You are on page 1of 142

CHAPTER 1 ORGANIZATION PLANT TISSUE AND GROWTH

CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY AND LABORATORY RULES

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)


1. What is meant by Biology?
A The study of earth and natural phenomena
B The study of plants and forestry
C The study of living thing and environment
D The study of microorganisms and diseases

2. Which of the following are not included in the study of Biology?


A Classification of elements
B Plants reproduction
C Human growth
D Organisms interaction with environment

3. A group of students want to conduct an experiment involving the use of


chlorine. Which equipment should be used for the experiment?
A B

C D
4. Which of the following are the incorrect match between protective
equipment and its function?
Protective Function
equipment
A Goggles To protect the eyes from hazardous
chemicals
B Face mask To avoid inhaling hazardous vapour
C Laboratory gloves To remove germs on hands
D Lab coat To protect the skin from hazardous
chemical splashes

5. The statement below refers to method for managing biological waste.


1. Packed in biohazard plastic bags
2. Sterilised in autoclave
3. Placed into a biohazard bin
Which of the following materials is disposed of based on that method?
A Syringes
B Gloves
C Animal carcases
D Blood

6. A student had accidentally broken a thermometer and caused mercury


leakage. Which of the following actions should not be done?
A Inform the teacher
B Picking up the remaining shards
C Sprinkle sulphur powder
D Call the fire and rescue department

7. What is the function of a table in data tabulation?


A To record and present data
B To draw and present data
C To record the final result
D To draw experiment diagram

8. The figure below shows an example of a line graph.


What variables are represented by the X axis and the Y axis?

X axis Y axis
A Manipulated variable Responding variable
B Responding variable Constant variable
C Constant variable Responding variable
D Responding variable Manipulated variable

9. A group of students observed animal cells using a microscope. The


results of their observations are recorded in the form of drawings. Which
of the following drawings meets the characteristics of biological
drawings?

A B

C D

10. The following are the steps involved in a scientific investigation.


I Forming a hypothesis
II. Collecting data
III. Forming a conclusion
IV. Planning and carrying out a scientific
investigation
V. Identifying and controlling variables

Arrange the steps in the correct order.


A I, II, III, IV, V
B I, V, IV, II, III
C II, V, I, IV, III
D III, I, II, V, IV
STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)
1. The following figure shows an experiment that determines the effect of
light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis by counting the number of air
bubbles released in 1 minute.

a) Identify the problem statement for this experiment.


…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………
[1 mark]
b) State the appropriate hypothesis for this experiment.
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………

[1 mark]
c) Identify
i. Manipulated variable
:……………………………………………………………………
ii. Responding variable
:……………………………………………………………………
iii. Constant variable
:……………………………………………………………………
[3 marks]

d) What step need to be taken after the conclusions for this experiment
are made? State the importance of the step.
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
[2 marks]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)
Aminah broke a thermometer while conducting an experiment and caused a
mercury spill. Aminah immediately picked up the shards of the thermometer
and cleaned up the mercury spill with a rag. Is the action taken by Aminah
correct? Justify your answer.

………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………

CHAPTER 2: CELL AND CELLS ORGANISATION

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)

1. The diagram below shows a typical animal cell.

Which of the following is true about the functions of organelles X and Y?

Function of organelle X Function of organelle Y


A Site of lipid synthesis Site of protein modification
B Site of protein modification Site of protein synthesis
C Site of enzyme synthesis Site of lipid synthesis
D Site of glycoprotein synthesis Site of protein synthesis

2. Which of the following cells have a high density of mitochondria in its cell?
I Sperm cells
II Flight muscle cells in birds and insects
III Palisade mesophyll cell
IV Liver cells

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, II and III only
D I, II and IV only

3. Which of the following is the function centrioles?


A Carries out photosynthesis.
B Forms of spindle fibres during cell division.
C Site of protein synthesis.
D Regulates all activities of the cell.

4. Diagram shows a protein structure which has undergone process X.

Where does process X occur?


A Centrioles C Golgi apparatus
B Mitochondria D Rough endoplasmic reticulum

5. Which of the following organelles are involved in protein synthesis?


I Nucleus
II Ribosomes
III Golgi apparatus

A I and II C I, II dan III


B I and III D II and III

6. Diagram below shows part of a system.


What will happen if organ P is damaged?
A Oxygen couldn't be transported to the body cells
B Body couldn't be defended against diseases
C Body couldn't remove the metabolic waste
D Body temperature couldn't be maintained

7. What are the functions of the lymphatic system?


I Defends the body against diseases
II Regulates the glucose level of the blood
III Detection of stimuli
IV Lacteals absorb and transport digested fats back to the blood-stream

A I and II only
B I and IV only
C I, II and IV only
D II, III and IV only

8. Which of the following sequences is correct regarding the stages in cell


organisation?
A Cell  Tissue  Organ  System
B Cell  Organ  Tissue  System
C Tissue  Organ  Cell  System
D Tissue  Cell  Organ  System

9. What are xylem tissues and phloem tissues?


A Ground tissues
B Epidermal tissues
C Vascular tissues
D Meristematic tissues

10 Which of the following is a meristematic tissue?


A Cambium in the stems
B Xylem
C Sclerenchyma tissue
D Epidermis of the roots.
STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)
Diagram 2.1 shows the structure of a plant cell as seen under an electron
microscope.

Nucleus
Nukleus
Ribosome
Riboso Ribosom
m

Ribosom

Diagram 2.1

(a) (i) Name organelles P, Q and R.

P : ...............................................................................
Q : ...............................................................................
R : ...............................................................................
[3 marks]

(ii) Explain the function of organelle P in the plant cell.

……………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………
[2 marks]

(b) The ribosomes in Q synthesize proteins to form hormone.


Explain the effect to the plant’s growth if the cells in the shoot tip are
lacking in ribosomes.

……………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………
[2 marks]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Figure 1 shows an example of a unicellular organism. Explain four life


processes that can be performed by this organism.

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

[8 marks]
CHAPTER 3: THE MOVEMENT OF SUBSTANCE ACROSS THE PLASMA
MEMBRANE

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following components of a plasma membrane serves to make the


bilayer stronger, more flexible and less permeable to water-soluble subtances?
A. Glycoprotein
B. Cholesterol
C. Glycolipid
D. Carrier protein

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of selective permeable membrane?


A. A membrane that allows all materials to move through it freely
B. A membrane that does not allow a substance to cross
C. A membrane that allows some material to pass through it

3. Diagram 2 below shows a movement of substance across the plasma membrane.

A B C
B
Diagram 2

Which of A, B, and C is the pathway for respiratory gases?

4. The diagram shows the components that make up the plasma membrane.

Diagram 4

What are the parts labelled P and Q?


P Q
A. Hydrophilic head Hydrophobic tail
B. Hydrophobic head Hydrophilic tail
C. Polarized head Polarized tail
D. Non-polar head Non-polar tail
5. Diagram 3 shows an experiment was conducted to study the movement of
substance across a selective permeable membrane. After 30 min, an iodine test
was performed on the solution contained in the visking tube and the solution in
the beaker.

Diagram 3

Which of the following shows the results of the iodine test?


Solution in a visking tube Solution in a beaker
A. Dark blue Dark blue
B. Brown Dark blue
C. Brown Brown
D. Dark blue Brown

6. Diagram 4 below shows a movement of a molecule across a plasma membrane.

Diagram 4
What is the process involved?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Active transport

7. Diagram 5 shows an experiment was conducted to study the movement of the


substances across the plasma membrane.

What is the process that takes place in the above diagram?


A. Osmosis
B. Active transport
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Simple diffusion
8. The diagram below shows two types of transport, X and Y, across the plasma
membrane with the help of transport proteins.

X Y

Which of the following statement are correct to explain the difference between the
two types of transportation?

X Y
A. Examples are sodium and natrium ions An example glucose molecule
B. The process results in accumulation or The process continues until dynamic
removal of molecules or ions equilibrium is reached
C. Movement of substance against a Movement of substance down a
concentration gradient concentration gradient
D. Involved carrier proteins and pore Involved carrier proteins only
proteins

9. Which of the following examples shows the process of active transport that take
place in living organisms?
A. Absorption of water by plant hair root cells.
B. Absorption of fructose molecules in the villus.
C. Absorption of glucose and amino acid molecules in the villus.
D. Reabsorption of water through the renal tubules of the kidney.

10. The diagram shows the state of red blood cells when put into solution X.

Which of the following describes the condition of the red blood cells?
A. Red blood cells expand and undergo hemolysis
B. Red blood cells maintain their normal shape
C. Red blood cells shrink and undergo plasmolysis
D. Red blood cells shrink and undergo crenation
STRUCTURE QUESTION [7 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1(a) and 1(b) shows two types of movement of substances across the
plasma membrane.

Diagram 1(a) Diagram 1(b)

a) Name the process of movement of substance across the plasma membrane


as shown in the above diagram.

Diagram
1(a):…………………………………………………………………………………..

Diagram
1(b):…………………………………………………………………………………..
[2 marks]

b) Explain how amino acid molecules are transported across the plasma
membrane by the process shown in Diagram 1(a).

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………
[2 marks]

c) Based on Diagram 1(b), state one example of substance that moves across
the plasma membrane. Describe the characteristics of that substance
transported into the cell.

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………
[3 marks]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. The diagram below shows the movement of substances P and Q across the
plasma membrane respectively.

a) Name the processes involved in the movement of P and Q.


[2 marks]
b) Explain the similarities and differences between the two processes.
[6 marks]

CHAPTER 4: CHEMICAL COMPOSITION IN A CELL

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)

1. Water specific heat capacity = 4.2 kJ kg-1 ℃-


1

What is the meaning of ‘water specific heat capacity’?


A. 4.2 kJ of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of one gram
of water by 1℃.
B. 4.2 kJ of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of one
kilogram of water by 1℃.
C. 4.2 kJ of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of one gram
of water by 10℃.
D. 4.2 kJ of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of one
kilogram of water by 1℃

2. What is meant by ‘polar molecules’?


A. Molecules that have unequal distribution of charges.
B. Molecules that have the same distribution of charges.
C. Molecules that have a positive charge.
D. Molecules that have a negative charge.

3. Which of the following carbohydrates is the polysaccharide?


A. Maltose C. Glucose
B. Fructose D. Glycogen
4. Diagram 1 shows the process of formation of disaccharide molecule.

Diagram 1
What is process
Y?
A. Condensation C. Dialysis
B. Hydrolysis D. Photosyntesis

5. The following reaction shows the breakdown of molecule P.

Process T
Dipetide + Water Q + Amino acid

What do T and Q represent?

Q
T
A
Amino acid
Hydrolysis
B
Protein
Hydrolysis
C
Asid amino
Condensation
D
Protein
Condensation

6. Which of the following the correct match?

Function
Types of lipd
A
Protect the outer layer of leaves
Fats
B
Components of plasma membranes
Phospholipid
C
Outer layer that protects internal
Steroids organs
D
Synthesis of steroid hormones
Waxes
7. The equation shows a process in the formation of triglyceride.

What is process X?
A. Hydrolysis C. Evaporation
B. Condensation D. Reduction

8. Which of the following is true about saturated fat?


A. Low content of cholesterol.
B. Liquid form in room temperature.
C. Maximum content of hydrogen atoms.
D. Content at least one double bond between the carbon atoms

9. Diagram 2 shows a structure of nucleotide

Diagram 2
Name the components K,L and M

L M
K
A
Nitrogenous
Phosphate group
Pentose sugar base
B
Nitrogenous
C Phosphate group Pentose sugar base
Nitrogenous
D Phosphate group base Pentose sugar
Phosphate group
Nitrogenous base Pentose sugar
10. Diagram 3 shows parts of a DNA molecule

Which pairs of nitrogenous base represents M and N?


M N
A
Guanine
Adenine
B
Guanine
Cytosine
C
Thymine
Cytosine
D
Adenine Cytosine

STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows three groups of carbohydrates.

