CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016 - 120 Questions MCQ Test

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CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016

120 Questions MCQ Test CDS (Combined Defence Services) Previous Years
Papers | CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016
Description
This mock test of CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016 for Defence helps you
for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 120 Multiple Choice Questions for
Defence CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016 (mcq) to study with solutions a
complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CDS I - General Knowledge
Question Paper 2016 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions.
Defence students definitely take this CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016
exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CDS I - General Knowledge
Question Paper 2016 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on
EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1
Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to

individuals facing the risk of cardiovascular diseases and hypertension?
A. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
B. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
C. Triglyceride
https://edurev.in/course/quiz/attempt/-1_CDS-I-General-Knowledge-Question-Paper-2016/103d2baa-c0c0-4051-ac03-c19d0ebb319b 1/84
D. Fatty acids
Solution:
Correct Option – (a)
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is considered “good cholesterol”.
Cholesterol is a type of fat found in our blood. More cholesterol in our body means that it can float around in the blood
and can clog the blood vessels which can cause cardiac arrest.
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease is/are correctly matched?
1. Vitamin A: Rickets
2. Vitamin B: Beriberi
3. Vitamin C: Scurvy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
QUESTION: 3
The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant:
A. Energy
B. Power
C. Force
D. Impulse
Solution:
The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the Force.
Momentum = Mass × velocity
Change of momentum →
d(momentum) = mass × d(velocity)
dt dt
Force = mass × acceleration
QUESTION: 4
After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because:
A. water helps air around the roof-top to absorb the heat instantly.
B. water has a lower specific heat capacity.
C. water is easily available.
D. water has a large latent heat of vaporization.
Solution:
Latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert unit mass of liquid state material into solid state
material without any change in temperature.
Water sprinkled on roof-top absorbs heat (energy) and evaporates leaving the roof-top cooler than before.
Water has high specific heat because it needs to absorb a lot of energy to change its temperature.
QUESTION: 5
Consider the following map of India:
Q. The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of
the following cash crops?
A. Cotton
B. Groundnut
C. Sugarcane
D. Tobacco
Solution:
QUESTION: 6
Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of:
A. Shiwalik Himalaya
B. Trans Himalaya
C. Central Himalaya
D. Lesser Himalaya
Solution:
Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of Lesser Himalayas.
QUESTION: 7
Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India:
1. Laterite soils are generally red in color.
2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.

Q. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4
Solution:
Laterite soils are rich in oxides of iron and aluminum but deficient in nitrogen and potash.
As it is poor in nitrogen, it is not fertile and poor for agriculture
It is majorly found in higher areas of Peninsular Plateau.
It is found as a result of decomposition due to heavy rainfall and high temperature.
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following statements regarding the Mediterranean and Monsoon climate
is/are correct?
1. Precipitation in the Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is

mostly in summer.
2. The annual range of temperature in the Mediterranean climate is higher than the
Monsoon climate.
3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Mediterranean climate is known for hot, dry summers and mild to cool wet winters.
During the summer, cold currents keep the climate dry and when the season changes, ocean current shifts too.
Hence, during the winter, the water having been warmed up in summer moves in and keep the land warn and often
brings rain.
Hence, the annual range of temperature in the Mediterranean climate is lesser than that of Monsoon Climate.
QUESTION: 9
The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made non-
conductor of heat. The plastic used here is the first man-made plastic, which is:
A. Polythene
B. Terylene
C. Nylon
D. Bakelite
Solution:
Bakelite
QUESTION: 10
Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984,
was used in the Union Carbide factory for the production of:
A. Dyes
B. Detergents
C. Explosives
D. Pesticides
Solution:
Union Carbide operated a pesticide plant in Bhopal. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy is considered as one of the world’s
largest industrial disaster.
The factory used to manufacture three pesticides: carbaryl, aldicarb and a formulation of carbaryl and gamma-
hexachlorocyclohexane (g-HCH).
It is estimated that about 40 tonnes of methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas and other chemicals leaked from the Union
Carbide factory.
In some cases, the impact of poisonous gas has passed on to the second and third generation.
Union Carbide used trade secrecy as a prerogative to withhold information on the exact composition of the leaked
gases.
QUESTION: 11
The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals. Germplasm is the:
A. Genetic resources
B. Seeds or tissues for breeding
C. Egg and sperm repository
D. A germ cell’s determining the zone
Solution:
Germplasm is a living tissue which is maintained for the purpose of animal and plant breeding.
Germplasm conservation is the most successful method to conserve the genetic traits of endangered and
commercially valuable species.
Germplasm conservation includes Wild species, breeding lines, commercial varieties, special genetic stocks, etc.
Germplasm preservation includes In-situ conservation and Ex-situ conservation.
QUESTION: 12
Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in blood of patient by:
1. interfering in the process of platelet production in the bone marrow.
2. infecting endothelial cells.
3. binding with platelets.
4. accumulating platelets in the intestine.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Dengue is caused by Dengue virus (DENV), a mosquito-borne flavivirus. DENV is a single-stranded RNA positive-
strand virus.
Bone marrow is the manufacturing center of blood cells and Dengue fever induces bone marrow suppression
resulting in a deficiency of blood cells which further leads to low platelet count.
Endothelium cells line the interior surface of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels. These cells when infected with
Dengue virus combine with platelets and destroy them.
QUESTION: 13
The SI unit of mechanical power is:
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton-second
D. Joule-second
Solution:
Power is the amount of energy transferred per unit time.
QUESTION: 14
Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if:
A. there can be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures.
B. there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures.
C. there is no heat flow between them.
D. their temperatures are slightly different.
Solution:
Two physical systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium when there is no net flow of thermal energy when they
are connected to each other in an isolated system.
The "zeroth law" states that if two systems are at the same time in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they
are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
QUESTION: 15
‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments, etc. The
name is given because:
A. It is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components.
B. Germans were the first to use silver.
C. Its appearance is like silver.
D. It is an alloy of silver.
Solution:
German Silver is an alloy of Copper, Zinc, and Nickel, sometimes containing lead and tin too.
It does not contain silver but it is named after its “silver-white” look.
Although its composition varies as per commercial requirement, it is widely used in this proportion - copper (50%),
zinc (20%) and nickel (30%).
German silver is very hard and its resistance to corrosion make is favorable for industrial use
QUESTION: 16
Plants contain a variety of sterols like

stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol, etc., which very closely resemble cholesterol.
These plant sterols are referred to as:
A. Phytosterols
B. Calciferol
C. Ergocalciferol
D. Lumisterol
Solution:
QUESTION: 17
With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the
International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Satluj rivers?
A. Pakistan
B. China
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
Solution:
Satluj is a part of the Indus river system on the western side and Brahmaputra (also known as Yaluzangbu or
Tsangpo in China) is on the eastern side.
In 2002, GoI and China signed an MoU for five years upon provision of Hydrological information on Yaluzangbu /
Brahmaputra River during flood season by China to India. MoUs in this connection is being extended from time to
time.
In 2010, GoI and China signed an MoU upon provision of hydrological information of Satluj / Langqen Zangbo River
during flood season by China to India. This MoU has also been renewed.
In 2013, a separate “Memorandum of Understanding on Strengthening Cooperation on Trans-Border Rivers” was
also signed, in which inter alia the scope of the provision of hydrological information of three hydrological stations has
also been enhanced.
QUESTION: 18
Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the
highest elevation from the mean sea level?
A. East Central Railway
B. South Eastern Railway
C. South Western Railway
D. West Central Railway
Solution:
QUESTION: 19
Stalactites and stalagmites are features of:
A. Glacial topography
B. Volcanic topography
C. Karst topography
D. Fluvial topography
Solution:
Stalactites: It is a type of rock formation produced by the precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the
cave ceiling. It hangs from the ceiling of a cave.
Stalagmites: It is a type of rock formation that rises from the floor of a cave due to the accumulation of material
deposited on the floor from ceiling drippings.
QUESTION: 20
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing
order of their size (diameter)?
A. Mars - Venus - Earth - Mercury - Uranus
B. Mercury - Mars - Venus - Earth - Uranus
C. Mercury - Mars - Venus - Uranus - Earth
D. Venus - Mercury - Mars-Earth - Uranus
Solution:
According to NASA, the following are the estimated radii of planets in our solar system:
The order in which planets are away from the sun is - Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus,
and Neptune.
QUESTION: 21
In artificial insemination (AI) process, which of the following is/are introduced into the
uterus of the female?
A. Egg only
B. Fertilized egg
C. Sperm only
D. Egg and sperm
Solution:
Artificial Insemination is the placing of sperm inside the female’s cervix or uterine to achieve pregnancy.
It is recommended to a couple having trouble in conceiving.
Intracervical Insemination involves placing raw semen into the vagina by needleless syringe.
Intrauterine Insemination involves injecting washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter.
Intrauterine tuboperitoneal insemination involves injecting washed sperm into both the uterus and fallopian tubes.
QUESTION: 22
Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to:
1. introduction of new DNA
2. removal of existing DNA
3. introduction of RNA
4. introduction of new traits

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Solution:
When the DNA of a plant had been modified using genetic engineering methods, it is called Genetically modified
crops.
It is widely used to make crops resistant to certain pests and disease.
It is also used to improve nutrition value in a crop.
Insect-resistant crops contain genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
GM crops are sometimes discouraged to consume due to the following potential threats: an allergic reaction
(allergenicity), gene transfer and outcrossing.
QUESTION: 23
Which one of the following statements is correct?

