36 A
Q37 D Q38 B
Q39 B Q40 C
UNIT-5 Electrical installations

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PART-1
1. Which one is the easiest method for earth resistance measurement?

A. Fall of potential
B. Selective measurement
C. Stakeless measurement
D. All are equally easy
2. In any system (grounding or ungrounding), a……. coupling exist between the system
conductors and the adjacent grounding surfaces:
A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
3. The advantage of neutral earthing is:

A. Freedom from persistent arcing grounds
B. Over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
C. Simplified design earth fault protection
D. All of the above
4. Generally grounding is provided for:

A. only for the safety of the equipment
B. only for the safety of the operating personnel
C. Both (A) and (B)
5. Which of the following solution is used to reduces the earth’s resistivity?
A. Nacl
B. Na2SO4
C. CaCl
D. Ca2CO3
6. The objective of earthing or grounding is ____.
A. to provide as low resistance possible to the ground
B. to provide as high resistance possible to the ground
C. to provide flow of positive, negative and zero sequence currents

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7. Soil resistance depends on:

A. depth of the electrode
B. moisture
C. Nacl
D. All of the above
8. What is earthing?
A. connecting electrical machines to earth
B. providing a connection to the ground
C. connecting the electrical machines to source
D. providing a source of current
9. Which insulation is most widely used in wire and cables?
A. Paper
B. Wood
C. Glass
D. PVC
10. The Insulating material of a cable should have
A. Low cost
B. High dielectric strength
C. High mechanical strength
D. All of the above
Answer Key
Q No. Option
1 C
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 D
8 A
9 D
10 D
PART-2
Q 1. The main function of a fuse is to

A. Protect the line
B. Open the circuit
C. Prevent excessive currents
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Q 2. SF6 gas
A. is yellow in color
B. is lighter than air
C. is nontoxic
D. has pungent smell
Q 3. MCB protects a circuit from

A. Short circuit
B. Over Load only
C. Both short circuit and overload
Q 4. What is the advantage of HRC fuses over Rewireable fuses?
A. High speed operation
B. High rupturing capacity
C. No ageing effect.
D. All of the above.
Q 5. The capacity of battery expressed in terms of
A. Current rating
B. Voltage rating
C. Ampere hour rating
Q 6. Rating of fuse wire is always expressed in

A. volts
B. amperes
C. ampere-volts
D. ampere hour
Q 7. A fuse is
A. always Connected in series with circuit
B. always Connected in parallel with circuit
C. normally Connected in series with circuit
D. normally Connected in parallel with circuit
Q 8. Fuse material must have…

A. high melting point and high specific resistance
B. high melting point and low specific resistance
C. low melting point and low specific resistance
D. low melting point and high specific resistance
Q 9. Thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends upon …
A. current rating
B. voltage rating
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C. both a and b
D. none of the above
Q 10. Earth wires are made of…………

A. copper
B. aluminum
C. iron
D. galvanized stranded steel
Q 11. The earth potential is taken as…
A. zero
B. that of supply
C. infinite
Q 12. Third pin in a 3- pin plug is provided so as to…
A. provide an earth connection
B. provide a 3 -phase supply when required
C. proved a spare phase when required
Q 13. backup of a battery of 100 AH connected to a load of 100 W and a supply voltage of 12 V.
A. 12 hours
B. 8.33 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 20 hours
Q 14. A battery has taken charging current of 18 A for 10 hours at a voltage 2.26 V, while
discharging it gave a current of 17.2 A for 10 hours at an average voltage of 1.98 V.
Ampere hour efficiency of the battery is …..
A. 95.55 %
B. 83.72 %
C. 92 5
D. 94 %
Q 15. ELCB detects
A. phase current
B. neutral current
C. leakage current

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Q 16. Domestic wires are employed to withstand the voltage level up to

A. 11 KV
B. 1 KV
C. 33 KV
D. 400 V
Q 17. LT switch gear is used in...

A. transmission network
B. distribution network
C. generation network
Q 18. 1-UNIT of electricity is equivalent to
A. 1000 Whr
B. 100 Whr
C. 1 Whr
Q 19. Earth continuity conductor is employed to connect

A. the current- carrying part of equipment to the earth.
B. the non-current-carrying part of equipment to the earth.
C. both A & B

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ANSWER KEY
Q 1. C
Q 2. C
Q 3. C
Q 4. D
Q 5. C
Q 6. B
Q 7. A
Q 8. C
Q 9. B
Q 10. D
Q 11. A
Q 12. A
Q 13. A
Q 14. A
Q 15. C
Q 16. B
Q 17. B
Q 18. A
Q 19. B
Q 20.
Q 21.
Q 22.
Q 23.
Q 24.
Q 25.
Q 26.

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MCQ Question Bank for

Basic Electrical Engineering (KEE-201T)
Unit-1
1. The power factor of a DC circuit is always
a) 0
b) unity
c) less than Unity
d) more than Unity.
2. The time period of DC supply is ..........

a) 0
b) unity
c) infinite
d) more than Unity.
3. The form factor of DC voltages is ...........

a) 0
b) unity
c) less than Unity
d) more than Unity
4. Out of these which is not a non-linear element:

a) Diode
b) Transistor
c) Op-amp
d) Heater coil
5. Nodal analysis and mesh method of network analysis can be applied to:
a) Independent voltage source
b) Independent current source
c) Independent and dependent, voltage and current source
d) all of these
6. An active network has:

a) only resistive elements
b) only capacitive elements
c) only inductive elements
d) only voltage and current elements
7. An passive network has:

a) no emf source

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b) no current source
c) either emf source or current source
d) neither emf source nor current source
8. Star Delta transformation is applied to :

a) One terminal network
b) Two terminal network
c) Three terminal network
d) None of these
9. In superposition theorem:
a) Only voltage and current sources are removed
b) Only voltage sources are removed
c) Only current sources are removed
d) Only one voltage or current source is considered at a time.
10. Out of following which statement is false?

a) Voltage source is an active element
b) Current source is a passive element
c) Resistance is a passive element
d) Conductance is a passive element

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Unit-2
1. In a purely resistive circuit. The difference between voltage and current is

a) 0
b) 90
c) 180
d) None of these
2. In purely resistive circuit, the power factor will be:

a) lagging
b) leading.
c) unity
d) None of these
3. In AC circuit power consumed is given by

a) Vm Im
b) Vrms. Irms
c) Vrms. Irms cosɸ
d) Vrms. Irms /2
4. The power consumed in purely inductive circuit will be:

a) 0
b) unity
c) less than Unity
d) more than Unity.
5. The power consumed in purely capacitive circuit will be:

a) 0
b) unity
c) less than Unity
d) more than Unity
6. At the time of series resonance, the power factor will be

a) unity
b) lagging
c) leading
d) none of these
7. If impedance of an RLC series circuit is given by A + j B, then condition of resonance occurs when
a) A = 0
b) B = 0
c) A = 0, B = 0
d) A ≠ 0, B ≠ 0

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8. The resonance curve is drawn in between.

a) voltage and current
b) voltage and frequency
c) current and frequency
d) none of these.
9. At the time of series resonance the current flowing in the circuit will be
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) either maximum or minimum
d) neither maximum nor minimum
10. If P is the true power, Q is the reactive power. And S is the apparent power. Then the power
factor is given by:
a) P/S
b) Q/S
c) P/Q
d) Q/P
11. The resonant frequency is the:

a) Arithmetic mean of half power frequencies.
b) Geometric mean of half power frequencies.
c) Harmonic mean of half power frequencies.
d) None of these.
12. Form factor is the ratio of .......and........

a) RMS value, average value
b) average value, RMS value
c) RMS value, peak value
d) peak value , RMS value
13. Peak factor is the ratio of .......and........

a) RMS value, average value
b) average value, RMS value
c) RMS value, peak value
d) peak value , RMS value
14. In a branch of circuit impedance is 40<54˚. This implies that

a) Resistive
b) Inductive
c) Capacitive
d) Any of these

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15. If impedance and voltage is same, the Power in delta connection is .......times of power in star
connection-
a) Two
b) three
a) 1/ Two
c) 1/ three

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Unit-3
1. The transformer is used to change the.
a) Voltage
b) Frequency.
c) Power.
d) Power factor.
2. A transformer does not transform :

a) Power
b) Voltage
c) Impedance
d) Current
3. An ideal transformer does not change :

a) Power
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) None of these
4. Which is not the transformation ratio of the transformer?

𝑰
a) 𝑰𝟐
𝟏
𝐼1
b)
𝐼2
𝐸2
c) 𝐸1
𝑁2
d) 𝑁1
5. The rating of the transformer is given in.

a) KW
b) KVA
c) KVAR
d) KA
6. The open-circuit test is carried out on rated.

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Power

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d) All of these.
7. The short-circuit test is carried out on rated.

e) Voltage
f) Current
g) Power
h) All of these.
8. Which loss in transformer varies significantly with load :

a) Hysteresis loss
b) Eddy current loss
c) Copper loss
d) Core loss
9. A distribution transformer is designed to have maximum efficiency near at :

a) No load
b) Half load
c) Full load
d) None of these.
10. A Power transformer is designed to have maximum efficiency near at :

a) No-load
b) Half load
c) Full load
d) None of these
11. If the full load copper loss is 800 watt, at half load the copper loss will become :
a) 200 W
b) 400 W
c) 600 W
d) 800 W
12. The short circuit test is performed in transformer to determine:

a) Hysteresis loss
c) Iron loss
d) Copper loss at desired load.

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13. Which of the following is minimized by laminating the core of a transformer?

a) Hysteresis loss
c) Heat loss
d) Mechanical vibration
14. In auto transformer, conductively power transferred is :

a) K*input
b) (1/K) *input
c) (1-K) *input
d) None of these
15. In auto transformer, inductively power transferred is :

a) K*input
b) (1/K) *input
c) (1-K) *input
d) None of these

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Unit-4
1. On what principle does the generator operate:

a) Principal of mutually induced EMF
b) Principal of dynamically induced EMF
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
2. Wave winding is employed for

a) Low current machine
b) High voltage machine
c) Low current machine and high voltage machine
d) High current machine and low voltage machine
3. Self-excitation depends on
a) Electromagnet
b) Residual magnetism
c) Self-magnetism
d) None of these
4. The number of parallel paths (A) in the case of lap and wave winding is respectively
a) 2, P
b) P, P
c) P, 2
d) 2, 2
5. The presence of back EMF makes the DC motor a

a) regulating machine
b) self-regulating machine
c) uncontrolled machine
d) none of these
6. In DC motor if speed is high then back EMF will be

a) high
b) Low
c) Unaffected

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d) none of these
7. DC shunt motor is considered as

a) variable speed of motor
b) constant speed of motor
c) variable flux motor
d) none of these
8. The value of the slip for a synchronous motor is :

a) 0.02
b) 0.5
c) 1.0
d) 0.
9. The behaviour of an under-excited synchronous motor is like :

b) Resistor
c) Inductor
d) Capacitor
e) Any of these
10. The behaviour of an over-excited synchronous motor is like :

f) Resistor
g) Inductor
h) Capacitor
i) Any of these
11. Which of the following can be used as a synchronous capacitor

a) d.c motor
b) slip ring induction motor
c) squirrel cage induction motor
d) synchronous motor
12. At standstill condition the value of slip in 3-phase Induction motor is :

a) 0
b) 0.05
c) 0.08
d) 1

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13. The efficiency of 3-phase induction motor :

a) decrease with output KW
b) increase with output KW
c) remains constant with output KW
d) none of these
14. The power factor of 3-phase induction motor :

a) decrease with output KW
b) increase with output KW
c) remains constant with output KW
d) none of these
15. Which of the following motor used as double-excited motor :

e) self-excited d.c motor
f) 3-phase induction motor
g) 1-phase induction motor
h) synchronous motor

STUDY ZONE
QUESTION BANK (KEE-201T )
1) These days D.C. motors are widely used in:
a. pumping sets
b. air compressors
c, electric traction
d. machine shop
2) An inductive circuit of resistance 16.5 Ω and inductance of 0.14 H takes a current of 25 A. if the
frequency is 50Hz, find the supply voltage.
a. 1501 V
b. 1174 V
c. 1877 V
d. 991 V
3) Salient pole type motors have

a. Large diameter and large axial length
b. Small diameter and small axial length
c. Large diameter and small axial length
d. Small diameter and large axial length
4) In transformer if the secondary is open circuited then its terminal voltage is

a. Same as the induced emf
b. Greater than the induced emf
c. Lesser than the induced emf
d. None of these
5) Slip ring induction motor are employed only for
a. Speed control
b. High starting torque
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
6) The field winding of dc series motor consists of few turns of
a. Thin wire with low resistance

b. Thick wire with low resistance
c. Thin wire with high resistance
d. Thick wire with high resistance
7) An over excited synchronous motor operating on no load condition is called as
a. Synchronous capacitor

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b. Synchronous condenser
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
8) In a step-up transformer when the voltage delivered is higher than that received, the current
delivered is
a. Higher than that received
b. Lower than that received
c. Equal to that received
d. Equal to half of that received
9) For transformers ratings are always given in kVA, not in kW because

a. It is conventional
b. Power factor of load is not known
c. For higher efficiency
d.To make calculation simple
10) A transformer is said to be isolation transformer if its primary to secondary ratio is

a. Equal to one
b. More than one
c. Less than one
d. Equal to 0.5
11 A 5kV /250V, 50Hz single phase core type transformer with average flux in the
core is 0.05wb. The number of turns in the primary winding is
a. 273
b. 278
c. 280
d. 287
12) A 10 kVA, 2000 /100v transformer has R1=1.5 ohm, R2=0.005 ohm, X1=2.5 ohm and
a. 3 ohm
b. 3.25 ohm
c. 3.5 ohm
d. 3.8 ohm
13) A 600 kVA transformer has iron losses of 400 kW and copper losses of 500 kW. Its
kVA rating for maximum efficiency is given by
a. 537 kVA
b. 548 kVA
c. 555 kVA

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d. 585 kVA
14 ) Which type of rotor is generally used for high speed alternators or turbo alternators?
a. Salient pole type

b. Projected pole type
c. Smooth cylindrical type
d. Both (a) & (b)
15 ) In a parallel circuit, we consider admittance instead of _________

a. Resistance
b. Capacitance
c. Inductance
d. Impedance
16 ) If the resonant frequency in a series RLC circuit is 50kHz along with a bandwidth of 1kHz, find the
quality factor.
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500
17 ) The current leads the supply voltage in a series RLC circuit has its frequency _________ the
resonant frequency.
a. Above
b. Below
c. Equal to
18) What is the voltage across the capacitor when the source voltage is 100V and the Q factor is 10?
a. 100V
b. 10V
c. 1000V
d. 0V
19 ) For a sharp resonance, bandwidth is ______________

a. low
b. high
c. zero
d. infinity
20 ) A voltage source of 100 V has internal impedance of 2 ohm and supplies a load having that same
impedance . The power absorbed by the load is :
a. 1200 W
b. 1250 W

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c. 1275 W
d. 1260 W
21) The instantaneous voltage and current for an ac circuit are v= 155.6 sin377t V , i= 7.07
Sin (377t -36.87º). The Reactive and active power are :
a. 166 VAR , 225 VA
b. 330 VAR , 550VA

c. 550 VAR , 330 VA
d. 300 VAR, 500 VA
22 ) A balanced star connected load is supplied from a symmetrical 3- phase , 400 V supply . The line
current of each phase is 50 A and lags 30 deg behind the phase voltage . The phase resistance is
equal to____________.
23) An alternator is delivering power to a balanced load at unity power factor . The phase angle between
the line voltage and the line current is :
a. 90 deg
b. 60 deg
c. 30 deg
d. 0 deg
24) A Shunt generator supplied 500 A at 500 V . The motor armature current will be if its armature and
shunt field resistances are 0.02 ohm and 125 ohm respectively ___________.
25) A 4-pole , 3-phase ,50 Hz , star connected Induction motor has a full load slip of 4%. The full load
speed of motor is _______________.
26) Ceiling Fan is :

a. Three phase IM
b. Single Phase IM
c. Three phase synchronous motor .
d. None of these .
27) A 4- pole lap wound dc generator generates 200 V at 1000 rpm . If this generator is now wave
wound and runs at 500 rpm , the Generated voltage will be _________.

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28) A 100 KVA single phase transformer operating at 0.9 power factor has 90% maximum efficiency . The
Iron Losses will be ______________.
29) The Short circuit test of transformer is done to determine :

a. Iron Losses
b. eddy current losses
c. copper losses at full load .
d. copper losses at desired load.
30 )The full load copper –loss and Iron- loss of a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W respectively . The
above losses at half load are _____________________.
31) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) works on the principle of ......
a. Over load current
b. Short circuit current
c. Residual current
d. Neutral current
32) Which device can be used as switch and as well as protective device?
a. Triple pole iron clad switch
b. Intermediate switch
c. Miniature circuit breaker
d.Earth leakage circuit breaker
33) The inter-sheets in the cables are used to

a. Minimise the stress
b. Avoid the requirement of good insulation
c. Provide proper stress distribution
d. Any of the above
34) Which one of the following is used in earth pit:

a. Aluminum and Iron
b. Graphite and Silver
c. Graphite and magnesium
d. Salt and charcoal
35) The advantage of neutral earthing is

a. Freedom from persistent arcing grounds
b. Over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
c. Simplified design earth fault protection
d. All of the above
36) The capacity of a lead acid cell depends on

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a. Amperes
b. Ampere-hours
c. Watts
d. Watt-hours
37 ) An offline UPS requires

a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Battery
d. Resistor
38) The back up time of a UPS if it is backed by 150 Ah , 12 V battery driving a load of 150 W is
a. 14 h
b. 16 h
c. 10 h
d. 12 h
39) A Battery is taking charging current of 5.2A for 24 hours at a voltage of 2.25V while discharging it
gives a current of 4.5A for 24 hours with an average voltage of 1.85V. The energy efficiency of
battery is ____________.
40) The total time for which 15 CFLs of 10W each is to be operated in order to consume 1 unit of
electrical energy is _______________________.
41 ) Norton’s equivalent resistance is the same as Thevenin’s equivalent resistance :
a. True
b. False
42) Two resistors give combined resistance of 4.5 ohm when in series and 1ohm when in parallel . The

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resistances are :
a. 2 and 2.5 ohm
b. 1 and 3.5 ohm
c. 1.5 and 3 ohm
d. 4 and 0.5 ohm
43 ) The three resistances each of value 3 ohm are connected in delta . Their value
In each branch of equivalent star-connection will be
a. 9 ohm
b. 6 ohm
c. 3 ohm
d. 1 ohm
44 ) Superposition theorem is not applicable for
a. voltage calculations .
b. bilateral elements.
c. power calculations.
d. passive elements .
45) The power delivered by the 2V source is

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(a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) -2W (d) -4W
46) For the circuit shown in figure , the nortons equivalent source current value is _______
and its resistance is _________ ohm.
47) The value of resistance “R” shown in the figure is :
(a) 3.5 ohm (b) 2.5 ohm (c) 1 ohm (d) 4.5 ohm

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48 ) In the figure Ra , Rb and Rc are 20 ohm , 10 ohm and 10 ohm respectively . The resistances R1 , R2 and
R3 in ohms of an equivalent star – connection are
a. 2.5, 5, 5
b. 5, 2.5, 5
c. 5, 5, 2.5
d. 2.5 ,5,2.5
49) An ideal current source has zero resistance -- TRUE / FALSE .
50) If the diameter of the wire is halved ,its current carrying capacity will become
approximately______________________.
________________X__________________________X____________________________X____________

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1. Which, among the following, has negative susceptibility?

a) Diamagnetic material
b) Paramagnetic material
c) Ferromagnetic material
d) Not a magnetic substance
2. Which of the following expressions is correct with respect to relative permeability?

a) B = µrµ0/H
b) B = µrµ0H
c) B = µr/µ0H
d) B = µrµ0/H2
3. The B-H Loop can be used to determine ………………….

a) Copper loss
b) Hysteresis loss
c) Voltage loss
d) Eddy current loss
4. The primary and secondary of a two winding transformer are ________ coupled but _______
connected.
a) Magnetically, not electrically
b) Electrically, not magnetically
c) Magnetically, also magnetically
d) Electrically, also electrically
5. Transformer action requires a ___________

a) Constant magnetic flux
b) Increasing magnetic flux
c) Alternating magnetic flux
d) Alternating electric flux
6. A 4000/1000 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer has emf per turn of 10 V. The number of primary turns
will be …………………………..
a) 400 turns
b) 10000 turns
c) 100 turns
d) 40000 turns
7. A 20KVA, 2200/220 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer has the below parameters:

.
. .
The secondary reactance referred to primary is ………………..
.
.
8. The efficiency of a 20 KVA, 2000/200 V, single phase transformer at a certain load with unity pf is 98%.
The total loss t this ondition is ………………
a) 400W
b) 4 kW
c) 200 W
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d) 2 kW
9. Auto-T nsfo me is used fo …………………..

a) Induction Motor starter
b) Variable AC supply
c) Booster Transformer in Power system
d) All of the above
10. Copper loss in Autotransformer is _____ to that of Two-winding transformer.

a) lower than
b) higher than
c) equal
1. The speed at which rotating magnetic field revolves is c lled ……………………….

a) Induction speed
b) Synchronous speed
c) Relative speed
d) Rotating speed
2. The magnitude of ot ting flux ………………………. at all instants of time.

a) Changes
b) Remains constant
c) Pulsates
d) Varies sinusoidally
3. Armature winding is winding in which working ___________

a) flux is produced by field current
b) flux is produced by the working emf
c) emf is produced by the working flux
d) emf is produced by the leakage flux
4. What are the advantages of providing the field winding on rotor and armature winding on the stator
in case of alternators?
a) more economical
b) more efficient
c) efficient cooling
d) all of the mentioned
5. Which term represents the frequency of generated EMF in alternator?

a) f = PN/120 Hz
b) f = 120/PN Hz
c) f = P/120 Hz
d) f = N/120 Hz
6. A 4 Pole DC generator with Wave wound armature has 1020 conductors. The induced EMF is 357 V
and speed is 850 RPM. The flux pe pole will e …………………..
a) 1.235 mWb
b) 12.35 mWb
c) 14 mWb
d) 21 mWb

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7. The supply frequency to a 4 pole 3phase induction motor is 50Hz and that of Induced rotor voltage is
2.5 Hz. The slip and speed of motor are ______ and ______
a) 4%, 1450 RPM
b) 3%, 1500 RPM
c) 5%, 1425 RPM
d) 2%, 1475 RPM
8. A 3phase, 50 Hz induction motor has 2 poles and operates at a slip of 5%.

Speed of Rotor w.r.t. the Stator is ____
a) 0
b) 3000 RPM
c) 2850 RPM
d) 150 RPM
9. For a three phase Induction motor the value of starting torque will ______ if external resistance in
rotor circuit is increased.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant
d) Cannot be determined
10. Which single phase induction motor does not contain the auxiliary winding?
a) Resistance start type.
b) Capacitor start type.
c) Permanent capacitor type.
d) Shaded Pole type
1. Ideal voltage source have ……………………………………………..

a) Zero internal conductance
b) Infinite internal conductance
c) Infinite internal resistance
2. Three resistances are connected in star with resistance R/2 in each branch. The value of resistances in
each branch of equivalent delta will be ………………………….
a) R/6
b) (3/2)R
c) 2R
d) 4R
3. According to Kirchhoff's voltage law, the algebraic sum of all “IR” d ops and e.m.fs. in any closed
loop of a network is always …………………………….
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Determined by battery e.m.fs.
d) Zero
4. Which among the following is also termed as 'Dual of Thevenin's Theorem'?

a) Millman's Theorem
b) Superposition Theorem
c) Norton's Theorem
d) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
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5. The circuit having the same properties in either direction is known as ………………………..
a) Unilateral
b) Reversible
c) Bilateral
d) Irreversible
6. The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of ………………………………..

a) Reciprocity
b) Linearity
c) Duality
d) Nonlinearity
7. Find the voltage across 24 Ohm resistance.
a) 6 V
b) 12 V
c) 4.25 V
d) 3 V
8. Determine the equivalent Thevenin’s resistance across terminals A and B in the circuit shown
below.
a) 33 Ohm
b) 3.33 Ohm
c) 15 Ohm
d) 0 Ohm

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9. Find the equivalent No ton’s resistance between terminals ‘ ’ and ‘ ’ in the circuit shown
below.
a) 7.97 Ω
b) 6.97 Ω
c) 9.97 Ω
d) 8.97 Ω
10. Calculate the current flowing in 2 Ohm resistance.
a) 4.275 A
b) 0.8 A
c) 0.375 A
d) 4.527 A
1. For the circuit having i = 100Sin(157t - 100 ) & v = 10Sin(157t + 450 ) , it can be concluded that
a) The circuit is inductive.
b) The circuit is resistive.
c) The circuit is capacitive.
d) None of these.
2. In a circuit a resistance of 5 ohm and a capacitance of 1000 micro Farad are connected inseries
across a single phase 50 Hz supply, the value of overall impedance is …………………
a) 5 + j . Ω
b) -5 + j . Ω
c) 5 - j6.36 Ω
d) -5 - j . Ω

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3. In a series RLC circuit, R=100 ohm, L=0.5 Henry and C=40 micro Farad. The lower halfpower
frequency of the circuit is ……………………
a) 17.3 Hz
b) 20.2 Hz
c) 51.51 Hz
d) 19.77 Hz
4. A load of 300 kW with a power factor of 0.65 lagging draws a line current of 1000 A. The load is
onne ted oss supply of …………………..
a) 510 V
b) 480 V
c) 453 V
d) 461.54 V
5. A series RLC circuit is connected across a source of 14.142 V. If R=2 ohm, XL=4 ohm and XC= 6
ohm, the value of current drawn by the se ies i uit is …………………..
a) 10 A
b) 5 A
c) 20 A
d) 30 A
6. A single phase 50 Hz supply is connected across a series RC circuit. If the voltage applied is 200 V and
current is 10└300 A. The value of capacitance will be ………………….
a) 318.31 micro Farad
b) 173.2 micro Farad
c) 0.1732 micro Farad
d) 17.32 micro Farad
7. In a three-phase balanced system, ………………………………………………………….

a) The line voltages are in the phase with phase voltages.
b) The line voltages are 60 degree displaced with phase voltages.
c) The line voltages are 45 degree displaced with phase voltages.
d) The line voltages are 30 degree displaced with phase voltages.
8. Three identical coils of resistance 8 ohm and inductive reactance 6 ohm are connected indelta
across 400V supply mains. The power consumed in the circuit is
a) 38.4 kW
b) 38.4 W
c) 50 kW
d) 15 kW
9. Which of the following is a three phase four wire system?

a) Star
b) Delta
c) Star with neutral
d) Both a) & b)
10. Which of the following is correct with respect to a three phase star connected balanced system?
a) Line currents are less than phase currents
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b) Line currents are more than phase currents

c) Line currents are equal to phase currents
d) Line currents and phase currents are not related to each other
1. Which of the following is not a method of earthing?

a) Pipe earthing
b) Plate earthing
c) Sheet earthing
d) Rod earthing
. The ope tion of fuse is sed on …………………. effe t.

a) Magnetic
b) Electromechanical
c) Heating
d) Electromagnetic
3. Which of the following is not a Fuse type?

a) Kit-Kat
b) HRC
c) Poly vinyl
d) Cartridge
4. Comme i lly MCBs e v il le fo ………………… ting.

a) Voltage
b) Power
c) kVA
d) Current
5. A mou ing is done on les to p ovide……………………………………..

a) Electrical strength
b) Mechanical strength
c) Water proofing
d) Dielectric strength
. The diffe en e etween MCB nd MCCB is ………………………………………………………….

a) MCCB has higher current rating than MCB
b) Trip characteristics of MCCB can be adjusted while that of MCB cannot be
c) Both a) & b)
7. The dis dv nt ge of P pe s insul ting m te i l is th t ……………………………

a) it is hygroscopic
b) it is costly
c) it has high capacitance
d) it is chemically active
8. The edding on le onsists of …………………………………

a) Jute strands
b) Hessian tape
c) Paper tape compounded with a fibrous material
d) Any of the above

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9. An ELCB specially used to disconnect the supply under …………………………………….

a) Short circuit condition
b) Open circuit condition
c) Ground fault condition
d) Overload condition
10. M te i ls used in ext high tension les is …………………………………….

a) Oil filled Cables
b) Gas pressure cables.
c) Both A&B

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Short Question Bank KEE 101/201 SET 2
1 The connection point of three or more elements is known as

A Node
B Terminus
C Combination
D Anode
2 An ideal voltage source has
A Very small internal resistance
B Zero internal resistance
C Infinite internal resistance
D Very high internal resistance
3 Superposition theorem can-not be applied for
A Voltage calculation
B Current calculation
C Power calculation
D None of the above
4 In the circuit shown, find the current IXY using superposition theorem
A 2.5 A
B5A
C 7.5 A
D0A
5. In the circuit shown, find the Thevenin’s voltage across terminals a & b
A 10 V
B 50 V
C 60 V

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D 40 V
6 For the circuit shown below the the value of Thevenin’s voltage and
resistance across A & B terminal is
A 0 Volts, 6 Ω
B 12 Volts, 6 Ω
C 12 Volts, 3 Ω
D 0 Volts, 3 Ω
7 The value of Norton resistance for the given fig across ab terminal is
A 14 Ω
B 20 Ω
C 3.33 Ω
D4Ω
8 The source transformation is applicable to
A Ideal source only
B Practical source only
C Both ideal and practical source
D None of the above
9. A nonlinear network does not satisfy
A Superposition condition
B Homogeneity condition
C Both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
D Kirchhoff’s Law
10 A delta connected load has each arm of value R/3. The resistance of the
each arm in star configuration will be
A 3R
B R/3
C 2R/6
D R/9
11 Q factor is defined as the

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𝜔0 𝐿
A
𝑅
1 𝐿
B √
𝑅 𝐶
ω0
C
𝛥𝜔
D All of the above
12 The value of resistance which must be connected in series with a 120 V,
60 W lamp in order to be operated at its rated current from 200 V, 50 Hz
supply is
A 100 Ω
B 160 Ω
C 200 Ω
D 80 Ω
13 The sign of inductive and capacitive reactance are
A both are positive
B both are negative
C inductive reactance is negative and capacitive reactance is positive
D capacitive reactance is negative and inductive reactance is positive
14 The parallel resonating circuit is also known as
A Tank Circuit
B Acceptor Circuit
C Rejector Circuit
D Filter Circuit
15 Two impedances Z1 = 5 + 5j Ω and Z2 = 5 - 5j Ω are in parallel. The total
impedance of the circuit is
A 0 + 5j Ω
B 5 + 0j Ω
C 10 Ω
D 7.07 + 7.07j Ω
16 In any given waveform
A The average value is always less or equal to rms value.
B The average value is always more or equal to rms value.
C The average value and rms value can-not be compare.
D The average value may be either more or less than rms value
depending on the waveform
17 In a RLC series resonating circuit, circuit resistance
A has no effect on the value of resonating frequency
B is inversely proportional to the selectivity
C is directly proportional to the bandwidth
D All of the above
18 The power consumed by a capacitor of capacitive reactance 10Ω
connected to a 100V, 50 Hz AC supply is
A 1 KW
B 0.707 KW

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C 1.414 KW
D 0 KW
19 The power factor of an AC circuit is given by
A ratio of Apparent power to Real power
B ratio of Apparent power to Reactive power
C ratio of Real power to Reactive power
D ratio of Real power to Apparent power
20 In a balanced three-phase star connected system, the relation between
phase and line parameter are
A VL = VP and IL = IP
B VL = √3VP and IL = √3IP
C VL = VP and IL = √3IP
D VL = √3VP and IL = IP
21 The operating principle of a Transformer is
A Principle of mutually induced EMF
B Principle of dynamically induced EMF
C Principle of self-induced EMF
D None of the above
22 Silicon steel is used in manufacturing transformer core because
A Low permeability
B Low hysteresis co-efficient
C Low reluctance
D Low retentivity
23 The transformer ratings are expressed in
A Volts
B Ampere
C KVAR
D KVA
24 Short-circuit test in a transformer is conducted on…. side at rated …..
A HV, Current
B LV, Current
C LV, Voltage
D LV, Current
25 The most likely value of no load power factor of a transformer is
A1
B 0.8
C0
D 0.2
26 The load impedance required to fully load a 1KVA, 200/100 V
transformer when load is connected to 100V side is
A 10Ω
B 40Ω
C 20 Ω

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D 30 Ω
27 The value of voltage regulation of an ideal transformer is
A1%
B0%
C 2.5 %
D Always negative.
28 In transformers when a current is shifted from primary to secondary
windings
A it is divided by K2
B it is multiplied by K2
C it is divided by K
D it is multiplied by K
29 The voltage regulation of a transformer having percentage resistive drop
1%, percentage reactive drop 5% and unity power factor is
A 3.8 %
B 2.2 %
C1%
D -2.2%
30 The phase difference between secondary line voltage and primary line
voltage of a 3 phase delta/delta transformer is
A 0 degree
B 30 degree lagging
C 30 degree leading
D (30±φ) where φ is power factor angle of load
31 Wave winding is preferred for
A high current machines
B low voltage machines
C high current and low voltage machines
D high voltage and low current machines
32 The nature of EMF induced in armature conductors is
A DC
B AC
C AC and DC both
D none of these
33 In which type of DC motor the field coils consist of a few number of turns
of thick wire
A DC Shunt Motor
B Separately Excited DC Motor
C DC Series Motor
D All of the above
34 In DC series motor the starting torque is directly proportional to
A square of armature current

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B the motor flux

C ratio of armature current and flux
D square root of armature current
35 A synchronous motor can operate at
A leading power factor
B lagging power factor
C zero power factor
D all of the above
36 A synchronous motor is running at 500 rpm with 50 hz. The number of
poles will be
A 12
B 10
C 14
D 16
37 When rotor of an induction motor is at standstill, the value of slip is
A1
B 0.5
C 0.8
D1
38 The relation between Synchronous speed (Ns), Actual speed of motor
(N) and Slip (S) is
A Ns = (1-S) N
B Ns = (1-S) / N
C N = (1-S) Ns
D N = Ns + S
39 in single phase induction motor centrifugal switch is connected in
A Both starting and running windings
B running winding only
C starting winding only
D none of above
40 The electrolytic capacitor can be used for
A Starting of single phase induction motor
B Running of single phase induction motor
C Both A and B
D Never used in single phase induction motor
41 The advantage of fuse over MCB is
A Supply can be restored without clearing the fault
B Any wire can be used as fuse wire
C It is economical than MCB
D Fuse wire can’t be use again
42 Earthing is done to
A Provide a low resistance path to fault current

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B Provide a high resistance path to fault current

C Balance the connected load in the system
D None of above
43 The ELCB operates when the
A current in line wire is equal to current in neutral wire
B current in neutral wire is not equal to the current in line wire
C current in line and neutral wire is zero
D current in neutral and line wire is maximum
44 The advantage of power transmission using underground cable is
A Longer life and reduced maintenance
B Conserve valuable land and prevention from accidents
C Weather proof operation
D All of the above
45 The Primary batteries have
A irreversible chemical reaction
B low self-discharge rate and discharge current
C low cost as compare to secondary batteries
D All of above
46 The one unit of electrical energy is equal to
A 1 KWH
B 3.6×106Joules
C Both A and B
D None of above
47 6 cells of 2V each are connected in parallel then the total voltage will be
A 12 V
B 6V
C2V
D3V
48 The backup of battery of 150AH connected to load of 90 watts and
supply voltage is 15V
A 10 hrs
B 15 hrs
C 20 hrs
D 25 hrs
49 A cell is discharged at a steady current of 4A for 10 hrs, the average
terminal voltage being 2V. To restore it to original state of voltage, a steady
current of 3A for 20 hours is required at an average terminal voltage of 2.4
V. The ampere-hour efficiency for this case is…….
A 80%
B 75%
C 66.66%

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D 60%
50 The watt-hour efficiency is also known as ………
A energy efficiency
B capacity efficiency
C power efficiency
D output efficiency

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SHORT QUESTION BANK KEE-101T/201T
SET-1
D.C. CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND NETWORK THEOREMS

Q1. What are the respective values of internal resistances of ideal voltage and current source? Is it possible
to convert each other?
A1. Rin = 0 for ideal voltage source, Rin = infinite for ideal current source.
No, it is not possible to convert ideal source.
Q2. Draw the characteristics of ideal and practical sources (voltage source & current source). Also explain
their properties.
A2. Ideal voltage source: having constant output voltage at any value of output current.
. Ideal current source: having constant output current at any value of output voltage.
Q3. Explain the following with example:
Linear & nonlinear element Active & passive elements Unilateral & bilateral element.
A3. Linear element: Linear relation between voltage and current. Ex: Resistor, inductor, capacitor.
Non-Linear element: Non-linear relation between voltage and current. Ex: diode, transistor.
Active element: These enhance the energy level. Ex: Transistor, current & voltage source.
Passive element: This does not enhance the energy level. Ex: Resistor, inductor, capacitor.
FOR IMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!" 1
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Unilateral element: V-I characteristic is changed w.r.t. changing terminals. Ex: diode, transistor.
Bilateral element: V-I characteristic does not change w.r.t. changing terminals. Ex: R, L, C.
Q4. Name the circuit laws on which mesh method and nodal method are respectively based.
A4. KVL for mesh analysis and KCL for nodal analysis.
Q5. If resistance of each branch is 3 ohms in a delta connected load, what would be the resistance of each
branch in its star equivalent?
A5. 1 ohm ( RY = RΔ / 3)
Q6. Calculate the value of current in 10 Ω of fig.1.
A6. 1 Amp.
Q7. Calculate the value of Rth between terminal a-b in fig.2.
A7. RL = Rth = 7.629 Ω
Q8. Write the statement of Thevenin’s Theorem.
A8. Thevenin’sTheorem: According to this theorem “A linear, bilateral, complex circuit consisting of
active and passive elements can be converted into a simple Thevenin’s equivalent circuit w.r.t. load
terminals”. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit consisting of a voltage source Vth and a series resistance
Rth.
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉ℎ
𝐼𝐼𝐿𝐿 =
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅ℎ + 𝑅𝑅𝐿𝐿
Q8. Write the statement of Norton’s Theorem.

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A8. Norton’s Theorem: According to this theorem “A linear, bilateral, complex circuit consisting of active
and passive elements can be converted into a simple Norton’s equivalent circuit w.r.t. load terminals”.
Norton’s equivalent circuit consisting of a current source IN and a series resistance RN.
𝐼𝐼𝑁𝑁 𝑅𝑅𝑁𝑁
𝐼𝐼𝐿𝐿 =
𝑅𝑅𝑁𝑁 + 𝑅𝑅𝐿𝐿
Q9. Explain the duality between Thevenin’s and Norton’s Theorem.

A9.
Vth = IN * RN, Rth= RN IN = Vth / Rth, RN =Rth

• It is also an example of source transformation.
Q10. Write the statement of Super-position theorem and its limitations.
A10. Super-position Theorem: According to this theorem “In a linear, bilateral circuit consisting of active
elements (two or more) and passive elements, the resultant response (V or I) in any element is the
algebraic sum of all the responses (V or I) in that particular element by keeping one source active at
a time and all other sources are replaced by their internal resistances”.
Limitations: It is not applicable for non-linear circuit.
: It is not applicable for power measurement.
Q11. Name the circuit laws on which mesh method and nodal method are respectively based. A network is
found to have a total of seven branches and four junctions. Which method is preferred for solving the
network?
A11. Mesh- KVL, Nodal- KCL Nodal method is preferred.

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STEADY STATE ANALYSIS ANLYSIS OF 1Ø AC CIRCUITS

Q1. Define the form factor and peak factor / crest factor of an ac circuit.
A1. Form Factor = rms value / avg value , peak factor = max value / rms value.
Q2. Write the power expression for purely inductive and capacitive circuits?
A2. Instantaneous power, p = -VI sin2wt (purely inductive)
p = VI sin2wt (purely capacitive)
*Average power for both the circuits are zero.
Q3. What do mean by bandwidth? Give the relationship between bandwidth, resonant frequency & quality
factor.
A3. Bandwidth: it is the frequency range between half power frequencies. B.W. (Δ f) = f2 –f1, Qr = fr /Δf
Q4. A series circuit has R=10-ohm, L=0.01 H and C=10µF.Calculate the Q-factor of the circuit.
1 𝐿𝐿
A4. Qr =3.16 (Qr = √ )
𝑅𝑅 𝐶𝐶
Q5. Explain Q factor in Series and Parallel resonance condition respectively.
A5. Q factor: as voltage magnification for series resonance circuit. Qr = VL / V
Q factor: as current magnification for series resonance circuit. Qr = IC / I
Q6. Calculate the resistance of a 200V, 100W bulb.
A6. R = 400 ohm (P= V2/R for purely resistive circuit)
Q7. Draw the resonance curve for series and parallel resonance condition
Series resonance curve Parallel resonace curve
Q8. In an ac circuit the supply voltage and current is given as:

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v = 200 sin 314t and i = 5sin (314t – 60o) Find the real, reactive and apparent power in the circuit.
200 5
A8. P = Vrms Irms cosØ = √2 √2
cos(60) = 250 W
200 5
Q = Vrms Irms sinØ = √2 √2
sin(60) = 433 VAr
200 5
S = Vrms Irms = √2 √2
= 500 VA
Q9. A resistance of 10 ohm in parallel with a pure inductance of 100 mH is connected to a 250 V, 50 Hz
supply. Calculate impedance and power factor.
A9. R=10 ohm, XL = 2ΠfL = 2 x 3.14 x 50 x 100 x 10-3= 31.4 ohm

𝑅𝑅 ×𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗L
Z= 𝑅𝑅+𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗
= 9.07 + j 2.89 =9.51 (17.5O) , COSØ= COS (17.50) = 0.9537
Q10. What are the disadvantages of low power factor?

𝟏𝟏
A10. I = P/ V cosØ I α 𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑 𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇
High current, higher losses, low efficiency, higher conductor size.
Q11. Show the effect of resistance change on bandwidth and quality factor of R-L-C series resonant circuit.
A11.
Q12. The unit of L/CR is………………..
A12. Ω.
Q13. Draw Power triangle.

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Q14. Why a series resonant circuit is called an accepter circuit and parallel resonant circuit as rejecter
circuit?
A14. Because in Series resonance: circuit accepts current at resonance frequency (I=Imax at f=fr)
Parallel resonance: circuit rejects current at resonance frequency (I=Imin at f=fr)
MAGNETIC CIRCUITS, 1Ø TRANSFORMER

Q1. Define mmf, flux density, magnetic field intensity and reluctance.
A1. MMF: Force required for the flow of flux. . MMF=NI, unit (AT)
FLUX DENSITY (B): Magnetic field lines passes through a unit area. B=Ø/A, unit (Wb / m2 or Tesla)
FIELD INTESITY (H): MMF per unit length. H=mmf / l or B / µ unit (AT/m)
RELUCTANCE (S): It opposes the flow of magnetic flux. S=l /µA, unit (AT/Wb)
Q2. Write expression for Hysteresis and Eddy current loss.
A2. PH = Kh Bmax1.6 f v watt, PE = Ke Bmax2 f2t2v watt.
Q3. Write the condition for the maximum of efficiency of transformer.
A3. Cu loss = Iron loss
Q4. A 1 phase transformer is rated as 25kVA, 600/200V, 50Hz. Calculate the impedance of the load in
ohms to fully load the transformer when connected to (a) 600V side (b) 200V side.
A4. I = kVA rating x 103 / E , Z = E/I
(i) Z= E2 / kVA rating x 103= 6002/ 25000 = 14.4 ohm

(ii) E= 200 V , Z= E2 / kVA rating x 103= 2002/ 25000 = 1.6 ohm.
Q5. Write the merits, demerits &typical application of an auto transformer.
A5. Merits: Cu saving, compact size, variable output, higher efficiency
Demerits: higher short circuit current, no isolation between primary and secondary.
Applications: VARIAC, interconnection of power system.
Q6. Calculate coefficient of coupling for two coils having self-inductances of 60mH and 80mH. The mutual
inductance between them is 40mH.
A6. K= M /√(La Lb) = 0.577
Q8. An electromagnet has an air gap of 4 mm and flux density in the gap is 1.3 Wb/m2. Determine the
amperes-turns for the gap.
𝐵𝐵 1.3
A8. AT= Hg Lg = µ𝑂𝑂 Lg = 4 𝛱𝛱 ×10−7 (4 * 10-3) = 4140 AT.

