01).

When accelerations on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass

card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn?
a. Anti — clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.

b. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

c. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.

d. Anti-— clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

2) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a) Beginning of July
b) End of December
c) Beginning of January
d) End of September

3) 004°00’N , 030°00'W : 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then600
NM West. The final position of the aircraft is:
a) 04°00'N 029°58'W
b) 04°00'N 030°02'W
c) 04°00'N 030°00'W
d) 03°58'N 030°02'W

4) Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:

a) both Rhumb lines and Great circles
b) Great circles
c) Rhumb lines
d) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

5) Given: Great circle from P to Q measured at P=095° Southern hemisphere Conversion

angle P - Q=7° what is the rhumb line track P - Q?

a)081

b)102

c) 088

d) 109
6) At what approximate latitude is the length,of one minute of arc along a meridian?
equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?
a) 45° b) 0° c) 90° d) 30°
7) The distance between the parallels of latitude 17223'S and 23259'N is

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
 a)4122NM

b)636NM

c) 2473 NM

d) 2482 NM
8) What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?
a) 093°53.1'W b)93°54.0'W c) 093°48.5'W d) 094°12.0'W
09 Given DOM 33510kg , Traffic load 7,600kg, Trip fuel 2040kg, Final reserve
983kg,Alternative fuel 1100kg, Contingency 5% of trip fuel., Est. landing mass at
destination
a)43,295kg b)43,110kg c)42,925kg
10) What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between
Meridians 015° E and 025° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a) 1 HR 45 MIN b) 1 HR 15 MIN c) 2 HR 30 MIN d)5 HR OO MIN

11) Given: value for the Ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as
Measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of
the earth at the axis of the Poles?
A)6356.9
b) 6378.4
c) 6 367.0
d) 6 399.9
12) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:
a) 12700 km (or) 127400000 M (or) 6860.5 NM
b) 6 350SM (or) 6883.7 NM(or) 127400000M
c) 6883.7NM (or) 12 700 km (or) 127400000 M
d)Very confusing qst, nd quitting this

13) The circumference of the earth is approximately:

a) 21600 NM b) 43200 NM c) 5400 NM d) 10800 NM

14) The coordinates of the place are: N17°50' E002°16.5' The coordinates of the antipodes
are:

a. S41°10' W177°43.5'

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
b. S48°50' E177°43.5'

c. S17°50' W177°43.5'

d. S41°10' E177°43.5'

15) The time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun is

a) 360 days 45 hours, 5 minutes 48 seconds

b) 360 days 5 hours 45 minutes 48 seconds

c) 365 days 45 hours 48 minutes 5 seconds

d) 365 days 5 hours48 minutes 45 seconds

16) In international aviation the following units shall be used, for horizontal distance:
a) Meters, Statute miles and Nautical miles

b) Kilometers, Feet and Nautical miles

c) Meters, Kilometers and Nautical miles

d) Kilometers,Statute miles and Nautical miles

17) When dealing with heights and altitudes in international aviation, we use the
Following units:
a Meter and Foot
b Foot, Kilometer and decimals of Nautical mile
c Foot and Yard,
d All’3 answers are correct
18) How long is 65 Kilometers at 60 20’N?

a) 40,2 Statute miles

b) 46,;3°Nautical mile

c) 35.0Nautical mile

d) 27,0 Nautical mile

19) The sensitivity.of a.direct reading compass varies:

a) inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

b )directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
c) inversély with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
d) directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
20) The total Magnetic Force of the terrestrial magnetic field
a) ls horizontal in all positions on the surface of the Earth
b) Is vertical at the magnetic equator
c) ls strongest at the magnetic poles
d) Will be stronger at higher altitudes because the attenuation is less at high altitudes
21) T/0 weight 65000 Ibs, landing weight 49750 Ibs. climb fuel 4500 Ibs Descent fuel
1950 Ibs Find the Mid cruise weight.
a.24500 kgs b.56100 kgs c.56500 Ibs d.56100 Ibs
22) Using the following data, determine the maximum allowable takeoff fuel? MTOM
64400kg
MLM 56200kg
MZFM 53300kg
DOM 35500kg
Traffic load 14500kg
Trip fuel 4900kg
Minimum takeoff fuel 7400kg
a)11100 Ibs b)10900 kgs c) 11100 kgs
23) An aircraft has a flight time of 2 hrs 30 mins, a contingency fuel of 30% is carried.
What is the total endurance?
a) 03:15 b) 02:45 c) 03:45
24) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a
distance of 750 NM from the ground station and at flight level 350“The frequency to be
used is:
a)17286KHz b)123.9MHz c)5649KHz d) 1136*KHz
25) You are required to uplift 40 US gallons of AVGAS with Sp. Gravity of 0.72. How many
litres and kilograms is this?
a) 109 kg b) 450 kg c) 100 kg

26) Coefficient B, as used in aircraft magnetism, presents

a) The resultant deviation from magnetism along the aircraft lateral axis
b) A value representing the deviation registered on headings East and West

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
c )The resultant deviation from magnetism. along the aircraft vertical (normal) axis
d) Deviation values caused by hard iron magnetism only
27) Deviation on MH 180 is -5 and on MH 000 it is +3. Calculate coefficient C:

a) Coefficient C=-1

b) Coefficient C = +4

c) Coefficient C = -2

d) Coefficient C = +8
28) An aircraft inthe northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass should read:
a) 060°
b) less than,060°
c) a more,than 060°
d) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used
29) On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or
south poles?
a) Lambert's conformal

b) Direct Mercator

c) Transverse Mercator

d) Polar stereographic

30) A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:

a) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
b) shows all great circles as straight lines

c) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin

d) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels

31) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately
represented at the:
a) north and south limits of the chart
b) parallel of origin

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
c) standard parallels d Equator
32) On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:

a) straight line

b) small circle concave to the nearer pole

c) spiral curve

d) curve convex to the nearer pole

33) On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:

a) complex curve

b) curve concave to the equator

c) curve convex to the equator

d) straight line

34) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of
120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart.will represent on the earth, at
latitude 10°N, a distance of :

a) 122.3NM b) 117.7NM c)124.2NM d)118:2NM

35) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of
90 NM on the earth. The samé@tength on the chart will represent on the earth, at
latitude 30°N, a distance of «
a) 45 NM b) 73.5 NM c) 78 NM d)110 NM
36) The transponder code 7004
a) Aerobatic and display code countries

b) Military intercept code

c) VFR standard squawk.code when no other code has been assigned

d) none
37) The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm.
What is‘the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?

a) 1:26 000 000

b) 1 : 30 000 000

c) 1: 18 000 000

d) 1: 21 000 000
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
38) Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left Relative bearing of NDB 270° What is
the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?

a) 211° b) 208° c) 221° d) 180°

39) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
A) High gross mass and aft centre of gravity
B ) Low gross mass and forward centre of gravity
C) Low gross mass and aft centre of gravity
D ) High gross mass and forward centre of gravity
40) Given magnetic heading 075’, variation 4°W, drift angle 12°R, relative bearing to the
station 270°. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the station?

a) 149° b) 173° c) 169° d) 161°

41) For a conventional, nose tricycle gear aircraft configuration, the higher the take-off
mass:
1. Manoeuvrability is reduced.

2. Range will decrease but endurance will increase.

3. Gliding range will reduce.

4. Stalling speed will increase.

A » All statements are correct

B » Statement 3 only is correct
C » Statements 1 and 4 are correct
D » Statement 4 only is correct
42) Fuel flow per HR is 25 US-GAL; total fuel on board is 90 IMP GAL. What is the
Endurance?

a) 4 HR 32 MIN b) 3 HR 12 MIN c)3HR53MIN d) 4 HR 19 MIN

43) The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. Fuel specific gravity is 0,78 kg/litre. The
tanks are now 3/4 full. You want to refuel so that total fuel will be 850 kg. How much
fuel will you have to refuel? Answer in pounds.