The velocity of sound:
A. does not depend upon the nature of media
B. is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids
C. is maximum in solids and minimum in liquids
D. is maximum in solids and minimum in gases
Solution:
At 20°C, the speed of sound in air is about 343 meters per second.
The speed of sound depends on medium, temperature, and pressure of the medium.
The speed of sound decreases when it passes from solid to the gaseous state of the medium.
The speed of sound in aluminum is 6420 m/s, in seawater is 1531 m/s and in Hydrogen gas is 1284 m/s.
QUESTION: 24
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature.
B. Sound waves having a frequency below 20 Hz are known as ultrasonic waves
C. Sound waves having higher amplitudes are louder.
D. Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp.
Solution:
The sound of frequencies higher than 20 kHz is known as ultrasonic sound or ultrasound.
The audible range of sound for human beings varies between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
Ultrasonic devices are used to detect objects and measure distances. Ultrasound imaging or sonography is often
used in medicine.
Ultrasonic waves are generated by a transducer that includes a piezoelectric crystal that converts electrical energy
(electric current) to mechanical energy (sound waves).
QUESTION: 25
Which one of the following vitamins have a role in blood clotting?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Solution:
QUESTION: 26
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious Anemia. Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B12.
Humans must obtain all their vitaminB12 from their diet. The complexing metal ion in
vitamin B12 is:
A. Mg2+ (Magnesium ion)
B. Fe2+ (Iron ion)
C. Co3+ (Cobalt ion)
D. Zn2+ (Zinc ion)
Solution:
Pernicious Anemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin
B1.
Vitamin B12 is also referred to as cobalamin because it contains a metal ion.
Cyanocobalamin is used in vitamin supplements and pharmaceuticals.
Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency is the smoothness of the tongue, gastrointestinal disturbances, nervous
symptoms.
QUESTION: 27
Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula,
south of the Vindhyas.
2. Peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia,
Antarctica, Africa, and South America.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
The minerals containing iron is known as ferrous and without iron is known as non-ferrous.
Most of the coals are found in the East Coast of India- Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, etc and most of the ferrous
materials are found in Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Karnataka.
A landmass surrounded by water from three sides is called Peninsula.
Gondwana was an ancient supercontinent that contained Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, the Indian
subcontinent and the Arabian Peninsula.
The supercontinent began to split due to fissure being created by the Magma below the Earth’s crust.
Gondwana began to break up and took million years to form the current continent/countries we know.
QUESTION: 28
The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in:
A. Pirotan Island
B. Rameswaram
C. Ganga Sagar Island
D. Port Blair
Solution:
This national park is near Wandoor on the Andaman Islands. Hence, it is also known as Wandoor National Park.
It was established in 1983 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 to protect marine life.
There are 2 major island groups in the park which are the Twin Islands and the Labyrinth Islands. The type and
composition of vegetation vary from island to island.
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3.
2. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4.
3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4.
4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Solution:
Perihelion: The point at which an orbiting planet is closest to the sun.
Aphelion: The point at which an orbiting planet is farthest from the sun.
The earth is farthest from the sun about two weeks after Summer Solstice.
Summer Solstice: It is when one of the Earth’s poles has its maximum tilt towards the Sun. Hence, the earth is
farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4.
The Earth is closest to the Sun about two weeks after the winter solstice.
Winter Solstice: When one of the Earth's poles has its maximum tilt away from the Sun. It usually occurs on 21 or 22
December.
QUESTION: 30
Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin?
A. Reunion island
B. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
C. Lakshadweep islands
D. Maldives
Solution:
Reunion Island is in the Indian Ocean but is a region of France.
This island is above a hotspot in the Earth’s crust.
The Piton de la Fournaise is a shield volcano in Reunion Island is sometimes called a sister to Hawaiian volcanoes.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands is one of the seven Union Territories of India and it has approximately 572 islands.
Its capital is Port Blair.
Lakshadweep Islands is one of the seven Union Territories of India. Its capital is Kavaratti.
The Maldives situated in the Indian Ocean famous for its beaches, blue lagoons, and extensive coral reefs. Its capital
is Male.
QUESTION: 31
Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of the molecule is
Glucose?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Fat
D. Nucleic acid
Solution:
Glucose has a molecular formula - C₆H₁₂O₆.
It is one of the groups of carbohydrates known as monosaccharides.
It is mainly made by plants and by most of the algae when they photosynthesize.
It is the main source of energy in all living organisms.
It is mainly starch in plants and glycogen in animals.
Diabetes occurs when the body is unable to regulate levels of glucose in the blood either because of a lack of insulin
in the body or the failure, by cells in the body, to respond properly to insulin.
An increases intake of glucose may also lead to obesity.
QUESTION: 32
The living content of the cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of:
A. Cytoplasm only
B. Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
C. Nucleoplasm only
D. Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles
Solution:
The cytoplasm is basically the colour less liquid and other material within the cell excluding the nucleus. When
cytoplasm and nucleus are included, it is called Protoplasm.
Protoplasm is the colour less liquid within a cell that comprises the cytoplasm, nucleus, and organelles. It is
surrounded by a Plasma Membrane.
Nucleoplasm is the content of the cell nucleus.
QUESTION: 33
Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in:
1. development of high-yielding crops.
2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure.
3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Norman Borlaug was an American agronomist.
He is often known as “the Father of the Green Revolution”.
He won a Nobel prize in 1970 for his contributions to the 'green revolution'. The World Food Prize was created by
Norman Borlaug in 1986.
He was also given the Presidential Medal of Freedom and the Congressional Gold Medal.
QUESTION: 34
A myopic person has a power of -1.25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his
lens?
A. 50 cm and convex lens
B. 80 cm and convex lens
C. 50 cm and concave lens
D. 80 cm and concave lens
Solution:
Myopia is an eye condition in which you can see objects near to you clearly but far ones are blurry. It is also called
near-sightedness.
Myopia can be corrected by Concave lens.
A Dioptre is a unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens.
It is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length.
D = 1/F → -1.25 = 1/F → Focal length is in centimetres. → F = -100/1.25
F = -80.
Focal Length is – 80 cm.
Hence, the concave lens is used.
QUESTION: 35
A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0°C. The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0°C
is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g):
A. 750.6 J
B. 83.4 J
C. 33360 J
D. 3.336 J
Solution:
Latent heat: The heat required to change one state of matter into another (solid into a liquid or vapor, or a liquid into a
vapor) without in change of temperature.
The liquid water to be formed when ice melts will be at 0° Celsius.
Given: Latent heat of melting of ice = 333.6 J/g.
1 gm of ice requires 333.6 J heat to melt,
For 100 gm, it is 33360 Joules.
QUESTION: 36
Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?
A. Oxytocin
B. Corticotrophin
C. Insulin
D. Cortisone
Solution:
A peptide is a chain of amino acids.
QUESTION: 37
Which one of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A. Burning of paper
B. The magnetization of soft iron
C. Dissolution of cane sugar in water
D. Preparation of ice cubes from water
Solution:
Chemical Change: When a substance reacts with another substance to form a new substance, it is called chemical
change. It involved the rearrangement of atoms.
The carbon compounds in the paper are oxidized into carbon dioxide and water vapor on burning.
There is no change in chemical composition in the magnetization of soft iron, dissolution of cane sugar in water and
preparation of ice cubes from water.
QUESTION: 38
Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?
A. Atmospheric disturbance
B. Change in marine water density
C. Melting of icebergs
D. Melting of ice sheets
Solution:
The sea level is currently rising with a rate of 0.13 inch per year.
It primarily is caused by two factors: Melting ice sheets and the expansion of seawater when it warms. When water
heats up, it expands. Hence when the ocean warms, sea level rises.
Sea level has risen about eight inches since the beginning of the 20th century.
Pycnocline is a layer where there is a rapid change in water density with depth.
QUESTION: 39
Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra:
1. Lohit
2. Teesta
3. Subansiri
4. Sankosh
Arrange the above rivers from west to east:
A. 2-4-3-1
B. 2-3-4-1
C. 4-2-3-1
D. 3-1-2-4
Solution:
The Brahmaputra river flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh
In India, the Brahmaputra flows for 916 km. However, the total length of the river is 2900 km.
It has many left and right tributaries.
Lohit river rises from a region in Tibet.
Teesta river rises from Tso Lhamo lake of North Sikkim Himalayas.
Subansiri river rises in the Himalayas in China.
Sankosh river rises in northern Bhutan.
QUESTION: 40
Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern
hemisphere is deflected towards its left?
A. The difference in the water masses of the northern and southern hemisphere
B. Temperature and pressure variations
C. The inclined axis of the Earth
D. Rotation of the Earth
Solution:
The Coriolis force is a pseudo force. The earth's rotation deflects moving objects (such as projectiles or air currents)
to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
The impact of the Coriolis effect is most significant with high speeds or long distances.
The Coriolis force is perpendicular to the object's axis. The Earth spins on its axis from west to east. The Coriolis
force, therefore, acts in a north-south direction.
It is pertinent to note that the Coriolis force is not a real force. The ground is just moving at a different speed than an
object in the air.
QUESTION: 41
The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has:
A. abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
B. abnormally low temperature and pressure
C. clear sky and lowest temperature
D. dense cloud cover and low pressure
Solution:
A cyclone is a large air mass that rotates around a strong center of low atmospheric pressure.
Cyclones rotate clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
An eye of the cyclone is the calmest area/part of the cyclones because it has the lowest pressure area of the cyclone
and the strong winds around the eye never converges in the center of the eye but deflects because of Coriolis force.
Eye of the cyclone has high temperature and low pressure.
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone.
2. Burning of sulfur-containing coal can contribute to acid rain.
3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Acid rain is any form of precipitation that contains acidic components.
It contains high levels of nitric and sulfuric acids.
Acid rain usually has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4.
Deposition of sulfur dioxide increases the rate of corrosion on limestone.
Sometimes, a body of water may become excessively enriched with nutrients that can induce excessive growth of
algae and plants. This is caller Eutrophication. It results in depletion of oxygen.
QUESTION: 43
Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct?
A. The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar magnet is larger than that of the south-pole.
B. When a piece of a bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the north and south poles get
separated.
C. When a piece of a bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, two new bar magnets are formed.
D. The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and opposite in nature.
Solution:
Bar magnet: a magnet in the shape of a bar with a North pole at one end and the South Pole at another.
The magnetic force is strongest at each pole and equal in magnitude.
The like poles repel and unlike poles attract each other when two bar magnets are placed closely.
A bar magnet attracts ferromagnetic materials.
The magnetic field lines do not intersect each other and they form closed loops.
The magnetic lines of force leave the North pole and enter the south pole forming a closed loop.
QUESTION: 44
A. Hydrogen is an element.
B. Hydrogen is the lightest element.
C. Hydrogen has no isotopes.
D. Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture.
Solution:
It is an element with symbol H and atomic number 1.
Hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table.
Isotopes are the atoms of the same element with different masses.
The three most stable isotopes of hydrogen: protium, deuterium, and tritium.
Deuterium is also called heavy hydrogen.
Tritium is a radioactive form of Hydrogen
QUESTION: 45
A. Atoms of different elements may have the same mass numbers.
B. Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers.
C. All the atoms of an element have the same number of protons.
D. All the atoms of an element will always have the same number of neutrons.
Solution:
An atom is a fundamental piece of matter or basic building block of any matter
The atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.
The atomic mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
Isotope – When an element has the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. It means the same
element can have a different mass number.
Isotopes of different elements can have the same mass number, e.g., carbon-14 (6 protons and 8 neutrons) and
nitrogen-14 (7 protons and 7 neutrons).
Atoms of a particular element must have the same number of protons. It can not differ.
All the atoms of an element will not always have the same number of neutrons. It can have a different number of
neutrons.
QUESTION: 46
Which of the following statements regarding the chemical industry in India is/are correct?
1. The chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India.
2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of the chemical industry.
3. The textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
The chemical industry comprises companies that produce industrial chemicals.
India is the fourth largest producer of agrochemicals after US, Japan, and China.
Dyestuff is organic or inorganic substances which can absorb light and reflect some lights to show color.
India is a strong global dye supplier, accounting for approximately 16% of the world production of dyestuff and dye
intermediates.
Maharashtra and Gujarat account for 90% of dyestuff production in India due to the availability of raw materials and
dominance of the textile industry in these regions.
QUESTION: 47
Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in
Antarctica is/are correct?
1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri.
2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as a supply base and transit camp.
3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Dakshin Gangotri is located at a distance of 2,500 kilometers from the South Pole.
It is named after Dakshin Gangotri Glacier.
It was established in 1984 and was decommissioned in 1990.
Maitri station is India's second permanent research station in Antarctica
India has decided to replace its Maitri research station in Antarctica with a new one in the next three to four years.
QUESTION: 48
The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for domestic and industrial purposes.
Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?
A. Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand for different industries.
B. Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only.
C. The raw material for synthetic rubber is easily available.
D. Natural rubber is not durable.
Solution:
Natural rubber is an elastomer or an elastic hydrocarbon polymer.
In rubber, the monomer is a carbon compound called isoprene that has two carbon-carbon double bonds.
It is an elastic substance obtained from the latex sap of trees belonging to Hevea and Ficus.
Rubber trees are grown in regions that are hot and moist.
Vulcanization is a chemical process for converting natural rubber by adding sulfur or other curative.
Vulcanization makes rubber much stronger, more flexible, and more resistant to heat and other environmental
conditions.
Thailand is the leading natural rubber producing country, followed by Indonesia.
QUESTION: 49
A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 s. If
the sound moves with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?
A. 102 m
B. 11 m
C. 51 m
D. 30 m
Solution:
An echo is a sound that is repeated because the sound waves are reflected back again and again.
Distance= velocity × time
= 340 × 0.3
= 102 m
But the distance of the wall from the person will be half of it.
= 102/2 = 51m
QUESTION: 50
Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest
to the lowest) from the mean sea level:
1. Mussoorie
2. Shimla
3. Ooty
4. Darjeeling
A. 3-2-4-1
B. 3-1-4-2
C. 2-3-4-1
D. 2-4-1-3
Solution:
QUESTION: 51