STUDY ZONE
Q9. Determine the emf induced in a coil of 4.19 * 10-4 Henry when a current of 5A is reversed in 60
milliseconds.
A9. L= 4.19 * 10-4H, di = 5 – (-5) =10A, dt = 60 * 10-3 sec
emf induced = L di / dt = 0.0698 V (in magnitude).
Q7. What will happen if we give dc supply to transformer?
A7. Constant (not varying) flux is generated, No induced EMF, No output and risk of burning of winding.
Q8. Why transformer rating is given in kVA not in kW.
A8. Because power factor of transformer is dependent on the type of load we connected, which may
resistive, inductive or capacitive.
Q9. A transformer has a primary winding of 600 turns and secondary winding of 150 turns. If the current
of secondary winding is 60A at 0.8 pf and primary current is 20A at 0.707 pf lagging, then find the
no load current of transformer and its phase angle with respect to the supply voltage.
A9. Cos Ø = 0.8, Ø= 36.86o . Cos Ø = 0.707, Ø= 45o I2 = 60∟- 36.86o I1=20∟- 45o
I0= I1- I1’ = I1=20∟- 45o - 60∟- 36.86 (150/600) = 5.59∟-66.83o
Q10. Calculate voltage regulation of a single-phase transformer having ohmic drop of 1.5% and leakage
reactance drop of 5% at 0.8 pf lagging.
A10. % VR = (I2Req2 Cos Ø + I2Xeq2 Sin Ø) x100 / E2
%VR = %R Cos Ø + %X Sin Ø= (1.5 x 0.8) + (5 x 0.6) = 4.2%
Q11. What are the characteristics of an ideal transformer?
A11. No winding resistance i.e., the secondary windings have zero resistance. It means that there is no
ohmic power loss and no resistive voltage drop in an ideal transformer.
No Magnetic leakage i.e., there is no leakage flux and all the flux set up is confined to the core and
links both the windings.
No iron loss i.e., hysteresis and eddy current losses in transformer core are zero.
Zero magnetizing current i.e. the core has infinite permeability and zero reluctance so that
magnetizing current is required for establishing the requisite amount of flux in the core.
Q12. Draw the Hysteresis curve. Explain and mark saturation, residual magnetism coercive force and
retentivity of material.

STUDY ZONE
Q13. What is Lenz’s law?
A13. The direction of induced emf is such that the current produced by it sets up a magnetic field opposing
the flux.
ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Q1. What is back emf? Give its importance.
A1. Back EMF: EMF induced in the armature winding of dc motor which opposes the supply voltage.
Importance: limit the starting current, speed regulation.
Q2. Which motor is used in elevators, lifts, electric locomotive and why?
A2. D.C series motor, because of high starting torque. T α Ia2
Q3. Explain the slip.

(Ns−Nr)
A3. Slip, 𝑠𝑠 = Ns
in per unit
Q4. Which type of armature winding is used in dc machine for high current and low voltage or vice versa
application?
A4. Lap winding (High I Low V), A=P Wave winding (High V Low I), A=2
Q5. Give the applications of d.c. series and shunt motor.
A5. DC series motor: elevators, cranes, hoists, electric locomotives.
DC shunt motor: Fans, blowers, centrifugal pump, reciprocal pump, conveyers.

STUDY ZONE
Q6. What would be happened if field winding of dc shunt motor is abruptly opened?
A6. Flux is zero, back emf becomes zero and speed of motor is dangerously high.
Q7. A 3Ø, 50Hz induction motor is running at a speed of 1440 rpm when it delivers rated output. Calculate
the Number of pole and value of slip.
A7. P=4, S=4%.
Q8. Why 3 phase induction motor cannot run at synchronous speed?
A8. At synchronous speed, the relative speed (Ns-Nr) becomes zero hence no emf, no current and no
torque will exist in rotor conductors.
In 3-Phase Synchronous motor, Magnetic locking is occurred in between stator and rotor poles.
Q9. Why in 3 phase synchronous machine rotor winding is placed on stator and field winding is placed on
rotor?
A9. Advantages: easy cooling, less rotor weight, less rotor inertia, higher speed, less slip rings.
Q10. Give the applications of synchronous machine and 3 phase induction motor.
A10. Synchronous machine: Power factor improvement, voltage regulation.
3Ø Induction Motor: Printing machine, flour mills, crushers, winding machine, cranes.
Q11.Why 3phase synchronous machine is called a doubly excited machine?
A11. Because at stator ---armature winding – 3 phase ac supply exist.
At rotor--- field winding – dc supply exists.
Q12. Write the applications of various 1-Ф Induction Motor.
A12. Resistance start (Phase split) method: blowers, grinder, lathes (1/20 to 1/2 Kw)
Capacitor start method: Conveyer, Grinder, air conditioners, compressors (upto 6 Kw)
Capacitor Start Capacitor Run method: Conveyer Grinder, air conditioners, compressors (upto 6 Kw)
Permanent Capacitor method: Ceiling fan.
Shaded pole method: small instrument, hair dryer, toys, record player, electric clock (1/300 to 1/20 Kw)
Q13. Draw the various characteristics of dc series motor.

STUDY ZONE
A13.
Q14. Draw the operating characteristics of dc shunt motor.
A14.
Q15. Derive rotor frequency is slip times of supply frequency in 3Ø Induction motor.
Ns P (Ns−Nr) P fr (Ns−Nr)
A15. f = 120
… (i) fr = 120
……….(ii) ,eqn (ii) / eqn (i) = f = Ns
=s =>fr = s f
Q16. Draw V curve.
A16. It shows the effect of field current (excitation) on armature current in 3 Ф Synchronous motor.
Q17. A 3-phase induction motor have the maximum torque at a slip of 40 %. If the rotor resistance is 12 Ω,
what will be the value of rotor inductive reactance.
A17. T=Tmax when Rr = S Xr
Rr = 12Ω, S=0.4 , Xr = Rr / S =>Xr = 30Ω
Q18. What is the output expression of EMF in alternator?

STUDY ZONE
A18. Erms/phase = 4.44 Kp Kd f φ Tp
Q19. Give the comparison between Squirrel cage and Slip-ring Induction Motor.
A19.
Characteristic Squirrel cage Slip Ring
Construction Simple and rugged Needs slip rings
Cost Less More
Starting torque Less Higher
Speed control Not possible possible
Power factor Poor Can be improved
Efficiency High low
Q20. What is relationship between developed torque and supply voltage in 3-Ø Induction motor?
A20. T α V2
Q21. Why 3-Ø Synchronous motor runs only at synchronous speed?
A21. Because of Magnetic locking between stator and rotor magnetic poles.
Q22. Write the advantages of 3synchronous motor.
A22. Constant speed, higher efficiency, operating on a wide range of power factor.
Q23. Why should a dc series motor not be run without load?
A23. At no load: speed is dangerously high, may get damaged.
Q24. Write the name of different types of rotors of an alternator.
A24. Salient pole type rotor, non-salient pole type/ Cylindrical rotor.
Q25. Write the name of two motors used for constant speed applications.
A25. DC shunt motor, 3-Ф Synchronous motor.
Q26. A 50 Hz, 8-pole induction motor has full load slip of 4%. The rotor resistance and standstill reactance
are 0.01 ohm and 0.1 ohm per phase respectively. Find the speed at which maximum torque occurs.
A26. Nr = Ns (1-SMT) and SMT = Rr/Xr = 0.01/.1=0.1
Ns= 120f/P= 120*50/8 = 750 rpm, Nr = 750(1-0.1) = 675 rpm
Q27. How will you change the direction of rotation of 1-Ф Induction motor, 3-Ф Induction motor and DC
motor?
A27. 1-ФInduction Motor: By interchange the connection of Auxiliary (Starting) winding.

STUDY ZONE
3-ФInduction Motor: By interchange any two phases (reversing phase sequence).
DC Motor: By reversing the current flow through armature or field winding.
Q28. In India the supply Frequency is 50Hz for what maximum speed an alternator can be designed.
A28. Ns= 120f / P = 120*50 / 2=3000 rpm (Minimum number of pole =2)
Q29. What is Fleming’s right hand rule and Fleming’s left hand rule? Elaborate them w.r.t. dc machine
principle.
A29. For DC Generator For DC Motor
ELECTRICAL INSTALLATION
Q1. Write the unit of Electrical Energy.
A1. KWh (Kilo Watt Hour)
Q2. Why Earth pin is made thicker and bigger than line and neutral?
A2. To reduce the resistance of Earth Pin ( R= ρl/A) and first contact of earth pin to avoid faulty current
and damage.
Q3. Calculate the energy consumption per day, per week and per year in a house using 5 CFLs of 20 W
each for 5 hrs, 3 fans of 60 W each for 3 hrs and an iron of 200 W for 30 minutes in a day.
A3. ENERGY (KWh) / day = (5*20*5 + 3*60*3 + 1*200*.5) * 10^-3 = 1.14
ENERGY (KWh) / week = 1.14*7 = 7.98
ENERGY (KWh) / year = 1.14*365 = 416.1
Q4. What are the units of battery rating and battery backup?
A4. AH (Ampere Hour) and Hr. respectively.

STUDY ZONE

PRANVEER SINGH INSTITUTE
STUDY ZONE OF TECHNOLOGY KANPUR
Even Semester Session 2020-21 QUESTION BANK
B. Tech. II-Semester (CS-DS, CS-IOT, CS-AI, CS-AI&ML, EC, CE & IT)
Basic Electrical Engineering (KEE-201T)
UNIT 1
1. Kirchhoff laws fails and cannot be applied for
a. Linear network
b. Non-linear networks
c. distributed parameter
d. none of these
e. none of these
Ans: c
2. Capacitor is a
a. Linear and bilateral element
b. Non-linear and bilateral element
c. Linear and unilateral element
d. Non-linear and unilateral element
e. none of these
Ans: a
3. Thevenin’s theorem is related with

a. Open circuit voltage
b. short circuit current
c. impedance
d. admittance
e. none of these
Ans: a
4. Thevenin’s voltage across AB in the circuit shown is

a. 100 V
b. 50V
c. 0V
d. 25V
e. none of these
Ans: b
5. Thevenin’s resistance (Rth) across AB in the circuit shown is

a. 10
b. 5
c. 2.5
d. 0
e. none of these
Ans: d
6. Norton’s theorem is related with

c. impedance
d. admittance
e. none of these
Ans: b
FOR Norton’s currentNOTES

7. IMPORTANT (ISC) in the circuit TO
TOUCH shown
"!!isADITYA !!"
a. 0A STUDY ZONE
b. 5A
c. 10A
d. 20A
e. none of these
Ans: c
8. Super position theorem cannot be directly applied for

a. Voltage calculations across an element
b. current calculation through an element
c. power dissipated in an element
d. both a & b
e. none of these
Ans: c
9. Super position theorem can be applied for the circuits, which have
a. at least one source in the circuit
b. at least two sources in the circuit
c. more than one source in the circuit
d. both b & c
e. none of these
Ans: d
10. Find the value of V if the current in the 3 ohm resistor=0.
a. 3.5 V
b. 6.5 V
c. 7.5 V
d. 8.5 V
e. none of these
Ans: c
11. Find the resistor value R1(Ω) in the figure shown below.
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12 STUDY ZONE
d. 13
e. none of these
Ans: c
12. The internal resistance of an ideal

a. Voltage source is zero while current source is infinite
b. current source is zero while voltage source is infinite
c. both
d. infinite for both the case
e. none of these
Ans: a
13. The value of each resistance for equivalent star of given delta network will be
a. 1
b. 9
c. 4.5
d. 27
e. none of these
Ans: a
14. The value of each resistance for equivalent delta of given star network will be
a. 8
b. 6
c. 2
d. 12
e. none of these
Ans: b
15. Which, among the following is the correct expression for star-delta conversion?
a. R1=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R3=Rc*Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
b. R1=Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), Rc=/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
c. R1=Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc, R2=Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra, R3=Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb
d. R1=Ra*Rb/Rc, R2=Rc*Rb/Ra, R3=Ra*Rc/Rb
e. none of these
Ans: e
16. Find the equivalent delta circuit.

a. 9.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
b. 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
c. 9.69 ohm, 34.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
d. 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 7.59 ohm
e. none of these
Ans: a
17. If the circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes, the circuit is
a. non-linear circuit
b. linear circuit
c. bilateral circuit
d. unilateral circuit
e. none of the above
Ans: a
18. If the resistance decreases current through the resistor?

a. increases
b. remains unchanged STUDY ZONE
c. decreases
d. fluctuates
Ans: a
19. Kirchhoffs voltage law is related to

a. junction currents
b. IR drops
c. battery EMFs
d. both B and C
Ans: d
20. Ohms law is not applicable to

a. DC circuits
b. semi conductors
c. small resistors
d. high currents
Ans: b
21. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having

a. non-linear elements
b. linear bilateral elements
c. resistive elements
d. passive elements
Ans: b
22. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely with

a. Temperature
b. area of cross-section
c. length
d. resistivity
Ans: b
23. Three resistors of values 60, 40 and 35 connected across a 50-V source, what is the approximate
amount of heat produced?
a. 13.6 W
b. 18.5 W
c. 135 W
d. 100 W
Ans: b
24. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is:
a. unilateral circuit
b. bilateral circuit
c. irreversible circuit
d. reversible circuit
Ans: b
25. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to STUDY ZONE
a. DC circuits only
b. AC circuits only
c. both AC as well DC circuits
d. passive circuits only
Ans: c
26. Kirchhoff s current law states that

a. net current flow at the junction is positive
b. algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
c. net voltage at a junction is zero
d. both A and B
Ans: b
27. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

a. Series
b. Parallel
c. series or parallel
d. both A and B
Ans: b
28. In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. none of these
Ans: a
29. Find the voltage at node P in the following figure.
a. 8V
b. 9V
c. 10V
d. 11V
e. none of these
Ans: b

30. Find the value of the currents I1STUDY
and I2 flowing
ZONE clockwise in the first and second mesh
respectively.
a. 0.96A, 1.73A
b. 0.96A, -1.73A
c. -0.96A, 1.73A
d. -0.96A, -1.73A
e. none of these
Ans: b
UNIT 2
1. The product of RMS values of current and voltage is called as

a. Real power
b. Apparent power
c. Reactive power
d. Polar curves
e. None of these
Ans: b
2. The power absorbed by a pure inductive circuit and pure capacitive circuit is
a. Zero and non-zero
b. Non-zero and zero
c. Non zero and Non-zero
d. Zero and zero
e. None of these
Ans: d
3. Root mean square value of current is equal to

a. 1.414 times the maximum value
b. 1.732 times the maximum value
c. Twice the maximum value
d. 0.707 times the maximum value
e. None of these
Ans: d
4. The net power in a series R-C circuit is

a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: b
5. The ratio of maximum value to RMS value of an alternating quantity is called

a. Crest factor
b. Peak factor
c. Form factor
d. Both A and B STUDY ZONE
e. None of these
Ans: d
6. Alternating voltage can be generated by

a. By rotating a coil in a magnetic field
b. By rotating a magnetic field within a stationary coil
c. By rotating a magnetic field as well as coil
d. Either (a) or (b)
e. Neither (a) or (b)
Ans: c
7. What is the phase difference between voltage and current of purely inductive circuit?
a. 45º
b. 90º
c. 180º
d. 0º
e. None of these
Ans.: b
8. What is the power factor of AC circuit of purely inductive?

a. leading
b. lagging
c. unity
d. fluctuate between leading and lagging
e. None of these
Ans.: b
9. The inductive reactance is the ratio of

a. RMS value of voltage to RMS value of current in inductive circuit
b. RMS value of current to RMS value of voltage in inductive circuit
c. Average value of voltage to RMS value of current in inductive circuit
d. RMS value of current to maximum value of voltage in inductive circuit
e. None of these
Ans.: a
10. Which of the following is/are correct for inductive reactance?

a. it is denoted by the symbol XL
b. It is measured in ohms
c. It is written as ωL = V/I
d. All of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: d
11. Which of the following equation gives the relation of Ohm’s law for purely inductive circuit?
a. V = XI
b. V = X/I
c. V = XLI
d. I = XLV
e. None of these
Ans.: c
12. Calculate inductive reactance at 1.5 MHz of coil has an inductive inductance of 25 mH and
negligible resistance.
a. 235600 ohm
b. 235.60 ohm STUDY ZONE
c. 23560.00 ohm
d. 2356.00 ohm
e. None of these
Ans.: a
13. The reactance offered by inductance to pure dc voltage of current

a. infinity
b. zero
c. tends to zero
d. negative
e. None of these
Ans.: b
14. For a direct current or voltage, a pure inductor acts as

a. short circuit
b. open circuit
c. A or B
d. not defined
e. None of these
Ans.: a
15. Why average power in pure inductive circuit is zero?

a. In the positive half cycle of power waveform, energy is stored by the inductance and in the
negative half cycle of the power waveform, the stored energy is returned back to the ac source
b. The area under the positive parts and those under the negative parts of the power waveform are
exactly equal
c. total energy supply to a pure inductance over a complete cycle is sero
d. all of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: d
16. Consider a RL series circuit

a. Current lags the applied voltage by 0° to 180°
b. Current lags the applied voltage by 0° to 90°
c. Current leads the applied voltage by 0° to 90°
d. Current lags the applied voltage by 45° to 90°
e. None of these
Ans.: b
17. The expression of instantaneous power in ac circuit is given by

a. p = v i
b. p = VI
c. p = v i cosф
d. P = VI sinф
e. None of these
Ans.: a
18. Consider a circuit which takes a current of 8 A at 100V and current is lags behind the applied
voltage by 30°. Find out impedance and inductance.
a. 125Ω and 19.9Ω
b. 12.5Ω and 199Ω
c. 12.5Ω and 19.9Ω
d. 1.25Ω and 1.99Ω
e. None of these
Ans.: c STUDY ZONE
19. In ac circuit power is consumed
a. only in capacitance
b. only in inductance
c. only in resistance
d. all of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: c
20. A 220 V bulb is connected to 220 V, 5 Hz source. What will happen?

a. Bulb glow intermittently
b. bulb damaged
c. does not glow
d. Constantly glow
e. None of these
Ans.: a
21. Find voltage across R and L if a series circuit of R= 20 ohms and L = 20 mH and supply is 60 V
with 100 Hz.
a. 50.8 V and 31.9 V
b. 5.08 V and 3.19 V
c. 31.9 V and 50.8 V
d. 51.8 V and 32.9 V
e. None of these
Ans.: a
22. In ideal capacitor and inductor has

a. resistance and dissipates energy
b. no resistance and no energy is dissipated
c. only resistance and no energy is dissipated
d. no resistance and dissipates energy
e. None of these
Ans.: b
23. The impedance of purely resistive circuit is given by in polar form and rectangular form
a. Z = R and Z =(R+j0)Ω
b. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = (R+jX)Ω
c. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = R+j0)Ω
d. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = jX Ω
e. None of these
Ans.: c
24. Which among the following condition is true at the resonance?

a. Xc > XL
b. Xc = XL
c. Vc = VL
d. Both b and c
Ans: d
25. What would be the value of power factor for series RLC circuit under the resonance
phenomenon?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1 STUDY ZONE
d. Infinity
e. None of these
Ans: C
26. If the value of resonant frequency is 50 kHz in a series RLC circuit along with the bandwidth
of about 1 kHz, then what would be the value of quality factor?
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500
e. None of these
Ans: b
27. When a series R-L-C circuit is under resonance

1. Current is maximum through R.
2. Magnitude of the voltage across L is equal to that across C.
3. The power factor of the circuit is unity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
e. None of these
Ans: a
28. At resonant frequency an R-L-C circuit draws maximum current due to the reason that
a. the difference between capacitive reactance and inductive reactance is zero.
b. the impedance is more than resistance.
c. the voltage across the capacitor equals the applied voltage.
d. the power factor is less than unity.
e. None of these
Ans: a
29. Consider the following statements with respect to a series R-L-C circuit under resonance
condition:
1. All the applied voltage appears across R.
2. There is no voltage across either L or C.
3. The voltage across L and C equal and equal to their maximum values.
Out of these statements
a. 1 alone is correct.
b. 2 alone is correct.
c. 1 and 3 are correct.
d. 1 and 2 are correct.
e. None of these
Ans: c
30. A coil having a resistance of 5Ω and inductance of 0.1 H is connected with a condenser of
capacitance 50 µF. A constant alternating voltage of 200 V is applied to the circuit. The voltage
across the coil at resonance is
a. 200 V
b. 1788 V
c. 1800 V
d. 2000 V
e. None of these
Ans: c STUDY ZONE
UNIT 3
1. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding
transformer?
a. Hysteresis losses are reduced
b. Saving in winding material
c. Copper losses are negligible
d. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated.
Ans: b

a. No losses and magnetic leakage
b. interleaved primary and secondary windings
c. a common core for its primary and secondary windings
d. core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Ans: a

a. Capacitive only
b. inductive only
c. inductive or resistive
d. capacitive or resistive
Ans: a
4. The phase difference between the primary and the secondary voltage of a transformer is
a. 0 degree
b. 180 degree
c. 90 degree
d. between 30 degree and 60 degree
Ans: b
5. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 1600 watts. At half load the losses will be
a. 6400 W
b. 1600 W
c. 800 W
d. 400 W
Ans: d
6. In a transformer minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
a. Leading
b. Lagging
c. 0.8
d. Unity
Ans: a
7. Which of the following material is used for magnetic core of the transformer?
a. Silicon steel NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
FOR IMPORTANT
b. Iron STUDY ZONE
c. Cast steel
d. Cast iron
Ans: a
8. Transformer core are laminated in order to

a. reduce hysteresis loss
b. reduce hysteresis & eddy current loss
c. minimize eddy current loss
d. Copper loss
Ans: C
9. A transformer
a) Steps up or down dc voltages
b) Changes ac to dc
c) Steps up or down ac voltages
d) Changes dc to ac
e) none of the above
Ans C
10. The primary winding of a transformer has a 120 V ac supply. What is the value of secondary
voltage if the turn ratio is 10?
a. 120 V
b. 12 V
c. 12000 V
d. 1200 V
Ans d
11. A transformer has a primary coil with 1600 turns and a secondary coil with 1200 turns. If the
current in the primary coil is 6 Ampere, then what is the current in the secondary coil of a
transformer?
a. 78 Ampere
b. 98 Ampere
c. 68 Ampere
d. 58 Ampere
Ans B
12. The transformer ratings are expressed in terms of
a. KW (Kilo-Watt)
b. Volts
c. KVAR (Kilo-Volt-Ampere-Reactive)
d. KVA (Kilo-Volt-Ampere)
Ans d
13. A transformer has 6 windings in its primary core and 3 in its secondary coil. If the primary
voltage is 440 V, find the secondary voltage.
a. 175 V
b. 185 V
FOR IMPORTANT
c. 155 V NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
d. 165 V STUDY ZONE
Ans d
14. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer?

a. Current
b. Frequency
c. Voltage
d. All of the above
Ans b
15. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when

a. Eddy current loss = iron loss
b. Hysteresis loss = copper loss.
c. Eddy current loss = hysteresis loss
d. Iron loss = Copper loss.
Ans d
16. Which winding in a transformer has a greater number of turns?

a. Constant voltage winding
b. Low voltage winding
c. Secondary winding
d. High voltage winding
Ans d
a. 132 kV
b. 400 kV
c. 33 kV
d. 66 kV
Ans b
18. The frictional loss in a transformer is

a. 10 %
b. 50 %
c. 0 %
d. More than 50 %
Ans C
19. When a resistance is to be transferred from primary to secondary side of transformer with the
turn’s ratio as k, it must be
a. Multiplied by k2
b. Multiplied by k
c. Divided by k
d. Divided by k2
Ans a
20. A 600 kVA transformer has iron losses of 400 kW and copper losses of 500 kW. Its kVA rating
for maximum efficiency is given by
a. 537 kVA
b. 548 kVA STUDY ZONE
c. 555 kVA
d. 585 kVA
Ans a
21. In a step down autotransformer, if the transformation ratio increases then the saving of copper
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. None of these
Ans A
22. A 500 kVA single phase transformer has 90% efficiency at both half load and full load at unity
power factor. Then iron losses will be
a. 12.55 KW
b. 13.55 kW
c. 16.55 kW
d. 18.55 KW
Ans d
23. In electrical machines the material preferred for making core is

a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Silicon Steel
d. Lead
e. None of these
Ans: c
24. Choose the best suitable of Diamagnetic: Paramagnetic

a. Water: Air.
b. Iron: Steel.
c. Perm alloy: Super-alloy.
d. Nickel: Cobalt.
Ans: a
25. In a 20 kVA, 2200 / 220 V transformer iron and copper losses are 300 and 400 watts
respectively. Its efficiency at half load and unity power factor is
a. 95.11%
b. 96.15%
c. 97.77%
d. 98%
Ans b
26. Electromagnets are used in

a. Loud speakers
b. Generators
c. Motors
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: d
STUDY ZONE
27. Materials which lack permanent magnetic dipoles are called
a. Diamagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Semi magnetic
d. Paramagnetic
e. None of these
Ans: a
28. Which of the following is the advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding
transformer?
c. Eddy current losses are eliminated
d. All of above.
e. None of these
Ans d
29. Which material shows hysteresis when subjected to cycles of magnetization?

a. Ferromagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
c. Diamagnetic
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: A
30. The PF of the transformer:

a. Unity
b. Leading
c. Lagging
d. Depends on load
e. None of these
Ans d
UNIT 4
1. Double revolving field theory is applied to understand the operating principle of
a. Three phase induction motor
b. Single phase induction motor
c. DC Motor
d. Synchronous Motor
Ans: b
2. The function of capacitor in permanent capacitor induction motor is to-

a. Provide high starting torque
b. Provide high running torque
c. To improve operating power factor
d. Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Ans: d
3. Phase angle between Main and Auxiliary winding currents in permanent capacitor motor is
around-
a. 80 degrees NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
FOR IMPORTANT
b. 20 degree STUDY ZONE
c. 0 degree
d. 45 degree
Ans: a
4. The motor generally used in ceiling fan is

a. 3 phase induction motor
b. DC motor
c. Single phase induction motor
d. Synchronous motor
Ans: c
5. Armature core of dc machine is made laminated to

a. Reduce Hysteresis loss
b. Reduce Eddy Current loss
c. Reduce sparking at brushes
d. Reduce armature reaction
Ans: b
6. Commutator segments are generally made up of

a. Carbon
b. Stainless Steel
c. Copper
d. Options (a) and (c) are correct
Ans: d
7. Commutator segments are insulated from each other by

a. Mica
b. PVC
c. Carbon
d. Varnish
Ans : a
8. Direction of rotation of dc motor can be obtained by applying

a. Fleming’s right hand rule
b. Fleming’s left hand rule
c. Cork screw rule
d. Faradey’s law
Ans: b
9. The function served by commutator of a dc generator is

a. To reverse the current supplied by the armature
b. To reduce copper losses in the armature
c. To prevent the reversal of current when armature conductor interchange poles
d. To prevent sparking at brushes
Ans: c
10. Number of parallel paths in a lap wound dc generator
STUDY ZONE is
a. Equal to the number of poles
b. Equal to the number of armature conductors
c. Equal to the number of brushes
d. Equal to the commutator segments
Ans: a
11. A six pole lap wound armature has 840 conductors and flux per pole of 0.018 webers. The
generated emf when the armature rotates at 600 rpm is equal to
a. 150 V
b. 151.2 V
c. 153.4 V
d. 152.2 V
Ans: b
12. The direction of current supplied by a dc generator can be obtained by

c. Cork screw rule
d. Right hand thumb rule
Ans: a
13. Back emf of a dc motor depends on

a. Armature speed
b. Flux per pole
c. Number of armature conductors
Ans: d
14. Torque of a dc series motor is proportional to

a. Armature current
b. Square of the armature current
c. Square root of the armature current
d. Cube of armature current
Ans: b
15. Torque of a dc shunt motor is proportional to

a. Armature current
Ans: a
16. The power input to a 230V dc shunt motor is 8.477 kW. The field resistance is 230 ohm and
armature resistance is 0.28 ohm. The armature current is
a. 36.86 A
b. 36.44 A
c. 37.45 A
d. 35.86 A
e. None of the above STUDY ZONE
Ans: d
17. In a 3 phase induction motor, the synchronous speed is

a. Speed of rotor
b. Speed of stator magnetic field
c. Speed of rotor magnetic field
d. Speed of the stator
Ans: b
18. Slip of a three phase induction motor is zero at

a. Standstill
b. Synchronous speed
c. No load speed
d. Full load speed
Ans: b
19. Slip of a three phase induction motor is equal to 1 at

a. Standstill
c. No load speed
d. Full load speed
Ans: a
20. The rotor bars of a three phase squirrel cage motor are generally made up of
a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Silicon steel
d. Both options (a) and (b) are correct
Ans: d
21. Speed of rotation of stator magnetic field of a 3 phase induction motor depends on
a. Supply frequency
b. Number of poles
c. Both options (a) and (b) are correct
d. Supply voltage
Ans: c
22. Speed of rotation of rotor magnetic field of a 3 phase induction motor depends on
a. Stator frequency
b. Slip
d. Supply voltage
Ans: c
23. In which type of induction motor slip rings and brushes are used
a. Squirrel cage induction motor
b. Wound rotor induction motor
c. Permanent capacitor induction motor
d. Shaded pole induction motor STUDY ZONE
Ans: b
24. Select the true statement regarding split phase induction motor
a. Resistance of starting winding is higher than its reactance
b. Reactance of running winding is higher than its resistance
d. This motor requires 3 phase power
Ans: b
25. Select the true statement regarding synchronous motor

a. It is a self starting motor
b. DC supply is given to the rotor
c. 3 phase ac is given to the stator
d. Both options (b) and (c) are correct
Ans: d
26. The generated frequency of an alternator can be varied by

a. Varying the rotor speed
b. Varying the number of poles
c. Interchanging the connections of phases
Ans: d
27. Synchronous motor is used in

a. Lethe machines
b. Electric locomotives
c. Power factor improvement
d. Electrical vehicles
Ans: c
28. The slip of a 3 phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor running at 1400 rpm is
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 6%
d. 5.5%
Ans : e
29. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a slip of 4%, its rotor speed is
a. 1500 rpm
b. 1440 rpm
c. 1460 rpm
d. 1480 rpm
Ans: b
30. A 50 Hz, 4 pole, 3 phase induction motor has rotor current frequency of 2 Hz. The slip of the
motor is
a. 4%
b. 4.5% STUDY ZONE
c. 5%
d. 3.5%
Ans: a
UNIT 5
1. Fuse element is generally made up of alloys of

a. Aluminum
b. Tin
c. Lead
Ans: d
2. The element of HRC fuse is made up of

a. Silver
b. Copper
c. Tungsten
d. Nichrome
Ans: a
3. Miniature Circuit Breaker provides protection against

a. Overloading
b. Short circuit fault
c. Over voltage fault
Ans: d
4. Full form of MCCB is

a. Metal Case Circuit Breaker
b. Miniature Case Circuit Breaker
c. Molded Case Circuit Breaker
Ans: c
5. How much time will be taken by a 2kW motor to consume 1kWh

a. 60 minutes
b. 120 minutes
c. 200 minutes
d. 30 minutes
Ans: d
6. Two lamps 100W each are connected across 220 single phase AC supply. Time taken to
consume 1kWh of electrical energy is
a. 5 hours STUDY ZONE
b. 10 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 2 hours
Ans: b
7. 10 lamps of 200 Watts each remain on for 5 hours daily. Electrical energy consumed by the
lamps in the month of May is
a. 620 kWh
b. 600 kWh
c. 320 kWh
d. 300 kWh
Ans: e
8. A 5V, 120 Amp-Hr battery is continuously supplying a 60 Watts 5 volts load. The time taken
by the battery to get completely discharged is
a. 10 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 hours
d. 9 hours
Ans: (a)
9. A battery gets completely discharged in 2 hours while supplying a steady current of 1 A with a
terminal voltage of 5 volts. The same battery while charging has a terminal voltage of 5.2 volts,
draws a steady current of 1.1 A and takes 2.5 hrs to get completely charged. The Ampere-Hour
efficiency of the battery is
a. 70.72 %
b. 72.72 %
c. 69.60 %
d. 68.60 %
Ans: b
draws a steady current of 1.1 A and takes 2.5 hrs to get completely charged. The Watt-Hour
a. 70.93 %
b. 71.93%
c. 68.93 %
d. 69.93 %
Ans: d
11. A 3.5 core cable has cross section area of 4cm2 each phase. The cross section area of neutral
conductor is
a. 4 cm2 STUDY ZONE
b. 6 cm2
c. 2 cm2
d. 8 cm2
Ans: c
12. A 4 core cable has cross section area of 100mm2 each phase. The cross section area of neutral
conductor is
a. 100 mm2
b. 50 mm2
c. 200 mm2
d. 125 mm2
Ans: a
13. The cross section area of earth wire generally is

a. Equal to line wire
b. Smaller than line and neutral wire
c. Larger than line and neutral wire
d. Equal to neutral wire
Ans: c
14. Which cell is a type of primary cell

a. Lead-Acid Cell
b. Lithium-Iron Cell
c. Cadmium- Iron Cell
d. Dry Cell
Ans: d
15. Difference between MCB and MCCB is

a. MCB detects current faults and MCCB detects voltage faults.
b. MCCB has variable current ranges and MCB has fixed current range.
c. MCCB detects current faults and MCB detects voltage faults.
d. MCB has variable current ranges and MCCB has fixed current range.
Ans: b
16. Which of the following material is used as insulation for power cables
a. Polyvinyl Chloride(PVC)
b. Vulcanized Indian Rubber(VIR)
c. Asbestos
d. Both options (a) and (c) are correct
Ans: d
17. What is the objective behind providing earthing in industrial/domestic applications

a. To avoid electric
FOR IMPORTANT NOTESshockTOUCH
to human beings
TO "!! ADITYA !!"
b. To avoid risk of fire due to earth leakage
STUDY current
ZONE
c. To ensure that no current carrying conductor rises to a potential with respect to general mass of
earth than its designed insulation
Ans: (d)
18. The term HRC stands for

a. High Restricting Capacity
b. High Rapturing Current
c. High Restraining Capacity
Ans: e
19. The average resistance of human body is around

a. 1000 ohm
b. 1500 ohm
c. 2000
d. 100 ohm
Ans: (a)
20. Current rating of MCCB is upto

a. 500A
b. 2500A
c. 1000A
d. 100A
Ans: (b)
21. The term ELCB stands for

a. Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
b. Earth Load Circuit Breaker
c. Earth Line Circuit Breaker
Ans: (a)
22. A fuse is connected

a. In series with the earth wire
b. Between phase and neutral wire
c. Parallel to the load
Ans: (e)
23. Operating time of a fuse depends on

a. Value of fault current
b. Melting pointNOTES
FOR IMPORTANT of the fuse wire
TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
c. Thickness of the fuse wire STUDY ZONE
Ans: d
24. The efficiency of a battery can be expressed as

a. Watt-Hour efficiency
b. Amp-Hour efficiency
c. Volt-Hour efficiency
Ans: d
25. MCCB is used to

a. Provide protection against overload
b. Provide protection against electrical faults
c. Switch a circuit on and off
Ans : (d)
26. The electrolyte used in lead-acid battery is

a. Dilute H2SO4
b. PbO2
c. Concentrated H2SO4
d. Pb
e. H2SO4
Ans: (a)
27. The electrolyte used in Nickel-Iton battery is

a. Nickel Hydroxide
b. Nickel Peroxide
c. Potassium Hydroxide
d. Iron oxide
Ans: (c)
28. The diameter of earth pin is made larger than phase and neutral pin in order to
a. Make contact earlier than phase and neutral pin to clear earth fault.
b. Provide high resistance path to the earth current
c. Provide return to the earth current
d. Options (b) and (c) are correct
Ans: (a)
29. An MCB is connected

d. Both options NOTES
FOR IMPORTANT (b) and (c)TOUCH
are correctTO "!! ADITYA !!"
Ans: (e)
30. One unit of electrical energy equals

a. 1 Watt-Hour
b. 1000 Watt-Hour
c. 1 Watt/Hour
d. 1000 Watt/Hour
Ans: (b)

STUDY ZONE
UNIT - 5 [Electrical Installation]
Q.1. The full name of MCB is
a) Master Circuit Breaker b) Miniature Current Breaker
c) Miniature Circuit Breaker d) Maximum Current Breaker
Q.2. Fuse wire should possess

a) High specific resistance and high melting point
b) High specific resistance and low melting point
c) Low specific resistance and low melting point
d) Low specific resistance and high melting point
Q.3. If strands are twisted, then fusing current will

a) Increase b) Reduce
c) Remain same d) May increase or decrease
Q.4. Fuses can serve up to a current of

a) 25 A b) 50 A
c) 75 A d) 100 A
Q.5. Best practicable material for a fuse wires is

a) Aluminum b) Copper
c) Iron d) Tin
Q.6. H.R.C. fuses has

a) High rating of current b) High rupturing capacity
c) High resistance capacity d) None of these
Q.7. Selection of fuse is based on

a) Steady load b) Fluctuating load
c) A & b d) None of these
Q.8. The contact resistance of a manually operated switch is

a) Zero b) Very high
c) Very low d) None of these
Q.9. A switch should have

a) High insulation resistance b) Low insulation resistance
c) Insulation resistance equal to contact resistance d) None of these
Q.10. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
a) 220 V b) 400V
c) 1000 V d) 10,000
Q.11. MCCB stands for More Current Circuit Breaker.

a) True b) False
Q.12. ELCB stands for Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker.

a) True b) False
Q.13. The current rating for MCB is

a) 10A to 1000A b) 5A to 500A
c) 0.5A to 63A d) 0.5A to 68A

Q.14. The current rating for MCCB is
STUDY ZONE
a) 68A to 3000A b) 65A to 3000A
c) 63A to 3000A d) 60A to 6000A
Q.15. Under normal condition, current in line conductor is equal to neutral conductor for ELCB.
a) True b) False
Q.16. Generally grounding is provided for

a) Only for the safety of the equipment b) only for the safety of the operating personnel
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
Q.17. Ground resistance should be designed such that

a) grounding resistance should be as low as possible
b) grounding resistance should be as high as possible
c) grounding resistance should be always zero
d) none of the above
Q.18. Earthing is necessary to give protection against

a) Danger of electric shock b) Voltage fluctuation
c) Overloading d) High temperature of the conductors
Q.19. The advantage of neutral earthing is

a) Freedom from persistent arcing grounds
b) Over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
c) Simplified design earth fault protection
d) All of the above
Q.20. Which type of material is used to make a rod for rod earthing?
a) Iron b) Steel
c) Copper d) All of above
Q.21. What are the methods of earthing?

a) Plate earthing b) Pipe earthing
c) Coil earthing d) All of above
Q.22. Which factor is enriched in soil by using coal and salt?

a) Humidity b) Fertility
c) Sodium d) Chlorine
Q.23. What type of earthing is done in a power station?

a) Plate earthing b) Pipe earthing
c) Coil earthing d) All of above
Q.24. If you used 400 W of power for 30 hours, you have used
a) 1.3 kWh b) 13.3 kWh
c) 1.2 kWh d) 12 kWh
Q.25. For 12 V and 40 mA, the power is

a) 480 mW b) 0.480 W
c) 480,000 µW d) All of the above
Q.26. Energy equals power multiplied by time.

a) True b) False

STUDY ZONE
Q.27. A given power supply is capable of providing 6 A for 3.5 h. Its ampere-hour rating is
a) 0.58 Ah b) 2.1 Ah
c) 21 Ah d) 58 Ah
Q.28. The plate is embedded 3 meters into the ground for plate earthing.
a) True b) False
Q.29. Power rating is related to resistance value.