Diagram 1
(a)( i ) Name the carbohydrates labelled X and Z
X :………………………………………………………………………………………
Y: ………………………………………………………………………………………
Z: ………………………………………………………………………………………
[3 marks]

(a)(ii ) Y is made of two monomer units. Give one example of carbohydrates


labelled Y and
name the monomers that make them.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………….……………………………………………………………………
[2 marks]

(b ) Z is sugar polimers which are formed through the condensation process.


Hundreds of monomers X bind together to form long molecular chains.
Explain one importance of Z in multicellular organism.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………..
[2 marks]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Diagram 2 shows the process involved in lipids formation.

Diagram 2
(a) Name processes P and Q, explain the processes.
[4 marks]
(b) Butter is type of saturated fat, while palm oil is a type of unsaturated fat.
Compare between saturated fat and unsaturated fat.
[4 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………
CHAPTER 5: METABOLISM AND ENZYMES

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows the mechanism of enzyme action.

Diagram 1

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z
A Product Enzyme Substrate
B Substrate Product Enzyme
C Substrate Enzyme Product
D Enzyme Substrate Product

2. Table 2 shows two shirts, M and N, stained with butter. The shirts were
washed using
washing powder which contains enzyme P at different temperature.

Before After

Table 2

What is enzyme P and the temperatures for M and N?


Temperature for B (°C)
Enzyme P Temperature for A (°C)
A Amylase 35 10
B Lipase 35 10
C Lipase 10 35
D Amylase 10 35
3. Diagram 3 shows organelles X, Y and Z that are involved in the synthesis
and secretion
of an extracellular enzyme.

Diagram 3

The correct sequence in the producion of the extracellular enzyme is

A Y→X→Z B Y→Z→X
C Z→Y→X D X→Y→Z

4. Which of the following is correct?


Enzyme Function
A Erepsin Hydrolyses fat
B Rennin Coagulates milk
C Pepsin Emulsifies milk
D Trypsin Digests fat

5. Diagram 4 is a graph which shows the relationship between the rate of


reaction and the
substrate concentration when factor X is varied.

Diagram 4
Factor X is
A time
B pH
C enzyme concentration
D inhibitor

6. Diagram 5 shows the production of extracellular enzymes..

Diagram 5

What happen if structure X fails to fuse with Golgo apparatus?

A Proteins will not be modified


B Proteins will be hydrolyse
C Proteins will be denatured
D Proteins will not be synthesised

7. Diagram 6 is a graph which shows the optimum pH of an enzyme X in its


reaction.

Diagram 6
What is enzyme X?

A Salivary amylase B Rennin


C Trypsin D Pepsin
8.
Diagram 7 is a graph which shows the rate of enzyme hydrolysis
reactions, X and Y, in
the human body.

Diagram 7
Which of the following is correct?
Enzyme X Enzyme Y
A Secreted in the stomach Secreted in the pancreas
B X is trypsin Y is lipase
C Synthesized in the rough Synthesized in the smooth
endoplasmic reticulum endoplasmic reticulum
D Optimum pH is 4.0 Optimum pH is 11.5

9 Diagram 8 shows the breaking down of a complex molecule by an


enzyme.

Diagram 8

Which of the following can be deduced from Diagram 14?

I Enzyme reaction is irreversible


II Enzyme is destroyed at the end of the reaction
III Optimum temperature for enzyme reaction is 40°C
IV Enzyme action is specific
A I and IV B II and III
C I, II and IV D II, III and IV
10. Diagram 9 shows an experiment to investigate the action of pepsin on
protein

Diagram 9

The test tube contains a mixture of 1 mℓ of 1% pepsin solution, 4 drops of 0.1


M hydrochloric acid and 2 mℓ of albumen suspension. The albumen
suspension turns clear after 30 minutes.
What can be done to reduce the time taken for the albumen suspension to
turn clear?
A Reduce the volume of 0.1 M hydrochloric acid to 2 drops
B Increase the volume of 1% pepsin solution to 2 mℓ
C Increase the volume of albumen suspension to 4 mℓ
D Reduce the temperature of water bath to 30°C
STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram 2.1 shows the organelles involved during the synthesis and
secretion of an enzyme in an animal cell

Diagram 2.1
a) Name the organelles labelled W and X
W:……………………………………………………………………………
X:……………………………………………………………………………
(2 marks)
b) Explain the role of organelle Y in the synthesis of the enzyme
………………………………………………………………………………
(1 mark)

c) Diagram 2.2 shows the hypothesis of the mechanism of enzyme


reaction on a substrate.

Diagram 2.2

i. State the hypothesis.

……………………………………………………………………………
(1 mark)
ii. What is represented by K, L, M and N?

K :………………………………………………………………………
L :……………………………………………………………….
M: ……………………………………………………………….
N: ……………………………………………………………….
(2 marks)
iii. State two characteristics of the enzyme as explained by
the hypothesis.
1. …………………………………………………………………………
2. …………………………………………………………………………
(2 marks)

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)


1. Discuss how the nature of the enzyme influences its action
(8 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………
CHAPTER 6: CELL DIVISION

OBJECTIVE QUESTION (10 MARKS)


1. Diagram 1 shows phases of a cell cycle.

Diagram 1

Which of the following is correct about the M phase in the cell cycle?
A. Cytokinesis takes place
B. The longest phase in the cell cycle
C. Protein are synthesised during this time
D. DNA is replicated

2. Mitosis is defined as the division of the nucleus of parent cell into two nuclei.
Which of the following statements is correct in explaining the behaviour of
chromosomes?
A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes forms bivalent
B. One chromosome from each pair of the homologous chromosome is tied to
the spindle
fibres
C. Both sister chromatids are joined at the centromere
D. Exchange of genetic material between non-identical chromatids takes place.

3. The following information shows some events in meiosis.


P : Crossing over takes place
Q : Synapsis occurs forming tetrad
R : The nuclear membrane start to disappear
S : Chromatin shortens, thicken and form visible
chromosomes
Which of the
following is the correct sequence of the interphase stage of prophase I?
A. P → R → S → Q
B. S → Q → R → P
C. S → Q → P → R
D. R → S → Q → P

4. Diagram 2 shows a karyotype of an individual with a genetic disorder.


Diagram 2

What is the cause of this genetic disorder?


A. Spindle fibres fail to function during anaphase I or anaphase II.
B. Synapsis fail to occur during prophase I
C. Homologous chromosomes did not separate during anaphase II
D. Crossing over did not occur during prophase I

5. The chromosomal number of a cat is 38. What is the chromosomal number


of the somatic cells, gamete cells and embryonic cells of cat?

Somatic cells Gamete cells Embryonic cells


Sel Soma Sel Gamet Sel Embrio
A 38 38 19
B 19 38 19
C 19 19 19
D 38 19 38

6. Which of the following are the application of mitosis in the fields of


agriculture and medicine?

I Tissue culture II Stem cell therapy III


Meat Culture

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D.


I, II and III

7. Diagram 3 shows the stages in mitosis.


Diagram 3

What is the chromosomal behaviour at stage R?

A. The chromosomes shorten and thicken


B. The chromosomes arrange themselves at the equatorial plane
C. Sister chromatids separate and pulled to the opposite pole cells
D. Chromatids arrive at opposite poles

8. Diagram 4 shows a process in a phase of cell division.

Diagram 4

Which of the following involves the process?

A. Budding of hydra
B. Regeneration new tail of lizard if the tail breaks
C. Embryo development
D. Gametogenesis in organisms

9. Fruit flies have somatic cells with four pairs of chromosomes. Which of the
following is true about fruit flies?

A. The gametes of fruit flies have four pairs of chromosomes


B. The fruit flies have four chromosomes
C. Fruit flies gametes, n = 8
D. Fruit flies gametes, n = 4

10. Diagram shows a stage of meiosis in an animal cell.

Which of the following is correct?


Phase
K L
Fasa
A Centriol Pair of sister chromatids
Prophase I
B Spindle fibre Pair of homologous
Prophase II chromosome

C Centriol Pair of homologous


Prophase I chromosome

D Spindle fibre Pair of sister Chromatids


Prophase II

STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows a phase in the cell division.

a) Name structure P and Q.


(2 marks)

b) Name the stage.

.................................................................................................................
(1 marks)
c)
Failure of structure P to function in human during
gametogenesis may cause genetic disease.
i. Name this genetic desease

....................................................................................................................
(1 marks)
ii. How this condition occurred? Explain your answer.

...............................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................
(3 marks)

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1.1 shows a different phase of cell cycle.

Rajah 1.1

a) Explain the process R in an animal cell.


(2 marks)

b)
In 2018, one of Malaysian motor cub prix rider was injured until
the calf bone was crushed about
10 cm. After 10 months of receiving treatment in the hospital, he
continued his career after
recovering and managed to record success.
In your opinion, what is the treatment received? Explain.
(3 marks)
c) Diagram 1.2 shows a stage of mitosis in cell P and Q.

Rajah 1.2

Explain the differences between process P and Q.


(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………
CHAPTER 7: CELL RESPIRATION

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. What is the function of cellular respiration?


A. To produce lactic acid for the cell
B. To produce carbon dioxide for the cell
C. To increase the concentration of glucose in the cell
D. To produce energy for the cell

2. Cellular respiration is a process that generates the energy needed by all


living cells. What is the main substrate for cellular respiration?

A. Lipid
B. Glucose
C. Protein
D. Galactose

3. The following equation shows aerobic respiration in cells.

Glucose + X Carbon diokside + water +


energy
What is X?
A. Nitrogen
B. Alcohol
C. Ethanol
D. Oxygen

4. The diagram below shows a respirometer set up to study aerobic


respiration.

What are the results of this experiment?


I. The level of the coloured liquid in boiling tube A increases after one
hour.
II. The level of the coloured liquid in boiling tube B remains the same after
one hour.
III. The level of the coloured liquid in boiling tube A remains the same after
one hour.
IV. The level of the coloured liquid in boiling tube B increases after one
hour.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

5. Diagram below shows an equation for an aerobic respiration. What are P


and R?

P + X + Y +
R Z

P R
A Glucose Carbon
dioxide
B Energy Glucose
C Carbon dioxide Water
D Glucose Oxygen

6. In glycolysis, the glucose molecule is broken down into molecule X. What is


X?

A. Phosphate
B. Pyruvate
C. ATP
D. Carbon dioxide

7. Which of the following statements are true about fermentation?

I. Occurs in mitochondria
II. Occurs when there is oxygen
III. Produces alcohol
IV. Produces lactic acid

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
8. What is the ratio of carbon dioxide to water produced during aerobic
respiration?

A. 6:1
B. 1:6
C. 1:1
D. 6:5

9. The following equation shows fermentation process in a plant cell.

Glucose X + Y +
energy

What are X and Y?

X Y
A Oxygen Carbon dioxide
.
B Ethanol Carbon dioxide
.
C Lactic acid Oxygen
.
D Water Oxygen
.

10. Which of the following comparisons between aerobic respiration and


fermentation in human muscle is correct?

Aerobic respiration Fermentation


A No oxygen is consumed Oxygen is consumed
.
B Large amount of ATP is Small amount of ATP is
. produced produced
C Lactic acid is produced Ethanol is produced
.
D Glucose is oxidised No glucose is oxidised
.
STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram below shows an organelle commonly found in human cells.

Diagram 1

a) The organelle in Diagram 1 is the ‘powerhouse’ of the cell.


(i) Identify the organelle in Diagram 1.
____________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) State the reaction that occurs in this organelle.
____________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(iii) Explain the reaction stated in a) (ii).
____________________________________________________

____________________________________________________

____________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Where does the main substrate for the reaction in a) (ii) come from.
_______________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) What happens to the products of the reaction in a) (ii) in human
body?
______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________
[2 marks]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Diagram below shows the processes of energy production in organism X


and Y.