1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of a good life for the
individual as well as society.
2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against
Colonial Raj in India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
Hind Swaraj is the name of a book written by Gandhi in 1909 while he was abroad. It is written in a dialogic form
between the Reader and the Editor.
The book was written in Gujarati was translated into English as Gujarati version was banned by the Britishers.
He critiqued modern civilization and extensively discussed Indian Swaraj and the methods to achieve it.
He was dejected by the treatment in South Africa and his exposure to western civilization during his study days, and
his growing interest in freeing India from British colonialism led him to write Hind Swaraj.
QUESTION: 52
Which of the following is/are Constitutional Body /Bodies?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
2. National Commission for Women
3. National Commission for Minorities
4. National Human Rights Commission

A. 1 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution:
Constitutional bodies in India are bodies that are mentioned in the Indian constitution. It derives its power from the
Constitution. It can be created or modified only by passing the Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Statutory Body in India is the non- constitutional body and created by an act of Parliament. A resolution is passed to
create such a body.
As per the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, National Commission of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was divided
into National Commission of Scheduled Castes and National Commission of Scheduled Tribes by inserting Article
338-A.
National Commission for Women is a statutory body advising the government on policy matter related to Women.
National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
to safeguard and provide fundamental rights to Minorities.
National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body set up in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993. It works towards granting the rights relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual guaranteed by
the Constitution.
QUESTION: 53
Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian

Resurgence (1955) are correct?
1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri

Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the
world’s population sent delegates.
2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as
a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia.
3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China
and the United States.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
The Bandung Conference took place in Bandung, Indonesia with the participation of Asian and African States in
1955. The 29 countries participated in the Conference.
The Conference was an important step towards the Non-Aligned Movement as it aimed to promote Afro-Asian
economic and cultural cooperation and to oppose colonialism by any nation.
The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western
powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia.
The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States.
QUESTION: 54
Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a
pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture?
A. Amalananda Ghosh
B. Rakhaldas Banerji
C. Daya Ram Sahni
D. Sir John Marshall
Solution:
The Indus Valley Civilisation was a Bronze Age civilization in the north-western regions of South Asia, lasting from
3300 BCE to 1300 BCE, and in mature form from 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE.
The mature period of Indus Valley Civilisation is known as Harappan Civilisation. Harappa is now in Pakistan.
Amalananda Ghosh was an Indian archaeologist, the author, and editor of numerous works on India’s ancient
civilizations, and the organizer and director of archaeological expeditions during the mid-1900s.
RD Banerjee is mostly known as the discoverer of Mohenjo-Daro, the principal site of the Harappa culture.
Daya Ram Sahani supervised the excavation of the Indus Valley site at Harappa in 1921-22. He became the first
Indian to be appointed Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
John Marshall was the Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India from 1902 to 1928. He oversaw the
excavations of Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
QUESTION: 55
Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at
Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram?
A. Both are examples of Nagara architecture.
B. Both are carved out from solid rocks.
C. Both are Gupta period temples.
D. Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings.
Solution:
Kailasanath temple is one of the largest Indian megalith temples located in the Ellora, Maharashtra.
It is said to be constructed by Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
Shore Temple at Mamallapuram is a structural temple, built with blocks of granite.
It was built during the reign of Narasimhavarman II of the Pallava dynasty.
The Gupta period was from 3rd century to mid 6th century.
QUESTION: 56
Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?
1. The stories of Krishna
2. Ragas and Raginis
3. The deeds of Hamza
4. The deeds of Babur

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 4 only
Solution:
Rajput Painting originated in Rajasthan around the late 16th and early 17th century.
Since Mughal rules most of the Rajasthan, the painting has a strong reflection of Mughal influence.
Some of the Rajput Paintings also depicts the events took place in Ramayana and life of Lord Krishna.
Ragamala painting depicts Ragas, Ragini, and their sons and daughters.
QUESTION: 57
Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and
to achieve stability in the economic situation?
A. Fourth Plan (1969-74)
B. Fifth Plan (1974-79)
C. Sixth Plan (1980-85)
D. Seventh Plan (1985-90)
Solution:
QUESTION: 58
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Phillips Curve?
1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation.
2. The downward sloping curve of the Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in
the short run.
3. In the long run, the Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-
accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU).
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Philips curve states that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. It is named after William
Philip.
It claims that economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment. But
this is said to be true only in the short run.
In the long run, rising inflation will not decrease unemployment. The long-run Phillips curve is seen as a vertical line
at the natural rate of unemployment, where the rate of inflation has no effect on unemployment.
The non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU) is the specific unemployment rate at which the
rate of inflation stabilizes and inflation will neither increase nor decrease.
QUESTION: 59
Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union?
A. Belarus
B. Russia
C. Kazakhstan
D. Uzbekistan
Solution:
Eurasian Economic Union is a union comprising countries located in northern Eurasia.
Belarus, Kazakhstan, Armenia, and Russia are the founding member countries of this union. It was founded in 2015.
The EAEU ensures the free movement of goods, services, labor and capital between the states.
As of May 2018 member states included Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia.
QUESTION: 60
BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit
held in:
A. New Delhi, India (2012)
B. Durban, South Africa (2013)
C. Fortaleza, Brazil (2014)
D. Ufa, Russia (2015)
Solution:
BRICS is the acronym for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. It was founded in 2006. South Africa,
however, was included in 2010
The New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states. It was formerly
known as the BRICS Development Bank. The treaty was signed in July 2014. The Bank is headquartered in
Shanghai
Its objective is to promote infrastructure and sustainable development projects with a significant development impact
in member countries.
QUESTION: 61
Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun are the schemes of:
A. Regional Rural Banks.
B. Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA).
C. Small Industries Development Bank of India.
D. Industrial Development Bank of India.
Solution:
Mudra Yojana provides loans to new entrepreneurs under three categories: Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun
Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000 is provided
Kishor: Loans up to Rs. 5 lakh is provided
Tarun: Loans up to Rs. 5 lakh to 10 lakh is provided
QUESTION: 62