a) True b) False
Q.30. A device that converts the stored chemical energy into electrical energy using chemical action
is called battery.
a) True b) False
Q.31. An UPS is known as

a) Useful Power Supply b) Useless Power Supply
c) Uninterruptible Power Supply d) Unregulated Power Supply
Q.32. UPS are available in

a) 1 Type b) 2 Types
c) 3 Types d) All of the above
Q.33. In an unregulated power supply, if load current increases, the output voltage ………..
a) Remains the same b) Decreases
c) Increases d) None of the above
Q.34. C.T.S. wire is Cab Type Sheathed wire

a) True b) False
Q.35. Only two types of wires are available in the market for electrical wiring.
a) True b) False
Q.36. The main conductor is covered by how many layers in underground cable?
a) 3 Layers b) 5 Layers
c) 4 Layers d) None of the above
Q.37. Copper as conductor for cables is used as

a) Annealed b) Hardened and tempered
c) Hard drawn d) alloy with chromium
Q.38. The inter-sheets in the cables are used to

a) Minimize the stress b) Avoid the requirement of good insulation
c) Provide proper stress distribution d) Any of the above
Q.39. In the cables sheaths are used to

a) Prevent the moisture entering the cable b) Provide enough strength
c) Provide enough insulation d) None of the above
Q.40. Single core cable should have Armour made of

a) Magnetic material b) Non-magnetic and non-conducting material
c) Non-magnetic but conducting material d) None of the above
Q.41. In a cable the maximum stress under operating conditions is at

a) Insulation layer b) Sheath
c) Armour d) Conductor surface
STUDY ZONE
Q.42. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth so as to
a) Minimise temperature stresses
b) Minimise effects of shocks and vibrations owing to passing vehicles etc.
c) Avoid being unearthed easily owing to removal of soil
d) Both A and C
Q.43. The materials used for Armouring of an underground cable is

a) Galvanised steel wire b) Steel tape
c) Aluminium d) Either A or B
Q.44. The underground system is ...........costly then the equivalent overhead line system
a) More b) Less
c) Same d) Greater than
Q.45. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

a) Current rating b) Voltage rating
c) Ampere hour rating d) None of the above
Q.46. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is

a) Nickel-cadmium battery b) Zinc carbon battery
c) Lead-acid battery d) None of the above
Q.47. Trickle charger of a storage battery helps to

a) Maintain proper electrolyte level b) Increase its reverse capacity
c) Prevent Sulphation d) Keep it fresh and fully charged
Q.48. On over charging a battery

a) It will bring about chemical change in active materials
b) It will increase the capacity of the battery
c) It will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
Q.49. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

a) In well ventilated location b) In clean and dry place
c) As near as practical to the battery being charged d) In location having all above features
Q.50. Batteries are charged by

