CHAPTER-1

AIRPORT ENGINEERING
1. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft effective gradient on runway is 0 .5 percent,
is (ESE - 1997) the revised runway length will be (ESE - 1999)
(a) Equal to the maximum structural landing (a) 2845 m (b) 2910 m
Weight (c) 3030 m (d) 3130 m
(b) Less than the maximum structural landing 7. Match List – I with List – II with reference to
Weight airport engineering and select the correct
(c) More than the maximum structural landing answer using the codes given below the lists:
Weight (ESE - 2000)
(d) Equal to the empty operating weight plus the List - I
Payload A. PNB B. LCN C. STOL
2. Consider the following statements: List – II
Wind rose diagram is used for the purpose of 1. Noise level
1. Runway orientation 2. Visual range
2. Estimating the runway capacity 3. Airport pavement evaluation
3. Geometric design of holding apron 4. Type of aircraft
Which of these statements is are correct? Codes:
(ESE - 1997) List – II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Basic runway length
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 alone A B C A B C
3. Which of the following factors are taken into (a) 1 3 4 (b) 1 4 3
account for estimating the runway length (c) 4 2 1 (d) 2 3 4
requires for aircraft landing? 8. For a runway at an elevation of 1000 m above
1. Normal maximum temperature MSL and airport reference temperature of 16o
2. Airport elevation C, the rise in temperature to be taken into
3. Maximum landing weight account as per ICAO is (ESE - 2000)
4. Effective runway gradient (a) 24 o C (b) 15o C (c) 7.5o C (d) 6 o C
Select the correct answer using the codes given 9. Assertion (A): Scissor crossing is provided
below: where space does not permit provision of two
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 separate crossovers.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Reason (R): A scissor crossing consists of four
4. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each pairs of switches, six acute angle crossing and
located well-separated are considered for four obtuse angle crossings and check rails.
traffic and the further to present traffic ratio (ESE - 2000)
is 3, then the total requirement of further gates (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
will be (ESE - 1998) explanation of A
(a) 32 (b) 36 (b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct
(c) 44 (d) 68 explanation of A
5. Castor angle is defined as the angle (ESE - (c) A is true but R is false
1998) (d) A is false but R is true
(a) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the 10. A surface longitudinally centered on the
aircraft and the direction of movement of the extended runway centre line and extending
nose gear outward and upward is called (ESE – 2001)
(b) Between the direction of wind and the (a) primary surface (b) conical surface
longitudinal axis of the runway (c) horizontal surface (d) approach surface
(c) Between the true speed of the aircraft and the 11. Which of the following factors are to be
Crosswind component taken into consideration while designing the
(d) Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis taxiway system? (ESE - 2001)
6. The runway length after correcting for 1. Volume of air traffic
elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the 2. Runway configuration
3. Location of terminal building
1
 4. Location of hangars 15. Which one of the following imaginary
Select the correct answer using the codes given surface in airport is circular plan with centre
below: located at an elevation of 150 m above the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 airport reference point? (ESE-2003)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (a) Conical surface
12. In the figure shown below, “cockpit cut-off (b) Transitional surface
angle” is the angle labeled (ESE-2001) (c) Inner horizontal surface
(d) Outer horizontal surface
16. Consider the following four components in
an Instrumental Landing System:
(a) Threshold lights
(b) Glide slope antenna
(c) ‘z’ markers
(d) Localizer antenna
These components are installed in an airport in
influenced by (ESE - 2003)
(a) 4-2-3-1 (b) 1-4-3-2
(a) α (b) ß (c) ϕ (d) θ (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 2-3-4-1
13. Consider the following factors: (ESE- 17. The orientation of preferential runway in
an airport is influenced by (ESE - 2004)
2002)
(a) direction of prevailing wind, adequate length,
1. Air traffic control measures obstruction – free landing and take-off zones
2. Aircraft traffic composition (b) adequate waiting and service facilities
3. VFR/IFR operation (c) convenience of terminal and control facilities
4. Runway configuration (d) stable ground and adequate turning space
Which of these factors affected the capacity of 18. Consider the following aircraft
operations:
a runway?
1. Normal landing
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 2. Normal take-off with all engines
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Engine failure at take-off
14. Match List-I (Imaginary surface) with 4. Emergency landing with all engines shut
List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct 5. Landing with maximum payload with the
answer using the codes given below the lists: help of ILS
(ESE-2002) Which of the above aircraft operations are
List-I taken into consideration in deciding the basic
A. Conical B. Approach runway length required for an aircraft? (ESE
C. Primary D. Transitional - 2004)
List-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Longitudinally centered on a runway (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1 and 5
2. Longitudinally centered on the extended 19. Which one of the following gives the
runway number of gate positions in an airport?
3. Extending outward and upward from the (ESE - 2005)
periphery of the horizontal surface Capacity of runway
(a) × average gate
60 × 2
4. Extending outward and upward at right angles
to the runway center line occupancy time
Capacity of apron
Codes: (b) × number of aircraft
60 ×2
A B C D A B C D movements
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 2 1 3 Capacity of taxiway
(c) × average gate
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 60 ×2