1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok
Sabha.
2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term
and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the
station or during his illness.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by the absolute majority. It is
also mandatory to give a minimum of 14 days' notice of the intention to move the resolution.
The Speaker may at any time by order in writing delegate to the Deputy Speaker. The vote of Speaker is called
“Casting Vote”.
The first speaker of Lok Sabha was Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar. The current speaker is Sumitra Mahajan.
The First female speaker of Lok Sabha is Meira Kumar.
QUESTION: 63
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with:
A. reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance.
B. reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System.
C. creating an ombudsman mechanism for reduction of corruption in public life.
D. devising new measures for urban governance and management.
Solution:
Administrative Reforms Commission is the committee appointed by the Government of India to give
recommendations for reviewing the public administration system of India.
The first Commission was established on 5 January 1966.
The Second Commission set up a resolution to revamp the public Administration of India.
QUESTION: 64
As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order:
1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority.
2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no

jurisdiction to try.
3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Writ-Writs are issued by Supreme Court and High Court for enforcement of the Fundamental rights given in Part III
and article 32 of the Constitution. Supreme Court has to power to issue a writ to make available “Right to
Constitutional Remedies” to every citizen.
There are five types of writs
QUESTION: 65
Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in
Prayag Prashasti?
A. Sharp and polished intellect
B. Accomplished sculptor
C. Fine musical performances
D. The poetical talent of a genius
Solution:
Samudragupta was the 4th-century ruler and son of Chandragupta I. He succeeded his father in the year 335 A.D
Harisena composed the Prashasti of Samudragupta
In Allahabad Pillar Inscription, Samudragupta is said to be “King of poets”
It also praises his political and military achievements
He performed the Ashvamedha sacrifice to prove his imperial sovereignty, and according to his coins, remained
undefeated.
QUESTION: 66
Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to:
A. Logic and Philosophy
B. Mathematics
C. Political morality
D. Grammar
Solution:
Kamandaka’s Nitisara is based on Kautilya’s Arthashastra.
This book was written during the Gupta Period.
It depicts the political life, diplomacy, and statecraft in ancient times in India.
QUESTION: 67
The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on:
A. Mathematics
B. Surgery
C. Poetics
D. Linguistics
Solution:
Lilavati is a book written on Mathematics by mathematician Bhaskara II.
The book dates back to 1150. There are 13 chapters in the Book.
A Persian translation of the Lilavati was commissioned in 1587 by Emperor Akbar and it was executed by Faizi. It is
believed that Lilavati was the name of Bhaskara’s daughter.
QUESTION: 68
Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the concept of ‘EFFICIENCY’
as used in mainstream economics?
1. Efficiency occurs when no possible organization of production can make anyone better
off without making someone else worse off.
2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF).
3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF).
4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are
all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resource allocation’.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution:
Pareto efficiency or Pareto Optimality’ is an economic state where resources cannot be reallocated to make one
individual better off without making at least one individual worse off.
Production Possibility Frontier shows the maximum possible output one can achieve when good and services are
efficiently employed.
The Pareto Efficiency states that any point within the PPF curve is considered inefficient because the total output of
commodities is below the output capacity.
Allocational efficiency is a characteristic of an efficient market in which capital is allocated in a way that is most
beneficial to the parties involved.
QUESTION: 69
The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in:
A. Jaipur
B. Suva
C. New Delhi
D. Port Moresby
Solution:
This cooperation was developed between India and 14 Pacific Islands in 2014.
The islands are Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands,
Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu, etc.
All the heads of respective governments met in Suva, Fiji for the first time.
India has grown commercially around the Indian Ocean and it wants to expand its horizon and engage with Pacific
boundaries.
QUESTION: 70
Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month
of August 2015.
A. Maldives
B. Fiji
C. Sri Lanka
D. Singapore
Solution:
The United National Front for Good Governance won 106 seats but failed to secure a majority in Parliament.
Ranil Wickremesinghe, leader of the U.N.F.G.G and UNP, was able to form a national government with the
support of UPFA MPs.
QUESTION: 71
Which one of the following nations has faced a severe economic crisis in the year 2015
resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?
A. China
B. Greece
C. Ireland
D. Belgium
Solution:
Greece became the first developed country to fail to make an IMF loan repayment on time.
Between 2009 and 2017, the critical debt-to-GDP ratio reached 179% due to severe GDP drop of the Greek
economy.
QUESTION: 72
Who among the following Prime Ministers of India was defeated by a vote of No
Confidence?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
3. H.D. Deve Gowda
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Solution:
In India, a motion of no confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
At least 50 members of the Lok Sabha should support the motion of No Confidence.
If a majority of the members of the House vote in favor of the motion, the motion is passed and the Government is
bound to vacate the office.
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House
of the People.
The Following Prime Ministers were defeated by a vote of confidence in the respective year
1. Morarji Desai - 1978
2. Viswanath Pratap Singh - 1990
3. H. D. Deve Gowda - 1997
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee - 1999
QUESTION: 73
Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct?
1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250.
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union
Territories.
3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as the creation of
All India Services.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Solution:
Rajya Sabha is also known as the Upper House of the Parliament.
Rajya Sabha is not subjected to dissolution.
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Article 84 of the Indian Constitution includes the provision of qualification deemed to be necessary to become Rajya
Sabha member.
In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories. 12 members are
nominated by the President from amongst people expertise in any of the following subject- literature, science, art, and
social service.
Article 312 says that an All India Service can be created only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares, by
resolution supported by not less than a two-thirds majority. It can not be created by Lok Sabha.
QUESTION: 74
Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are
correct?
1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases.
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session.
3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during the emergency.
4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the
Anglo Indian community.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4
Solution:
Under Article 72, President has to power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases.
The power includes to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or
commute the sentence of any person convicted for the offense.
Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances
when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
The maximum validity of an ordinance is 6 months and 6 weeks.
The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved even in the case of Emergency.
Article 331 empowers the President to nominate a maximum of two members from the Anglo-Indian community.
QUESTION: 75
The followers of Gorakhnath were called:
A. Jogis
B. Nath-Panthis
C. Tantriks
D. Sanyasis
Solution:
The followers of Gorakhnath are known as Yogi/Jogi, as Nath Yogis, Gorakhnathis, Kanphatas.
He is believed to be the founder of Kanphata yogis, that stresses the physical and spiritual disciplines of Hatha Yoga.
Hatha Yoga is a technique or philosophy that uses mastery of the body as the means to spiritual perfection.
QUESTION: 76
What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called?
A. Misl
B. Gurmata
C. Sardari
D. Rakhi
Solution:
Sikhism was founded in Punjab by Guru Nanak in the 15th Century.
Sikh religion is believed to be have ten gurus- Guru Nanak, Guru Angad, Guru Amar Das, Guru Ram Das, Guru
Arjan, Guru Hargobind, Guru Har Rai, Guru Har Krishan, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Gobind Singh.
Misl is a term which originated in the eighteenth-century history of the Sikhs to describe a unit or brigade of Sikh
warriors.
The 'Misldar' was the leader or commander.
QUESTION: 77
Which of the statements given below is /are correct?
1. The idea of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers
than the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set
up under the Constitution of India in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only
Solution:
Article 44 contains the provision of Uniform Civil Code. The Directive Principles of State Policies say that “the state
shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
Article 32 contains the power given the Supreme Court for enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of India. Article
226 contains the power of the High Court.
The Supreme Court has the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights of a person but the High Courts have the
power to deal with Fundamental Right as well as the legal rights of a person/entity. Hence, we can say High Courts
enjoy more power that the Supreme Court.
Supreme Court of India is the highest Constitutional court in India. It was established in 1950. It replaced both
the Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council which were then at the apex of the Indian
court system.
QUESTION: 78
Which of the following is/are the example(s) of Transfer Payment(s)?
1. Unemployment Allowance
2. Payment of Salary
3. Social Security Payments
4. Old age Pension