a) Rectifiers b) Engine generator sets
c) Motor generator sets d) Any of the above
~~~***All the Best***~~~

STUDY ZONE
Answer
Q.1. c Q.11. b Q.21. d Q.31. c Q.41. d

Q.2. d Q.12. a Q.22. a Q.32. b Q.42. b
Q.3. b Q.13. c Q.23. b Q.33. b Q.43. d
Q.4. d Q.14. c Q.24. d Q.34. b Q.44. a
Q.5. b Q.15. a Q.25. d Q.35. b Q.45. c
Q.6. b Q.16. c Q.26. a Q.36. b Q.46. c
Q.7. c Q.17. a Q.27. c Q.37. a Q.47. d
Q.8. c Q.18. a Q.28. a Q.38. c Q.48. d
Q.9. a Q.19. d Q.29. b Q.39. a Q.49. d
Q.10. c Q.20. d Q.30. a Q.40. c Q.50. d

STUDY ZONE
UNIT -1
Principles of Electro-mechanical Energy Conversion (KEE-402)
1. In an energy conversion device, the total input energy is equal to the sum of the following
____________components.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Ans - C
2. Total mechanical energy input equal to?
A. electrical energy output - total energy storage + total energy dissipated

B. electrical energy output + total energy storage + total energy dissipated
C. electrical energy output + total energy storage - total energy dissipated
D. electrical energy output - total energy storage - total energy dissipated
E. None of the above
Ans - B
3. An electromechanical energy conversion device is one which converts _______
A. Electrical energy to mechanical energy only

B. Mechanical energy to electrical energy only
C. Both A and B
D.Only energy
Ans - C
4. When a conductor is allowed to move in a magnetic field, a voltage is induced in the conductor
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Can be true and false
D. Can not say
Ans - A
5. A physical system of electromechanical energy conversion, consists of a stationary part creating a

magnetic field with electric energy input, and a moving part giving mechanical energy output. If the
movable part is kept fixed, the entire electrical energy input will be _______
A. stored in the electric field

B. stored in the magnetic field
C. divided equally between the magnetic and electric fields
D. zeroIMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA
FOR !!"
STUDY ZONE
Ans - B
6. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electromechanical energy conversion system, acts
in such a direction that tends to ___________
A. increase the stored energy at constant mmf

B. decrease the co-energy at constant mmf
C. decrease the stored energy at constant mmf
D. increase the stored energy at constant flux
Ans - C
7. Electromechanical energy conversion takes place via the medium of a?
A. Magnetic field
B. Electric field
C. Magnetic field or Electric field
D. No medium
Ans - C
8. In an electro-mechanical energy conversion device, which of the following statements are correct
regarding the coupling field?
(i) electrical side is associated with emf and current

(ii) electrical side is associated with torque and speed
(iii) mechanical side is associated with emf and current
(iv) mechanical side is associated with torque and speed
a) (i) & (ii)

b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) and (iv)
e) None of the above
Ans - D
9. A coupling magnetic field must react with which of the following statements?
(i) electrical system in order to extract energy from mechanical system

(ii) mechanical system in order to extract energy from mechanical system
(iii) electrical system in order to extract energy from electrical system
(iv) mechanical system in order to extract energy from electrical system
(v) electrical or mechanical system for electro-mechanical energy conversion
a) (i), (ii) & (iii)

b) (ii), (iii) & (v)
FOR IMPORTANT
c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
STUDY ZONE
d) (ii), (iii) & (v)

Ans - B
10. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electromechanical energy conversion systems, acts
in a direction that tends to ___________
(i) increase the co-energy at constant flux

(ii) increase the co-energy at constant mmf
(iii) decrease the stored energy at constant mmf
(iv) decrease the stored energy at constant flux
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii), (iv)
b) (i), (iii)
c) (ii), (iii)
d) (i), (iv)
Ans - A
11. A physical system of electromechanical energy conversion, consists of a stationary part creating a
magnetic field with electric energy input, and a moving part giving mechanical energy output. If the
movable part is kept fixed, the entire electrical energy input will be _______
a) stored in the magnetic field
b) stored in the electric field
c) divided equally between the magnetic and electric fields
d) zero
Ans - A
12. The energy stored in a magnetic field is given by ____________ where L=self-inductance and
Rl=reluctance.
a) 1/2 Li2
b) 1/2 (mmf*Rl)2
c) 1/2∅Rl
d) 1/2 φ2i
Ans - A
13. When a current of 5A flows through a coil of linear magnetic circuit, it has flux linkages of 2.4 wb-turns.
What is the energy stored in the magnetic field of this coil in Joules?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 1.2
d) 2.4
Ans - A
STUDY ZONE
14. For a linear electromagnetic circuit, which of the following statement is true?
a) Field energy is less than the Co-energy
b) Field energy is equal to the Co-energy
c) Field energy is greater than the Co-energy
d) Co-energy is zero
Ans - A
15. Consider a magnetic relay with linear magnetization curve in both of its open and closed position. What
happens to the electrical energy input to the relay, when the armature moves slowly from open position
to closed position?
a) Welec=Wfld
b) Welec=Wmech
c) Welec=Wmech/2+Wfld/2
d) Welec=0
Ans - C
16. Electromagnetic force and/or torque developed in any physical system, acts in such a direction as to tend
to ____________
a) increase both the field energy and co-energy at constant current
b) increase the field energy and decrease the co-energy at constant current
c) decrease both the field energy and co-energy at constant current
d) decrease the field energy and increase the co-energy at constant current\
Ans - A
17. Which of the following are examples of doubly-excited magnetic systems?

(a) Synchronous Machines
(b) Loudspeakers and Tachometers
(c) D.C Shunt Machines
(d) All of the mentioned
Ans - D
18. Most of the electromagnetic energy conversion devices belong to __________

(a) singly excited magnetic systems
(b) doubly excited magnetic systems
(c) multiply excited magnetic systems
(d) both doubly excited magnetic systems and multiply excited magnetic systems
Ans - D
19. Singly and doubly excited magnetic systems applications are respectively
(a) loud speakers and tachometers
(b) synchronous motors and moving iron instruments
FOR
(c)
IMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
DC shunt machines and solenoids
STUDY ZONE
(d) reluctance motors and synchronous motors

Ans - D
20. All practical electromechanical energy conversion devices make use of the magnetic field rather than the
electric field as the coupling medium.This is because
(a) electric field systems present insulation difficulties
(b) electric field systems have more dielectric loss than the magnetic loss, for the same power rating of
the machine
(c) in electric field systems, for normal electric field strength, the stored energy density is high
(d) in magnetic field systems, for normal magnetic flux density, the stored energy density is high
Ans - D
21. B/H curve shows the relationship between?

(a) Magnetic field strength and magnetic flux
(b) Magnetic field strength and magnetic flux density
(c) Current and magnetic flux density
(d) Voltage and magnetic flux density
Ans - B
22. Electromagnetic torque in rotating electrical machinery is present when ________

a) stator winding alone carries current
b) rotor winding alone carries current
c) air gap is uniform
d) both stator and rotor windings carry current
Ans - D
23. A parallel plate capacitor is changed and then the DC supply is disconnected. Now plate separation is
allowed to decrease due to force of attraction between the two plates. As a consequence which of the
following statements are correct?
(i) charge on the plate increases

(ii) charge on the plates remain constant
(iii) capacitance C increases
(iv) capacitance C remains constant
(v) potential difference increases
(vi) potential difference decreases
(vii) energy stored decreases
(viii) energy stored increases
a) (i), (iii), (vi)

b) (ii), (iv), (viii)
c) (ii), (iii), (vi), (vii)
d) (ii), (iv), (v), (viii)
STUDY ZONE
Ans - C
24. The force produced by electric field in a singly excited energy conversion device, using electric field as
coupling medium can be obtained by ___________
a) use of field energy function only
b) use of coenergy function only
c) use of field energy or coenergy function
d) any other energy function
e) none of the mentioned
Ans - C
25. Charge and voltage associated with electric field are analogous, respectively to __________ and
___________ in magnetic field.
a) flux linkages and current
b) flux density and current
c) flux linkages and voltage
d) MMF and current
Ans - A
26. The final forms of the expression for generated EMF and torque,for AC and DC machines differ,
because ____________
a) the fundamental principles underlying their operation are same
b) the fundamental principles underlying their operation are different
c) their construction details are same
d) their construction details are different
Ans - D
27. For an inductor made from magnetic core, with two air gaps of equal length g, exciting coil with 1000
turns, A=5cm∗5cm and g=1cm, what will be the coil inductance?
a) 0.314H
b) 0.157H
c) 0.078H
d) 0.628H
Ans - B
28. The magnitude of electromagnetic or interaction torque, in all rotating machines, is given by
____________
a) Te ∝ (stator field strength)sinδ
b) Te ∝ (rotor field strength)sinδ
c) Te ∝ (stator field strength)(rotor field strength)sinδ
d) Te ∝ sinδ
Ans - C
29. In a rotating electrical machine with 2 poles on the stator and 4 poles on the rotor, spaced equally, the net
electromagnetic torque developed is ____________
a) maximum
b) zero or no torque is developed
STUDY ZONE
c) minimum
d) medium
Ans - B
30. The interaction torque in a rotating electrical machine depends on which of the following components?
(i) sinδ
(ii) cosδ
(iii) torque angle δ
(iv) stator field strength
(v) rotor field strength
a) (i), (iv), (v)

b) (ii), (iii), (v)
c) (i), (iii), (v)
d) (ii), (iv), (v)
Ans - A
UNIT -2 : DC Machines
1.Which of the following rule is used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C motor?
A.Columb’s Law
B. Lenz’s Law
C. Fleming’s Right-hand Rule
D. Fleming’s Left-hand Rule
E None of the above
Ans - D
2. Which part of the DC motor can sustain maximum temperature rise?
A. Armature Winding
B. Field winding
C. Slip Ring
D. Commutator
E None of the above
Ans - D
3. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for intermittent light and heavy loads?
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(C) Cumulatively compounded motor
(D) Differentially compounded motor
(E) None of the above
Ans - C
4. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on
STUDY ZONE
(A) Frequency of magnetic reversals

(B) Maximum value of flux density
(C) Volume and grade of iron
(D) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans - D
5. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(A) The speed of motor will be reduced %
(B) The armature current will reduce
(C) The motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(D) The motor will continue to run at constant speed
Ans - C
6. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor?
(A) Low speed operation
(B) High speed operation
(C) Variable speed operation
(D) Fixed speed operation
Ans - C

(A) Constant voltage drive
(B) Constant current drive
(C) Constant torque drive
(D) None of the above
Ans - C
8. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is

(A) Eddy current losses = stray losses
(B) Hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(C) Copper losses = 0
(D) Variable losses = constant losses
Ans - D
9. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor will be equal to
(A) 100% of the previous value
(B) 50% of the previous value
(C) 25% of the previous value
(D) 10% of the previous value
Ans - C
10. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in

(A) Damage to commutator segments
(B) Damage to commutator insulation
(C) Increased power consumption
FOR IMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA
(D) All of the above
!!"
STUDY ZONE

Ans - D
11. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak value for
short duration. We will select this
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(C) Compound motor
(D) Any of the above
Ans - C
12. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(A) In one direction
(B) In both directions
(C) Below normal speed only
(D) Above normal speed only
Ans - B
13. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy current from
flowing though the armature circuit
(A) A resistance is connected in series with armature
(B) A resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(C) Armature is temporarily open circuited
(D) A high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans - A
14. Commutation is delayed due to __________

a) Leakage reactance
b) Effect of armature reaction
c) Leakage reactance and armature reaction
d) Because of other factors
Ans - C
15. Why brushes shifting method is not employed in practical commutation?

a) Expensive
b) Construction problems
c) Causes demagnetization
d) Used practically
Ans - C
16. Which are the methods for getting an ideal commutation?

a) Resistance commutation
b) Voltage commutation
c) Current commutation
d) Resistance and voltage commutation
Ans - D
!!"
STUDY ZONE
17. In resistance commutation method we add resistance between __________________

a) Brushes and external circuit
b) Commutator and armature winding
c) At field winding
d) Commutator and brush
Ans - D
18. What is the effect on time constant of transient current, as a result of resistance commutation?
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) Increases then decreases
Ans - D
19. Interpoles are excited with ____________

a) Armature current
b) Field current
c) Separate supply
d) Mains current
Ans - a
20. Polarity of interpoles is one pole ahead in the direction of armature rotation in _____________
a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Always ahead
d) Always behind
Ans - b
21. For a given 4-pole machine, carrying armature current 56.82 A, with 846 conductors. The mean flux
density in the air gap under the interpoles is 0.5 Wb/m2 on full load and radial gap length is 0.3 cm.
Ampere-turns required for an interpole is ____________
a) 3198
b) 2099
c) 4198
d) 6297
Ans - c
22. A 440 V, 4-pole, 25 kW, dc generator has a wave-connected armature winding with 846 conductors. The
mean flux density in the air-gap under the interpoles is 0.5 Wb/m2 on full load and the radial gap length
is 0.3 cm. Number of turns required on each interpole is _________
a) 74
b) 84
c) 64
d) 54
Ans - a
STUDY ZONE
23. Axis undergo shifting as a result of armature reaction, can be balanced by ______
a) Increase in armature current
b) Decrease in armature current
c) Introducing interpoles
d) Removing interpoles
Ans - c
24. Cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction can be reduced by __________

a) Removing saturation in teeth and pole-shoe
b) Making smooth pole shoes
c) Introducing saturation in teeth and pole-shoe
Ans - c
25. Cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction can be reduced by __________

a) Removing saturation in teeth and pole-shoe
b) Making smooth pole shoes
c) Chamfering the pole shoes
Ans - c
26. To counter the effect of shift in MNA due to armature reaction, which of the following component can
be shifted?
a) Poles
b) Commutator
c) Brushes
Ans - c
27. Calculate the number of conductors on each pole piece required in a compensating winding for a 6-pole
lap-wound dc armature containing 286 conductors.The compensating winding carries full armature
current. Assume ratio of pole arc/ pole pitch = 0.7.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) 7
Ans - a
28. A student forgot to mark the x-y axes in his experiments but he just noted down the cause and the effect
for each. How will he conclude about the armature characteristic out of the all plotted graphs?
a) By marking graph for constant terminal voltage
b) By marking graph for constant field current
c) By marking graph for constant armature current
d) By marking graph for constant speed
Ans - a
STUDY ZONE
29. For a given dc generator, the external characteristic is plotted. Without using further plots, how can we
obtain internal characteristic?
a) By adding the IaRa drop to the plot
b) By adding armature reaction
c) By reducing IaRa drop
d) All of the mentioned
Ans - a
30. The voltage drop in terminal voltage from no-load to full load in a shunt generator can be compenated
using _________
a) aiding series field
b) long-shunt, diferential field
c) aiding shunt field
d) any of the measures
Ans - a
UNIT - 3 DC Machines (Contd.)
1. How armature resistance effect is shown graphically?

a) By adding IaRa product horizontally with Rf line
b) By subtracting IaRa product vertically with Rf line
c) By adding IaRa product vertically with Rf line
d) By subtracting IaRa product horizontally with Rf line
2. Rf line intersects with OCC in ________

a) 1st quadrant
b) 2nd quadrant
c) 3rd quadrant
d) 4th quadrant
3. If a shunt generator delivers 100A at 200V and the resistance of the shunt field and armature are 100? and
0.01? respectively, the generated emf will be:
a) 205V
b) 212V
c) 201.02V
d) 208V
4. Practical reason behind speed of DC shunt motor is proportional to back emf only is ____________
a) Back emf is equal to armature drop
b) Flux is proportional to field current
c) Flux is proportional to armature current
d) FluxIMPORTANT
FOR is practically constant
NOTES in DCTOUCH
shunt motors
TO "!! ADITYA !!"
STUDY ZONE
5. The armature torque of the DC shunt motor is proportional to

a) Field flux only
b) Armature current only
c) Field flux and armature current
d) Field current
6. Speed of DC shunt motor is directly proportional to___________

a) Flux
b) Back emf
c) Terminal voltage
d) Armature resistance drop
7. Speed torque characteristic of DC shunt motor is _______________

a) Starting from origin
b) Starting from speed axis and increasing
c) Starting from speed axis and decreasing
d) Starting from speed axis and constant
8. DC Shunt Motor has a disadvantage __________

a) Constant speed
b) Less expensive
c) Not suitable for rapidly changing loads
9. The armaure resistance of a 200V shunt motor is 0.4ohm and no-load current is 2A.
When loaded and taking an armature current of 50A, the speed is 1200 rpm.
Find approximately the no-load speed.
a) 1328 rpm
b) 1296 rpm
c) 1412 rpm
d) 960 rpm
10. Which motor should not be started on no-load?

a) DC Series motor
b) DC Shunt motor
c) Synchronous motor
d) Induction motor
11.Torque of e DC series motor is __________

a) Directly proportional to armature current
b) Inversely proportional to armature current
c) Directly proportional to square of armature current
d) Inversely proportional to square of armature current
STUDY ZONE
12.In a dc series motor, the torque developed is 20Nm at 10A of load current.
If the load current is doubled, the new torque will be
a) 60Nm
b) 80Nm
c) 40Nm
d) 120Nm
13.Why starters are required in a DC motor?

a) Back emf of these motors is zero initially
b) These motors are not self-starting
c) These motors have high starting torque
d) To restrict armature current as there is no back emf at starting
14.A three-point starter is used for _________

a) Shunt motors
b) Shunt as well as compound motors
c) Shunt, compound and series motors
d) Not for DC motors
15.The starting resistance of a DC shunt motor is generally ______

a) low
b) Around 0.5 k?
c) Around 5 k?
d) Infinitely large
16.What will happen if DC motor is used without starter?

a) Heavy sparking at brushes
b) It’ll start smoothly
c) Will not start at all
d) Depends on load
17.Four-point starter is used when ______________

a) Motor field current is varied in narrow range
b) Motor speed is varied in small range
c) Motor field current is varied over wide range
d) Can be used anywhere
18.The speed of a DC shunt motor can be increased by ______

a) Increasing the resistance in armature circuit
b) Increasing the resistance in field circuit
c) Reducing the resistance in the field circuit
d) Reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
19.If the speed of a DC shunt motor is increased, the back emf of the motor will ___________
a) Increase
STUDY ZONE
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Become zero
20.Which speeds can be obtained from field control of DC shunt motor?

a) Lower than rated speeds
b) Greater than rated speeds
c) Lower and greater than rated speeds
d) Neither lower nor greater than rated speeds
21.For constant torque drive which of the following speed control method is preferred?
a) Field control
b) Armature voltage control
c) Shunt armature control
d) Voltage control
22.In rheostatic series control method of armature we add ____________

a) Variable resistor in parallel with armature
b) Variable resistor in series with armature
a) Fixed resistor in parallel with armature
b) Fixed resistor in series with armature
23.By series armature resistance method, we can get _________________________

a) Speed above rated speed
b) Speed equal to rated speed
c) Speed below rated speed
d) All speeds are possible
24.A shunt wound motor has an armature resistance of 0.1ohm. It is connected across 220V supply.
The armature current taken by the motor is 20A and the motor runs at 800 rpm. Calculate the additional
resistance to be inserted in series with the armature to reduce the speed to 520 rpm. Assume that there is no
change in armature current.
a) 2.56ohm
b) 3.815ohm
c) 4.265ohm
d) non of the above.
25.Which of the following is not the effect of iron loss?

a) Loss of efficiency
b) Excessive heating of core
c) Increase in terminal voltage
d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
26.Which of the following loss/losses in a DC generator is dissipated in the form of heat?

a) Mechanical loss
STUDY ZONE
b) Core loss
c) Copper loss
d) Mechanical, Copper and Core
27.Which of the following test will be suitable for testing two similar DC series motors of large capacity?
a) Swinburne’s test
b) Hopkinson’s test
c) Field test
d) Brake test
28.What is the purpose of performing retardation test after Swinburne’s test?

a) To find stray load loss
b) To find variable losses
c) To separate out windage and friction losses
d) To find shunt field losses
29.Hopkinson’s test of D.C. machines is conducted at _______________

a) No-load
b) Part load
c) Full-load
d) Overload
30.Typical brushless motor doesn’t have ______________

a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
c) Electronic controller
d) Fixed armature
1(c); 2(a); 3(c); 4(d); 5(b); 6(b); 7(c); 8(c); 9(a); 10(a);
11(c); 12(b); 13(d); 14(b); 15(a); 16(a); 17(c); 18(b); 19(a); 20(b);
21(b); 22(b); 23(c); 24(b); 25(c); 26(d); 27(c); 28(c); 29(c); 30(a)
UNIT - 4 Single Phase Transformer
1. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of

a. Frequency
b. Mutual Flux
c. Load current
d. Applied Voltage
2. Lamination of transformer core is made of

a. CastIMPORTANT
FOR Iron NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
b. Silicon Steel
STUDY ZONE
c. Aluminium
d. Cast Steel
3. Which of the following losses varies with the load in the transformer?
a. Core loss
b. Copper loss
c. Both core & copper loss
4. A transformer transform
a. Current
b. Voltage & current
c. Frequency
d. Voltage

d. Copper loss
6. No-load test on a transformer is caried out to determine.......

a. Magnetising current
b. Copper loss
c. Magnetising current and no-load loss
d. Efficiency of the transformer
7. The all-day efficiency of a transformer depends primirily on........

a. Its copper loss
b. The amount of load
c. The duration of load
d. Both (b) and (c)
8. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually........

a. 0.2% to 0.5%
b. 2% to 5%
c. 12% to 15%
d. 20% to 30%
9. Sumpner's test is conducted on transformers to determine........

a. Temperature
b. Stray loss
c. All-day efficiency
d. All of the above
!!"
STUDY ZONE
10. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of........

a. 100%
b. 98%
c. 50%
d. 25%
11. During open circuit test (OC) of a transformer _____________

a) primary is supplied rated kVA
b) primary is supplied full-load current
c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
d) primary is supplied rated voltage
12. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted so as to get ______________

a) Hysteresis losses
b) Copper losses
c) Core losses
d) Eddy current losses
13. Why OC test is performed on LV side?

a) Simple construction
b) Less voltage is required and parameters can be transformed to HV side
c) It’ll not give losses ig conducted on HV side
d) HV side does not have connections for voltage
14. During short circuit test why iron losses are negligible?
a) The current on secondary side is negligible
b) The voltage on secondary side does not vary
c) The voltage applied on primary side is low
d) Full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
15. SC test gives ______________

a) Series parameters of equivalent circuit
b) Parallel parameters of equivalent circuit
c) Both parameters of equivalent circuit
d) Neither series nor parallel parameter of equivalent circuit
16. Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to study effect of ____________

a) Temperature
b) Stray losses
c) All-day efficiency
17. Sumpner’s test is performed on _________

a) Single transformer at a time
STUDY ZONE
b) Only two transformers at a time

c) Minimum 2 transformers at a time
d) Many transformers at a time
18. In Sumpner’s test __________

a) Primaries can be connected in either way
b) Primaries are connected in parallel with each other
c) Primaries of both transformers are connected in series with each other
d) No need to connect primaries
19. Which test is sufficient for efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions?
a) Short-circuit test
b) Back-to-back test
c) Open circuit test
d) Any of the above
20. Total power required for Sumpner’s test is given by ________

a) PC + Pi
b) PC + 2Pi
c) 2PC + Pi
d) 2(PC + Pi)
21. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two-winding transformer?
a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
b) Saving in winding material
c) Copper losses are negligible
d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
22. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its transformation ratio is
a) Approximately equal to one
b) Less than one
c) Great than one
d) Cannot be found
23. Total windings present in a autotransformer are __________

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
24. Which of the following is not true regarding the autotransformer compare to two-winding transformer?
a) Lower reactance
b) Lower losses
c) Higher exciting current
d) Better voltage regulation
STUDY ZONE
25. What are the modes in which power can be transferred in an autotransformer?
a) Conduction
b) Induction
c) Conduction and Induction
d) Cannot be said
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. Either increases or decreases
27. If the transformation ratio of an autotransformer is given by V2 / V1 then the ratio of power transferred
to that of input power is given by
a. (V2-V1) / V1
b. (V2+V1) / V1
c. (V1-V2) / V1
d. V2 / V1
28. Use of an autotransformer is economical when its transformation ratio is

a. Near unity
b. Much greater than unity
c. Much lesser than unity
d. equal
e. None of these
29. Whether the given autotransformer is step up or step down, its VA rating is always
a. Greater than the two winding transformer
b. Equal to the two winding transformer
c. lesser than the two winding transformer
d. cannot say
e. None of these
30 .Compared to the two winding transformer, in an autotransformer the leakage reactance and copper losses
is
a. less, more
b. less, less
c. more, more
d. more, less
e. None of these
1(c); 2(b); 3(b); 4(d); 5(c); 6(c); 7(d); 8(b); 9(a); 10(b)
11 (d); 12 (c); 13 (b); 14 (c); 15 (a) 16 (a); 17 (b); 18 (b); 19 (b); 20 (d)
STUDY ZONE
21(b); 22(a); 23(a); 24(c); 25(c) 26 (a); 27 (d); 28 (a); 29 (a); 30 (b)
UNIT - 5 Three Phase Transformers
1. The statements which support the points that auto transformers are advantageous
I. Weight of conductor reduces
II. Ohmic losses reduces
III. Leakage reactance reduces
IV. Lower short-circuit current
a) I,II,III
b) II,III,IV
c) I,II,III,IV
d) I,IV
2. The statements which support the points that auto transformers are advantageous
I. Weight of conductor reduces
II. Direct electrical contacts
III. Leakage reactance reduces
IV. Lower short-circuit current
a) I,III
b) II,III
c) I,II,III,IV
d) I,IV
3. I. KVA rating : 1/(1-k)

II. Losses : (1-k)
III. Impedance drop = 1/(1-k)
Which of the above are correct for an auto transformer when compared to the identical rating two winding
transformer?
a) I,II
b) II,III
c) 1,III
d) I,II,III,IV
4. Ratio of winding material needed for autotransformer to thr two winding transformer is ______
a) 1- V2/V1
b) 1- N2/N1
c) 1- V2/V1 and 1- N2/N1
d) 1- V1/V2
5. For an auto-transformation ratio tending to the unity value, saving of the conductor material will be
___________
a) Tend towards 90% or more
b) Tend
FOR towards 0%
IMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
c) Can’t say
STUDY ZONE
d) Wil remain fix

6. 3-phase transformers compare to 1-phase transformers ________

a) More economical
b) Easy in construction
c) Easy to construct
d) Easy to handle
7. How 3-phase transformers are constructed?

a) A bank of 3 single phase transformers
b) A single 3-phase transformer with the primary and secondary of each phase wound on three legs of a
common core
c) Single 3-phase transformer or a bank of 3 1-phase transformers
d) By different method
8. Three phase transformer compare to a bank of 3 single phase transformers is ____________

a) Cheaper
b) Costlier
c) More in space
d) Can’t be determined
9. Which type of winding is used in 3-phase shell-type transformer?

a) Circular type
b) Sandwich type
c) Cylindrical type
d) Rectangular type
10. In three phase bank phases are ___________________

a) the phases are electrically not connected and magnetically independent
b) the phases are electrically not connected and magnetically dependent
c) the phases are electrically connected and magnetically independent
d) the phases are electrically connected and magnetically dependent
11. For the star-star connection of three-phase transformer, the phase angle between the phase voltages and
line voltages on both primary and secondary side is
a. 0 degree
b. 30 degree
c. 60 degree
d. 120 degree
12. While connecting three-phase transformer in star-star connection, the terminals of secondaries are
wrongly joined. Then the mutual phase angle and magnitude of line to line voltages of secondary’s will
a. Equal to 120 degree and equal as before
b. Not equal to 120 degree and different
c. Equal to 120 degree and different
STUDY ZONE
d. None of these
13. For the parallel operation of three phase transformers, which among the following connection is not
applicable?
a. delta - delta to Y - Y
b. Y - delta to delta - Y
c. Y - Y to Y - Y
d. Any of the above
e. None of these
14. In star-star connection of three-phase transformer, if VL is the line voltage and IL is the line current then
phase voltage and phase current is given by
a. VL/1.732, IL
b. VL, IL
c. 1.732VL, IL/1.732
d. VL, IL/1.732
15. For large low voltage transformers, the most commonly connections used are
a. Star- star connection
b. Delta-delta connection
c. V connection
d. All of these
16. A V-V connected transformer can be connected in parallel to delta-delta connected transformer but not to
a) delta-star
b) star-delta
c) star-V
17. Three units of single-phase transformers and one single three-phase transformer rating
a) Will be same for one rating
b) can never be made same
c) may be same
d) may not be same always
18. The delta-delta connections are used in applications of

a) small l.v. transformers
b) small h.v. transformers
c) large h.v. transformers
d) large l.v. transformers
19. Open delta transformers can be obtained from

a) star-delta
FOR IMPORTANT NOTES TOUCH TO
b) delta-delta
"!! ADITYA !!"
STUDY ZONE
c) delta-star
d) any of the mentioned
20. If one of the transformers is removed from the bank of only delta-delta, then it behaves with 58% power
delivery.
a) False
b) True
c) can't say
d) depends on other conditions
21. For the parallel operation of two single phase transformers it is necessary that they should have
________
a) same efficiency
b) same polarity
c) same kVA rating
d) same number of turns on the secondary side
22. For two transformers connected in parallel, not having unequal percentage impedances, which statement
is correct?
a) Short-circuiting of the secondaries
b) Power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging
c) Transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
d) Loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
23. Transformers operating in parallel mode of operation will share the load depending upon their
___________
a) leakage reactance
b) per unit impedance
c) efficiencies
d) ratings
24. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with regard to polarity?
a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of common load
b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
25. Why transformers are paralleled?

a) Economical than replacing by one single large unit
b) Less maintaining cost
c) To handle more load
d) Economical factors, more load capacity, less maintenance
26. Why tertiary winding is used?

a) To make circuit stable
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b) To provide voltage supply to the substations different from the primary and secondary voltage levels
c) To connect static capacitors for reactive power injection
d) Stable circuit, different voltage output, static capacitor connection
27. Tertiary winding is generally _________

a) star connected
b) delta connected
c) open-delta connected
d) star or open-delta connected
28. Tertiary winding can be used for ____________

a) to maximize the core area
b) to measure voltage during HV testing of transformer
c) to fill up the space between primary and secondary windings
d) to measure voltage during open circuit testing of transformer
29. If two transformers’ secondaries are connected to each other with unequal primary voltage ratio then,
__________
a) no circulating current will flow
b) very high short circuit current will flow
c) small circulating current will flow
d) insufficient information
30. If the primary voltages at two transformers V1 and V2 are not equal then on load, we’ll get
____________
a) V1-V2 at secondary
b) E1-E2 at secondary
c) V1+V2 at secondary
d) E1+E2 at secondary
1(a); 2(a); 3(a); 4(c); 5(a)

6 (a); 7 (c); 8 (a); 9 (b); 10 (c)
11 (b); 12 (b); 13 (d); 14 (a); 15 (b)
16 (a); 17 (a); 18 (d); 19 (b); 20 (b)
21 (b); 22 (d); 23 (b); 24 (b); 25 (d)
26 (d); 27 (b); 28 (b); 29 (c); 30 (b)

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Basic Electrical
STUDYEngineering
ZONE(KEE-201T)
UNIT 1
1. Kirchhoff laws fails and cannot be applied for
a. Linear network
b. Non-linear networks
c. distributed parameter
d. none of these
e. none of these
Ans: c
2. Capacitor is a
a. Linear and bilateral element
b. Non-linear and bilateral element
c. Linear and unilateral element
d. Non-linear and unilateral element
e. none of these
Ans: a
3. Thevenin’s theorem is related with

c. impedance
d. admittance
e. none of these
Ans: a
4. Thevenin’s voltage across AB in the circuit shown is

a. 100 V
b. 50V
c. 0V
d. 25V
e. none of these
Ans: b
5. Thevenin’s resistance (Rth) across AB in the circuit shown is

a. 10
b. 5
c. 2.5
d. 0
e. none of these
Ans: d
6. Norton’s theorem is related with

c. impedance
d. admittance
e. none of these
Ans: b
7. Norton’s current (ISC) in the circuit shown is

a. 0A STUDY ZONE
b. 5A
c. 10A
d. 20A
e. none of these
Ans: c
8. Super position theorem cannot be directly applied for

a. Voltage calculations across an element
b. current calculation through an element
c. power dissipated in an element
d. both a & b
e. none of these
Ans: c
9. Super position theorem can be applied for the circuits, which have
a. at least one source in the circuit
b. at least two sources in the circuit
c. more than one source in the circuit
d. both b & c
e. none of these
Ans: d
10. Find the value of V if the current in the 3 ohm resistor=0.
a. 3.5 V
b. 6.5 V
c. 7.5 V
d. 8.5 V
e. none of these
Ans: c
11. Find the resistor value R1(Ω ) in the figure shown below.
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12 STUDY ZONE
d. 13
e. none of these
Ans: c
12. The internal resistance of an ideal

a. Voltage source is zero while current source is infinite
b. current source is zero while voltage source is infinite
c. both
d. infinite for both the case
e. none of these
Ans: a
13. The value of each resistance for equivalent star of given delta network will be
a. 1
b. 9
c. 4.5
d. 27
e. none of these
Ans: a
14. The value of each resistance for equivalent delta of given star network will be
a. 8
b. 6
c. 2
d. 12
e. none of these
Ans: b
15. Which, among the following is the correct expression for star-delta conversion?
a. R1=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R3=Rc*Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
b. R1=Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), Rc=/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
c. R1=Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc, R2=Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra, R3=Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb
d. R1=Ra*Rb/Rc, R2=Rc*Rb/Ra, R3=Ra*Rc/Rb
e. none of these
Ans: e
16. Find the equivalent delta circuit.

a. 9.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
b. 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
c. 9.69 ohm, 34.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
d. 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 7.59 ohm
e. none of these
Ans: a
17. If the circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes, the circuit is
a. non-linear circuit
b. linear circuit
c. bilateral circuit
d. unilateral circuit
Ans: a
18. If the resistance decreases current through the resistor?

a. increases
b. remains unchanged STUDY ZONE
c. decreases
d. fluctuates
Ans: a
19. Kirchhoffs voltage law is related to

a. junction currents
b. IR drops
c. battery EMFs
d. both B and C
Ans: d
20. Ohms law is not applicable to

a. DC circuits
b. semi conductors
c. small resistors
d. high currents
Ans: b
21. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having

a. non-linear elements
b. linear bilateral elements
c. resistive elements
d. passive elements
Ans: b
22. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely with

a. Temperature
b. area of cross-section
c. length
d. resistivity
Ans: b
23. Three resistors of values 60, 40 and 35 connected across a 50-V source, what is the approximate
amount of heat produced?
a. 13.6 W
b. 18.5 W
c. 135 W
d. 100 W
Ans: b
24. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is:
a. unilateral circuit
b. bilateral circuit
c. irreversible circuit
d. reversible circuit
Ans: b

25. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to STUDY ZONE
a. DC circuits only
b. AC circuits only
c. both AC as well DC circuits
d. passive circuits only
Ans: c
26. Kirchhoff s current law states that

a. net current flow at the junction is positive
b. algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
c. net voltage at a junction is zero
d. both A and B
Ans: b
27. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

a. Series
b. Parallel
c. series or parallel
d. both A and B
Ans: b
28. In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. none of these
Ans: a
29. Find the voltage at node P in the following figure.
a. 8V
b. 9V
c. 10V
d. 11V
e. none of these
Ans: b

30. Find the value of the currents I1 andSTUDY
I2 flowing clockwise in the first and second mesh
ZONE
respectively.
a. 0.96A, 1.73A
b. 0.96A, -1.73A
c. -0.96A, 1.73A
d. -0.96A, -1.73A
e. none of these
Ans: b
UNIT 2
1. The product of RMS values of current and voltage is called as

a. Real power
b. Apparent power
c. Reactive power
d. Polar curves
e. None of these
Ans: b
2. The power absorbed by a pure inductive circuit and pure capacitive circuit is
a. Zero and non-zero
b. Non-zero and zero
c. Non zero and Non-zero
d. Zero and zero
e. None of these
Ans: d
3. Root mean square value of current is equal to

a. 1.414 times the maximum value
b. 1.732 times the maximum value
c. Twice the maximum value
d. 0.707 times the maximum value
e. None of these
Ans: d
4. The net power in a series R-C circuit is

a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: b
5. The ratio of maximum value to RMS value of an alternating quantity is called

a. Crest factor
b. Peak factor
c. Form factor
d. Both A and B STUDY ZONE
e. None of these
Ans: d
6. Alternating voltage can be generated by

a. By rotating a coil in a magnetic field
b. By rotating a magnetic field within a stationary coil
c. By rotating a magnetic field as well as coil
d. Either (a) or (b)
e. Neither (a) or (b)
Ans: c
7. What is the phase difference between voltage and current of purely inductive circuit?
a. 45º
b. 90º
c. 180º
d. 0º
e. None of these
Ans.: b
8. What is the power factor of AC circuit of purely inductive?

a. leading
b. lagging
c. unity
d. fluctuate between leading and lagging
e. None of these
Ans.: b
9. The inductive reactance is the ratio of

a. RMS value of voltage to RMS value of current in inductive circuit
b. RMS value of current to RMS value of voltage in inductive circuit
c. Average value of voltage to RMS value of current in inductive circuit
d. RMS value of current to maximum value of voltage in inductive circuit
e. None of these
Ans.: a
10. Which of the following is/are correct for inductive reactance?

a. it is denoted by the symbol XL
b. It is measured in ohms
c. It is written as ωL = V/I
d. All of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: d
11. Which of the following equation gives the relation of Ohm’s law for purely inductive circuit?
a. V = XI
b. V = X/I
c. V = XLI
d. I = XLV
e. None of these
Ans.: c
12. Calculate inductive reactance at 1.5 MHz of coil has an inductive inductance of 25 mH and
negligible resistance.
a. 235600 ohm
b. 235.60 ohm STUDY ZONE
c. 23560.00 ohm
d. 2356.00 ohm
e. None of these
Ans.: a
13. The reactance offered by inductance to pure dc voltage of current

a. infinity
b. zero
c. tends to zero
d. negative
e. None of these
Ans.: b
14. For a direct current or voltage, a pure inductor acts as

a. short circuit
b. open circuit
c. A or B
d. not defined
e. None of these
Ans.: a
15. Why average power in pure inductive circuit is zero?

a. In the positive half cycle of power waveform, energy is stored by the inductance and in the
negative half cycle of the power waveform, the stored energy is returned back to the ac source
b. The area under the positive parts and those under the negative parts of the power waveform are
exactly equal
c. total energy supply to a pure inductance over a complete cycle is sero
d. all of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: d
16. Consider a RL series circuit

a. Current lags the applied voltage by 0° to 180°
b. Current lags the applied voltage by 0° to 90°
c. Current leads the applied voltage by 0° to 90°
d. Current lags the applied voltage by 45° to 90°
e. None of these
Ans.: b
17. The expression of instantaneous power in ac circuit is given by

a. p = v i
b. p = VI
c. p = v i cosф
d. P = VI sinф
e. None of these
Ans.: a
18. Consider a circuit which takes a current of 8 A at 100V and current is lags behind the applied
voltage by 30°. Find out impedance and inductance.
a. 125Ω and 19.9Ω
b. 12.5Ω and 199Ω
c. 12.5Ω and 19.9Ω
d. 1.25Ω and 1.99Ω
e. None of these
Ans.: c STUDY ZONE
19. In ac circuit power is consumed
a. only in capacitance
b. only in inductance
c. only in resistance
d. all of the above
e. None of these
Ans.: c
20. A 220 V bulb is connected to 220 V, 5 Hz source. What will happen?

a. Bulb glow intermittently
b. bulb damaged
c. does not glow
d. Constantly glow
e. None of these
Ans.: a
21. Find voltage across R and L if a series circuit of R= 20 ohms and L = 20 mH and supply is 60 V
with 100 Hz.
a. 50.8 V and 31.9 V
b. 5.08 V and 3.19 V
c. 31.9 V and 50.8 V
d. 51.8 V and 32.9 V
e. None of these
Ans.: a
22. In ideal capacitor and inductor has

a. resistance and dissipates energy
b. no resistance and no energy is dissipated
c. only resistance and no energy is dissipated
d. no resistance and dissipates energy
e. None of these
Ans.: b
23. The impedance of purely resistive circuit is given by in polar form and rectangular form
a. Z = R and Z =(R+j0)Ω
b. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = (R+jX)Ω
c. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = R+j0)Ω
d. Z = R ∠ 0º and Z = jX Ω
e. None of these
Ans.: c
24. Which among the following condition is true at the resonance?

a. Xc > XL
b. Xc = XL
c. Vc = VL
d. Both b and c
Ans: d
25. What would be the value of power factor for series RLC circuit under the resonance
phenomenon?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1 STUDY ZONE
d. Infinity
e. None of these
Ans: C
26. If the value of resonant frequency is 50 kHz in a series RLC circuit along with the bandwidth
of about 1 kHz, then what would be the value of quality factor?
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500
e. None of these
Ans: b
27. When a series R-L-C circuit is under resonance

1. Current is maximum through R.
2. Magnitude of the voltage across L is equal to that across C.
3. The power factor of the circuit is unity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
e. None of these
Ans: a
28. At resonant frequency an R-L-C circuit draws maximum current due to the reason that
a. the difference between capacitive reactance and inductive reactance is zero.
b. the impedance is more than resistance.
c. the voltage across the capacitor equals the applied voltage.
d. the power factor is less than unity.
e. None of these
Ans: a
29. Consider the following statements with respect to a series R-L-C circuit under resonance
condition:
1. All the applied voltage appears across R.
2. There is no voltage across either L or C.
3. The voltage across L and C equal and equal to their maximum values.
Out of these statements
a. 1 alone is correct.
b. 2 alone is correct.
c. 1 and 3 are correct.
d. 1 and 2 are correct.
e. None of these
Ans: c
30. A coil having a resistance of 5Ω and inductance of 0.1 H is connected with a condenser of
capacitance 50 µF. A constant alternating voltage of 200 V is applied to the circuit. The voltage
across the coil at resonance is
a. 200 V
b. 1788 V
c. 1800 V
d. 2000 V
e. None of these
Ans: c STUDY ZONE
UNIT 3
1. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding
transformer?
c. Copper losses are negligible
d. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated.
Ans: b

a. No losses and magnetic leakage
b. interleaved primary and secondary windings
c. a common core for its primary and secondary windings
d. core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Ans: a

a. Capacitive only
b. inductive only
c. inductive or resistive
d. capacitive or resistive
Ans: a
4. The phase difference between the primary and the secondary voltage of a transformer is
a. 0 degree
b. 180 degree
c. 90 degree
d. between 30 degree and 60 degree
Ans: b
5. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 1600 watts. At half load the losses will be
a. 6400 W
b. 1600 W
c. 800 W
d. 400 W
Ans: d
6. In a transformer minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
a. Leading
b. Lagging
c. 0.8
d. Unity
Ans: a
7. Which of the following material is used for magnetic core of the transformer?
a. Silicon steel
b. Iron STUDY ZONE
c. Cast steel
d. Cast iron
Ans: a

d. Copper loss
Ans: C
9. A transformer
a) Steps up or down dc voltages
b) Changes ac to dc
c) Steps up or down ac voltages
d) Changes dc to ac
e) none of the above
Ans C
10. The primary winding of a transformer has a 120 V ac supply. What is the value of secondary
voltage if the turn ratio is 10?
a. 120 V
b. 12 V
c. 12000 V
d. 1200 V
Ans d
11. A transformer has a primary coil with 1600 turns and a secondary coil with 1200 turns. If the
current in the primary coil is 6 Ampere, then what is the current in the secondary coil of a
transformer?
a. 78 Ampere
b. 98 Ampere
c. 68 Ampere
d. 58 Ampere
Ans B
12. The transformer ratings are expressed in terms of
a. KW (Kilo-Watt)
b. Volts
c. KVAR (Kilo-Volt-Ampere-Reactive)
d. KVA (Kilo-Volt-Ampere)
Ans d
13. A transformer has 6 windings in its primary core and 3 in its secondary coil. If the primary
voltage is 440 V, find the secondary voltage.
a. 175 V
b. 185 V
FOR IMPORTANT
c. 155 V NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
d. 165 V STUDY ZONE
Ans d
14. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer?

a. Current
b. Frequency
c. Voltage
d. All of the above
Ans b
15. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when

a. Eddy current loss = iron loss
b. Hysteresis loss = copper loss.
c. Eddy current loss = hysteresis loss
d. Iron loss = Copper loss.
Ans d
16. Which winding in a transformer has a greater number of turns?

a. Constant voltage winding
b. Low voltage winding
c. Secondary winding
d. High voltage winding
Ans d
a. 132 kV
b. 400 kV
c. 33 kV
d. 66 kV
Ans b
18. The frictional loss in a transformer is

a. 10 %
b. 50 %
c. 0 %
d. More than 50 %
Ans C
19. When a resistance is to be transferred from primary to secondary side of transformer with the
turn’s ratio as k, it must be
a. Multiplied by k2
b. Multiplied by k
c. Divided by k
d. Divided by k2
Ans a
20. A 600 kVA transformer has iron losses of 400 kW and copper losses of 500 kW. Its kVA rating
for maximum efficiency is given by
a. 537 kVA
b. 548 kVA STUDY ZONE
c. 555 kVA
d. 585 kVA
Ans a
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. None of these
Ans A
22. A 500 kVA single phase transformer has 90% efficiency at both half load and full load at unity
power factor. Then iron losses will be
a. 12.55 KW
b. 13.55 kW
c. 16.55 kW
d. 18.55 KW
Ans d
23. In electrical machines the material preferred for making core is

a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Silicon Steel
d. Lead
e. None of these
Ans: c
24. Choose the best suitable of Diamagnetic: Paramagnetic

a. Water: Air.
b. Iron: Steel.
c. Perm alloy: Super-alloy.
d. Nickel: Cobalt.
Ans: a
25. In a 20 kVA, 2200 / 220 V transformer iron and copper losses are 300 and 400 watts
respectively. Its efficiency at half load and unity power factor is
a. 95.11%
b. 96.15%
c. 97.77%
d. 98%
Ans b
26. Electromagnets are used in

a. Loud speakers
b. Generators
c. Motors
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: d
STUDY ZONE
27. Materials which lack permanent magnetic dipoles are called
a. Diamagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Semi magnetic
d. Paramagnetic
e. None of these
Ans: a
28. Which of the following is the advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding
transformer?
c. Eddy current losses are eliminated
d. All of above.
e. None of these
Ans d
29. Which material shows hysteresis when subjected to cycles of magnetization?

a. Ferromagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
c. Diamagnetic
d. Both B and C
e. None of these
Ans: A
30. The PF of the transformer:

a. Unity
b. Leading
c. Lagging
d. Depends on load
e. None of these
Ans d
UNIT 4
1. Double revolving field theory is applied to understand the operating principle of
a. Three phase induction motor
b. Single phase induction motor
c. DC Motor
d. Synchronous Motor
2. The function of capacitor in permanent capacitor induction motor is to-

a. Provide high starting torque
b. Provide high running torque
c. To improve operating power factor
3. Phase angle between Main and Auxiliary winding currents in permanent capacitor motor is
around-
a. 80 degrees

b. 20 degree STUDY ZONE
c. 0 degree
d. 45 degree
4. The motor generally used in ceiling fan is

a. 3 phase induction motor
b. DC motor
c. Single phase induction motor
d. Synchronous motor
5. Armature core of dc machine is made laminated to

a. Reduce Hysteresis loss
b. Reduce Eddy Current loss
c. Reduce sparking at brushes
d. Reduce armature reaction
6. Commutator segments are generally made up of

a. Carbon
b. Stainless Steel
c. Copper
d. Options (a) and (c) are correct
7. Commutator segments are insulated from each other by

a. Mica
b. PVC
c. Carbon
d. Varnish
8. Direction of rotation of dc motor can be obtained by applying

c. Cork screw rule
d. Faradey’s law
9. The function served by commutator of a dc generator is

a. To reverse the current supplied by the armature
b. To reduce copper losses in the armature
c. To prevent the reversal of current when armature conductor interchange poles
d. To prevent sparking at brushes

10. Number of parallel paths in a lap woundSTUDY
dc generator
ZONEis
a. Equal to the number of poles
b. Equal to the number of armature conductors
c. Equal to the number of brushes
d. Equal to the commutator segments
11. A six pole lap wound armature has 840 conductors and flux per pole of 0.018 webers. The
generated emf when the armature rotates at 600 rpm is equal to
a. 150 V
b. 151.2 V
c. 153.4 V
d. 152.2 V
12. The direction of current supplied by a dc generator can be obtained by

c. Cork screw rule
d. Right hand thumb rule
13. Back emf of a dc motor depends on

a. Armature speed
b. Flux per pole
c. Number of armature conductors
14. Torque of a dc series motor is proportional to

a. Armature current
15. Torque of a dc shunt motor is proportional to

a. Armature current
16. The power input to a 230V dc shunt motor is 8.477 kW. The field resistance is 230 ohm and
armature resistance is 0.28 ohm. The armature current is
a. 36.86 A
b. 36.44 A
c. 37.45 A
d. 35.86 A

17. In a 3 phase induction motor, the synchronous speed is
a. Speed of rotor
b. Speed of stator magnetic field
c. Speed of rotor magnetic field
d. Speed of the stator
18. Slip of a three phase induction motor is zero at

a. Standstill
c. No load speed
d. Full load speed
19. Slip of a three phase induction motor is equal to 1 at

a. Standstill
c. No load speed
d. Full load speed
20. The rotor bars of a three phase squirrel cage motor are generally made up of
a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Silicon steel
21. Speed of rotation of stator magnetic field of a 3 phase induction motor depends on
a. Supply frequency
b. Number of poles
d. Supply voltage
22. Speed of rotation of rotor magnetic field of a 3 phase induction motor depends on
a. Stator frequency
b. Slip
d. Supply voltage
23. In which type of induction motor slip rings and brushes are used
a. Squirrel cage induction motor
b. Wound rotor induction motor
c. Permanent capacitor induction motor

d. Shaded pole induction motor STUDY ZONE
24. Select the true statement regarding split phase induction motor
a. Resistance of starting winding is higher than its reactance
b. Reactance of running winding is higher than its resistance
d. This motor requires 3 phase power
25. Select the true statement regarding synchronous motor

a. It is a self starting motor
b. DC supply is given to the rotor
c. 3 phase ac is given to the stator
26. The generated frequency of an alternator can be varied by

a. Varying the rotor speed
b. Varying the number of poles
c. Interchanging the connections of phases
27. Synchronous motor is used in

a. Lethe machines
b. Electric locomotives
c. Power factor improvement
d. Electrical vehicles
28. The slip of a 3 phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor running at 1400 rpm is
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 6%
d. 5.5%
29. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a slip of 4%, its rotor speed is
a. 1500 rpm
b. 1440 rpm
c. 1460 rpm
d. 1480 rpm
30. A 50 Hz, 4 pole, 3 phase induction motor has rotor current frequency of 2 Hz. The slip of the
motor is
a. 4%

b. 4.5% STUDY ZONE
c. 5%
d. 3.5%
UNIT 5
1. Fuse element is generally made up of alloys of

a. Aluminum
b. Tin
c. Lead
Ans: d
2. The element of HRC fuse is made up of

a. Silver
b. Copper
c. Tungsten
d. Nichrome
Ans: a
3. Miniature Circuit Breaker provides protection against

a. Overloading
b. Short circuit fault
c. Over voltage fault
Ans: d
4. Full form of MCCB is

a. Metal Case Circuit Breaker
b. Miniature Case Circuit Breaker
c. Molded Case Circuit Breaker
Ans: c
5. How much time will be taken by a 2kW motor to consume 1kWh

a. 60 minutes
b. 120 minutes
c. 200 minutes
d. 30 minutes
Ans: d
6. Two lamps 100W each are connected across 220 single phase AC supply. Time taken to
consume 1kWh of electrical energy is
a. 5 hours STUDY ZONE
b. 10 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 2 hours
Ans: b
7. 10 lamps of 200 Watts each remain on for 5 hours daily. Electrical energy consumed by the
lamps in the month of May is
a. 620 kWh
b. 600 kWh
c. 320 kWh
d. 300 kWh
Ans: e
8. A 5V, 120 Amp-Hr battery is continuously supplying a 60 Watts 5 volts load. The time taken
by the battery to get completely discharged is
a. 10 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 hours
d. 9 hours
Ans: (a)
draws a steady current of 1.1 A and takes 2.5 hrs to get completely charged. The Ampere-Hour
a. 70.72 %
b. 72.72 %
c. 69.60 %
d. 68.60 %
Ans: b
draws a steady current of 1.1 A and takes 2.5 hrs to get completely charged. The Watt-Hour
a. 70.93 %
b. 71.93%
c. 68.93 %
d. 69.93 %
Ans: d
11. A 3.5 core cable has cross section area of 4cm2 each phase. The cross section area of neutral
conductor is
a. 4 cm2 STUDY ZONE
b. 6 cm2
c. 2 cm2
d. 8 cm2
Ans: c
12. A 4 core cable has cross section area of 100mm2 each phase. The cross section area of neutral
conductor is
a. 100 mm2
b. 50 mm2
c. 200 mm2
d. 125 mm2
Ans: a
13. The cross section area of earth wire generally is

a. Equal to line wire
b. Smaller than line and neutral wire
c. Larger than line and neutral wire
d. Equal to neutral wire
Ans: c
14. Which cell is a type of primary cell

a. Lead-Acid Cell
b. Lithium-Iron Cell
c. Cadmium- Iron Cell
d. Dry Cell
Ans: d
15. Difference between MCB and MCCB is

a. MCB detects current faults and MCCB detects voltage faults.
b. MCCB has variable current ranges and MCB has fixed current range.
c. MCCB detects current faults and MCB detects voltage faults.
d. MCB has variable current ranges and MCCB has fixed current range.
Ans: b
16. Which of the following material is used as insulation for power cables
a. Polyvinyl Chloride(PVC)
b. Vulcanized Indian Rubber(VIR)
c. Asbestos
d. Both options (a) and (c) are correct
Ans: d
17. What is the objective behind providing earthing in industrial/domestic applications

a. To avoid electric
FOR IMPORTANT NOTESshock to human beings
TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA !!"
b. To avoid risk of fire due to earth leakage
STUDY current
ZONE
c. To ensure that no current carrying conductor rises to a potential with respect to general mass of
earth than its designed insulation
Ans: (d)
18. The term HRC stands for

a. High Restricting Capacity
b. High Rapturing Current
c. High Restraining Capacity
Ans: e
19. The average resistance of human body is around

a. 1000 ohm
b. 1500 ohm
c. 2000
d. 100 ohm
Ans: (a)
20. Current rating of MCCB is upto

a. 500A
b. 2500A
c. 1000A
d. 100A
Ans: (b)
21. The term ELCB stands for

a. Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
b. Earth Load Circuit Breaker
c. Earth Line Circuit Breaker
Ans: (a)
22. A fuse is connected

Ans: (e)
23. Operating time of a fuse depends on

a. Value of fault current
b. Melting point of
FOR IMPORTANT the fuseTOUCH
NOTES wire TO "!! ADITYA !!"
c. Thickness of the fuse wire STUDY ZONE
Ans: d
24. The efficiency of a battery can be expressed as

a. Watt-Hour efficiency
b. Amp-Hour efficiency
c. Volt-Hour efficiency
Ans: d
25. MCCB is used to

a. Provide protection against overload
b. Provide protection against electrical faults
c. Switch a circuit on and off
Ans : (d)
26. The electrolyte used in lead-acid battery is

a. Dilute H2SO4
b. PbO2
c. Concentrated H2SO4
d. Pb
e. H2SO4
Ans: (a)
27. The electrolyte used in Nickel-Iton battery is

a. Nickel Hydroxide
b. Nickel Peroxide
c. Potassium Hydroxide
d. Iron oxide
Ans: (c)
28. The diameter of earth pin is made larger than phase and neutral pin in order to
a. Make contact earlier than phase and neutral pin to clear earth fault.
b. Provide high resistance path to the earth current
c. Provide return to the earth current
d. Options (b) and (c) are correct
Ans: (a)
29. An MCB is connected

d. Both options (b)
FOR IMPORTANT and (c) TOUCH
NOTES are correctTO "!! ADITYA !!"
Ans: (e)
30. One unit of electrical energy equals

a. 1 Watt-Hour
b. 1000 Watt-Hour
c. 1 Watt/Hour
d. 1000 Watt/Hour
Ans: (b)

STUDY ZONE
RAJ KUMAR GOEL INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY, GHAZIABAD

Department of Electrical & Electronics Engineering
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (KEE-101/201)

B.Tech - I Year (2020-21)
UNIT-2
SINGLE PHASE-AC CIRCUITS
C104.2: Analyze the steady state behaviour of single phase and three phase AC electrical
circuits.
1. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for alternating emf generated?
a) e=2Blvsin(θ)
b) e=2B2lvsin(θ)
c) e=Blvsin(θ)
d) e=4Blvsin(θ)
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct expression for alternating emf generated is e=Blvsin(θ). Where B stands
for magnetic field density, l is the length of each of the parallel sides v is the velocity with which the
conductor is moved and θ is the angle between the velocity and the length.
2. What should theta be in order to get maximum emf?

a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 450
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of θ should be 900 in order to get maximum emf because e = Blvsin(θ) and
sin is maximum when θ is 900.
3. Calculate the maximum emf when the velocity is 10m/s, the length is 3m and the magnetic field
density is 5T.
a) 150V
b) 100V
c) 300V
d) 0V
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that: emax=Bvl
Substituting the values from the given question, we get e=150V.
4. When a coil is rotated in a magnetic field, the emf induced in it?

a) Is maximum
b) Is minimum
c) Continuously varies
d) Remains constant
Answer: c
Explanation: When a coil is rotated in a magnetic field, cross sectional area varies due to which the
number of flux lines crossing it varies, which causes the emf to vary continuously.
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STUDY ZONE

5. emf is zero if the angle between velocity and length is _____

a) 00
b) 900
c) 2700
d) 450
Answer: a
Explanation: If the angle between velocity and length is zero, sinθ=0
So, e=Bvlsinθ = 0.
6. In an A.C. generator, increase in number of turns in the coil _________

a) Increases emf
b) Decreases emf
c) Makes the emf zero
d) Maintains the emf at a constant value
Answer: a
Explanation: In an A.C. generator, the emf increases as the number of turns in the coil increases
because the emf is directly proportional to the number of turns.
7. The number of cycles that occur in one second is termed as ___________

a) Waveform
b) Frequency
c) Amplitude
d) Period
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of cycles that occur in one second is known as the frequency. It is the
reciprocal of the time period.
8. The variation of a quantity such as voltage or current shown on a graph is known as ___________
a) Waveform
b) Peak value
c) Instantaneous value
d) Period
Answer: a
Explanation: The variation of a quantity, which is voltage or current in this case, shown on a graph
with the x-axis as time is known as a waveform.
9. What is the duration of one cycle known as _________

a) Waveform
b) Peak value
c) Instantaneous value
d) Period
Answer: d
Explanation: The duration of one cycle is known as a period. A function which repeats the same
waveform at equal intervals of time is known as a periodic function.
10. The repetition of a variable quantity, recurring at equal intervals, is known as ___________
a) Waveform
b) Instantaneous value
c) Cycle
d) Period
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STUDY ZONE

Answer: c
Explanation: Each repetition of a variable quantity, recurring at equal intervals, is termed as a cycle.
11. The value of a given waveform at any instant time is termed as ___________
a) Waveform
b) Instantaneous value
c) Cycle
d) Period
Answer: b
Explanation: Instantaneous value is the value of the waveform at that instant. Hence the value of a
given waveform at any instant time is termed as instantaneous value.
12. The maximum instantaneous value measured from zero value is known as?
a) Peak value
b) Peak to peak value
c) Cycle
d) Period
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum instantaneous value measured from the zero value is termed as the peak
value.
13. The maximum variation between the maximum positive and the maximum negative value is known
as?
a) Peak value
b) Peak to peak value
c) Cycle
d) Period
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum variation between the maximum positive instantaneous value and the
maximum negative instantaneous value is the peak-to-peak value.
14. What is the correct relation between the peak value and peak to peak value for a sinusoidal
waveform?
a) Vp=4Vp-p
b) Vp=Vp-p
c) Vp-p=2Vp
d) Vp=2Vp-p
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum variation between the maximum positive instantaneous value and the
maximum negative instantaneous value is the peak-to-peak value. For a sinusoidal waveform, it is
twice the peak value. Hence Vp-p=2Vp.
15. If the peak to peak voltage is 10V, calculate the peak voltage.
a) 10V
b) 2V
c) 4V
d) 5V
Answer: d
Explanation: Vp-p=2Vp
Substituting the values from the question, we get Vp=5V.
3
STUDY ZONE

16. If the peak voltage is 9V, calculate the peak to peak voltage.
a) 9V
b) 20V
c) 18V
d) 12V
Answer: c
Explanation: Vp-p=2Vp
Substituting the values from the question, we get Vp-p= 18V.
17. The waveform of the emf generated undergoes one complete cycle when?
a) Conductors move past north pole
b) Conductors move past south pole
c) Conductors move past north and south poles
d) Conductors are stationary
Answer: c
Explanation: The waveform of the e.m.f. generated in an a.c. generator undergoes one complete
cycle of variation when the conductors move past an N and an S pole.
18. When is the shape of the negative half of the emf waveform equal to the positive half?
a) When the conductors move past north pole
b) When conductors move past south pole
c) When conductors move past both north and south pole
d) When conductors are stationary
Answer: c
Explanation: The waveform of the e.m.f. generated in an a.c. generator undergoes one complete
cycle of variation when the conductors move past an N and an S pole and the shape of the wave over
the negative half is exactly the same as that over the positive half.
19. Which is the correct formula for frequency in an ac generator?

a) f=p*n
b) f=p/n
c) f=n/p
d) f=n2p
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency in an ac generator is p*n, where p is pairs of poles and speed is n
revolutions per second.
20. What will happen to the frequency if the number of revolutions increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that:
f=p*n, therefore, as n increases, f also increases.
Hence frequency increases if number of revolutions increases.
21. What happens to the frequency if the number of pairs of poles increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
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STUDY ZONE

d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
f=p*n, therefore, as p increases, f also increases.
Hence frequency increases if number of pair of poles increases.
22. Calculate the frequency if the number of revolutions is 300 and the paired poles are 50.
a) 15kHz
b) 150kHz
c) 1500kHz
d) 150Hz
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that f=p*n
f=50*300=15000 Hz= 15kHz.
23. Calculate the number of revolutions if the frequency is 15kHz and the paired poles are 50.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400
Answer: c
f=15kHz=15000Hz, p=50
15000=50*n => n=15000/50=300.
24. Calculate the number of paired poles if the frequency id 15kHz and the number of revolutions is 300.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 50
d) 70
Answer: c
f=15kHz=15000Hz , n=300
15000=p*300 => p=15000/300=50.
25. What is the frequency of a two pole machine having n=50?

a) 100Hz
b) 200Hz
c) 50Hz
d) 25Hz
Answer: c
Explanation: For a two pole machine, p=1.
f=pn= 1*50= 50Hz.
26. What is the minimum number of poles that a machine must have __________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 10
Answer: b
5
STUDY ZONE

Explanation: The minimum number of poles that a machine must have is 2 because a machine must
have at least one pair of poles= 2 poles.
27. Find the average value of current when the current that are equidistant are 4A, 5A and 6A.
a) 5A
b) 6A
c) 15A
d) 10A
Answer: a
Explanation: The average value of current is the sum of all the currents divided by the number of
currents. Therefore average current= (5+4+6)/3=5A.
28. What is the current found by finding the current in an equidistant region and dividing by n?
a) RMS current
b) Average current
c) Instantaneous current
d) Total current
Answer: b
Explanation: The average value of the current is the sum of all the currents divided by the number of
currents.
29. RMS stands for ________

a) Root Mean Square
b) Root Mean Sum
c) Root Maximum sum
d) Root Minimum Sum
Answer: a
Explanation: RMS stands for Root Mean Square. This value of current is obtained by squaring all
the current values, finding the average and then finding the square root.
30. What is the type of current obtained by finding the square of the currents and then finding their
average and then fining the square root?
a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: a
Explanation: RMS stands for Root Mean Square. This value of current is obtained by squaring all
the current values, finding the average and then finding the square root.
31. __________ current is found by dividing the area enclosed by the half cycle by the length of the base
of the half cycle.
a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: b
currents. Hence it can also be found by dividing the area enclosed by the half cycle by the length of
the base of the half cycle.
6
STUDY ZONE

32. What is the effective value of current?

a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: a
Explanation: RMS current is also known as the effective current. RMS stands for Root Mean Square.
This value of current is obtained by squaring all the current values, finding the average and then
finding the square root.
33. In a sinusoidal wave, average current is always _______ rms current.

a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related
Answer: b
currents whereas RMS current is obtained by squaring all the current values, finding the average and
then finding the square root. Hence RMS current is greater than average current.
34. For a rectangular wave, average current is ______ rms current.

a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related
Answer: c
Explanation: The rms value is always greater than the average except for a rectangular wave, in
which the heating effect remains constant so that the average and the rms values are the same.
35. Peak value divided by the rms value gives us?

a) Peak factor
b) Crest factor
c) Both peak and crest factor
d) Neither peak nor crest factor
Answer: c
Explanation: Peak and crest factor both mean the same thing. Hence the peak value divided by the
rms value gives us the peak or crest factor.
36. Calculate the crest factor if the peak value of current is 10A and the rms value is 2A.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 5A
d) 10A
Answer: a
Crest factor = Peak value/RMS value.
Substituting the values from the given question, we get crest factor=5.
37. If maximum value of current is 5√2 A, what will be the value of RMS current?
a) 10 A
b) 5 A
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STUDY ZONE

c) 15 A
d) 25 A
Answer: b
Explanation: We know, value of RMS current =value of max current/√2
Substituting the value of max current we get, rms current = 5A.
38. If Im is the maximum value of a sinusoidal voltage, what is the instantaneous value?
a) i=Im/2
b) i=Imsinθ
c) i=Imcosθ
d) i=Imsinθ or i=Imcosθ
Answer: d
Explanation: The instantaneous value of a sinusoidal varying current is i=Imsinθ or i=Imcosθ where
Im is the maximum value of current.
39. Average value of current over a half cycle is?

a) 0.67Im
b) 0.33Im
c) 6.7Im
d) 3.3Im
Answer: a
Explanation: Average current = ∫0πidθ/π = ∫0πImsinθ dθ/π = 2Im/π =0.67 Im.
40. What is the correct expression for the rms value of current?
a) Irms=Im/2
b) Irms=Im/√2
c) Irms=Im/4
d) Irms=Im
Answer: b
Explanation: Irms2 = ∫0πdθ i2/2π = Im2/2
Irms=Im/√2.
41. Average value of current over a full cycle is?

a) 0.67Im
b) 0
c) 6.7Im
d) 3.3Im
Answer: b
Explanation: Average of sine or cosine over a period is zero so, average value of current over full
cycle is zero.
42. What is the correct expression for the form factor?

a) Irms * Iav
b) Irms / Iav
c) Irms + Iav
d) Irms – Iav
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct expression for form factor is Irms/Iav where Irms is the rms value of the
current and Iav is the average current.
8
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43. For a direct current, the rms current is ________ the mean current.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related to
Answer: c
Explanation: For a direct current, the mean current value is the same as that of the rms current.
44. For a direct current, the rms voltage is ________ the mean voltage.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related to
Answer: c
Explanation: For a direct current, the mean voltage value is the same as that of the rms voltage.
45. What is the value of the form factor for sinusoidal current?
a) π/2
b) π/4
c) 2π
d) π/√2
Answer: a
Explanation: For sinusoidal current, Irms=Im/√2
Iav=√2 Im/π
So, form factor = Irms/Iav = π/2.
46. If the maximum value of the current is 5√2 A, what will be the value of the average current?
a) 10/π A
b) 5/π A
c) 15/π A
d) 25/π A
Answer: a
Explanation: We know, the value of the average current = value of max current *√2 /π
Substituting the value of max current we get, rms current = 10/π A.
47. For addition and subtraction of phasors, we use the _________ form.
a) Rectangular
b) Polar
c) Either rectangular or polar
d) Neither rectangular nor polar
Answer: a
Explanation: For addition and subtraction of phasors, we use the rectangular form because in the
rectangular form we can only add the real part and the complex part separately to get the total value.
48. For multiplication and division of phasors, we use ____________ form.

a) Rectangular
b) Polar
c) Either rectangular or polar
d) Neither rectangular nor polar
Answer: b
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STUDY ZONE

Explanation: For multiplication and division of phasors, we use the polar form because in the polar
form we just multiply or divide the values and add or subtract the angles.
49. If a voltage of 2+5j and another voltage of 3+ 6j flows through two different resistors, connected in
series, in a circuit, find the total voltage in the circuit.
a) 2+5j V
b) 3+6j V
c) 5+11j V
d) 5+10j V
Answer: c
Explanation: The total voltage in the circuit is the sum of the two voltages where we add the real
parts and imaginary parts separately.
Therefore, Vtotal= 5+11j V.
50. Find the total current in the circuit if two currents of 4+5j flow in the circuit.
a) 4+5j A
b) 4A
c) 5A
d) 8+10j A
Answer: d
Explanation: The total current in the circuit is the sum of the two currents where we add the real
parts and imaginary parts separately.
Therefore, Itotal= 8+10j A.
51. What is the correct expression of ω?

a) ω=2π
b) ω=2πf
c) ω=πf
d) ω=2f2
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct expression for ω is ω=2πf where f is the frequency of the alternating
voltage or current.
52. Find the value of ω if the frequency is 5Hz?

a) 3.14 rad/s
b) 31.4 rad/s
c) 34 rad/s
d) 341 rad/s
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for ω is ω=2*π*f.
Substituting the value of f from the question, we get ω=31.4 rad/s.
53. When one sine wave passes through the zero following the other, it is _________
a) Leading
b) Lagging
c) Neither leading nor lagging
d) Either leading or lagging
Answer: b
Explanation: The sine wave is said to lag because it passes though zero following the other, hence it
crosses zero after the first wave, therefore it is said to lag.
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54. A phasor has frozen at 30 degrees, find the value of the phase angle.
a) 30 degrees
b) 60 degrees
c) 120 degrees
d) 180 degrees
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of the phase angle is the value at which the phasor stops or freezes. Here, it
freezes at 30 degree, hence the phase angle is 30 degrees.
55. The time axis of an AC phasor represents?

a) Time
b) Phase angle
c) Voltage
d) Current
Answer: b
Explanation: The time axis while measuring an AC sinusoidal voltage or current represents the phase
angle when converting it to a phasor.
56. The length of the phasor represents?

a) Magnitude of the quantity
b) Direction of the quantity
c) Neither magnitude nor direction
d) Either magnitude or direction
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the phasor arrow represents the magnitude of the quantity, whereas the
angle between the phasor and the reference represents the phase angle.
57. Ammeters and voltmeters are calibrated to read?

a) RMS value
b) Peak value
c) Average value
d) Instantaneous value
Answer: a
Explanation: Ammeters and voltmeters are calibrated to read the rms value because the rms value is
the most accurate than average value.
58. The rms value is _________ times he maximum value

a) 1.414
b) 0.5
c) 2
d) 0.707
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that the rms value is 1/√2 times the maximum value, hence the rms value is
0.707 times the maximum value.
59. The rms value is 0.707 times the _________ value.

a) Peak
b) Instantaneous
c) Average
d) DC
Answer: a
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Explanation: We know that the rms value is 1/√2 times the maximum value, hence the rms value is
0.707 times the maximum value.
60. If the phasors are drawn to represent the maximum values instead of the rms values, what would
happen to the phase angle between quantities?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: c
Explanation: When phasors are drawn representing the maximum values instead of the rms value,
the shape of the diagram remains unaltered and hence the phase angle remains the same.
61. Usually phasor diagrams are drawn representing?

a) RMS value
b) Peak value
c) Average value
d) Instantaneous value
Answer: a
Explanation: Ammeters and voltmeters are calibrated to read the rms value, hence the phasors are
drawn representing the rms values.
62. If two current phasors, having magnitude 12A and 5A intersect at an angle of 90 degrees, calculate
the resultant current.
a) 13 A
b) 10 A
c) 6 A
d) 5 A
Answer: a
Explanation: Using the parallelogram law of addition, I2 = I12 + I22 + 2I1I2 cosθ
I=13 A.
63. If two current phasors, having magnitude 5A and 10A intersect at an angle of 60 degrees, calculate
the resultant current.
a) 12.23 A
b) 12.54 A
c) 13.23 A
d) 14.24 A
Answer: c
Explanation: Resultant current can be found using I2 = I12 + I22 + 2I1I2 cosθ
Substituting the values, we get I=13.23 A.
64. The instantaneous values of two alternating voltages are given as _________
v1=60sinθ and v2=40sin(θ − π/3). Find the instantaneous sum.
a) 87.2 sin(36.5°) V
b) 87.2 sin( 0.5°) V
c) 87.2 sin(26.5°) V
d) 87.2 cos(36.5°) V
Answer: a
Explanation: Horizontal component of v1= 40V
Vertical component of v1=0V
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Horizontal component of v2=60cos600

Vertical component of v2=60sin600
Resultant horizontal component=60cos600 + 40 =70V
Resultant vertical component= 30√3 V
Resultant = 87.2V
tan(ϕ)= 30√3 / 70 => ϕ=36.50
Therefore sum= 87.2 sin( 36.5°) V.
65. The instantaneous values of two alternating voltages are given as:
v1=60sinθ and v2=40sin(θ − π/3). Find the instantaneous difference.
a) 53 sin(71.5°) V
b) 53 sin( 79..5°) V
c) 53 sin(26.5°) V
d) 53 cos(36.5°) V
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal component of v1= 40V
Vertical component of v1=0V
Horizontal component of v2=-60cos600
Vertical component of v2=-60sin600
Resultant horizontal component=40-30 =10V
Resultant vertical component= -30√3 V
Resultant v= 53 V
tan(ϕ)= 30√3 / 10 => ϕ=79.50
Therefore sum= 53 sin (79.5°) V.
66. The resultant of two alternating sinusoidal voltages or currents can be found using ___________
a) Triangular law
b) Parallelogram law
c) Either triangular or parallelogram law
d) Neither triangular nor parallelogram law
Answer: b
Explanation: The resultant current can be found by using the parallelogram law of addition I2 = I12 +
I22 + 2I1I2 cosθ.
67. Instantaneous voltage is the product of resistance and _____________ current in a resistive circuit.
a) Instantaneous
b) Average
c) RMS
d) Peak
Answer: a
Explanation: V=IR. So, V(t)=i(t)R
Instantaneous voltage is the product of resistance and instantaneous current in a resistive circuit.
68. Find the value of the instantaneous voltage if the resistance is 2 ohm and the instantaneous current in
the circuit is 5A.
a) 5V
b) 2V
c) 10V
d) 2.5V
Answer: c
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Explanation: We know that,

v=iR, substituting the given values from the question, we get v=10V.
69. The power for a purely resistive circuit is zero when?

a) Current is zero
b) Voltage is zero
c) Both current and voltage are zero
d) Either current or voltage is zero
Answer: d
Explanation: P=VIcosϕ Power in a circuit is the product of voltage, current and the cosine of the
phase angle. Phase angle is 00 for purely resistive circuit so, P=VI. Hence if either voltage or current
is zero, the power is zero.
70. The correct expression for the instantaneous current if instantaneous voltage is Vm(sint) in a resistive
circuit is?
a) 1A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 4A
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that:V=Vm(sint)
Since i=V/R, we can write, i=Vm(sint)/R.
71. Calculate the resistance in the circuit if the rms voltage is 20V and the rms current is 2A.
a) 2 ohm
b) 5 ohm
c) 10 ohm
d) 20 ohm
Answer: c
R=V/I
Substituting the given values from the question, we get R=10 ohm.
72. The correct expression for the instantaneous current in a resistive circuit is?
a) i=Vm(sint)/R
b) i=Vm(cost)/R
c) i=V(sint)/R
d) i=V(cost)/R
Answer: a
Explanation: The instantaneous voltage can be written in terms of the maximum voltage in the
following manner:
v=Vm(sint)
Since i=v/R, we can write, i=Vm(sint)/R.
73. Can ohm’s law be applied in an ac circuit?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the rms current
d) Depends on the rms voltage
Answer: a
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Explanation: Ohm’s law can be applied in ac as well as dc circuits. It can be applied in ac circuits
because the condition V=IR holds true even in ac circuits.
74. The correct expression for the instantaneous current if instantaneous voltage is Vm(sint) in an
inductive circuit is?
a) i = Vm(sint)/XL
b) i = Vm(cost)/XL
c) i = -Vm(sint)/XL
d) i = -Vm(cost)/XL
Answer: d
Explanation: V=Vm*sint
I=V/XL = -Vm(cost)/XL (since current lags voltage by 900 in inductive circuit).
75. Inductor does not allow sudden changes in?

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Inductance
Answer: b
Explanation: The inductor does not allow sudden changes in current because if current changes in
the inductor occur in zero time, the voltage becomes zero which is not possible.
76. Inductance is _____________________ to number of turns in the coil.

a) directly proportional
b) inversely proportional
c) equal
d) not related
Answer: a
Explanation: L=µ0N2A/l
Inductance is directly proportional to number of turns in the coil.
77. Choke involve use of _____________

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: Choke is a type of coil so it involves use of inductor. Capacitors cannot be used in
choke coil.
78. What is the value of current in an inductive circuit when there is no applied voltage?
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: The current in an inductive circuit is maximum when there is no voltage applied
because the coils of the inductor store electric flux.
79. What is the current in an inductive circuit when the applied voltage is maximum?
a) Infinity
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b) Maximum
c) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: The current in an inductive circuit is zero or minimum when the value of the applied
voltage is maximum.
80. In an inductive circuit, the voltage_______ the current?

a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Is greater than
d) Is less than
Answer: a
Explanation: In a pure inductive circuit the voltage leads the current and the current lags the voltage
by a phase difference of 90 degrees.
81. In an inductive circuit, the current________ the voltage?

a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Is greater than
d) Is less than
Answer: b
Explanation: In a pure inductive circuit the voltage leads the current and the current lags the voltage
by a phase difference of 90 degrees.
82. In which device inductor cannot be used?

a) filter circuit
b) transformer
c) choke
d) dielectric
Answer: d
Explanation: Inductor has wide number of applications.
It is used in LR filter circuits, transformer and choke coil.
83. A resistance of 7 ohm is connected in series with an inductance of 31.8mH. The circuit is connected
to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the current in the circuit.
a) 2.2A
b) 4.2A
c) 6.2A
d) 8.2A
Answer: d
Explanation: XL=2*π*f*L = 10 ohm. Z2=(R2+XL2)
Therefore the total impedance Z = 12.2ohm.
V=IZ, therefore I=V/Z=100/12.2 = 8.2A.
to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the phase difference.
a) -55.1
b) 55.1
c) 66.1
d) -66.1
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Answer: a
Explanation: φ=tan-1(XL/R)=55.1
Since this is an inductive circuit, the current will lag, hence φ= -55.1.
to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across the resistor.
a) 31.8V
b) 57.4V
c) 67.3V
d) 78.2V
Answer: b
Therefore, the total impedance Z = 12.2ohm.
V=IZ, therefore I=V/Z=100/12.2 = 8.2A. Voltage across resistor = 8.2*7 = 57.4V.
to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across the inductor.
a) 52V
b) 82V
c) 65V
d) 76V
Answer: b
V=IZ, therefore I=V/Z=100/12.2 = 8.2A. Voltage across inductor = 8.2*10 = 82V.
to a x V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. The current in the circuit is 8.2A. Calculate the value of x.
a) 10V
b) 50V
c) 100V
d) 120V
Answer: c
Explanation: XL=2*π*f*L= 10 ohm. Z2=(R2+XL2)
V=IZ, therefore V = 12.2*8.2 = 100V.
88. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for φ.

a) φ=tan-1 (XL/R)
b) φ=tan-1 (R/XL)
c) φ=tan-1 (XL*R)
d) φ=cos-1 (XL/R)
Answer: a
Explanation: From the impedance triangle, we get tanφ= XL/R.
Hence φ=tan-1 (XL/R).
89. For an RL circuit, the phase angle is always ________

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) 0
d) 90
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Answer: b
Explanation: For a series resistance and inductance circuit the phase angle is always a negative value
because the current will always lag the voltage.
90. What is φ in terms of voltage?

a) φ=cos-1V/VR
b) φ=cos-1V*VR
c) φ=cos-1VR/V
d) φ=tan-1V/VR
Answer: c
Explanation: From the voltage triangle, we get cosφ= VR/V.
Hence φ=cos-1VR/V.
91. What is sinϕ from impedance triangle?

a) XL/R
b) XL/Z
c) R/Z
d) Z/R
Answer: b
Explanation: In Impedance triangle, Base is R, Hypotenuse is Z, Height is XL.
So, sinϕ = XL/Z.
92. What is the resonance frequency of ac circuit?

a) 1/√LC
b) √(L/C)
c) √LC
d) LC
Answer: a
Explanation: At resonance, XL=XC
ωL=1/ωC
ω=1/√LC.
93. What is impedance at resonance?

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) cannot be determined
Answer: b
Z2=R2+(XL-XC)2
Z=R So Z is minimum at resonance.
94. What is the value of impedance at resonance?

a) XL
b) XC
c) R
d) 0
Answer: c
Z2=R2+(XL-XC)2
Z=R So Z is minimum at resonance.
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95. What is φ in terms of voltage?

a) φ=cos-1V/VR
b) φ=cos-1V*VR
c) φ=cos-1VR/V
d) φ=tan-1V/VR
Answer: c
Explanation: Form the voltage triangle, we get cosφ= VR/V.
Hence φ=cos-1VR/V.
96. What is tanϕ for RC circuit?

a) XC/R
b) XL/R
c) R/Z
d) Z/R
Answer: a
Explanation: From the impedance triangle, height gives capacitive reactance and base gives
resistance.
tanϕ=XC/R.
97. What is the resonance condition?

a) When XL>XC
b) When XL<XC
c) When XL=XC
d) When XC=infinity
Answer: c
Explanation: The current is in phase with the voltage when the capacitive reactance is in equal to the
inductive reactance. This is known as resonance condition.
98. What is the frequency in resonance condition?

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Cannot be determined
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: At resonance condition, the frequency is maximum since the inductive reactance is
equal to the capacitive reactance. XL=XC.
99. Can capacitor fully charge using alternating current?

a) yes
b) no
c) may or may not
d) depend on value of capacitance
Answer: a
Explanation: No, the capacitor cannot be fully charged using alternating current because as soon as
the capacitor charges, the alternating current reverses its polarity thereby discharging it.
100. What is the resistance offered by a capacitor?

a) Susceptance
b) Conductance
c) Admittance
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d) Reactance
Answer: d
Explanation: Resistance offered to alternating current by inductor or capacitor is known as reactance
which is equivalent to resistance of resistor.
101. The combination of resistance and reactance known as ___________

a) Susceptance
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
d) Admittance
Answer: b
Explanation: The combination of resistance and reactance is known as impedance. It is equivalent
resistance of an RLC alternating circuit.
102. What is the relation between reactance, resistance and impedance?

a) Z=R+jX
b) Z=R+X
c) Z=R-X
d) Z=R-jX
Answer: a
Explanation: The combination of resistance and reactance is known as impedance. Z=R+jX
Where Z is impedance, R is resistance and X is reactance.
103. What is the real part of the impedance of RLC circuit?

a) Resistance
b) Conductance
c) Admittance
d) Reactance
Answer: a
Explanation: The combination of resistance and reactance is known as impedance. Z=R+jX where Z
is impedance, R is resistance and X is reactance. R is real part of Z.
104. What is imaginary part of the impedance of RLC circuit?

a) Resistance
b) Conductance
c) Admittance
d) Reactance
Answer: d
Explanation: The combination of resistance and reactance is known as impedance. Z=R+jX where Z
is impedance, R is resistance and X is reactance. X is imaginary part of Z.
105. Which type of current can be stored in a capacitor?

a) Alternating current
b) Direct current
c) Both alternating current and direct current
d) Neither alternating current nor direct current
Answer: b
Explanation: Only direct current can be stored in the capacitor. Capacitor cannot be fully charged
using alternating current because as soon as the capacitor charges, alternating current reverses its
polarity thereby discharging it. So, we cannot store ac current in capacitor.
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106. If in an alternating current circuit, resistance is 5 ohm, capacitive reactance is 12 ohm, what is the
impedance?
a) 5 ohm
b) 10 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 13 ohm
Answer: d
Explanation: R=5Ω, XC=12Ω
Z2=R2+XC2 Substituting the values we get,
Z2 = 52 + 122
Z2 = 169
Z=13 Ω.
107. If in an alternating current circuit, impedance is 26 ohm, capacitive reactance is 24 ohm, what is
the resistance?
a) 25 ohm
b) 10 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 23 ohm
Answer: b
Explanation: Z=26Ω, XC=24Ω
Z2=R2+XC2 Substituting the values we get,
262 = R2 + 242
676 = R2 + 576
R2 = 100
R=10 Ω.
108. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance of 30 µF is connected to a supply of 200V,50Hz.

Find the current in the circuit.
a) 1.38 A
b) 1.89 A
c) 1.74 A
d) 0.89 A
Answer: a
Explanation: XC=1/(2πfC)=106.1
I=V/XC=200/106.1=1.89 A.
109. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance C is connected to a supply of 200V,50Hz. Current

in the circuit is 1.89 A. Find the capacitance C.
a) 30 µF
b) 20 µF
c) 10 µF
d) 15 µF
Answer: a
Explanation: XC= V/I = 200/1.89 = 106.1 Ω. XC=1/(2πfC) Substituting the values we get C = 30 µF.
110. In ac circuit, resistance 5 ohm is connected with capacitor having capacitive reactance 12 ohm.
Supply of 260 V is connected to the circuit. Calculate the current in the circuit.
a) 40 A
b) 10 A
c) 20 A
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d) 30 A
Answer: c
Explanation: Z2=R2+XC2 Substituting the values we get Z2 = 52 + 122
Z2 = 169
Z=13 Ω.
I=V/Z = 260/13=20 A.
111. In ac circuit, resistance 5 ohm is connected with capacitor having capacitive reactance 12 ohm.
Supply of 260 V is connected to the circuit. Calculate the voltage across resistance.
a) 300 V
b) 200 V
c) 240 V
d) 100 V
Answer: d
Explanation: Z2=R2+XC2 Substituting the values we get
Z2 = 52 + 122
Z2 = 169
Z=13 Ω.
I = V/Z = 260/13=20 A.
VR=iR=20*5=100 V.
112. In ac circuit, resistance 5 ohm is connected with a capacitor having capacitive reactance 12 ohm.
Supply of 260 V is connected to the circuit. Calculate the voltage across a capacitor.
a) 300 V
b) 200 V
c) 240 V
d) 100 V
Answer: c
Explanation: Z2=R2+XC2 Substituting the values we get
Z2 = 52 + 122
Z2 = 169
Z=13 Ω.
I = V/Z = 260/13=20 A.
VC=iXC=20*12=240 V.
113. Find the total voltage applied in a series RLC circuit when i=3mA, VL=30V, VC=18V and
R=1000 ohms.
a) 3.95V
b) 51V
c) 32.67V
d) 6.67V
Answer: b
Explanation: Total voltage= VR+VL+VC.
VR=1000*3*10-3=3V. Therefore, total voltage = 30+18+3=51V.
114. In an RLC circuit, which of the following is always used as a vector reference?
a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Impedance
d) Current
Answer: a
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Explanation: In an RLC circuit, the voltage is always used as a reference and according to the phase
of the voltage, the phase of the other parameters is decided.
115. In an RLC circuit, the power factor is always ____________

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Depends on the circuit
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: In an RLC series circuit, the power factor depends on the number of resistors and
inductors in the circuit, hence it depends on the circuit.
116. In an RLC series phasor, we start drawing the phasor from which quantity?
a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Impedance
d) Current
Answer: d
Explanation: In an RLC series phasor diagram, we start drawing the phasor from the quantity which
is common to all three components, that is the current.
117. What is the correct expression for the phase angle in an RLC series circuit?
a) φ=tan-1(XL-XC)/R
b) φ=tan-1 (XL+XC)/R
c) φ=tan(XL-XC)/R
d) φ=tan-1 (XL-XC)
Answer: a
Explanation: from the impedance triangle we get tanφ=(XL-XC)/R.
Hence φ=tan-1 (XL-XC)/R.
118. When is tanφ positive?

a) When inductive reactance is less than capacitive reactance
b) When inductive reactance is greater than capacitive reactance
c) When inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance
d) When inductive reactance is zero
Answer: b
Explanation: tanφ is positive when inductive reactance is greater than capacitive reactance because
current will lag the voltage.
119. When is tanφ negative?

a) When inductive reactance is less than capacitive reactance
b) When inductive reactance is greater than capacitive reactance
c) When inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance
d) When inductive reactance is zero
Answer: a
Explanation: tanφ is negative when inductive reactance is less than capacitive reactance because
current will lead the voltage.
120. Which of the following is not ac waveform?

a) sinusoidal
b) square
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c) constant
d) triangular
Answer: c
Explanation: AC waveforms are those which periodically changes polarity with time. Sinusoidal
wave, square wave, triangular wave change their polarity at regular intervals so they are ac
wavefoms. Constant wave doesnot change its polarity so it is not an ac waveform.
121. What is not a frequency for ac current?

a) 50 Hz
b) 55 Hz
c) 0Hz
d) 60 Hz
Answer: c
Explanation: DC current is a type of constant current so it has frequency of zero hertz. So, AC
current can have rest other frequencies other than zero.
122. Which type of ac waveform is given in figure?
a) sinusoidal
b) triangular
c) square
d) complex waveform
Answer: a
Explanation: The figure depicts ac waveform of sinusoidal nature changing its polarity after regular
intervals sinusoidally.
123. If the resonant frequency in a series RLC circuit is 50kHz along with a bandwidth of 1kHz, find
the quality factor.
a) 5
b) 50
c) 100
d) 500
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that Quality factor is equal to the resonant frequency divided by the
bandwidth.
Q=fres/Bandwidth = 50/1 = 50.
124. What is the SI unit for quality factor?

a) Hz
b) kHz
c) MHz
d) No unit
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Answer: d
Explanation: We know that Quality factor is equal to the resonant frequency divided by the
bandwidth. It is one frequency divided by another hence it has no unit.
125. What happens to the quality factor when the bandwidth increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Q=fres/Bandwidth
Quality factor is inversely proportional to bandwidth. So, if bandwidth increases quality factor
decreases.
126. What happens to the quality factor when resonant frequency increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Q=fres/Bandwidth
Quality factor is directly proportional to resonant frequency. So, if resonant frequency increases
quality factor increases.
127. Resonance frequency occurs when __________________

a) XL=XC
b) XL>XC
c) XL<XC
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency of a system is said to be resonating when the value of the capacitive
