01).

When accelerations on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass

card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn?

a. Anti — clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.

b. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

c. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.

Anti-— clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

2) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?

a) Beginning of July

b) End of December

c) Beginning of January

d) End of September

3) 004°00’N , 030°00'W : 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then600

NM West. The final position of the aircraft is:

a) 04°00'N 029°58'W

b) 04°00'N 030°02'W

c) 04°00'N 030°00'W

d) 03°58'N 030°02'W

4) Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are: a)

both Rhumb lines and Great circles

b) Great circles

c) Rhumb lines

d) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

5) Given: Great circle from P to Q measured at P=095° Southern hemisphere Conversion

angle P - Q=7° what is the rhumb line track P - Q?

a)081

b)102

c) 088

d) 109

6) At what approximate latitude is the length,of one minute of arc along a meridian?
equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?

a) 45° b) 0° c) 90° d) 30°

7) The distance between the parallels of latitude 17223'S and 23259'N is

a)4122NM

b)636NM

c) 2473 NM

d) 2482 NM

8) What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W? a)

093°53.1'W b)93°54.0'W c) 093°48.5'W d) 094°12.0'W

09 Given DOM 33510kg , Traffic load 7,600kg, Trip fuel 2040kg, Final reserve

983kg,Alternative fuel 1100kg, Contingency 5% of trip fuel., Est. landing mass at

destination

a)43,295kg b)43,110kg c)42,925kg

10) What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between

Meridians 015° E and 025° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?

a) 1 HR 45 MIN b) 1 HR 15 MIN c) 2 HR 30 MIN d)5 HR OO MIN

11) Given: value for the Ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as

Measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the

earth at the axis of the Poles?

A)6356.9

b) 6378.4

c) 6 367.0

d) 6 399.9

12) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

a) 12700 km (or) 127400000 M (or) 6860.5 NM

b) 6 350SM (or) 6883.7 NM(or) 127400000M

c) 6883.7NM (or) 12 700 km (or) 127400000 M

d)Very confusing qst, nd quitting this

13) The circumference of the earth is approximately:

a) 21600 NM b) 43200 NM c) 5400 NM d) 10800 NM

14) The coordinates of the place are: N17°50' E002°16.5' The coordinates of the antipodes

are:

a. S41°10' W177°43.5'

b. S48°50' E177°43.5'

c. S17°50' W177°43.5'

d. S41°10' E177°43.5'

15) The time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun is

a) 360 days 45 hours, 5 minutes 48 seconds

b) 360 days 5 hours 45 minutes 48 seconds

c) 365 days 45 hours 48 minutes 5 seconds

d) 365 days 5 hours48 minutes 45 seconds

16) In international aviation the following units shall be used, for horizontal distance:

a) Meters, Statute miles and Nautical miles

b) Kilometers, Feet and Nautical miles

c) Meters, Kilometers and Nautical miles

d) Kilometers,Statute miles and Nautical miles

17) When dealing with heights and altitudes in international aviation, we use the Following

units:

a Meter and Foot

b Foot, Kilometer and decimals of Nautical mile

c Foot and Yard, d All’3 answers are correct

18) How long is 65 Kilometers at 60 20’N?

a) 40,2 Statute miles

b) 46,;3°Nautical mile

c) 35.0Nautical mile

d) 27,0 Nautical mile

19) The sensitivity.of a.direct reading compass varies:

a) inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field b

)directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

c) inversély with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field

d) directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field 20)

The total Magnetic Force of the terrestrial magnetic field

a) ls horizontal in all positions on the surface of the Earth

b) Is vertical at the magnetic equator

c) ls strongest at the magnetic poles

d) Will be stronger at higher altitudes because the attenuation is less at high altitudes

21) T/0 weight 65000 Ibs, landing weight 49750 Ibs. climb fuel 4500 Ibs Descent fuel