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above
Solution:
In layman term, A transfer payment is money paid to an individual who has not performed any service or rendered
any goods for it. It is a public expenditure made for a purpose such as unemployment compensation, subsidy.
Unemployment Allowance: As the name suggests, it is the allowance made to people who are unemployed.
Payment of Salary cannot be a transfer payment as payment is being done for the service being provided.
A retirement, health, old age, disability, unemployment and maternity benefits come under the Social Security
Payments.
The old age pension is given when you attain a particular age. In India, Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension
Scheme (IGNOAPS) is an old age pension scheme that covers Indians who are 60 years and above and lives below
the poverty line.
QUESTION: 79
The Erawan shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August 2015, is located at:
A. Singapore
B. Bangkok
C. Kuala Lumpur
D. Kabul
Solution:
On 17 August 2015, a bombing took place inside the Erawan Shrine at the Ratchaprasong intersection of
Bangkok, Thailand killing 20 people. Thailand is the capital of Bangkok.
QUESTION: 80
Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World
Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015?
A. Jwala Gutta
B. Saina Nehwal
C. P.V. Sindhu
D. Madhumita Bisht
Solution:
QUESTION: 81
Which one of the following Articles /Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with
Autonomous District Councils?
A. Eighth Schedule
B. Article 370
C. Sixth Schedule
D. Article 250
Solution:
QUESTION: 82
Which of the following statements with regard to UID / Aadhar Card is correct?
1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all residents of India.
2. It is an identification number along with the biometric information of the individuals.
3. It is a national identity and citizenship card.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identity number that can be obtained by residents of India.
The data is collected by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), a statutory authority established in
January 2009.
The Aadhaar number is linked to the resident's basic demographic and biometric information such as a photograph,
ten fingerprints and two iris scans, which are stored in a centralized database.
Aadhaar card has been in controversy for the breach of privacy. In 2018, the Supreme Court judgment says that no
private company or bank can ask for an individual's Aadhaar as a mandatory document for verification.
QUESTION: 83
Which of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
are correct?
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office.
He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6-
year term.
2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India.
3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation

with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of
Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2 only
Solution:
The CAG was established in India under Article 148.
It audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments.
The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on
attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6-year term.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India are appointed by the President of India following a recommendation by
the Prime Minister.
The CAG can be removed only on an address from both houses of parliament on the ground of proved misbehavior
or incapacity.
Rajiv Mehrishi is the current CAG of India.
QUESTION: 84
Human Development Report for each year at the global level is published by:
A. WTO
B. World Bank
C. UNDP
D. IMF
Solution:
Human Development Report for each year at the global level is published by Human Development Report
Office of the United National Development Programme.
QUESTION: 85
Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is
correct?
A. The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and date.
B. The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and date.
C. The obverse generally had the king’s portrait and the reverse had an image of a deity or a motif.
D. The obverse generally had the king’s portrait and reverse always had a date.
Solution:
Sri Gupta was the founder of the Gupta Empire.
The most notable rulers of the dynasty were Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II.
This period had great scholars like Kalidas, Aryabhatta, etc.
Guptas are famous for their gold and silver coinage.
The coins depicted the ruling king on the obverse and carried legends with the figure of a goddess on the reverse.
In many coins, Samudragupta is depicted as playing Veena, holding bow and arrow, etc.
QUESTION: 86
The Agrahara in early India was:
A. the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins
B. the garland of flowers of Agar
C. the grant of land to officers and soldiers
D. land or village settled by Vaishya farmers
Solution:
The grant of land or money given by kings to Brahmins for religious purposes. It may include maintaining temples,
offering made to God in temples, maintaining the educational institution, etc.
These are mainly found in the Southern part of India.
QUESTION: 87
Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?
1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been
occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980.
2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments.
3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling
Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, has been enacted
to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation of forest land in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other
traditional forest dwellers, who have been residing in such forests for generations, but whose rights could not be
recorded.
It is recognized to those who have been occupying the land before October 25, 1980.
The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments.
QUESTION: 88
Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with:
A. Kristina Mladenovic
B. Flavia Pennetta
C. Martina Hingis
D. Sania Mirza
Solution:
Leander Paes is an Indian Tennis Player. He has been awarded Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Arjuna Awards.
Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with Martina Hingis.
QUESTION: 89
Who among the following is the winner of the World Food Prize (the year 2015)?
A. Sanjaya Rajaram
B. Baldev Singh Dhillon
C. Sir Fazle Hasan Abed
D. Rajendra Singh Paroda
Solution:
Fazle Hasan Abed of Bangladesh, the internationally renowned founder and chairperson of BRAC, was honored
with 2015 World Food Prize for his unparalleled achievement in building a unique, integrated development
organization that many have hailed as the most effective anti-poverty organization in the world.
Dr. Sanjaya Rajaram was the winner of the 2014 World Food Prize.
Baldev Singh Dhillon is an internationally renowned agricultural scientist.
Rajender Singh Paroda is a former Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research and Secretary.
QUESTION: 90
In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme
Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of the death penalty was first laid
down?
A. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
B. Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala(1980)
C. Dr. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983)
D. Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra(1979)
Solution:
Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) states that Capital punishment in India can be given only in rarest of rare
cases.
Capital punishment is a legal penalty in India.
In India, capital punishment is awarded for murder, gang robbery with murder, abetting the suicide of a child or insane
person, waging war against the government, and abetting mutiny by a member of the armed forces. It is also given
under some anti-terror laws for those convicted for terrorist activities.
QUESTION: 91
Consider the following statements about the President of India:
1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to
elicit specific information.
2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union
must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Under Article 74 There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the
President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
Under Article 78, it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of
Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation.
It is the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union
and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.
QUESTION: 92
In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional validity of the Muslim Women
(Protection of Rights on Divorce)Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India?
A. Muhammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
B. Danial Latifi v. Union of India
C. Mary Roy v. State of Kerala
D. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Solution:
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was a controversially named landmark legislation passed
by the parliament of India in 1986.
The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano case.
In Bano case, the Supreme Court held that divorced Muslim women had the right to maintenance even after the
period of iddat was over.
In Danial Latifi vs Union of India, a divorced Muslim woman is entitled to reasonable and fair provision and
maintenance from her former husband and this should be paid within the period of iddah.
QUESTION: 93
Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is/are true?
1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha.
2. Rulers used the title “Hindu Suratrana” to indicate their close links with Gods.
3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil.
4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples.
A. 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Solution:
Vijayanagara Empire was established by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty in 1336.
Suratrana means protector of gods. In 1352, Bukka Raya assumed the title of Hinduraya Suratrana.
The administrative and court languages of the Empire were Kannada and Telugu. All royal orders were signed “Shri
Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script.
Royal portrait sculpture displayed in temples as the king’s visit to the temple was considered a special occasion.
QUESTION: 94
Iqta in medieval India meant:
A. the land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes
B. land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers
C. charity for educational and cultural activities
D. the rights of the zamindar
Solution:
Iltutmish established the Iqta system.
Iqta was land given to Turkish nobles instead of paying salary. The person holding the Iqta was then called as
Iqtadar.
Iqtadar has to collect revenue from the people living on his Iqta. He then to have to manage the administrative
expenditure and also pay the tax to the ruler.
QUESTION: 95
Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court?
A. Hamzanama
B. Razmnama
C. Baburnama
D. Tarikh-i-AIfi
Solution:
QUESTION: 96
Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’?
A. Electricity
B. National Defence
C. Light House
D. Public Parks
Solution:
A public good is a commodity or a service provided to the Citizen without any intention of making a profit out of it.
Electricity is not provided free. People pay for the service or the unit of electricity they consume.
National Defence, Light House, and Public Parks are an example of Public goods as people are not charged for it by
the government.
QUESTION: 97
Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57
to 1960-61)?
A. Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries
B. A large expansion of employment opportunities
C. Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements
of industry and exports
D. Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power
Solution:
The Second Five Year Plan followed the Mahalanobis model. The essence of the model is a shift in the pattern of
industrial investment towards building up a domestic consumption goods sector
The main objective of the Second Five Year Plan was rapid industrialization and increased productivity by upgrading
the technology.
The sizeable increase in the national income to raise the level of living
To provide social and economic justice and increase employment.
QUESTION: 98
The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age
of:
A. 12 years
B. 14 years
C. 16 years
D. 18 years
Solution:
The Government adopted National Policy for Children, 2013 on 26th April 2013.
The Policy recognizes every person below the age of eighteen years as a child and covers all children within the
territory and jurisdiction of the country.
The Policy has identified four key priority areas: survival, health, and nutrition; education and development; protection
and participation, for focused attention.
QUESTION: 99
Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
Abhiyan?
A. Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017
B. 100 percent of girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020
C. Promote a protective environment for girl children through the implementation of Protection of
Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)Act, 2012
D. Train Elected Representatives / Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize

communities to improve CSR and promote girl’s education
Solution:
Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao is a campaign launched in 2015 aiming at spreading awareness and improve the efficiency
of welfare services intended for girls.
One of the monitorable targets is to provide girls toilet in every school by 2017.
To Promote a protective environment for girl children through the implementation of Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act,2012 (POCSO).
To mobilize communities to improve Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and promote girls to the education
To increase the girl enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-2014 to 79% by 2017
Target to improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by at least 10 points
QUESTION: 100
Which one of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha
Abhiyan (RUSA)?
A. Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions
B. Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems
C. Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education
D. Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research
and innovations
Solution:
Rashtriya Uchchattar Shiksha Abhiyan is a scheme of development launched by the Ministry of Human Resource
Development for higher education in India It was launched in 2013
It aimed at providing strategic funding to higher education institutions throughout the country
RUSA aims to provide equal development to all higher institutions and rectify weaknesses in the higher education
system.
QUESTION: 101
Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is/are
correct?
1. The Detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article
22 of the Constitution of India
2. The Detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was
already in jail when the detention order was passed
3. The Detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-
four hours without an order of the magistrate
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Article 22 of the Indian Constitution contains “Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases”
Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 shall apply to a person detained under any law providing for preventive
detention which means he can not claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours
without an order of the magistrate
The Detenue under prevention detention has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22
of the Constitution of India
QUESTION: 102
A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the
House if the Member:
A. voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected
B. is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House
C. joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate
D. abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his / her political party
Solution:
The Representation of People Act, 1951 also lays down certain conditions for disqualification of MPs and MLAs
The matter will be taken up by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (as the case may be)
to disqualification of a member of the Parliament.
He does not become disqualified if is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House
QUESTION: 103
Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution of India?
A. English
B. Sanskrit
C. Urdu
D. Nepali
Solution:
Eight Schedule contains a list of 22 official languages of India which are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri,
Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi,
Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu.
QUESTION: 104
Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to?
A. Avadh
B. Travancore
C. Vijayanagara
D. Ahom
Solution:
Hazara Rama Temple was built in the early part of the 15th century by the then king of Vijayanagara, Devaraya I.
It is in Hampi, Karnataka.
The temple is famous for the relics and panels depicting the story of the epic Ramayana.
QUESTION: 105
Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC:
1. They record gifts made to religious institutions
2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of
one person to another person
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
Votive inscriptions denote an object as a votive offering to a deity.
Votive inscriptions (2nd century) is giving offerings to deity/forces to gain favor.
QUESTION: 106

1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which
systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems.
2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eighth century
is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
Abhinavagupta was a scholar who practiced the philosophy of Kashmir Shaivism. He was a philosopher.
Tantraloka which means “Light on Tantra” was written by him. presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems.
Haribhadra Suri was a Svetambara mendicant Jain. He wrote Samaraichchakaha.
Samaraichchakaha narrates the effects of karma in a story about the enmity of its characters which endures over
several reincarnations.
QUESTION: 107
Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’?
1. Treasury Bill
2. Credit Card
3. Savings accounts and small time deposits
4. Retail money market mutual funds

