Physical World: Science 1 Principal Thrusts 5 Fundamental Forces in Nature 7

Physical World
1
Chapter
1 SCIENCE 5 PRINCIPAL THRUSTS 7 FUNDAMENTAL FORCES IN NATURE

Systematic attempt to understand natural phenomena Unification Strong nuclear force
in as much detail and depth as possible, and use the To explain diverse physical phenomenon in terms of few concepts and laws.
m Acts between nucleons
knowledge so gained to predict, modify and control Reduction
m Short range (Nuclear size » 10–15 m)
phenomena To derive the properties of a larger and a more complex problem or system
into simpler constituents m Relative strength = 1
m Mediating particles are mesons
2 SCIENTIFIC METHOD 6 PRINCIPAL DOMAINS Electromagnetic force
The scientific method involves several interconnected Macroscopic domain m Force due to virtue of charges
steps: Phenomenon at laboratory, terrestrial and celestial scale Mainly dealt by
m Both attractive and repulsive
m Systematic observations classical physics including mechanics, electrodynamics, optics and
thermodynamics m Range is infinite
m Controlled experiments, m Relative strength = 10–2
Microscopic domain
m Qualitative and quantitative reasoning Constitution and structure of matter at the minute scales of atoms and nuclei. m Mediating particles are photons
m Mathematical modelling, prediction and verification Mainly dealt by quantum physics Weak Nuclear Force
or falsification of theories m Between some elementary particles particularly
8 NATURE OF PHYSICAL LAWS electron and neutrino
m Conservation of energy : In an isolated system, total energy remains m Very short range (» 10–16 m)
3 HYPOTHESIS AND AXIOMS
conserved.
A hypothesis is a supposition without assuming that m Relative strength = 10–13
m m Conservation of linear momentum : In an isolated system, total linear
it is true. momentum remains conserved. m Mediating particles are bosons
m An axiom is a self-evident truth while a model is a m Conservation of angular momentum : In an isolated system, total Gravitational Force
angular momentum remains conserved. m Force of attraction by virtue of mass
theory proposed to explain observed phenomena.
m Symmetry of nature with respect to translation in time is equivalent to the m Always attractive in nature
law of conservation of energy
m Symmetry of the laws of nature with respect to translation in space gives m It is weakest fundamental force
4 PHYSICS
rise to conservation of linear momentum m Range is infinite
Study of the basic laws of nature and manifestation in m Isotropy of space (no intrinsically preferred direction in space) underlies m Relative strength = 10–36
different natural phenomenon the law of conservation of angular momentum m Mediating particle are graviton
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2 Physical World NCERT Maps
1. Natural sciences does not include 5. Among the following, choose the incorrect (1) A
statement [NCERT Pg. 3]
[NCERT Pg. 2] (2) B
(1) The microscopic domain of physics (3) C
(1) Physics
deals with the constitution and structure
(2) Chemistry (4) D
of matter at the minute scales of atoms
(3) Biology and nuclei 8. Among the following scientists, the one who
is credited for the contribution to theory of
(4) Social Science (2) Classical Physics deals mainly
condensed matter is [NCERT Pg. 6]
with macroscopic phenomena and
2. Principal thrusts in Physics are (1) Ernest Orlando Lawrence
includes subjects like Mechanics,
[NCERT Pg. 2] Electrodynamics, Optics and (2) C.V. Raman
(1) Unification Thermodynamics (3) Ernest Rutherford

(3) Both of the above (4) Lev Davidovich Landau
(2) Reduction
(4) None of the above 9. Full form of LASER is [NCERT Pg. 7]
(3) Both (1) and (2)
6. Phenomenon of neutron induced fission of (1) Light amplification by shorted extraction
(4) None of the above of rays
uranimum, which serves as a basis of
3. Attempt to explain diverse physical nuclear power reactors and nuclear (2) Light amplification by stimulated
phenomenon in terms of a few concepts and weapons, was discovered by [NCERT Pg. 5] emission of radiation
laws is called [NCERT Pg. 2] (3) Long absorption of silent extraction of
(1) Hahn and Meitner (2) Einstein
(1) Unification radiation
(3) Neils Bohr (4) Nicholas Tesla
(4) None of the above
(2) Reduction
7. Among the following, the scientists are
10. Choose the incorrect statement among the
(3) Fusion matched with their major contribution or
following in relation to the electromagnetic
(4) All of the above discovery. Which among the following is waves. [NCERT Pg. 8]
incorrectly matched? [NCERT Pg. 5]
4. Classical Physics mainly deals with (1) Electromagnetic force do not require
A Archimedes Principle of intervening medium
[NCERT Pg. 3] Buoyancy
(2) They act over large distances
(1) Microscopic phenomenon B Christiaan Wave Theory of
Huygens Light (3) Electromagnetic force is weaker than the
(2) Macroscopic phenomenon gravitational forces
C J.C.Bose X-rays
(3) Atomic phenomenon D Albert Theory of Relativity (4) Electromagnetc forces may be
(4) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle Einstein attractive or repulsive
NCERT Maps Physical World 3
1. Newton, under a common law of gravitation, 4. J.J. Thomson is credited for his discovery of 8. The laws of nature are _______ everywhere
unified _______ and celestial domains. ________ [NCERT Pg. 5]
in the universe. [NCERT Pg. 12]
[NCERT Pg. 10] 5. Hideki Yukawa is known for his contribution
towards ________ forces [NCERT Pg. 6]
2. Symmetry of nature with respect to 9. There are ________ fundamental forces in
translation in time is equivalent to law of 6. _______ was discovered by E.O. Lawrence
nature. [NCERT Pg. 10]
conservation of ________. [NCERT Pg. 12] [NCERT Pg. 6]
3. Symmetry of nature with respect to 7. Isotropy of space (no intrinsically preferred 10. Fundamental forces which has shortest
translation in space is equivalent to law of direction in space) underlies the law of
conservation of ________ [NCERT Pg. 12] conservation of ________ [NCERT Pg. 12] range is ________ force. [NCERT Pg. 9]
  
2
Units and Measurements Chapter
1 UNITS 3 MEASUREMENT 4 MEASUREMENT OF MASS 5 MEASUREMENT OF TIME

OF LENGTH SI unit is kilogram (kg)
Measurement of any physical quantity involves m m Atomic standard of time: This is based on
m Large distance is measured Unified atomic mass unit (u). It is used to
comparison with certain basic arbitrarily chosen m caesium clock, uncertainty gained overtime by
by parallax method. measure mass of atoms and molecules 13
internationally accepted reference called units. Basis caesium atomic clock is less than 1 part in 10
m Parallax angle = m 1 u = 1/12 × mass of one C-12 atom.
Classification Distance –27 (loss of 3 ms in one year)
–2 m 1 u = 1.66 × 10 kg –24
m 1° = 1.745 × 10 rad –30 m Time span of most unstable particle 10 s
–6 m Electron mass 10 kg 8
Fundamental units Derived units m 1¢¢ = 4.85 × 10 rad 25 m Travel time for light from nearest star 10 s
m Measurement of very small m Earth mass 10 kg
17
Independent of Expressed as combination of Observable universe
55
10 kg m Age of universe 10 s
distance like size of molecule m
each other fundamental units uses, Optical microscope,
m A complete set of these units, both the base units Electronic microscope and 6 ACCURACY and PRECISION
Tunneling microscope m Every measurement by any measuring instrument contains some uncertainty called error.
and derived units is known as system of units. 11
m 1 AU = 1.496 × 10 m m Accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close is the measured value to true value.
m Old system of units: CGS, FPS and MKS system. 15
m In CGS fundamental units are centimeter, gram and m 1 ly = 9.46 × 10 m m Precision tells us to what resolution the quantity is measured.
16
second. m 1 parsec = 3.08 × 10 m m It is not necessary that more precise value is more accurate too.
–15
m In FPS fundamental units are foot, pound and m Size of proton 10 m
7
second. m Radius of Earth 10 m 7 ERRORS IN MEASUREMENT
26
m In MKS fundamental units are meter, kilogram and m Distance to boundary 10 m Errors
second. of observable universe
Systematic Random
2 SI SYSTEM OF UNITS (INTERNATIONAL SYSTEM OF UNITS)
m Presently accepted internationally for measurement is SI system of units, revised
Instrumental Experimental Personal
in 2018. Certain rules to follow with standard symbols
m It is decimal system thus, conversion within system is easy and convenient m Every measurement is approximate due to errors.
m It has 7 base unit and 2 supplementary units m Random errors occurs irregularly.
m Least count error is smallest value that can be measured by instrument (occurs within both
Base Units Supplementary Units systematic and random errors).
S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S(|ai – amean|)
m Absolute error =
1. Plane angle radian rad n
1. Length meter m Damean
2. Solid angle steradian sr m Relative error =
2. Mass kilogram kg amean
3. Time second s Damean
m Percentage error = a × 100
4. Electric current ampere A r mean
ds Combination of errors
5. Thermodynamic kelvin K
temperature dq
O
dq = ds/r radian
6. Amount of mole mol r Sum and difference Product or Quotient
substance dW dA DZ = DA + DB DZ DA DB
O = +
7. Luminous candela cd Z A B
a b
intensity AB Dx DA DB DC
2 m If X = c then % =a% +b% +c%
dW = dA/r steradian C x A B C
NCERT Maps Units and Measurements 5
8 SIGNIFICANT FIGURES 10 DIMENSIONAL FORMULAE AND SI UNITS OF VARIOUS PHYSICAL QUANTITIES

m Reliable digits plus first uncertain digit are known as
S. Physical Quantity Relation with other quantities Dimensional Formula SI Unit
significant digit.
No.
m A choice of change of different units does not change
2 –2 2
number of significant digits. Force × (distance) [MLT ] [L ] 2 –2
1. Gravitational constant ‘G’ = [M–1L3T–2] N m kg
m All non-zero digits are significant. Mass × mass M×M
m All zero between two non-zero digits are significant. –2
Force MLT –2
m The terminal zeros in a number without a decimal point are 2. Stress 2 = [ML T ]
–1 –2
Nm
Area L
not significant.
–1 –2
m The trailing zeros in a number with decimal point are Stress ML T –2
significant. 3. Coefficient of elasticity = [ML–1T–2] Nm
Strain 1
Rules of Arithmatic Operations with Significant Figures –2
m Addition/Substraction: Final result contains as many Force MLT –2 0 –2 –1
4. Surface tension = MT = [ML T ] Nm
decimal places as in number with least decimal places. Length L
–2
e.g. 3.307 + 0.52 = 3.83 Force × distance MLT × L
–2
N m or
–1 1
m Multiplication/Division: Result contains as many 5. Coefficient of viscosity 2 –1
= [ML T– ] Pa s or
Area × velocity L × LT
significant figures as in number with least number of decapoise
significant figures. 2 –2
E Energy ML T 2 –1
e.g. 4.11/1.2 = 3.4 6. Planck's constant 'h' = –1
= [ML T ] Js
n Frequency T
Rounding off
–1
m Preceding digit is raised by 1 if insignificant digit to be Velocity LT –1 0 0 1 –1
dropped is more than 5 and left unchanged of latter is less 7. Velocity gradient = T = [M L T– ] s
Distance L
than 5. –1 –2
Pressure ML T
m If insignificant digit is 5 then preceding digit is left 8. Pressure gradient = [ML T– ]
–2 2
Pa m
–1
unchanged if its even and uncreased by 1 if it is odd. Distance L
9 DIMENSIONAL ANALYSIS
Dimensions Dimensional Homogeneity Applications Limitations of Dimensional