a) 164 lB
b) 360 LB
c) 320 LB

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
d) 410LB
44) A fuel amount of 146 Imp Gal allows a endurance of 4 HR 26 Min. What is the
corresponding fuel flow ?
a) 34.3 Imp Gal /HR
b) 32.9 US Gal/ HR
c) 39.5°US Gal / HR
d) 39.5 Imp Gal / HR

45) A fuel amount of 160 US Gal,allows a endurance of 3 HR 10 Min with a light twin
engine piston aircraft. Whats the corresponding fuel flow per engine ?
a) 25.3 US Gal / HR
b) 50.5 US Gal/ HR
c) 51.6 US Gal / HR
d) 25.8 US Gal / HR
46 Fuel loaded into an, aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and
trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice
that:
A » V1 will be reached sooner than expected
B » Speed at un-stick will be higher than expected
C » VI will be increased
D The aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected
47) Given: Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?

a) 7° left

b) 7° right

c) 9° left

d) 16° right

48) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind
velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:

a) 192 kt, 7° left

b) 200 kt, 3.5° right

c)192kt,7° right
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
 d) 225 kt, 7° left

49) The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°, Drift angle 5° right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature)
The W/V being experienced is:
a) 225° / 60 kt
b) 320° / 60 kt
c) 220° / 60 kt
d) 325° / 60 kt
50 In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:
A » Decrease longitudinal static stability
B » Increase longitudinal static stability
C » Does not influence longitudinal static stability
D » Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal
51) Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 and has a
cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway
is 60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?
a) 12kt and 38kt
b) 20kt and 40 kt
c) 15kt and 43kt
d) 18kt and 50 kt

52) Given: TAS = 472 kt, True HDG = 005°, W/V = 110°(T)/50ktCalculate the drift angle
and GS?

a) 6°L-487 kt

b) 7°R-491 kt

c) 7°L-491 kt

d) 7°R=487 kt
53) Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface W/WV_035/35kt. Calculate the effective
headwind component?

a) 24kt

b) 27kt
c) 31kt
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
 d) 34kt

54) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of Nanded (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa,
temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the Second
altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately:

a)6800FT
b)6400FT
c)6000FT
d)4000 FT
55) What is the distance to touchdown when you are 670 ft QFE on a 3.2° glide slope
Approach?

a 2.06 NM

b 2.40.NM

c).1.96 NM

d 1.63 NM

56) Who establishes the limits of C of G?

A » The CAA

B » The JAA
C The manufacturer
D » he insurers
57) You fly from C to D, a distance of 450 NM. The WC C - D is +30, and the WC D - Cis -40.
TAS is 160 Kt and reduced TAS is 130 Kt. The Fuel Flow is 165 kg/hr,
and the Safe endurance when overhead C is 4 hours. Calculate PNR for return to C. What is
the distance from PNR to D?
a. 244 nm
b. 205 nm
c. 150 nm
58) One effect on an aircraft that is nose-heavy is:
A » A tendency for the nose to pitch up
B » An increase in range
C » A decrease in stability

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
D » An increase in drag, due to excessive elevator trim
59) An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate
of descent of the aircraft is approximately:

a) 650 FT/MIN b) 6500 FT/MIN c)4500 FT/MIN d) 3900 FT/MIN

60) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your
ATG@flight plan, you write:

A) XXXX

B)/////////

C) ZZZZ

D) XXX
61) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with
constant CAS?

a Mach number decreases; TAS decreases

b Mach number remains constant TAS increases
c Mach number increases; TAS increases
d Mach number increases;1AS remains constant
62) You are required to descend from FL 230 to FL 50 over a distance of 32 NM in 7
Minutes. What will the glideslope be when you expect WC=25.during the descend?

a) 4.07°

b) 5.29°

c) 6.25°

d) Out of syllabus

63) With the centre of gravity outside the forward limit:

A » Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch increased B »
Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch reduced
C » Longitudinal stability would be increased .and stick force in pitch reduced
D » Longitudinal stability would be increased and stick forces in pitch increased
64) What is the validity period of the ‘permanent’ data base of aeronautical information
stored in the FMC a.28days hb. one calendar month» c.3 calendar months d. 14 days

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
65) Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to
enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

a IDENT - RTE = DEPARTURE

b POS INIT - RTE - IDENT
c IDENT - POS INIT —RTE
d POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE
66) The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:

a) the vertical and horizontal plane

b. the vertical plane

c). the horizontal plane

67) During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:

a) Will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial
longitude
b) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial
longitude
c) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
d) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude
68) A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few
moments later. Following this incident:
a) everything returns to normal and is usable
b) no useful information can be obtained from the INS
c) it can only be used for attitude reference
d) the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
69) An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the
autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer:
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°W When 025°W is passed the latitude
shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
a) 60°00.0'N
b) 60°05.7'N

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
c) 59°49.0'N
d) 60°11.0'N
70) The sensors of an INS measure:
a. precession

b. velocity

c. the horizontal component of the earth's rotation

d. acceleration

71) If there is a 17 knot decrease in headwind by what amount. must the rate of descent by
changed in order to maintain a 3° glide slope?
a. It must be increased by 58 ft/min
b. It must be decreased by 58 ft/min
c. It must be increased by 85 ft/min
d. lt must be decreased by 85 ft/min
72 In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. March and September.
B. June and december.
c. November and February.
D January and July.
73) At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice.

b. Spring (Vernal) Equinox and Autumn Equinox)

c. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice.

d. Spring (Vernal)-Equinox and Summer Solstice.

74) The pressure altimeter is calibrated in accordance with

(a) the environmental lapse rate of temperature
(b) the jet standard atmosphere
(c) The International Standard Atmosphere.
(d) The Density altitude

75) An aircraft climbs away from the runway with static vents still sealed. If set to QFE, the
altimeter will
(a)to indicate zero feet

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
(b) Indicate correctly increasing altitude as the aircraft climbs

(c) Show a slower gain of altitude than correct

(d) Will indicate QNH for some time.

76) When using the Vertical Speed Indicator, the pilot

(a) can rely on its readings in all attitudes of flight
(b) Can only rely on the readings when changing to horizontal flight

(c) Cannot rely on its readings, especially when a change of pitch Attitude is occurring
(d) can rely throughout the flight

77. Given: true track is 348°, drift 17 ° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4° E. What is the
compass heading?
a. 041°
b. 141°
c. 044°
d. 033°

78) The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass, landing
and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550 kg, and the taxi,
fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of pay load is:
A » 1500 kg
B » 950 kg
C » 1000 kg
D » 1450 kg
79) Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 56
000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
Contingency fuel: 900 kg
Alternate fuel: 700 kg
Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:
A » 74 000 kg
B » 69 600 kg
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
C » 72 000 kg
D » 70 400 kg
80) The limitations of a typical air driven DI are
(a) 55° in roll and pitch
(b) 110 in roll and 60° in pitch
(c) 60° in roll and 110° in pitch.
(d) 85° in pitch & roll
81). Express 100 kHz in m.
(a) 3000 M (b) 3000 Cm (c) 300 M (d) 100 M
82) AWR equipment operation on the ground is:
(a) totally prohibited
(b) Unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
(c) only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard the health of personnel
and to protect equipment

(d) all the above are correct

83) What is a “Stopway”

A) Can be used for T/O & landings
B) Means an area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway and
centered upon the extended centerline of the runway

C) It is not a portion of Runway Safety Area

84) 345 IMP-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.78)

a) 803 kg. b)1223 Ibs. c) 1226 kgs. d) 1223 kgs

85) The duration of civil twilight is the time?