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4
Solution:
Near Money: It is a term used to describe highly liquid assets which are not cash but can easily be converted
into cash.
QUESTION: 108
Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for
avoiding risk by making a counteracting transaction?
A. Dumping
B. Hedging
C. Discounting
D. Deflating
Solution:
QUESTION: 109
‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy Award winner in the category of the documentary feature,
is based on the life of:
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Albert Einstein
C. Edward Snowden
D. Laura Poitras
Solution:
Citizenfour is a 2014 documentary film directed by Laura Poitras.
It is based on the life of Edward Snowden
Edward Snowden was an American whistle-blower who leaked highly classified information from the National
Security Agency (NSA) in 2013 when he was a Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) employee and contractor.
He was granted asylum in Russian and has been living there till date.
QUESTION: 110
Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 2015-16?
A. Online booking of disposable bedrolls
B. Defense Travel System to eliminate Warrants
C. 180 days in an advance ticket booking facility for passengers
D. Bio-toilets
Solution:
There were nine major thrust areas in Railway Budget.
It included-
1. Indian Railways to become the prime mover of the economy once again
2. Resource Mobilization for higher Investments
3. Decongestion of heavy haul routes and speeding up of trains: emphasis on gauge conversion, doubling,
tripling and electrification
4. Project delivery
5. Passenger Amenities.
6. Safety
7. Transparency & System Improvement.
8. Railways to continue to be the preferred mode of transport for the masses.
9. Sustainability.
QUESTION: 111
Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discontinued?
A. Money Order
B. Telegram
C. Postal Life Insurance
D. Inland Letter
Solution:
In 1854, service of the telegram was made available to the public in India
On July 14, 2013, telegram service in India was discontinued permanently
QUESTION: 112
The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India was entered in the Citizenship Act of India
through an amendment in the year:
A. 1986
B. 1992
C. 1996
D. 2003
Solution:
The Overseas Citizenship of India is an immigration status permitting a foreign citizen of Indian origin to live and work
in the Republic of India indefinitely.
The Citizenship Act of India is covered in Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution of India.
The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955 in
August 2005.
OCI is not to be misconstrued as 'dual citizenship'. OCI does not confer political rights.
QUESTION: 113
The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
through the:
A. Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
B. Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005
C. Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003
D. Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
Solution:
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free
and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
QUESTION: 114
Consider the following statements :
1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma
2. The Nigali Sagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana
stupa
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
Ashoka’s dhamma was a code of conduct and a set of principles on how to live a life.
It said that everyone should practice the principle of ahimsa, i.e. non-violence and non-injury to all living beings.
The Edicts of Ashoka are in total 33 inscriptions written on the Pillars, boulders and cave walls of Mauryan Period.
Rummindei Pillar Inscription (also known as Lumbini Pillar Edict) is in Nepal. It depicts that Ashoka traveled to the
Buddha’s birthplace. He reduced the taxes of the people living in that area.
Nigali Sagar is also in Nepal. The edict ascertains the fact that Emperor Asoka enlarged the Kanakamuni Buddha's
stupa and worshiped it.
Konagamana stupa is also known as Kanakamuni stupa.
QUESTION: 115
Consider the following statements :
1 The province of Assam was created in the year 1911
2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship
of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner
in the year 1874
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
Assam territory was separated from Bengal in 1874 and it was known as “North-East Frontier” non-regulation
province.
In 1905, It was incorporated into the new province of “Eastern Bengal and Assam”.
However, in 1912, separate Assam Province was created under British India. It was created by the partition of the
“Eastern Bengal and Assam” Province.
The statehood was granted to Assam in 1950. It is bordered by Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh to the north and
Bangladesh to the south.
Assam has many wildlife sanctuaries including Kaziranga National Park and Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
QUESTION: 116
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of
Buddhist sites and practices in India
2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text
3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing
monastic rules
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Solution:
Faxian was a Chinese Buddhist Monk.
He visited many Buddhist sites in the Indian subcontinent and Central Asia to acquire Buddhist texts.
Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan described his journey through Central Asia to India and back to China by the maritime route
via South-East Asia
In 414, he wrote a book on his travels, filled with accounts of early Buddhism, and the geography and history of
numerous countries. He is said to be 77 years old when he wrote these records.
QUESTION: 117
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Ability to pay the principal of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay
should relate to their income or wealth
2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion
to the benefit they receive from Government programmes
3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich
families
4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution:
Tax is a mandatory financial implication on the taxpayer by the Government to collectively meet the public
expenditure.
Individuals who earn more are required to pay more tax to the government than individuals who earn less. This is the
ability to pay taxation.
Benefits received Principle states that the tax to be paid should be directly proportional to the number of benefits
being received from the use of public services and goods that are provided by the government.
Progressive Tax: Lower tax rate is imposed on fewer income earners and the higher tax rate is imposed on more
income earners. Hence, the average tax rate increases as the taxable amount increases.
Direct Tax is a tax that is directly paid to the government by the taxpayer. Indirect tax is usually imposed on a
manufacturer or supplier who then passes on the tax to the consumer.
QUESTION: 118
Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and
independent members
2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage
boards are statutory in nature
3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage
boards
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
The Wage Boards in India comprises representatives from industry, trade unions and the government.
It helps in determining the wages of the workers in different categories.
The wage board fixes and revise various components of wages like HRA, DA, Basic Pay, etc.
The Second Commission suggested that there is no need for any wage board for fixing wage rates for workers in any
industry. It opined that each state or union territory should have the authority to fix minimum rates of wage not less
than the national level
The Wage Boards for journalists and non-journalists newspaper and news-agency employees are statutory Wage
Board and all other Wage Boards are non-statutory in nature.
QUESTION: 119
The rank of Major General in the Indian Army is equivalent to:
A. Air Marshal in Indian Air Force
B. Rear Admiral in Indian Navy
C. Air Commodore in Indian Air Force
D. Commodore in Indian Navy
Solution:
The rank of Major General in the Indian Army is equivalent to Rear Admiral in Indian Navy.
QUESTION: 120
Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is no:
A. Communication satellite
B. Navigation satellite
C. Earth observation satellite
D. Jupiter orbiter satellite
Solution:
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CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016 - 120 Questions MCQ Test

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9/7/2021 CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016 | 120 Questions MCQ Test

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CDS I - General Knowledge Question Paper 2016

Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to

A. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

B. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)

The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant:

Momentum = Mass × velocity

d(momentum) = mass × d(velocity)

Force = mass × acceleration

B. water has a lower specific heat capacity.

C. water is easily available.

D. water has a large latent heat of vaporization.

Consider the following map of India:

Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of:

Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India:

1. Laterite soils are generally red in color.

2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash.

3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP.

4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.

1. Precipitation in the Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is

3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates.

B. Seeds or tissues for breeding

C. Egg and sperm repository

D. A germ cell’s determining the zone

1. interfering in the process of platelet production in the bone marrow.

2. infecting endothelial cells.

3. binding with platelets.

4. accumulating platelets in the intestine.

The SI unit of mechanical power is:

Power is the amount of energy transferred per unit time.

Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if:

C. there is no heat flow between them.

D. their temperatures are slightly different.

A. It is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components.

B. Germans were the first to use silver.

C. Its appearance is like silver.

Plants contain a variety of sterols like

A. East Central Railway

B. South Eastern Railway

C. South Western Railway

D. West Central Railway

Stalactites and stalagmites are features of:

A. Mars - Venus - Earth - Mercury - Uranus

B. Mercury - Mars - Venus - Earth - Uranus

C. Mercury - Mars - Venus - Uranus - Earth

D. Venus - Mercury - Mars-Earth - Uranus

D. Egg and sperm

1. introduction of new DNA

2. removal of existing DNA

4. introduction of new traits

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. does not depend upon the nature of media

B. is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids

C. is maximum in solids and minimum in liquids

D. is maximum in solids and minimum in gases

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature.

B. Sound waves having a frequency below 20 Hz are known as ultrasonic waves

C. Sound waves having higher amplitudes are louder.

D. Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp.

Which one of the following vitamins have a role in blood clotting?

Consider the following statements: