AIR REGULATIONS

FINAL TEST

Time: 02:00 hrs Max Marks 80

Answer all questions.
I Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the most correct answer.

1. The letter Q as a prefix to ATS route numbering has recently been introduced and
means that
(a) A queue is necessary for entry into the route
(b) This route is a domestic non – RNav route.
(c) This route is a International non – RNav route.
(d) This route is a domestic RNav route. d

2. In Radio Telephony the three principles are

(a) Crisp, Clear and Concise
(b) Clarity, Brevity, Concise
(c) Comprehensive, Crisp and Clear
(d) Meaningful, contextual and clear b

3. The Minimum Height Rule stipulates that an IFR flight in mountainous

terrain shall fly at least above (as per ICAO)
(a) 1500 ft within 5km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(b) 1000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(c) 2000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(d) 3000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
c

4. The secretariat of the ICAO has ___ main divisions

(a) 3

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 (b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9 b

5. The OCA will be different if the threshold elevation is

(a) Higher than the aerodrome elevation by 2m/7ft.
(b) Lower than the aerodrome elevation by 2m/7ft.
(c) Higher than the aerodrome elevation by 5m/15ft.
(d) Lower than the aerodrome elevation by 5m/15ft. b

6. For the Asia Pacific region the Regional Office of the ICAO is in
(a) Singapore
(b) Hong Kong
(c) Manila
(d) Bangkok d

7. Annex 6 of the ICAO deals with

(a) Aircraft Nationality and registration Marks
(b) Operation of Aircraft
(c) Aeronautical Charts
(d) Airworthiness of aircraft b

8. PCN 80/R/B/W/T means that the pavement has been

(a) Technically evaluated
(b) Evaluated using aircraft experience
(c) Mathematically evaluated
(d) Evaluated for Training purposes. a

9. An ARP shall contain the following

(a) Name of place, QFE, coordinates
(b) Name of place, QFE, 6 digit coordinates of ARP

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 (c) Name of place, 6 digit coordinates of ARP, Elevation of ARP
(d) Name of place, 6 digit coordinates of ARP, Elevation of ARP and Rwy
designation
c

10. Where the extremity of a rwy is not square with the rwy centerline, the
beginning of the usable part of the rwy shall be known from
(a) The threshold stripes
(b) A transverse line
(c) The rwy designation marking
(d) The touchdown zone. b

11. A total of Six stripes on the threshold of a rwy indicate that the width of the
rwy is
(a) 10 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 18 m
(d) 23 m d

12. Touchdown zone markings can run over a maximum distance of

(a) 2000 ft
(b) 3000 ft
(c) 4000 ft
(d) 5000 ft b

13. The main purpose of Rapid Exit Taxiway is to

(a) Make maneuverability easier for the pilot
(b) Make a quick exit in case of an emergency
(c) Reduce rwy occupancy time
(d) None of these c

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14. The principal objective of a rescue and fire-fighting service in case of an
passenger aircraft fire is to
(a) Bring a fire under control
(b) Safeguard all valuable property
(c) Save lives
(d) Take the CVR and FDR to safety. c

15. When a crew is rostered for a flight of 9 hours or more, rest period prior to
operating such flight shall
(a) Ensure double the flight time on a pro-rata basis.
(b) Include a local night
(c) Ensure that the window of circadian low is not infringed again
(d) Be for at least 10 hours. b

16. The prime intention of nominating airspaces as Controlled areas or Control

Zones is to
a) Classify them as airspace class A, B, C, D & E.
b) Designate them for the provision of ATC Service to IFR flights.
c) Identify airspaces wherein SVFR can be permitted.
d) Know which agency must be contacted for provision of ATC service.

17.Entry into a prohibited area means that the aircraft must transmit _________ to
the ATC
(a) MAYDAY
(b) PAN PAN
(c) Every 10 minutes.
(d) Position a

18.Class E airspace has been specified as one of the only controlled airspaces that
cannot be designated as a control zone because:
(a) IFR and VFR both are not permitted.

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 (b) IFR is separated from VFR but not from IFR.
(c) IFR is separated from IFR but not from VFR.
(d) VFR to VFR separation is not given. c

19.RNP precision required is

(a) 80%
(b) 90%
(c) 95%
(d) 97% c

20.Longitudinal separation based on distance for aircraft flying on the same track the
separation minima can be reduced from 37 km to 19 km provided the leading
aircraft maintains a speed of ________ or more faster.
(a) 40 kts
(b) 30 kts
(c) 20 kts
(d) 10 kts c

II Fill in the Blanks.

21. An aerodrome with elevation of 1732ft has a QFE of 954 hPa. What should
be the QNH at the aerodrome? ______________ (1011 hPa)

22. For conducting a visual approach it is necessary that the reported ceiling is
above the ______(IAA)

23. An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid

providing at least lateral guidance adequate for a straight-in approach may
be known as a ______________________. (Non-Precision Approach
Runway.)

24. The specifications of the Aerodrome Reference Code is based on

______ Code elements. (two)

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 25. Width of Runways can be classified into _____ widths. (5)
26. The PCN or bearing strength of a pavement is classified for aircraft
with a apron (ramp) mass greater than _________. (5700 kg.)