reactance and the inductive reactance is the same.
128. The current leads the supply voltage in a series RLC circuit has its frequency _________ the
resonant frequency.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
Answer: b
Explanation: Current is leading the voltage indicates capacitor dominating circuit. XC>XL => 1/(ωC)
> ωL => ω<1/√LC
So, frequency less than resonant frequency.
129. What is the power factor of a series RLC circuit under resonance condition?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinity
d) 100
Answer: b
Explanation: The power factor for a series RLC circuit in resonance condition is always unity
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because the current is in phase with the voltage under resonance condition.
Φ=00 => cos ϕ = 1 i.e. power factor = 1.
130. The current lags the supply voltage in a series RLC circuit has its frequency _________ the
resonant frequency.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: Current is lagging the voltage indicates inductor dominating circuit. XC < XL => 1/(ωC)
< ωL => ω > 1/√LC
So, frequency more than resonant frequency.
131. What is the correct formula for quality factor?

a) Q=BW*fr
b) Q=BW/fr
c) Q=fr/BW
d) Q=fr2
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct formula for quality factor is Q=fr/BW, where fr is the resonant frequency,
BW is the bandwidth frequency and Q is the quality factor.
132. Quality factor is also known as _________

a) Voltage magnification
b) Current magnification
c) Resistance magnification
d) Impedance magnification
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality factor is also known as voltage magnification because the voltage across the
capacitor or inductor in resonance condition is equal to Q times the source voltage.
133. At resonance condition, the voltage across the capacitor and inductor is _________ the source
voltage.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Much less than
Answer: a
Explanation: In resonance condition, the voltage across the capacitor and inductor is greater than the
source voltage because the voltage across the capacitor or inductor in resonance condition is equal to
Q times the source voltage.
134. What is the voltage across the capacitor when the source voltage is 100V and the Q factor is 10?
a) 100V
b) 10V
c) 1000V
d) 0V
Answer: c
Explanation: We know that voltage across the capacitor in resonance condition is equal to Q times
the source voltage.
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Q=VC/VS where VC is capacitive voltage and VS is source voltage.

10=VC/100
VC=1000 V.
135. Find the Q factor when the voltage across the capacitor is 1000V and the source voltage is 100V.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: a
the source voltage.
Q=VC/VS where VC is capacitive voltage and VS is source voltage. Q=1000/100 = 10 V.
136. Find the source voltage when the voltage across the capacitor is 1000V and the Q factor is 10.
a) 10V
b) 200V
c) 100V
d) 90V
Answer: c
the source voltage.
Q=VC/VS where VC is capacitive voltage and VS is source voltage. 10=1000/VS
VS=100 V.
137. What is the voltage across the inductor when the source voltage is 200V and the Q factor is 10?
a) 100V
b) 20V
c) 2000V
d) 0V
Answer: c
the source voltage.
Q=VL/VS where VL is inductive voltage and VS is source voltage. 10=VL/200 => VL = 2000 V.
138. Find the Q factor when the voltage across the inductor is 2000V and the source voltage is 100V.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: b
the source voltage.
Q=VL/VS where VL is inductive voltage and VS is source voltage. Q=2000/100=20.
139. Find the source voltage when the voltage across the inductor is 2000V and the Q factor is 20.
a) 10V
b) 200V
c) 100V
d) 90V
Answer: c
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the source voltage.
Q=VL/VS where VL is inductive voltage and VS is source voltage.
20=2000/VS
VS=100 V.
140. What happens to the voltage across the capacitor when the Q factor increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
the source voltage. Hence as the Q factor increases, the voltage across the capacitor also increases.
141. What happens to the voltage across the inductor when the Q factor decreases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that voltage across the inductor in resonance condition is equal to Q times the
source voltage. Hence as the Q factor decreases, the voltage across the inductor also decreases.
142. The energy stored in the capacitor is of _________ nature.

a) Electrostatic
b) Magnetic
c) Neither electrostatic nor magnetic
d) Either electrostatic or magnetic
Answer: a
Explanation: Since capacitor stores charge in between the plates and energy associated with static
charge is of electrostatic nature, so we can say energy stored in the capacitor is of electrostatic nature.
143. The energy stored in the inductor is of _________ nature.

a) Electrostatic
b) Magnetic
c) Neither electrostatic nor magnetic
d) Either electrostatic or magnetic
Answer: b
Explanation: Since inductor stores current which involves moving charge and energy associated with
moving charge is of magnetic nature so we can say energy stored in the inductor is of magnetic
nature.
144. At resonance, the circuit appears __________

a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Either inductive or capacitive
d) Resistive
Answer: d
Explanation: At resonance, the circuit appears resistive because the capacitive and inductive energies
are equal to each other.
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145. At resonance, the capacitive energy is ___________ inductive energy.

a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Depends on the circuit
Answer: c
Explanation: At resonance, energy stored in the capacitor is equal to energy stored in the inductor
because capacitive reactance and inductive reactance are equal at resonance. So, at resonance,
capacitive energy is equal to inductive energy.
146. At resonance, electrostatic energy is ___________ the magnetic energy.

a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
Answer: c
Explanation: At resonance, energy stored in the capacitor is equal to energy stored in the inductor
because capacitive reactance and inductive reactance are equal at resonance. The capacitor stores
electrostatic energy and the inductor stores magnetic energy hence they are equal.
147. The maximum magnetic energy stored in an inductor at any instance is?
a) E=LIm2/2
b) E=LIm/2
c) E=LIm2
d) E=LIm2*2
Answer: a
Explanation: At any instant, the magnetic energy stored in an inductor is E=LIm2/2, where Imis the
maximum current and L is the value of the inductor.
148. The maximum electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor at any instance is?
a) CVm2
b) 1/2*CVm2
c) CVm
d) CVm/2
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor at any instance is 1/2*CV m2,
where C is the capacitance value and Vm is the peak voltage.
149. Q is the ratio of?

a) Active power to reactive power
b) Reactive power to active power
c) Reactive power to average power
d) Reactive power to capacitive power
Answer: c
Explanation: Q is the ratio of the reactive power to the average power. The reactive power is due to
the inductance or capacitance and the average power is due to the resistance.
150. Find the value of Q if the reactive power is 10W and the average power is 5W.
a) 10
b) 5
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c) 2
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Q is the ratio of the reactive power to the average power.
Q = Reactive power / Average power = 10/5 = 2.
151. Find the reactive power when the average power is 5W and Q=2.
a) 10W
b) 5W
c) 2W
d) 1W
Answer: a
Explanation: Q is the ratio of the reactive power to the average power.
Q = Reactive power / Average power
2 = Reactive power / 5
Reactive Power = 2*5 = 10W.
152. The SI unit for bandwidth is?

a) Hz
b) Watt
c) kHz
d) kW
Answer: a
Explanation: The SI unit for bandwidth is Hz. Hertz is the SI unit because bandwidth is basically
frequency and the unit for frequency is Hz.
153. At bandwidth frequency range, the value of the current I is?

a) I=Im/2
b) I=Im2
c) I=Im
d) I=Im/√2
Answer: d
Explanation: At the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the current is equal to the maximum
value of current divided by √2.
154. At bandwidth frequency range, the value of the voltage V is?

a) V=Vm/2
b) V=Vm2
c) V=Vm
d) V=Vm/√2
Answer: d
Explanation: At the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the voltage is equal to the maximum
value of voltage divided by √2.
155. At resonance, bandwidth includes the frequency range that allows _____ percent of the maximum
current to flow.
a) 33.33
b) 66.67
c) 50
d) 70.7
Answer: d
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Explanation: At resonance, bandwidth includes the frequency range that allows 70.2 percent of the
maximum current to flow. This is because in the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the current
is equal to the maximum value of current divided by √2.
156. At resonance, bandwidth includes the frequency range that allows _____ percent of the maximum
voltage to flow.
a) 33.33
b) 66.67
c) 50
d) 70.7
Answer: d
Explanation: At resonance, bandwidth includes the frequency range that allows 70.2 percent of the
maximum voltage to flow. This is because in the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the voltage
is equal to the maximum value of voltage divided by √2.
157. Find the value of current in the bandwidth range when the maximum value of current is 50A.
a) 56.65A
b) 35.36A
c) 45.34A
d) 78.76A
Answer: b
Explanation: At the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the current is equal to the maximum
value of current divided by √2. Hence I =50/√2= 35.36A.
158. Find the value of voltage in the bandwidth range when the maximum value of voltage is 100 V.
a) 56.65 V
b) 35.36 V
c) 45.34 V
d) 70.72 V
Answer: d
Explanation: At the bandwidth frequency range, the value of the voltage is equal to the maximum
value of voltage divided by √2. Hence V =100/√2= 70.72V.
159. Bandwidth is the difference of_____________________ frequencies.

a) half power
b) full power
c) double power
d) wattless
Answer: a
Explanation: Current for the end frequencies of bandwidth is 1/√2 times the maximum current. So,
power at the end frequencies of bandwidth is half the maximum power. So, bandwidth is the
difference of half power frequencies.
160. For a sharp resonance, bandwidth is ______________

a) low
b) high
c) zero
d) infinity
Answer: a
Explanation: For sharp resonance quality factor is high and the quality factor is inversely
proportional to bandwidth so bandwidth is low for sharp resonance.
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161. Current is maximum at __________ frequency of bandwidth.

a) left end
b) middle
c) right end
d) all end
Answer: b
Explanation: Current will be maximum at a frequency which is at the middle of bandwidth.
On both sides, it decreases and is 1/√2 times the maximum current at the ends of bandwidth.
162. Shape of the resonance curve depends upon the?

a) Q-factor
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Either voltage or current
Answer: a
Explanation: The shape of the resonance curve depends on the Q factor because of the equation:
Q=Resonance frequency / Bandwidth. Sharp resonance means high quality factor.
163. A circuit is said to be selective if it has a _____ peak and ____ bandwidth.
a) Blunt, narrow
b) Sharp, narrow
c) Sharp, broad
d) Blunt, broad
Answer: b
Explanation: For a circuit to be selective, it should have high quality factor. And we know that for
high quality factor, resonance frequency should be high(peak should be sharp) and bandwidth should
be narrow.
164. What is the Q factor of a selective circuit?

a) Very low
b) Very high
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: b
Explanation: For a circuit to be selective, it should have high quality factor. It should have a sharp
peak with narrow bandwidth.
165. In selective circuits, higher the Q factor _________ the peak.

a) Sharper
b) Blunter
c) Neither sharper nor blunter
d) Either sharper or blunter
Answer: a
Explanation: Q=Resonance frequency / Bandwidth.
Higher the quality factor, sharper the peak of resonance curve.
166. Q is a measure of _________

a) Resonance
b) Bandwidth
c) Selectivity
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d) Either resonance or bandwidth

Answer: c
Explanation: For a circuit to be selective, it should have a high quality factor. It should have a sharp
peak with narrow bandwidth.
167. In selective circuits, the resonant frequency lies in the ________ of the bandwidth frequency
range.
a) Beginning
b) End
c) Midpoint
Answer: c
Explanation: In selective circuits, the resonant frequency lies in the midpoint of the bandwidth
frequency range.
168. In order for high selectivity, the resistance must be?

a) Small
b) Large
c) Negative
d) Positive
Answer: a
Explanation: For high selectivity, the Q factor should be large and for Q factor to be large, the
resistance would be small because Q is inversely proportional to the resistance.
169. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the capacitor and the
voltage across the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across capacitor lag the current by 900 and voltage
across resistor is in phase with current so, the phase difference between the voltage across the
capacitor and the voltage across the resistor is 900.
170. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the inductor and the
voltage across the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across inductor lead the current by 900 and voltage
across resistor is in phase with current so, the phase difference between the voltage across the
inductor and the voltage across the resistor is 900.
voltage across the inductor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
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d) 3600
Answer: c
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across inductor lead the current by 900 and voltage
across capacitor lag the current by 900 so, the phase difference between the voltage across the
inductor and the voltage across the capacitor is 1800.
172. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the resistor and the
current in the circuit is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the resistor and
the current in the circuit is 0 degrees because they are in phase.
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across capacitor lag the current by 900 so, the phase
difference between the voltage across the capacitor and current is 900.
174. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the inductor and the
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across inductor lead the current by 900 so, the phase
difference between the voltage across the inductor and the current is 900.
175. The current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC circuit ___________ resonant
frequency.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: The current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC circuit if circuit is inductive
dominant i.e. if XL > XC ωL > 1/ωC => ω > 1/√LC => ω > ω0. So, the current in the inductor lags the
voltage in a series RLC circuit above the resonant frequency.
176. The current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC circuit ___________ resonant
frequency.
a) Above
b) Below
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c) Equal to
Answer: b
Explanation: The current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC circuit if circuit is
capacitive dominant i.e. if XL < XC
ωL < 1/ωC => ω < 1/√LC => ω < ω0. So, the current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC
circuit below the resonant frequency.
177. The current in the inductor ___________ the voltage in a series RLC circuit above the resonant
frequency.
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Equal to
Answer: b
Explanation: ω > ω0 => ω > 1/√LC
=> ωL > 1/ωC => XL > XC
The circuit is inductive dominant so, the current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC
circuit above the resonant frequency.
178. The current in the capacitor ___________ the voltage in a series RLC circuit below the resonant
frequency.
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: ω < ω0 => ω < 1/√LC
=> ωL < 1/ωC => XL < XC The circuit is capacitive dominant so, the current in the capacitor leads the
voltage in a series RLC circuit above the resonant frequency.
179. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the capacitor and the current
in the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the capacitor and
the current in the resistor is 00 because same current flows in the capacitor as well as the resistor.
180. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the inductor and the current in
the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the inductor and the
current in the resistor is 00 because same current flows in the inductor as well as the resistor.
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181. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the capacitor and the current
in the inductor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the inductor and the
current in the capacitor is 00 because same current flows in the inductor as well as the capacitor.
182. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the circuit and the voltage
across the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the voltage across the resistor and
the current in the circuit is 00 because they are in phase.
183. In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the circuit and the voltage
across the capacitor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
Explanation: In a series RLC circuit, voltage across capacitor lags the current in the circuit by 900 so,
the phase difference between the voltage across the capacitor and the current in the circuit is 900.
184. _________ the resonant frequency, the current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC
circuit.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: The current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC circuit if a circuit is
inductive dominant i.e. if XL > XC
ωL > 1/ωC => ω > 1/√LC => ω > ω0.
So, the current in the inductor lags the voltage in a series RLC circuit above the resonant frequency.
185. _________ the resonant frequency, the current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC
circuit.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
Answer: b
Explanation: The current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC circuit if circuit is
capacitive dominant i.e.i.e. if XL < XC
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ωL < 1/ωC => ω < 1/√LC => ω < ω0.

So, the current in the capacitor leads the voltage in a series RLC circuit below the resonant frequency.
186. In a parallel circuit, we consider _____________ instead of impedance.

a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) Admittance
Answer: d
Explanation: In a parallel circuit, we consider admittance instead of impedance, where admittance is
the reciprocal of impedance.
187. In a parallel circuit, we consider admittance instead of _________

a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) Impedance
Answer: d
Explanation: In a parallel circuit, we consider admittance instead of impedance, where admittance is
the reciprocal of impedance.
188. Which, among the following is the correct expression for impedance?
a) Z=Y
b) Z=1/Y
c) Z=Y2
d) Z=1/Y2
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that impedance is the reciprocal of admittance, hence the correct expression
for impedance is: Z=1/Y.
189. Which, among the following is the correct expression for admittance?
a) Y=Z
b) Y=1/Z
c) Y=Z2
d) Y=1/Z2
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that admittance is the reciprocal of impedance, hence the correct expression
for admittance is: Y=1/Z.
190. What is the unit of admittance?

a) ohm
b) henry
c) farad
d) ohm-1
Answer: d
Explanation: The unit for admittance is ohm-1 because the unit of impedance is ohm and admittance
is the reciprocal of impedance.
191. As the impedance increases, the admittance ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Remains the same

d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: As the impedance increases, the admittance decreases because admittance is equal to
1/impedance.
192. if the impedance of a system is 4 ohm, calculate its admittance.

a) 0.25 ohm-1
b) 4 ohm-1
c) 25 ohm-1
d) 0.4 ohm-1
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that: Y=1/Z.
Substituting the value of Z from the question, we get Y = 1/4 = 0.25 => Y= 0.25 ohm-1.
193. The admittance of a system is 10 ohm-1, calculate its impedance.

a) 10 ohm
b) 0.1 ohm
c) 1 ohm
d) 1.1 ohm
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that: Z=1/Y.
Z = 1/10 = 0.1 => Z = 0.1 ohm.
194. In A parallel circuit, with any number of impedances, The voltage across each impedance is?
a) equal
b) divided equally
c) divided proportionaly
d) zero
Answer: a
Explanation: In parallel circuits, the current across the circuits vary whereas the voltage remains the
same. So, voltage across each impedance is equal in parallel circuit.
195. In a parallel circuit, current in each impedance is_____________

a) equal
b) different
c) zero
d) infinite
Answer: b
Explanation: In parallel circuits, the current across the circuits vary whereas the voltage remains the
same. So, current in each impedance is different.
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196. From the given circuit, find the value of IR.
a) 0
b) V/I
c) V/R
Answer: c
Explanation: In the given circuit, the voltage across the resistor is the same as the source voltage as
they are connected in parallel. The current in the resistor is IR hence IR=V/R.
197. What is the relation between IR and V in the following circuit?
a) IR leads V
b) IR lags V
c) IR and V are in phase
d) No relation
Answer: c
Explanation: In the following circuit IR and V are in phase because IR is the current in the resistor
and the current in the resistor is always in phase with the voltage across it.
198. What is the expression for the current in the inductor from the following circuit?
a) V/I
b) V/XL
c) 0
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Answer: b
Explanation: In the given circuit, the voltage across the inductor is the same as the source voltage as
they are connected in parallel. The current in the inductor is IL hence IL=V/XL.
199. What is the phase relation between IL and V from the following circuit?
a) IL lags V
b) IL leads V
c) IL and V are in phase
d) No relation
Answer: a
Explanation: IL is the current across the inductor and we know that the current across the inductor
always lags the voltage across it. Hence IL lags V.
200. Find the expression for the current I from the given circuit.
a) I=IC
b) I=IR
c) I=IC+IR
d) I=0
Answer: c
Explanation: I is the total current in the circuit. Since this is a parallel connection, the total current in
the circuit is equal to the sum of the currents in each branch of the circuit. Hence I=IC+IR.
201. Find the total current if IC=2A and IR=5A.
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a) 3A
b) -3A
c) 7A
d) 10A
Answer: c
I=2+5=7A.
202. Find the value of IR if I=10A and IC=8A.
a) 5A
b) 18A
c) 12A
d) 2A
Answer: d
10=8+IR => IR=2A.
203. Find the value of IL if IC=10A and IR=6A.
a) 4A
b) 18A
c) 12A
d) 2A
Answer: a
10=IC+6 => IC=4A.
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204. What is the expression for the current in the capacitor from the following circuit?
a) V/C
b) V/I
c) 0
d) V/XC
Answer: d
Explanation: In the given circuit, the voltage across the capacitor is the same as the source voltage as
they are connected in parallel. The current in the capacitor is IC hence IC=V/XC.
205. What is the phase relation between IC and V from the following circuit?
a) IC lags V
b) IC leads V
c) IC and V are in phase
d) No relation
Answer: b
Explanation: IC is the current across the capacitor and we know that the current across the capacitor
always leads the voltage across it. Hence IC leads V.
206. In an impedance parallel network, the reactive component will ____________ the voltage by 90
degrees.
a) Lead
b) Lag
c) Either lead or lag
Answer: c
Explanation: In impedance parallel network the reactive component will either lead or lag the
voltage by 90 degrees.
207. In an impedance parallel network, the reactive component will either lead or lag the voltage by
_________ degrees.
a) 0
b) 90
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c) 45
d) 180
Answer: b
Explanation: In an impedance parallel network the reactive component will either lead or lag the
208. In an impedance parallel network, the reactive component will either lead or lag the ________ by
90 degrees.
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Either voltage or current
Answer: a
Explanation: In an impedance parallel network the reactive component will either lead or lag the
209. The reactive component in an impedance parallel circuit leads the voltage when the current
_________ the voltage.
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Either leads or lags
Answer: a
Explanation: The reactive component in an impedance parallel circuit leads the voltage when the
current leads the voltage.
210. The active component in an impedance parallel circuit will __________ the voltage.
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Be in phase with
d) Either leads or lags
Answer: c
Explanation: The active component in an impedance parallel network will always be in phase with
the voltage in the circuit.
211. The phase difference between the active component of an impedance parallel circuit and the
voltage in the network is __________
a) 0
b) 90
c) 180
d) 360
Answer: a
Explanation: The active component in an impedance parallel network will always be in phase with
the voltage in the circuit. Hence the phase difference is 0.
212. The quadrature component is also known as?

a) Active component
b) Reactive component
c) Either active or reactive component
d) Neither active nor reactive component
Answer: b
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Explanation: The quadrature component is also known as the reactive component because the
reactive component forms a quadrature with the voltage.
213. Find the expression for the current I from the given circuit.
a) I=IL
b) I=IR
c) I=IL+IR
d) I=0
Answer: c
the circuit is equal to the sum of the currents in each branch of the circuit. Hence I=IR+IL.
214. Find the value of IR if I=10A and IL=8A.
a) 5A
b) 18A
c) 12A
d) 2A
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that I=IR+IL.
10=IR+8 => IR=2A.
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215. Find the total current if IL=2A and IR=8A.
a) 3A
b) -3A
c) 7A
d) 10A
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that I=IR+IL.
I=8+2=10A.
216. The highest power factor will be?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The power factor is useful in determining the useful power transferred to a load. The
highest power factor will be 1.
217. If power factor = 1, then the current to the load is ______ with the voltage across it.
a) out of phase
b) in phase
c) 90⁰ out of phase
d) 45⁰ out of phase
Answer: b
Explanation: If power factor = 1, then the current to the load is in phase with the voltage across it
because the expression of power factor is power factor = cosθ.
218. In case of resistive load, the power factor =?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: d
Explanation: In case of resistive load, the power factor = 1 as the current to the load is in phase with
the voltage across it.
219. If power factor = 0, then the current to a load is ______ with the voltage.
a) in phase
b) out of phase
c) 45⁰ out of phase
d) 90⁰ out of phase
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Answer: d
Explanation: If the power factor = 0, then the current to a load is 90⁰ out of phase with the voltage
and it happens in case of reactive load.
220. For reactive load, the power factor is equal to?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: a
Explanation: For reactive load, the power factor is equal to 0. Power factor = 0 when current to a
load is 90⁰ out of phase with the voltage.
221. Average power is also called?

a) apparent power
b) reactive power
c) true power
d) instantaneous power
Answer: c
Explanation: The average power is expressed in watts. It means the useful power transferred from
the source to the load, which is also called true power. Average power is also called true power.
222. If we apply a sinusoidal voltage to a circuit, the product of voltage and current is?
a) true power
b) apparent power
c) average power
d) reactive power
Answer: b
Explanation: If we apply a sinusoidal voltage to a circuit, the product of voltage and current is
apparent power. The apparent power is expressed in volt amperes or simply VA.
223. The expression of apparent power (Papp) is?

a) VmIm
b) VmIeff
c) VeffIeff
d) VeffIm
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of sinusoidal voltage applied to the circuit, the product of voltage and the
current is not the true power or average power and it is apparent power. The expression of apparent
power (Papp) is Papp = VeffIeff.
224. The power factor=?

a) sinθ
b) cosθ
c) tanθ
d) secθ
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression of power factor is power factor= cosθ. As the phase angle between the
voltage and the current increases the power factor decreases.
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225. The power factor is the ratio of ________ power to the ______ power.
a) average, apparent
b) apparent, reactive
c) reactive, average
d) apparent, average
Answer: a
Explanation: The power factor is the ratio of average power to the apparent power. Power factor
=(average power)/(apparent power). Power factor is also defined as the factor with which the volt
amperes are to be multiplied to get true power in the circuit.
226. The power factor is called leading power factor in case of ____ circuits.
a) LC
b) RC
c) RL
d) RLC
Answer: b
Explanation: The power factor is called leading power factor in case of RC circuits and not in RLC
circuits and RL circuits and LC circuits.
227. The term lagging power factor is used in which circuits?

a) RLC
b) RC
c) RL
d) LC
Answer: c
Explanation: The term lagging power factor is used in RL circuits and not in RLC circuits and RC
circuits and LC circuits.
228. In star connected system, VRY is equal to?

a) VYR
b) -VYR
c) 2VYR
d) 3VYR
Answer: b
Explanation: The voltage available between any pair of terminals is called the line voltage. The
double script notation is purposefully used to represent voltages and currents in poly phase circuits. In
star connected system, VRY = – VYR.
229. In three phase system, the line voltage VRY is equal to?
a) phasor sum of VRN and VNY
b) phasor difference of VRN and VNY
c) phasor sum of VRN and VNY
d) algebraic sum of VRN and VNY
Answer: a
Explanation: In three phase system, the line voltage VRY is equal to the phasor sum of VRNand
VNY which is also equal to the phasor difference of VRN and VYN.
230. The relation between the lengths of the phasors VRN and – VYN is?
a) |VRN| > – |VYN|
b) |VRN| < – |VYN|
c) |VRN| = – |VYN|
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d) |VRN| >= – |VYN|

Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage VRY is found by compounding VRN and VYN reversed. The relation between
the lengths of the phasors VRN and – VYN is |VRN |= – |VYN |.
231. In a star connected system, the phasors VRN , VYN are ____ apart.
a) 15⁰
b) 30⁰
c) 45⁰
d) 60⁰
Answer: d
Explanation: In a star connected system, the phasors VRN , VYN are separated by θ= 60⁰. To subtract
VYN from VRN, we reverse the phase VYN and find its phasor sum with VRN.
232. The relation between VRY ,Vph in a star connected system is?
a) VRY =Vph
b) VRY =√3Vph
c) VRY =3√3Vph
d) VRY =3Vph
Answer: b
Explanation: The two phasors VYN and VBN are equal in length and are 60⁰apart. The relation
between VRY ,Vph in a star connected system is VRY = √3Vph.
233. In a star connected system, the relation between VYB ,Vph is?
a) VYB =Vph
b) VYB =3√3Vph
c) VYB =3Vph
d) VYB =√3Vph
Answer: d
Explanation: In a star connected system, the relation between VYB ,Vph is
VYB = √3Vph. The line voltage VYB is equal to the phasor difference of VYN and VBN and is equal to
√3Vph.
234. The voltages, VBR ,Vph are related in star connected system is?
a) VBR =3Vph
b) VBR =3√3Vph
c) VBR =√3Vph
d) VBR =Vph
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltages, VBR ,Vph in star connected system are related as
VBR =√3Vph. The line voltage VYB is equal to the phasor difference of VBN and VRN and is equal to
√3Vph.
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235. A symmetrical star connected system has VRN =230∠0⁰. The phase sequence is RYB. Find VRY.
a) 398.37∠30⁰
b) 398.37∠-30⁰
c) 398.37∠90⁰
d) 398.37∠-90⁰
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the system is a balanced system, all the phase voltages are equal in magnitude but
displaced by 120⁰. VRN = 230∠0⁰V. VRY = √3×230∠(0o+30o)V=398.37∠30oV.
236. Find VYB in the figure shown in question 8.

a) 398.37∠-30⁰
b) 398.37∠210⁰
c) 398.37∠90⁰
d) 398.37∠-90⁰
Answer: d
Explanation: Corresponding line voltages are equal to √3 times the phase voltages and are 30⁰ ahead
of the respective phase voltages. VYN = 230∠-120⁰V. VYB = √3×230∠(-120o+30o)V=398.37∠-90⁰V.
237. Find VBR in the figure shown in question 8.

a) 398.37∠210⁰
b) 398.37∠-210⁰
c) 398.37∠120⁰
d) 398.37∠-120⁰
Answer: b
Explanation: All the line voltages are equal in magnitude and are displaced by 120⁰. VBN = 230∠-
240⁰V. VBR = √3×230∠(-240o+30o)V=398.37∠-210oV.
238. In a delta connected system, the voltage across the terminals R and Y is 400∠0⁰. Calculate the
line voltage VRY. Assume RYB phase sequence.
a) 400∠0⁰
b) 400∠120⁰
c) 400∠-120⁰
d) 400∠240⁰
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Answer: a
Explanation: In a balanced delta-connected system we know |VRY |= |VPh|, and it is displaced by
120⁰, therefore the line voltage VRY is VRY = 400∠0⁰V.
239. In the question 1 find the line voltage VYB.

a) 400∠120⁰
b) 400∠-120⁰
c) 400∠240⁰
d) 400∠-240⁰
Answer: b
Explanation: As |VYB |= |VPh|, and is displaced by 120⁰, therefore the line voltage VYB is VYB= 400∠-
120⁰V. A balanced three phase, three wire, delta connected system is referred to as mesh connection
because it forms a closed circuit.
240. In the question 1 find the line voltage VBR.

a) 400∠240⁰
b) 400∠120⁰
c) 400∠-240⁰
d) 400∠-120⁰
Answer: c
Explanation: We know, |VBR|= |VPh |, and is displaced by 120⁰, therefore the line voltage VBR is
VBR = 400∠-240⁰V. Delta connection is so called because the three branches in the circuit can be
arranged in the shape of delta.
241. In delta-connected system, the currents IR , IY , IB are equal in magnitude and they are displaced
by _____ from one another.
a) 0⁰
b) 60⁰
c) 90⁰
d) 120⁰
Answer: d
Explanation: In delta-connected system, the currents IR , IY , IB are equal in magnitude and they are
displaced by 120⁰ from one another. From the manner of interconnection of the three phases in the
circuit, it may appear that the three phase are short circuited among themselves.
242. In a delta-connected system, the currents IR = IB = IY =?

a) IPh
b) 2IPh
c) 3IPh
d) 4IPh
Answer: a
Explanation: In a delta-connected system, the currents IR = IB = IY = IPh. Since the system is
balanced, the sum of the three voltages round the closed mesh is zero; consequently no current can
flow around the mesh when the terminals are open.
243. The relation between IL and IPh is in a delta connected system is?
a) IL = IPh
b) IL =√3 IPh
c) IL =3 IPh
d) IL = 3√3IPh
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Answer: b
Explanation: The relation between IL and IPh is in a delta connected system is IL =√3 IPh. The arrows
placed alongside the voltages of the three phases indicate that the terminals are positive during their
positive half cycles.
244. The line currents are ___ behind respective phase currents in a delta connected system is?
a) 120⁰
b) 90⁰
c) 60⁰
d) 30⁰
Answer: d
Explanation: In a delta connected system, all the line currents are equal in magnitude but displaced
by 120⁰ from one another and the line currents are 30⁰ behind the respective phase currents.
245. In a delta connected system, the expression of power (P) is?

a) VLILcosφ W
b) √3 VLILcosφ W
c) 3VLILcosφ W
d) 3√3VLILcosφ W
Answer: b
Explanation: The total power in the delta circuit is the sum of the powers in the three phases. In a
delta connected system, the expression of power (P) is P = √3VLILcosφ W.
246. A balanced delta-connected load of (2+j3) Ω per phase is connected to a balanced three-phase
440V supply. The phase current is 10A. Find the total active power.
a) 7.26W
b) 726W
c) 7260W
d) 72.6W
Answer: c
Explanation: ZPh = √(22+32 )=3.6∠56.3⁰Ω. cosφ = RPh /ZPh = 2/3.6 = 0.55. IL = √3× IPh = 17.32A.
Active power = √3 VLILcosφ = √3×440×17.32×0.55= 7259.78W.
247. Find the apparent power in the information provided in the question 9.
a) 10955.67 VAR
b) 10.95567 VAR
c) 109.5567 VAR
d) 1.095567 VAR
Answer: a
Explanation: Sinφ = 0.83. Reactive power = √3 VLILsinφ. VL = 440V, IL = 17.32A. On substituting
we get reactive power = √3 x 440 x 17.32 = 10955.67 VAR.
248. In a balanced three-phase system-delta load, if we assume the line voltage is VRY = V∠0⁰ as a
reference phasor. Then the source voltage VYB is?
a) V∠0⁰
b) V∠-120⁰
c) V∠120⁰
d) V∠240⁰
Answer: b
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Explanation: As the line voltage VRY = V∠0⁰ is taken as a reference phasor. Then the source voltage
VYB is V∠-120⁰.
249. In the question 1, the source voltage VBR is?

a) V∠120⁰
b) V∠240⁰
c) V∠-240⁰
d) V∠-120⁰
Answer: c
Explanation: As the line voltage VRY = V∠0⁰ is taken as a reference phasor. Then the source voltage
VBR is V∠-240⁰.
250. In a delta-connected load, the relation between line voltage and the phase voltage is?
a) line voltage > phase voltage
b) line voltage < phase voltage
c) line voltage = phase voltage
d) line voltage >= phase voltage
Answer: c
Explanation: In a delta-connected load, the relation between line voltage and the phase voltage is
line voltage = phase voltage.
251. If the load impedance is Z∠Ø, the current (IR ) is?

a) (V/Z)∠-Ø
b) (V/Z)∠Ø
c) (V/Z)∠90-Ø
d) (V/Z)∠-90+Ø
Answer: a
Explanation: As the load impedance is Z∠Ø, the current flows in the three load impedances and the
current flowing in the R impedance is IR = VBR∠0⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-Ø.
252. In the question 4, the expression obtained for current (IY) is?
a) (V/Z)∠-120+Ø
b) (V/Z)∠120-Ø
c) (V/Z)∠120+Ø
d) (V/Z)∠-120-Ø
Answer: d
current flowing in the Y impedance is IY = VYB∠120⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-120-Ø.
253. In the question 4, the expression obtained for current (IB) is?
a) (V/Z)∠-240+Ø
b) (V/Z)∠-240-Ø
c) (V/Z)∠240-Ø
d) (V/Z)∠240+Ø
Answer: b
current flowing in the B impedance is IB = VBR∠240⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-240-Ø.
254. A three phase, balanced delta connected load of (4+j8) Ω is connected across a 400V, 3 – Ø
balanced supply. Determine the phase current IR . Assume the phase sequence to be RYB.
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a) 44.74∠-63.4⁰A
b) 44.74∠63.4⁰A
c) 45.74∠-63.4⁰A
d) 45.74∠63.4⁰A
Answer: a
Explanation: Taking the line voltage VRY = V∠0⁰ as a reference VRY = 400∠0⁰V, VYB = 400∠-
120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V. Impedance per phase = (4+j8) Ω = 8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IR =
(400∠0o)/(8.94∠63.4o )= 44.74∠-63.4⁰A.
255. In the question 7, determine the phase current IY.

a) 44.74∠183.4⁰A
b) 45.74∠183.4⁰A
c) 44.74∠183.4⁰A
d) 45.74∠-183.4⁰A
Answer: c
120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V. Impedance per phase = (4+j8)Ω = 8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IY =
(400∠120o)/(8.94∠63.4o )= 44.74∠-183.4⁰A.
256. In the question 7, determine the phase current IB.

a) 44.74∠303.4⁰A
b) 44.74∠-303.4⁰A
c) 45.74∠303.4⁰A
d) 45.74∠-303.4⁰A
Answer: b
120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V. Impedance per phase = (4+j8) Ω = 8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IB =
(400∠240o)/(8.94∠63.4o)= 44.74∠-303.4⁰A.
257. Determine the power (kW) drawn by the load.

a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24
Answer: d
Explanation: Power is defined as the product of voltage and current. So the power drawn by the load
is P = 3VPhIPhcosØ = 24kW.
258. In a three phase alternator, there are __________ independent phase windings or coils.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: In a three phase alternator, there are 3 independent phase windings or coils. So, 3
independent phase windings or coils. The end connections of the three sets of the coils may be
brought out of the machine to form three separate single phase sources to feed three individual
circuits.
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259. Each coil in three phase alternator has ________________ number of terminals.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: a
Explanation: Each coil in three phase alternator has 2 number of terminals, viz. start and finish. So, 2
number of terminals. the coils are inter connected to form a wye or delta connected three phase
system to achieve economy and reduce the number of conductors and thereby the complexity of the
circuit.
260. In wye or star connection, ______________ of the three phases are joined together within the
alternator.
a) similar ends
b) opposite ends
c) one similar end, two opposite ends
d) one opposite end, two opposite ends
Answer: a
Explanation: In wye or star connection, similar ends of the three phases are joined together within
the alternator. The common terminal so formed is referred to as the neutral point or neutral terminal.
261. The voltage between __________ and ___________ is called phase voltage.
a) line and line
b) line and reference
c) neutral point and reference
d) line and neutral point
Answer: d
Explanation: In a three phase four wire star connected system, the terminals R, Y and B are called
the line terminals of the source. The voltage between line and neutral point is called phase voltage.
And the voltage between line and line is called line voltage.
262. The voltage between ______________ is called line voltage.

a) line and neutral point
b) line and reference
c) line and line
d) neutral point and reference
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage between line and line is called line voltage. And the voltage between line
and neutral point is called phase voltage. The currents flowing through the phases are called the phase
currents, while those flowing in the lines are called the line currents.
263. Figure below represents three phases of an alternator. The phase voltage for the star connection
among the options given below is?
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a) VRY
b) VRN
c) VYB
d) VBR
Answer: b
Explanation: If the neutral wire is not available for external connection, the system is called a three
phase,three wire star connected system. Phase voltage = VRN. And VRY, VYB and VBR are not phase
voltages.
264. In the figure shown above, what will be the line voltage?
a) VBR
b) VBN
c) VRN
d) VYN
Answer: a
Explanation: The star connected system formed will supply equal line voltages displaced
120<sup<o< sup=""> from one another and acting simultaneously in the cicruit like three
independent single phase sources in the same frame of a three phase alternator. Line voltage = VBR.
And VRN , VYN and VBN are not line voltages.
265. In the Delta or Mesh connection, there will be __________ number of common terminals.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: The three line conductors are taken from the three junctions of the mesh or delta
connection to feed the three phase load. This constitutes a three phase, three wire, delta connected
system. In the Delta or Mesh connection, there will be zero number of common terminals. Number of
common terminals = 0.
266. The relation between line voltage and phase voltage in Delta or Mesh connection is?
a) Vphase > Vline
b) Vphase < Vline
c) Vphase = Vline
d) Vphase >= Vline
Answer: c
Explanation: When the sources are connected in delta, loads can be connected only across the three
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line terminal. The relation between line voltage and phase voltage in Delta or Mesh connection is
Vphase = Vline.
267. Which of the following voltage is a phase voltage in delta connection?

a) VRN
b) VBR
c) VYN
d) VBN
Answer: b
Explanation: A balanced three phase source is one in which the three individual sources have equal
magnitude with 120<sup<o< sup=""> phase differences. VBR is a phase voltage in delta connection.
And VRN , VYN and VBN are not phase voltages.</sup<o<>
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UNIT-3
Transformer
C104.3: Identify the application areas of a single phase two winding transformer as well as
an auto transformer and calculate their efficiency. Also identify the connections of a three
phase transformer
1. The majority of power transformers in use throughout the world are oil filled using a mineral oil.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In majority power transformers dielectric material used is the oil, which serves the
dual purpose of providing insulation and as a cooling medium to conduct away the losses which
are produced in the transformer in the form of heat.
2. Dielectric mineral oil is used in ____________

a) Small transformers
b) Medium transformers
c) Large transformers
d) In all transformers
Answer: c
Explanation: Because of the fire hazard associated with mineral oil, it has been the practice to
use designs for smaller transformers which do not contain oil. It is usual, therefore, to locate
transformers with mineral oil, out of doors where a fire is more easily dealt with and
consequentially the risks are fewer.
3. The purpose of the transformer core is to provide ____________

a) High reluctance path
b) Low reluctance path
c) High inductive path
d) High capacitive path
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of a transformer core is to provide a low-reluctance path for the
magnetic flux linking primary and secondary windings. In doing so, the core experiences iron
losses due to hysteresis and eddy currents flowing within it which, in turn, show themselves as
heating of the core material.
4. Transformer core is designed to reduce ______________

a) Hysteresis loss
c) Hysteresis loss and Eddy current loss
Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are the losses which take place in core of the
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transformer thus they are also termed as core losses. While other losses take place in winding or
in air gap which can’t be dealt with core design.
5. Transformers windings are generally made of __________

a) Steel
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Steel iron alloy
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to avoid losses due to loading current, winding materials must be chosen
wisely. Winding conductors are thus made of copper or more precisely saying they are made of
high conductivity copper by some industrial processes.
6. Before using oil in transformers, insulation material was _________

a) Asbestos
b) Cotton
c) Low grade pressboard in air
d) Kraft paper
Answer: d
Explanation: At the time of discovery of transformer, people were using asbestos, cotton, low
grade pressboard in air for insulation purpose. Further, Kraft paper was invented which became
much popular insulation material.
7. Which transformer insulation material is best compare to Kraft paper?

a) Oil
b) Asbestos
c) Low grade pressboard
d) Cotton
Answer: a
Explanation: Newly developed oil-filled transformers have capabilities much greater than those
transformers which used Kraft paper as dielectric material. Also, electrical properties of Kraft
paper depend on physical and chemical properties of paper
8. Which of the following is not the property of oil that should be fulfilled before using in
transformer?
a) Low viscosity
b) High flash point
c) Low electrical strength
d) High chemical stability
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various important parameters that oil must follow for its use in oil cooled
transformer. These parameters include low viscosity, high stability, high flash point, high
electrical strength, low pour point
9. Transformer ratings are given in _____________

a) kW
b) kVAR
c) HP
d) kVA
Answer: d
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There are two types of losses in a transformer, Copper Losses and Iron Losses or Core Losses or
Insulation Losses. Copper losses (I2R) depends on current passing through transformer winding
while Iron losses or Core Losses or Insulation Losses depends on Voltage. That’s why the rating
of Transformer is in kVA.
10. Function of transformer is to _________________

a) Convert AC to DC
b) Convert DC to AC
c) Step down or up the DC voltages and currents
d) Step down or up the AC voltages and currents
Answer: d
Explanation: A Transformer does not work on DC and operates only on AC, therefore it Step up
of Step down the level of AC Voltage or Current, by keeping frequency of the supply unaltered
on the secondary side.
11. What is the dielectric strength of transformer oil?

a) 1 kV
b) 35 kV
c) 100 kV
d) 330 kV
Answer: b
Explanation: For mineral oil, an accepted minimum dielectric strength is 30 kV for transformers
with a high-voltage rating of 230 kV and above and 27 kV for transformers with a high-voltage
rating below 230 kV. New oil should pass the condition of a minimum dielectric strength of 35
kV by ASTM methods of testing.
12. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?

a) Conservator
b) Breather
c) Buchholz relay
d) Exciter
Answer: d
Explanation: Conservator, breather, Buchholz relay are the parts which are much important in
transformer construction in order to maintain temperature of the transformer and to work
transformer with good efficiency.
13. Transformer core is generally made of ___________

a) Single block of core material
b) By stacking large number of sheets together
c) Can be made with any of the above method
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer core experiences eddy current losses when transformer is in the
operations. In order to reduce eddy current losses, it is advisable to use large number of sheets
laminated from each other are stick together than using one single block.
14. Transformer core is constructed for ______________

a) Providing least effective magnetic linkage between two windings
b) Providing isolation between magnetic linkages of one coil from another
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c) Providing most effective magnetic linkage between two windings

Answer: c
Explanation: Transformer core is so chosen that it will provide low reluctance path and will
transfer maximum amount of flux from one winding to other, providing most effective magnetic
linkage between two windings.
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) High frequency power supplies are light weight
b) Transformer size gets reduced at high frequency
c) Transformer size is more at higher frequency
d) High frequency power supplies are light weight and transformer size gets reduced at
high frequency
Answer: d
Explanation: From the induced emf equation of transformer emf is given by E ∝ φf. For same
emf, φf = constant φ1f1 = φ2f2 i.e. B1A1f1 = B2A2f2. For constant flux density B1 = B2. A1f1 = A2f2.
For high frequency f2 > f1, A2 < A1. Thus, at high frequencies transformer size get reduced and
also light weight.
16. Transformer operating at 25-400 Hz frequency contain core made of _____________

a) Highly permeable iron
b) Steel alloy
c) Air core
d) Highly permeable iron and Steel alloy
Answer: d
Explanation: When core is made of highly permeable iron or steel alloy (cold-rolled, grain
oriented sheet steel). This transformer is generally called an iron-core transformer. Transformers
operated from 25–400 Hz are invariably of iron-core construction.
17. In various radio devices and testing instruments we use ______________

a) Iron core transformer
b) Air core transformer
c) W/O core transformer
d) Any transformer can be used
Answer: a
Explanation: In special cases, the magnetic circuit linking the windings may be made of
nonmagnetic material, in which case the transformer is referred to as an air-core transformer. The
air-core transformer is of interest mainly in radio devices and in certain types of measuring and
testing instruments.
18. Which type of flux does transformer action need?

a) Constant magnetic flux
b) Increasing magnetic flux
c) Alternating magnetic lux
d) Alternating electric flux
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy transfer in a transformer, is from one winding to another, entirely
through magnetic medium it is known as transformer action. Therefore, transformer action
requires an alternating or time varying magnetic flux in order to transfer power from primary side
to secondary side. Since induced emf in the winding is due to flux linkage.
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19. Different core construction is required for core type and shell type transformer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In the “closed-core” type transformer, the primary and secondary windings are
wound outside and surround the core ring. In the “shell type” transformer, the primary and
secondary windings pass inside the steel magnetic circuit (core) which forms a shell around the
windings.
20. There is only one magnetic flux path in the circuit. The transformer is definitely __________
a) Core type
b) Shell type
c) Can be any of the above
d) Depends on other parameters
Answer: a
Explanation: In core type transformer, winding is placed on two core limbs, while in case of
shell type transformer, winding is placed on mid arm of the core. Other limbs will be used as
mechanical support. Core type transformers have only one magnetic flux path.
21. Which of the following is correct statement?

a) Core type transformer has more output than shell type
b) Core type transformer has higher efficiency compare to shell type
c) Core type transformer has lower efficiency than shell type
d) Can’t predict
Answer: c
Explanation: In core type winding is surrounded with considerable part of core whereas in shell
type core is surrounded with considerable part of winding of transformer. In core type output is
less, because of losses. In shell type transformer output is high because of less loss, thus
efficiency will be more in case of shell transformer.
22. Core type transformer is with ____________________

a) Large size
b) Small size
c) High voltage
d) Everywhere
Answer: a
Explanation: Core type is very useful when we need large size of the transformer with operation
at low voltage. While shell type transformer is very useful when we need small size high voltage.
Cooling is more in core type.
23. Which of the following is the correct statement?

a) Shell type has more mechanical protection
b) Cooling is more in shell type
c) In core type sandwiched wiring is used
d) In core type concentric winding is used
Answer: d
Explanation: Shell type has less mechanical protection to coil while Core type has better
mechanical protection to coil. Core type is easy to repair and maintain. In core type transformer
concentric cylindrical winding are used. In shell type transformer sandwiched winding are used.
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24. What is the purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer?

a) Provide support to windings
b) Reduce hysteresis loss
c) Decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
d) Reduce eddy current losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Iron core is used in a transformer to carry flux from one winding to another
winding, so there should be minimum opposition to flux passing through iron core. Hence,
transformer function is to decrease the reluctance of magnetic path.
25. What is the thickness of laminations used in a transformer?

a) 0.1 mm to 0.5 mm
b) 4 mm to 5 mm
c) 14 mm to 15 mm
d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Laminations are made to reduce the eddy currents and is made of thin strips.
Generally, the steel transformer lamination range for 50 Hz varies from 0.25mm to 0.5mm, if it is
a 60 Hz transformer then it ranges from 0.17–0.27mm
26. In the transformer which of the following winding has got more cross-sectional area?
a) Copper winding
b) Steel winding
c) Aluminium winding
d) Iron winding
Answer: a
Explanation: The wire used for carrying current in a transformer winding is either copper or
aluminium. While aluminium wire is lighter and less expensive than copper wire, a larger cross-
sectional area of conductor must be used to carry the same amount of current as with copper.
27. Primary winding of a transformer ______________

a) Is always a high voltage winding
b) Is always a low voltage winding
c) Could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary winding used in a transformer, can be at higher or lower voltage potential,
depending on the number of turns with secondary winding. For step up and step-down
transformers primary winding will be at lower and higher potential respectively.
28. Which winding has more number of turns?

a) Low voltage winding
b) High voltage winding
c) Primary winding
d) Secondary winding
Answer: b
Explanation: High voltage winding always has a large number of turns, as voltage is directly
proportional to the number of turns. If large numbered winding is present on primary side then
the transformer is step down transformer.
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29. Part of the transformer which undergoes most damage from overheating is ___________
a) Iron core
b) Copper winding
c) Winding insulation
d) Frame or case
Answer: c
Explanation: Copper windings carry current through them. The heat loss producing in any
winding carrying current is proportional to the square of the current passing through it multiplied
with resistance. For large transformers, current is very high, so heating causes most of the damage
to insulation material.
30. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in
___________
a) Core
b) Windings
c) Tank
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper windings carry currents in a transformer. The loss in form of heat in copper
winding carrying current is proportional to the square of the current passing through them
multiplied by the resistance of the winding. This loss is dissipated in heat and corresponding
temperature rise.
31. If secondary number of turns are higher then, transformer is called _________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up
c) One-one
d) Autotransformer
Answer: b
Explanation: When secondary number of turns are higher compare to primary, voltage induced
in secondary windings will obviously high. Thus, this transformer is used for stepping up the
output voltage by keeping frequency constant.
32. If primary number of turns are higher then, transformer is called _________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up
c) One-one
d) Autotransformer
Answer: a
Explanation: When primary number of turns are higher compare to secondary, voltage induced
in secondary windings will obviously low compare to primary. Thus, this transformer is used for
stepping down the output voltage by keeping frequency constant.
33. If a transformer is having equal number of turns at primary and secondary then transformer is
called as _______________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up
c) One-one
d) Autotransformer
Answer: c
Explanation: A transformer is having equal number of turns at primary and secondary then
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transformer is called as one-one transformer. This transformer have turns ratio equal to 1, so is
the voltage ratio for the one-one transformer.
34. One to one transformers are used because ______________

a) To isolate any part of circuit electrically
b) To get more voltage at secondary
c) To get less voltage at secondary
d) To reduce losses, present in circuit
Answer: a
Explanation: In one to one transformers, we have same number of turns in primary and in
secondary. So, increasing/ reducing voltage is not possible. They are generally used to isolate one
part of circuit from another part of circuit, electrically.
35. Same type and kind of insulations are not used in all types of transformers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The windings of huge power transformers use conductors with heavier insulation
and are assembled with greater mechanical support and the winding layers are insulated from
each other, this is known as minor insulation for which pressed board or varnished cloth is used.
While for major insulation and insulating cylinders, they are made of specially selected pressed
board or synthetic resin bounded cylinders, is used between LV and core and LV and HV.
36. Sandwiched type of winding is used in ____________

a) In all transformers
b) In core type transformers
c) In shell type transformers
d) In all transformers except shell and core type transformers
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the construction of transformers core type transformers don’t require
sandwiched wiring. While, in the shell type transformer, the primary and secondary windings
pass inside the steel magnetic circuit (core) which forms a shell around the winding.
37. What is the no-load current drawn by transformer?

a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
b) 2 to 5 per cent
c) 12 to 15 per cent
d) 20 to 30 per cent
Answer: b
Explanation: The no load current is about 2-5% of the full load current and it accounts for the
losses in a transformer. These no-load losses include core(iron/fixed) losses, which contains eddy
current losses & hysteresis losses and the copper(I2*R) losses due to the no Load current.
38. Purpose of no-load test on a transformer is ___________

a) Copper loss
b) Magnetising current
c) Magnetising current and loss
d) Efficiency of the transformer
Answer: c
Explanation: No-load current is little bit greater than actual magnetizing current. Total no-load
current supplied from the source has two components, one is magnetizing current which is
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utilized for magnetizing the core and other component is consumed for compensating the core
losses in transformer.
39. No-load current in a transformer ________________

a) Lags behind the voltage by about 75°
b) Leads the voltage by about 75°
c) Lags behind the voltage by about 15°
d) Leads the voltage by about 15°
Answer: a
Explanation: No-load current lags behind the voltage by an angle which is near to 900. Thus,
angle between no-load current and magnetizing current is very small. No-load current has another
component which is in phase with voltage.
40. Which of the following statement is true for no-load current of the transformer?
a) has high magnitude and low power factor
b) has high magnitude and high power factor
c) has small magnitude and high power factor
d) has small magnitude and low power factor
Answer: d
Explanation: Since no-load current lags voltage by the angle of nearly 900, power factor being
equal to cosine of the angle between current and voltage, it will be equal to value which is near to
0. Thus, power factor will be low.
41. In no-load test we keep secondary terminals __________

a) Shorted
b) Shorted via fixed resistor
c) Open
d) Shorted via variable resistors
Answer: c
Explanation: In no-load test, as we don’t require any load, we are not allowed to connect any
resistor (fixed/variable) to the transformer secondary. We don’t short the secondary terminals
either.
42. Maximum value of flux established in a transformer on load is equal to _________

a) E1/ (4.44*f*N1)
b) E1/ (4.44*f*N2)
c) E2/ (4.44*f*N1)
d) Cannot define
Answer: a
Explanation: E1/ (4.44*f*N1). The emf induced in the primary due to applied voltage to primary
winding is equal to change in flux with respect to time multiplied by number of turns in the
primary. So, by solving this equation we get, E1= (4.44*f*φ*N1).
43. Induced emf in the primary of transformer is equal to terminal voltage applied at primary.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Induced emf in the primary is approximately equal to the applied voltage. Ideally
there lies a very small difference in the values, but it is neglected because winding resistance in
the transformer is of very small order.
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44. For a linear B-H relationship, which option is correct?

a) The exciting current is equal to core loss current
b) The exciting current is equal to magnetizing current
c) The exciting current is equal to de-magnetizing current
d) The exciting current is equal to cross-magnetizing current
Answer: b
Explanation: For a linear B-H relationship it is assumed that, there are no losses present in the
core like eddy current losses and hysteresis losses are neglected. Thus, core loss current is equal
to 0, which ultimately confirms exciting current is purely magnetizing one.
45. Third harmonic current in transformer at no-load is ______________

a) 3% of exciting current
b) 10% of exciting current
c) 25% of exciting current
d) 35% of exciting current
Answer: d
Explanation: The effect of saturation nonlinearity is to create a family of odd-harmonic
components in the exciting current, the predominant being the third harmonic; this may constitute
as large as 35–40% of the exciting current.
46. Ii in no-load test is responsible for ______________

a) Production of flux
b) Reactive power drawn from the supply
c) Active power drawn from the supply
d) No significance
Answer: c
Explanation: It will be assumed here that the current Io and its magnetizing component Im and
its core-loss component Ii are sinusoidal on equivalent rms basis. In other words, Im is the
magnetizing current and is responsible for the production of flux, while Ii is the core-loss current
responsible for the active power being drawn from the source to provide the hysteresis and eddy-
current loss.
47. The parallel circuit model is drawn because _________________

a) Conductance Gi accounts for core-loss current
b) Inductive susceptance Bm accounts for magnetizing current
c) Gi for core – loss current and Bm for magnetizing current
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: The parallel circuit model of exciting current can be easily imagined wherein
conductance Gi accounts for core-loss current Ii and inductive susceptance Bm for magnetizing
current Im. Both these currents are drawn at induced emf E1 = V1 for resistance-less, no-leakage
primary coil; even otherwise E1 =V1.
48. A transformer cannot work on the DC supply because __________________

a) There is no need to change the DC voltage
b) A DC circuit has more losses
c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is
zero
Answer: c
Explanation: For DC supply the direction and the magnitude of the supply remains constant,
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produced flux will be constant. Thus, rate of change of flux through the windings will be equal to
zero. As a result, voltage at secondary will always be equal to 0.
49. An ideal transformer has infinite primary and secondary inductances.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary and secondary windings have zero resistance. It means that there is no
ohmic power loss and no resistive voltage drop in the ideal transformer. An actual transformer
has finite but small winding resistances.
50. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is ______________
a) Zero
b) Very small
c) Cannot be predicted
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the primary and secondary windings are not connected to each other, one can
say there exists the resistance of infinite ohms. These windings are connected to each other
magnetically not electrically.
51. Identify the correct statement relating to the ideal transformer.

a) no losses and magnetic leakage
b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no leakage flux so that all the flux is confined to the core and links both
the windings. An actual transformer does have a small amount of leakage flux which can be
accounted in detailed analysis by appropriate circuit modelling.
52. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that _____________
a) copper loss = iron loss
b) copper loss < iron loss
c) copper loss > iron loss
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum efficiency of a transformer is defined at the that values when, copper
losses become completely equal to the iron losses. In all other cases the efficiency will be lower
than the maximum value
53. Which of the following statement regarding an ideal single-phase transformer is incorrect?
Transformer is having a turn ratio of 1: 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V AC supply is
incorrect?
a) It’s a step-up transformer
b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
c) Its rating is 2 kVA
d) Its secondary current is 20 A
Answer: d
Explanation: Since turns ratio is equal to 1:2 the transformer will give higher voltage at
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secondary with respect to the primary voltage, and current in secondary thus will be halved. In
last option current is doubled which is opposite to the ratings given.
54. Ideal transformer core has permeability equal to _____

a) Zero
b) Non-zero finite
c) Negative
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: The core has infinite permeability so that zero magnetizing current is needed to
establish the requisite amount of flux in the core. The core-loss (hysteresis as well as eddy-current
loss) is considered zero.
55. Turns ratio of the transformer is directly proportional to ____________

a) Resistance ratio
b) Currents ratio
c) Voltage ratio
d) Not proportional to any terms
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the voltage expression, emf induced in the primary is directly
proportional to the change in the flux with respect to the time and number of turns of the primary
winding. Similarly, for secondary winding
56. Which of the following statement is correct regarding turns ratio?

a) Current ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other
b) Current ratio is exactly same to the voltage ratio
c) Currents ratio is exactly same to the turns ratio
d) Voltage ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage ratio of transformer winding is exactly similar to the turns ratio of
transformer, while voltage ratio and turns ratio is exactly inverse of the currents ratio. Hence, by
knowing any of these quantities on can identify the type of transformer.
57. Which of the following is the expression for emf induced in primary with voltage applied to
primary of an ideal transformer?
a) e=V
b) V= √2*e*cos ωt
c) e= √2*V*cos ωt
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For an ideal transformer having a primary of N1 turns and a secondary of N2 turns
on a common magnetic core. The voltage of the source to which the primary is connected is v =
√2 V cos wt. while the secondary is initially assumed to be an open circuited. As a consequence,
flux f is established in the core such that e = v = N1 dφ/dt.
58. Which of the following is the wrong expression?

a) i1N1=i2N2
b) i1v1=i2v2
c) i1N2=i2N1
d) v2N1=v1N2
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Answer: c
Explanation: According to the transformation ratio, current flowing through the transformer is
inversely proportional to the number turns of winding and voltage applied across it. While,
voltage applied is directly proportional to the number of turns.
59. For transformer given, turns ratio is equal to a, what will be the impedance of primary with
respect to secondary?
a) a2 times the secondary impedance
b) a times secondary impedance
c) secondary impedance/a
d) secondary impedance/a2
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of impedances on primary to the secondary is directly proportional to the
inverse of square of turns ratio of transformer. Hence primary impedance to the secondary
impedance ratio will be 1/ a2.
60. Power transformed in the ideal transformer with turns ratio a is _______
a) a2 times primary
b) a times primary
c) primary power/ a2
d) primary power
Answer: d
Explanation: In an ideal transformer, voltages are transformed in the direct ratio of turns,
currents in the inverse ratio and impedances in the direct ratio squared; while power and VA
remain unaltered. Thus, primary power= secondary power.
61. For a transformer with primary turns 100, secondary turns 400, if 200 V is applied at primary we
will get ___________
a) 80 V at secondary
b) 800 V at secondary
c) 1600 V at secondary
d) 3200 V at secondary
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage in the primary of the transformer will get modified in the transformer
secondary, according to the number of turns. Thus, turns are modified with 4 times the primary,
we’ll get 4 times higher voltage at secondary.
62. For a transformer with primary turns 400, secondary turns 100, if 20A current is flowing through
primary, we will get ___________
a) 80A at secondary
b) 5A at secondary
c) 800A at secondary
d) 40A at secondary
Answer: a
Explanation: Current in the primary of the transformer will get modified in the transformer
secondary, according to the number of turns, in inverse proportion. Thus, turns are modified with
1/4 times the primary, we’ll get 4 times higher current at secondary.
63. When does transformer breath in?

a) load on it increases
b) load on it decreases
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c) load remains constant

Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer in the low loading condition, also called extreme condition (lower
temperature), oil inside contracts and then air is taken inside thus breath in to main via the balloon
like structure through silica gel breather
64. A transformer transforms ________________

a) voltage
b) current
c) power
d) frequency
Answer: c
Explanation: Since, in a transformer voltage and current is changed according to the number of
turns simultaneously, we call that power is transformed, though the magnitude remains same.
Frequency is kept constant.
65. Greater the secondary leakage flux ___________

a) less will be the secondary induced emf
b) less will be the primary induced emf
c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: Since emf induced in the transformer coils is directly proportional to the change in
the flux with respect to time, we can say that if flux reduces the change in flux after some time
will be less which will induce less voltage in secondary.
66. Which of the following is not the purpose of iron core in a step-up transformer?
a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
c) to decrease the magnitude of magnetizing current
d) to provide all above features
Answer: c
Explanation: In real transformers, the two coils are generally wound onto the same iron core.
The purpose of the iron core is to provide the path for the magnetic flux generated by the current
flowing around the primary coil, so that as much of it as possible also links the secondary coil,
with minimum losses.
67. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

a) Primary side
b) Secondary side
c) Low voltage side
d) Can be connected to any side
Answer: d
Explanation: The turns ratio is different with different tappings and hence different voltages are
obtained with different tappings adjustment. The tappings are placed either on high voltage or
low voltages or sometimes on both high and low voltage windings to get required output.
68. Helical coils can be used at _____________

a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
b) high frequency transformers
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c) high voltage side of small capacity transformer

d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Answer: a
Explanation: Helical winding is used for low voltage and high current winding of large generator
transformers. Due to its distinct design that is spiral form, small number of turns and high current,
some additional eddy-current losses may happen in winding.
69. In real transformer, primary winding has _________

a) Infinite resistance
b) Zero resistance
c) Some finite resistance
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For a real transformer on load, both the primary and secondary have finite
resistances which are uniformly spread throughout the winding. These resistances give rise to
associated copper (I2R) losses.
70. Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are __________
a) Series effects
b) Parallel effects
c) Series-parallel effects
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are series
effects and for low operating frequencies at which the transformers are commonly employed
(power frequency operation is at 50 Hz only), these can be regarded as lumped parameters.
71. To convert an ideal transformer into a practical transformer we add ____________

a) Primary winding resistance and secondary winding resistance
b) Primary winding leakage reactance and secondary winding leakage reactance
c) Primary winding resistance, leakage and secondary winding leakage reactance
Answer: c
Explanation: We consider all resistances i.e. of primary and secondary as series parameters of
equivalent circuit of transformer, while all leakage reactances are also connected into the circuit
as series parameters.
72. Parallel parameters in a transformer equivalent circuit contains ___________

a) Gi and Bm
b) R1 and X1
c) R2 and X2
Answer: a
Explanation: Primary and secondary resistances and leakage reactances are the series parameters
in the transformer equivalent circuit. So, these are not included in parallel parameters. Parallel
parameters contain Gi and Bm in which current Ii and Im flows respectively.
73. When does capacitor is included in equivalent circuit of transformer?

a) Transformer of very high VA rating
b) Transformer with very high frequency operation
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c) Transformer with less VA

d) Never
Answer: b
Explanation: The passive lumped T-circuit representation of a transformer discussed above is
adequate for most power and radio frequency transformers. In transformers operating at higher
frequencies, the interwinding capacitances are often significant and must be included in the
equivalent circuit.
74. The size of a transformer core will depend on _____________

a) frequency
b) area of the core
c) flux density of the core material
d) frequency and area of the core
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the frequency of transformer size of the core of transformer changes.
While area of core also depends upon many parameters like operating voltage, capacity of
transformer, hence all these contribute to the size of the core.
75. A single phase transformer has specifications as 250 KVA, 11000 V/415 V, 50 Hz. What are the
values of primary and secondary currents?
a) Primary current = 602.4A, Secondary current = 22.7A
b) Secondary current = 202.7A, Primary current = 602.4A
c) Primary current = 22.7A, Secondary current = 602.4A
d) Primary current = 11.35A, Secondary current = 301.2A
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary current is defined as the ratio of rated capacity of transformer to the rated
primary voltage of the transformer. Rated primary current= Rated power/voltage=
250000/11000= 22.7 A. Similarly calculating for secondary current gives secondary current =
602.4A.
76. A 25 KVA transformer is constructed to a turns ratio of N1/N2 = 10. The impedance of primary
winding is 3+j5 ohms and of secondary winding is 0.5+j0.8 ohms. What will be the impedance of
transformer when referred to primary?
a) 53j + 85 ohms
b) 53 + 85j ohms
c) 3.5 + 5.8j ohms
d) Can’t be calculated
Answer: b
Explanation: Given turns ratio is 10. Thus, secondary resistance when referred to the primary is
equal to k2*Z2, so net impedance on primary is equal to primary impedance + k^2*Z2 .
Substituting all the terms we get net impedance = 53 + 85j ohms.
77. If R is the resistance of secondary winding of an electrical transformer and K is the

transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be
_________
a) R/VK
b) R/K2
c) R2/K2
d) R2/K
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistances or more precisely impedances are transformed in the ratio of inverse
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square of the transformation ratio or turns ratio. Thus, primary to secondary resistance is equal to
reciprocal of square of turns ratio.
78. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design ________________
a) reduces weight per kVA
b) reduces iron losses
c) reduces copper losses
d) increases part load efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: If a material is having higher flux density it will store and transfer maximum
amount of flux from primary to secondary, which will be very helpful as less core material will be
required and weight per KVA will get reduced.
79. The value of flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer is _______________
a) average value
b) rms value
c) maximum value
d) instantaneous value
Answer: c
Explanation: In the emf equation flux involved is maximum flux. Thus, here we can conclude
that as flux increase/decrease emf at the secondary also increases/decreases. Emf varies according
to the AC wave input.
80. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area?

a) Primary winding
b) Secondary winding
c) Low voltage winding
d) High voltage winding
Answer: d
Explanation: Winding having less cross-sectional area may be primary or secondary winding.
For high voltage winding cross sectional area is less while for low voltage winding cross
sectional are is more, due to inverse proportionality.
81. In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate form is used with ___________
a) π equivalent model
b) T equivalent model
c) π and T equivalent both
d) Another model
Answer: b
Explanation: In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate forms of the exact
T-circuit equivalent of the transformer are commonly used. Thus, we lump all series parameters
of the circuit on either side of T circuit.
82. Exciting current in an electrical transformer will not be affected much if primary is excited with E
rather than V.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since winding resistances and leakage reactances are very small, V1 = E1 even
under conditions of load. Therefore, the exciting current drawn by the magnetizing branch (Gi ||
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Bm) would not be affected significantly by shifting it to the input terminals, i.e. it is now excited
by V1 instead of E1.
83. In approximate equivalent circuit of the transformer _______________

a) All resistances and inductances are lumped before magnetizing branch
b) All resistances and inductances are lumped after magnetizing branch
c) Resistances and inductances aren’t changed
d) Any of the above will work
Answer: b
Explanation: Since Io is very small compare to like about 5-10% of full load current, voltage
drop can be approximated to very large extent. These all resistances and inductances are in series,
combined with each other to give approximate equivalent circuit.
84. Final approximate equivalent circuit contains _________

a) Only equivalent X series branch
b) Only equivalent Z series branch
c) Only equivalent R series branch
d) Any of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: We combine all series parameters of equivalent circuit together to get approximate
equivalent circuit of the transformer, where we assume that equivalent resistance is zero as it is
negligible, and parallel branch is removed.
85. Which of the following is not considered in the standard voltage scale for power supply in India?
a) 11kV
b) 33kV
c) 66kV
d) 122kV
Answer: d
Explanation: All the transformers that are used in power system analysis have their secondary
voltages equal to 11kV, 33kV, 66kV, etc. As this voltage ranges are commonly used in
transmission lines, 122kV is the wrong option.
86. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited because of its ___________
a) temperature rise
b) dielectric strength of oil
c) voltage ratio
d) copper loss
Answer: c
Explanation: One can increase the dielectric strength of oil, by changing the oil. Similarly,
temperature rise and copper losses can also be controlled by using various techniques. The only
thing which is constant is voltage ratio which can’t be altered.
87. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is defined as ratio of _____________

a) primary turns to secondary turns
b) secondary current to primary current
c) secondary induced emf to primary induced emf
d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Answer: c
Explanation: Voltage transformation ratio is equal to secondary induced emf to the primary
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induced emf. While the secondary and primary voltage induced are different from emfs as these
are emf minus the losses in the line.
88. If a transformer is made to run on to a voltage which is more than the rated voltage
_______________
a) its power factor will deteriorate
b) its power factor will increase
c) its power factor will remain unaffected
d) its power factor will be zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Every electric device works in appropriate condition with maximum output and
minimum losses when it is operated at rated conditions. Thus, if transformer is made to run at
higher operating voltage its power factor will deteriorate.
89. Which of the following equation correctly represents the exact phasor diagram of transformer?
a) V1=E1+I1R1+jI1X1
b) V1=E1+I1R1+jI2X2
c) V2=E2+I1R1+jI1X1
d) V1=E1-I1R1+jI1X1
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the primary and secondary equivalent circuits of a transformer
equation stated in option 1 correctly suits with the kirchoff’s voltage law for primary side of a
transformer, similarly equation for secondary side can also be written down.
90. Approximate phasor diagram of a transformer is based on _____________

a) V1=E1+I1R1+jI1X1
b) V2=E2+I2R2+jI2X2
c) V1=V2+IR+jIX
d) V1=E1+I1R1+jI1X2
Answer: c
Explanation: Approximate equivalent circuit of a transformer neglects the middle branch of
transformer equivalent circuit’ which makes transformer circuit even more simpler. Then, all
resistances (though they are negligible) are summed up as R and similarly all reactance as X.
91. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss is directly proportional to __________
a) f and f2
b) f2 and f
c) f and f
d) f2 and f2
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to frequency according to Steinmetz’s
formula. While eddy current losses are directly proportional to square of flux density, thickness,
frequency. Both losses are load independent.
92. What will happen to hysteresis loss if voltage is doubled, load is doubled and frequency is
halved?
a) Will be twice
b) Will be halved
c) Will remain same
d) Will be four times
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Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to voltage and frequency as well. It is load
independent. Thus by doing voltage twice and frequency half of the original value we will get
same hysteresis loss.
93. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, which of the following losses remain constant
irrespective of load changes?
a) Friction and windage losses
b) Copper losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis and eddy current losses together called as core-loss in a transformer.
These losses remain constant for constant voltage and frequency applied to a transformer, these
components remain same irrespective of load.
94. On which of the following degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a
transformer depends?
a) Tightness of clamping
b) Gauge of laminations
c) Size of laminations
d) Tightness of clamping, gauge and size of laminations
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical vibrations produced in a transformer are directly effective due to the
tightness of the clamping, gauge og laminations, size of laminations as well. There are various
methods in order to reduce their effects.
95. Variations in a hysteresis loss in a transformer (Bmax = maximum flux density) ____________
a) Bmax
b) Bmax1.6
c) Bmax3.83
d) Bmax/2
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Steinmetz’s formula, the heat energy dissipated due to hysteresis is
given by Wh=ηβmax1.6, and hysteresis loss is thus given by Ph≈ Whf ≈ηfβmax1.6. That
exponetital term varies fraom 1.4 -1.8 and is equal to 1.6 for iron.
96. Leakage flux in the transformer depends on _____________________

a) Load current
b) Load current and voltage
c) Load current, voltage and frequency
d) Load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Answer: a
Explanation: Leakage flux is directly proportional to the current, as if is current increased net
value of flux increases thus, flux leakage also increases which further contribute to the losses as it
is then not able to link with secondary windings .
97. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be
_______
a) 6400 W
b) 1600 W
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c) 800 W
d) 400 W
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper losses are defined as I2*R losses many times, as they are directly
proportional to the square of current flowing through them. Thus, copper losses will reduce if
load is reduced that too in square proportion.
98. Silicon steel used in laminations, because it reduces ________________

a) Hysteresis loss
b) Eddy current losses
c) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical steels are also known as lamination steel or silicon steel. The main
special thing related to the silicon steel is, its magnetic properties such as small hysteresis area
and hence, small energy dissipation per cycle, thus low core loss.
99. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will ___________
a) Not change
b) Decrease
c) Increase
Answer: c
Explanation: As frequency increases, the flux density in the core decreases but as the iron loss is
directly proportional to the frequency hence effect of increased frequency will be reflected in
increase of the iron losses.
100. Which of the following can measure iron loss of a transformer?

a) Low power factor wattmeter
b) Unity power factor wattmeter
c) Frequency meter
d) Any type of wattmeter
Answer: a
Explanation: As the secondary side is open in OC, the entire coil will be purely inductive in
nature. So, the power will be lagging due to inductive property of the circuit. So LPF (Low power
factor) wattmeter is used in open circuit test of transformer.
101. How reduction in core losses and increase in permeability can be obtained simultaneously
in a transformer?
a) Core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
b) Core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
c) Cannot be determined
d) Frequency Meter
Answer: a
Explanation: CRGO is supplied by the producing mills in coil form and has to be cut into
laminations, which are then used in transformer core, which is an integral part of any transformer.
Grain-oriented steel is used in large power, distribution transformers and in certain audio output
transformers also.
102. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in transformer are
______
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a) Friction and windage losses

b) Magnetic losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
d) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Windage and friction losses occur in rotating parts of a machine generally in rotor
of the machine, thus they will never occur in transformer, as transformer does not contain any
rotating part at its secondary unlike induction motor.
103. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, which losses remain constant
irrespective of load changes?
a) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
b) Friction and windage losses
c) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis and eddy current losses are voltage and frequency dependent losses that
too from primary side thus, load change will not make any effect on these losses and they will
remain constant as long as voltage and frequency is constant.
104. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?
a) Core loss
b) Friction loss
c) Eddy current loss
d) Hysteresis loss
Answer: b
Explanation: Friction losses are involved with rotating parts of a machine. Since in a transformer
all parts are stationary, friction losses will always be equal to zero, irrespective of the loading
condition.
105. A shell-type transformer has __________

a) High eddy current losses
b) Reduced magnetic leakage
c) Negligible hysteresis losses
Answer: b
Explanation: Since windings are brought closer in shell type compare to core type transformer,
leakage of flux is very less in shell type transformer. Most of the flux gets linked with both of the
coils though there is some leakage which can’t be avoided.
106. When will be the efficiency of a transformer maximum?

a) Copper losses = hysteresis losses
b) Hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
c) Eddy current losses = copper losses
d) Copper losses = iron losses
Answer: d
Explanation: When the variable copper losses of a transformer becomes equal to the fixed iron
losses of a transformer then we will get maximum efficiency. From these losses we’ll get the
value of current required
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107. Efficiency of a power transformer is near to the ___________

a) 100 per cent
b) 98 per cent
c) 50 per cent
d) 25 per cent
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the transformer obtained from various experiments conducted on
various loads showed the efficiency greater than 90% always. Transformer thus, can be said
highly efficient device.
108. On which factors transformer routine efficiency depends upon?

a) Supply frequency
b) Load current
c) Power factor of load
d) Load current and power factor of load
Answer: d
Explanation: Efficiency of the transformer can be calculated by the output power divided by
input power. Both of these powers include power factor in their calculations while load current
and load voltage is also required in calculations.
109. Normal transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at ___________

a) Nearly full load
b) 70% full load
c) 50% full load
d) No load
Answer: a
Explanation: Every device is manufactured to get maximum efficiency at the rated loads, i.e. full
load. Thus, transformer will give the maximum efficiency at nearly full load. Internal losses are
so adjusted to get maximum efficiency.
110. At which load condition maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer will be

achieved?
a) At no load
b) At 60% full load
c) At 80% full load
d) At full load
Answer: b
Explanation: The main difference between power transformer and distribution transformer is
distribution transformer is designed for maximum efficiency at 60% to 70% load as these
transformers normally doesn’t operate at full load all the time.
111. Power transformers other than distribution transformers are generally designed to have
maximum efficiency around ______
a) No-load
b) Half-load
c) Near full-load
d) 10% overload
Answer: c
Explanation: Similar to normal transformers power transformers are also designed to get
maximum efficiency at load which is near to the full load of a transformer specified. Only in the
case distribution transformer maximum efficiency is achieved at 60% of full load.
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112. For a transformer given, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will
occur at ______
a) 0.8 leading power factor
b) 0.8 lagging power factor
c) Zero power factor
d) Unity power factor
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum efficiency for a transformer will be achieved at full load. While in the
case of power factor also every device is set to get maximum efficiency at unity power factor.
Thus, one will have maximum efficiency if load is nearly equal to full load and at unity power
factor.
113. Why efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low?

a) Copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
b) Iron loss is increased considerably
c) Voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
d) Secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Answer: a
Explanation: At heavy loads current drawn by the transformer circuit increases, as we know,
variable copper losses are proportional to the square of the current. Thus, we’ll get higher copper
loss in proportion to the output.
114. The efficiencies of transformers compared to electric motors of the same power are
___________
a) About the same
b) Much smaller
c) Much higher
d) Can’t comment
Answer: c
Explanation: Transformer is a highly efficient device compare to all other electrical instruments.
In motor we need to add windage and friction losses along with the copper losses and iron losses
thus, we’ll get lee efficiency for motor compare to transformer.
115. A transformer having maximum efficiency at 75% full load will have ratio of iron loss
and full load copper loss equal to ___________
a) 4/3
b) 3/4
c) 9/16
d) 16/9
Answer: c
Explanation: Condition for maximum efficiency is, Copper loss= Iron loss, i.e. Pc= I2 R = Pi.
transformer can be operated at any load but maximum efficiency occurs at a particular load
condition only. Let x be that load factor corresponds to maximum efficiency. Given that,
maximum efficiency will occur at 3/4 load. The load factor= (3/4)2.
116. What is the correct formula of efficiency of a device?

a) Input /output
b) Output/losses
c) 1- (losses/ (output + losses))
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Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of any device is equal to the ratio of output power to the input power.
Here, one can write input power is equal to the addition of output power with losses. Thus,
expressing all these terms mathematically will give the answer.
117. A 500 kVA transformer is having efficiency of 95% at full load and also at 60% of full
load; both at unity power factor. Then Pi is ___________
a) 16.45 kW
b) 9.87 kW
c) 14.57 kW
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of a transformer is given by, [transformer capacity*loading/
(capacity*loading + Pi + k2*PC)]. Thus, η= 500*1/ (500 + Pi +PC) = 0.95. also from the second
condition given η= 500*0.6/ (500*0.6 + Pi +0.6^2*PC) = 0.95. Thus, solving simultaneously we
get 9.87 kW.
118. A 500 kVA transformer is having efficiency of 95% at full load and also at 60% of full
load; both at unity power factor. Then Pc is ___________
a) 16.45 kW
b) 9.87 kW
c) 14.57 kW
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a transformer is given by, [transformer capacity*loading/
(capacity*loading + Pi + k2*PC)]. Thus, η= 500*1/ (500 + Pi +PC) = 0.95. also from the second
condition given η= 500*0.6/ (500*0.6 + Pi +0.62*PC) = 0.95. Thus, solving simultaneously we
get an answer 16.45 kW.
119. For a power transformer operating at full load it draws voltage and current equal to 200 V
and 100 A respectively at 0.8 pf. Iron and copper losses are equal to 120 kW and 300kW. What is
the efficiency?
a) 86.44%
b) 96.44%
c) 97.44%
d) 99.12%
Answer: c
Explanation: Power output= VI cosθ= 200*100*0.8 = 16000 W (Independent of lag and lead).
While total losses are equal to iron loss+ k2*copper losses =120+ 300= 420 W. Efficiency is
equal to 1- 420/(16000+420)= 97.44%.
120. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is _______
a) 33 kV
b) 66 kV
c) 132 kV
d) 00 kV
Answer: d
Explanation: Transmission voltage in power transfer in India (highest) is 750KV AC and these
lines are erected by Power Grid Corporation for interstate connections throughout India.
However, work on 800KV is in the progress. DC transmission voltage (highest) in India is
600KV.
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121. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at _______

a) Leading power factor
b) Lagging power factor
c) Unity power factor
d) Zero power factor
Answer: a
Explanation: At leading power factor the voltage regulation is given by I*(Rcosφ- Xsinφ). Thus,
at a particular condition of angle φ we may get zero voltage regulation. While in lagging power
factor case we have + sign in the above formula.
122. What will happen to a given transformer if it made to run at its rated voltage but reduced
frequency?
a) Flux density remains unaffected
b) Iron losses are reduced
c) Core flux density is reduced
d) Core flux density is increased
Answer: d
Explanation: E=4.44fNAB is the emf equation for a transformer, now as E is kept constant we
can say frequency is inversely proportional to the B value. Thus, as frequency increases we will
get less core flux density and vice-versa.
123. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from no load to full
load because ___________
a) Value of transformation ratio remains constant
b) Permeability of transformer core remains constant
c) Core flux remains practically constant
d) Primary voltage remains constant
Answer: c
Explanation: The reason behind core-iron loss being constant is that hysteresis loss and eddy
current loss both are dependent on the magnetic properties of the material which is used in the
construction and design of the core of the transformer.
124. Negative voltage regulation indicates ___________

a) Capacitive loading only
b) Inductive loading only
c) Inductive or resistive loading
Answer: a
Explanation: The sign -ve arises in the voltage regulation calculations when, the load connected
to the transformer is leading in the nature. The only condition when we’ll get negative voltage
regulation when second term is higher than first term.
125. When will a transformer have regulation closer to zero?

a) On full-load
b) On overload
c) On leading power factor
d) On zero power factor
Answer: c
Explanation: Since voltage regulation of a transformer in the leading loading condition is not
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additive in nature, at particular power factor in leading we can get zero voltage regulation. While,
in lagging condition we’ll get ultimately non-zero VR.
126. A good voltage regulation of a transformer indicates ______________

a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage regulation is defined as rise in the voltage when the transformer is thrown
off from full load condition to no-load condition. Thus, least voltage regulation means output
fluctuations depending on the load are very less.
127. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning
and switching?
a) Horn gaps
b) Thermal overload relays
c) Breather
d) Conservator
Answer: a
Explanation: Arcing horns in a transformer form a spark gap across the insulator with a lower
breakdown voltage than the air path along the insulator surface, so an overvoltage it will cause
the air to break down and the arc to form between the arcing horns, diverting it away from the
surface of the insulator.
128. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
______________
a) Unity
b) Lagging
c) Leading
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: When the leading load is connected to the transformer difference of Rcosφ and
Xsinφ is multiplied with the current, thus we may get -ve, zero voltage regulations at this
condition. That is minimum voltage regulation
129. Voltage regulation of transformer is given by _____________

a) E2-V2/V2
b) E2-V2/E2
c) V2-E2/E2
d) V2-E2/V2
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage regulation is defined as change in the voltage or rise in voltage when
transformer is load is thrown off. Thus, it is the difference of the no load voltage with the full
load voltage divide by full load voltage to get % increase
130. On which load power factor zero voltage regulation will be achieved?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Leading
d) Lagging
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Answer: c
Explanation: At leading power factor the voltage regulation can be negative or zero. This can be
found from this equation % regulation = εxcosθ – εrsinθ. Bu substituting the appropriate value of
angle one can check this mathematically.
131. A transformer has resistance and reactance in per unit as 0.01 and 0.04 pu respectively.
What will be its voltage regulation for 0.8 power factor lagging and leading?
a) 3.2% and 1.6%
b) 3.2% and -1.6%
c) 1.6% and -3.2%
d) Can’t be defined
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage regulation for lagging power factor = (R cosθ + X sinθ) × 100, Voltage
regulation for 0.8 lagging power factor = (0.01×0.8+0.04×0.6) × 100 = 3.2%. Voltage regulation
for leading power factor = (R cosθ – X sinθ) × 100, Voltage regulation for 0.8 leading power
factor = (0.01×0.8-0.0 4×0.6) × 100 = -1.6%.
132. At which power factor one will get maximum voltage regulation?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Leading
d) Lagging
Answer: d
Explanation: At lagging power factor the voltage regulation is given by I*(Rcosφ+ Xsinφ).
Thus, at a particular condition of angle φ we will get maximum voltage regulation. While in
leading power factor case we have – sign in the above formula.
133. Which is the correct phasor equation indicating the transformer voltages lagging?
a) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ)
b) V2 = V1 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ)
c) V1 = V2 + I*(X cosφ+ X sinφ)
d) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ R sinφ)
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the phasor diagram drawn for lagging current, we will have positive
sign in the voltage regulation formula thus, V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ) gives the correct
relation, while V1 indicates the primary voltage.
134. Which is the correct phasor equation indicating the transformer voltages leading?
a) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ)
b) V2 = V1 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ)
c) V1 = V2 + I*(X cosφ- X sinφ)
d) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- R sinφ)
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the phasor diagram drawn for leading current, we will have negaitive
sign in the voltage regulation formula thus, V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ) gives the correct
relation, while V1 indicates the primary voltage.
135. What is the correct formula to get power factor angle in leading condition?
a) tan φ= X/R
b) tan φ= R/X
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c) cos φ = R/√(R2+X2)
d) cos φ= R/X
Answer: b
Explanation: For leading condition derivative of voltage regulation with respect to φ is obtained
and solved for the power factor angle calculations we’ll get tan φ = R/X for leading condition, for
lagging condition we’ll get tan φ= X/R.
136. What is the correct formula to get power factor angle in lagging condition?
a) sin φ= X/R
b) tan φ= R/X
c) cos φ = R/√(R2+X2)
d) cos φ= R/X
Answer: c
Explanation: For lagging condition derivative of voltage regulation with respect to φ is obtained
and solved for the power factor angle calculations we’ll get tan φ = R/X for leading condition, for
lagging condition we’ll get tan φ= X/R. In terms of cosine function, we’ll get cos φ =
R/√(R2+X2).
137. Zero voltage regulation of a transformer is achieved at 1 pf leading.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Though zero voltage regulation occurs at leading power factor condition, it is not
occurring at unity power factor leading. As at unity power factor leading, cos term will be equal
to 1. Hence, we’ll get some non-zero VR at unity power factor.
138. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two-winding
transformer?
a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
b) Saving in winding material
c) Copper losses are negligible
d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Answer: b
Explanation: Auto transformer is a special type of transformer which has primary and secondary
winding both located on same winding. Thus, winding material required for a transformer is very
less in the case of autotransformer.
139. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
a) Approximately equal to one
b) Less than one
c) Great than one
d) Cannot be found
Answer: a
Explanation: Copper In auto transformer /copper in two-winding transformer = 1- T2/T1. This
means that an auto transformer requires the use of lesser quantity of copper given by the ratio of
turns. Hence, if the transformation ratio is approximately equal to one, then the copper saving is
good and the copper loss is less.
140. Total windings present in a autotransformer are __________

a) 1
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b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Autotransformer is the special transformer for which the single winding acts as a
primary and secondary both. Thus, by taking the appropriate winding into consideration a
variable secondary voltage is obtained.
141. Autotransformers are particularly economical when _________

a) Voltage ratio is less than 2
b) Voltage ratio is very high
c) Voltage ratio is higher than 2 in smaller range
d) Can be used anywhere
Answer: a
Explanation: Autotransformer is economical where the voltage ratio is less than 2 in which case
electrical isolation of the two windings is not essential. The major applications are induction
motor starters, interconnection of HV systems at voltage levels with ratio less than 2, and in
obtaining variable voltage power supplies (low voltage and current levels).
142. Which of the following is not true regarding the autotransformer compare to two-winding
transformer?
a) Lower reactance
b) Lower losses
c) Higher exciting current
d) Better voltage regulation
Answer: c
Explanation: Autotransformer is the advance version of normal transformer. It is having better
voltage regulation, higher efficiency due to lower losses, lower reactance and thus it also requires
very small exciting current.
143. Two-winding transformer of a given VA rating if connected as an autotransformer can

handle ___________
a) Higher VA
b) Lower VA
c) Same VA
d) Cannot be found
Answer: a
Explanation: A two-winding transformer of a given VA rating when connected as an
autotransformer can handle higher VA. This is because in the autotransformer connection part of
the VA is transferred conductively.
144. When auto-transformation ratio becomes equal to 1, which of the following statement is
true?
a) VA rating of the autotransformer becomes far greater than VA rating of two winding
transformer
b) VA rating of the autotransformer becomes far lower than VA rating of two winding
transformer
c) VA rating of the autotransformer becomes equal to VA rating of two winding transformer
d) Can’t comment
Answer: a
Explanation: VA rating of autotransformer is = [1/1-a] * VA of two-winding transformer, thus,
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when a i.e. transformation ratio of autotransformer becomes closer to 1 one gets very high value
of VA rating of an autotransformer.
145. An autotransformer compared to its two-winding counterpart has a higher operating

efficiency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The losses are less in autotransformer compare to two-winding transformer. Thus,
for the given same input to autotransformer as that of two-winding transformer more output will
be available to secondary side.
146. Ratio of winding material needed for autotransformer to thr two winding transformer is
______
a) 1- V2/V1
b) 1- N2/N1
c) 1- V2/V1 and 1- N2/N1
d) 1- V1/V2
Answer: c
Explanation: Gauto/GTW= 1- V2/V1, as voltage is directly proportional to the number of turns we
can say the value is also equal to the 1- N2/N1. Thus, one can write GTW-Gauto = 1/a’ * GTW =
saving of the conductor material using autotransformer.
147. For an auto-transformation ratio tending to the unity value, saving of the conductor
material will be ___________
a) Tend towards 90% or more
b) Tend towards 0%
c) Can’t say
d) Wil remain fix
Answer: a
Explanation: GTW-Gauto = 1/a’ * GTW = saving of the conductor material using autotransformer.
So, if a’=10, saving is only 10% but for a’=1.1, saving is as high as 90%. Hence it is more
economical when the turn-ratio is closer to unity.
148. What are the modes in which power can be transferred in an autotransformer?
a) Conduction
b) Induction
c) Conduction and Induction
d) Cannot be said
Answer: c
Explanation: In two winding transformer there is no electrical connection between primary and
secondary. So, the power is transferred through induction. But in auto-transformer there is a
common electrical path between primary and secondary. So, power is transferred through both
conduction and induction processes.
149. A 100/10, 50 VA double winding transformer is converted to 100/110 V auto

transformer. tWhat will be the rating of auto transformer?
a) 500 VA
b) 550 VA
c) 100 VA
d) 110 VA
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Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary current of the two-winding transformer at rated voltage supply = 50/10=
5A
Thus, autotransformer will also carry the same rated current in secondary giving the power output
as 5*110= 550 VA.
150. For a 20kVA transformer with turn ratio 0.4 what amount of total power is transferred
inductively?
a) 8kVA
b) 12kVA
c) 10kVA
d) 50kVA
Answer: b
Explanation: For an auto transformer power is transferred partially inductively and partially
conductively. Thus, out of total power, power transferred inductively is given by (1-k)*total
power= 0.6*20= 12kVA.
151. For a 20kVA transformer with turn ratio 0.4 what amount of total power is transferred
conductively?
a) 8kVA
b) 12kVA
c) 10kVA
d) 50kVA
Answer: a
Explanation: For an auto transformer power is transferred partially inductively and partially
conductively. Thus, out of total power, power transferred conductively is given by (k)*total
power= 0.4*20= 8kVA.
152. Which type of winding is used in 3-phase shell-type transformer?

a) Circular type
b) Sandwich type
c) Cylindrical type
d) Rectangular type
Answer: b
Explanation: In core type of the transformer, winding is done by normal method, while in the
shell type transformer, winding is sandwiched between corresponding shells of core material.
Hence, it is sandwich type.
153. 3-phase transformers compare to 1-phase transformers ________

a) More economical
b) Easy in construction
c) Easy to construct
d) Easy to handle
Answer: a
Explanation: 3-phase transformers are also used to power large motors and other heavy loads. A
three-wire three-phase circuit is more economical than an equivalent two-wire single-phase
circuit at the same line to ground voltage because it uses less conductor material to transmit a
given amount of electrical power.
154. How 3-phase transformers are constructed?

a) A bank of 3 single phase transformers
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b) A single 3-phase transformer with the primary and secondary of each phase wound on three
legs of a common core
c) Single 3-phase transformer or a bank of 3 1-phase transformers
d) By different method
Answer: c
Explanation: #-phase transformers can be either constructed by 2 methods. One is a bank of 3
single phase transformers and another method is a single 3-phase transformer with the primary
and secondary of each phase wound on three legs of a common core.
155. Three phase transformer compare to a bank of 3 single phase transformers is

____________
a) Cheaper
b) Costlier
c) More in space
d) Can’t be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: 3-phase transformers can be manufactured by 2 methods. The three-phase
transformer unit costs about 15% less than that of a bank and furthermore, the single unit
occupies less space. There is little difference in reliability.
156. In mines we use _______________

a) a single unit of 3-phase transformer
b) a bank of 3 single phase transformers
c) use of 3-phase transformer is avoided
d) a single unit or a bank
Answer: b
Explanation: It is cheaper to carry spare stock of a single-phase rather than a three-phase
transformer. In underground use (mines) a bank of single-phase units may be preferred as it is
easier to transport these units. The bank also offers the advantage of a de-rated open-delta
operation when one single-phase unit becomes inoperative.
157. In three phase bank phases are ___________________

a) the phases are electrically not connected and magnetically independent
b) the phases are electrically not connected and magnetically dependent
c) the phases are electrically connected and magnetically independent
d) the phases are electrically connected and magnetically dependent
Answer: c
Explanation: The 3-phase load bank is constructed by so that all three phases are made to be
connected with together electrically. By the same time these banks form three magnetic circuits
which are independent.
158. Where the tappings are provided in a transformer?

a) At the phase end of LV side
b) At the phase end of HV side
c) At the neutral side end of the HV side
d) At the middle of HV side
Answer: d
Explanation: Tappings are provided in order to maintain the terminal voltage across the loads
within the permissible specified limits with respect to load variations. Tappings can be provided
at phase end or neutral end of HV side. But to maintain magnetic symmetry tappings are
preferred in the middle of the winding only.
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159. Tappings are on _____________

a) LV side of a transformer
b) HV side of transformer
c) Not on any side
d) On both sides
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, tappings are preferred on HV side, because the HV side is low current-
high voltage side, tap changer involves low current interruption and large variations or small
steps are possible due to more no of turns.
160. In core type 3-phase transformer flux path chooses how many paths to return?
a) 2
b) Single
c) 3
d) Many
Answer: a
Explanation: Flux of each limb in core type uses the other two limbs for its return path with the
three-magnetic flux’s in the core generated by the line voltages differing in time-phase by 120
degrees. Thus, the flux in the core remains nearly sinusoidal, producing a sinusoidal secondary
supply voltage.
161. Why shell type 3-phase transformer is used in large power transforming applications?
a) Can be made with more height
b) Can be made with less height
c) More height and less height flexibility
d) Due to other reasons
Answer: b
Explanation: The shell-type five-limb type three-phase transformer construction is heavier and
more expensive to build than the core-type. Five-limb cores are generally used for very large
power transformers as they can be made with reduced height.
162. A three-phase transformer generally has the three magnetic circuits interlaced.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A three-phase transformer generally has the three magnetic circuits which are
interlaced to give a uniform distribution of the dielectric flux between the high and low voltage
windings. The exception is a three-phase shell type transformer. In the shell type of construction,
even though the three cores are together, they are non-interlaced.
163. When does star/star transformers work satisfactorily?

a) Load is unbalanced only
b) Load is balanced only
c) On balanced as well as unbalanced loads
d) Independent of load type
Answer: b
Explanation: With the unbalanced load connected to the neutral, the neutral point shifts thereby
making the three line-to-neutral (i.e. phase) voltages unequal. The effect of unbalanced loads can
be illustrated by placing a single load between phase (or coil) a and the neutral on the secondary
side.
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164. When does delta/star transformer work satisfactorily?

a) Load is balanced only
b) Load is unbalanced only
c) On balanced as well as unbalanced loads
d) Independent of load type
Answer: c
Explanation: Large unbalanced/balanced loads can be handled satisfactory. The Y-D connection
has no problem with third harmonic components due to circulating currents in D(delta). It is also
more stable to unbalanced loads since the D partially redistributes any imbalance that occurs.
165. Scott connections are used in _______________

a) three-phase to single phase transformation
b) three-phase to two-phase transformation
c) single phase to three-phase transformation
d) all phase transformations
Answer: b
Explanation: Scott connections are used to convert three-phase to two-phase conversion, to start
two phase motors and two phase furnaces. It requires two single phase transformers with
adjustable tappings, one transformer is main transformer which is centre tapped through teaser
transformer primary with a suitable number of turns to get a balanced two-phase supply.
166. In a three-phase star – delta transformer, what is the angle difference between primary
and secondary phase voltages?
a) Delta side leads by 300
b) Delta side lags by 300
c) Star side leads by 300
d) Star side lags by 300
Answer: a
Explanation: This is a vector group and has + 30° displacement. Therefore, delta side leads by +
30°. So, it can be stated that delta side is having lead of 300 over star side because of the
connections made.
167. Which can be also called as 00 /1800 connection?

a) Star/star
b) Direct star
c) Delta/star
d) Star/delta
Answer: a
Explanation: Star connection is formed on each side by connecting together phase winding
terminals. The voltages of the corresponding phases (and thus of the corresponding lines) are in
phase. This is known as the 0°-connection. If the winding terminals on secondary side are
reversed, the 180°-connection is obtained.
168. What is the ratio of transformation of star/star connection?

a) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation x:1
b) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation 2x:1
c) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation x/3:1
d) Can’t say
Answer: a
Explanation: The phase transformation ratio is given as x:1, where x simply denotes the turns
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ratio of a transformer given, thus, in the star/star connection we will get the same ratios, as at a
particular point, voltage reading on primary will be proportional to secondary with x.
169. Delta/delta connection is also called as ____________

a) 00-connection
b) 900-connection
c) 1800-connection
d) 00/1800-connection
Answer: d
Explanation: Delta/delta connection is also called as 00-connection as seen from the phasor
diagram that primary and secondary line voltages are in phase with each other. By reversing
connection, we can get 1800 phase shift.
170. What is the ratio of transformation of delta/delta connection?

b) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation 2x:1
c) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation x/3:1
d) Can’t determine
Answer: a
ratio of a transformer given, thus, in the delta/delta connection also similar to the star/star, we will
get the same ratios, as at a particular point, voltage reading on primary will be proportional to
secondary with x.
171. Open delta connection has VA rating of _______________

a) √3 times delta/delta VA rating
b) 1/√3 times delta/delta VA rating
c) 3 times delta/delta VA rating
d) 1/3 times delta/delta VA rating
Answer: b
Explanation: When one of the transformer in delta/delta connection is removed we get open
delta connection. This connection can handle the power of √3VI. While on the similar line
delta/delta connection can handle the power of 3VI.
172. Star/delta connection is also called as ____________

a) 300-connection
b) 00-connection
c) -300-connection
d) 300/-300-connection
Answer: d
Explanation: Star/delta connection is also called as +/-300-connection as seen from the phasor
diagram that primary and secondary line voltages are either ahead or below by 300 phases with
each other. By reversing connection, we can get another condition phase shift.
173. What is the ratio of transformation of star/delta connection?

b) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation √3x:1
c) Phase transformation x:1, line transformation 3x:1
d) Can’t determine with information available
Answer: a
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ratio of a transformer given, thus, in the star/delta connection we will get the √3 factor in ratios,
as at a particular point, voltage reading on primary will be proportional to secondary with √3x.
174. x/√3:1 ratio is obtained in ______________

a) Star/delta
b) Delta/star
c) Delta/delta
d) Star/star
Answer: b
ratio of a transformer given, thus, in the star/delta connection we will get the 1/√3 factor in ratios,
as at a particular point, voltage reading on primary will be proportional to secondary with 1/√3x.
175. Which both connections have the same line transformation ratios?
a) Star/star and delta/delta
b) Star/delta and delta/star
c) Star/zig-zag star and delta/zig-zag star
d) Star/star, delta/delta and star/delta, delta/star
Answer: d
Explanation: Star/star and delta/delta both connections have phase transfer ratio of x:1 and line
transfer ratio also equal to x:1, while star/zig-zag star and delta/zig-zag star connections have line
transformation ratio equal to 2/√3x:1.
176. For very high voltage transformers which connection is cheaper on primary side?
a) Star
b) Delta
c) Open delta
d) Can be star/ delta/ open delta
Answer: a
Explanation: In star connection with earthed neutral, the maximum voltage of the phase winding
to ground is 1/√3 or 58% of the line voltage, while in delta connection this is equal to the line
voltage in case of earthing of one of the lines during a fault. Thus, star on HV side is cheaper.
177. In which of the circuit given positive and negative sequence currents will flow in
primary?
a) Star/delta
b) Star/star
c) Open delta/delta
d) Delta/delta
Answer: d
Explanation: The only positive and negative sequence currents flow in the lines on the delta side.
This could also be achieved by star-connected primary provided the primary and secondary star
points are grounded. But this is not recommended on account of flow of ground current for
unbalanced secondary loads.
178. When star/star connection is used?

a) Small HV
b) Small LV
c) High HV
d) High LV
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Answer: a
Explanation: This case is economical for small HV transformers as it minimizes the turns/phase
and winding insulation. A neutral connection is possible. However, the Y /Y connection is rarely
used because of difficulties associated with the exciting current.
179. When delta/delta connection is used?

a) Small HV
b) Small LV
c) High HV
d) High LV
Answer: d
Explanation: This suits large LV transformers as it needs more turns/phase of smaller section. A
large load unbalance can be tolerated. The absence of a star point may be a disadvantage. This
connection can operate at 58% normal rating as open-delta when one of the transformers of the
bank is removed for repairs or maintenance.
180. For using as a step-up transformer which connection is used?

a) Star/star
b) Delta/delta
c) Delta/star
d) Star/delta
Answer: c
Explanation: This is the most commonly used connection for power systems. At transmission
levels star connection is on the HV side, i.e. D/Y for step-up and Y/D for step-down. The neutral
thus available is used for grounding on the HV side.
181. At distribution level transformer with which connection is used?

a) Star/star
b) Delta/delta
c) Delta/star
d) Star/delta
Answer: c
Explanation: At the distribution level the D/Y transformer is used with star on the LV side
which allows mixed 3-phase and 1-phase loads, while delta allows the flow of circulating current
to compensate for neutral current on the star side.
182. hird-harmonic currents have phase difference of _____________

0
a) 0
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 270
Answer: a
Explanation: The phase difference in third-harmonic currents and voltages on a 3-phase system
is 3 * 120° = 360° or 0° which means that these are cophasal. Therefore, third-harmonic currents
and voltages cannot be present on the lines of a 3-phase system as these do not add up to zero.
183. Core flux in the transformer is _______________

a) sinusoidal
b) flat-topped
c) square wave
d) triangular
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Answer: b
Explanation: The supply voltage provides the input current to the transformer primary, here
primary current is only sinusoidal magnetizing current. Thus, this sinusoidal magnetic current
will produce core flux, flat-topped.
184. In delta/delta connection flux is almost _________________

a) sinusoidal
b) flat-topped
c) triangular
d) square wave
Answer: a
Explanation: The supply voltage provides only sinusoidal magnetizing current so that core flux
is flat-topped; but the third-harmonic emfs induced (cophasal) cause circulating currents in deltas
restoring the flux to almost sinusoidal.
185. Apart from connection which of the following is different in star/delta or delta/star
compare to delta/delta?
a) Flux is flat-topped
b) Impedance offered to third-harmonic currents in delta is less
c) Impedance offered to third-harmonic currents in delta is constant
d) Impedance offered to third-harmonic currents in delta is more
Answer: d
Explanation: Because of one delta connection the same conditions are obtained as in D/D
connection except that the impedance offered to the flow of third-harmonic currents in delta is
now larger and so are third-harmonic voltages.
186. In star/star connection the voltage can be correctly expressed as ____________

a) eaN = ea sin 2ωt + ea3 sin 3ωt
b) eaN = ea sin ωt + ea3sin 3ωt
c) eaN = ea sin 3ωt + ea3sin 3ωt
d) eaN = ea sin 6ωt + ea3sin 3ωt
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of isolated neutrals, third-harmonic voltages are present in each phase
as explained earlier. Further, since these voltages are cophasal, no third-harmonic voltages are
present between lines. The voltage of phase a to neutral can now be expressed as shown in option
b.
187. Rate of change of voltage in star/star connection is ______________

a) ω
b) 2 ω
c) 3 ω
d) Can’t determine
Answer: b
Explanation: While fundamental frequency voltages in the three phases have a relative phase
difference of 120°, the third-harmonic voltages in them are cophasal (with respect to each other),
but their phase with respect to the fundamental frequency (voltage changes at the rate of 2ω,
twice the fundamental frequency).
188. Voltage at the neutral point oscillates at frequency of 2ω, this phenomenon is called as
_________
a) oscillating neutral
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b) doubling voltage
c) doubling current
d) doubling neutral
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage of the neutral point oscillates at frequency 2 ω, phenomenon is known as
oscillating neutral and is highly undesirable because of which the star/star connection with
isolated neutrals is not used in practice. If the neutrals are connected, it effectively separates the
three transformers. Third-harmonic currents can now flow via the neutrals.
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UNIT-4
ELECTRICAL MACHINES
C104.4: Illustrate the working principles of induction motor, synchronous machine as well as
DC machine and employ them in different area of applications
1. Where is field winding mounted in a DC machine?

a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
d) Anywhere on stator or rotor
Answer: a
Explanation: The field winding (concentrated type) is mounted on salient-poles on the stator and the
armature winding (distributed type) is wound in slots on a cylindrical rotor. In AC machines field
winding is mounted on rotor.
2. What are the materials used for brushes in dc machines?

a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
Answer: b
Explanation: On some extent carbon brush can act as a self-lubricating brush. On moment, polishes
the commutator segments. Damage to the commutators is less when copper brushes are used on
occurrence of sparkover.
3. Function of yoke is to provide the return path for magnetic flux.

a) True
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of yoke is that it protects the entire machine from dust and dirt. It also
provides mechanical support for the magnetic poles. It acts as the return path for the magnetic flux.
4. The angle (electrical) made by brushes with axes of adjoining filed poles is ______________
a) 450
b) 1800
c) 900
d) 300
Answer: c
Explanation: Brushes in a DC machine are normally placed electrically in the interpolar regions and
therefore make an angle of 900 electrical with the axes of adjoining filed poles.
5. In a DC machine, rectification process is carried out in order to get unidirectional output (DC). This
rectification process is carried out by ______________
a) Half wave rectifier
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b) Full wave rectifier

c) Mechanical rectification
d) Centre tapped rectifier
Answer: c
Explanation: In a DC machine electronic rectification is not used. Instead they use mechanical
rectification with the help of commutator-brush assembly.
6. Which of the following part is used in construction of DC machine but not in AC machine?
a) Armature Winding
b) Field winding
c) Commutator
d) Shaft
Answer: c
Explanation: Commutator is used in mechanical rectification process, to convert induced AC to
output DC. In AC machine, we don’t need rectification process.
7. In a DC machine fractional pitch winding is used to _______________

a) To improve cooling
b) To reduce sparking
c) To reduce copper losses
d) To increase generated EMF
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to poor performance of brush, poor undercutting of commutator, incorrect spring
pressure sparking at brush faces happen. To overcome this sparking fractional pitch winding is used.
8. In normal dc machines operating at full-load conditions, the most powerful electromagnet is

_________
a) Field winding
b) Interpole Winding
c) Interpole and compensating winding together
d) Armature winding
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnet is more powerful when its MMF is high. At full-load condition, field
winding contains maximum ampere turns, hence it is most powerful electromagnet in a DC machine.
9. If a DC motor is connected to AC supply what will happen then?

a) Not run
b) Burn
c) Run at normal speed
d) Run at extremely low speed
Answer: b
Explanation: If a DC motor is connected to AC supply, an alternating current pass through the
brushes and commutator to the armature winding, while it passes through the commutator it is
converted into DC so that the group of conductors under successive field poles carry current in same
direction. So, the flux per pole will remain constant and not vary. There will be production of heat
due to flow of eddy current in field winding and the motor will be burned.
10. The armature of DC motor is laminated to ____________

a) To reduce mass
b) To reduce hysteresis loss
c) To reduce eddy current loss
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d) To reduce inductance
Answer: c
Explanation: The armature is built up in a cylindrical or drum shape high grade silicon steel in form
of lamination. By using laminations, the circular path of eddy currents is terminated. Hence heating
and ultimately damage to the armature can be reduced by lamination.
11. If the speed of rotation of a separately excited dc machine is halved and the filed strength is also
reduced to half of the original. Then the emf induced in the armature
a) reduces to 1/4th of original
b) reduces to half of original
c) remains same
d) doubles
Answer: a
Explanation: Emf is proportional to speed of rotation and flux.
12. If the speed of rotation for a four pole, 220V dc machine is 1 m/s, flux density as 2T having length of
bore as 0.1m and radius of 0.5m.
The emf induced under pole faces will be
a) 0.2 V
b) 0.1 V
c) 0.2*pi V
d) 220 V
Answer: a
Explanation: E = B*l*v
= 2*0.1*1
= 0.2 Volts.
13. The induced emf in the armature of a 4-pole dc machine is

a) directly proportional to speed and field strength applied to it
b) directly proportional to speed
c) directly proportional to field strength applied to it
d) inversely proportional to speed and inversely proportional to field strength applied to it
Answer: a
14. If the armature current is by mistake increased to 50% for the dc machine,
a) then the induced emf remains unchanged
b) then the induced emf doubles
c) then the induced emf halves
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
15. For a four pole, 16 slot armature with two coil-side/slot having lap connected progressive winding has
single turn coils. The same machine is then wave wound, the emf induced in the lap wound dc
machine to that of wave wound will be
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: b
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Explanation: E=1/(P/2)
=1/(4/2) = 1/2 V.
16. A duplex lap wound armature is used in six pole dc machine with six brush set. The number of
current paths in this machine is
a) 12
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of parallel paths for a lap wound machine is number of parallel paths. As it
is a duplex winding, it will have 6*2 = 12 parallel paths.
17. For a four pole, 16 slot armature with two coil-side/slot having wave connected progressive winding
has single turn coils has simplex winding.
The number of current paths
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of parallel path for a wave wound machine is equal to two.
18. For a four pole, 200 V dc shunt generator having armature resistance of 1 ohms. The current flowing
in the armature is 10 A. What is the back emf generated if the terminal voltage of 220 V supply is
fed?
a) 230 Volts
b) 210 Volts
c) 190 Volts
d) 200 Volts
Answer: a
Explanation: E=V+I*ra
= 220+10*1
=230 Volts.
19. For a 4 pole 200 V, 20 A dc generator running at the rated rpm with no load will be
a) zero no load losses
b) 4000 W no load losses
c) negligible no load losses
Answer: a
Explanation: As there is no load and assuming no armature resistance, the no load losses should
ideally be zero.
20. Which of the following cannot reduce the terminal voltage of a dc shunt generator?
a) Commutation
b) Armature reaction
c) Armature ohmic losses
d) Any of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Commutation ideally does not reduce the terminal voltage of a dc machine. If it takes
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place properly at desired timings, the losses can be avoided. Armature reaction, ohmic losses
contribute to the losses in the terminal voltage.
21. What is the principle of torque production in a dc machine?

a) Lorentz’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Faraday’s law
d) Self inductance
Answer: a
Explanation: Though all the mentioned laws contribute towards the torque generation, but primarily
its the Lorentz’s forces which initiate and define the torque direction.
22. The torque induced beyond the pole shoes in the DC machine is
a) 0
b) 2/pi *phi *i
c) 4/pi *phi *i
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field vanishes at the pole terminals and thus the cross product with the
magnetic field yields zero.
23. The simple rotating loop between pole faces connected to a battery and resistor through a switch, the
specifications of this machine are radius = 0.5m, length 1m, resistance = 0.3 ohms and magnitude
strength = 0.25T is supplied with 120V. Suddenly the switch is closed at t=0, what is observed in the
circuit?
a) Current will flow but zero induced EMF
b) Current will not flow and zero induced EMF
c) Current will not flow but EMF is induced
d) Current will flow and EMF will also be induced
Answer: a
Explanation: Initially the induced emf in the armature is zero. But the current will flow as there is
terminal source voltage.
strength = 0.25T is supplied with 120V. What will be the magnitude of the following current at t=0+?
a) 400A
b) 200A
c) 0
Answer: a
Explanation: I=(V-E)/r
=(120-0)/0.3
=400 A.
25. If the torque induced is zero in the dc machine, it can be said that
a) current is zero
b) flux can be zero
c) current or flux=0
Answer: a
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Explanation: The torque at steady state of operation is zero as the emf induced is equal to the source
voltage. Also the the very much starting the current will be zero which will not let the emf to get
induced.
strength = 0.25T is supplied with 120V. What is the steady state angular velocity at no-load?
a) 480 rad/s
b) 960 rad/s
c) 320 rad/s
d) 490 rad/s
Answer: a
Explanation: v = V/(2*r*l*B)
= 120/(2*0.0005*1*0.25)
= 480 rad/s.
27. If the torque is in the direction of rotation, the DC machine acts as

a) generator
b) motor
c) amplidyne
Answer: a
Explanation: The electromagnetic torque generated in the dc generator is in the direction in which
the prime mover is rotated.It is produced due to the action of armature current and stator field.
28. The cogging torque is absent in the permanent magnet dc machine is due to
a) non-magnetic nature of rotor
b) magnetic nature of rotor
c) absence of ac supply
Answer: a
Explanation: It is due to the fact that no field poles are induced in PMDC to create magnetic flux
leading to harmonics.
29. DC Motor torque depends on

a) geometry
b) magnetic properties
c) any of the mentioned
d) both geometry and magnetic properties of the structure
Answer: d
Explanation: The torque will indeed depend on the geometry as well the magnetic materials used in
the construction of the dc machine. Though this remains constant with the machine.
30. For a universal motor, the rated supply current is 10A giving a rated torque of 100 N-m. If a current
of 5A is applied, what will be generated torque vary to?
a) 250 N-m
b) 400 N-m
c) 500 N-m
d) 1000 N-m
Answer: b
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Explanation: The torque is proportional to the square of the current.

So the new torque will be 100*(2^2)= 400 N-m.
31. Pulsating torque frequency in universal motor

a) 2f
b) f
c) f/2
d) 4f
Answer: a
Explanation: The torque reverses its direction in the negative cycle of the ac supply and thus it
always unidirectional.
32. The velocity of the dc machine at the final state is

a) E/Bl
b) Bl/E
c) EBl
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity at steady state is E/Bl.
33. Inspite of heavy initial investments, dc motors are used due to

a) flexibility and ease of control
b) lower losses
c) improved power factor of the system
Answer: a
Explanation: The control of dc machines is very much simplified when compared to other machines.
So this makes it very useful when compared.
34. Separately excited dc generators are used in

a) Ward leonard system of speed control
b) Hopkinson’s testing
c) Voltage control
Answer: a
Explanation: Separately excited dc generators are used in Ward leonard system of speed control.
35. Maximum torque in dc series motor is limited by

a) commutation
b) heating
c) field control
Answer: a
Explanation: Commutation is the process which reduces the induced emf and so the torque.
36. Hoists, cranes and battery powered vehicles use _________ motors in the locomotive.
a) dc series
b) dc shunt
c) induction
d) reluctance
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Answer: a
Explanation: Hoists, cranes require large starting torque which can be provided by dc series motor.
37. There is an application which required pulsating loads, punch presses. The most preferred machines
would be
a) compound dc machine
b) series dc machine
c) shunt dc machine
Answer: a
Explanation: It is compound machine whose flux can varied higher as well as lower in order to have
variable torques.
38. The manufacturer has mentioned a medium starting torque and 15% speed regulation. The most
appropriate motor for his requirement is
a) dc shunt motor
b) induction motor
c) differential motor
Answer: a
Explanation: The dc shunt motor provides a medium values of the torque.
39. Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use

a) shunt as well as induction motor
b) only shunt motors
c) only induction motor
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use shunt as well as induction motor.
40. Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as over compound
machines because
a) degree of compounding can be adjusted by diverters acrosss series field
b) they have ideally best for HVDC
c) cost effective than shunt
d) zero percent regulation
Answer: a
Explanation: It is usually over compounded so that degree of compounding can be adjusted by
diverters across series field.
41. Which of the following are applied with differential compound motor?
a) Hoist
b) Cranes
c) Drilling machines
Answer: a
Explanation: Practically it is never used as the speed can rise very high.
42. Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as ______
compounded machines.
a) over
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b) under
c) level
Answer: a
Explanation: Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as
over compounded.
43. Long back ago, magnetic casette were in use, having permanent magnet dc motors which had
a) magnets on stator and armature on rotor
b) magnet on rotor and armature on stator
c) electronic commutation
Answer: a
Explanation: PMDC motors have field fixed on the stator and rotor has coils.
44. If a dc shunt motor is stopped by forcing starter handle back to OFF position, then
a) dangerous sparking occurs at last stud
b) dangerous sparking occurs at all stud
c) it stops normally
d) heavy sparking
Answer: a
Explanation: The sparking will occur at the last stud not all the studs of the starter.
45. Interpoles are used to start the dc motor above the base speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpoles do not reduce the flux across the windings, hence the speed does not rise
above base speed.
46. A 200 V dc motor has external resistances of Ra and Rf in armature and field circuits respectively.
The starting current is reduced when
a) Ra is maximum and Rf minimum
b) Rf is maximum and Ra minimum
c) Ra is minimum and Rf minimum
d) Ra is maximum and Rf maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: When Ra is maximum and Rf minimum then the current to the armature is reduced.
And hence the sparkings are reduced while starting.
47. A d.c. generator has been provided tappings on the armature winding at intervals of 120 degrees from
the side of commutator. The connection will be
a) delta connected alternator
b) star connected alternator
c) star connected induction motor
Answer: a
Explanation: Dc generator if has displaced by 120 degrees physically then it will be act as ac
machine.
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48. Mark the correct option which affects the terminal voltage of a dc shunt motor.
a) Armature reaction
b) Source voltage variations
c) Compensating winding
d) Any of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If the dc motor has compensating winding, flux will remain constant regardless of load.
49. For a dc shunt motor of 5 kW, running at 1000 rpm, the induced torque will be
a) 47.76 N
b) 57.76 N
c) 35.76 N
d) 37.76 N
Answer: a
Explanation: Torque = Power/(speed in rev/s)
= 5000/(2*pi*1000/60)
= 47.76 N.
50. The flux and the internally generated voltage of a dc machine is a ________ function of its magneto-
motive force.
a) non-linear
b) linear
c) constant
d) inverse
Answer: a
Explanation: The flux and induced emf are non linear function of its mmf.
51. It is advised not to run dc series motor with no load. Why?

a) Because zero torque at no load will make speed infinite
b) Because zero torque as no load will not let machine start
c) Because infinite torque will be produced
Answer: a
Explanation: If the torque is zero in dc series motor then the speed will be infinite causing the
damage of the machine permanently.
52. It is impossible to start a differential compounded dc motor.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is so because of the unstable speed and torque characteristics. At starting, armature
current and series field current are high. Since the series flux subtracts from shunt flux, series flux
actually reverses the magnetic polarity.This motor will typically be still or turn slowly in wrong
direction while burning up because of excessive current.
53. A student is given a differential compound motor and he has been asked to make it start. How will he
try?
a) By shorting series field at start
b) To run as shunt motor at start
c) By making rated current at start
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Answer: d
Explanation: At starting , the flux should be rated so that there is no abnormal situation arise.
54. For a 100 hp 250 V, compound dc motor with compensating winding has a field current of 5 A to
produce a voltage of 250 V at 1200 rpm. What will be the shunt field current of this machine at no
load?
a) 5 A
b) 5.6 A
c) 4 A
d) 0 A
Answer: a
Explanation: At no load, armature current is zero, so the internal generated voltage is 250 V. So 5 A
will be the shunt field current at no load.
55. A dc shunt motor is connected to the source through 3-point starter. Suddenly if we starter handle is
moved fastly from off to on position, then
a) motor will draw large current
b) motor will not start
c) motor will burn
Answer: d
Explanation: As the starter is placed very rapidly from off to on the resistance seen by the machine
will be very less and it will draw a large starting current.
56. Inspite of heavy initial investments, dc motors are used due to

a) flexibility and ease of control
b) lower losses
c) improved power factor of the system
Answer: a
Explanation: The control of dc machines is very much simplified when compared to other machines.
So this makes it very useful when compared.
57. Separately excited dc generators are used in

a) Ward leonard system of speed control
b) Hopkinson’s testing
c) Voltage control
Answer: a
Explanation: Separately excited dc generators are used in Ward leonard system of speed control.
58. Maximum torque in dc series motor is limited by

a) commutation
b) heating
c) field control
Answer: a
Explanation: Commutation is the process which reduces the induced emf and so the torque.
59. Hoists, cranes and battery powered vehicles use _________ motors in the locomotive.
a) dc series
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b) dc shunt
c) induction
d) reluctance
Answer: a
Explanation: Hoists, cranes require large starting torque which can be provided by dc series motor.
60. There is an application which required pulsating loads, punch presses. The most preferred machines
would be
a) compound dc machine
b) series dc machine
c) shunt dc machine
Answer: a
Explanation: It is compound machine whose flux can varied higher as well as lower in order to have
variable torques.
61. The manufacturer has mentioned a medium starting torque and 15% speed regulation. The most
appropriate motor for his requirement is
a) dc shunt motor
b) induction motor
c) differential motor
Answer: a
Explanation: The dc shunt motor provides a medium values of the torque.
62. Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use

a) shunt as well as induction motor
b) only shunt motors
c) only induction motor
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use shunt as well as induction motor.
63. Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as over compound
machines because
a) degree of compounding can be adjusted by diverters acrosss series field
b) they have ideally best for HVDC
c) cost effective than shunt
d) zero percent regulation
Answer: a
Explanation: It is usually over compounded so that degree of compounding can be adjusted by
diverters across series field.
64. Which of the following are applied with differential compound motor?
a) Hoist
b) Cranes
c) Drilling machines
Answer: a
Explanation: Practically it is never used as the speed can rise very high.
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65. Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as ______
compounded machines.
a) over
b) under
c) level
Answer: a
Explanation: Most commercial compound dc generator are normally supplied by manufacturers as
over compounded.
66. Long back ago, magnetic casette were in use, having permanent magnet dc motors which had
a) magnets on stator and armature on rotor
b) magnet on rotor and armature on stator
c) electronic commutation
Answer: a
Explanation: PMDC motors have field fixed on the stator and rotor has coils.
67. If a dc shunt motor is stopped by forcing starter handle back to OFF position, then
a) dangerous sparking occurs at last stud
b) dangerous sparking occurs at all stud
c) it stops normally
d) heavy sparking
Answer: a
Explanation: The sparking will occur at the last stud not all the studs of the starter.
68. Interpoles are used to start the dc motor above the base speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpoles do not reduce the flux across the windings, hence the speed does not rise
above base speed.
69. A 200 V dc motor has external resistances of Ra and Rf in armature and field circuits respectively.
The starting current is reduced when
a) Ra is maximum and Rf minimum
b) Rf is maximum and Ra minimum
c) Ra is minimum and Rf minimum
d) Ra is maximum and Rf maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: When Ra is maximum and Rf minimum then the current to the armature is reduced.
And hence the sparkings are reduced while starting.
70. A d.c. generator has been provided tappings on the armature winding at intervals of 120 degrees from
the side of commutator. The connection will be
a) delta connected alternator
b) star connected alternator
c) star connected induction motor
Answer: a
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Explanation: Dc generator if has displaced by 120 degrees physically then it will be act as ac
machine.
71. The rotor of a three phase induction motor can never attain synchronous speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Because then there will be no torque developed and flux cutting.
72. The direction of rmf when a single phase supply is given to stator of three phase induction motor is
a) zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: a
Explanation: There will be no rmf generated as a single phase is only fed to the three phase of
induction motor.
73. The direction of rmf when a three phase supply is given to stator of three phase induction motor is
a) zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: b
Explanation: There will be rotating magnetic field will be produced causing the emf to be induced
and the current will flow in the rotor at a speed of synchronous speed.
74. Two three phase induction motors A and B are identical in all respects except that motor A has a
larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have more no load current?
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: a
Explanation: As the air gap of motor A is more, it will require more flux to excitation and so the no
load current.
larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have poorer power factor?
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to larger air gap of motor A, it will need more of exciting current. So the no load
angle will increase and power factor will deteriorate.
larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have better full-load power factor?
a) A
b) B
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c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: b
Explanation: At full load conditions, the excitation current is not very high and so the power factor
improves.
77. A three phase induction motor is sometimes calles a generalized transformer in so far as voltage and
frequency transformation has been concerned. How a three phase induction motor operates when
rotor frequency is equal to stator frequency?
a) It will not operate
b) It will operate as induction motor only
c) It will operate as induction generator
d) It will operate in braking mode
Answer: a
Explanation: As the rotor and stator frequencies are equal, there will be no slip and so the zero emf
will be produced.
78. A three phase induction motor is sometimes called a generalized transformer in so far as voltage and
rotor frequency is greater than stator frequency?
a) Rotor will be driven against rmf
b) Rotor will be driven in direction of rmf
c) No emf will be induced
d) The losses will be maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: As the rotor rotates at larger speed than the stator, the rmf speed is less than the rotor
speed and it tries to rotate in the opposite direction to rmf.
rotor frequency is less than stator frequency?
a) It operates as induction motor
b) Emf is induced in rotor
c) Rmf will rotate at synchronous speed
Answer: d
Explanation: It will operate as induction motor.
frequency transformation has been concerned. Then the rotor emf E2 and the rotor current I2 are zero
at
a) Ns
b) 2Ns
c) zero
d) slip of 50%
Answer: a
Explanation: The rotor emf and current are zero at the speed of synchronous speed of the machine.
81. During no load test the wattmeter reading will be

I. stator copper loss
II. stator core loss
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III. rotor core loss

IV. friction and windage losses
V. Rotor copper loss
a) I, II, IV
b) II,III,IV
c) I, III, II, IV
d) II,IV
Answer: a
Explanation: Blocked rotor test will give stator losses and the friction and windage losses.
82. If use auto transformer method starting to start an induction motor to replace star-delta method, then
the required tapping on the transformer will be
a) 57.73%
b) 86.7%
c) 57%
d) 66.66%
Answer: a
Explanation: k = 1/1.73 = 57.73%.
83. During the blocked rotor test the wattmeter reading will be
I. stator copper loss
II. stator core loss
III. rotor core loss
IV. friction and windage losses
V. Rotor copper loss
a) I, V
b) II,III,IV
c) I, III, II, IV
d) II,IV
Answer: a
Explanation: Blocked rotor test will account for copper losses.
84. The starting method for a 3-phase squirrel-cage induction motor which is inferior in view of poor
starting torque per ampere of line current drawn,
a) series-inductor method of starting
b) direct-on-line starting
c) auto-transformer method
d) star-delta method
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to inductor method, reactance increases and the starting torque decreases.
85. Reactor method of starting is preferred over resistance method because

I. power factor improves
II. increase starting torque
III. lower losses
IV. more effective in reducing voltage
a) III,IV
b) I,II,III
c) II,III,IV
d) I,II
Answer: a
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Explanation: By reactor method of starting, losses will be lesser and voltage reduction is effective
than resistance method of starting.
86. Slip is defined as (Ns as the synchronous speed and Nr is the rotor speed)
a) Ns-Nr/Ns
b) Ns-Nr/Nr
c) Nr-Ns/Ns
d) Ns-Nr
Answer: a
Explanation: Slip is the ratio of the relative speed of between the stator mmf and the rotor speed to
the synchronous speed of the machine.
87. For a 4 pole three phase induction motor having synchronous speed of 1500 rpm is operating at
1450rpm. The frequency of the induced emf in rotor is
a) 100 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 150 Hz
d) 0 Hz
Answer: a
Explanation: The induced frequency will be f = P(Ns-Nr)/2.
f = 4(1500-1450)/2 = 100 Hz.
88. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. The number of poles of this
motor is
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: P = 120f/N = 120*50/1440 = 4(1/6). The number of the poles should be whole number
and must be even. So number of poles must be 4.
89. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. The full load slip will be
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 2.4%
d) 3%
Answer: a
Explanation: s=1500-1440/1500 = 4%
90. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. Rotor frequency is
a) 2 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 52 Hz
d) 58 Hz
Answer: a
Explanation: s=0.04, rotor frequency = s*f = 0.04*50 = 2 Hz.
91. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. Speed of the stator filed
with respect to stator structure is
a) 157 rad/s
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b) 150 rad/s
c) 6.28 rad/s
d) 145 rad/s
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed of the stator filed with respect to stator structure = Ns = 1500 rpm = 157 rad/s
92. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. Speed of the stator field
revolving rotor structure is
a) 157 rad/s
b) 150 rad/s
c) 6.28 rad/s
d) 145 rad/s
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the stator field revolving rotor structure = 1550-1440 = 60 rpm = 6.28 rad/s
93. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. Speed of the rotor field w.r.t.
rotor structure is
a) 157 rad/s
b) 150 rad/s
c) 6.28 rad/s
d) 145 rad/s
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the rotor field w.r.t. rotor structure = 120*rotor frequency/Poles = 120*2/4 =
60 rpm = 6.28 rad/s
94. A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. Speed of the rotor field w.r.t.
stator field is
a) zero
b) 150 rad/s
c) 6.28 rad/s
d) 145 rad/s
Answer: a
Explanation: As both the rotor field and stator file rotate at synchronous speed, the relative speed
between them is zero.
95. A properly shunted center zero galvanometer is connected in the rotor circuit of a 6-pole, 50 hz
wound rotor induction motor. If the makes 90 complete oscillations in one minute, the rotor speed is
a) 1000 rpm
b) 970 rpm
c) 950 rpm
d) 930 rpm
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotor frequency = s*f1 = 90/60 = 1.5 Hz.
s = 1.5/50 = 0.03
rotor speed = 1000(1-0.03) = 970 rpm.
96. A 4-pole, 3-phase slip ring induction motor is used as a frequency changer. Its stator is excited from
3-phase, 50 Hz supply. A load requiring 3-phase, 20 Hz supply is connected to the star-connected
rotor through three slip-rings of SRIM.
At what two speeds the prime mover should drive the rotor of this SRIM?
a) 900 rpm
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b) 600 rpm
c) 1500 rpm
d) 0
Answer: a
Explanation: Ns = 1500 rpm. Speed of the rotor field with respect to rotor structure = 120 * f2/P =
120*20/4 = 600 rpm
Nr = 1500-600
= 900 rpm.
97. For a 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor the rotor speed found is 2100 rpm at 50 Hz. Then the phase
sequence of the emf generated will be
a) acb
b) abc
c) no emf will be induced
d) cba
Answer: a
Explanation: Stator field will be running at the speed of 600 rpm anticlockwise wrt to rotor. So the
phase sequence generated at the slip rings is reversed.
98. Stator flux induces emf in the rotor conductors

a) magnitude depending on the load
b) rotating at synchronous speed around stator
c) constant in magnitude
Answer: a
Explanation: The emf will be induced based on the slip which depends on the load connected to the
rotor.
99. The 3-phase induction motor with rotor circuit open will
a) not run
b) run normally
c) get over heated
d) make noise
Answer: a
Explanation: It will not run because there will not be any closed path for the flux in rotor circuit of
the machine to generate emf.
100. The rotor of th 3-phase induction motor rotates in the same direction as that of stator field. This
can be explained by
a) Newton’s laws of motion
b) Farady’s laws of electromagnetic induction
c) Lenz’s law
d) Fleming’s right hand rule
Answer: a
Explanation: Newtons’s law explains the over all behaviour of the inertia involved in the machine
and a unidirectional torque generated.
101. In a three phase slip ring induction motor, brushes are connected to
a) external star connected resistors
b) dc supply
c) 3-phase ac supply
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Answer: a
Explanation: The rotor external resistances must e connected in star and at the external end of the
rotor.
102. The rotor winding for 3-phase slip ring induction motor having delta connected stator must be
connected in
a) star
b) delta
c) tertiary
Answer: a
Explanation: We should use star connected resistors as the initial requirement is low resistance for
high starting torque.
103. The squirrel cage induction motor of 6-pole can be used as ________ induction motor.
a) any number of poles
b) 6 pole
c) 6 or 12 pole
d) integral number of 4 poles
Answer: a
Explanation: The poles in a squirrel cage induction motor can be adjusted.
104. Rotor leakage reactance for a three phase slip ring induction motor with slip ‘s’ is
a) s(x2)
b) (x2)/s
c) x2
d) (x2)(s2)
Answer: a
Explanation: It is s*x2.
105. In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to an integral multiple of rotor
slots
a) machine will fail to start
b) machine will get heated
c) high starting torque will be achieved
d) discontinuity in torque slip characteristic
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine fails to start as the stator slots and rotor slots become equal.
106. Two of the supply terminals to a three phase induction motor gets interchanges while regular
scheduling work. When the machine is switched on, then it will
a) rotate in opposite direction
b) rotate in same direction
c) not start
d) get heated and winding will burn
Answer: a
Explanation: As the supply phase sequence is reversed, the machine’s developed emf will also be
reversed.
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107. The rotor of the induction motor must never run at synchronous speed because then the relative
speed between the rotating flux and rotor will be
a) zero and hence torque will be zero
b) zero, and torque will be maximum
c) maximum and hence, torque will be zero
d) maximum, and torque will also be zero
Answer: a
Explanation: At synchronous speed the slip will be zero and so the torque.
108. The voltage actually used to set up the working flux in the three phase induction motor is
a) equal to applied voltage
b) less than applied voltage
c) more than applied voltage
d) equal to rotor induced emf.
Answer: a
Explanation: The actual working flux requirement is met by the applied voltage and it is same as the
applied voltage to it.
109. If the three phase supply is fed to the stator and it is running at its normal operating conditions.
Then the synchronous speed can be defined as speed at which
a) stator magnetic field rotates
b) rotor magnetic field rotates
c) rotor rotates
d) flux is set up in the rotor
Answer: a
Explanation: If it is fed from stator then the synchronous speed is also w.r.t. stator.
110. If the three phase supply is fed to the rotor and it is running at its normal operating conditions.
Then the synchronous speed can be defined as speed at which
a) stator magnetic field rotates
b) rotor magnetic field rotates
c) rotor rotates
d) flux is set up in the rotor
Answer: b
Explanation: If it is fed from rotor then the synchronous speed is also w.r.t. rotor.
111. The mmf produced by the current of the three phase induction motor
a) is standstill with respect to stator mmf
b) rotates at the speed of rotor in air gap
c) rotates at slip speed with respect to stator mmf
d) rotates at synchronous speed with respect to rotor
Answer: a
Explanation: The mmf produced will also be at synchronous speed and it will be stationary with
respect to stator mmf which itself rotates at synchronous speed.
112. In an induction motor slip will be negative when

a) rotor rotates at speed more than synchronous speed and in the direction of the rotation of stator
field
b) stator magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
c) rotor rotates at speed less than synchronous speed and in the opposite direction of the rotation of
stator field
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d) rotor rotates at speed more than synchronous speed and in the opposite direction of the rotation of
stator field
Answer: a
Explanation: s = (Ns-Nr)/Ns; Slip is negative when rotor rotates at speed more than synchronous
speed and in the direction of the rotation of stator field.
113. A 3-phase induction motor is operating at slip ‘s’. If the slip is reversed, its slip at the instant will
be
a) 2-s
b) zero
c) 2+s
d) 1-s
Answer: a
Explanation: For the reversed phase sequence the slip becomes 2-s.
114. In a three phase induction motor, voltage between the slip rings at standstill is 50 V. At full load
the slip is 0.04. The voltage between slip rings at full load is
a) 2V
b) 50V
c) 20V
d) 5V
Answer: a
Explanation: E2 = s*E = 0.04*50 = 2V.
115. A three phase induction motor is connected to 400V, 50 hz supply. If the stator to rotor turn ratio
is 2, the standstill rotor induced voltage per phase is
a) 115.5 V
b) 231 V
c) 346 V
d) 200 V
Answer: a
Explanation: Emf at secondary per phase = (400/1.73)/2 = 115.47 V.
116. The torque developed in the three phase induction motor depends on
(i) standstill rotor phase emf
(ii) rotor power factor
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) both (i) and (ii)
Answer: c
Explanation: The electromagnetic torque developed in the ac machine depends on the rotor emf and
the power factor.
117. If a 400 V, 50 hz star connected, 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is operated from 400V
and 75 Hz supply. The torque that the motor can now provide while drawing rated current from the
supply will
a) reduce
b) increase
c) remains same
d) increases or reduces based on the rotor resistance.
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Answer: a
Explanation: The reactance will increase and so the torque will decrease.
118. For a constant load torque, the supply voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced by a
factor of 0.5, its rotor current is modified by a factor
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 4
d) 0.25
Answer: a
Explanation: For constant torque the product of emf and current should be constant.
119. A 10 kW, 400 V, 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor develops the rated output at rated
voltage with its slip rings shorted.
The maximum torque equal to twice the full load torque occurs at the slip of 10% with zero external
resistance in the rotor circuit.
The slip at the full load torque will be
a) 2.7%
b) 5%
c) 3.7%
d) 10%
Answer: a
Explanation: Tfl/Tem = 2/((sm/sf)+ (sf/sm))
1/2 = 2/((0.1/sf)+(sf/0.1))
s^2-0.4s+0.01=0
s=0.0268.
The maximum torque is twice the full load torque occurs at the slip of 10% with zero external
The speed at the full load torque will be
a) 1460 rpm
b) 1400 rpm
c) 1360 rpm
d) 1470 rpm
Answer: a
Explanation: 1/2 = 2/((0.1/sf)+(sf/0.1))
s=2.68%
rotor speed = (1-0.0268)=1460rpm.
The maximum torque is twice the full load torque occurs at the slip of 10% with zero external
An external resistance is now tripled in the rotor circuit. Then the slip at which maximum torque
occur for the same load torque is
a) 0.3
b) 0.268
c) 0.03
d) 3
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Answer: a
Explanation: The load torque is maintained constant.
So, r2/smT = X;
r2/x = 0.1
new value of slip will be, 3*r2/x=0.1
smT = 0.3.
voltage with its slip rings shorted. The maximum torque is twice the full load torque occurs at the slip
of 10% with zero external resistance in the rotor circuit. An external resistance is now tripled in the
rotor circuit. Then the stator current will
a) remain constant
b) increase
c) decrease
Answer: a
Explanation: As the ratio of r2/s is constant, the changes will not be reflected to the stator.
123. Introducing the external resistance increases

(i) speed
(ii) output power
(iii) starting torque
a) (iii)
b) (ii),(iii)
c) (ii)
d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer: a
Explanation: External resistance only increases the starting torque.
124. Introducing the external resistance decreases

(i) speed
(ii) output power
(iii) starting torque
a) (iii)
b) (ii),(iii)
c) (i),(ii)
d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed and the output power decrease with insertion of the external resistance in the
circuit.
125. For a three phase induction motor, maximum torque is double the full load torque and starting
torque is 1.6 times the full load torque.
To get a full load slip of 5%, percentage reduction in the rotor resistance should be
a) 62.7%
b) 75%
c) 60%
d) 35%
Answer: a
Explanation: Slip at which maxim torque occurs is calculated as smT=0.5.
r2/x2=0.5
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for full load slip of 0.05, 1/2 = 2/((0.05/sf)+(sf/0.05))

smT2 = 0.186
reduction in resistance = (0.5×2-0.186×2)/0.5×2 = 63%.
126. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 6-pole induction motor has a shaft output of 10kW at 930 rpm. Friction and
windage losses is 1% of the output.Total stator losses is 600W.
The rotor input is
a) 10860 W
b) 10100 W
c) 11460 W
d) 11000 W
Answer: a
Explanation: Full load slip = 1000-930/1000 = 0.07.
Friction losses = 0.01*10000 = 100 W
Pm = 10000+100 = 10100 W
Rotor input = 10100/0.93 = 108060 W
127. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 6-pole induction motor has a shaft output of 10kW at 930 rpm. Friction and
windage losses is 1% of the output.Total stator losses is 600W.
The rotor input is
a) 10860 W
b) 10100 W
c) 11460 W
d) 11000 W
Answer: c
Explanation: Full load slip = 1000-930/1000 = 0.07.
Friction losses = 0.01*10000 = 100 W
Pm = 10000+100 = 10100 W
Rotor input = 10100/0.93 = 108060 W
Stator input = Pg+600 = 11460 W
128. Wound rotor induction motor is most appropriate for the applications requiring
a) high starting torque
b) variable starting torque
c) fixed starting torque
Answer: b
Explanation: A wound rotor induction motor can have variable starting torque.
129. Relatively a squirrel-cage induction motor is advantageous over wound rotor type induction
motor of identical rating due to
a) less conductor material used.
b) lower leakage flux
c) ruggedness
Answer: d
Explanation: A squirrel-cage induction motor is more efficient than a wound rotor induction motor.
130. Relatively a squirrel-cage induction motor is advantageous over wound rotor type induction
motor of identical rating due to
a) less conductor material used
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b) larger leakage flux

c) large starting torque
Answer: a
Explanation: Squirrel cage induction motor has lesser starting torque.
131. We can not operate a cage induction motor on a variable frequency load due to
a) no availability of varying the speed
b) availability of variable speed
c) low starting torque
d) fixed slip
Answer: a
Explanation: We can not increase or decrease the rotor resistance of a cage induction motor, hence it
is not suitable for a variable frequency.
132. Speed control is possible for _______ and not possible for __________
a) induction motor, synchronous motor
b) induction motor, differential motor
c) synchronous motor, synchronous-induction motor
d) dc motor, induction motor
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed can be adjusted for a induction motor while it can not be altered for a
synchronous motor operating at normal speed.
133. Which of the following can be done using a synchronous motor but not by induction motor?
a) Power factor improvement
b) Supplying mechanical load
c) Power factor improvement and supply mechanical load
Answer: a
Explanation: Induction motor is a singly excited machine and it always needs exciting current to set
up the flux in the machine.
134. The torque in an induction motor varies as ______ and in synchronous motor as _________
a) square of voltage, proportion to voltage
b) proportion to voltage, proportion to voltage
c) proportion to voltage, square of voltage
d) square of voltage, square of voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: Torque in induction motor varies as square of the voltage and in synchronous motor as
linear to voltage.
135. If a 3-phase 350V, 50Hz squirrel-cage induction motor is run at 55 Hz supply,then

A. Starting torque will increase
B. Maximum torque will increase
C. Maximum torque will remain same
D. Starting torque will decrease
E. Operating speed will rise
a) C, D, E
b) A, C, E
c) A, B
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d) E
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency is increased, so the starting torque will decrease. Speed will increase as slip
will reduce.
136. When a 3-phase 350V, 50Hz squirrel-cage induction motor is run at 35 Hz supply,then
A. Starting torque will increase
B. Maximum torque will increase
C. Maximum torque will remain same
D. Starting torque will decrease
E. Operating speed will rise
a) A, C
b) A, B, E
c) A, B
d) C, D, E
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency is decreased so the slip increases. Starting torque will increase and the
maximum torque will remain same.
137. Reducing the poles of a 3-phase induction motor, it

a) will decrease maximum power factor
b) will increase maximum power factor
c) will make no change in power factor
d) can not be depicted
Answer: a
Explanation: If number of poles reduces, speed increases, slip decreases, reactance increases, power
factor angle increases and so the power factor decreases.
138. When the poles of a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor increased, it
a) will decrease maximum power factor
b) will increase maximum power factor
c) will make no change in power factor
d) can not be depicted
Answer: b
Explanation: If number of poles increases, speed decreases, slip increases, reactance decreases,
power factor angle decreases and so the power factor increases.
139. A 3-phase induction motor taking a line current of 200 A, is started by direct switching. If an auto
transformer of with 50% tapping is
made to be used, the motor line current and supply line current will be respectively
a) 100, 50
b) 50, 100
c) 50, 200
d) 50*1.73, 200
Answer: a
Explanation: The motor line current will reduce by a fold of four times and the line current by half.
140. A 3-phase induction motor is running for a constant load torque at rated voltage and frequency. If
both the frequency and voltage are halved
following will be the related statements ignoring the stator losses.
A. The difference between actual speed and synchronous speed remains same.
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B. Per unit slip remains same

C. Stator current remains same
D. Air gap flux remains same
a) A, C, D
b) A, B, C, D
c) B, C, D
d) C, D
Answer: a
Explanation: Per unit slip varies as the reactance will change as the frequency has been halved.
B. Per unit slip remains same
C. Stator current increases
a) A, D
b) A, C, D
c) B, C, D
d) C, D
Answer: a
Explanation: Stator current will remain same and pu slip varies.
B. Per unit slip remains varies
C. Stator current remains same
a) A, C, D
b) A, B, C, D
c) B, C, D
d) C, D
Answer: b
Explanation: Slip varies, stator current remains same as the net impedance is same.
143. No load test has been conducted on an induction motor for different supply voltages and input
power vs voltage plot has been drawn.
The curve is extrapolated to intersect the y-axis. This point is
a) friction and windage losses
b) core losses
c) stray losses
Answer: a
Explanation: The extrapolated point is friction and windage losses of the induction machine.
144. One of the most prominent component of base loads is

a) synchronous generator
b) induction generator
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c) dc series generator
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous machines are the main generating section of the power plants.
145. ______ alternator is used in thermal stations and ______ alternator is used in hydel plants.
a) Cylindrical-rotor, salient pole
b) Salinet pole, cylindrical-rotor
c) Salient pole, Reluctance
d) Cylindrical-rotor, cylindrical-rotor
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to salient poles, the machine will not run at very large speed and it becomes less
rugged.
146. Synchronous compensators are mainly employed for

a) compensating reactive power
b) compensating real power
c) improving power factor
d) compensating field flux
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous compensator is a source for the reactive power.
147. We prefer induction motor over synchronous motor due to

a) no requirement of dc supply
b) starting problems
c) sensitive to environment
Answer: a
Explanation: All the listed factors are disadvantages for using a synchronous motor.
148. The condition which allows the torques to be taken care for choosing a synchronous motor is/are
a) starting torque
b) pull-in torque
c) pull-out torque
Answer: d
Explanation: All the performance torques are needed to know before using any synchronous motor.
149. A synchronous machine with its field winding on stator and polyphase armature winding on
rotor. At steady state, its air gap field is
a) stationary w.r.t. stator
b) rotating at double the speed Ns w.r.t. rotor
c) rotating in direction opposite to rotor
Answer: d
Explanation: All are correct.
150. A synchronous machine with its field winding on rotor and polyphase armature winding on stator.
At steady state running condition, its air gap field is
a) stationary w.r.t. stator
b) rotating at double the Ns w.r.t. rotor
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c) rotating at -Ns w.r.t. rotor

d) stationary w.r.t. rotor.
Answer: d
Explanation: As the field is on rotor itself, the sir gap will be stationary w.r.t. rotor.
151. Choose the appropriate

The synchronous generators used in the thermal power stations have
(i) cylindrical rotor
(ii)slip rings and brushes
(iii)laminated rotor
(iv)stator slots in the multiple of 6
(v)salient rotor
a) (i),(ii),(iv)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii)
d) (ii),(iii),(iv),(v)
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal plants use cylindrical rotor synchronous machines.
152. The practical speed ranges for the thermal, nuclear and hydel power plants is (in rpm)
a) 3000,3000,300
b) 3000,300,300
c) 1500,1500,3000
d) 1000,500,3000
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal and nuclear power plants have high speed requirements and hydel power
plants have salient pole generators so the speed is also less.
153. Synchronous motor has been preferred for driving the loads requiring high power at low speeds.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous motor acts a capacitor when operated at leading p.f. with no load.
154. The zero power characteristics used in the Potier plot can be obtained by loading the alternator
using
a) synchronous motor
b) lamp load
c) dc motor
d) induction motor
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain mmf and emf drops the loading is done as a synchronous motor.
155. Below are the statements about cylindrical rotor alternator.

A. E.m.f. generated by armature reaction lags armature current by 90°.
B. Air gap voltage leads the field flux by 90°
a) Only A is true
b) Only B is true
c) A is true, B is false
d) A and B both are true
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Answer: d
Explanation: Both the statements are right.
156. Out of the given statements about the cylindrical rotor alternator, mark the correct
A. Air gap voltage lags the field flux by 90°
B. Armature reaction mmf lags the field flux by (90°+ internal p.f. angle)
a) A is false, B is true
b) Only A is true
c) Only B is true
d) Both A and B are true
Answer: a
Explanation: Air gap voltage will lead the field flux by 90° in a cylindrical-rotor alternator.
157. The power factor of an alternator under short circuit condition will be almost near
a) zero lagging
b) zero leading
c) unity
d) depends on the type of the alternator
Answer: a
Explanation: During short circuit condition, the magnetizing current flows to provide the core losses
compensation. So the pf is slightly zpf lagging.
158. In a 3-phase cylindrical rotor alternator

a) field mmf leads air gap flux, air gap flux leads armature flux
b) field mmf leads air gap flux, air gap flux lags armature flux
c) armature mmf leads air gap flux and air gap flux leads field flux
d) armature mmf leads air gap flux and air gap flux lags field flux
Answer: a
Explanation: Check the phasor diagram.
159. What is the special feature of single phase induction motor?

a) high starting torque
b) low starting torque
c) average starting torque
d) zero starting torque
Answer: d
Explanation: The single phase induction motor has no inherent starting torque. Thus special means
should be used to make it self starting.
160. How many methods are present in the self starting of the single phase induction motor?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 3 methods involved in the self starting of the single phase induction motor.
They are split phase starting, shaded pole starting, repulsion motor starting.
161. What are the names of the windings used in the split phase starting?
a) starting windings
b) auxiliary windings
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c) starting or auxiliary windings

d) starting and auxiliary windings
Answer: c
Explanation: The single phase induction motor is not self starting. The starting or auxiliary windings
are used along with the running or main windings.
162. What is the displacement of the running and the starting windings used?
a) running winding displaces the starting winding by 1800
b) running winding displaces the starting winding by 900
c) starting winding displaces the running winding by 900
d) starting winding displaces the running winding by 1800
Answer: b
Explanation: The split phase starting makes use of the starting windings along with the running
windings. The running winding displaces the starting windings by 900.
163. How is the required phase displacement between the current in the running and starting windings
obtained?
a) by connecting a suitable resistor
b) by connecting a suitable capacitor
c) by connecting a suitable inductor
d) by connecting a suitable impedance
Answer: d
Explanation: The running winding displaces the starting winding by 900. The required phase
displacement is obtained by connecting a suitable impedance in series with any of the windings.
164. When is the starting winding cut out of the circuit in the split phase motor?
a) when the motor speed reaches 65 % of the full load speed
b) when the motor speed reaches 75 % of the full load speed
c) when the motor speed reaches 50 % of the full load speed
d) when the motor speed reaches 85 % of the full load speed
Answer: b
Explanation: The single phase induction motor is not a self starting machine and hence starting
windings are connected in series with the running winding. The starting windings are cut out when
the motor speed reaches 75 % of the full load speed.
165. What is the shaded pole starting method?

a) part of the pole is shaded by open circuited copper ring
b) part of the pole is shaded by short circuited copper ring
c) the pole is shaded by open circuited copper ring
d) the pole is shaded by short circuited copper ring
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the starting methods of the single phase induction motor is the shaded pole
starting method. Here the part of the pole is shaded by the short circuited copper ring.
166. What happens in the shaded pole starting method according to the displacement?
a) displacement between shaded and unshaded portion varies between 200-250
b) displacement between shaded and unshaded portion varies between 200-350
c) displacement between shaded and unshaded portion varies between 200-300
d) displacement between shaded and unshaded portion varies between 300-450
Answer: c
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Explanation: The shaded pole starting method is that the part of the pole is shaded by short circuited
copper ring. The displacement between shaded and unshaded portion varies between 200-300.
167. For what type of machines is the shaded pole starting method suitable?
a) for outputs below 60 watt
b) for output below 50 watt
c) for output below 40 watt
d) for output above 50 watt
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of the shaded pole starting method is very low. The shaded pole starting
method is used for outputs below 60 watt.
168. When is the repulsion motor starting method used?

a) when low starting torque is required
b) when high starting torque is required
c) when high running torque is required
d) when low running torque is required
Answer: b
Explanation: The repulsion motor starting method is one of the 3 methods of starting the single
phase induction motor. It is used when the high starting torque is required.
169. What is the speciality in the repulsion motor starting method?

a) cage winding is replaced by armature windings
b) cage winding is replaced by field windings
c) cage winding is replaced by commutator windings
d) cage winding is replaced by bearings
Answer: c
Explanation: The repulsion motor starting method is one of the methods used in the starting of the
single phase induction motor. Here the cage winding is replaced by the commutator windings.
170. What happens in the repulsion motor starting method?

a) the cage windings is dominant
b) the commutator windings are dominant
c) the rotor windings are dominant
d) the stator windings are dominant
Answer: b
Explanation: The repulsion motor starting method is one of the starting methods of single phase
induction motor. The commutator windings are dominant and hence gives good starting torque.
171. What is the range of output watt for the shaded pole induction machine?
a) 0.37-50
b) 90-750
c) 90-3700
d) 7.5-370
Answer: a
Explanation: The range of output watt for capacitor type induction motor is 90-750 and that of the
repulsion start motor is 90-3700. The range of output watt for resistor type induction motor is 7.5-370
and that of the shaded pole type is 0.37-50.
172. What is the range of the starting current of capacitor type induction motor?
a) 5-7
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b) 4–6
c) 2-6
d) 2-3
Answer: b
Explanation: The range of starting current is 5-7 for resistor type induction motor and that of the
repulsion start motor is 2-3. The range of the starting current of capacitor induction motor is 4-6.
173. What is the range of the starting torque of shaded pole induction motor?
a) 2-4
b) 2-3.5
c) 0.2-0.3
d) 0.25-0.5
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of starting torque in the capacitor induction motor is 2-3.5 and that of the
repulsion start induction motor is 2-4. The range of the starting torque of shaded pole induction motor
is 0.2-0.3.
174. How many steps are involved in the construction of single phase induction motor?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 5 steps in the construction of the single phase induction motor. They are
stator, stator windings, rotor, starting switches, electrolytic capacitor.
175. What is the lamination used for the stator?

a) cast iron
b) die cast aluminium alloy frame
c) cast iron or die cast aluminium alloy frame
d) cast iron and die cast aluminium alloy frame
Answer: c
Explanation: The stator is made up of a block of laminations. The block of laminations are made up
of cast iron or die cast aluminium alloy frame.
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Q.1. Find the current in the circuit.
a) 1 A b) 2 A
c) 3 A d) 4 A
Q.2. In a series circuit, which of the parameters remain constant across all circuit elements such as
resistor, capacitor and inductor etcetera?
a) Voltage b) Current
c) Both voltage and current d) Neither voltage nor current
Q.3. Find the voltage across the 6 ohm resistor.
a) 150V b) 181.6V
c) 27.27V d) 54.48V
Q.4. If there are two bulbs connected in series and one blows out, what happens to the other bulb?
a) The other bulb continues to glow with the same brightness
b) The other bulb stops glowing
c) The other bulb glows with increased brightness
d) The other bulb also burns out
Q.5. If two bulbs are connected in parallel and one bulb blows out, what happens to the other bulb?
a) The other bulb blows out as well
b) The other bulb continues to glow with the same brightness
c) The other bulb glows with increased brightness
d) The other bulb stops glowing
Q.6. Calculate the current across the 20 ohm resistor.
a) 10A b) 20A
FOR IMPORTANT
c) 6.67A NOTES TOUCH TO "!! ADITYA
d) 36.67A !!"
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Q.7. Calculate the total current in the circuit.
a) 20 A b) 10 A
c) 11.43 A d) 15 A
Q.8. The voltage across the open circuit is?
a) 100V b) Infinity
c) 90V d) 0V
Q.9. Calculate the resistance between A and B.
a) 3.56 ohm b) 7 ohm

c) 14.26 ohm d) 29.69 ohm
Q.10. In a _________ circuit, the total resistance is greater than the largest resistance in the circuit.
a) Series b) Parallel
c) Either series or parallel d) Neither series nor parallel
Q.11. What is the value of the current I?
a) 8A b) 7A
c) 6A d) 5A
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Q.12. What is the value of current if a 50C charge flows in a conductor over a period of 5 seconds?
a) 5A b) 10A
c) 15A d) 20A
Q.13. KCL deals with the conservation of?

a) Momentum b) Mass
c) Potential Energy d) Charge
Q.14. KCL is applied at _________

a) Loop b) Node
c) Both loop and node d) Neither loop nor node
Q.15. KVL deals with the conservation of?

a) Mass b) Momentum
c) Charge d) Energy
Q.16. Find the value of the currents I1 and I2.
a) 0.3, 0.1 b) -0.1, -0.3

c) -0.3, -0.1 d) 0.1, 0.2
Q.17. The sum of the voltages over any closed loop is equal to __________
a) 0V b) Infinity
c) 1V d) 2V
Q.18. What is the basic law that has to be followed in order to analyze the circuit?
a) Newton’s laws b) Faraday’s laws
c) Ampere’s laws d) Kirchhoff’s law
Q.19. Every____________ is a ____________ but every __________ is not a __________

a) Mesh, loop, loop, mesh b) Loop, mesh, mesh, loop
c) Loop, mesh, loop, mesh d) Mesh, loop, mesh, loop
Q.20. KVL is applied in ____________

a) Mesh analysis b) Nodal analysis
c) Both mesh and nodal d) Neither mesh nor nodal
Q.21. Which of the following is not an expression power?

a) P=VI b) P=I2R
c) P=V2/R d) P=I/R
Q.22. Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of?

a) Current b) Power
c) Energy d) Resistance

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Q.23. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one voltage source, all the other
voltage sources are ____________
a) Shorted b) Opened
c) Removed d) Undisturbed
Q.24. Superposition theorem does not work for ________
a) Current b) Voltage
c) Power d) Works for all: current, voltage and power
Q.25. Calculate the Thevenin resistance across the terminal AB for the following circuit.
a) 4.34 ohm b) 3.67 ohm

c) 3.43 ohm d) 2.32 ohm
Q.26. Calculate Vth for the given circuit.
a) 5.54V b) 3.33V
c) 6.67V d) 3.67V
Q.27. The Thevenin voltage is the__________

a) Open circuit voltage
b) Short circuit voltage
c) Open circuit and short circuit voltage
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit voltage
Q.28. Which of the following is also known as the dual of Thevenin’s theorem?
a) Norton’s theorem b) Superposition theorem
c) Maximum power transfer theorem d) Millman’s theorem
Q.29. The Norton current is the_______

a) Short circuit current
b) Open circuit current
c) Open circuit and short circuit current
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit current
Q.30. Can we use Norton’s theorem on a circuit containing a BJT?

a) Yes b) No
c) Depends on the BJT d) Insufficient data provided

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Q.31. A voltage source connected in series with a resistor can be converted to a?

a) Current source in series with a resistor
b) Current source in parallel with a resistor
c) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
d) Cannot be modified
Q.32. Which, among the following is the right expression for converting from delta to star?
a) R1=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R3=Rc*Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
b) R1=Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), Rc=/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
c) R1=Ra*Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R3=Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
d) R1=Ra*Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Ra*Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R3=Ra*Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
Q.33. If a 4ohm, 3ohm and 2ohm resistor is connected in delta, find the equivalent star connection.
a) 8/9ohm, 4/3ohm, 2/3ohm
b) 8/9ohm, 4/3ohm, 7/3ohm
c) 7/9ohm, 4/3ohm, 2/3ohm
d) 8/9ohm, 5/3ohm, 2/3ohm
Q.34. Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
a) 32ohm b) 31ohm
c) 30ohm d) 29ohm
Q.35. A capacitor consists of_________

a) Two conductors b) Two semiconductors
c) Two dielectrics d) Two insulators
~~~***All the Best***~~~
Answer
1. b 8. a 15.d 22.c 29.a

2. b 9. a 16.d 23.a 30.b
3. c 10.a 17.a 24.c 31.b
4. b 11.a 18.d 25.b 32.a
5. b 12.b 19.a 26.c 33.a
6. a 13.d 20.a 27.a 34.d
7. c 14.b 21.d 28.a 35.a
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Explanation
1. I=V/R. Total resistance R = 20+40=60ohm, V=120V, I=120/60=2A.
2. A series circuit, the current across all elements remains the same and the total voltage of the circuit is the
sum of the voltages across all the elements.
3. Total current I=150/(6+12+15)=(150/33)A, V across 6 ohm = 6*I = 6*(150/33)V = 27.27V.
4. Since the two bulbs are connected in series, if the first bulb burns out there is a break in the circuit and
hence the second bulb does not glow.
5. If one bulb blows out, it acts as an open circuit. Current does not flow in that branch but it continues to
flow in the other branch of the parallel circuit. Hence the other bulb continues to glow. Also the voltage
across other bulb remains the same due to which power delivered to it remains the same so it continues
to glow with the same brightness.
6. I=V/R. Since in parallel circuit, voltage is same across all resistors. Hence across the 20 ohm resistor,
V=200V so I=200/20=10A.
7. The 1 ohm and 2 ohm resistor are in series which is in parallel to the 3 ohm resistor. The equivalent of
these resistances (3/2 ohm) is in series with the 4 ohm and 5 ohm resistor. Total R = 21/2 ohm.
I=V/R=120/(21/2)=240/21=11.43 A.
8. The voltage across all branches in a parallel circuit is the same as that of the source voltage. Hence the
voltage across the 10 ohm resistor and the open circuit is the same=100V.
9. The 1 ohm, 2 ohm and 3 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. Its equivalent resistance is in series
with the 4 ohm resistor and the parallel connection of the 5 ohm and 6 ohm resistor. The equivalent
resistance of this combination is 80/11 ohm. This is in parallel with 7 ohm to give equivalent resistance
between A and B is 3.56 ohm.
10. In series circuits, the total resistance is the sum of all the resistance in the circuit; hence the total is
greater than the largest resistance.
11. At the junction, I-2+3-4-5=0. Hence I=8A.
12. Current=Charge/Time. Here charge = 50c and time = 5seconds, so current = 50/5 = 10A.
13. KCL states that the amount of charge entering a junction is equal to the amount of charge leaving it,
hence it is the conservation of charge.
14. KCL states that the amount of charge leaving a node is equal to the amount of charge entering it, hence
it is applied at nodes.
15. KVL states that the sum of the potential energy and taken with the right sign is equal to zero, hence it is
the conservation of energy since energy doesn’t enter or leave the system.
16. Using KVL in loop 1
10-100 i1=0. i1=0.1A
Using KVL in outer loop
-100i2+20=0 i2=0.2A.
17. According to KVL, the sum of the voltage over any closed loop is equal to 0.
18. Kirchhoff’s laws, namely Kirchhoff’s Current Law and Kirchhoff’s Voltage law are the basic laws in
order to analyze a circuit.
19. According to Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law, Every mesh is a loop but every loop is not a mesh. Mesh is a
special case of loop which is planar.
20. Mesh analysis helps us to utilize the different voltages in the circuit as well as the IR products in the
circuit which is nothing but KVL.
21. Power is the product of voltage and current. Writing I in terms of V, we get P=V2/R and writing V in
terms of I, we get P=I2r.
22. Power is the energy per unit time. That is, P=E/t. If the unit of power in kW and the unit of time is an
hour, then the unit of energy=unit of power*unit of time=kWh.
23. In superposition theorem when we consider the effect of one voltage source, all the other voltage
sources are shorted and current sources are opened.
24. Power across an element is not equal to the power across it due to all the other sources in the system.
The power in an element is the product of the total voltage and the total current in that element.
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25. Thevenin resistance is found by opening the circuit between the specified terminals and shorting all
voltage sources. When the 10V source is shorted, we get Rth=(1||2)+3=3.67 ohm.
26. 4 ohm is removed and then v across 2 ohm is calculated by voltage divider 2*10/(2+1) = 6.67V. Voltage
between A and B i.e. Vth is equal to voltage across 4 ohm resistance since no current flow through 3
ohm resistance. So, Vth = 6.67V.
27. Thevenin voltage is obtained by opening the specified terminals so it is open circuit voltage. It is not the
short circuit voltage because if specified terminals are shorted voltage is equal to zero.
28. Norton’s theorem is also known as the dual of Thevenin’s theorem because in Norton’s theorem we find
short circuit current which is the dual of open circuit voltage-what we find in Thevenin’s theorem.
29. Norton current is obtained by shorting the specified terminals. So, it is the short circuit current. It is not
the open circuit current because if specified terminals get open circuited then current is equal to zero.
30. We can use Norton’s theorem only for linear networks. BJT is a non-linear network hence we cannot
apply Norton’s theorem for it.
31. A voltage source connected in series can be converted to a current source connected in parallel using the
relation obtained from Ohm’s law, that is V=IR. This equation shows that a voltage source connected in
series has the same impact as a current source connected in parallel.
32. After converting to star, each star connected resistance is equal to the ratio of product of the resistances
it is connected to and the total sum of the resistances. Hence
R1=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
R2=Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
R3=Rc*Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)
33. Using the delta-star conversion formula
R1=4*3/(2+3+4)
R2=2*3/(2+3+4)
R3=2*4/(2+3+4)
34. The equivalent resistance between node 1 and node 3 in the star connected circuit is
R=(10×10+10×11+11×10)/11=29ohm.
35. A capacitor consists of two conductors connected in parallel to each other so that it can store charge in
between the plates.