2
 occupancy time A B C D
Capacity of holding apron (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(d) × average gate
60 × 2 (c ) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
occupancy time 24. M th
If i = Proportion of i type of aircraft in
20. Match List – I (Unit) with List – II the mix,
(Purpose) and select the correct answer
T i = “Gate occupancy time” of the i th type
using the codes given below the lists:
(ESE - 2005) of aircraft,
List – I G = Number of gates (considering that all
A. Width and length of safety area of aircraft the available gates can be used by all
B. Engine failure case aircraft)
C. Location of exit taxiways Which of the following equations gives the
D. Grading of aircraft size
ultimate gate capacity C? (ESE-2006)
List-II n
1. Basic runway length G ×60
2. Runway geometric design
∑ G× M i
i=1 n
3. Airport drainage (a) C= n (b) C =
∑ M iT
4. Runway capacity ∑Ti i=1
i

i=1
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 n
G
Mi n
(c) 2 4 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 (c) C = ∑ ×T i (d) C =
21. The percentage of time in a year during i=1 G ∑ M i× T i
i=1
which the cross wind component remains 25. The total correction percentage for
within the limit, is (ESE - 2005) altitude and temperature, in calculating the
(a) wind coverage (b) head wind runway length from basic runway length,
(c) prevailing wind (d) cross wind normally does not exceed (ESE - 2006)
22. At a certain station, the mean of the (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 35
average temperature is 25o C and mean of the 26. As the elevation increases, the runway
maximum daily temperature is40 o C , What is length has to be changed at what rate? (ESE-
the airport reference temperature (ART)? 2007)
(ESE-2005) (a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation
(a) 46.6 oC (b) 45 oC above MSL
(c) 35 Co
(d) 30o C (b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation
23. For design of a runway length, match List above MSL
– I (Factor) with List-II(Correction) and select (c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation
above MSL
the correct answer using the codes given
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation
below the list: (ESE - 2006) above MSL
List – I 27. The orientation of runaway is decided by
A. Standard basic length which factor?
B. Elevation 1. Maximum wind coverage and least cross winds
C. Temperature 2. Landing characteristics of aircrafts
D. Effective gradient 3. Scope for furniture expansion
4. Obstruct – and free approaches
List - II Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. 7% for every 303 meters below: (ESE-2008)
2. 0.5% (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. 20% for each 1% gradient (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
4. Depends upon aircraft and obtained from 28. The size of hanger in airport is guide by
ICAO Standard Tables which of the following? (ESE-2008)
(a) Speed and direction of wind and visibility
Codes:
3
 (b) Weight of aircraft and turning needs (c) A is true but R is false