27. For Precision Approach Rwy Cat II the visibility criteria as per CAR is
_______. (300 m)

28. If the rwy designation marking is in-between the threshold stripes

then it means that the rwy width is necessarily ________ ft, at least. (150
ft)

29. If the touchdown zone markings are 4 it means that the rwy length is
at least ______ mtrs. (1500 m)

30. Aerodrome beacon on land aerodromes shall show white and

_______. (Green.)

31. Runway Guard Lights are _______ in colour.(yellow)

32. If a threshold is temporarily displaced then _____ lights shall depict

threshold. (wingbar)

33. The validity of an Air Defence Clearance shall expire within 30 mins after
___________. (ETD)

34. NOTAM R means ____________________. (Replaced)

35. In the Flight Plan cruising levels in metres shall be denoted as

_____________. (M0834)

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36. In uncharted airspace position reports shall be made after the
__________________ and ________________ for IFR flights. (As per Doc 4444)
(After the first ½ hr of flight and thereafter at hourly intervals)
37. SIGMET Information is regarding ________________.(expected
occurrence of enroute weather phenomena)

38. Composite separation combines ___________ and __________

separation methods. (Half Vertical and half Horizontal)

39. The purpose for designing an ATS route is

________________________________. (for the channelizing the flow of
traffic and for the provision of ATS services)

40. MFA for IFR Flights in India over mountainous terrain at least 600
mtrs above the highest obstacle within _________ of the estimated
position of the aircraft in the route. (10NM CAR)

III State True or False. If false give the correct statement.

41. TEET is calculated for the purpose of optimizing fuel consumption.
False. TEET is calculated for SAR.

42. A VFR flight could be asked to make an ILS approach, in order to

sequence landing. False. A VFR flight may not have the necessary
instrumentation to fly in accordance with instruments. Secondly the
responsibility in the case of an accident would be difficult to fix. Hence a
VFR flight cannot be asked to make an approach based on instruments.

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 43. At rwy intersections the markings of the most preferred rwy shall be
interrupted. T

44. A section of the lights 600 m or one-third of the runway length,

whichever is the less, at the remote end of the runway from the end at
which the take-off run is started, may show alternate red and white. F.
Yellow
45. Straight departure may mean one in which the initial departure is
within 350 of the alignment of the rwy centerline. F. Initial departure
should be within 15o of alignment of the rwy centerline.

46. ABGR are prefixes for regional network of Non-RNAV ATS routes. T

47. In SSR Mode A transponder would initiate a reply giving its position.
F. Identity

48. Radar separation is normally applied only in the lateral dimension. T

49. Check list of AIP supplements is issued at intervals not exceeding four
weeks. 1 Month

50. Lowest Transition Altitude in India is 4000 ft. T

Short Answers
51.Runway 09/27 is 2950 m long. For 09 a clearway of 580 m, stopway 300m,
displaced threshold 150 m. What are the declared distances for 09 for this
airport?
4 Rwy 09 – LDA 2800,
ASDA – 3250,
TORA – 2950,

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 TODA – 3530.

52.Destination ATC reports the metar clouds as 2/8 St 400’, 5/8 SC 1200’, 4/8 SC
3000’, 8/8 AC 8000 5/8 Ci 18000’ to an arriving VFR flight. Trend is No Sig. What
does it indicate to the pilot? 2
That the weather is below VMC and the flight requires diverting.

53.IC 411 from VILK ATD 1055 to VIDP has had communication failure at FL 320
at 1120 (TEET= 00:45) and two altimeter failures at 1124. Last contact with
Delhi Control was at 1115. Detail out actions and RT Phraseology.
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Delhi Control IC 411 Transmitting Blind due RT failure. Squawking Mode A Code
7600. All external lights are on. Position 80 nm inbound DPN at FL 320 at time
1125. Descending to FL 280 due altimeter failure. Not RVSM compliant. Will
maintain 280 till DPN. I say again Delhi Control IC 411 Transmitting Blind due RT
failure. Position 80 nm inbound DPN at FL 320 at time 1125. Descending to FL
280 due altimeter failure. Not RVSM compliant. Will maintain 280 till DPN. IC
411 will report on attaining FL 280.

54. “Delhi Tower IC 811 Visibility appears low would like to take off under
Radar Control.” What reaction would you expect from the ATC Controller?
Give reasons for your answer.
2

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Visibility reported is 800 metres. If unable to depart return to dispersal (Take off
is essentially a pilot manoeuvre and cannot under any circumstances be done by
a Radar controller.)

55.Write 6 names of the various surfaces that make up the obstacle clearance.
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(a) Inner Horizontal Surface
(b) Conical surface
(c) Outer Horizontal surface
(d) Transitional surface
(e) Balked Landing surface
(f) Inner approach surface
(g) Inner Horizontal surface
(h) Inner transitional surface
(i) Approach Surface for Instrument rwy
(j) Approach surface for non-instrument rwy.
(k) Take off and climb out surface

56.IC – 411 60 DME from VIDP on course to VECC, passing FL 230 for FL 330,
O/F LLK, BBN has an obese man of about 60 years of age apparently having
breathlessness and extreme anxiety, sweating profusely and unable to
speak. Senior cabin crew reports the matter to you as PIC. Take action.
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PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN Delhi Control IC – 411 passenger requiring
immediate medical attention returning to Delhi. Position 60 DME from DPN at
0345 at FL 250. Request further instructions.

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 57.6E-474 from VIDP to VABB, O/F JJP, and has been asked to maintain FL 220
due reciprocal at FL 230. You are in visual contact with the reciprocal
aircraft. Inform Jaipur ATC of your intentions and seek permission to
continue climb. 5
Jaipur Approach 6E-474 maintaining FL 220 in visual contact with reciprocal,
permission to climb maintaining own separation in VMC to FL 330.

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