IGRUA

Ground Training Department

BATCH : 1303 FINAL TEST (AIR NAV/ RAD AIDS RETEST) 08,November 2013
Dur:03:00
AIR NAVIGATION Max Marks: 60
Note:- This Question Paper contains 60 questions. All questions carry ONE mark each.
Read the instructions given on the answer sheet provided very carefully and strictly
follow them.
AIR NAVIGATION

Q.1 The purpose of the anunciator in RIC is to indicate whether :

a) the gyro is spinning at the correct RPM
b) the rotor in the signal selsyn is at the null position.
c) the lubberline is correctly aligned with the true north .
d) the detector unit is correctly aligned with the magnetic north.
Q.2 The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the atmospheric temperature from the
ISA is called:
a) thermal error.
b) density error.
c) ram effect error.
d) none of the above.
Q.3 The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying towards a low pressure area will be :
a) the same as the real altitude. c) lower than the real altitude.
b) higher than the real altitude. d) equal to the standard atmosphere altitude.
Q.4 The density altitude is :
a) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temp. and the standard temp.
b) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
c) the altitude of the standard atmosphere at which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere at the aircraft flight level.
d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point
Q.5 When descending at a constant Mach number above the tropopause, in ISA conditions,
the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:
a) decrease at an exponential rate c) decrease at a linear rate
b) remain constant d) increase
Q.6 The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:
a) the dynamic pressure c) the static pressure
b) the total pressure and the static pressure d) the total pressure
Q.7 The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than
the simple pressure altimeter is the use of:
a) combination of counters/pointers
b) more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
c) an induction pick-off device
d) a sub-scale logarithmic function
Q.8 A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would
cause it to:
a) under-read. c) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent
b) over-read. d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
Q.9 In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
a) independent of the true airspeed (TAS). c) higher than the true air speed (TAS)
b) equal to the true airspeed (TAS). d) lower than the true air speed (TAS)
Q.10 The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and
color marks. The blue line corresponds to the :
a) minimum control speed, or VMC
b) maximum speed in operations, or VMO
c) optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or VYSE
d) speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
Q.11 The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:
a) return spring c) bimettalic strip
b) correction based on an accelerometer sensor. d) second calibrated port
Q.12 A laser gyro consists of :
a) two moving cavities provided with mirrors c) 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)
b) a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom d) a laser generating two light waves
Q.13 The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour :
a) in the latitude 45° c) in the latitude 30°
b) on the North pole d) on the equator
Q.14 A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from :
a) the flight director.
b) the flux valve.
c) the air-data-computer.
d) a direct reading magnetic compass.
Q.15 A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on :
a) a turn indicator.
b) a gyromagnetic compass.
c) an artificial horizon.
d) a directional gyro.
Q.16 When Taxying on the ground, during a right turn, the turn & slip indicator indicates :
a) needle to the right, ball to left
b) needle to the right, ball to right
c) needle in the middle, ball to right
d) needle in the middle, ball to left
Q.17 During deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction on a Runway in
Southern Hemispher, the magnetic compass will indicate :
a) an apparent turn towards the South.
b) an apparent turn towards the North.
c) no apparent turn.
d) a heading fluctuating about 270°
Q.18 In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent
Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
a) June and December
b) April and August
c) February and November
d) March and September
Q.19 What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the
horizon at some time during the year?
a) 66° b) 45° c) 23° d) 0°
Q.20 What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 50° N between meridians 010° E
and 050° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a) 2 HR 30 MIN b) 3 HR 15 MIN c) 3 HR 45 MIN d) 4 HR 49 MIN
Q.21 A Rhumb line is :
a) the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
b) any straight line on a Lambert projection
c) a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection
d) a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
Q.22 The great circle distance between position A (59°34 'N 008°09 'E) and B (59°34 'N 171°51 'W) is:
a) 5 400 NM b) 10 800 km c) 3652 NM d) 10 800 NM
Q.23 Given:Position 'A' is N 00° E 100°, of 'B' is 120°(T), 200 NM from 'A'. What is
the position of 'B'?