1950 Ibs Find the Mid cruise weight.

a.24500 kgs b.56100 kgs c.56500 Ibs d.56100 Ibs

22) Using the following data, determine the maximum allowable takeoff fuel? MTOM

64400kg

MLM 56200kg

MZFM 53300kg
DOM 35500kg

Traffic load 14500kg

Trip fuel 4900kg

Minimum takeoff fuel 7400kg

a)11100 Ibs b)10900 kgs c) 11100 kgs

23) An aircraft has a flight time of 2 hrs 30 mins, a contingency fuel of 30% is carried. What

is the total endurance?

a) 03:15 b) 02:45 c) 03:45

24) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a

distance of 750 NM from the ground station and at flight level 350“The frequency to be

used is:

a)17286KHz b)123.9MHz c)5649KHz d) 1136*KHz

25) You are required to uplift 40 US gallons of AVGAS with Sp. Gravity of 0.72. How many

litres and kilograms is this?

a) 109 kg b) 450 kg c) 100 kg

26) Coefficient B, as used in aircraft magnetism, presents

a) The resultant deviation from magnetism along the aircraft lateral axis

b) A value representing the deviation registered on headings East and West

c )The resultant deviation from magnetism. along the aircraft vertical (normal) axis

d) Deviation values caused by hard iron magnetism only

27) Deviation on MH 180 is -5 and on MH 000 it is +3. Calculate coefficient C: a)

Coefficient C=-1

b) Coefficient C = +4

c) Coefficient C = -2

d) Coefficient C = +8
28) An aircraft inthe northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the

right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct

reading magnetic compass should read:

a) 060°

b) less than,060°

c) a more,than 060°

d) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used

29) On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or

south poles?

a) Lambert's conformal

b) Direct Mercator

c) Transverse Mercator

d) Polar stereographic

30) A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:

a) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines

b) shows all great circles as straight lines

c) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin

d) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels

31) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented

at the:

a) north and south limits of the chart

b) parallel of origin

c) standard parallels d Equator

32) On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:

a) straight line
b) small circle concave to the nearer pole

c) spiral curve

d) curve convex to the nearer pole

33) On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:

a) complex curve

b) curve concave to the equator

c) curve convex to the equator

d) straight line

34) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of

120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart.will represent on the earth, at

latitude 10°N, a distance of :

a) 122.3NM b) 117.7NM c)124.2NM d)118:2NM

35) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of

90 NM on the earth. The samé@tength on the chart will represent on the earth, at

latitude 30°N, a distance of «

a) 45 NM b) 73.5 NM c) 78 NM d)110 NM

37) The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm.

What is‘the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?

a) 1:26 000 000

b) 1 : 30 000 000

c) 1: 18 000 000

d) 1: 21 000 000

38) Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left Relative bearing of NDB 270° What is

the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?

a) 211° b) 208° c) 221° d) 180°

39) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

A) High gross mass and aft centre of gravity

B ) Low gross mass and forward centre of gravity

C) Low gross mass and aft centre of gravity

D ) High gross mass and forward centre of gravity

40) Given magnetic heading 075’, variation 4°W, drift angle 12°R, relative bearing to the

station 270°. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the station?

a) 149° b) 173° c) 169° d) 161°

41) For a conventional, nose tricycle gear aircraft configuration, the higher the take-off

mass:

1. Manoeuvrability is reduced.

2. Range will decrease but endurance will increase.

3. Gliding range will reduce.

4. Stalling speed will increase.

A » All statements are correct

B » Statement 3 only is correct

C » Statements 1 and 4 are correct

D » Statement 4 only is correct

42) Fuel flow per HR is 25 US-GAL; total fuel on board is 90 IMP GAL. What is the

Endurance?

a) 4 HR 32 MIN b) 3 HR 12 MIN c)3HR53MIN d) 4 HR 19 MIN

43) The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. Fuel specific gravity is 0,78 kg/litre. The

tanks are now 3/4 full. You want to refuel so that total fuel will be 850 kg. How much

fuel will you have to refuel? Answer in pounds.