a) Between Sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon.
b) Between Sunset and when the top of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.
c) Between sunset and when the centre of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.
d) When the Sunset and Sunrise
86) CAS is?
a.EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.
b.IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c.TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
d.IAS corrected for density error and position error
87) An A/c maintaining hdg 180 (M), TAS 150 kt, ADF 020(R) DME 10nm has been
instructed to intercept radial of 280 from the VOR for a STD. HOLD (VOR& NDB) Co-
located what hdg a pilot should steer to(A) intercept the radial & aftér intercept the
radial (B) hdg to reach the st. & ADF rdg (C) out bound hdg. Assume prevailing winds
260/25 kt in the holding area (correction 3D)
Hdg to Intercept the radial Hdg to reach.the st./ADF Outbound Hdg
1) 105 125/355 295
2) 105 105/005 285
3) 190 105/355 295
4)120 115/010 320
88) A 10 deg brg . change abeam, a VOR takes 5 mins 30 sec’s if you tuned & flew to the
VOR, What is the approx. distance, if the grd spd is 160 kts

1) 81km 2)88nm 3) 13nm 4) none of the above

89) The BFO:

A)is Used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible.

B) is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible.
C) is Used to determine the signal strength of an NDB.
D) creates the audio ident for an NDB.
90) The radio altimeter indicates 1280 ft what is the minimum height that the aircraft
could be?
a.1236 ft in the cruising attitude
b.1236 ft in the landing attitude
c.1323 ft in the cruising attitude
d.1323 ft in the landing attitude
91) An aircraft descends to an airport under the following conditions:- . Cruising Altitude
10500 feet
. Airport elevation 1700 feet
. Descending to 1000 feet AGL
. Rate of descent 600 feet/Min
. Average CAS 119K
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
. Mean Temp +18 C
. Track 263°
. Average W/V 330/30
. Variation 5 E
. Deviation -1
. Average Fuel consumption 11.5 Gal/Hr
Find the time, Hdg (C) & Distance & fuel used-during descend
a. 9Min,. 274, 26 nm, 2.8 Gal
b. 13 Min, 274, 2.8 nm, 2.5 Gal

c. 13 Min, 271, 26 nm, 2.5 Gal

92) Block fuel: 40 000 kg

Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg Maximum zero
fuel mass: 112 500 kg Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is: A » 40 400 kg
B » 32 900 kg
C » 18 900 kg
D » 32 100 kg
93) The correct turn andslip indications when turning right on the ground are?
a) Needle and balhright.

b) Needle and/ball left.

c) Needle right and ball left.

d) Needle left and ball right

94) What is the Schuler period?
a) 48,minutes.
b)84 seconds.
c) 48 seconds.
d) 84 minutes.
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
95) Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:
A) the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.
B) the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
C) the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
D) both the electrical and magnetic components are parralel to the aerial.
96) A “resolution advisory” (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a?
a) Blue or white empty lozenge.

b) Red full circle.

c) Red full square.

d) Blue or white full lozenge.

97)What is the shortest distance between ROME (4155’ N 011°10°E) and HONOLULU
2117’ N168°50’W
(a)7008 nm (b) 6008 nm (c) 6900 nm d)8008 nm
98) An ADF uses a sense aerial to:
A) determine the null position.

B) detect the receiver test signal.

C) resolve ambiguous bearings.

D) transmit the beacon ident.

99) An a/c A departs from a station at 900 and flies on a track.of 0900 at G/S of 250 K.
Another a/c departs from the same station at 0930 and:fliesion a track of 090 with a
G/S of 350 K. Find time when ac B will overtake A, place of meeting from the station
and dist. from station when ac B will be 5 mts behind A.
a. 1045 Hrs, 408.7 nm, 437.5 nm.

b. 41045 Hrs, 437.5 nm, 408.7 nm.

c. 1040 Hrs, 450 nm, 425 nm.

d. 1040 Hrs, 425 nm, 450 nm.

100) A radio aid has a wavelength of 2.4 m.the frequency is:
A) 12.5 MHz

B) 72 MHz

C) 720 MHz
YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999
D) 125 MHz

YADWINDER SINGH
BORN TO FLY AVIATION ACADEMY SEC-7,DWARKA,NEW DELHI
09023349999