(c) The fueling capacity and storage space (d) A is false but R is true
(d) The length wings span and height of aircraft
33. Wind-rose diagram is useful in deciding on
29. Match List-I (component) with List-II the orientation of
(design furniture) and select the correct (ESE-2011)
(a) Taxiway (b) Hanger
answer using the codes given below these list:
(c) Apron (d) Runway
(ESE-2008) 34. For safe landing and take-off, the following
factors need to be carefully considered
List-I 1. Cross-wind
A. Taxi ways 2. Runway grade
B. Control tower 3. Runway width and side clearance
C. Hanger 4. Obstructions
(ESE-2011)
D. Apron
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
List-II (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
35. Overland flow drainage on and from the
1. Largest pan structures tarmac of an airport invokes, in its design
2. Visibility allround and sound-proof principles involving: (ESE-2011)
3. Turning radius
4. Waiting capacity for aircraft (a) Spatially varied flow without hydraulic jumps
(b) Backwater flow
(c) Subcritical flow throughout
Codes: (d) Attention to rolling flow with in spatially
A B C D varied flows and possibly to moving
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 3 2 1 4 hydraulic jumps
(c ) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2 36. Statement(I): The actual payload,
particularly in passenger aircraft, is normally less
30. With a bit rate of 50bps and a cycle time of than the maximum structural payload even when
30 seconds the total information content of a the aircraft is completely full.
navigation data set is Statement(II): There are limitations in the use of
(ESE-2009) space when passengers are carried in an aircraft.
(a) 80 bits (b) 20 bits (ESE-2013)
(c) 100 bits (d) 1500 bits (a) Both statements (I) and statements (II) are
31. Zigzag deposition and movement of sand on individually true and statement (II) is correct
sea beach is called explanation of statement (I)
(ESE-2009) (b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
(a) littoral drift (b) beach drift individually true but statement (II) is not the
(c) trough action (d) sedimentation correct explanation of statement (I)
32. Assertion(A): The paved area adjacent to the (c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false
terminal building and hangers used for loading (d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true
and unloading, servicing and parking of aircraft is 37. The lowest height above the runway where
called as apron. the pilots make the decision to continue the
Reason(R): The size of the apron depends on the landing manoeuvre or to cut it short is called the
size and number of gate positions and the way the (ESE-2015)
gate positions are arranged. (a) Runway height (b) Decision height
(ESE-2010) (c) Threshold height (d) Runway visual range
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A 38. What shall be the radius of an exit taxiway
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct with design exit speed of 90 kmph and coefficient
explanation of A of friction 0.13? (ESE-2015)