Organism X Organism Y

Glucose Glucose

210 kJ
150 kJ energy
energy

(a) Compare the processes of energy production in organism X and Y.


[8 marks]

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________
CHAPTER 8 : RESPIRATORY SYSTEMS IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 below shows the tracheal system of a grasshopper.

Diagram 1
What is the name of the strukture in the grasshopper’s tracheal system
that is filled with air to speed up the delivery of respiratory gas during
active body movements?
A. Trachea
B. Tracheol
C. Spiracles
D. Air sacs

2. What are the characteristics of the respiratory structure of a fish that


enable rapid exchange of repiratory gases?

I. Large number of filaments and lamellae.


II. Lamellae membrane is thin and supplied with many blood capillaries.
III. Moist skin
IV. The skin is thin and highly permeable
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV

3. What is the adaptation of the lungs of the frog for gaseous exchange?
A.Thin and flat
B.Thick and most
C. Smooth surface and dry
D. Folded surface and moist

4. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the pathway of oxygen


entering the tracheal system?
A. Trachea spiracles tracheol body cells
B. Spiracles trachea tracheol body cells
C. Tracheol trachea spiracle body cells
D. Body cells trachea tracheol spiracles
5. Study the diagram below.

What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and oxygen at X?

Carbon dioxide Oxygen


A Low High
B High Low
C Low Low

6. Asthma is one of the diseases related to the human respiratory system.


What is the cause of asthma?
A. Bronchiole tube becomes smaller
B. Alveolus loses its elasticity
C. Bronchiole tube is blocked
D. Alveolus wall is damaged

7. What happens to the external intercostal muscle of human during


inhalation?
A. Contract and flatten
B. Relax and flatten
C. Contract and become dome shaped
D. Relax and become dome shaped

8. Diagram 8 shows a ribcage model.

Diagram 8

What are represented by K and L?


K L
A Sternum Intercostal muscles
B Intercostal muscle Ribcage
C Vertebral column Sternum
D Vertebral column Ribcage

9. Which of the following is not the way carbon dioxide transports in the body?
A. 70% is transported in the form of bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
B. 7% dissolved carbon dioxide is transported as carbonic acid (H2CO3)
C. 7% carbon dioxide is transported in the form of carbonic anhydrase
enzymes in erythrocytes
D. 23% carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin to form
carbaminohemoglobin.

10. Study the following information.


In Malaysia, the Global Disease Survey study show Chronic
Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) as the the seventh cause of
early or premature death in Malaysia in 2010

Based on the above statement, which is not effects of COPD disease?


A. Asthma
B. Emphysema
C. Tuberculosis
D. Chronic bronkitis

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. The diagram below shows the respiratory structure of a human and a


fish.

a) Name structure P and Q


P :___________________________________
Q :___________________________________
(2 marks)

b) Give two examples of the adaptation of P for gaseous exchange.

__________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________

(2 marks)
c) The diagram below shows the breathing mechanism of a fish.

Explain the breathing mechanism of a fish.


__________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________
(3 markah/marks)

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

The diagram below shows the breathing mechanism of humans.

Explain the mechanism of inhalation and exhalation in humans.


(8 marks)

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________

______________________________________________________
CHAPTER 9: NUTRITION AND THE HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows the human digestive system.

DIAGRAM 1

Which of the following organs labelled A, B, C and D is the pancreas?

2. Diagram 2 shows the stages of digestion of starch, fats and proteins as


these pass through the successive parts (I-IV) of the human alimentary
canal.

Diagram 2

Which of the following are P, Q and R?

P Q R
A Starch Fats Proteins
B Starch Proteins Fats
C Fats Starch Proteins
D Proteins Starch Fats
3. Diagram 3 shows part of the digestive system.

Diagram 3
What is the function of the liquid produced by part 1 and released into part 2?

A To digest proteins to amino asids


B To increase the surface area of the fats droplets
C To acidify the contents of part 2
D To complete the digestion of starch to maltose

4. Diagram 4 shows a process in digestion of lipids by substance P.

Diagram 4

Which of the following is substance P and its role in digestion?

P Peranan
A Bile To provide an acidic medium
B Bile Reduces surface tension
C Hydrochloric acid To provide an acidic medium
D Hydrochloric acid Reduce surface tension

5. Diagram 5 shows longitudinal section of villus.

Diagram 5
Which substances is absorbed into structure P?
A Glycerol dan Vitamin D
B Glucose dan amino asid
C Fatty acid dan Vitamin C
D Amino acid dan fatty acid

6. Which of the following is the process that occurs only in a liver cell?
A Production of bile
B Synthesis of lipase
C Synthesis of insulin
D Synthesis of vitamin A, D, E and K

7. Diagram 15 shows the pathway of nutrients to body cell.

Diagram 6
Process P is
A Assimilation
B Deamination
C Detoxification
D Hydrolysis

8. Which of the following would happen to a person who has a large part of
his colon removed in an operation? The person will be unable to
A Eat fat-rich food
B Absorb digested food efficiently
C Eat solid food
D Form solid feces
9. The following results were obtained when an experiment was carried out to
determine the calorific value of a cashew nut. Calculate the energy value of
the cashew nut.

 Mass of the cashew nut = 9 g


 Mass of the water = 20 ml
 Density of water = 1 g ml-1
 Initial temperature of water = 29 C
 Final temperature of water = 38  C

A 4.2 J g -1
B 84.0 J g -1
C 93.3 J g -1
D 840.0 J g -1

10. The information below describes a person most likely suffering from

 There is deliberate dieting


 Self- induced vomiting leading to serious weight loss
 If untreated, the person may die because of malnutrition

A Gastritis
B Aneroxia nervosa
C Bulimia
D Obesity

STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows a human digestive system.

Diagram 1

a) (i) What is gland P?

………………………………………………………………………
(1 mark)
(ii) How gland P can digest bread in the mouth?

……………………………………………………………………

…….........................................................................................
(2 marks)
b) (i) What is organ Q?

………………………………………………………………………….
(1 mark)

(ii) Why bread is not digested in organ Q?

…………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………
(2 marks)

c) Explain the effect to the digestion of lipid if gallstones block the


bile duct .
…………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………
(2 marks)

d) State the difference in the digestion on protein that occurs in Q


and S.

…………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………
(1 marks)

ESSAY QUESTION

1. Diagram 2 shows three types of food.

Diagram 2

Describe the long term effects of eating these foods in excess on


the human health. (10 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 10 : TRANSPORT IN HUMAN AND ANIMALS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following organism has the largest total surface per area?
A. Human
B. Grasshopper
C. Turtle
D. Paramecium sp.

2. Why the large multicellular organism needs a circulatory system?


A. Complex multicellular organisms are unable to obtain all the essential
materials it is difficult to get rid of waste products through diffusion.
B. Diffusion occurs very slowly
C. Diffusion is too complex for multicellular organisms
D. Distance external environment to the cell very close.

3. Which pair of circulatory systems is true?


A. Single circulatory system – amphibious
B. Double circulatory system – fish
C. The double incomplete circulatory system – human
D. Open circulatory system- insects

4. Figure shows the main components of blood.

What can be found region X

A. Erythrocytes
B. Blood plasma.
C. Leukosit dan platlet
D. Lipids and water
5. Diagram shows a photomicrograph of leukocytes

State the function of the leukocytes?

A. Releases enzymes that fight inflammation and allergic reactions


B. Contains heparin which prevents blood clotting.
C. Produces antitoxins against toxins produced by bacteria or viruses
D. Swallowing bacterial cells or dead tissue by phagocytosis

6. The statements below show the characteristics of x blood vessels in


humans.

-Expands when receiving blood coming out of the heart


-have high pressure when blood passes through it

What is blood vessel x?


A. Pulmonary veins
B. Vena cava
C. pulmonary artery
D. Aorta

7. Figure shows some components of blood cells


w.

z
W Blood clotting
X Phagocytosis
Y Transport carbon dioxide
Z Produce antibody
Which of the following is the correct match between the components of a
blood cell and its
function?
A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Z
D. X and Y

8. Figure shows the cross sections of blood vessels for three types of blood
vessels.

State the blood vessels x, y and z?


Artery Capillary Vena
A X Y Z
B Z Y X
C X Z Y
D Y X Z

9. Cardiac muscle is myogenic what is meant by myogenic?


A. The heart contracts and relaxes by receiving impulses from nerves
B. The heart needs to contract and relax under the control of the brain
C. The heart needs to contract and relax without having to receive
impulses from nerves
D. The heart contracts and relaxes uncontrollably

10. In a vein there are many sickle valves. What is the function of a sickle
valve in a venous canal?
A. Helps provide strong pressure
B. Collect all the carbon dioxide gas
C. Generates an impulse signal
D. Allows oxygenated blood to flow in one direction and not reverse.
11. Clotted platelets, damaged cells and clotting factors in blood plasma form
the activating substances of thrombokinase

What is the material x that helps the process?


A. Vitamin k
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin k and calcium ions
D. Sodium ion

12. Under normal circumstances the blood does not clot in undamaged blood
vessels due to the action of some anticoagulant substances. Which of the
following matches is correct regarding health issues related to blood clotting?
A. Hemophilia - blood clots are transported in the bloodstream
B. Thrombosis- the formation of blood clots in the blood vessels
C. Embolism- a disease that prevents blood from clotting
D. Hemophilia - blood clots in the blood vessels

13. Which of the following is an antigen?


i. Toxins
ii. Bacteria
iii. Foreign blood cells
iv. Antibodies
A. i, ii, dan iii only
B. i, ii dan iv only
C. ii, iii dan iv only
D. i, ii, iii dan iv

14. The table shows the blood groups for four people and four types of blood
clots
Blood group Blood received
W A O
X B AB
Y AB O
Z O AB

Based on the table above which one will have agglutination problem?
A. W and X
B. W and Y
C. X and Z
D. Y and Z
15. Which of the following is not a cardiovascular disease?

A. angina
B. anemia
C. arteriosclerosis
D. hypertension

16. What is meant by tissue fluid?

A. blood plasma that fills the space between cells and constantly moistens
the cells
B. fluid that enters the lymph capillaries
C. glucose, vitamins, water and oxygen gas found in the bloodstream
D. the fluid between the cells then re -enters the bloodstream through
diffusion.

17. The difference between lymph and tissue fluid which is true
Lymph Tissue Fluid
A content of fat and fat-soluble and fat-soluble substance is low
substance is a high
B Low lymphocyte content High lymphocyte content
C Contains high plasma and Contains low plasma and
platelet protein platelet protein
D Contains low plasma and Contains high plasma and
platelet protein platelet protein

18. The following are the organs involved in the lymphatic system except
A. thymus gland
B. appendix
C. lymph nodes
D. hepatic portal vena

19. Figure shows a cross section of part of the lung.


What adaptations to the alveoli increase the rate of gas exchange?
I can expand and contract
II small surface area
III is located close to the blood capillaries
IV is covered by a thin layer of moisture
A. I dan II
B. I dan IV
C. II dan III
D. III dan IV

20. Figure shows the cross section of the human heart.

Which of the parts A, B, C and D pumps blood into the artery?

21. Figure 3 shows a longitudinal section of a vein

What is the role of X?


A. Reduce the size of the lumen in the vein
B. Prevents reverse blood flow
C. Increases blood pressure in the veins
D. Increases the speed of blood flow

22. Which of the following transports oxygen?


A. Hemolymph
B. Hemoglobin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Plasma
23. What is the function of the septum in the heart?
A. Ensure that blood flows smoothly from one space to another
B. To separate oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood
C. To ensure that the heart is divided into two parts
D. To strengthen the structure of the heart

24. Which organism has the largest ratio of total surface area per volume
of JLP/I?
A. B.

C. D.

25. Which cell produces antibody

A. B.

C. D.

26. The diagram shows a wound that causes a blood vessel to be cut. X cells
clump together and release chemicals.

What are x cells?