a) S01°40' E102°53' c) N 01°40' E097°07'
b) S 01°40' E097°07' d) N 01°40' E101°40'
Q.24 5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:
a) 81°10' b) 80°05' c) 75°00' d) 78°45'
Q.25 The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately :
a) 23.5° b) 25.3° c) 27.5° d) 66.5°
Q.26 Given: track is 012°(T), drift 17° Starboard, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is
The compass heading?
a) 033° b) 007° c) 023° d) 057°
Q.27 An aircraft Sets Course at 1000 hrs LMT from ‘A’ (10° S 080° E) and flies due north at a GS of
480 K. What will its position be at 1130 hrs LMT?
a) 22°00'N b) 12°15'N c) 02°00'N d) 03°50'N
Q.28 When is the magnetic compass most effective?
a) In th region of the magnetic South Pole. c) About midway between the magnetic poles
b) In the region of the magnetic North Pole. d) On the geographic equator
Q.29 A Micro adjuster is a device fitted beneath the compass magnet system to
compensate for
a) Coefficient A only
b) Coefficients A, B, and C
c) Coefficient B and C only
d) Coefficient C only
Q.30 Station “B” is 600 nm due west of station “A” at 60º S latitude. If the Station “A” longitude is
165º W, what is the longitude of station “B”?
a) 175º 00’ W
b) 156º20’ W
c) 124º23’ W
d) 175º00’ E
Q.31 During a compass swing the values fo coefficients are as, A = +3, B = +2 and C = +5.
What will be the expected deviation on Hdg 045 (C) in Southern Hemisphere:
a) 12º easterly
b) 12º westerly
c) 8º westerly
d) 8º easterly
Q.32 The chart that is generally used for navigation for most areas other than polar areas is based on:
a) Polar Stereographic projection c) Direct Mercator projection
b) Polar Gnomonic projection d) Lambert conformal projection
Q.33 The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 2.4 cm. The scale of
the chart is 1:1 600 000.The actual distance between these two point is approximately:
a) 3.69 NM
b) 370.00 NM
c) 20.7 NM
d) 36.30 NM
Q.34 The unique property of the Polar Stereographic Projection is:
a) Meridians and parallels of latitude cut each other at right angles
b) The scale is Constant
c) Great circles are straight lines
d) it is the only perspective projection which is othhomorphic.
Q.35 On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
a) parallel of origin c) standard parallels
b) north and south limits of the chart d) Equator
Q.36 Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are :
a) arcs of concentric circles equally spaced c) parallel straight lines equally spaced
b) parallel straight lines unequally spaced d) straight lines converging above the pole
Q.37 A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 080° and 3 minutes later on a
relative bearing of 090°. The W/V is calm, aircraft Ground Speed is 180 kt. What is the
distance between the aircraft and the ground feature when the bearing is 090°(R)?
a) 10 NM
b) 60 NM
c) 9 NM
d) 54 NM
Q.38 Given the following:True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E ,Drift angle: 5°P.
What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
a) 190° b) 194° c) 204° d) 180°
Q.39 Given: True track A to B = 250°(T), Distance A to B = 315 NM, TAS = 450 kt.
W/V = 200°/60kt. ETD A = 0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B?
a) 0736 UTC b) 0730 UTC c) 0810 UTC d) 0716 UTC
Q.40 Given:Course 040°(T),TAS is 120 kt,Wind speed 30 kt. What is the Maximum possible
drift angle for a wind direction of:
a) 115° b) 145° c) 130° d) 120°
Q.41 285 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)
a) 803 kg b) 863 kg c) 895 kg d) 940 kg
Q.42 An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to
cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of
descent required is:
a) 920 FT/MIN
b) 960 FT/MIN
c) 860 FT/MIN
d) 890 FT/MIN
Q.43 Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as ""strapdown"". This means that:
a) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure
b) only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure
c) gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft
d) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference
Q.44 With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:
a) required for Polar navigation
b) required for rhumb line navigation
c) required to provide a W/V read out
d) not required
Q.45 An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 320 NM, at an
average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC.After flying 150 NM along track from 'A',
the aircraft is 3 MIN late from planned time. Using the actual G/S experienced, what is
the revised ETA at 'B'?