4
 (a) 550 m (b) 500 m (c) 475 m (d) 449 m

CHAPTER-2
Docks & Harbours
1. Match List I (description of marine structure) List-I
with List II (name of the marine structure) and A. Constructed approximately perpendicular to
select the correct answer using the codes given the shore to retard erosion of an existing
below the lists. (ESE-1994) beach
List –I B. Structure that are placed parallel to the
A. A projecting structure built out into deep water shoreline to separate the land from the water
from the above C. Built roughly perpendicular to the shore for
B. A wall build along a bank or shore for loading maintaining an entrance channel
and unloading cargo D. Built generally parallel to the shoreline to
C. A massive breakwater protect a shore area
D. An artificial basin for vessels where the variation List-II
of levels of water in the shore does not affect the 1. Jetties 2. Breakwaters
level of water in it. 3. Seawalls 4. Groynes
List –II 5. Wharves
1. Wharf 2. Jetty
3. Wet dock 4. Mole Codes:
A B C D A B
Codes:
C D
A B C D A B
(a) 4 3 1 5 (b) 5 2
C D 4 3
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 (c ) 1 4 5 3 (d) 4 3
3 4 1 2
(c ) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1
4 3
5. On which of the following factors will the
2. A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by selection of the type of Groyne depend?
principles of buoyancy. Such a chamber is called 1. Availability of material
(ESE-1997) 2. Foundation condition
(a) Dry dock (b) Wet dock 3. Presence or absence of marine borers
(c) Floating dock (d) Refuge dock 4. Topography of the beach
5. The height, period and angle of attack of
3. Assertion(A): Solid fill type of wharf structure approaching waves
provides adequate resistance to the impact of Select the correct answer using the codes given
mooring vessels, besides other advantages. below: (ESE-1998)
Reason(R): Solid fill structure are stable and (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 2,3,4 and 5
inexpensive (except in deep water) and require (c) 1 and 2 (d) 5 alone
little maintenance.
(ESE-1997) 6. Consider the following factors:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. Size and type of the ship served
explanation of A 2. Availability of materials
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 3. Wharf configuration
explanation of A 4. Mooring procedures
(c) A is true but R is false The spaces required alongside a wharf for
(d) A is false but R is true berthing would depend upon factors
(ESE-1999)
4. Match List-I (Description) with List-II (a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 2,3 and 4
(Structure) and select the correct answer using the (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1,3 and 4
codes given below the lists: (ESE-1998)
5
 (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
7. The phenomenon of movement and deposition of (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
sand in a zig-zag style due to drifting of sand in
the vicinity of coast is called (ESE-2000) 12. Which one of the following is the best
(a) littoral drift (b) sedimentation method for locating soundings to estimate the
(c) beach drift (d) trough action dredged material from the harbours?
(ESE-2005)
8. Match List-I (Structure) with List-II (Purpose) (a) Two angles from shore
and select the correct answer using the codes (b) Two angles from boat
given below the lists: (c) One angle from shore and other from the boat
(ESE-2000) (d) Fixed intersecting ranges
List-I
A. Breakwater B. Wharf 13. Why are moorings provided? (ESE-2005)
C. Fender system D. Revetments (a) For anchoring of ships
List-II (b) For towing the ships to the sea
1. Separates the land from sea water (c) For repair of ships
2. Lays vessels alongside, receives and (d) For washing of ships and ship boards
discharges cargo and passengers
3. Protects a seashore 14. What is the use of a station pointer?
4. Absorbs the energy of the moving vessel (ESE-2005)
5. Retards erosion of an existing beach (a) For making soundings in water bodies
(b) For plotting of soundings in harbor area
Codes: (c) For marking sunken shipping hazards
A B C D (d) For making tidal observations
(a) 5 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1 15. Consider the following statements:
(c) 3 2 4 1 1. Dock is a marine structure for mooring up
(d) 1 4 3 5 vessels, loading and unloading of passengers
and/or cargo.
9. The lower tide which occurs in half lunar month 2. Dry dock is generally used only for carrying
is called (ESE-2000) out repairs, inspections and painting.
(a) spring tide (b) neap tide 3. Wet dock is an enclosed or partially enclosed
(c) lunar tide (d) tidal bore basin provided with locks and entrance gate
to keep the water level at a fairly constant
10. In deep water waves, individual particles level.
(ESE-2001) Which of these statements are correct?
(a) Are translated (ESE-2005)
(b) Are translated and rotated in a vertical plane (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
about a horizontal axis (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Are not translated, but they rotate in a vertical
plane about a horizontal axis 16. Which one of the following is not correct for
(d) Do not rotate in a vertical plane about a container ports? (ESE-2007)
horizontal axis (a) The berth capacity is great
(b) Over all transit time is less
11. Consider the following factors: (c) There is minimal damage to cargo
1. Mass of ships to be berthed (d) Minimal land is required for the marshalling
2. Overall transit time area
3. Speed of berthing
4. Environmental conditions of the port 17. Consider the following statements associated
with groynes:
Which of these factors are taken into account while
selecting the type of fender system? (ESE-2002)