A. Fibrin
B. Platlet
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells

27. An individual accidentally injured his finger. The blood clots slowly. What
causes blood to clot slowly?
A. Lack of vitamin D in his diet
B. Lack of vitamin K in his diet
C. The blood of a child is infected with a pathogen
D. The blood of the wound flows with high pressure on the wound

28. The diagram shows the human heart

What will happen if the blood flow is blocked in X?


A. Stroke
B. Hypertension
C. Low blood pressure
D. Inflammation of the myocardium

STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)


1. Diagram 1 shows the circulatory system for x and Y

X Y
Diagram 1
(a) Name the types of circulatory systems X and Y

X :__________________________________________

Y :__________________________________________
[2 mark]
(b) Describe the circulatory system of Y.

_____________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
[2 mark]

(c) Explain the advantages of having a circulatory system X?

_____________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
_______________________________
[3 mark]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)


1. A blood test shows that the number of erythrocytes in a man's blood is
less than normal. Explain the possible effects on his health as a result of
this condition. What type of food does the man need to eat to recover
from this condition?
[8 mark]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 11: IMMUNITY IN HUMAN

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. What is immunity?
A. Body’s ability to become strong.
B. Body’s ability to fight disease.
C. Body’s ability to maintain healthy.

2. Antibody define as
A. Protein released by lymphocyte into the blood plasma.
B. Lipid released by lymphocyte into the blood plasma.
C. Acid released by lymphocyte into the blood plasma.

3. Pathogen is
A. An antigen that causes diseases.
B. A microorganism that causes diseases.
C. An antibody that prevents diseases.

4. Blood clotting mechanism is important to prevents bacteria from entering


through wounds. It is one of mechanism involved in _______________ line
defence.

A. First
B. Second
C. Third

5. Antigen are destroyed by antibodies through several mechanisms. How


does the antibodies react to antigens during neutralisation?

A. Antibodies coagulate the pathogen


B. Antibodies bind with toxin produced by bacteria.
C. Antibodies react with dissolved antigens to form an insoluble complex.
D. Antibodies combine with antigens and cause bacteria to be broken
down.

6.
Fever is one of the several mechanisms
in body line defence to fight diseases.

Which of the answer below support the above statement?

A. Fever increases phagocytic activity.


B. Fever increases the antibodies production.
C. Fever increases the sebum secretion.
7.
Antibodies are produced naturally by
lymphocytes.

The above statement is a similarity of 2 types of immunity, that are:


A. Natural Active Immunity and Natural Passive Immunity
B. Artificial Active Immunity and Artificial Passive Immunity.
C. Natural Active Immunity and Artificial active Immunity
D. Natural Passive Immunity and Artificial Passive Immunity.

8. Diagram 1 shows an individual who has chickenpox and influenza.

Diagram 1
He has recovered from the diseases. What type of immunity gained by
that person?
A. Natural Active Immunity
B. Artificial Active Immunity.
C. Natural Passive Immunity
D. Artificial Passive Immunity

9.

Sumber poster: Kementerian Kesihatan Malaysia

Based on the poster above, breastfeeding is emphasized by Health Ministry.


What type of immunity gained by the babies from breastfeeding?
A. Natural Active Immunity
B. Artificial Active Immunity.
C. Natural Passive Immunity
D. Artificial Passive Immunity
10. Why AIDS patients easily infected by other diseases?
A. AIDS patients experience progressive reduction of the body’s energies
and vitamins.
B. AIDS patients experience progressive destruction of the individual’s
immunity system.
C. AIDS patients experience progressive destruction of the individual’s
circulatory system.

STRUCTURE QUESTION (5 MARKS)

1. The graph below shows changes in antibody level in the blood of a person
who gained active artificial immunity.

a) What is the meaning of level of immunity shown in the graph?


……………………………………………………………………………………
(1 mark)
b) Why is the second injection needed in this immunity?
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(2 marks)
c) What will happen to the person if he or she does not get the second
injection?
……………………………………………………………………………………
(1 mark)
d) Give reason for your answer on di 1.c)
…………………………………………………………………………………

(1 mark)
ESSAY QUESTION (5 MARKS)
1. Inflammation is the immediate response that destroys and neutrelises
harmful actions of microorganisms and toxins at the early stages of infection.
Explain how do second line defence react if an individual stepped on rusty
nail.
(5 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 12 – COORDINATION AND RESPONSE

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1 Which of the following is an internal stimulus of an organism?


A Light intensity
B Blood sugar level
C Music from a radio
D Surrounding temperature

2 Diagram shows the transmission of nerve impulses across the synapse.

What is substance Z?

A Adrenaline
B Aldosterone
C Acetylcholine
D Antidiuretic hormone

3 Diagram shows the structure of a motor neurone.

Which part labelled A, B, C or D conducts nerve impulses away from the cell
body?
4 An accdident victim injured his head and had difficulties in breathing.

Which part A, B, C or D was injured?

5 Diagram shows a specialised cell.

What is the cell?

A Sensory neurone
B Motor neurone
C Interneurone
D White blood cell

6 Which hormone is secreted by adrenal gland?

A Insulin
B Glukagon
C Aldosterone
D Progesterone
7 Diagram shows an endocrine gland.

What will happen if X is malfunction?

A Metabolic rate decreases


B Fatty acid in blood decreases
C Water absorption by kidneys decreases
D Blood sugar level decreases

8 A rubber tapper encounters a large cobra in his plantation.


What is the response of his body to this fearful situation?

I Adrenaline secretion increases


II Thyroxine secretion decreases
III Rate of respiration increases
IV Rate of heartbeat decreases

A I and II
B I and III
C II and IV
D III and IV

9 Which of the following are the effects of under secretion of ADH hormone that caused
diabetes incipidus?

I Blood glucose level increase


II Excrete large amount of urine
III Excrete small amount of urine
IV Cause dehydration

A I and II
B I and III
C II and IV
D III and IV
10 Which of the following is the correct difference between the endocrine system and the
nervous system?

Endocrine system Nervous System


A The effect last longer The effect disappear very fast
B Localised effects More widespread effects
C Information carried in electrical form Information carried in chemical form
D Control by cerebrum Control by cerebellum

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram shows a reflex arc in human.

(a) (i) Name the nerve cells R and S.

R :_______________________________________________________________________

S :_______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(ii) State the difference in the structure and function between nerve cells R and S..

Structure : _____________________________________________________________________

Function : _____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(b) (i) Explain the meaning of reflex action.

_______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________
[1 marks]

(ii) A man involved in an accident, his ventral root at X was injured.


Explain how the injury affects his action when he accidentallypricked by a sharp pin.

_______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1 Depressant is given to a patient to relieve the anxieties in everyday life.


Explain the effect of the drugs on the transmission of impulse through
synapse.
[8 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 13: HOMEOSTASIS AND THE HUMAN URINARY SYSTEM

OBJECTIVE QUESTION [10 MARKS]

1. Which of the following statements are true about homeostasis?

I. Homeostatic mechanism increases the factors that exceed the normal


range
II. Regulation of physical and chemical factors of the internal environment
III. Homeostatic mechanism brings down the factors that decrease below the
normal range
IV. Homeostatic mechanism increases the factors that fall below the normal
range
A. Idan II
B. II dan III
C. III dan IV
D. I dan IV

2. Diagram 1 shows the response of skin in cold surrounding.

P
Diagram 1
What happens if structure P shaved?
A. Erector muscle cannot contract
B. More heat is lost to the environment
C. Sweat gland becomes more active
D. More blood is supplied to skin surface

3. A patient with kidney failure uses a hemodialysis machine to eliminate urea


from his blood. Which statement explain the situation?
A. Concentration of urea in the blood and in the dialysis fluid is the same
B. Concentration of urea in the dialysis fluid is higher than in the blood
C. Concentration of urea in the blood is higher than in the dialysis fluid
D. Concentration of water molecules in the blood is higher than in the dialysis
fluid

4. The normal blood glucose level is 90 mg/100 cm3. If the blood glucose level
is more than the normal value, hormone P is secreted. If theblood glucose
levelis less than normal value, hormone Q is secreted.
What are hormone P and Q?
P Q
A. Insulin Glucagon
B. Glucagon Adrenaline
C. Adrenaline Glucagon
D. Adrenaline Insulin
5. Diagram 2 shows a graph of the changes in the glucose level in an
individual’s blood over a period of two hours.

Diagram 2

What happened at X?
A. The individual started fasting
B. The individuals ate vegetables
C. The individual drank a glass of grape juice
D. The individual was given an insulin injection

6. Diagram 3 shows the cross section of the kidney

Diagram 3

What are P, Q and R?

P Q R
A. Medulla Ureter Pelvis
B. Cortex Pelvis Medulla
C. Medulla Cortex Pelvis
D. Pelvis Cortex Ureter
7. Diagram 4 shows the structure of human skin.

Diagram 4
What is X?
A. Heat receptor
B. Sweat gland
C. Hair follicle
D. Sebum glands

8. Diagram 5 shows a process which occurs in the glomerulus and produces


fluid X.

Diagram 5

Which substances are found in fluid X?


I. Glucose
II. Amino acid
III. Erythrocyte
IV. Protein plasma

A. I dan II
B. I dan III
C. II dan IV
D. I dan IV
9. The following is the information of the urine composition of four student
Which student is most likely to have been eating a lot of protein on a hot and
dry day?
Student Concentration of urea Water content
A High High
B High Low
C Low High
D Low Low

10. What may occur if the collecting duct is more permeable to water?
A. The concentration and amount of urine increases
B. The concentration and amount of urine decreases
C. The urine produced is low in volume and concentrated
D. The urine produced is high in volume and diluted

STRUCTURE QUESTION [9 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1 shows a cross section of organ X in the human body.

Hair follicle

Erector muscle

Sweat gland

Diagram 1

(a)(i) Name organ X.

________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) Table 1 shows the function of several organs in the human body.

Converting excess glucose to glycogen


As a protective layer

Eliminating urea

Transporting oxygen

Regulating body temperature

Table 1

Tick () the three correct function of organ X, in the above boxes
provided in Table 1.
[3 marks]

(iii) State two systems which contain organ X.

1. _________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________
[2 marks]

(b) Human body temperature is maintained at 37oC.


Explain the roles of the hair follicle, sweat gland and erector muscle
in maintaining the body temperature on a hot day.

Hair follicle:
____________________________________________________

Sweat gland:
____________________________________________________

Erector muscle:
____________________________________________________
[3 marks]

ESSAY QUESTION [6 MARKS]

1. An individual is found to have a high content of urea in his urine.


Explain why.
[6 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 14: SUPPORT AND MOVEMENTS IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS

OBJECTIVE QUESTION [10 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1 shows a human lumbar vertebra.

Diagram 1

What is the function of X and Y in Figure 1?

A Protection for spinal cord


B Surfaces for muscle attachment
C Surfaces for rib articulation
D Surfaces for vertebral joints

2. Diagram 2 shows human bones.

Diagram 2

Which bones are part of the axial skeleton?

A Q and R
B P and S
C P, Q and R
D Q, R and S
3. R, S, T and U in Diagram 3 are vertebrae found along the spine.

R S

U
T
Diagram 3

Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the vertebrae in


the spine?

A T, U, R, S
B R, S, T, U
C S, T, U, R
D U, R, T, S

4. Diagram 4 shows part of human forelimb.

Diagram 4

What are P, Q, R dan S in Figure 4?


P Q R S
A Scapula Tendon Radius Triseps
B Scapula Ligament Radius Biseps
C Humerus Tendon Ulna Biseps
D Ulna Ligament Humerus Biseps
5. Diagram 5 shows a human arm.

Diagram 5

If tendon X was torn off, what happens to the arm?


A The elbow joint loosens up
B The arm cannot be bent
C The fingers cannot grip

6. Diagram 6 shows a pair of breast muscles of two birds. The major


pectoralis muscle of bird P is normal while the major pectoralis muscle of
bird Q is abnormal.