m Nature of physical equation principle Analysis
m The expression which Physical quantities m Dimensional analysis is useful in
quantity is determined
shows how and which of represented by Checking dimensional Deducing relations among deducing relations among inter
by its dimension.
the base quantities symbols on both consistency of equations physical quantities. dependent physical quantities but
m The dimensions of
represent the dimension sides of a m It is based on homogeneity m We should know the dimensional constant can not be
physical quantity are of physical quantity is mathematical law. An equation is dependence of physical determined.
powers to which base called dimensional m It can test dimensional validity but not
equation must dimensionally correct if quantity on other upto
quantities are raised to formula. exact relationship between physical
have same dimension of fundamental three physical quantities
represent it. m An equation is obtained quantities having same dimensions.
by equating physical dimensions. quantities of each term on and product type of
m The dimension of time m It does not distinguish between the
in speed is –1. quantity with its left side of equation is equal dependence physical quantities having same
dimensional formula. to that on right hand side. dimensions.
0 2 0
m For example [A] = [M L T ]
6 Units and Measurements NCERT Maps
1. Choose the correct option. [NCERT Pg. 22] 1 7. Two resistors of resistances R1 = 300 ± 3
(3) of the thermodynamic
273.16 ohm and R2 = 200 ± 2 ohm are connected in
(1) A most precise measurement may be
temperature of triple point of water parallel. The equivalent resistance of parallel
most accurate combination with error is [NCERT Pg. 37]
1
(2) A most precise measurement will (4) of the thermodynamic temperature (1) [120 ± 1.8] ohm (2) [120 ± 1] ohm
273
necessarily be most accurate (3) [120 ± 1.6] ohm (4) [120 ± 2.0] ohm
of triple point of mercury
(3) A most precise measurement will be less 8. If percentage error in measurement of
accurate 4. 1′′ (second of arc) in radian is
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and
(approximately) [NCERT Pg. 19]
4% respectively, then percentage error in
(4) A most accurate measurement will
(1) 5.85 × 10–6 rad (2) 8.55 × 10–6 rad A2B1/2
necessarily be most precise
measurement of z = is
2. 1 metre is the length of path travelled by light
(3) 5.85 × 10–5 rad (4) 4.85 × 10–6 rad C1/3 D1/4
in vacuum during a time interval of 5. The diameter of sun is 1.39 × 109 m. The [NCERT Pg. 27]
[NCERT Pg. 17] distance of sun from earth is 1.496 × 1011 m. (1) 5%
The angular diameter of sun is
1 (2) 4%
(1) of a second [NCERT Pg. 19]
299, 972, 458 (3) 6%
1 (1) 1290′′
(2) of a second (4) 8%
299, 792, 548 (2) 9210′′ 9. The number of insignificant zeros in
1 0.0048050 [NCERT Pg. 28]
(3) of a second (3) 2190′
299, 792, 458
(1) 1
1 (4) 1920′′
(4) of a second (2) 2
299, 792, 854 6. The measured length of two rods are l1 = 30
cm ± 0.5 cm and l2 = 20 cm + 0.1 cm. The (3) 3
3. The kelvin is the fraction [NCERT Pg. 17]
percentage error in difference of length of (4) 4
1 rods is [NCERT Pg. 26]
(1) of the thermodynamic temperature 10. The value of (3.8 × 103 + 3.5 × 102) with
273
(1) 6% regards to significant figure is
of triple point of water
(2) 4% [NCERT Pg. 30]
1
(2) of the thermodynamic temperature (3) 5% (1) 7.3 × 105 (2) 4.2 × 103
312
of triple point of water (4) 3% (3) 4.15 × 103 (4) 7.3 × 103
NCERT Maps Units and Measurements 7
11. The value of gravitational constant is 1.93 s, 1.99 s, 2.06 s, 2.08 s and 1.95 s. A (1) [M], [LT–1]
N × m2 more accurate way to write the
G = 6.67 × 10–11 . Suppose we (2) [M], [L2T–2]
2 measurement with error is [NCERT Pg. 25]
kg
(3) [M½], [L2T–2]
employ a new system of units in which unit (1) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (2) (2.03 ± 0.06) s
(4) [M½], [LT–1]
of mass is α kg, the unit of length β m and (3) (2.0 ± 0.06) s (4) (2.03 ± 0.1) s
the unit of time is γ s. The value of 18. Parsec is a unit of
15. Each side of a cube is measured to be
gravitational constant in terms of new units [NCERT Pg. 21]
6.372 m. The total surface area of cube with
is [NCERT Pg. 35]
appropriate significant figures is (1) Distance
(1) 6.67 × 10–11 α β–3 γ2
[NCERT Pg. 32] (2) Velocity
(2) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β3 γ–2
(1) 2.5 × 102 m2 (2) 2 × 102 m2 (3) Time
(3) 6.67 × 10–11 α β3 γ–2
(3) 243.6 m2 (4) 251.3207 m2 (4) Angle
(4) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β–3 γ2
16. Choose the correct statement 19. If the size of atom is in the range of 10–10 m
12. In Cesium clock 1 second is the time in
[NCERT Pg. 33] to 10–9 m is scaled up to the tip of sharp pin
which cesium – 133 atom, vibrate between
(assume tip of pin to be in the range of
two hyperfine levels [NCERT Pg. 22] (1) A dimensionally correct equation need
10–6 to 10–5 m). Roughly, size of nucleus is
(1) 9, 292, 631, 770 times not be an actually correct equation
[NCERT Pg. 20]
(2) 9, 192, 361, 770 times (2) A dimensionally correct equation may be
an actually correct equation (1) 0.1 Å
(3) 9, 192, 136, 770 times
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may (2) 0.01 Å
(4) 9, 192, 631, 770 times
be correct (3) 0.001 Å
13. Least count error belongs to the category of
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 10 Å
[NCERT Pg. 24]
17. A famous relation in physics with many 20. In a screw gauge, each main scale division
(1) Random error only
printing errors, relates the moving mass 'm' is 1 mm and there are 200 divisions on the
(2) Systematic error only with rest mass for a moving object with circular scale. The least count of screw
(3) Neither systematic error nor-random n02 gauge is [NCERT Pg. 35]
speed v is printed as m = . The
error b
1− (1) 0.05 mm
(4) Systematic and random error both c2
(2) 0.005 mm
dimensional formula of n0 and b are
14. A student measures the period of oscillation
respectively (c is speed of light) (3) 0.05 cm
of a simple pendulum in successive
measurements, the reading turn out to be [NCERT Pg. 36] (4) 0.005 cm
8 Units and Measurements NCERT Maps
1. The value of 1° is ________ rad. 9. Least count is the ________ value that can 15. The dimensions of a physical quantity are
[NCERT Pg. 19] be measured by the measuring instrument. the ________ to which the base quantities
2. The value of 2′ is ________ rad. [NCERT Pg. 24] are raised to represent that quantity.
10. When two quantities are subtracted, the [NCERT Pg. 31]
[NCERT Pg. 19]
absolute error in the final result is the sum of 16. The trailing zero(s) in a number with a
3. Speed is a ________ quantity.
________ in the individual quantities. decimal point are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 17]
[NCERT Pg. 26] [NCERT Pg. 28]
4. 1 second is the duration of 9192631770
11. When the two quantities are multiplied or 17. In ________, the final result should be
periods of radiation corresponding to the
divided, the relative error in the result is the reported in least number of significant figure
transition between two hyperfine level of
sum of the ________ in the multipliers. as there in the original number.
ground state of the ________ atom.
[NCERT Pg. 26]
5. The indirect method used to measure large 12. The result of a measurement should be
reported in a way that indicates the 18. The number of significant figures in
distances is ________ method.
________ of measurement. 1.67 × 10–27 kg are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 18]
6. 1 parsec is the distance at which the
average radius of ________ subtends an 13. A choice of change of different units does
m2 cm2
angle of ________. [NCERT Pg. 21] not change the ________ of significant 19. h ≈ 6.6 × 10−34 kg =________ g .
s s
7. 1 Fermi equals to ____ m. [NCERT Pg. 21] digits in a measurement. [NCERT Pg. 28]
[NCERT Pg. 35]
8. The efficient caesium atomic clock are so 14. In ________, the final result should be
reported in least number of decimal places 20. The value of (4.2 × 10–3 – 5.4 × 10–4) =
accurate that uncertainty in time realisation
in used quantities. [NCERT Pg. 29] ________. [NCERT Pg. 29]
as ________. [NCERT Pg. 22]
  
Motion in a Straight Line
3
Chapter
1 FRAME OF REFERENCE 4 VELOCITY

m A rectangular coordinate system consisting of three m The rate of change of position, It tells how fast position is changing with time and in what direction.
mutually perpendicular axes, along with a clock. The
point of intersection of these three axes is called origin Average velocity
r
(O) r Dx
v av =
m If a body changes its position as time passes w.r.t. frame Dt x x
of reference, it is said to be in motion. m SI units are m s
–1
m Motion of objects along a straight line is called rectilinear

motion. Y Instantaneous velocity
11
12
1 r r 0 0
10
9
2
3 r Dx dx t t
8
7 5
4
v = lim =
6
Dt ®0 Dt dt Fig: Moving with positive velocity Fig: Moving with negative velocity
X m Slope of position time graph

O
Z
5 ACCELERATION
2 DISTANCE AND DISPLACEMENT The time rate of change of velocity
m Distance: Actual path length in motion. During motion it Average Acceleration x x x
is non-zero r
r (v - v ) Dv Positive a Negative a a=0
m Displacement: The shortest path between initial and aav = 2 1 =
final position. Equal to change in position. May or may (t2 - t1) Dt
not be equal to path length travelled. It can be positive, Instantaneous Acceleration
r r
negative or zero. r Dv dv
x(m)
a = lim =
x(m) Dt ®0 Dt dt
Uniform Acceleration
40 Equal change in velocity in equal
intervals of time t t t
20
Non-Uniform Acceleration Fig: Positive acceleration Fig: Negative acceleration Fig: Zero acceleration
t(s) t(s)
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 0 Acceleration changes with time
Fig: Stationary object Fig: Object in uniform motion
3 SPEED
m The rate of distance covered with time is called speed,
v v0 t
distance l 0
v= = –v0
total time t
Average Speed
v0 v
total distance total path length
v av = = –v
total time total time interval
Instantaneous speed 0 t 0 t
Dl d l Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in negative direction
v = lim = with positive acceleration with negative acceleration with negative acceleration
Dt ® 0 Dt dt
10 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT Maps
6 Kinematic Equations 8 FOR MOTION UNDER GRAVITY

m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a body in one-dimension under free fall
body in one-dimension. Vertically downward motion
For uniformly accelerated motion When object is released from y = 0
0 2 2 t(s)
m v = – gt
v B
1
m y = - gt 2
(v – u) 2 –5
A C 2
u m v = – 2gy
–10 2
Vertically upward motion –9.8 m/s
u ¹ 0, acceleration a = – g
D
O m v = u – gt 2
m v = u + at t a (m/s )
1
1 2 æu +v ö m S = ut - gt 2 Fig: Variation of acceleration with time
s = ut + at = ç 2
m
2 ÷t
è 2 ø m v2 = u2 – 2gh
2 2
m v = u + 2as m Distance travelled during equal intervals of time by a body falling freely from rest is in ratio 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : 11 .. (Galileo's law)
a t (s)
m sn = u + (2n - 1)
2 0 t(s)
u +v 1 2 3 4 5 0
m v =
2 –10 –10 1 2 3 4
–20
7 FOR MOTION WITH VARIABLE ACCELERATION –20 –30
dv –40
m = a Þ v - u = ò adt –30 –50
dt
–60
dx
m = v Þ Dx = ò vdt (Area under v – t curve) –40 –70
dt
v (m/s) y (m) –80
vdv
m =a –50 –90
dx
Fig: Variation of velocity with time Fig: Variation of distance with time
d 2x
m =a
dt 2 140 140
A A
x (m) 120 120
9 Relative Velocity A x(m) 100 B x(m) 100
40 B 80 80
m The velocity with which an object moves with respect 60 60
to another object is called relative velocity. 40 40 40
20 20
vAB = (vA – vB) 0 0
2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3
4 5 6 –20 1 2 3 4 5 6
t (m) t(s) t(s) B
vAB = (vA + (–vB)) –40
Fig: Position-time graphs of two Fig: Position-time graphs of two
objects with equal velocities objects with unequal velocities, Fig: Position-time graphs of two objects with velocities in
vBA = (vB – vA) showing the time of meeting opposite directions, showing the time of meeting
NCERT Maps Motion in a Straight Line 11
1. Choose the correct statement 4. The reaction time is the time interval in which 7. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a
[NCERT Pg. 42] a person [NCERT Pg. 51] velocity of 20 m/s from the top of 160 m high
(1) Observe the things building. The time taken by ball to hit the
(1) Area under velocity-time graph gives the ground is [NCERT Pg. 48]
distance traveled (2) Think about the observations
(1) 8 s (2) 10 s
(2) Area under velocity-time graph gives the (3) Observe the things and act
change in position (3) 4 s (4) 6 s
(4) Observe the things, think and act
(3) Area under velocity-time graph gives 8. In which of the following cases an object can
5. A person driving a car with a speed of be considered as point object?
average acceleration 72 km/h observes a boy crossing the road at
(4) Area under velocity time graph gives a distance of 100 m from the car. Driver [NCERT Pg. 55]
change in acceleration applies the brakes and retards the car with a (1) Length of train in comparison to platform
2. Choose the correct statement for one retardation of 5 m/s2 and is just able to avoid (2) Length of engine in comparison to length
dimensional motion [NCERT Pg. 57] this accident. The reaction time of driver is of a small bridge
[NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) A constant speed in an interval must have (3) A spinning cricket ball that turns sharply
non-zero acceleration in that interval (1) 2.0 s on hitting the pitch
(2) With negative value of acceleration (2) 2.4 s (4) A railway carriage moving without jerks
speed must decrease (3) 3.0 s between two stations
(3) With negative value of acceleration (4) 2. 8 s 9. The velocity time graph of a particle moving
speed may increase 6. In any realistic condition (v – t) and (a – t) along a fixed direction is as shown in figure.
(4) With positive value of acceleration speed graph cannot have sharp kinks at some The average velocity of particle between 5 s
must increase points. This implies that [NCERT Pg. 47] to 10 s is [NCERT Pg. 60]
3. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 (1) Both velocity and acceleration can
steps forward, 3 steps backward and then change abruptly at an instant
stay for 1 s and repeat the same process (2) Both velocity and acceleration cannot
again and again. Each step is 1 m long and change abruptly at an instant
takes 1 s. The time taken by drunkard to fall
in a pit 10 m away from start is (3) Only velocity cannot change abruptly at (1) 15.6 m/s
an instant but acceleration can change
[NCERT Pg. 56] (2) 6.0 m/s
(4) Only acceleration cannot change
(1) 45 s (2) 27 s (3) 8.9 m/s
abruptly at an instant but velocity can
(3) 30 s (4) 31 s change (4) 15.0 m/s
12 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT Maps
10. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one 12. Which of the following graphs can represent 15. Two towns A and B are connected by a
dimensional motion is as shown in figure. one dimensional motion of a particle? regular bus service with a bus leaving in
Which of the following relation is correct for [NCERT Pg. 57] either direction every T minutes. A man
describing the motion of particle over time cycling with a speed of 20 km/h in the
direction from A to B notices that a bus goes
interval t1 to t2? [NCERT Pg. 60]
past him every 18 min in the direction of his
(1) (2) motion and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. The speed with which (assumed
constant) buses ply on road is
[NCERT Pg. 56]
2
(1) 40 km/h
v t21 + 2aaverage (t2 − t1)
(1) v t2 =
(3) (4) (2) 60 km/h
(2) xt2 =
xt1 + v average (t1 − t2 ) (3) 75 km/h
1 13. A man walks on a straight road from his (4) 80 km/h