a) 164 lB

b) 360 LB

c) 320 LB

d) 410LB

44) A fuel amount of 146 Imp Gal allows a endurance of 4 HR 26 Min. What is the

corresponding fuel flow ?

a) 34.3 Imp Gal /HR

b) 32.9 US Gal/ HR

c) 39.5°US Gal / HR

d) 39.5 Imp Gal / HR

45) A fuel amount of 160 US Gal,allows a endurance of 3 HR 10 Min with a light twin

engine piston aircraft. Whats the corresponding fuel flow per engine ? a) 25.3 US Gal

/ HR

b) 50.5 US Gal/ HR

c) 51.6 US Gal / HR

d) 25.8 US Gal / HR

46 Fuel loaded into an, aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and

trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice

that:

A » V1 will be reached sooner than expected

B » Speed at un-stick will be higher than expected

C » VI will be increased

D The aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected

47) Given: Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt

Calculate the drift angle?

a) 7° left
b) 7° right

c) 9° left

d) 16° right

48) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind

velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:

a) 192 kt, 7° left

b) 200 kt, 3.5° right

c)192kt,7° right

d) 225 kt, 7° left

49) The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt,

True HDG 090°, Drift angle 5° right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) The

W/V being experienced is:

a) 225° / 60 kt

b) 320° / 60 kt

c) 220° / 60 kt

d) 325° / 60 kt

50 In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

A » Decrease longitudinal static stability

B » Increase longitudinal static stability

C » Does not influence longitudinal static stability

D » Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

51) Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 and has a

cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is

60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds? a) 12kt and 38kt

b) 20kt and 40 kt
c) 15kt and 43kt

d) 18kt and 50 kt

52) Given: TAS = 472 kt, True HDG = 005°, W/V = 110°(T)/50ktCalculate the drift angle and

GS?

a) 6°L-487 kt

b) 7°R-491 kt

c) 7°L-491 kt

d) 7°R=487 kt

53) Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface W/WV_035/35kt. Calculate the effective

headwind component?

a) 24kt

b) 27kt

c) 31kt

d) 34kt

54) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of Nanded (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa,

temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the Second

altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately:

a)6800FT

b)6400FT

c)6000FT

d)4000 FT

55) What is the distance to touchdown when you are 670 ft QFE on a 3.2° glide slope

Approach? a 2.06 NM b 2.40.NM

c).1.96 NM

d 1.63 NM
56) Who establishes the limits of C of G?

A » The CAA

B » The JAA

C The manufacturer D

» he insurers

57) You fly from C to D, a distance of 450 NM. The WC C - D is +30, and the WC D - Cis -40.

TAS is 160 Kt and reduced TAS is 130 Kt. The Fuel Flow is 165 kg/hr,

and the Safe endurance when overhead C is 4 hours. Calculate PNR for return to C. What is

the distance from PNR to D?

a. 244 nm

b. 205 nm

c. 150 nm

58) One effect on an aircraft that is nose-heavy is:

A » A tendency for the nose to pitch up

B » An increase in range

C » A decrease in stability

D » An increase in drag, due to excessive elevator trim

59) An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate

of descent of the aircraft is approximately:

a) 650 FT/MIN b) 6500 FT/MIN c)4500 FT/MIN d) 3900 FT/MIN

60) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your

ATG@flight plan, you write:

A) XXXX

B)/////////

C) ZZZZ
D) XXX

61) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with

constant CAS?

a Mach number decreases; TAS decreases b Mach

number remains constant TAS increases c Mach

number increases; TAS increases d Mach

number increases;1AS remains constant

62) You are required to descend from FL 230 to FL 50 over a distance of 32 NM in 7

Minutes. What will the glideslope be when you expect WC=25.during the descend? a)

4.07°

b) 5.29°

c) 6.25°

d) Out of syllabus

63) With the centre of gravity outside the forward limit:

A » Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch increased B »

Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch reduced

C » Longitudinal stability would be increased .and stick force in pitch reduced

D » Longitudinal stability would be increased and stick forces in pitch increased

64) What is the validity period of the ‘permanent’ data base of aeronautical information

stored in the FMC a.28days hb. one calendar month» c.3 calendar months d. 14 days

65) Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to

enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

a IDENT - RTE = DEPARTURE b

POS INIT - RTE - IDENT c

IDENT - POS INIT —RTE d POS

INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE

66) The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:

a) the vertical and horizontal plane

b)the vertical plane

c). the horizontal plane

67) During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:

a) Will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitude

b) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial

longitude

c) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude

d) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude

68) A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few

moments later. Following this incident:

a) everything returns to normal and is usable

b) no useful information can be obtained from the INS

c) it can only be used for attitude reference

d) the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update

69) An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the

autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1: 60°N

030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°W When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit

of the inertial navigation system will be: a) 60°00.0'N

b) 60°05.7'N

c) 59°49.0'N

d) 60°11.0'N

70) The sensors of an INS measure: a.

precession

b. velocity

c. the horizontal component of the earth's rotation

d. acceleration

71) If there is a 17 knot decrease in headwind by what amount. must the rate of descent by

changed in order to maintain a 3° glide slope?

a. It must be increased by 58 ft/min

b. It must be decreased by 58 ft/min

c. It must be increased by 85 ft/min

d. lt must be decreased by 85 ft/min

72 In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?

a. March and September. B. June and december.

c. November and February.

D January and July.

73) At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?

a. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice.

b. Spring (Vernal) Equinox and Autumn Equinox)

c. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice.

d. Spring (Vernal)-Equinox and Summer Solstice.

74) The pressure altimeter is calibrated in accordance with

(a) the environmental lapse rate of temperature

(b) the jet standard atmosphere

(c) The International Standard Atmosphere.

(d) The Density altitude

75) An aircraft climbs away from the runway with static vents still sealed. If set to QFE, the

altimeter will

(a)to indicate zero feet

(b) Indicate correctly increasing altitude as the aircraft climbs

(c) Show a slower gain of altitude than correct

(d) Will indicate QNH for some time.

76) When using the Vertical Speed Indicator, the pilot

(a) can rely on its readings in all attitudes of flight

(b) Can only rely on the readings when changing to horizontal flight

(c) Cannot rely on its readings, especially when a change of pitch Attitude is occurring

(d) can rely throughout the flight

77. Given: true track is 348°, drift 17 ° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4° E. What is the

compass heading?

a. 041°

b. 141°

c. 044°

d. 033°

78) The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass, landing

and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550 kg, and the taxi,

fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of pay load is:

A » 1500 kg

B » 950 kg

C » 1000 kg

D » 1450 kg

79) Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 56

000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg

Taxi fuel: 800 kg

Trip fuel: 18 000 kg

Contingency fuel: 900 kg

Alternate fuel: 700 kg

Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg

Determine the actual take-off mass:

A » 74 000 kg

B » 69 600 kg

C » 72 000 kg

D » 70 400 kg

80) The limitations of a typical air driven DI are

(a) 55° in roll and pitch (b)

110 in roll and 60° in pitch (c)

60° in roll and 110° in pitch. (d)

85° in pitch & roll

83) What is a “Stopway”

A) Can be used for T/O & landings

B) Means an area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway and

centered upon the extended centerline of the runway

C) It is not a portion of Runway Safety Area

84) 345 IMP-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.78)

a) 803 kg. b)1223 Ibs. c) 1226 kgs. d) 1223 kgs

85) The duration of civil twilight is the time?

a) Between Sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon.

b) Between Sunset and when the top of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.

c) Between sunset and when the centre of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.

d) When the Sunset and Sunrise

86) CAS is?

a.EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.

b.IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.

c.TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.

d.IAS corrected for density error and position error

88) A 10 deg brg . change abeam, a VOR takes 5 mins 30 sec’s if you tuned & flew to the

VOR, What is the approx. distance, if the grd spd is 160 kts

1) 81km 2)88nm 3) 13nm 4) none of the above 89) The

91) An aircraft descends to an airport under the following conditions:- . Cruising Altitude