Diagram 6

What is the effect of the abnormality on the bird Q?


A It can fly higher
B The upward movement of the wings is weaker
C The downward movement of the wings is weaker
D The upward and downward movements of the wings are rapid while
flying
7. Diagram 7 shows locomotion of an earthworm.

Diagram 7
Which of the following is correct about the action of muscle in segment T?

Circular muscle Longitudinal muscle


A Contract Relax
B Contract Contract
C Relax Relax
D Relax Contract

8. Atan is complaining of frequent back pains due to injury.


Which of the following would help reduce his problem?
I Do vigorous exercise
II Eat plenty of protein
III Practice a good posture
IV Avoid carrying heavy objects
A I and II B I and III
C II and IV D III and IV

9. Diagram 8 shows the changes of posture in a woman’s skeleton as she


grows older due to lack of certain hormones and nutrients.

Diagram 8

What are these hormone and nutrient?

A Oestrogen and ferum


B Oestrogen and calcium
C Progesterone and ferum
D Progesterone and calcium
10. Diagram 9 shows the movement of a frog

Diagram 9

Which of the following enables the above movement?


I Compact foot bone
II The hind leg folded into “Z” shape
III The muscle of front leg is small
IV The hind leg has well developed muscle

A I and II
B II and III
C II and IV
D III and IV

STRUCTURE QUESTION [9 MARKS]


1. Diagram 1.1 and Diagram 1.2 show different position of a forearm during
a movement.

Diagram 1.1 Diagram 1.2

(a) Complete Diagram 1.1 by drawing the triceps muscle which is


involved in the movement of the forearm.
[2 Marks]
(b) State one adaptive characteristic of tissue X shown in Diagram 1.1
which helps in the movement of the forearm.

________________________________________________________
[1 Mark]

(a) Explain the action of the muscles which cause the movement of the
forearm in Diagram1.2.
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________

[3 Marks]

(b) Diagram 1.3 shows a joint at the knee.

Diagram 1.3

Explain the health problem normally faced by an old person when


tissue P is impaired.

________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
[3 Marks]

ESSAY QUESTION [6 MARKS]


1. Diagram 1 shows the movement of an earthworm and a fish in different
habitats.

Diagram 1
Explain the mechanism of movement for both organisms.
[6 Marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

CHAPTER 15: SEXUAL REPRODUCTION, DEVELOPMENT AND


GROWTH IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS
OBJECTIVE QUESTION [10 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1 shows a female reproductive system.

Diagram 1
What is the part label X?
A. Uterus
B. Vagina
C. Ovary
D. Fallopian tube

2. Diagram 2 shows a summary of spermatogenesis.

P Spermatogoniu
m
Q

Diagram 2

Which groups of cells have a diploid number of chromosomes.


A. P and Q
B. P and R
C. Q and R
D. R and S
3. Diagram 3 shows changes in the hormone level during a menstrual cycle.

Hormone Y
level
Development
Diagram 3
What is hormone Y?
A. Progesterone
B. Oestrogen
C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
D. Luteinizing Hormone

4. Which of the following stimulates ovulation?


A. A high level of progesterone
B. A high level of FSH
C. A high level of oestrogen
D. A high level of LH

5. Diagram 4 shows a foetus in the mother’s uterus.

Diagram 4
The role of P is
A. To secretes oestrogen and progesterone after three months
B. To transport antibodies from mother to foetus
C. To secrete amniotic fluid
D. To transport carbon dioxide from foetus to mother
6. Diagram 5 shows the formation of twins.

Diagram 5

Which of the following could be the offspring?

A. One male, one female, same blood group


B. Both female, same blood group
C. Both male, different blood groups
D. Both female, same blood group

7. A woman released only one secondary oocyte from the ovary during a
menstrual cycle.
Which of the following twins are most likely to be produced if fertilization
occurs?

A. Siamese twins
B. Identical twins
C. Fraternal twins

8. The information below is problem faced by a couple.

The Fallopian tubes are blocked


Low sperm count

Which method is best applied if the couple want a child of their own?

A. Gene therapy
B. In vitro fertilisation
C. Replace Fallopian Tube
D. Take Viagra pi
9. Diagram 6 shows an insect undergoing a process.

Insect with new


exoskeleton

Diagram 6

Which of the following is the importance of the process to the insect?


A. For nutrition
B. For growth
C. For respiration
D. For reproduction

10. Diagram 7 shows the sigmoid curve of growth of a human.

C D

A B

Diagram 7

Which of the following stage A, B, C and D has the highest growing rate?
STRUCTURE QUESTION [9 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1 shows a human foetus in his mother’s uterus.

Foetus

Uterine wall

Diagram 1

(a) Name the structures labelled X and Y.

X: _______________________________________________

Y: _______________________________________________
[2 Marks]

(b) Explain the composition of the blood that flows through the blood
vessel in Y.

________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________

[2 Marks]
(c) The structure X is needed to maintain the thickness of the uterine
wall.
Explain this statement.

______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
[2 Marks]
(d) Explain why the foetus has a separate blood circulatory system
from his mother.

______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
_________________________________
[3 Marks]

ESSAY QUESTION [6 MARKS]

1. Diagram 1 shows two pairs of twins.

Twin S Twin T
Diagram 1

Explain the differences between the two pairs of twins based on the
following aspects:
- Types of twins
- The formation of twins.
Characteristics of twins. [6 Marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 1 : ORGANISATION IN PLANT AND GROWTH

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. How many parts does plant tissue consist of?

A. A.1
B. B.2
C. C.3

2. Tissue remains categorized into?

A. Epidermal tissue, basal tissue and vascular tissue


B. Xylem and phloem tissue
C. Meristem tissue and permanent tissue

3. Are xylem and foem tissues?

A. Permanent Tissue
B. Meristem Tissue
C. Vascular tissue

4. Which of the following statements is the function of epidermal tissue?

I. Provide support and shape to plants


II. Reduce water loss and evaporation (transpiration process)
III. Protect leaves from mechanical injury
IV. Prevent pathogen attack

A. I.II & III


B. II, III & IV
C. III & IV only

5. Which tissue is the simplest tissue?

A. Epidermal tissue
B. Parenchymal tissue
C. Vascular tissue

6. Among the following tissues, which is the basic tissue?


A. Epidermal tissue
B. Lateral meristem tissue
C. Parenchyma tissue

7. What is the function of collenchymal tissue?


A. Provide mechanical support and elastic properties to plants.
B. Provide support and shape to herbal plants
C. Forming an elongated and connected tube structure.

8. Among the following statements, which is the structure of sclerenchyma tissue?


A. Consists of a partner cell and a filter tube
B. Consists of an elongated xylem duct
C. Consists of cells that die when mature.
9. Xilem is formed from?
A. Partner cells and plywood tubes.
B. Dead cells that do not contain cytoplasm.
C. Living cells.

10. Figure 10.1 is a lateral Meristem Tissue. Label X and Y?

Figure 10.1

A. X = Cork Kabium, Y = Vascular Kabium


B. X = Kabium Vascular, Y = Kabium Gabus
C. X = Phloem, Y = Xylem

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. We often see the growth or development of plants from seedlings grow large to
become adult trees. The growth of an organism starting from the zygote stage until
adulthood is referred to as growth and development.
Describe the cell growth zone that occurs in primary growth.

a) What happens during the cell division zone?

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

b) How does the auditing process take place?

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
c) Describe the process that takes place during the differentiation zone.

Figure 1.1

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1.

Time

Figure 2.1

Figure 2.1 shows the growth curve of a rice plant.

Based on the growth curve, describe the life cycle of rice plant growth. [10 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

CHAPTER 2 LEAF STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. The figure below shows the cross section of the leaf. Which of the structures labelled
P, Q, R, S and T, have chloroplasts?

P
Q

R
phloem
T
Lower epidermis

S
Stoma

A P, Q, R C R, S
B Q, S D Q, R, S

2. How plants adapt to maximize the absorption of sunlight for the process of
photosynthesis?

I The leaves are flat


II Palisade mesophyll cells are arranged vertically and closely packed
III The leaves are arranged in a leaf mosaic
IV Spongy mesophyll cells are loosely arranged
A I, II, IV
B I, III, IV
C I, II, III
D II, III, IV

3. Which of the following is not a factor influencing the rate of transpiration?

A Light intensity
B Relative air humidity
C Air movement
D Concentration of carbon dioxide

4. What is the difference between palisade mesophyll cells and spongy mesophyll?

Palisade mesopyll cell Spongy mesophyll cell


A Cells are arranged vertically and Cells are irregular shaped and loosely
closely packed arranged
B Cells are irregular shaped and Cells are arranged vertically and
loosely arranged closely packed
C Cells are arranged vertically and Cells are irregular shaped and closely
loosely arranged packed
D Cells are irregular shaped and Cells are arranged vertically and
closely packed closely packed

5. The process of photosynthesis involves two stages. The stage of the light -dependent
reaction and the light -independent reaction. Which of the following involves a light -
independent reaction?

I Involves the reduction of carbon dioxide gas


II Using molecule ATP
III Produces molecule ATP
IV The reaction material is water

A I, II C I, III
B I, IV D II, IV

6. The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of carbon dioxide against light
intensity of plants.

Which of the following statements is true to describe what happens at point X?


A The rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.
B The rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration
C The rate of photosynthesis is lower than the rate of respiration
D The rate of glucose production exceeds the rate of glucose consumption

7. The diagram below shows an organelle find in a green plant cell.

In which structure, A, B, C and D, does the light -dependent reaction occur?

8. Photosynthesis and respiration are two interrelated processes.

Which of the following statements is true about these processes?

I Both occur in living organisms


II Both involve the process of gas intake and release
III The result of one process is used as raw material for another process
IV Both processes involve the process of catabolism

A I, II, III
B II, III, IV
C I, III, IV
D I, II, III, IV

9. The word equation below refers to the overall reaction of photosynthesis

water + X Y Z + oxygen + water

light energy
What is represented by X, Y and Z?

X Y Z
A Carbon dioxide Oxygen Energy
B Energy Carbon dioxide Energy
C Oxygen chloropyll Glucose
D Carbon dioxide chloropyll Glucose

10. The diagram below shows human activities that contribute to environmental pollution.

If this condition occurs continuously, what is the effect on the trees planted in this
area?

A Fertile because of high concentrations of carbon dioxide


B Infertile because the stoma pores are clogged by the presence of solid
particles
C Trees will wilt because of high light intensity
D Increases freshness due to high oxygen concentration

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1 The diagram below shows an organelle found in a plant cell. This organelle
carry out a process that is very important to plants.

X Y

(a) State where this organelle can be found in plants.

i) ____________________ ii) _____________________


[2 marks]
(b) (i) What is the process carried out by this organelle?

_____________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii). the process described in b (i) has two stages that occur at X and Y. Name
the stages.

X: ____________________________________________________________

Y: ____________________________________________________________

[2 marks]
( c) Give a comparison between stage X and stage Y

Similarity :
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

Difference:

[2 marks]

ESSAY QUESTIONS

1 A greenhouse is a building made of glass or plastic. The purpose of this building


was built to enable crops such as vegetables to be produced throughout the
year especially for the country have 4 seasons.

Vegetables in the greenhouse.

Greenhouses can control the factors that affect the process of photosynthesis.
Explain how greenhouses control these factors?

[8 marks]

2 To ensure maximum absorption of sunlight for the photosynthesis process, the


leaves of the plant (Fig. 1) need to be adapted.
Figure 1

Explain how leaves can maximize this process of photosynthesis.


[8 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 3 NUTRITION IN PLANTS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following symptoms of deficiency is due to the lack of nitrogen ions
in plants?
I. Stunted growth
II. The process of protein synthesis is affected
III. Formation of dull dark green leaves
IV. Red spots on leaf surface

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

2. If a plant is experiencing chlorosis, it might be deficient in which of the following


micronutrients?