+ aaverage (t2 − t1 )2 home to market 2.0 km away with a speed of
2 16. Two stones are thrown up from the edge of
4.0 km/h. The stays in the market for 30
(3) v t2 =v t1 + a(t2 − t1) minute for purchasing and returns to home a cliff 300 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s
with a speed of 6 km/h. The magnitude of and 20 m/s. Which of the following graph
v t2 − v t1 average speed of whole journey is best represents the variation of relative
(4) aaverage = position of second stone with respect to
t2 − t1 [NCERT Pg. 57]
first stone till both the stones are in air?
(1) 4.0 km/h (2) 3.0 km/h
11. A boy is standing on an open lift moving (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2
upwards with speed 10 m/s. The boy throws (3) 4.5 km/h (4) 3.5 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 59]
the ball with speed w.r.t. lift is 24.5 m/s. In 14. Two trains P and Q of length 300 m and
500 m are moving on two parallel tracks each
how much time the ball returns to the hand
with a uniform speed of 72 km/h in the same
of boy? (g = 10 m/s2) direction, with Q ahead of P. The driver of (1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 59] train P decide to overtake train Q and
accelerates by 2.0 m/s2, if after 40 s the
(1) 10 s guard of P just brushes past the driver of Q,
then the original distance between the trains
(2) 4.9 s
is [NCERT Pg. 56]
(3) 7.5 s (3) (4)
(1) 450 m (2) 650 m
(4) 6 s (3) 800 m (4) 1300 m
NCERT Maps Motion in a Straight Line 13
17. Graphically derivative or differential away in same direction with speed is (1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s
coefficient means [NCERT Pg. 61] 192 km/h. Thief in the car fires bullet on
(3) 15 m/s (4) 18 m/s
(1) Angle made by the line joining two points police van. If muzzle speed of bullet is 150
m/s, then the speed with which bullet hits the 20. The position of an object moving along x-
on the curve with x-axis
w.r.t. police van is [NCERT Pg. 58] axis is given by, x = 10 + 15t + 5t2, where x
(2) Slope of the tangent line at any point on
(1) 145 m/s (2) 130 m/s is in meter and t is in second. The velocity of
the curve
(3) 115 m/s (4) 105 m/s body at t = 3 s is [NCERT Pg. 45]
(3) Area enclosed under the curve
19. The acceleration of a body starting from rest (1) 15 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(4) Both (1) and (3) varies with time as a = 2t + 3, where t is in
18. A police van moving on a highway with a second. The speed of body at t = 2 s, is (3) 40 m/s (4) 45 m/s
speed of 30 km/h and a thief’s car speeding [NCERT Pg. 63]
1. The study of motion of objects along a 8. For uniform motion, velocity is same as the initial and final position corresponding to
_______ called rectilinear motion. _______ at all instants. [NCERT Pg. 45] that interval [NCERT Pg. 53]
[NCERT Pg. 39] 9. Acceleration may result due to change in 15. For uniform motion, acceleration-time graph
2. In _______, we study ways to describe _______, a change in _______ or change in is a straight line _______ to the time axis.
motion without going into the causes of _______. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
motion. [NCERT Pg. 39] 10. The area under velocity-time graph for any 16. For uniform motion, position-time graph is
3. A co-ordinate system along with a clock moving object represents the _______ over having a _____ non-zero slope.
constitutes a _______ [NCERT Pg. 40] a given time interval. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
4. Displacement has both _______ and 11. The acceleration and velocity cannot 17. For uniform motion, velocity-time graph is a
_______ [NCERT Pg. 40] change values abruptly at an instant. straight line _______ to the time axis.
5. The magnitude of displacement _______ Changes are always _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
equal to the distance traversed by an object. [NCERT Pg. 47] 18. For motion with _______ position-time is a
[NCERT Pg. 41] 12. Free fall is the case of motion with _______. parabola. [NCERT Pg. 54]
6. The magnitude of average velocity in [NCERT Pg. 49] 19. The sign of acceleration does not tell us
general is _______ than the average speed. 13. The _____ speed is always equal to whether the particle speed is _______ or
[NCERT Pg. 43] magnitude of instantaneous velocity _______. [NCERT Pg. 55]
7. The velocity at an instant is defined as the [NCERT Pg. 57] 20. The zero velocity of a particle at any instant
limit of _______ as the time interval 14. On an x – t graph, the average velocity over does not necessarily imply zero _______ at
becomes _______ small [NCERT Pg. 43] a time interval is the _______ connecting that instant. [NCERT Pg. 55]
  
4
Motion in a Plane Chapter
1 SCALARS AND VECTORS 2 RESOLUTION OF VECTORS 5 MOTION IN A PLANE WITH CONSTANT ACCELERATION
P r r r
m Scalar quantity: It has only magnitude with proper m v = v o + at r r r 1r 2 1
r uuur uuuur uuur r m r = r +v t +
o o at , x = xo + v ox t + ax t 2
unit. All base quantities are scalar. The rules A = OP = OQ + QP A 2 2
r v x = v ox + ax t
mb 1
combining scalars are rules of ordinary algebra.
r r r v y = v oy + ay t y = y o + v oy t + ay t 2
A = l a + mb O 2
m Vector quantity: It has both magnitude and direction
r
and obeys the triangle law or parallelogram law of la 6 RELATIVE VELOCITY IN TWO DIMENSIONS
Q
vector addition.
r r The velocity of object A relative to B
m Equality of vector: Two vectors A and B are said to ur ur ur
3 RECTANGULAR COMPONENTS V AB = V A - V B
be equal, if and only if, they have same magnitude r r r ur ur
m A = A1 + A2 y where V A and V B are velocities in the same frame.
and direction. ur ur ur
r
m Multiplication of vector by real numbers: If a vector A = A x iˆ + Ay jˆ Similarly, V BA = V B - V A
r r r A2 ur ur ur ur
A is multiplied by real number l, then A ¢ = l A A = A cos q iˆ + A sin q jˆ A V AB = -V BA and V AB = V BA
r q
if l > 0, magnitude will change and direction remains x
A = Ax2 + Ay2 A1
same y 7 PROJECTILE MOTION
Ay æ Ay ö
if l < 0, magnitude changes l times and direction gets tan q = , q = tan - 1 ç ÷ 1 gx 2
Ax Equation of trajectory y = x tan q 0 -
è Ax ø 2 v o cos 2 q 0
2
reverse. This is equation of parabola.
m Parallelogram law of vector addition: For two co- m Resolution in three. Ay 2v o sin q 0
rectangular components
Ay
b A
m Time of flight Tf =
initial vectors represented by two adjacent sides of a g
parallelogram, the diagonal of a parallelogram A x = A co s a , A y = A sin a g a Ax
(v o sin q0 )2
vy j
x
m Maximum height hm = v
passing through same point will be resultant. A z = A co s g Az 2g vo
r Az
vox i
R = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q B r v o2 sin 2q0 voy j
A = Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2 m Horizontal range R = vox i
z Ax g
B sin q R q0 vox i
tan f = q v2 O
A + B cos q f for Rmax, q = 45°,Rmax = o voxi –voy j q = – q0
4 MOTION IN A PLANE g
A
r y
m Subtraction of vector: It can be defined as addition r = xiˆ + yjˆ n of v
Directio 8 UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION (t + Dt)
of a vector and negative of other vector.
r r r r P¢
r ¢ = x ¢iˆ + y ¢ jˆ Dr P In uniform circular motion particle moves P¢
S = A-B uur r r Dr
r r r r with constant speed. r¢ Dr
S = A + ( -B ) Þ S = A2 + B 2 – 2 AB cos q Dr = r ¢ - r r¢
uur r Arc ( PP ¢) Dq
m Angular displacement Dq = t=t
Unit Vectors: It is a vector of unit Dr = ( x ¢ - x )iˆ + ( y ¢ - y ) ˆj r C P
Y r
magnitude and points in a particular r Dq 2 p
r Dr r ˆ r ˆ O Dx x
m Angular velocity w =
Dt
=
T
= 2 pn
direction. It has no unit and dimension. j v av = = v xi + vy j
Dt r Linear speed v = rw
Unit vectors along the x, y and z axis r dr m
X Instantaneous velocity, v = m Centripetal acceleration-Due to change in direction of velocity and

of a rectangular coordinate system dt
i is always directed towards centre.
represented by iˆ, jˆ and kˆ respectively, k m The direction of velocity at any point on path is tangent to
v2
called basic unit vectors. path and in direction of motion. a= = r w2 = 4 p 2 n 2 r = v w
Z r
NCERT Maps Motion in a Plane 15
1. Two vectors are said to be equal, if 5. The magnitude of component of a vector 8. In circular motion, the direction of angular
[NCERT Pg. 66] [NCERT Pg. 70] velocity is [NCERT Pg. 80]
(1) They have equal magnitude only (1) In the plane of circle
(1) Is always less than magnitude of vector
(2) Same direction only (2) Perpendicular to plane of circle
(2) Is always equal to magnitude of vector
(3) They have equal magnitude and same (3) In the direction of velocity
direction (3) May be greater than magnitude of vector
(4) In the direction of acceleration
(4) They have unequal magnitude and (4) Is always greater than magnitude of
same direction vector 9. The shape of the trajectory of an object is
determined by [NCERT Pg. 85]
2. A null vector has [NCERT Pg. 68] 6. A motor boat is racing towards north at
25 km/h and the water current in that region (1) Acceleration only
(1) Zero magnitude, specified direction
is 10 km/h in the direction of 60° east of (2) Velocity of projection only
(2) Zero magnitude, arbitrary direction
south. The resultant velocity of the boat is (3) Initial position and initial velocity only
(3) Non-zero magnitude, no direction nearly [NCERT Pg. 72]
(4) Non-zero magnitude, arbitrary direction (4) Initial position, initial velocity and
(1) 22 km/h acceleration
3. To a person moving with a speed of 5 m/s
towards east, rain appears to be falling (2) 12 km/h 10. Which of the following vector operation is
(3) 35 km/h meaningful? [NCERT Pg. 85]
vertically downward with speed 5 3 m/s .
The actual velocity of rain is (1) Multiplication of any two vectors
(4) 26 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 69] (2) Adding any two vectors
7. In uniform circular motion, the centripetal
(1) 10 m/s at 30° with vertical acceleration is [NCERT Pg. 79] (3) Adding a component of vector to the
(2) 20 m/s at 30° with vertical same vector
(1) Due to change in magnitude of velocity
(3) 10 m/s at 60° with vertical only (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) 20 m/s at 60° with vertical 11. Which of the following quantities is/are
(2) Due to change in direction of velocity
vector? [NCERT Pg. 85]
4. A vector can be resolved [NCERT Pg. 70] only
(1) Angular frequency
(1) Only in two components (3) Due to change in both magnitude and
(2) Only in three components direction of velocity (2) Angular velocity
(3) In any number of components (4) Neither due to change in magnitude of (3) Number of moles
(4) Either two or three components velocity nor due to change in direction (4) Both (1) and (2)
16 Motion in a Plane NCERT Maps
12. Which of the following option is correct? 15. Equation of trajectory of projectile is 18. The correct statement for a scalar quantity
[NCERT Pg. 86] =
y 2
3 x − 5 x . Then angle of projection is [NCERT Pg. 87]
(1) Each component of a vector is always with vertical is (Assume x-axis as horizontal (1) It is conserved in a process
scalar and y-axis as vertical) [NCERT Pg. 78]
(2) It can never take negative values
(2) Three vectors not lying in a plane can (1) 45°
(3) It does not vary from one point to
never add up to give null vector (2) 30°
another in space
(3) Two vectors of different magnitude can (3) 60°
(4) It has the same value for the observers
be add up to give null vector (4) 53° with different orientations of axis
(4) Minimum number of vectors to give null 16. A projectile is projected with initial velocity
19. A man can swim with a speed of 5 km/h in
vector is five (10iˆ + 20 ˆj ) m/s from the ground. The still water. How long does he take to cross a
13. A particle A is moving with velocity velocity of the body just before hitting the river 1.0 km wide, if the river is flowing
( )
3iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s and particle B is moving with ground is [NCERT Pg. 79] steadily at 3 km/h and he makes his strokes
normal to the river current? [NCERT Pg. 86]
velocity ( −3iˆ − 4 jˆ ) m/s . The magnitude of (1) 10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(1) 20 min
velocity of B w.r.t A is (2) −10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(2) 30 min
[NCERT Pg. 76]
(3) 10iˆ − 20 jˆ (3) 12 min
(1) 6 m/s
(4) −10iˆ − 20 jˆ (4) 15 min
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
( )
17. The component of 3iˆ + 4 jˆ in the direction 20. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 s with a
velocity 4.0 ˆj m/s and moves in x-y plane
(4) 5 m/s (
of iˆ − jˆ is ) [NCERT Pg. 87]
with a constant acceleration of
 
= aiˆ + 6 jˆ and B
14. If two vectors A = biˆ + cjˆ are (1)
ˆj − iˆ ( )
6iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s2 . The time after which
2 y-coordinate of particle will be 48 m, will be
equal then correct options for value of a, b
and c is [NCERT Pg. 66] iˆ − ˆj [NCERT Pg. 87]
(2)
(1) a = b 2 (1) 6 s
1 ˆ ˆ
(2) a = c (3) (i − j ) (2) 4 s
2
(3) c = 6 (3) 8 s
1
(4) ( ˆj − iˆ)
(4) Both (1) and (3) 2 (4) 5 s
NCERT Maps Motion in a Plane 17
1. The _______ of a vector is called its 8. The sum of the squares of direction cosines 15. In uniform circular motion, magnitude of
absolute value. [NCERT Pg. 66] of a vector is _______. [NCERT Pg. 71] velocity and acceleration remains _______
9. The instantaneous acceleration is the [NCERT Pg. 81]
2. Addition and subtraction of scalars make
limiting value of _______ as the time interval 16. In projectile motion x-component of velocity
sense only for quantities with _______ units.
approaches zero. [NCERT Pg. 74] _______ while y-component of velocity
However, you can multiply and divide
scalars of _______ units. [NCERT Pg. 66] 10. In two or three dimensions, velocity and undergoes a _______.
acceleration vectors may have any angle
3. Displacing a vector parallel to itself leaves [NCERT Pg. 79]
between _______. [NCERT Pg. 75]
the vector unchanged. Such vectors are
11. In one dimension, the velocity and 17. In projectile motion if air resistance is
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 66]
 acceleration may have angle _______ considered then both x and y component of
4. Multiplying a vector A by a negative number between them. [NCERT Pg. 75] velocities undergoes a _______.

λ gives a vector λA whose direction is
 12. Motion in a plane can be treated as [NCERT Pg. 79]
_______ to the direction of A . superposition of two separate simultaneous 18. When an object follows a circular path at a
[NCERT Pg. 67] _______ motions along two perpendicular _______ the motion is said to be uniform
directions. [NCERT Pg. 76] circular motion. [NCERT Pg. 79]
5. Vector addition follows _______ law and
_______ law [NCERT Pg. 68] 13. The resultant velocity is the _______ sum of
19. The shape of the trajectory of motion is not
two velocities. [NCERT Pg. 77]
6. On adding two equal and opposite vectors, determined by the _______ alone, but also

resultant will be a _______. 14. Particle A is moving with velocity v A and depends on initial conditions of motion.

[NCERT Pg. 68] particle B is moving with velocity v B in same [NCERT Pg. 85]
7. A unit vector is a vector of _______ direction then their relative velocity is given 20. In uniform circular motion, acceleration is
magnitude. It has no _______. by the _______ of two velocities. directed along the _______ of circular path
[NCERT Pg. 70]
  
5
Laws of Motion Chapter
ST RD
1 NEWTON’S 1 LAW 3 NEWTON’S 3 LAW 5 COMMON FORCES IN MECHANICS 6 CIRCULAR MOTION
A body continues its state of rest or of motion To every action there is always an equal and Tension Force A body moving in a circular path is called
until unless an external force is acted on it opposite reaction ® ® m Restoring force in string is called tension. circular motion.
Inertia of rest FAB = –FBA m It is due to electromagnetic force
FC = mv2/R is called centripetal force.
The property of body due to which it cannot m Always acts away from the body
m Forces always occur in pairs. Force on
change its state of rest by itself. m It is a contact force. Uniform circular motion
body A by B is equal and opposite to force 2
Inertia of motion m v
on body B by A. Weight a = ac = R = Rw2
The property of body due to which it cannot m It is equal to the gravitational pull i.e.
Some examples of Newton’s 3rd Law m
a = ac = v.w
change its state of motion by itself. W = Mg
m Recoiling of Gun
Inertia of direction m It is non-contact force. Non-uniform circular motion
The property due to which a body cannot m Rowing of boat
m ® ® ®
Normal Reaction a = aT + ac
change its direction of motion by itself. m When a man jumps from a boat, the boat It is always perpendicular to the surface in m ¾
2
moves backward contact. a = Ö a T + ac
2
2 NEWTON’S 2ND LAW m It is difficult to walk on sand or ice. m It is a contact force.

Motion of car on level Road
Spring Force v
The rate of change of Linear momentum of a Rocket Propulsion m ¾
® ® vmax = Ö ms Rg
body is directly proportional to the external u dm a m v m F = –Kx R
a = rel
2
force applied on the body and takes place in m –g It is due to electromagnetic force
m
mmin = v
m dt m ¾
the direction in which force acts Rg
m It is a contact force.
dp Thrust m 2 fs
F= = ma dm ¯ Friction Rmin = v
dt m F = – u rel ¾
m The same force for the same time causes dt urel It is the resistance offered to the relative mg
same change in momentum for different motion between two bodies in contact Motion of car on Banked Road
bodies. 7 PROBLEM SOLVING TECHNIQUES m It is parallel to surface of body in contact. ¾
m Rg(ms + tanq)
Impulse
A large force acts for very short duration of
IN MECHANICS Type of Friction
N
vmax =
Ö ¾
(1 – ms tanq)
N N cosq
m Identify the unknown forces and m Static friction: Fs = Fapplied

time produces a finite change in momentum. ®
® m ¾ N sinq
Fs voptimum = ·
Product of force and time duration for which it accelerations m Limiting friction Flim = msN M Fapp ÖRgtanq
acts is impulse. m Draw FBD of bodies in system m Kinetic friction Fk = mkN ¾
Mg m Rg(tanq – ms ) f
Impulse = F × Dt = Dp
Equilibrium of a particle
m
m
Resolve forces into components
®
Apply SF = 0 in the direction of equilibrium
msN
Frictional force
vmin =
Ö ¾
(1 + mstanq) mg
® ® ® ® ® ®
FK = mKN Bending of cyclist on a circular turn
pp
SF = 0 Þ SFx = 0, SFy = 0 and SFz = 0 m Apply SF = Ma in the direction of Fa R cosq R
s =
Conservation of Liner Momentum accelerated motion m Angle of Bending

F
Total momentum of an isolated system of m Write constraint relations if exists.

intracting particles is conserved if there is no
external force acting on it.
® ®
m
m
®
Solve the equations SF = 0 and SF = Ma
®
For equilibrium of concurrent forces use

®
(Fs = Fapp) applied force

q = tan
–1
( )
v2
Rg
q
R sinq
pinitial = pfinal m Acceleration of body sliding down a rough

sine rule F1
g inclined plane mg
4 NON-INTERTIAL FRAME OF REFERENCE F1 F2 F3
® = = F2 b a = g(sinq – mcosq)
Pseudo Force Fpseudo = –Maframe
®
sin a sin b sin g m Numerically: a = q
a m Angle of friction: q = tan–1(ms) m Kinetic friction is usually less than
® ® ®
Fext + Fpseudo = Ma F3 m Angle of repose: a = tan–1 (ms) maximum value of static friction.
NCERT Maps Laws of Motion 19
1. A constant retarding force 100 N is applied The correct statement is

to a body of mass 20 kg, moving initially with [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
speed 20 m/s. How long does the body take
(1) (a) only
to stop? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
(2) (b) only
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(3) (a) and (b) both
(3) 1 s (4) 4 s
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
2. A man of mass 60 kg stands on a weighing
scale in a lift which is moving upward with a 5. Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid wall
with same speed as shown in the figure. The (1) 400 N s (2) 300 N s
uniform speed of 10 m/s. The reading on the
scale is. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] ratio of magnitude of impulse imparted to the (3) 500 N s (4) 200 N s
balls by the wall [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(1) Zero (2) 120 kg wt 7. For a given surface, the normal reaction and
frictional force are inclined at
(3) 60 kg wt (4) 90 kg wt
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
3. A rocket with a lift-off mass 10000 kg is
blasted upwards with an initial acceleration (1) 0º to each other
of 2 m/s2. The initial thrust of the blast is (2) 90º to each other
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] (3) 45º to each other
(1) 120 kN 2 (4) tan ( µ ) to each other
–1
(1)
(2) 80 kN 3
8. A machine gun fires 10 bullets per second
(3) 100 kN 1
(2) each with speed 200 m/s. If the mass of
(4) 140 kN 3 each bullet is 20 g, then the force required
1 to keep the gun stationary is
4. Consider the following statements (3)
2 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(a) Frictional force between block and
contact surface depends on area of 1 (1) 40 N
(4)
contact 3
(2) 0.4 N
(b) Frictional force may also act when there 6. A force-time plot for a body is shown in the
(3) 4 N
is no relative motion between the figure. The total change in momentum of the
contact surfaces. body is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98] (4) 8 N
20 Laws of Motion NCERT Maps
9. A mass of 2 kg rests on a horizontal plane. 12. The tension in string PQ as shown in the 14. The ratio of tension T1 and T2, as shown in
The plane is gradually inclined until at an figure is (g = 10 m/s2) the figure is NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100]
angle θ = 30° with the horizontal, the mass
just begins to slide. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface is
1
(1) 3 (2)
3
1
(3) 2 (4)
2 (1) 100 N 3 1
(1) (2)
2 2
10. A cyclist speeding at 5 m/s on a level road (2) 150 N
takes a sharp circular turn of radius 2.5 m 1 4
(3) 130 N (3) (4)
without reducing the speed. The minimum 3 3
value of coefficient of static friction between (4) 50 N
tyre and road such that cyclist does not slip 15. A car is moving on a curved road of radius
13. In the given figure, the reading of spring
is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105] R. The road is banked at an angle θ . The
balance is (g = 10 m/s2)
coefficient of friction between tyres of the car
(1) 0.5 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100] and road is µ . The minimum safe velocity
(2) 1.5
on this road is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.8 gR ( µ + tan θ )
(1)
11. A truck starts from rest and accelerates (1 − µ tan θ )
uniformly with 5 m/s2. The minimum value of
coefficient of static friction between surface gR ( tan θ − µ )
(2)
of truck and a box placed on it such that box (1 + µ tan θ )
does not slip back, will be
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] gR 2 ( tan θ − µ )
(1) 10 N (3)
(1) 0.4 (1 + µ tan θ )
(2) 20 N
(2) 0.6
(3) 80 N gR ( tan θ − µ )
(3) 0.5 (4)
(4) 0.2 (4) 40 N (1– µ tan θ )
NCERT Maps Laws of Motion 21
16. Two masses as shown in the figure are 18. Two blocks A and B are released from rest 19. A 60 kg monkey, climbs on a rope which
suspended from a smooth massless pulley. on two inclined plane as shown in the can withstand a maximum tension of 900 N.
The acceleration of 3 kg mass, when system The case in which the rope will break if the
figure.
is released, will be [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 106]
monkey [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 113]
(1) Climbs up with acceleration of 6 m/s2
(2) Climbs down with acceleration of 4 m/s2
(3) Climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s
(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under

gravity
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 2.0 m/s2 The ratio of the accelerations ( a A / aB ) is
(3) 4.0 m/s2 (4) 5.0 m/s2 20. Which of the following is self adjusting
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102] force? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
17. A body is acted upon by unbalanced forces,
then body [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] (1) 1 (1) Static friction
(1) Will be at rest
(2) 2 (2) Limiting friction
(2) Will keep moving with uniform speed
(3) Will accelerate (3) 1.5 (3) Kinetic friction
(4) Will be at rest if even number of forces
(4) 0.8 (4) All of these.
will act
3. Suppose we are standing in a stationary bus 5. The same force for same time causes the
1. When horse starts suddenly, the rider falls
and the driver starts the bus suddenly. Then same ______ for different bodies
backward due to inertia of ______.
we get thrown in ______ direction with a jerk [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]
6. The rate of change of momentum of a body
2. An athlete runs some distance, before 4. ______ of a body is defined to be the is ______ proportional to the applied force
taking a long jump due to inertia of ______. product of its mass and velocity. and takes place in the ______ in which the
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93] [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93] force acts. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]
22 Laws of Motion NCERT Maps
7. The product of force and ______, which is 12. A body is in translational equilibrium under 17. The maximum velocity of car moving on a
change in Linear momentum of body, is also   
three concurrent forces F 1, F 2 and F 3 , then level circular road of radius R is ______ of
called ______ [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 96]    mass of the car. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
  F1 + F 2 + F 2 =
______.
8. In equation F = Ma , any ______ forces in 18. A car is moving on circular banked road
system are not included. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99]
having inclination angle θ. If coefficient of
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] 13. Static friction opposes ______ motion static friction between road and tyre of car is
9. The motion of a particle of mass m is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] µs , the maximum velocity of the car is
1
described by y= ut + gt 2 . The force 14. The kinetic friction, like static friction in ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105]
2
acting on the particle is ______. solids is found to be ______ of area of 19. Impulse has the dimensional formula as
contact. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]
10. Action and Reaction forces acts on ______ 15. Frictional force is the _______ of contact
20. µ s is the coefficient of static friction and µk
bodies [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 97] force which opposes the relative motion not
is the coefficient of kinetic friction. It is found
the motion. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102]
11. The total momentum of an isolated system experimentally that µk is ______ than µ s
of interacting particles is ______. 16. We are able to walk because of the
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99] ________. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 103] [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]
  
Work, Energy and Power
6
Chapter
1 SCALAR PRODUCT 3 ENERGY Some common units of energy

6
m Also called dot product Kilowatt hour 3.6 × 10 J
ur ur m Capability of an object to perform work is its energy.
m A × B = A B cos ( q ) –7
ur ur ur ur erg 10 J
m A ×B = B × A
ur ur ur ur ur ur ur Electron volt 1.6 × 10
–19
J
m A × (B + C ) = A × B + A × C
Calorie 4.186 J
m iˆ × iˆ = ˆj × ˆj = kˆ × kˆ = 1 Mechanical energy is of two forms
m iˆ × ˆj = ˆj × kˆ = kˆ × iˆ = 0
m ( A x iˆ + A y jˆ + A z kˆ ) × ( B x iˆ + B y jˆ + B z kˆ ) = A x B x + A y B y = A z B z Kinetic Energy Potential Energy
m Energy a body possesses by virtue of its motion. m It is form of stored energy, by virtue of position or
2 WORK configuration of body.
1 2
Scalar product of force and displacement is work.
m KE = mv
m 2 m Notion of potential energy is applicable to class of
m Work done by a force can be positive, negative or zero. m Its unit is joule conservative forces. Work done against such forces gets
m Work done by gravity in horizontal displacement of object is stored up as potential energy. When constraints are
zero. m Work is related to KE of body by theorem called work-
energy theorem. removed, this energy may appear as kinetic energy.
m Work done by tension in pendulum bob is zero.
x2
m Work done by spring elastic force during stretching or m Change in potential energy for a conservative force; DU
DK = K f - K i = W = ò F ( x ) dx
compressing is negative. is equal to negative of work done by the force
x1
m Work can be done by a constant or variable force. r ur uur
ur r m This theorem is in scalar form. m DU = - ò F × dr
A. Constant force W = F × D r ¥
ur r2 m Shape of graph between KE of a body and its speed is
r m A force is conservative if it is derived from a scalar
B. Variable force W = ò F ( r ) × dr parabola.
r1
(Fc + Fnc) Dx = DK , when both forces are present dU
C. When force-displacement graph is given, Area under
m quantity U(x) by relation Fx = –
dx
force-displacement curve gives work done by the force. Fc = Conservative forces
D. Work done in stretching a spring by distance Dl is m Work done by a conservative force depends only on
1 Fnc = Non-conservative forces initial and final points. Zero of potential energy is
W = K ( D l )2
2 m Kinetic energy of a body of fixed mass is directly arbitrary.
F proportional to square of its momentum.
= F 2 m Work done by gravity depends on initial and final position
– Kxm P2
Kx Area = - K= only Uh = mgh (Gravitational potential energy at height h)
2 2m
xm m Potential energy of a stretched spring
x m Kinetic energy of fast moving air is used to generate
0 B electricity in wind mill. 2
Kx m
U=
m If two objects have same momentum, then the lighter has 2
more kinetic energy and vice versa.
A m Kinetic energy of fast flowing stream has been used to K is spring constant. Spring is said to be stiff if K is high,
1 grind corn and now to generate hydro-electricity. xm = extension of spring.
(Potential energy) U = - W S = kx m2
2
24 Work, Energy and Power NCERT Maps
4 LAW OF CONSERVATION MECHANICAL ENERGY 7 COLLISION

m If conservative and non-conservative forces acts on a m Exchange of momentum between objects is consequence of collision, due to material impulsive forces. The laws of
body then momentum and energy conservation are used in collision.
m Collision are classified as elastic and inelastic collision depending on nature of colliding bodies.
(Fc + Fnc) Dx = DK
m In all collisions, total linear momentum of the systemis conserved. Initial momentum of system is equal to final momentum of the
Now, Fc Dx = –DU system.
D(K + U) = Fnc Dx COLLISION
DE = FncDx
E = Total Mechanical Energy (Consequence of work PERFECT INELASTIC COLLISION INELASTIC ELASTIC COLLISION
energy theorem). If Fnc = 0 then DE = 0 A collision in which two colliding An intermediate collision case Both linear momentum and kinetic energy of
m Mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces particles move together (in one where the deformation is partly system of colliding particles will remain conserved.
doing work on it are conservative. dimensions) after the collision is restored and some of initial kinetic m In one dimensional collision with target initially
complete inelastic collision. Kinetic energy is lost. Momentum of two at rest
energy is always lost in such collisions. colliding bodies before and after æ m - m2 ö
Conservative Forces Non-conservative Forces will remain conserved. v 1f = ç 1 ÷ u1
For m1 moving at u1 and m2 at rest.
m In two dimension, inelastic è m1 + m2 ø
The work done by or against The work done by or against m1u1
the force in moving a body the force in moving a body vf = collision if target at rest, two 2 m1u1
m1 + m 2 v 2f =
depends only on initial and from one position to another object don’t move at right m1 + m 2
final position of the body depends on the path Loss in KE on collision angles to each other (glancing
collision) even when identical. m If two masses are equal and target is at rest
and not on path followed in followed between the initial
v1f v1f = 0
between. and final positions. 1 æ m1 m2 ö 2 y
DK = ç ÷ (u1) m1 v 2f = u1
2 è m1 + m2 ø
m1 u1 First one comes to rest and pushes off the
5 VERTICAL CIRCULAR MOTION q1
x second with its initial speed. Thus, velocities
m2 q2 are exchanged
VC C MV02 1 m If m2 >> m1
VB TA = + Mg and E A = MV02
L 2 v2f
TC 6 POWER v1f = –u1 and v2f ; 0
1
EC = MVC2 + 2 MgL = constant m Rate at which work is done is power. Heavier mass is undisturbed while lighter
O B 2
dW dr ur r mass reverses its velocity.
MVC2 when string slackens
m P = =F × = F ×v
TA Mg = dt dt m Fraction of kinetic energy lost by targetting
L (just completes loop)
V0 m Rate at which energy is transferred is power. body when target at rest
A
5 MV02 2
Mg E A = EC = MgL = Average power is ratio of total work to total time æ m - m2 ö
2 2
m
f1 = ç 1 ÷
taken. è m1 + m2 ø
\ V0 = 5 gL W and fraction of KE gained by target b e i n g a t
m Pav =
t rest initially
Minimum speed at different VC = gL m SI unit of power is watt. 4 m1 m2
f2 =
locations to complete loop m Another unit of power is horse power. (m1 + m2 )2
m When two equal masses undergo two
VB = 3 gL [1 hp = 746 W]
dimensional elastic collision with one of them at
m A machine which performs same amount of work rest, after collision they will move at right
KA : KB : KC = 5 : 3 : 1 over a shorter period of time has more power. angles to each other.
NCERT Maps Work, Energy and Power 25
1. What is the angle between force (1) –720 J (2) –420 J 8. A bob of mass m is suspended by light string

F = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj − 5kˆ unit and displacement of length l. At lowest position it is imparted a
(3) 20 J (4) Zero
 horizontal velocity 5gl such that it just
S 4 jˆ + 3kˆ unit?
= [NCERT Pg. 115] 5. A shooter fires a bullet of mass 50 g with
completes circular trajectory in vertical
speed of 200 m s–1 on soft wood of thickness
 1   1  circle. What is ratio of its KE at B and C?
(1) cos−1   (2) cos−1   2 cm. If bullet looses 80% of its kinetic
5 2   25 2  energy and emerges out. What is emergent [NCERT Pg. 122]
 1  1 
bullet speed? [NCERT Pg. 118]
(3) cos−1   (4) cos−1  
5  25  (1) 89.4 m s–1 (2) 69.5 m s–1
2. A force F = 20 N acts on a object and (3) 100 m s–1 (4) 20.0 m s–1
displaces it from rest to speed of 6. A woman pushes a box on railway platform
10 m/s in its direction. What is displacement, which has rough surface. She applies a force
if mass of object is 2 kg? of 20 N over a distance of 5 m thereafter gets
tired and applied force which reduces linearly (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
[NCERT Pg. 119]
to 10 N with distance. The total distance (3) 5 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(1) 6 m (2) 5 m which box has been moved is 10 m. Work 9. The potential energy of a body as a function
(3) 12 m (4) 10 m done during second displacement is of distance is given as U(x) = (–6x2 + 2x) J
3. Raindrop is falling downwards under [NCERT Pg. 119] The conservative force acting on body at
influence of gravity and opposing resistive (1) 175 J (2) 19.5 J x = 1 m will be [NCERT Pg. 124]
force. Consider a drop of mass 5.00 g falling (3) 75 J (4) 14.65 J (1) 6 N (2) 8 N
from height of 500 m and hits ground with 7. A block of mass m = 1 kg is moving on (3) 10 N (4) 12 N
speed of 70 m s–1. What is work done by horizontal surface with speed of 4 m s–1 10. Consider the following statements.
resistive force? [NCERT Pg. 136] enters a rough patch ranging from x = 0.1 m
to x = 1.6 m. The retarding force in this range A: Spring force is deformation dependent.
(1) –7.85 J (2) –9.50 J is inversely proportional to x B: Work done by spring force depends on
(3) –12.75 J (4) –13.50 J 1 initial and final deformation.
F= − (0.1 < x < 1.6 m)
4. A cyclist comes to skidding stop in 6 m. x [NCERT Pg. 124]
During this process the force on cycle due What is final kinetic energy of the body? (1) Both statements are true
to road is 120 N and is opposing the motion. [NCERT Pg. 120] (2) Both statements are false
How much work does road do on cycle? (1) 9.2 J (2) 7.3 J
(3) Only first statement is true
[NCERT Pg. 117] (3) 6.84 J (4) 5.23 J
(4) Only second statement is true
26 Work, Energy and Power NCERT Maps
11. A spring is executing motion about through an angle of 53° to initial direction.
equilibrium position x = 0 where we take Assuming elastic collision, the angle
potential energy of spring to be zero. The (4) through which first ball moves with initial line
spring is oscillating between –xm and +xm after collision is
position with a mass m attached. During
motion, maximum speed of spring will be 13. Consider a situation in which a car of mass
2000 kg moving with speed of 54 km/h on a
[NCERT Pg. 124]
smooth road and colliding with a horizontal
k k mounted spring of spring constant 12.5 ×
(1) 2 xm (2) xm
m m 103 Nm–1. What is maximum compression of
spring? [NCERT Pg. 124] [NCERT Pg. 131]
k k  xm  (1) 53° (2) 47°
(3) xm (4)   (1) 4 m (2) 6 m
2m m  2 
(3) 8 m (4) 1 m (3) 37° (4) 90°
12. The graph between potential energy (U) of a
14. An elevator can carry a maximum load of 17. In a nuclear reactor, a neutron of high speed
spring versus its position (x) is best shown
900 kg (elevator + passengers) is moving up 104 m s–1 collides elastically with a light
by graph (equilibrium x = 0)
with constant speed of 2 m s–1. A constant nuclei of deuterium (at rest). The collision
[NCERT Pg. 124] frictional force of 5000 N opposes the results in loss of KE of neutron. What
motion. What minimum power is delivered fraction of KE is lost by neutron?
by motor (in HP)? [NCERT Pg. 128] [NCERT Pg. 130]
(1) (1) 37.5 HP (2) 32.5 HP 1 2
(1) (2)
(3) 42.5 HP (4) 50.2 HP 4 5
15. Two objects with mass m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 3 1 2
(3) (4)
kg collides perfect inelastically. The particles 9 9
were moving with speed of 10 m s–1 and zero
(2) 18. A bullet of mass 12 g and moving with
respectively before collision. The loss of KE
horizontal speed of 100 m s–1 strikes a block
on collision is [NCERT Pg. 131]
of wood of mass 348 g and instantly comes
(1) 60 J (2) 40 J to rest with respect to block. The block is
(3) 100 J (4) 90 J suspended from ceiling by means of a thin
(3) wire. The height through which block rises is
16. Consider a collision between two identical
[NCERT Pg. 137]
billiard balls with equal masses m1 = m2 = m.
First ball was at rest and second hits it on (1) 0.55 m (2) 0.88 m
edge. Second ball after hitting moves (3) 0.77 m (4) 1.22 m
NCERT Maps Work, Energy and Power 27
19. The blades of wind mill sweep out a circle of (1) 160.8 W (2) 259.2 W keV. The ratio of speed of electron to proton
area A = 2 m2. The wind is flowing at velocity (3) 302.5 W (4) 239.2 W is (me = 9 × 10–31 kg, mp = 1.6 × 10–27 kg)
v = 6 m s–1 perpendicular to circle, the [NCERT Pg. 136]
density of air is 1.2 kg m–3. What is power 20. An electron and a proton are detected in
generated? [NCERT Pg. 137] cosmic ray experiment. The electron has (1) 15.7 (2) 17.5
kinetic energy of 20 keV and proton has 50 (3) 26.6 (4) 4.9
1. Work done by a force is defined as product 8. The dimensions of potential energy are 14. Not all forces are conservative, ________
of _______ in the direction of displacement ________ and unit is ________. for example is a non-conservative force.
and magnitude of its displacement. [NCERT Pg. 125]
[NCERT Pg. 120
[NCERT Pg. 117 15. The work done by friction on a body is not
2. 1 kilowatt hour (kW h) is equal to ________ 9. The work done by conservative force lost but is transferred as ________ energy.
joule. [NCERT Pg. 117] depends only on the ends points and work [NCERT Pg. 125]
done by this force in a closed path is
3. The ________ energy of fast flowing stream 16. In collision, the total ________ is conserved,
________. [NCERT Pg. 121]
has been used to grind corn. but ________ of system is not necessarily
10. Total mechanical energy of a system is conserved. [NCERT Pg. 129
[NCERT Pg. 118]
conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are 17. A collision in which two particles move
4. A graph shows variable force drawn on ________. [NCERT Pg. 121] together after the collision is called
Y-axis and corresponding displacement on ________ collision. [NCERT Pg. 129]
11. A bob is suspended by a light string and bob
X-axis. The area under the curve is equal to
is given velocity at lowest position such that 18. A collision in which deformation of colliding
________ by force.
it completes semicircular trajectory in bodies is partly relieved and some of initial
[NCERT Pg. 119] vertical plane. There are two external forces kinetic energy is lost is called ________
5. Work-Energy theorem is useful in variety of on bob, these are ________ and ________. collision. [NCERT Pg. 129
problems. It is an integral from of Newton’s [NCERT Pg. 122]
19. The fraction of kinetic energy lost by
________ law. [NCERT Pg. 119] 12. Work done by external pulling force on a targeting body hitting target at rest is
6. Potential energy is stored energy by virtue spring is ________. [NCERT Pg. 124] ________ when both bodies have equal
of ________ of body. [NCERT Pg. 120] masses. [NCERT Pg. 131
13. A moving car collides with a horizontal
7. The notion of potential energy is applicable mounted spring and compresses it. In this 20. When two equal masses undergo a glancing
only to ________ forces where work done case ________ energy of the car is collision elastically with one of them at rest,
against the forces gets stored as energy. converted entirely into ________ of the after the collision, they will move at
[NCERT Pg. 120 spring. [NCERT Pg. 125] ________ to each other. [NCERT Pg. 132]
  
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
7
Chapter
1 RIGID BODY 3 MOTION OF COM 4 LINEAR MOMENTUM OF SYSTEM OF
m Ideally a rigid body is a body with a perfectly definite and unchanging PARTICLES
shape. The distances between all pairs of particles of such a body do not MR = åmiri m Velocity of COM for a system of n particles
change.
m In pure translational motion at any instant of time all particles of the body \ MV = åmivi P = p1 + P2 + .....+ pn = m1v1 + m2v2 + .....+ mnvn
have same velocity.
m Velocity of COM of system r m vr + m vr + ..... + m vr
m The motion of rigid body which is pivoted or fixed is rotation. Every particle V = 1 1 1 2 n n
M
of the body moves in a circle. åmivi
\ V= This is the velocity of centre of mass
m The motion of rigid body which is not pivoted or fixed in some way is either M
a pure translation or is combination of translation and rotation m Total linear momentum of system of particles is
m Acceleration Of Com of System equal to the product of total mass of system and
2 CENTRE OF MASS å mi a i velocity of its centre of mass.
A or acm =
m COM is an imaginary point where mass of an extended body is assumed M m When total external force acting on a system of
to be concentrated m Total mass of system of particles times the particles is zero, total linear momentum of system is
m This concept is used to study indepedently translatory and rotatory acceleration of its centre of mass is vector sum of constant. The velocity of centre of mass remains
motion under effect of external forces. all forces acting on system of particles. constant.
m The laws of motion which are applied to particles can be applied to large ur r r r
sized bodies by converting body into a particle at location of COM. M A = F1 + F2 + F3 + .... + Fn P = mv
Centre of mass for two particle system ur r
if Fext Þ dP=0 P = constant
m
y M A = Fext
r r dt
ur m1r1 + m2r2
R cm = x Fext Total external force å mi a i m If centre of mass was initially at rest, for no external
m1 + m2 A= = =
m1 m2 M Total mass of system M force, centre of mass will remain at rest.
x
m For x and y plane O x1 C m Centre of mass of the system of particles moves
x2 as if all mass of a system was concentrated at
m x + m2 x2 m y + m2 y 2
X cm = 1 1 and, Ycm = 1 1 centre of mass and all the external forces were 5 CROSS PRODUCT
m1 + m 2 m1 + m 2
applied at that point. C B j
m For a system of n particles distributed in space, m A projectile following parabolic path explodes into
åmixi åmiyi åmizi fragments in mid air. The forces leading to
Xcm = ,Ycm = , Zcm =
M M M explosion are internal, they contribute nothing to q
motion of COM. Total external force gravity acting A i
m COM For Continous Mass
m If the body has continous distribution of mass (RING, DISC, ROD) on body is same before and after explosion. The k
COM under influence of external forces continue
along same parabolic trajectory as it would have i ×i = 0
1 rdm M = total mass of body
R= followed without explosion. m C =A ×B j ×j = 0
M
y | C | = | A | | B | sinq k×k = 0
Parabolic path
The co-ordinates of COM of body, i ×j = k
of the projectile q is angle between A and B
1 1
Xcm = 1 xdm,Ycm = M ydm, Zcm = M zdm Explosion
m Properties
j ×k =i
M k× i =j
m If we choose centre of mass at origin rdm = 0, xdm = ydm = zdm = 0 Path of the CM of A ×B ¹ B ×A j ×i = –k
fragments
m For homogeneous bodies of regular shape, centre of mass lies at A × B = –(B × A ) k×j = –i
geometric centre. x1 x2 x
O A ×A =0 j × k = –i
NCERT Maps System of Particles and Rotational Motion 29
6 MOMENT OF FORCE (TORQUE) 7 ANGULAR MOMENTUM MOMENT OF INERTIA OF DIFFERENT RIGID BODIES
m Analogue of force in case of rotational motion is torque, (Regular Shaped)
m It is referred as moment of linear momentum. For a
which is turning effect of a force.
particle, Body Axis I
m t = r × F when forcer acts on a particle whose position
2
vector w.r.t. origin is r . L =r×P Thin circular ring, radius R Perpendicular to MR
plane, at centre
m This is a vector quantity having SI units N m. The magnitude of angular momentum vector is L = rpsinq
y Thin circular ring, radius R Diameter 2
m Magnitude of torque P M R /2
L = r × Psinq = r × P^
z
r q q Thin rod, length L Perpendicular to 2
M L /12
t = r Fsinq L = rsinq × P = r^ × P rod, at mid point
r F O x
rs Circular disc, radius R Perpendicular to 2
t = (rsinq) × F = r^F inq M R /2
disc at centre
P q
r t = rFsinq = rF^ 2
r^ = (rsinq) = is perpendicular distance of directional line Circular disc, radius R Diameter M R /4
O y
rs of P from origin and 2
inq Hollow cylinder, radius R Axis of cylinder MR
x P^ = component of P in the direction perpendicular to r
r^= rsinq = perpendicular distance of line of action m Angular momentum will be zero when P = 0 or particle is at Solid cylinder, radius R Axis of cylinder M R /2
2
of force from origin (axis of rotation) and F^ is origin or or line of P passes through origin.
2
Angular Momentum Conservation Law
Solid sphere, radius R Diameter 2 M R /5
component of F Perpendicular to r. m
2
m If direction of r and F are reversed, the direction of time rate of change of angular Hollow sphere, radius R Diameter 2 M R /3
moment of force remains same. dL momentum of a system of particles
t = dt THEOREMS OF MOI
is equal to torque acting on it.
m Couple : A pair of equal and opposite forces with different
lines of action is known as a couple. A couple produces m If total external torque on a system of particles is zero,
rotation without translation example : opening a bottle. total angular momentum remains constant for the system. Theorem of perpendicular Theorem of parallel
axes axes
dL Theorem is applicable to The theorem is applicable
t = 0 ® dt =0 m m
bodies whose thickness is to body irrespective of any
small compared to other shape.
Bottle L = constant dimensions. (Planar body) m MOI of a body about any
m MOI of a planar body about an axis is equal to the sum of
8 EQUILIBRIUM OF RIGID BODY axis perpendicular to its plane MOI of the body about a
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium if both is equal to the sum of its MOI parallel axis passing
its linear momentum and angular momentum are not about two perpendicular axes through its COM and the
9 MOMENT OF INERTIA : MOI concurrent with perpendicular product of its mass and
changing with time or equivalently, the body has neither Analogue of mass, in rotational motion is rotational inertia
m axis and lying in plane of body. the square of distance
linear acceleration nor angular acceleration. also called moment of inertia. between the two parallel
z axes.
m Vector sum of forces on rigid body is zero åFi = 0 m This is a characteristics of rigid body and the axis about z¢ z
which it rotates. It depends on distribution of mass and
m Vector sum of torques on rigid body is zero. åti = 0 position of axis of rotation. O
Rotational equilibrium condition is independent of m This parameter is independent of magnitude of angular y
m COM
location of origin about which torques are taken. velocity of body, For a system of particles moment of
n x d
m A body may be in partial equilibrium i.e. rotational 2
inertia is given by I = å miri
equilibrium but not transnational. i =1 Iz = Ix + Iy Iz¢ = Iz + md2
30 System of Particles and Rotational Motion NCERT Maps
10 TRANSNATIONAL AND ROTATIONAL MOTION ANALOGY 12 KINETIC ENERGY OF TRANSLATING AND ROTATING BODIES:
Linear motion Rotation about a fixed Axis m K.E of translation + K.E of rotational motion
Displacement x Angular displacement q KE = 1 MVcm + 1 Iw

2 2
2 2
dx 2
Velocity v= Angular velocity w = dq where I = MK , K is corresponding radius of gyration
dt dt
Radius of Gyration : Distance from axis of rotation of a point mass whose mass is equal to mass of whole body
Mass m Moment of inertia I
and whose moment of inertia is equal to moment of inertia of body about the axis.
Force F = ma Torque t = I a m Kinetic Energy In Case Of Pure Rolling Motion
Work dW = Fds Work = dW = tdq Vcm = Rwcm
2 2
mv 2 Kinetic energy k = lw 2 Vcm
KE = 1 MVcm + 1 MK
2
Kinetic energy k=
2 2 2 2 R
2
Power P = F. V Power P = t. w 2
K
KE = 1 MVcm
2
Linear momentum P = mV Angular momentum L = Iw 2 1+ 2
R
dp dL
F= t=
dt dt This formula can be used to all rolling bodies like ring, disc, cylinder sphere.
11 ROLLING MOTION 13 KINEMATICS OF ROLLING BODIES DOWN ROUGH INCLINE PLANE

We apply conservation of mechanical energy to rolling bodies as Rolling friction performs no work.
m All wheels used in transportation have rolling motion.
R
m It is combination of rotation and translation with axis moving. DP.E. = DK.E.
m When disc rolls without slipping, At any instant of time bottom of
2
disc which is in contact with surface is at rest with respect to K
mgh = 1 mVcm
2
surface. 2 1+ 2
R
VP S
VPO Q
r r r h
VP = VPO + Vcm 2gh Vcm
q Velocity at bottom Vcm =
Vcm K2
P 1+ 2
Vcm R q
O
w g sinq
Acceleration of COM ; a = 2
1 + (K/R)
2 2 1/2
|VP| = [(VPO) + Vcm + 2VPOVcm cosq] 2
K
Minimum coefficient of friction required for pure rolling m = 22 tanq
m In pure rolling with out slipping Þ v = Rw R +K
m Top of a rolling body has magnitude of velocity 2
1 2h K
Time to reach the bottom = sinq × g × 2 +1
VQ = Vcm + wcmR = Vcm + Vcm = 2 Vcm,Bottom is at rest w.r.t. surface R
1. Three particles of equal masses are placed 5 5 2 5 7. The angular momentum of a particle of mass
(1)  m, m  (2)  m, m 
at co-ordinates (1, 1), (2, 2) and (4, 4) 3 3  3 3  0.5 kg about point O at the instant as shown
respectively. The position co-ordinate of in the figure, is
1 2 5 5
COM of system of three particles is (3)  m, m  (4)  m, m 
6 6  6 6  [NCERT Pg. 158]
[NCERT Pg. 146]
4. Which relation regarding product of two
2 7
(1) (0, 0) (2)  ,  vectors is incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 151]
7 2  
(1) a × a = 0
7 7
(3)  ,  (4) (2, 2)    
3 3 (2) a.(b + c )= (a.b ) + (a.c ) (1) 6 kgm2s–1
2. Consider a system of two identical particles.    
(3) a × b= (– a ) × (– b ) (2) 9 kgm2s–1
One of the particles is at rest and the other
has an acceleration a. The centre of mass     (3) 18 kgm2s–1
(4) a × b = b × a
has an acceleration
2 –1
5. The vector product of given two vectors (4) 9 3 kg m s
[NCERT Pg. 146]  
=A 3iˆ – 4 jˆ + 5kˆ and B = 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ is 8. Which of the following statement is
1
(1) Zero (2) a
2 [NCERT Pg. 152] incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 158]
(3) a (4) 2 a (1) Moment of couple is independent of

(1) –9iˆ + 13 jˆ + 11kˆ (2) –9iˆ − 13 jˆ + 11kˆ
3. A thin uniform flat plate is in shape of L as point about which moment is taken.
shown. The mass of lamina is 6 kg. The (3) –9iˆ + 7 jˆ + 11kˆ (4) –9iˆ + 7 jˆ − 11kˆ (2) For translational equilibrium of a body
position of centre of mass from point O vector sum of all the forces on it must be
6. The force acting on a particle is
[NCERT Pg. 147] zero
(iˆ + 2 jˆ + 3kˆ ) N . Find the torque of this force
about origin if position vector of force is (3) A body may be in translational
equilibrium but may not be in rotational
(7iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ ) m. [NCERT Pg. 157]
equilibrium simultaneously
(1) iˆ + 16 ˆj − 11kˆ (2) −iˆ − 16 jˆ + 11kˆ (4) Rotational equilibrium depends on
location of origin about which torques
(3) iˆ + 16 ˆj + 11kˆ (4) −iˆ + 9 ˆj + 11kˆ
are taken
9. A 3 m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a (1) 24 kg m2 14. Four bodies; a ring, a solid cylinder, a hollow
frictionless wall. Its feet rest on floor 1.5 m sphere and a solid sphere of same mass are
(2) 12 kg m2
from wall as shown. What is reaction force of allowed to roll down a rough inclined plane
(3) 30 kg m2 without slipping from same level. The body
the wall? [NCERT Pg. 162]
with greatest rotational kinetic energy at
(4) 36 kg m2
bottom is [NCERT Pg. 178]
12. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the (1) Ring
rim of flywheel disc with mass of 15 kg and
(2) Solid cylinder
radius of 40 cm. A steady pull of 50 N is
applied to cord as shown. The wheel is (3) Hollow sphere
mounted on horizontal axis. What is angular (4) Solid sphere
acceleration of wheel? [NCERT Pg. 171]
50 15. A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between
(1) N (2) 50 3 N
3 its front axle and back axle is 1.8 m. Its
centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind front axle.
(3) 100 3 N (4) 120 N The force exerted by level ground on front
wheels is (g = 10 ms–2) [NCERT Pg. 178]
10. Which of the following statement is
(1) 7500 N (2) 6500 N
incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 163]
(3) 9500 N (4) 1800 N
(1) 10.33 rad s–2 (2) 16.66 rad s–2
(1) Moment of inertia depends on 16. A ring (circular) of radius 2 m has mass of
distribution of mass about rotational axis (3) 20.66 rad s–2 (4) 4.99 rad s–2 100 kg. It rolls purely along horizontal floor
(2) Moment of inertia depends on 13. A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around so that its COM has speed 20 cm s–1. The
a solid cylinder of a mass 20 kg and radius work required to stop it is [NCERT Pg. 179]
orientation and position of axis of
rotation 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on (1) 2 J
cord tangentially. The cylinder is mounted on (2) 3 J
(3) Moment of inertia changes when angular
horizontal axis with frictionless bearings.
velocity of body changes (3) 4 J
What is kinetic energy of wheel when 2 m
(4) 8 J
(4) Flywheel resists sudden increase or cord is unwound? [NCERT Pg. 171]
17. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular
decrease of speed of vehicle (1) 50 J speed of 200 rad s–1 an engine needs to
11. A ring has mass of 6 kg and radius of 2 m. (2) 100 J transmit a torque of 125 Nm. What is power
What is moment of inertia of this ring about required by the engine? [NCERT Pg. 179]
(3) 150 J
a tangent to the circle of ring in its plane? (1) 15 kW (2) 20 kW
[NCERT Pg. 166] (4) 90 J (3) 25 kW (4) 50 kW
18. A bullet of mass 10 gram is fixed with speed 19. A solid disc of radius 10 cm are placed on a 20. A child stands at centre of turntable with his
of 500 m s–1 into a door and gets embedded horizontal table (rough) with initial angular two arms outstretched. The turntable is set
exactly at centre of door. The door is 1 m speed equal to 10 π rad s–1. If coefficient of rotating with angular speed of 40 rad s–1.
wide and weighs 12 kg. Door is hinged along What will be angular speed of child if he folds
kinetic friction between disc and table is 0.2
one side and rotates about vertical axis his hands back reducing moment of inertia
then time taken by the disc to start pure
without friction. The angular speed of door 2
rolling will be [NCERT Pg. 181] to times the initial value (ignore friction?)
just after bullet embeds into it is 5
π π
(1) 0.35 rad s–1 (1) s (2) s (1) 50 rad s–1
2 3
(2) 0.625 rad s–1 (2) 75 rad s–1
(3) 0.255 rad s–1 π π (3) 100 rad s–1

(3) s (4) s
6 4 (4) 150 rad s–1
(4) 0.935 rad s–1
1. For three particles of equal masses placed 6. If total _____ on a system of particles is zero, 11. The work done by external torques is not
at corners of an equilateral triangle, the then total angular momentum of the system dissipated then it goes on to increase
centre of mass coincides with_____ of the is conserved. [NCERT Pg. 157] ______ energy of the body.
triangle. [NCERT Pg. 145] 7. A pair of forces of equal magnitudes but [NCERT Pg. 171]
2. Centre of mass of homogeneous bodies of acting in opposite directions with different 12. For bodies which are not symmetric about
regular shapes, from symmetric lines of action is known as ______ . the axis of rotation, the direction of angular
consideration, lie at _____. [NCERT Pg. 159] momentum may not coincide with direction
[NCERT Pg. 146] 8. The centre of gravity (CG) of a body is that of _____. [NCERT Pg. 172]
point where total gravitation ______ on the 13. A circus acrobat and a diver uses the
3. When total external force on the system is
body is zero. [NCERT Pg. 161] advantage of principle of _____.
zero, the velocity of its centre of mass
9. The centre of gravity of a body coincides with [NCERT Pg. 172]
_____. [NCERT Pg. 148]
centre of mass in _____
4. For rotation about a fixed axis, angular 14. All wheels used in transportation have
[NCERT Pg. 162]
velocity vector lies along _____. _____ motion. [NCERT Pg. 173]
10. The distance from axis of a mass point
[NCERT Pg. 153] 15. Kinetic energy of a rolling body can be
whose mass is equal to mass of whole body
separated into kinetic energy of translation
5. The rotational analogue of force in linear and whose moment of inertia is equal to
and kinetic energy of rotation. The fraction of
motion is _____. It is also called _____. moment of inertia of body about the axis is
rotational kinetic energy depends on _____.
[NCERT Pg. 154] called _____. [NCERT Pg. 164]
[NCERT Pg. 174]
 
16. Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and (1) In translational equilibrium _____. 19. The cross product of two vectors A and B is
solid sphere roll down the same incline  
(2) In rotational equilibrium_____. a vector written as A × B . The magnitude of
without slipping. The least velocity of centre
of mass at the bottom of incline plane is 18. For rolling motion without slipping this vector is ABsinθ and its direction is given
for_____. [NCERT Pg. 175] Vcm = _____where Vcm is velocity of by_____. [NCERT Pg. 151]
translation of centre of mass. 20. For pure rolling motion, work done against
17. A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium
then [NCERT Pg. 158] [NCERT Pg. 174] friction is_____ [NCERT Pg. 175]
  
8
Gravitation Chapter
1 KEPLER’S LAWS OF PLANETARY MOTION 2 NEWTON’S LAW OF GRAVITATION 3 ACCELERATION DUE TO GRAVITY 7 EARTH’S SATELLITE
Law of Orbits m The Gravitational force (F) between two m For a body falling freely under gravity, the
Orbital Speed of Satellite
Every planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical acceleration of body is called acceleration
bodies is directly proportional to product
orbit and the sun in situated at one of its foci. due to gravity m The speed required to put satellite into
of masses and inversely proportional to
GMe 4 a given circular orbit
B m g= = pGrRe
square of distance between them. Re2 3
v0 = GMe g
® –Gm1m2 = Re
F= r Where G = Gravitational constant Re + h Re + h
2b 2
P S
r r ® Average density of earth
S' A m For satellite very close to earth orbital speed
Characteristics of Gravitational Force Me ® Mass of earth
m It is alway attractive Re ® Radius of earth v0 = GMe = gRe = v e
C
Re 2
2a m It is independent of the medium
5 GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL
Law of Areas m It is a conservative and central force
ENERGY Time Period of Satellite
m It has infinite range m The work done in bringing a body from
The areal velocity of the planet around the sun 2p 2p
infinity to a point in the gravitational field m T= (Re + h )3/ 2 = ( Re + h )3
is constant i.e. dA = L = constant Superposition Principle GMe Re g
dt 2m is gravitational potential energy
v The Gravitational force on a point mass m1 For two point mass system m For satellite very close to earth’s surface
P¢
is the vector sum of the gravitational forces Gm1m2
A P (Planet) U=–
S r T = 2p Re
r F exerted by m2, m3 .... Gravitational Potential due to a point mass
= 84.6 min
g
® ® ® It is the work done in bringing a unit mass
Sun i.e. F1 = F12 + F13 + ....
from infinity to a point in the gravitational
Energy of Satellite
Gm
field. V = – GMe m
Law of Periods Due to Depth (d) r m Kinetic energy K =
2(Re + h )
The square of the time period of revolution of a
planet is directly proportional to the cube of semi The value of g decreases with depth 6 ESCAPE SPEED
GMe m
d The minium speed of projection of a body m Potential energy U = –
major axis length of the elliptical orbit i.e. T2 µ a3 gd = g 1– m
(Re + h )
Re from surface of earth so that it just m Total energy (E) = K + U
4 VARIATION OF ACCELERATION DUE TO g crosses the gravitational field of earth GM e m
=–
GRAVITY (g) 2GM e 2(Re + h )
gO ve = = 2gRe = 8pGr Re
Re 3
Due to Altitude (h) m Binding energy (BE) = – E
The value of g goes on decreasing with height (h) It is independent of angle of projection. GM e m
=+
m Escape velocity from moon is about 5 2(Re + h )
GM e O r = Re r
gh =
( R e + h )2 times smaller than earth.
36 Gravitation NCERT Maps
8 TYPES OF SATELLITES
Polar Satellite Geostationary Satellite

m Revolves in polar orbit around the earth m Time period is 24 h.
m Height is approximately 500 to 800 km m Height is approximately 35800 km.
m Time period is nearly 100 min m Have same angular speed and sense of rotation as of earth
m Used in military spying, weather forecasting, meteorology etc. m Used for satellite communication, GPS
N m INSAT is group of Geostationary satellites sent up by India.
9 WEIGHTLESSNESS
An Astronaut experiences weightlessness in a space satellite. This is not because the gravitational force is small at that location in space. It is because both the astronaut
and every part of satellite has an acceleration towards the center of the earth which is exactly the value of earth’s acceleration due to gravity at that position.
NCERT Maps Gravitation 37
1. The escape speed of a body from the earth d d 7. The change in gravitational potential energy
(1) (2) when a body of mass m is raised to height
depends on [NCERT Pg. 201] 4 2
4RE from the earth surface is (RE is radius of
d d earth) [NCERT Pg. 192]
(1) Mass of the body (3) (4)
3 6 4
(1) mgRE (2) mgRE
(2) The direction of projection 4. The force of gravitation between two masses 3
(3) The height of location from where the is 10 mN in vacuum. If both the masses are mgRE 4
(3) (4) mgRE
body is launched placed in a liquid at the same distance, then 5 5
new force of gravitation will be 8. The potential energy of a system of four
(4) All of these
NCERT Pg. 187] particles each of mass m, placed at vertices
2. A planet of mass m revolved around the sun 40 of a square of side a is [NCERT Pg. 192]
(1) 10 mN (2) mN
of mass M in an elliptical orbit. The maximum 3 Gm 2 Gm 2
and minimum distance of the planet form the (1) −(4 + 2) (2) −4
30 a a
sun are r and 3r respectively. The time (3) mN (4) Can’t say
4 Gm 2 4Gm
period of the planet is proportional to (3) −4 2 (4) −
[NCERT Pg. 184] 5. Three equal masses of 3 kg each are fixed a a
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC. 9. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of
3
The gravitational force acting on mass 2 kg radius 2RE around the earth. The energy
(1) r3 (2) (2r ) 2 placed at the centroid of triangle is required to transfer it to a circular orbit of
2 [NCERT Pg. 187] radius 4RE is [NCERT Pg.196]
(3) 4r (4) (4r ) 3 (1) Zero mgRE 7
(1) (2) mgRE
(2) 6.67 × 10–3 N 2 8
3. Two point masses m and 9m are separated
by a distance d on a line. A third point mass (3) 9 × 10–9 N mgRE mgRE
(3) (4)
of 1 kg is to be placed at a point on the line (4) Data is insufficient 8 4
such that the net gravitational force on it is 6. An object is projected from earth’s surface, 10. If the gravitational potential at the surface of
zero. with speed half of the escape speed of earth, earth is V0, then potential at a point at height
then maximum height attained by it is equal to radius of earth is [NCERT Pg. 192]
[NCERT Pg. 192] V0
(1) V0 (2)
RE RE 2
The distance of 1 kg mass from mass m is (1) (2)
2 3 V0 V0
(3) (4)
[NCERT Pg. 187] (3) RE (4) 2RE 3 4
38 Gravitation NCERT Maps
11. A satellite revolving around earth has (1) 31.7 km/s 18. A Geostationary satellite is orbiting at a
potential energy – 2 MJ, then the binding height of 6RE above the surface of earth. The
(2) 24 km/s
energy of the satellite is [NCERT Pg.196] time period of another satellite at a height
(3) 22.4 km/s 2.5RE above the surface of earth is (RE is
(1) 1 MJ (2) 2 MJ
(4) Zero radius of earth) [NCERT Pg. 196]
(3) – 1 MJ (4) 8 MJ
15. The density of a newly invented planet is (1) 6 hours
12. Starting from the centre of earth having twice that of earth. The acceleration due to
radius RE, the variation is acceleration due (2) 6 2 hours
gravity at the surface of the planet is double
to gravity is best represented by the curve that at the surface of earth. If radius of earth 6
(3) hours
[NCERT Pg. 191] is RE, then the radius of the planet would be 2
[NCERT Pg. 190]
(4) 12 hours
R
(1) RE (2) E 19. A particle is projected vertically up with
(1) (2) 2
5
(3) 2RE (4) 4RE velocity v = gRE from earth surface.
4
16. For a satellite moving in a circular orbit The velocity of particle at height equal to the
around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy maximum height reached by it is
(3) (4)
to the magnitude of potential energy is [NCERT Pg.196]
[NCERT Pg. 196]
13. A body weighs 90 N on the surface of earth. gRE gRE
(1) (2)
1 4 3
The gravitational force on it due to earth at a (1) 1 (2)
height equal to half the radius of earth is
2
gRE
[NCERT Pg. 190] 1 (3) (4) Zero
(3) 2 (4) 5
(1) 81 N (2) 40 N 4
20. When energy of a satellite-Earth system is
(3) 45 N (4) 30 N 17. A point mass m is placed inside a spherical
non-zero positive, then satellite will
shell of mass M and radius R. The
14. The escape speed of a projectile on the gravitational force experienced by the point [NCERT Pg.196]
earth surface is 11.2 km/s. A body is mass is [NCERT Pg. 189] (1) Move around the earth in circular orbit
projected out with three times of escape
speed. The speed of body far away from the GMm GMm (2) Just escape out
(1) (2)
earth is (Ignore the presence of sun and R2 2R 2
(3) Move around the earth in elliptical orbit
other planets) 2GMm
(3) (4) Zero (4) Escape out with speed some interstellar
[NCERT Pg. 202] R2 speed
NCERT Maps Gravitation 39
1. All planets move in ______ orbits with the 9. If we go down a distance d, below the 15. When orbit of a satellite is elliptical, both KE
Sun situated at one of the foci. earth’s surface, the acceleration due to and PE vary from point to point but total
[NCERT Pg. 184] gravity becomes ______ of g at the surface. energy remains ______ and negative as in
2. Law of area is the consequence of [NCERT Pg. 191] the circular orbit case. [NCERT Pg. 196]
conservation of ______ [NCERT Pg. 185] 10. The acceleration due to gravity at the centre 16. Polar satellite are low altitude satellites
3. The force on a point mass (m1) due to of earth is ______.
having h ≈ ______. [NCERT Pg. 197]
another point mass (m2) separated by [NCERT Pg. 191]
 17. The satellite in a circular orbits around the
distance d is | F |= ______. 11. The gravitational potential energy
earth in the equatorial plane with T = 24
[NCERT Pg. 187] associated with two particles of masses m1
hours in same sense of rotation as of earth
4. Gravitational force is ______ in nature. and m2 separated by a distance r is ______.
is called ______ satellite.
[NCERT Pg. 192]
[NCERT Pg. 188]
[NCERT Pg. 196]
12. For a circular orbit near the earth’s surface,
5. The force of attraction due to a hollow
the relation between escape velocity ve and 18. Inside an orbiting satellite, everything is in
spherical shell of uniform density, on a point
orbital velocity v0 will be ______. state of ______. [NCERT Pg. 198]
mass situated ______ is zero
[NCERT Pg. 189] NCERT Pg. 194] 19. The INSAT group of satellite sent up by
6. The value of G is ______. [NCERT Pg. 189] 13. For a satellite near the earth’s surface, time India are one of the group of Geostationary
Re satellites widely used for ______ in India.
7. If earth is assumed to be of uniform mass period of satellite is T0 = 2π , which is
g
density ρ, then gravitational acceleration g [NCERT Pg. 197]
nearly equal to ______. [NCERT Pg. 194]
is given as ______. [NCERT Pg. 190] 20. Time period of geostationary satellite is
8. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a 14. From Kepler’s third law, for earth satellite T2
24 h, while that of polar satellite is about
height h(h<<Re) above the surface of earth = K(Re +h)3. Here K is given as ______.
______. [NCERT Pg. 197]
is ______. [NCERT Pg. 191] [NCERT Pg. 194]
  