a) 1353 UTC c) 1333 UTC
b) 1340 UTC d) 1401 UTC
Q.46 The centre of gravity of a body is that point
a) which is always used as datum when computing moments.
b) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.
c) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.
d) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
Q.47 The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
a) allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
b) total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
c) strength of the wing root
d) strength of the fuselage
Q.48 If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?
a) It will not affect the c of g location.
b) It will cause the c of g to move forward.
c) The c of g location will change, but the direction can be determined.
d) It will cause the c of g to move aft.
Q.49 The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
a) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
b) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
c) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
d) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
Q.50 The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:-
Block fuel: 40 000 kg-
Trip fuel: 29 000 kg-
Taxi fuel: 800 kg-
Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg-
Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg-
Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg-
Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
a) 18 900 kg b) 32 900 kg c) 32100 kg d) 40 400 kg
Q.51 Given the following data relating to a flight from A to B:
Maximum take off weight 55000 kg
Weight less fuel and payload 28000 kg
Mean TAS 300 kt
Distance A to B 1500 nm
Mean Fuel Consumption 1600 kg/hr
Reserve Fuel Carried (assume unused) 2500 kg
Maximum Landing Weight 42500 kg
Maximum authorized zero fuel weight 38000 kg
The maximum payload which can be carried with a headwind of 30 kt is:
a) 8660 kg c) 10390 Kg
b) 10000 kg d) 11390 Kg
Q.52 For a distance of 1860 NM between A and B, if the ground speed from A to B is
385 kt, and B to A the ground speed is 465 kt and a safe endurance of 8 HR the distance
from A to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
a) 930 NM b) 1532 NM c) 1685 NM d) 1865 NM
Q.53 Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt. On the flight between A and B
the equivalent headwind is -20 kt.On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent
headwind is +40 kt. At what distance from A, along the route A to B, is the ETP?
a) 500 NM b) 470 NM c) 455 NM d) 530 NM
+Q.54 An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B'
1900 NM, True airspeed 470 kt , Mean wind component 'out' + 55 kt, Mean wind
component 'back' -75 kt. The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B'
is:
a) 1608 b) 1744 c) 1846 d) 1657
Q.55 Given: Safe Endurance is 2 hours, track 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt, what is the
distance to PSR from the starting point ?
a) 115 NM b) 97 NM c) 105 NM d) 84 NM
Q.56 From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is :
a) inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
b) proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
c) inversely proportional to the total distance to go
d) inversely proportional to ground speed back
Q.57 At a true airspeed of 400 knots, a ram rise of air temperature of the order of can be expected:
a) 50 deg C
b) 25 deg C
c) 30 deg C
d) 21 deg C
Q.58 When a force is applied to a spinning gyro, the affect is evident:
(a) 45 deg forward in the direction of rotation
(b) Immediately in line with the plane of rotation
(c) 90 deg anticlockwise to the direction of rotation
(d) 90 deg forward in the direction of rotation
Q.59 Static vents are:
(a) located on only one side of the aircraft
(b) located on both sides of the aircraft and are independent
(c) located on both sides of the aircraft and are cross coupled, system by system, to minimize side-slip
errors
(d) only located in the pressurized zone of the aircraft to provide indication of cabin height
Q.60 With a Headwind Component of +20 kts, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending
from Flt Lvl 190 to 4000 feet altitude maintaining a mean TAS of 320 kt and a constant rate of descent of
1500 feet per minute ?
a) 26.7 NM b) 35 NM c) 50 NM d) 57 NM