A. Sulfur
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Boron

3. Aminah found that there were red spots on the leaves of her favorite tree. What
nutrient deficiencies does the tree suffer from?

A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon
C. Magnesium
D. Sulfur

4. Which of the following minerals is a macronutrient?

I. Sulfur
II. Potassium
III. Copper
IV. Zinc

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV

5. Which of the following is not a root function?


A. Strengthen the position of plants on the ground.
B. Carrying out photosynthesis
C. Vegetative propagation and competition with other crops
6.
 Has a thin cell wall to facilitate the movement of water
in the roots.
 Cells are arranged loosely to facilitate gas exchange.
 Most of this part is made up of parenchymal cells.

The above statement most accurately shows the characteristics?

A. Epidermis
B. Endodermis
C. Cortex
D. Vascular cylinder

7. Which of the following is a correct match?

Parasitic Plants Epiphytic Plants Carnivorous Plants


A. Pitcher Plant Rafflesia Langsuir Fern
B. Rafflesia Langsuir Fern Pitcher Plant
C. Langsuir Fern Pitcher Plant Rafflesia
D. Rafflesia Pitcher Plant Langsuir Fern

8. How do epiphytic plants obtain their nutrient requirements?

A. Absorbs organic matter, minerals and water from its host


B. Absorb nutrients that accumulate between the trunks of the host tree.
C. By trapping insects
D. Through absorption by roots growing in the soil.

9. Which of the following is a substance absorbed by a parasitic plant from its host?

I. Organic matter
II. Minerals
III. Mineral salt
IV. Air

A. I, II and III only


B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. All of the above

10. Carnivorous plants usually live in areas of land that lack what resources?

A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Nitrogen
STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. Complete the table below


Minerals Functions
Nitrogen

Is a major component of the central lamella, cell wall and


spindle fibers during cell division

Phosphorus

[3 marks]

2. Explain the effect on growth on the following plants

a) Plant A with nitrate ion deficiency


___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
b) Plant B with magnesium ion deficiency
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

[4 marks]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Explain how epiphytic plants and carnivorous plants get their nutritional needs
[8 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 4 TRANSPORT IN PLANTS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following are phloem tissues?


I Companion cells III Xylem vessel
II Sieve tubes IV Parenchyma cells

A. I, II and III C. I, II and IV


B. II, III and IV D. I,III and IV

2. Which of the following statements is true about xylem vessels?

A. The xylem tissues consist of living cells


B. The xylem vessels only transport water
C. The cell walls of xylem vessels are theckened with lignin
D. The xylem are only found in small and lower level plants

3. Diagram 1 shows a tracheid structure.

Diagram 1

What is the function of tracheid’s pit?

A. Provides mechanical support to plant


B. Allows gaseous exchange for respiration in its cell
C. Allows the water movement from side to side
D. Path of organic matter from phloem to xylem

4. What is guttation?

A. When a plant dies due to excessive water in its cells


B. When a plant wilts due to a lack of water in its tissues
C. When a tree carries out transpiration by discharging both water droplets and
vapours
D. When the secretion of water droplets through a special structure at the end of
the leaf veins without involving the stomata caused by a high root pressure
5. Diagram 2 shows the translocation path.

Diagram 2
During translocation through the phloem, what causes the decrease in the osmotic
pressure at the food storage organs?

A. Sucrose is converted into starch


B. Glucose is quickly utilised to release energy
C. Water passes out from the phloem sap to the xylem vessels
D. Large amount of water passes from the xylem into the phloem

6. In a ringing experiment, a complete bark ring was removed from the main stem of
the hibiscus plant. After two months the hibiscus’s leaves started to fall and finally
died. What the causes for this happen?

A. No sugar was transported to the roots


B. The hibiscus experienced aging
C. Leaves fell because of autumn
D. Water and sugar absorbed out from the ringed are

7. What suitable plant is used in phytoremediation to treat pollutants in water and


soil?

A. Algae
B. Microorganism
C. Filters
D. Green plants

8. Diagram 3 shows an aphid getting food from a plant leaf.

Diagram 3
What is the material in tissue P?

A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Surcose
D. Lignin
9. What happens if the companion cell is damage?

A. Photosynthetic product cannot be transported by phloem


B. The sieve tubes collapsed because there was no support
C. Photosynthesis not occurs
D. Function of phloem will be disrupted

10. Which force is involved in moving water upwards in the trunk of a plant tree?

A. Turgor pressure only


B. Transpirational pull and turgor pressure
C. Root pressure, capillary action and transpirational pull
D. Hydrostatic pressure, root pressure and capillary action

STRUCTURE QUESTION (7 MARKS)

Diagram 1.1 shows an experiment which is carried out by placing a celery stem dipped
in eosin solution. The aim of this experiment to study the tissues involved in the
transport of water and mineral salts. The apparatus is left for two hours.

Diagram 1.1

a) i) Predict the result obtained by drawing a cross-section of the vascular bundle in


the celery stem and shade the part which is stained red.

[2 marks]
ii) Based on your answer in 1(a)(i), identify the red tissues.
_______________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
iii) What the other tissues involved that mentioned in 1(a)(ii) that is in vascular
bundle?
______________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) How are the two tissues found in vascular bundle responsible for the transport of
substances in plants?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

c) Diagram 1.2 shows the xylem vessels.

Diagram 1.2
State two characteristics of the xylem vessels in relation to their function in
transportation.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
ESSAY QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. a) i) Explain briefly about phytoremediation and state its uses.


[3 Marks]

ii) Mr. Afif is a modern farmer who farms near to an industrial area. He has digs a
trench to provide irrigation water for his plants. He also plants common water hyacinths
in the trench. Why did Mr. Afif act like that? Explain your answer.
[4 marks]
CHAPTER 5 RESPONSE IN PLANTS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Based on the River Tamarind plant picture below, what is the type of response
shown by it leaves?

A. Thermonasty
B. Nyctinasty
C. Thigmonasty
D. Seismonasty

2. Diagram 1 shows a germinating seedling. Which type of response is shown by the


plumule?

A. Positive phototropism
B. Positive chemotropism
C. Positive geotropism
D. Positive thigmotropism

3. The picture below shows a type of response done by a Venus Flytrap-plant to trap
insects. What is the insects use for?

A. Insects is the main source of food


B. To survive from insects attack
C. Insects as a nitrogen source for plants growth
D. Venus Flytrap-plant unable to make its own food
4. Given are true about Tropism Response EXCEPT

I. Response direction is based on stimuli


II. Responses to survive from predator
III. The responses are influence by the plant hormone
IV. Fast and obvious responses

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I and IV

5. Nastic Movements are the plant responses towards environmental changes. Which
of the following is an example of Nastic Movement?

A. Plant producing flowers to attract insets.


B. Plant losing its leaves when the temperature drops
C. Plant closing its leaves when touched
D. Plant wilting due to temperature rises

6. Diagram 2 shows an experiment to show the effect of Auxin to the growth of Maize
coleoptile.

What is the response of the coleoptile at the end of the experiment?

A. Coleoptile does not grow


B. Coleoptile grows and bends to the right
C. Coleoptile grows and bends to the left
D. Coleoptile grows upwards

7. A farmer puts a few rotten ripe bananas close to the unripe bananas. What is his
purpose of doing so?

A. To discourage insects from attacking the unripe bananas


B. To prevent rats from eating the unripe bananas
C. To produce more ethylene gas for the unripe bananas
D. To make the unripe bananas become sweeter after ripening.

8. What is the name of a method that is use to produce seedless fruits?


A. Double fertilization
B. Culture tissue
C. Parthenocarpy
D. Cross pollination
9. Which of the following about hormones and its functions is WRONG?
A Gibereline To inhibit the roots development
B Cytokinine To inhibit the Apecs Dominant growth
C Abscisic Acid To inhibit plant growth
D Ethylene To inhibit the fruit ripeness

10. All below are Auxin hormone’s functions EXCEPT ;


A. To increase cells division
B. To cause Negative Geotropism response
C. To stimulate cells elongation
D. To cause Positive Phototropism response

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows how Watermelon are produced on a farm by spraying hormone


X on the flowers.

Diagram 1
(a) . What is hormone X?

[1 mark ]
(b) . Explain the function of hormone X in the production of ripe Watermelon.

[1mark]
(c) . How does the fruit produced by this method differs from the fruit that produced
naturally?

[1 mark]
(d) . Most of the Bananas fruit that are sold at supermarkets are often harvested while
still green and unripe. This fruit are then ripened before they are sold.

(i) Explain why the Bananas fruit are harvested while still unripe?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 mark]
(ii) Explain why the Bananas fruit are harvested while supermarkets?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 mark]
ESSAY QUESTIONS (8 MARKS)

Diagram 1

1. Diargam 1 shows the growing of a seed that naturally the shoot will grow upwards
to the sunlight, and the root will bend downwards following the gravity. This involving
two type of responses which is Phototropism and Geotropism.

(i) Differentiate between Phototropism and Geotropism


[4 marks]
(ii) Based on diagram 1, explain how the shoot of the plant bends and growupward
[4 marks]
CHAPTER 6 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

OBJECTIVE QUESITIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following component represents the the male parts of a


flower?

A. Anther, Filament
B. Anther, Filament and Stigma
C. Stigma, Style, Ovary and Ovule
D. Stigma, Style, Ovary, Ovule and Anther

2. Which of the following statement is true about flowering plant?

A. Production of flower is the example of vegetative reproduction in a plant.


B. Flower produces by angiosperm, gymnosperms and ferns.
C. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants produces identical seeds.
D. A Flower is the part of the shoot that has been modified as a sexual
reproduction organs.

3. Diagram 1 shows the longitudinal section of a flower.

Diagram 1

At which part the pollination and fertilisation take place?

Pollination Fertilisation
A P Q
B Q S
C P S
D S Q

4. Diagram 2 shows the pollen grain produces by plant X.

Diagram 2
Name the pollination agent or pollination mechanism for plant X?

A. Self pollination mechanism


B. Insects
C. Wind
D. Water

5. In angiosperm, every sprout pollen grains contains two male nucleus.


Declare the function of the two male nucleus?

A. One nuclei fuses with one ovum (egg cell), other fuses with two polar
nuclei.
B. One nuclei fuses with one ovum (egg cell), other fuses with antipodal cells.
C. One nuclei fuses with one ovum (egg cell), other fuses with synergid cells.
D. One nuclei fuses with antipodal cells, other fuses with synergid cells.

6. Diagram 3 shows the structure of an ovule.

Diagram 3

What will happen to P, Q, R and S inside the embryo sac after fertilisation?

P Q R S
A. Form one primary Degenerates Form one Degenerates
endosperm zygote
nucleus
B. Degenerates Form one Form one Degenerates
primary zygote
endosperm
nucleus
C. Degenerates Form one Form one Denegerates
zygote primary
endosperm
nucleus
D. Form one primary Degenerates Degenerates Form one
endosperm zygote
nucleus

7. Which of the following is the correct match?


Flower part After fertilisation
A. Ovule Become testa
B. Ovary Become fruit
C. Outer integument Become pericarp
D. Ovarian wall Become a zygote

8. Tegmen or thin layer inside a seed is form from

A. Inner integument
B. Outer integument
C. Endosperm
D. Zygote

9. Diagram 4 shows the embryo sac of an ovule. At which structure P, Q, R


and S, will fuse with the male gamete to formed diploid zygote?

Diagram 4

A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S

10 Diagram 5 shows cross section of a lime.


.

Diagram 5

Which of the following structure of a flower in lime will formed structure P?


A. Receptacle
B. Ovary
C. Ovule
D. Style
STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)
1. The diagram below shows fertilisation process in a flowering plant.

Diagram 1
(a) Name the process where pollen grains are transferred from anther to stigam.
_____________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(b) (i) Name the process which occurs when the male nuclei enter the embryo
sac.
_____________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) Based on Diagram 1B, name the parts of the flower which are involved in
the process named in 1(b) (i)

_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

(iii) Explain the process stated in 1 (b) (i).