6
 1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
influenced by the characteristics of particles
that constitute the littoral drift 21. Echo-sounding machine is used for which of
2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel the following?
to shore. 1. Locating objects on the sea-shore
Which of these statements is / are correct? 2. Measuring Sea-surface levels
(ESE-2007) 3. Determining depth of sea-bed below sea
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only surface
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 or 2 4. Locating sunken objects below sea surface
Select the correct answer using the codes give
18. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train below:
of wave beyond the storm centre for a wave (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
length of 20 m in 14 m deep water? (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4
(ESE-2008)
List-I 22. Match List-I (components) with List-II
A. Dolphins (Function) and select the correct answer using the
B. Groynes codes given below the lists: (ESE-2008)
C. Fenders List-I
D. Slipways A. Keel and Bilge blocks
B. Capstons and Bolards
List-II C. Fenders
1. To protect the beach or retained earth D. Buoys
2. To cushion to absorb shock of ship during List-II
loading and un-loading 1. Impact absorbers of quay walls
3. Mooring structure in combination with 2. Floating indicators
loading platform 3. Supports for ships in dry docks
4. Repairing and building ship 4. Anchorge devices for ships
Codes:
Codes: A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
C D (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 1
2 4 23. Mean sea level at Indian ports and harbours
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 has generally been established based on the
analysis of tidal sea level fluctuations over which
19. What is the minimum turning radius for a period? (ESE-2008)
passenger ship? (ESE-2008) (a) 10 years (b) 16 years
(a) 2 x ship length (c) 19 years (d) 25 years
(b) 3 x ship length
(c) (1.5 x ship length) + water depth 24. Which of the following complete sets do not
(d) ( 2 x ship length) + (1.5 x draft) recommend the sitting of a harbor layout in that
vicinity?
20. Which of the following pairs are correctly 1. Submarine canyon
matched? 2. Lee of an island
1. Vishakpatnam and: Semi-natural 3. Closely located promontories
Plymouth harbour 4. Indentation coves on the coast line
2. Paradip and : Lagoon harbor 5. Hooked bays with not-so-rugged rocky
Mangalore bottom
3. New York : Natural harbor (ESE-2011)
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5 only
given below: (ESE-2008) : (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

7
 CHAPTER-3
TUNNELS

1. What is the correct sequence of the following 5. Match List-I (shape of tunnel) with List-II
events in rock tunneling? (suitable for) and select the correct answer using
1. Marking tunnel profile codes given below the lists: (ESE-1997)
2. Loading explosives and blasting List-I
3. Checking misfire A. Circular section
4. Mucking B. Horse-shoe section
5. Removing foul gas C. Egg-shaped
6. Setting up and drilling D. Segmental-roof section
7. Guniting
Select the correct answer using the codes given List-II
below (ESE-93) 1. Soft rock
Codes: 2. Hard rock
(a) 1,6,5,3,4,2,7 (b) 1,2,6,3,5,4,7 3. Carrying water
(c) 1,6,2,5,4,3,7 (d) 1,6,2,5,3,4,7 4. Sewers
5. Subways
2. Drift method of tunneling is used to construct
tunnels in (ESE-93) Codes:
(a) Soft grounds A B C D
(b) Rock (a) 3 4 2 1
(c) Self supporting grounds (b) 3 1 4 5
(d) Broken grounds (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 5
3. Consider the following situations:
1. Soil is soft 6. Which one of the following is considered to be an
2. Volume of existing surface traffic on the advantage of the heading and benching method of
alignment is heavy tunnel construction? (ESE-1997)
3. Track is at a deeper level (a) It is suitable for construction in unstable
4. Water table is high rocks.
In the construction of Metro Railways, “Cut and (b) In this method, it is easy to install timber
Cover” method of construction is suitable in support.
situations listed as (ESE-1995) (c) Tunneling can be continuous and the work
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 can be expedited.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (d) In case of excessive water, it is easy to take
corrective steps.
4. In “full face” method of constructing tunnel, the
first operation relates to (ESE-1996) 7. Match List-I (shape of tunnel) with List-II
(a) Removal of bottom portion (Attribute for preference) and select the correct
(b) Excavation of one drift in the centre answer using codes given below the lists:
(c) Removal of top portion (ESE-1998)
(d) Excavation being done along the perimeter List-I
A. Horse-shoe section
B. Circular
C. Egg-shaped
8
 D. Segmental-roof section (ESE-2002)
(a) Full face method
List-II (b) Compressed air method
1. Gives self-cleaning velocity even in dry (c) Heading and benching method
weather flow (d) Drift method
2. Suitable for soft rocks
3. Best suited for non-cohesive soils 13. Match List-I (Tunnel construction methods)
4. Suitable for soft materials with List-II (Advantages) and select the correct
5. Suitable for sub-bays answer using the codes given below the lists:
Codes: (ESE-2003)
A B C D List-I
(a) 2 3 4 5 A. Full face method
(b) 5 4 1 3 B. Heading and Benching method
(c) 3 2 4 1 C. Drift method
(d) 2 3 1 5 D. Compressed air method

