1. A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing.

The company uses VTP

and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP
servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?
 Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN to be in VTP
server mode.
 Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the new VLAN.
 Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP servers.*
 Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN
and reboot the switch.
2. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two
Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
 dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*
 dynamic auto – dynamic auto
 dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*
 dynamic desirable – trunk*
 access – trunk
 access – dynamic auto
3. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

 designated switch
 edge switch
 root bridge*
 enabled bridge
 local bridge
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status
of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command
 output?

 The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to

become the root bridge.*
 The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to
become the backup root bridge.
 The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all
switches believing they are the root.
 The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the
election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
5. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency?
(Choose three.)
 The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2
network command.*
 The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process
area-id command.
 The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*
 The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
 The link interface subnet masks must match.*
 The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and DBR elections for the given
topology? (Choose three.)

 R4 is BDR for segment B.

 R4 is DR for segment B.
 R3 is DR for segment A.*
 R2 is DR for segment A.
 R3 is BDR for segment B.*
 R5 is DR for segment B.*
7. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
 listening*
 learning
 blocking*
 disabled*
 forwarding
8. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-
hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with
GLBP?
 GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*
 It is nonproprietary.
 It uses a virtual router master.
 It works together with VRRP.
9. What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)
 uses the Shortest Path First algorithm
 establishes neighbor adjacencies*
 uses the Reliable Transport Protocol*
 sends full routing table updates periodically
 broadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers
 supports equal and unequal cost load balancing*
10. Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a
default route to neighboring OSPF routers?

 Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.

 Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
 Use the redistribute static command on R0-A.
 Use the default-information originate command on ISP.
 Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.*
11. Refer to the exhibit.A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco
routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be
done to fix the problem?

 Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.

 Implement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.
 Implement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.
 Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
12. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
  when a router has less than five active interfaceswhen a router has more than
three active interfaces
 when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
 when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
 when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
13. What are the only two roles that permit an OSPF router to be configured for
summarization? (Choose two.)
 designated router
 backbone router
 internal router
 autonomous system boundary router*
 area border router*
14. A network engineer examining the operation of EIGRP on a router notices that one
particular route is in an active state. What can the engineer determine about this route?
 Data packets to be sent to the specified network will be forwarded on this
route.
 The Diffusing Update Algorithm has determined a successor and a feasible
successor for this route.
 The EIGRP processes are still calculating the administrative distance for this
route.
 EIGRP query messages are being sent to other routers requesting paths to this
network.*
15. A network administrator is configuring EIGRP load balancing with the commands:
Router(config)# router eigrp 1
Router(config-router)# variance 3
Router(config-router)# end
What is a direct result of entering these commands?
 Any feasible successor routes to the same destination network with a metric,
equal to or less than 3 times that of the successor, will be installed in the routing
table.*
 Up to three equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the
routing table.
 No matter whether the metric is equal or unequal, up to three routes to the
same destination can be installed in the routing table.
 Up to three unequal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in
the routing table.
16. What is a key distinction between classful and classless routing protocols?
 Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information in their routing
updates.*
 Classful routing protocols are better suited for implementation in
discontiguous networks.
 Classless routing protocols are not scalable.
 Classless routing protocols do not allow for route summarization.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed.
However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action
 should the administrator take to enable this communication?

 Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

 Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*
 Include a router in the topology.
 Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
 Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
18. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
 a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
 a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications
without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
 a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring
reliable delivery of content to all users
 a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on
redundancy to limit the impact of a failure*
19. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the
ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process*
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
20. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which
segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?
 TCP*
 IP
 HTTP
 Ethernet
21. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
 A company can monopolize the market.
 The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
 An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards
organizations.
  It encourages competition and promotes choices.*
22. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
 cancellation*
 cladding
 immunity to electrical hazards
 woven copper braid or metallic foil
23. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose
three.)
 error correction through a collision detection method
 session control using port numbers
 data link layer addressing*
 placement and removal of frames from the media
 detection of errors through CRC calculations *
 delimiting groups of bits into frames*
 conversion of bits into data signals
24. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
 store-and-forward switching
 fast-forward switching*
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching*
 QOS switching
25. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination
address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

 DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
 172.168.10.99
 CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
 172.168.10.65
 BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*
 AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
26. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address
and subnet mask?
  to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
 to identify the host address of the destination host
 to identify faulty frames
 to identify the network address of the destination network*
27. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address
11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
 192.0.2.199
 198.51.100.201
 203.0.113.211*
 209.165.201.223
28. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use?
(Choose three.)
 10.0.0.0/8*
 64.100.0.0/14
 127.16.0.0/12
 172.16.0.0/12*
 192.31.7.0/24
 192.168.0.0/16*
29. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address
2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
 2001:0:abcd::1
 2001:0:0:abcd::1*
 2001::abcd::1
 2001:0000:abcd::1
 2001::abcd:0:1
30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
 FEC0::/10
 FDEE::/7
 FE80::/10*
 FF00::/8
31. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
 198.133.219.17*
 192.168.1.245
 10.15.250.5
 128.107.12.117*
 192.15.301.240
 64.104.78.227 *
32. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
 UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.*
 UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
 UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection. *
 UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control
mechanisms.*
 UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
 UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
33. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco
switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see
the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
  show mac-address-table
 show ip interface brief
 show interfaces*
 show running-config
34. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain
connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required
to support this requirement?
 LAN
 MAN
 WAN*
 WLAN
35. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static
route that will match any IPv6 destination?
 :/128
 FFFF:/128
 ::1/64
 ::/0*
36. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network.
Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
 ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*
 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
 ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route
for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

 1*
 0
 90
 20512256
38. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?
 provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and
network access policies*
 distributes access to end users
 represents the network edge
 acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network
traffic throughout the campus
39. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a configuration implemented by a
new intern who attached an IP phone to a switch port and configured the switch.
Identify the issue, if any, with the configuration.

 The voice VLAN should be 150.

 The configuration is correct.*
 There must be a data VLAN added.
 The spanning-tree BPDU guard feature is missing.
 The switch port is not configured as a trunk.
40. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop
computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands
would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log
entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
 switchport mode access
switchport port-security
 switchport mode access*
switchport port-security*
switchport port-security maximum 2*
switchport port-security mac-address sticky*
switchport port-security violation restrict*
 switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
 switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
41. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the
default value?
 The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk
 Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
  Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk
 All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk*
42. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must
use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel
to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote
VPN connection?
 VPN gateway
 VPN appliance
 VPN concentrator
 VPN client software*
43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB,
but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is
the most likely cause of the problem?

application
transport
network
data link*
physical
1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show
ip interface brief command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?
 that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address
that the Dialer1 interface is up and up
that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router*
that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem
2. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified
by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
3. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to
prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records
Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list
contains the following statements:
deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?
 Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0

Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

Athena(config)# interface fa0/0

Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*
4. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network
administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the
one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?
only a standard ACL
a standard or extended ACL
only an extended ACL
an extended, named, or numbered ACL
only a named ACL*
5. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose
two.)
VTP
LLDP
HSRP
RADIUS*
TACACS+*
6. What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network 128.165.216.0/23?
0.0.0.255
 0.0.1.254
0.0.1.255*
0.0.1.0
0.0.0.254
7. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous
versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)
encryption*
authentication*
authorization with community string priority
ACL management filtering
bulk MIB objects retrieval