_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
[3 markah]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

The diagram below shows two types of flowering plants, hibiscus and lalang.

Describe the specific characteristics of pollen of both types of flowers to increase the
chances of reproduction.
[8 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 7 ADAPTATIONS OF PLANTS IN DIFFERENT HABITATS

OBJECTIVES QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. ___________________ is the adjustment of an organism to the environment.

A. Habitat
B. Ecosystems
C. Adaptations
D. Biodiversity

2. The following is the classification of plants by habitat except:

A. Mesophytes
B. Hidrophytes
C. Saprophytes
D. Xerophytes

3. The diagrams below show some types of plants.

P Q R S

Which of the following can be classified as a mesophytic plant?

A. P and Q
B. Q and R
C. Q, R and S
D. All of the above

4. Which of the following shows the correct habitat adaptation characteristic of


halophytic plants?

HABITATS’ SALT CONCENTRATION HABITATS’ OXYGEN CONTENT


A. High High
B. Low High
C. High Low
D. Low Low
5. Which is a halophyte plant?

A B

C D

6. The diagram below shows the adaptation of plant roots to a habitat.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of root adaptation of the plant to


adapt to environment conditions?

A. Provides support to survive in soft and muddy soil.


B. Prevent plants from falling due to strong winds.
C. Plant root cell sap has lower salt content than seawater.
D. There are lenticels on the roots.
7. The diagram below shows a type of floating plant.

Which of the following is an adaptive characteristic of a floating plant to carry out


photosynthesis?

A. The leaves are small and thick.


B. The stoma is scattered mostly on the lower epidermis of the leaves.
C. The upper epidermis of the leaves is covered with waxy cuticles that are
waterproof.
D. Plant stems composed of sclerenchyma tissue.

8. Which of the following shows the difference in adaptive characteristics of floating


plants and submerged plants correctly?

FLOATING PLANT SUBMERGED PLANTS


A. The leaves are small and thick. The leaves are wide and thin.
B. The stoma is scattered mostly on The stoma is scattered mostly on the
the lower epidermis of the leaves. upper epidermis of the leaves.
C. Plant stems composed of Plant stems composed of
sclerenchyma tissue. aerenchymal tissue.
D. The upper epidermis of the leaves Has no waxy cuticles on the leaves
is covered with waxy cuticles that
are waterproof.

9. The following are the adaptive characteristics of xerophytic plant habitats


except:

a Hot habitat.
b Dry habitat.
c Maximum water presence.
d High temperature.

10. The following are the importance of thorns on xerophyte plants except:

A. Reduces the amount of surface are exposed to the sun.


B. Reduces water loss.
C. Increase the total number of stomas.
D. Helps collect dew for water supply purposes.
STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. State one type of plant example for:


(a) Mesophyte: ______________________________________
(b) Xerophyte: _______________________________________
[2 marks]

2. The diagram below shows one of the plants that lives in a swampy
habitat.

(a) State the plant class based on the habitat of the plants above.
______________________________________________________
__________

[1 mark]

(b) State two adaptive characteristics of this plant to increase the rate
of photosynthesis.
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
____________________________________
[2 marks]

(c) In the event of an oil spill occur near the habitat of this plant, predict
the effect that will occur on the plant above. Justify your answer.
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
____
[3 marks]

3. Define aerenchymal tissue.


________________________________________________________
____________
[1 mark]

ESSAY QUESTIONS (6 MARKS)

Diagram 1.1 Diagram 1.2

Diagram 1.1 and Diagram 1.2 show two types of plants that live in different habitats.
State three differences in the adaptive characteristics of the plants according to its
habitat.
[6 marks]
CHAPTER 8 BIODIVERSITY

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Diagram 1 shows a few organisms. Each organism can be classified into the
universal system of classification.

Mycena haematopus Paramecium caudatum Vibrio cholerae

Diagram 1

Which classification is correct?

Eubacteria Protista Fungi


A. Paramecium caudatum Mycena haematopus Vibrio cholerae
B. Vibrio cholerae Paramecium caudatum Mycena haematopus
C. Mycena haematopus Vibrio cholerae Paramecium caudatum
D. Vibrio cholerae Mycena haematopus Paramecium caudatum

2. Which of the following scientific names is written correctly

A. Oryza sativa
B. Rana Eryhraea
C. nelumbo nucifera
D. Helianthus annuus

3. Diagram 2 shows the hierarchy in the classification of organism.

Diagram 2

What are J and K?

J K
A. Family Phylum
B. Genus Species
C. Class Order
D. Phylum Family
4. Carica papaya is the scientific name of papaya.
Which of the following hierarchial levels are true for Carica and papaya?

Carica papaya
A. Class Order
B. Order Class
C. Genus Species
D. Species Genus

5. A student has found a card as shown in Diagram 3 . The card contains the
scientific terms used in the classification of the organism according to the Binomial
Linnaeus system, but does not follow the correct order.

Common name: Cockroach

Animalia
Arthropoda
Blattidae
Insecta
Periplaneta americana
Periplaneta

Diagram 3

Among the following science terms, which refer to Class?


A. Periplaneta
B. Animalia
C. Blattidae
D. Insecta

6. The smallest microorganism among the microorganisms below is


A. Fungi
B. Saprophyte
C. Virus
D. Bakteria

7. Diagram 4 below shows two type of foods.

Bread Soy sauce


Diagram 4

Which microorganism is used to produces the foods?


A. Protozoa
B. Fungi
C. Virus
D. Bakteria
8. Which of the following statements is not true about fungi?

A. Fungi contain chlorophyll


B. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin
C. Fungi are heterotrophs, either parasites or saprophytes
D. Fungi are found in dark or moist places and on decomposing or dead
organisms

9. Which of the following is true?

Disease Pathogen
I Dengue fever Anopheles sp
II Dengue feve Aedes sp
III Cholera Vibrio cholerae
IV Malaria Aedes sp
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

10. Diagram 5 shows a patient has symptoms such as skin and eyes sclera become
yellowish as well as swollen chest. What disease did he probably get?

Diagram 5
A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. Dysentery
D. Tinea versicolour

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1 Microorganisms are microscopic organisms that cannot be seen by the naked


. eye. Diagram 1.1 below are microorganisms.

Mucor sp Chlamydomonas sp. Fucus sp. Saccharomyces sp

Diagram 1.1

(a)(i) Classify microorganisms using the following characteristics :

 Can synthesize its own food


 Cannot synthesize its own food

Complete the table below.


Can synthesize its own food Cannot synthesize its own food

[2 marks]

(ii) How do the algae synthesize food?


_____________________________________________________________
[1 marks]

(b) What are the differences between algae and fungi?


_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

(c) Diagram 1.2 shows nitrogen cycle

Diagram 1.2

Explain what would happen to the ecosystem if all the decomposers such as
bacteria and fungi died.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. A dichotomous key is a tool used by taxonomists to identify organisms based on


similarities and differences.

Diagram 1

Based on organisms in Diagram 1, build a dichotomous key using a simple


identification key.
[8 marks]

CHAPTER 9 ECOSYSTEM

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. The terms below are used in ecosystem. Which definition is CORRECT?

A Population is defined by the natural surrounding or the living place of an organism.


B Community is defined by the populations of all organisms from different species
living in the same habitat whilst interacting with each other.
C Ecosystem is a group of organisms of the same species which live in the same
habitat.
D Habitat is the role of an organism in an ecosystem which includes its behaviour
and interactions with biotic and abiotic components in the surrounding of its
habitat.
2. Which of the statement below is categorized as biotic component?

I pH value
II Consumer
III Decomposer
IV Temperature

A I dan II C II dan III


B II dan IV D I dan IV

3. The diagram below shows a few examples of nutrition.


Nutrition
P Q

R S

Name P, Q, R dan S.

P Q R S
A Heterotroph Autotroph Phototoautotroph Parasite
B Autotroph Heterotroph Chemoautotroph Saprofite
C Autotroph Autotroph Fotoautotroph Holozoic
4. The diagram below shows an organism in an ecosystem.

What is the function of this organism in a food chain?

A Microorganisms decompose waste substances as dead organism


B A carnivore that feeds on primary consumers.
C Aa autotroph that synthesise organic substances.

5. The diagram below shows a food chain.

Wild cats
Rabbit
Lion

Plant Goat Fox

Eagle
Mouse Snake

Which of the organisms below can be categorized as the third trophic level?

A Plant, Goat, Fox


B Lion, Eagle, Fox
C Wild cats, Fox, Snake
D Mouse, Goat, Rabbit
6. The diagram below shows an ecology pyramid.

Energy is
transfered

Which of the statements is CORRECT regarding the ecology pyramid above?

I The energy source in an ecosystem is light energy from the sun which is absorbed
by green plants
II Only 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level.
III This pyramid can also explain the biomass pyramid.
IV 95% energy is dissipated into the environment.

A I dan II C II dan III


B II dan IV D I dan IV

7. The diagram below shows an example of organisms interacting.

II
I III

Apakah jenis interaksi antara komponen biosis organisma I, II dan III ?

I II III
A Commensalisme Mutualisme Saprofitisme
B Mutualisme Prey and predator Parasitisme
C Competition Commensalisme Simbiosis
8. The diagram below shows different zones in a mangrove ecosystem

Choose a CORRECT example and its root adaptation for Zon W.

Zone Root adaptation


A Rhizophora sp. Have tangled prop roots so it can trap twigs and mud
B Sonneratia sp. Has pneumatophore roots
C Brugeira sp. Has buttress roots
D Avicennia sp. Has prop roots and pneumatophore roots
9.
Kwang Soo has done an experiment on estimating the population size of Dura sp. at a beach.
He successfully captured 40 tortoises. He then marked the tortoises and released them back.
After 5 days, he successfully captured 52 tortoises, 28 of them are marked from the first
capture. What is the estimated population size of the tortoise at the beach?

A 67 C 74
B 89 D 75
10. A quadrat of 1m² is used to estimate the frequency of a plant.

Quadrat 1 2 3 4 5 6
Total number of plants 10 12 5 7 4 0

Calculate the frequency of the plant.

A 5 C 6
B 7 D 9
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)
1. The diagram below shows an aquatic ecosystem.

Heron
Water hyacinth

Plankton

Submerged
plant Hydrilla sp.

Carnivor fish
Herbivor fish
Earthworm

Soil bacteria

(a) What is the definition of ecology?


________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

(b) Based on the ecosystem above, give one example for each trophic level in the table below.

(i) First trophic level :


(ii) Second trophic level :
(iii) Third trophic level :
(iv) Decomposer :
[4 marks]
(c) The third trophic level is decreasing. Suggest one method to increase this throphic.
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

(d) What is the importance of protecting our ecosystem to humans and environment?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ESSAY QUESTION ( 8 MARKS)

The diagram below shows organism P and organism Q interacting.

(a) Name the type of interaction between organism P and organism Q. Explain the interaction as
stated.
[4 marks]
(b) Mangrove ecosystem plays an important role in a balance ecosystem. Explain briefly the
importance of mangrove ecosystem.
[4 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

]………………………………………………………………………………………….
.
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 10 ENVIRONMENTAL SUSTAINABILITY

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Which of the following human activities threatens ecosystem?

I. Forest conservation
II. Forest exploration
III. Rapid increase in human population
IV. Management of planned development

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV

2. Diagram 1 shows changes in the concentration of two substances, J and K, in


the water of a river polluted by sewage.

Diagram 1

Which of the following are substances J and K?

J K
A Carbon dioxide Nitrogen compounds

B Nitrogen compounds Oxygen

C Oxygen Nitrogen compounds

3. A group of students carried out an experiment to determine the biochemical


oxygen demand (BOD) value of different zones in a river. Diagram 2 shows
the graph of the concentration of dissolved oxygen in zones, A, B, C and D.

Diagram 2
Which zone, A, B, C or D, has the highest BOD value?