List-II
8. Which one of the following is a component of a 1. Helps in ventilation of tunnel
shield for tunneling? 2. Useful in soft and water-bearing soil
(ESE-1999) 3. Simultaneous drilling and mucking is
(a) Linear plate (b) Trench jack Possible
(c) Stiffener (d) Cutting edge 4. Tunneling is continuous
Codes:
9. Which on the following methods of tunneling is A B C D
used in hard rock? (a) 4 3 2 1
(ESE-2000) (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) Forepoling method (c) 4 3 1 2
(b) Needle beam method (d) 3 4 2 1
(c) Heading and benching method
(d) Shield tunneling method 14. Match List-I (Method) with List-II
(Suitability) and select the correct answer using
10. Tunnel alignment is carried out by the codes given below the lists:
(ESE-2000) (ESE-2004)
(a) Surface theodolite traverse List-I
(b) Triangulation A. Full face method
(c) Compass traverse B. Heading and Benching method
(d) Aerial photography C. Drift method
D. American method
11. With reference to tunneling, which of the
following factors are to be considered for List-II
deciding the size of the shaft? 1. For tunneling of large cross-section area
1. System used for hoisting through soft ground driving a top drift and
2. Size of the muck car then widening the sides
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted 2. For rock tunneling carried out first in smaller
4. Eventual use of the shaft section of the proposed tunnel and then
Select the correct answer using the codes given widened.
below: (ESE-2001) 3. For driving the top portion in advance of the
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 bottom portion for very large tunnel section in
(c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1,2,3 and 4 unstable rocks.
4. For tunneling of small cross-section area in
12. Which one of these methods of Tunnel stable rock attacking the whole section at a
construction is not suitable in rocks? time.

9
 Codes: (d) Combination of ‘Blow in and ‘Blow out’
A B C D methods
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1 17. Which one of the following methods of
(c) 4 1 2 3 tunneling is employed if the strata is subaqueous?
(d) 2 3 4 1 (ESE-2008)
(a) Shield tunneling
15. Consider the following statements with (b) Drift system
respect to tunneling methods: (c) Linear plate method
1. Full face excavation is suitable for small size (d) Pilot tunnel method
tunnel of short length in competent rock. It is
not suitable in urban areas. 18. Weisbach Triangle method may be used for
2. Heading and benching method is suitable for which one of the following? (ESE-2008)
soft rock tunneling of medium size. (a) To carry out surface alignment of a tunnel
3. Drift method is suitable for large tunnels in (b) To transfer levels underground for a tunnel
difficult or incompetent rock. (c) To connect surface and underground tunnel
Which of these statements are correct? surveys
(ESE-2005) (d) To connect two ends of an underground
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 3 tunnel
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
19. How can additional access, quick removal of
16. Which one of the following methods is muck and natural ventilation in long tunnels be
generally considered the best for tunnel achieved? (ESE-2008)
ventilation? (ESE-2006) (a) By providing jumbos and pumps
(a) Driving a drift through the tunnel (b) By providing scaffolding and linear plates
(b) ‘Blow in’ method (c) By providing adits and shafts
(c) ‘Blow out’ method (d) By providing pilot tunnels and well points

10