10500 feet

. Airport elevation 1700 feet

. Descending to 1000 feet AGL

. Rate of descent 600 feet/Min

. Average CAS 119K

. Mean Temp +18 C

. Track 263°

. Average W/V 330/30

. Variation 5 E

. Deviation -1

. Average Fuel consumption 11.5 Gal/Hr

Find the time, Hdg (C) & Distance & fuel used-during descend

a. 9Min,. 274, 26 nm, 2.8 Gal

b. 13 Min, 274, 2.8 nm, 2.5 Gal

c. 13 Min, 271, 26 nm, 2.5 Gal

92) Block fuel: 40 000 kg

Trip fuel: 29 000 kg

Taxi fuel: 800 kg

Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg Maximum zero

fuel mass: 112 500 kg Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg

The maximum traffic load for this flight is: A » 40 400 kg

B » 32 900 kg

C » 18 900 kg

D » 32 100 kg

93) The correct turn andslip indications when turning right on the ground are?

a)Needle and ball right.

b) Needle and/ball left.

c) Needle right and ball left.

d) Needle left and ball right

94) What is the Schuler period?

a)48,minutes.

b)84 seconds.

c) 48 seconds.

d) 84 minutes.

97)What is the shortest distance between ROME (4155’ N 011°10°E) and HONOLULU 2117’

N168°50’W

(a)7008 nm (b) 6008 nm (c) 6900 nm d)8008 nm

99) An a/c A departs from a station at 900 and flies on a track.of 0900 at G/S of 250 K.

Another a/c departs from the same station at 0930 and:fliesion a track of 090 with a

G/S of 350 K. Find time when ac B will overtake A, place of meeting from the station

and dist. from station when ac B will be 5 mts behind A.

a. 1045 Hrs, 408.7 nm, 437.5 nm.

b. 41045 Hrs, 437.5 nm, 408.7 nm.

c. 1040 Hrs, 450 nm, 425 nm.

d. 1040 Hrs, 425 nm, 450 nm.

Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

A) The Commander and the Chief Engineer.

B) The Commander and the Operations Officer.

C) Only the Commander.

D) The Commander and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (where applicable)

An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360 feet,
horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres. The
pilot may start the final approach:.

A) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day
and 360 feet at night.

B) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.

C) whatever the ceiling given by ATC.

D) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an
alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

A) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

B) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

C) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

D) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flights?

The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)

Mass and balance Documentation

NOTAMS
The Technical Log

Maps and Charts

Passenger and cargo manifests.

A) All are required except 4.

B) All are required except 3.

C) All are required except 1.

D) All are required except 6.

An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate (diversion) aerodrome for use in the
event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:

A) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome are below minima.

B) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough for landing.

C) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods.

D) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel

The centre of a small island is identified at the intersection of the 60° left bearing line and 15nm range arc
of an airborne weather radar. If the aircrafts heading and height are 035° (M) and 42500ft what QTE and
range should be plotted in order to obtain a fix from the island? (variation is 20° W)

A) 135 15 nm.

B) 135 14 nm.

C) 135 13 nm.

D) 175 15 nm.

Given flight details for a flight from A to B:

Total fuel onboard: 11 000 kg

Reserve fuel: 1 500 kg

TAS out: 310 kts

TAS in: 270 kt

Wind Component Outbound: +45 kts

Wind Component homebound: -45 kts

F/F out: 2100 kg/hr

F/F home: 1700 kg/hr

Calculate the time from A to the PSR to A:

A) 119 mins

B) 287 min

C) 307 min

D) 168 min

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm.

Using the following data, calculate the time and distance to PSR:

Wind component out: 35 kt(TWC)

TAS 450 kt

Mean fuel flow out: 2500 kg/hr

Mean fuel flow inbound: 1900 kg/hr

Fuel available: 6000 kg

A) 1 hr 16 min, 606 nm

B) 1 hr 30 min, 660 nm

C) 1 hr 16 min, 616 nm

D) 1hr 30 min, 616 nm