4. Diagram 3 shows the changes in the population of bacteria and algae in the
river that has been polluted by domestic waste.

Diagram 3

Which of the following is true about the changes in the population of bacteria
and algae?

A. Changes in the population of bacteria and algae are stimulated by


physical and chemical changes of waste products.
B. The high level of organic content increases the population of saprophytic
bacteria.
C. The population of algae is less at the initial stage because the waste
products block the penetration of sunlight into the river.
D. The population of algae decreases because disintegration of organic
matter decreases the amount of mineral ions for the algae.

5. What is the effect of an increase in biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)?

A. Alga bloom occurs


B. Bacteria decomposes
C. Aquatic organisms die
D. Rapid growth of microorganisms

6. Diagram 4 shows an environmental phenomenon.

Diagram 4
Which of the following is the phenomenon?

A. Effect of radiation
B. Air pollution
C. Greenhouse effect
D. Thinning of the ozone layer

7. Which of the following are true about BOD?

A. The higher the BOD value, the lower the degree of pollution.
B. The higher the BOD, the higher the dissolved oxygen in the water sample.
C. The higher the BOD level, the higher the level of pollution.
D. At high BOD levels, the fish population in the pond increases.

8. Which of the following practices does not contribute to environmental


sustainability?

A. Using Plastic bags while shopping


B. Conduct campaign to plant trees in school
C. Practice buying goods with sustainable product logos
D. Carrying out upcycling activity of waste materials at home

9. Why is recycling of substances encouraged?


I. Increases the environmental pollution
II. Increases the problem of waste disposal
III. Saves substances, energy and reduces cost
IV. A lot of waste can be reused

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV

10. Which of the following is correct for green technology?

I. The use of technology that makes products and process more


environmentally friendly.
II. The use of technology to develop methods of low power consumption.
III. The use of technology to increase the consumption of non-renewable
resources of energy
IV. The use of technology to use the green options on Earth

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV
STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. a) Diagram 1 shows an oil tanker that has collided with another ship. There was
an oil spill onto the ocean.

Diagram 1

I. State one main source of oil spill beside the accident shown in Diagram 2
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

II. State two harmful effects of oil spill.


___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

III. State two methods of cleaning the oil spill.


___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

b)Table 1 shows the effect of pollution on a few types of fauna in four types of different
water sources.

Type of fauna
Tubiflex Fish Insect larva Insect
worm species nymph
P Absent 5 6 8
Q Absent 2 2 4
R Present 0 1 1
Table 1

i)What is meant by BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand)?


___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

[1 mark]
ii)State the relationship between BOD with the number of species of fauna as in Table
1.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

iii)State one way that can be used to increase the number of species of fauna in the
water.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

ESSAY QUESTIONS (8 MARKS)

1.Diagram 2 shows the greenhouse effect.

Diagram 2

(i) Based on Diagram 2, explain what is meant by the greenhouse effect.


[2 marks]
(ii) Explain the effects of the greenhouse effect.
[6 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 11 INHERITANCE

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ( 10 MARKS)

1. Diagram 14.1 shows a pair of homologous chromosomes. The alphabets


represent the gene in the chromosomes.

P q R s T U
p Q R S t u

DIAGRAM 14.1

Q and q represent

A. linked genes
B. alleles
C. genotypes
D. phenotype

2. If T represents the allele for tallness and t the allele for dwarfness, then an
individual with Tt is

A. homozygous for tallness


B. heterozygous for tallness
C. homozygous for dwarfness
D. heterozygous for dwarfness

3. Two pure-bred plants with the genotypes BBRR and bbrr respectively are crossed.
F1 offspring were allowed to self-pollinate. How many types of phenotypes are
produced if B and R are dominant?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

4. Which of the following is not true about DNA fingerprinting?

A. It is a print pattern from the right thumb


B. It can be made from a blood sample, hair or semen sample
C. It is used in forensic work
D. It can be used to confirm animal pedigrees

5. The allele for black hair in human is dominant to the allele for brown hair. A man
with black hair is heterozygous while his wife has brown hair. The probably of
getting a child with brown hair is

A. 1
B. ¾
C. ½
D. ¼
6. A married couple has different blood group. Ahmad has a blood group A,
whereas his wife has a blood group B. Determine the possible blood group of
their children.

A. It could only be blood group AB


B. It could only be blood group A or B
C. It could only be blood group A, B or O
D. It could only be blood group O

7. Which of the following represented the alleles of the human blood group?

A. ABO
B. Xa Xb Xo
C. Aa B bOo
D. IA IB IO

8. Erythroblastosis fetalis is the problem of new born baby that related to

A. blood transfusion incompatibility


B. Rh factor
C. malnutrition
D. mother’s drug abuse.

9. Diagram 14.3 shows the human karyotype.

DIAGRAM 14.3
The abnormal number of the chromosome 21 is a result of non-disjunction during

A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. cytokinesis
D. plasmolysis

10. Heredity diseases are disease that can be transmitted from parent to their
offspring. Which of the following is not the heredity disease?

A. Haemophillia
B. Colour blindness
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Malaria
STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. Table 14.1 shows an incomplete Punnett’s of crossing made between a


heterozygous plant for tallness and the red flowers and a homozygous
recessive plant for the same traits.

Gametes TR Tr tr
tr ttRr

TABLE 14.1

I. Complete Table 1 to show the various offspring produced.


[3 marks]

II. Explain the results.


___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]

III. What is the percentage of the offspring produced for short pea plant with white
flowers?
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Dina has a problem to get a second child with the history of three times baby
stillborn. After consulted by a specialist, she found that she is facing with the
problem of Rh factor. As a specialist explain to Dina to understand her problem.

[8
marks]
CHAPTER 12 VARIATION

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. The list below is information related to one type of human variation.

 Insignificant feature differences


 Normal distribution
 Quantitative

Which is an example of a variation mentioned?

A. Weight
B. Eye color
C. Fingerprint pattern
D. Blood group

2. Figure shows 4 types of fingerprint phenotypes in humans

Which of the following is the same type of variation as shown?

A. Weight
B. Skin color
C. Eye color
D. Intelligence

3. The following is a table showing a pair of examples of traits and traits in humans
right except

Traits in humans
Features Dominant Recessive
A Height Tall Short
B The presence of dimples There are dimples No dimples
C Ability to roll the tongue Can roll the tongue Cannot roll tongue
D Ear lobe fixture The earlobes are The earlobes do not
attached stick
4. Mutagens are divided into three agents, namely physical agents, chemical
agents and biological agents

I. Chemical agents (ionizing rays)


II. Biological agents (Benzene)
III. Chemical agents (Formaldehyde)
IV. Biological agents (Bacteria)

Choose the correct statement

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. III and IV

5. The following figure shows a type of chromosomal mutation.

What are the types of chromosomal mutations?

A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

6. The following are the disease characteristics of a disease due to chromosomal


mutations.

• Patients cry like cats meowing during infancy


• Slow growth
• Suffering from mental and physical disabilities
• Most patients die in childhood

What are the diseases due to chromosomal mutations according to these


characteristics

A. Klinefelter Syndrome
B. Jacob Syndrome
C. Cat's Cri syndrome
D. Down Syndrome
7. The figure shows the results of an experiment that has been conducted to study
the variation of a feature in humans.

Which of the following is not a feature studied?

A. Foot size
B. Body height
C. Weight
D. Ability to roll the tongue

8. The diagram shows an individual suffering from a type of syndrome.

Which of the following is the number of individual chromosomes?

A. 47 + XX
B. 47 + XY
C. 45 + XX
D. 45 + XY

9. Which of the following chemicals is a mutagen?

I. Benzene
II. Nitrous oxide
III. Carbon monoxide
IV. Carcinogen

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV
10. The figure shows a bar graph showing the variation for a feature.

Which of the following is represented by the bar graph above?

A. Height
B. Rolling the tongue
C. Blood group
D. The color of the pupil

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS (7 MARKS)

1. a) The diagram shows one of the genetic factors in the cause of variation that
causes variation between organisms in the same species.

(i) Specify the type of genetic factor shown in Figure.


___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) Give another example of genetic factors that cause discontinuous variation.
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(iii) How do the types of genetic factors named in question 1 (a) (i) cause variation?
Explain.
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
[3 mark]
(b) The photo shows the variations on the shells.

(i) What kind of variation occurs in the shell?


__________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

(ii) State one difference between environmental factors and genetic factors in the
variation of a natural population.
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

ESSAY QUESTION (8 MARKS)

1. Alvin have two dogs from the same breed. Both dogs have the different pattern and
body size. What is the type of variation shown by the fur pattern of the dogs? Explain
the causes that contribute to the variation of the dog’s fur pattern?
[8 markah]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
CHAPTER 13 GENETIC TECHNOLOGY

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. The followings are the advantages of genetically modifies foods (GMF) except …

A. increase of high quality crop yield and transgenic livestock


B. decrease the insect problems in agricultural planting
C. the inserted gene can be transferred to humans
D. decrease the usage of pesticides

2. The characteristics of genetically modified foods are …

I. resistant to herbicide
II. resistant to disease
III. tolerance to light metals
IV. application in cosmetics

A. I dan II
B. II dan III
C. III dan IV
D. I dan IV

3. The correct sequence in producing insulin is …

I. recombinant plasmid is introduced in bacteria


II. insulin is extracted from the bacteria and purified
III. insulin gene and plasmid are cut with restriction enzyme
IV. bacterial clone multiplies and produces insulin in the cells
V. human insulin gene is inserted into a plasmid

A. III, V, I, IV, II
B. III, V, I, II, IV
C. V, II, IV, I, III
D. V, I,III, II, IV

4. The followings are various disciplines in biotechnology except …

A. Factory
B. Medicine and human health
C. Foods and diets
D. Microorganisms-based industry

5. What is the meaning of transgenic organisms?

A. Organisms which are modified to look more beautiful


B. Organisms which contain DNA from other plants or animals
C. Organisms which maintain desired characteristics in DNA sequence
D. Organisms which contain recombinant DNA
6. Which type of bacteria is inserted into corn genes to increase the resistance of
corns toward the pests?

A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Arabidobsis sp.
C. Mimosa pudica
D. Alcanivorax borkumensis

7. The followings are the contributions of biotechnology to the environment except …

A. Microbes can expedite decay of waste products created by humans


B. Microbes can degrade faeces completely
C. Reduce pollution
D. Expedite reproductions of plants

8. Why bacteria are commonly used in genetic engineering technique?

A. Bacteria can be found easily


B. Bacteria can be modified easily
C. Bacteria reproduced rapidly
D. Bacteria are difficult to destroy

9.

Diagram 1

Diagram 1 shows a scientist is conducting DNA profiling. The correct sequence of


DNA profiling is …
I. Radioactive probes are added to the nylon membrane
II. DNA is extracted from the skin sample or semen
III. Rsctricion enzyme is added to the sampel to cut the DNA into DNA
fragments
IV. X-ray film is processed to show the positions of the positions of DNA bands
that form the DNA profile
V. Different sizes of DNA are separated by fgel electrophoresis

A. III, V, I, II, IV
B. II, V, I, IV, III
C. V, II, IV, I, III
D. II, III, V, I, IV
10. Which organism has the similar function to pesticide?

A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Alcanivorax borkumensis
C. Rhizobium sp.
D. Arabidopsis sp

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS ( 7 MARKS)

1. What is the meaning of genetic engineering?


_______________________________________________________________
[1mark]

2. State two characteristics of genetically modified foods (GMF).


i. _______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________

[2marks]

3. How does genetic engineering technology help in increasing the production of


potato yield in cold areas?
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

[2marks]

ESSAY QUESTIONS (10 MARKS)

1. Insulin hormone plays important role in regulating glucose level in blood.

(a) Explain the methods in producing insulin using genetic engineering technique.

[6marks]

(b) (i) What is gene therapy?


[1marks]

(ii) State basic steps in gene therapy.


[3marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

You might also like