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1. The total impedance of a series resonant circuit is___________________

a. Purely Inductive
b. Purely capacitive
c. Purely resistive
2. A series LCR circuit is resonant at 150 kHz and has a Q of 50. The lower half power
frequency is ___________
a. 153 kHz
b. 148.5 kHz
c. 147.5 kHz
d. 200 kHz
3. A power triangle can provide information about___________

a. Power Factor
b. kVA
c. kVAR
d. All of these
4. The bandwidth of a series resonant circuit in which the half power points occurs at 150
kHz and 180 kHz is
a. 30 kHz
b. 115 kHz
c. 330 kHz
d. 15 kHz
5. An RLC series resonant circuit has a Q of 50 and source voltage of 5V. The voltage Vc
across the capacitor is_____________
a. 10 V
b. 250 V
c. 125 V
d. 500 V
6. A series RLC circuit has R= 5 Ω, L = 0.2 H and C= 50 µF. The applied voltage is 200 V.
The quality factor of the circuit at resonance is___________
a. 9.52
b. 18.72
c. 23.65
d. 12.65

STUDY ZONE
7. In Question 6, the bandwidth of series resonant circuit is _____________________

a. 3.98 Hz
b. 5.82 Hz
c. 19.25 Hz
d. 14.28 Hz
8. In Question 6, the upper half power frequency is_______________

a. 15.85 Hz
b. 52.32 Hz
c. 20.62 Hz
d. 28.28 Hz
9. An RLC series circuit has R= 2.5 Ω, C = 100µF and a variable inductance. The applied
voltage is 50 V at 800 rad/sec. The inductance is varied till voltage across resistance is
maximum. The value of inductance is________________
a. 0.012 H
b. 0.1 H
c. 0.0156 H
d. 0.1348 H
10. In Question 9, the current at half power points is

a. 20 A
b. 10 A
c. 30 A
d. 14.14 A
11. In an RL series AC circuit, XL = R. The Phase angle is ___________________________

a. 90o
b. 30o
c. 45o
d. Cannot be predicted
12. The current in a circuit is wattles if

a. Inductance in the circuit is zero
b. Resistance in the circuit is zero
c. Current is alternating
d. Resistance and Inductance are both zero

STUDY ZONE
13. In an AC series circuit, the inductive reactance is 20 Ω, the capacitive reactance is 60 Ω,

the resistance is 30 Ω and the current is 2 A. The impedance of the circuit
is____________
a. 50 Ω
b. 25 Ω
c. 12.5 Ω
d. 8.4 Ω
14. In a series RL circuit supplied with 50 V, the circuit current is measured as 100 mA with
a phase angle of 25o. What is the reactive power supplied to the circuit?
a. 4 VAR
b. 2.1 VAR
c. 3.2 VAR
d. 7.8 VAR
15. In the Question 14, what is the true power supplied to the circuit?
a. 9 W
b. 18 W
c. 4.5 W
d. 36.8 W
Answer
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. A

STUDY ZONE
14. B
15. C

STUDY ZONE
1. The definition of power factor of a series RLC circuit are correct except
a. Ratio of net reactance and impedance
b. Ratio of KW and KVA
c. Ratio of J and W
d. Ratio of W and VA
2. Form Factor is defined as the ratio of

a. RMS value to the Peak value
b. RMS value to the average value
c. Average value to RMS value
d. Average value to Peak value
3. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit containing
a. Capacitance only
b. Inductance only
c. Resistance only
d. All of these
4. The value of Form Factor for a square wave is

a. 1.414
b. 1.32
c. 2
d. 1
5. The RMS value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The RMS value of full wave
rectified AC. will be
a. 200 V
b. 232.2 V
c. 282.8 V
d. 141.4 V
6. What is the type of current obtained by finding the square of the currents and then finding
their average and then fining the square root?
a. RMS value
b. Average Value
c. Peak Value
d. Form Factor
7. What is the effective value of current?

a. Average current

STUDY ZONE
b. Instantaneous current
c. RMS current
d. Total current
8. For a sinusoidal signal, average value is always _______ than RMS value
a. Greater
b. Equal
c. Lesser
d. Not related
9. For a rectangular wave, average current is ______ RMS current

a. Greater than
b. Lesser than
c. Not related
d. Equal to
10. __________ current is found by dividing the area enclosed by the half cycle by the length
of the base of the half cycle.
a. RMS current
b. Average current
c. Instantaneous current
d. Total current
11. An electric iron is rated at 230V, 400 W and 50Hz. The voltage rating 230 V refers
a. Average value
b. Peak value
c. RMS value
d. Peak to peak value
12. In AC circuits, power is dissipated only in’
a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. All of these
13. The transient currents are associated with the

a. Changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
b. Impedance of the circuit
c. Applied voltage to the circuit
d. Resistance of the circuit

STUDY ZONE
14. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and
current is
a. True Power
b. Reactive Power
c. Apparent Power
d. Instantaneous Power
15. If the frequency of the sinusoidal signal is 50 Hz. Then its time period is
a. 2 msec
b. 20 msec
c. 200 msec
d. 0.2 msec
Answer Key
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (c)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (c)
9. (d)
10. (b)
11. (c)
12. (a)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (b)

STUDY ZONE
1. The size of a transformer core will depends upon__________

a. Frequency
b. Area of core
c. Flux density
d. Both a and b
2. The efficiency of two identical transformer under load condition can be determined
by______
a. Short circuit test
b. Back to back test
c. Open circuit test
d. None of these
3. The voltage transformation ratio of transformer is defined as the ratio of___________

a. Primary turns to secondary turns
b. Secondary current to primary current
c. Secondary induced emf to primary induced emf
d. Secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
4. The advantage of the use of higher flux density in the designing of transformer
__________
a. Reduces iron losses
b. Reduces copper losses
c. Reduce weight per KVA
d. Increase part load efficiency
5. An ideal transformer is having infinite primary and secondary turns

a. True
b. False
6. Which of the following statement regarding an ideal single-phase transformer is

incorrect? Transformer is having a turn ratio of 1: 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from
200 V AC supply is incorrect?
a. It’s a step up transformer
b. It’s secondary voltage is 400V
c. It’s rating is 2 kVA
d. It’s secondary current is 20 A
7. Turns ratio of transformer is directly proportional to _____________

a. Resistance ratio

STUDY ZONE
b. Current ratio
c. Voltage ratio
d. None of these
8. For a transformer with primary turns 100, secondary turns 400, if 200 V is applied we
will get_________
a. 80 V at secondary
b. 800 V at secondary
c. 1600 V at secondary
d. 3200 V at secondary
9. Leakage flux in transformer depends upon________

a. Load current
b. Load current and voltage
c. Load current, voltage and frequency
d. Load current, voltage, frequency and power
10. The full load copper loss of the transformer is 1600 W. At half load, the copper loss will
be ___________
a. 6400 W
b. 1600 W
c. 800 W
d. 400 W
11. Silicon steel used in laminations, because it reduces_______

a. Eddy current losses
b. Hysteresis losses
c. Copper losses
12. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will ___________
a. Not change
b. Decrease
c. Increase
13. In a transformer, tapping’s are generally provided on_____________

a. Low voltage side
b. Primary side
c. Secondary side
d. Can be connected to any side

STUDY ZONE
14. Both resistance and leakage reactance of the transformer winding are ________________
a. Series effect
b. Parallel effect
c. Series-parallel effect
d. Cannot say
15. To convert an ideal transformer into a practical transformer we add ___________

a. Primary and secondary winding resistance
b. Primary and secondary winding leakage resistance
c. Primary and secondary winding resistance and leakage reactance
Answer
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (d)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10. (d)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (d)
14. (a)
15. (c)

STUDY ZONE
1. What is the full form of ELCB?

a. Earth line current breaker
b. Earth linkage current breaker
c. Earth leakage circuit breaker
d. Earth leakage current breaker
2. Moisture content in the soil __________________ the earth soil resistance.

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Does not affect
3. Generally grounding is provided for____________

a. Only for safety of the equipment
b. For the safety of the operating personal
c. Both a and b
4. For the EHV equipment for maintenance first it should be isolated and connected to
ground because ____________
a. To provide low impedance
b. To discharge the charging capacitance to ground
c. Protection for operating personal
d. Both b and c
5. The objective of earthing or grounding is______________

a. To provide as low resistance possible to the ground
b. To provide as high resistance possible to the ground
c. To provide flow of positive, negative and zero sequence current
6. Earth wire or ground wire is made of _________________

a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Galvanized steel
d. Iron
7. In ideal case, the charging current of 100 Ah battery would be ________________

a. 10 A
b. 12 A

STUDY ZONE
c. 15 A
d. 20 A
8. The commercial lead acid cell has 13 plates. The number of positive plate would
be______
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
9. A battery is a series or parallel combination of electrolytic cell.

a. True
b. False
10. Nickel cadmium batteries are preferred more than lead acid batteries in military
applications because __________
a. Can be easily charged or discharge
b. Discharging rate is higher
c. Delivers large amount of power
d. All of the above
11. Number of cells connected in parallel provides_______________

a. High current carrying capacity
b. High voltage
c. Higher power
d. All of the above
12. Specific gravity of a electrolyte in a single cell or a battery is always __________

a. Equal to 1.0
b. Greater than 1.0
c. Less than 1.0
d. Zero
13. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

a. In well ventilated location
b. In clean and dry place
c. As near as practical to the battery being charged
d. All of the above
14. The capacity of battery is expressed in terms of

STUDY ZONE
a. Current rating
b. Voltage rating
c. Ampere hour rating
d. All of the above
15. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is__________
a. Nickel cadmium battery
b. Zinc carbon battery
c. Lead acid battery
Answer
1. c
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. a
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. a
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. c

STUDY ZONE
Module 01 (Basics of Electrical Engineering)
1. The internal resistance of ideal voltage source is _______

a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. Close to zero
d. None of these
2. A PN junction diode is a _________ element

a. Bilateral
b. Linear
c. Unilateral
d. All of these
3. A charging system produces 14.5 V with a current flow of 43.5 A, what is the circuit
resistance?
a. 3 A
b. 3.33A
c. 0.33A
d. 5A
4. What size resistor would produce a 3A current flow with a 12V battery?
a. 1 Ω
b. 3 Ω
c. 4 Ω
d. 12 Ω
5. KCL is based on the fact that_____

a. There is a possibility of a node to store energy
b. Charge accumulation is possible at node
c. Charge accumulation is not possible at node
d. Charge accumulation may or may not possible
6. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a network is equal to _______
a. Infinity
b. One
c. Zero
d. Negative polarity
7. A charged capacitor is considered as ___________ element

a. Active

STUDY ZONE
b. Passive
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
8. What is the significance of negative sign (-) from a calculation while solving circuit
problems?
a. None
b. It indicates that you did something wrong on your calculation
c. Real resulting current or voltage is in opposite direction to one assumed
d. You probably used a small scaling factor
9. An active device is one_________ which

a. Mechanically controls electron flow
b. Automatically controls electron flow
c. Pneumatically controls electron flow
d. Electrically controls electron flow
10. A 10V source is connected in series with 4 Ω resistor. What is its current source
equivalent?
a. 3 A
b. 5 A
c. 2.5A
d. 4 A
11. If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, then the reciprocal of total resistance is
equal to
a. Sum of individual resistance
b. Sum of reciprocal of individual resistance
c. Reciprocal of sum of individual resistance
d. All of these
12. Which among the following is true about ohm’s law?

a. I ∝ V
b. I = V/R
c. V = IR
d. All of these
13. In half wave rectifiers, the diode conducts during________ half cycle
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both a and b

STUDY ZONE
d. None of these
14. Specific resistance of a material is ________
a. Directly proportional to the both area of cross section and length of material
b. Directly proportional to the area of cross section and inversely proportional to the
length of material
c. Inversely proportional to the area of cross section and directly proportional to the
length of material
d. Inversely proportional to the both area of cross section and length of material
15. Calculate potential difference between x and y in the given circuit
a. 4.275 V
b. -4.275 V
c. 4.527 V
d. -4.527 V

STUDY ZONE
1. In a balanced 3-ϕ circuit, the sum of all three generated voltage is_______________?
a. 3 times the phase voltage
b. 2 times the phase voltage
c. Zero
d. Infinite
2. In a 3-ϕ star connected supply, the line voltage is ______ of phase voltage?
a. Equal
b. 1.732 times
c. 3 times
d. None of these
3. The line current is ______ of phase current in case of 3-ϕ delta connected load?
a. Equal
b. 1.732 times
c. 3 times
d. None of these
4. The power factor is the ratio of ______ power to the ________ power?
a. Average, reactive
b. Average, apparent
c. Apparent, average
d. All of these
5. A sinusoidal voltage v = 50sinωt is applied to a series RL circuit. The current in the

circuit is given by I = 25sin (ωt-53⁰). Determine the apparent power (VA).
a. 620
b. 625
c. 630
d. 635
6. The value of power factor in question No. 5 is___________?

a. 0.6
b. 0.5
c. 0.4
d. 0.36
7. The true power in (Watt) in the question No. 5 is___________?

a. 375
b. 360

STUDY ZONE
c. 355
d. 380
8. For a polyphase system, the number of wattmeter required to measure power is equal
to__________?
a. Number of wires
b. One less than number of wires
c. Number of phases
9. For a delta connected 3-ϕ circuit, the line voltage is _______ phase voltage?
a. Equal
b. 1.732 times
c. 3 times
d. 0.33 times
10. In a star connected system, the current flowing through the line is _____
a. Greater than the phase current
b. Equal to phase current
c. Less than the phase current
d. None of these
11. If the load impedance is Z∠Ø, the current (IR )is__________?

a. (V/Z)∠-Ø
b. (V/Z)∠Ø
c. (V/Z)∠90-Ø
d. (V/Z)∠-90+Ø
12. In a balanced 3-ϕ system-delta load, if we assume the line voltage is VRY = V∠0⁰ as a
reference phasor. Then the source voltage VYB is?
a) V∠0⁰
b) V∠-120⁰
c) V∠120⁰
d) V∠240⁰
13. In a balanced delta connected load, calculate the phase voltage if the line voltage is
480V?
a. 277 V
b. 480 V

STUDY ZONE
c. 1460 V
d. 876 V
14. Power in a 3-ϕ circuit= ______________________

a. P = 3 VPh IPh CosФ
b. P = √3 VL IL CosФ
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
15. The power factor is _________ in case of induction motor connected at load?
a. Lagging
b. Leading
c. Both
d. None of these
Answer key
1. (C)
2. (B)
3. (B)
4. (B)
5. (C)
6. (A)
7. (A)
8. (B)
9. (A)
10. (B)
11. (A)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (C)
15. (A)

STUDY ZONE
Week 04
1. Power factor is defined as the ratio of true power to ____________ power.
a. Active Power
b. Reactive Power
c. Apparent Power
d. None of These
2. An alternating current of 1.5A flow in a circuit when applied voltage is 300 V. The power
consumed is 225 W. The Resistance of the circuit is__________.
a. 120 Ω
b. 145 Ω
c. 100 Ω
d. 150 Ω
3. The reactance of the circuit in Problem 2 is ___________

a. 125 Ω
b. 150 Ω
c. 170.2 Ω
d. 173.2 Ω
4. A choke coil takes 4A when connected when connected to 24V, DC Supply. Calculate
the resistance of the coil.
a. 6 Ω
b. 4 Ω
c. 96 Ω
d. 24 Ω
5. A metal-filament lamp, rated At 750 W, 100 V is to be connected in series with a

capacitance across a 230V, 50 Hz supply. The value of capacitance required is _______
a. 105. 13 µF
b. 115.33 µF
c. 125.33 µF
d. 135.13 µF
6. A single phase 50 Hz motor takes 10 A current at 0.8 power factor lagging from a 240 V
supply. The value of active component of the current is____________
a. 6.4 A
b. 6.8 A
c. 7.4 A
d. 8 A

STUDY ZONE
7. The reactive component of current in the Problem 6 is_____________

a. 6 A
b. 8 A
c. 6.5 A
d. None of these
8. A coil of resistance 20 Ω and inductance 100 mH is connected in series with a

capacitance of 40µF across 100 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The magnitude of current is
_______________
a. 1.85 A
b. 1.67 A
c. 1.92 A
d. 0.89 A
9. A series circuit has R= 10Ω; L= 50mH, and C = 100µF and is connected with 200 V, 50
Hz. The power consumed in the circuit is ________________
a. 1.11 kW
b. 2.22 kW
c. 3.12 kW
d. 570 W
10. Why we never discuss about reactive power in DC circuits?

a. Voltage and Current are in same phase
b. Voltage and Current are out of phase
c. Frequency is zero in DC circuit
d. Frequency is non-zero in DC circuit
11. A 50 Hz voltage of 115 V (rms) is impressed on a 50 Ω resistance. The time equations

for the voltage are ________________. The zero point of the voltage wave be at t=0.
a. 115 Sin 314t
b. 133.6 Sin 314 t
c. 115 Sin 377 t
d. 162.6 Sin 314 t
12. What value of capacitance will have a capacitive reactance on 180 Hz that is equal to 60
Hz inductance of a 0.061 H inductor?
a. 40. 44 µF
b. 38.44 µF
c. 36.24 µF
d. 30.21 µF

STUDY ZONE
13. What is the effect of frequency on capacitive reactance?

a. It increases with increase in supply frequency
b. It decreases with increase in supply frequency
c. No effect
d. None of these
14. A 60% lagging power factor implies that the load is________________________
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Both Inductive and Capacitive
d. None of these
15. The power supplied when a 120 V, 60 Hz source is connected to 50 mH inductor is

a. 500 VAR
b. 430 VAR
c. 766 VAR
d. 336 VAR
Answer
1. C
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. C

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STUDY ZONE

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Steady- State Analysis of Single Phase AC Circuits

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

11. The superposition theorem can be applied only Ans: (c)

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

a. all independent sources are made dead

c. only voltage sources are made dead

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

Ans: (c) 35. In a parallel circuit, with a number of resistors,

replaced by their internal resistance. a. Energy

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

b. mesh c. Bilateral elements

c. loop d. None of these

d. none of these Ans: (c)

Ans: (a) 48. The ideal voltage source has _______

d. All of these d. None of these

a. Linear 52. Mesh analysis is the application of

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

b. KVL Ans: (c)

d. Lenz’s law a. Voltage calculations

Ans: (b) b. Bilateral elements

53. Nodal analysis is the application of c. Passive elements

a. KCL d. Power calculations

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

a. 24V, 12V, 10V

75. Continuation of Question 74. The Thevenin

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

76. Which pair of circuits in Fig. 12 are equivalent? a. 3.857Ω

c. 120/7 Ω Ans: (d)

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

b. 1.73240° A c. be more than 1.11

c. 260° A d. None of above

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

c. i = 14.14 sin (ωt − 60°) A d. 141.4 V

c. 30F 0.1H inductor. The steady-state current through

d. 40F the inductor will be

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

d. Due to all above reasons Ans: (c)

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

Ans: (d) 48. In LCR circuit which one of the following

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