Mechanical Properties of Solids
9
Chapter
1 ELASTICITY AND PLASTICITY 3 HOOKE’S LAW 5 VARIOUS OF MODULUS OF 7 ELASTIC POTENTIAL ENERGY
m Elasticity : Property of a body to regain its original shape and ELASTICITY (IN A STRETCHED WIRE)
size, on removing the deforming force Stress µ strain
(a) Young’s Modulus 1 YA × DL
2
1 FDL
m Plasticity: The inability of a body to regain its original size and Stress = k strain U= =
longitudinal stress FL 2 L 2
shape on the removal of the deforming forces Y = longitudinal strain =
k = modulus of elasticity ADL 1
2 STRESS AND STRAIN = × stress × strain × volume
6 POISSON’S RATIO (b) Bulk Modulus 2
Restoring force
= F unit : N m
–2
m Stress = Elastic potential energy per unit volume
Area A Lateral strain (Dd/d) hydraulic stress
s = Longitudinal strain
= (DL/L) B= 1 1 s
(a) Longitudinal stress : volume strain
u= stress × strain = e
Tensile stress : When a cylinder is stretched by two equal forces 2 2
Dd : Contraction in diameter p
normal to its cross-sectional area the restoring force per unit area of stretched wire. =–
(Dv/v) 8 APPLICATIONS OF ELASTIC
is called Tensile stress.
Compressive stress : If the cylinder is compressed under the 1 BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS
4 STRESS - STRAIN CURVE Compressibility k = B
action of applied forces, the restoring force per unit area is called m For a metal m Minimum area of cross - section of
compressive stress. su
Proportional limit D (c) Shear modulus or wire of crane
(b) Tagential stress (or shear stress) : The restoring force per unit yield point E modulus of rigidity
Fracture
area developed due to applied tangential force is called sy point
Mg
B C shearing stress FL A=
tangential or shearing stress. A G = shearing strain = A D x sy
(c) Hydraulic stress : It is the restoring force per unit area. When a
Stress
body under high pressure is compressed uniformly on all sides, Y m Designing beams for bridges
the magnitude is equal to hydraulic pressure. For most materials, G =
3
Change in dimension (No unit) Permanent set
m Strain =
Original dimension 0 30%
F Strain
<1%
O to A : linear curve(Hooke’s Law)
DL
(a) Longitudinal strain = L + DL A : Proportional limit
L L
B : Yield point(elastic limit) ® Corresponding stress is yield strength(sy)
D : Ultimate tensile strength (su)
(a) F E : Fracture point
m Material is brittle if D and E are close and ductile if D and E are far apart
Dx Wl3
(b) Shear strain = = tan q d =
L (4bd3Y)
m For an elastomer
Stress (106 N m–2)
1.0
(b) (c) Very large elastic region, even
d µ d–3
if material does not obey
0.5 So I shaped beam is preferred
Hooke’s law and there is no well
DV defined plastic region. m Maximum height of a mountain
(c) Volume strain =
V 0
0 0.5 1.0 E , E is elastic limit
h=
(d) Strain rg
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Solids 41
1. Which of the following materials is/are close 6. For most materials [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] (1) 3Y
to ideal plastics? [NCERT, XI Pg. 235] Y Y
(1) G ≈ (2) G ≈ (2) Y/3
(1) Putty (2) Mud 3 2
(3) 3Y
(3) Steel (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) G ≈ 3Y (4) G ≈ 2Y
(4) 2Y
2. The restoring mechanism in solids can be 7. The strain perpendicular to the applied force
11. The volume contraction of a solid copper
visualized by taking a model of is called [NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to
[NCERT, XI Pg. 236] (1) Longitudinal strain (2) Volume strain a hydraulic pressure of 107 Pa is
(3) Lateral strain (4) Shear strain (B = 140 × 109 N m–2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(1) Spring-ball system (2) Atwood machine
8. For aluminium alloys Poisson’s ratio is (1) 0.07 cm3
(3) Plum - Pudding (4) Liquid - Drop
about [NCERT, XI Pg. 244] (2) 0.03 cm3
3. Bulk modulus is relevant for (1) 0.20 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.02 cm3
[NCERT, XI Pg. 246] (3) 0.33 (4) 0.40 (4) 0.01 cm3
(1) Solids only (2) Solid 9. The average depth of Indian ocean is about 12. The stress-strain graphs for materials A and
(3) Fluids (4) Both (2) & (3) ∆V B are as shown in figure
3000 m. The fractional compression, , of
V
4. The strain produced by a hydraulic pressure
water at the bottom of the ocean is
is called [NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
(B = 2 × 109 N m–2, g = 10 m s–2)
(1) Longitudinal strain
[NCERT, XI Pg. 243]
(2) Shearing strain
(1) 1.5% (2) 2.5%
(3) Volume strain (3) 4% (4) 3% The correct statement is
(4) Both (1) & (2) 10. In the graph shown, if the Young’s Modulus [NCERT, XI Pg. 247]
5. The ratio of stress and strain, within of material A is Y, then the Young’s Modulus (1) A is having greater Young’s modulus
proportional limit is called for material B is [NCERT, XI Pg. 238] and B is stronger
[NCERT, XI Pg. 239] (2) B is having greater Young’s modulus
(1) Modulus of elasticity and A is stronger
(2) Compressibility (3) B is having greater Young’s modulus

and it is stronger as well
(3) Poisson’s ratio
(4) A is having greater Young’s modulus
(4) Both (2) & (3) and it is stronger as well
42 Mechanical Properties of Solids NCERT Maps
13. The edge of an aluminum cube is 10 cm.
One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a
vertical wall. A mass of 100 kg is attached
to the opposite face of the cube. The vertical
deflection of this face is (G = 25 × 109 Pa)
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(1) 4 × 10–7 m (2) 3 × 10–6 m [NCERT, XI Pg. 249]
(3) 2 × 10–6 m (4) 1 × 10–6 m [NCERT, XI Pg. 249] x2 x2
(1) (2)
14. A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported (1) 70 cm (2) 35 cm L2 2L2
symmetrically by three wires each 2.0 m
(3) 65 cm (4) 40 cm x 2x 2
long. Those at each end are of copper and (3) (4)
the middle one is of iron. If tension in each L L2
17. In Q16, the distance x from left end to
rod is same, the ratio of diameters is nearly 20. Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made
produce equal strains is
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248] of steel and the other made of brass are
[NCERT, XI Pg. 249] loaded as shown in the figure. The unloaded
(1) 6 (2) 0.8
(1) 70 cm (2) 43.2 cm length of steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass
(3) 4.2 (4) 2.0
wire is 1.0 m. The ratio of tensile stress in
15. The density of water at a depth where (3) 65 cm (4) 35 cm steel to brass wire is (g = 10 m/s2)
pressure is 80.0 atm (Given density at the
18. A 15 kg mass, fastened to the end of a steel
surface is 1.03 × 103 kg m–3, B = 2.2 ×
wire of unstretched length 1.0 m, is whirled
109 N m–2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
in a vertical circle with an angular velocity of
(1) 1.034 × 103 kg m–3 4π radian/s at the bottom of the circle. The
(2) 1.34 × 103 kg m–3 cross-sectional area of the wire is 0.065
cm2. The elongation of the wire when the
(3) 1.64 × 103 kg m–3
mass is at the lowest point is (g = 10 m/s2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(4) 2.084 × 103 kg m–3
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248] 5
16. A rod of length 1.05 m having negligible (1)
9
mass is supported at its ends by two wires (1) 1.93 mm (2) 2.05 mm
of steel (wire A) and aluminum (wire B) of 5
(3) 1.65 mm (4) 3.05 mm (2)
equal lengths as shown in figure. The cross- 2
sectional areas of wire A and B are 2.0 mm2 19. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-
sectional area A is stretched, within elastic 3
and 4.0 mm2, respectively. The distance x (3)
limit, horizontally between two pillars as 2
from left end, where a mass m is suspended
shown in the figure. A mass m is suspended
in order to produce equal stresses, is 4
from the mid-point of the wire. Strain in the (4)
(Ysteel = 2×1011 N m–2, YAl = 7×1010 N m–2) wire is 3
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Solids 43
1. Stress is defined as _______ per unit area 9. Compressibility K and Bulk modulus B are 15. Metals have _______ values of Young’s
[NCERT, XI Pg. 236] related as K = _______ modulus than elastomers. [NCERT Pg. 247]
2. A class of solids called _______ does not [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] 16. When a massless wire is suspended from
obey Hooke’s Law. [NCERT, XI Pg. 239] ceiling and stretched under the action of a
10. The elastic potential energy per unit volume
3. Our feeling that a material which stretches weight F suspended from its other end,
in terms of longitudinal strain σ and Young’s
more is more _______ is a misnomer. tension at any cross-section is _______.
modulus Y is _______.
[NCERT, XI Pg. 247] [NCERT Pg. 246]
[NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
4. _______ modulus is relevant for solid, liquid 17. Stress is vector quantity. (True/False)
and gases. [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] 11. Rubber is _______ elastic than steel.
[NCERT Pg. 247]
5. The elastic potential energy per unit volume [NCERT, XI Pg. 239]
18. The Young’s modulus and shear modulus
1 12. _______ are most compressible.
is equals to × stress × _______. are relevant only for _______.
2
[NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
13. A pillar with rounded ends supports 19. A force F is required to break a wire of length
6. If ultimate tensile strength and fracture point
_______ load than that with distributed l and radius r. The force required to break a
are close, the material is called _______.
shape at the ends. [NCERT Pg. 245] wire of same material and same length,
[NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
14. A bar of length l, breadth b, and depth d, having twice the radius is _______.
7. On stress-strain curve, yield point is also
when loaded at the centre by a load W sags [NCERT Pg. 238]
called _______ limit [NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
by an amount δ . This δ is proportional to
8. For steel, the value of Poisson’s ratio is in 20. If ultimate tensile strength and fracture point
dn. The value of n is _______.
between _______ and _______. are far apart, then material is said to be
[NCERT Pg. 245] _______. [NCERT Pg. 238]
[NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
  
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
10
Chapter
1 PRESSURE 4 ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE 6 BERNOULLI'S EQUATION

m Average pressure is defined as the normal force acting m Loss of weight of a body submerged (partially or m It states that for a steady flow of an ideal fluid, the sum of
per unit area completely) in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid pressure energy per unit volume (P), kinetic energy per
F displaced.
Pav = rb unit volume and potential energy per unit volume remains
A Weight of fluid displaced = rl Vs g = FB
constant.
DF If rb < rl; then body will float rl
P = Lim , It is a scalar quantity. 2
P + 1/2 rv + rgh = constant
DA ® 0 DA
m Phenomenons associated: Heart attack, magnus effect
If rb = rl; body will just float with fully submerged
2 VARIATION OF PRESSURE WITH DEPTH and aerofoil (lift of aircraft)
If rb > rl; then body will sink m Venturi-meter: It is a device used to measure the flow
Pressure difference
speed of incompressible fluid.
P2 – P1 = rgh 1
m Law of Floatation
Vs rb
If point 1 is at free surface of liquid For Floating object = 2 rm gh A –1
2 –1/2
h Vb rl v1 =
then P2 = Pa + rgh mg r a
Fraction of vol. submerged = ratio of density of body and
2
P – Pa = rgh (called gauge pressure) fluid
m Instruments used to measure pressure
m Buoyant Force a
A v1 v2 v1
Pa Buoyant force is equal to weight of the fluid displaced.
Pg Buoyant force depends on geff

h Pa h
h Buoyant force acts opposite to geff Liquid of
A B density rm.
rb h
rl
m Speed of efflux: Torricelli's Law
Mercury barometer The open tube
used to measure manometer, used to measure A1v1 = A2v2, if v2 << v1
atmospheric pressure pressure of gas
5 STREAMLINE FLOW
Pa = rgh Pg = Pa + rgh 2(P – Pa)
m The flow is said to be steady if at any given point, the v1 = 2gh + r
velocity of each passing fluid particle remains constant in A2
3 PASCAL'S LAW When P >> Pa and 2gh may be P2 = P
time. The path taken by fluid particle under steady flow m
m When ever an external pressure is applied on any part of a called streamline. ignored. A1
fluid contained in a vessel, it is transmitted undiminished m Equation of continuity: In stream line flow, mass of liquid m On the other hand tank is open
v1
and equally in all directions. coming out equals to the mass of liquid flowing in to atmosphere, then P = Pa Pa
Devices based on Pascal's law A1v1 = A2v2
v1 = 2gh
(i) Hydraulic lift (ii) Hydraulic brakes It is based on conservation of mass.
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Fluids 45
7 VISCOSITY 10 SURFACE TENSION 12 DROPS AND BUBBLES

m The property of fluid due to which it opposes relative m Surface: It is the thickness of few molecular size. m Pinside > Poutside (For liquid-gas interface, the convex side
motion between its different layers in steady flow called m Surface Tension: The property of liquid by which the free has lower pressure than on concave side.)
viscosity. surface of liquid at rest tends to have minimum surface
l Liquid drop, air bubble in water have one surfaces so,
m Tangential force between the layer area called surface tension.
dv Surface tension can be defined as the force per unit length DAeff = DAGeo
F = –hA
dr v + dv on imaginary line drawn at the surface of liquid
h = coefficient of viscosity P0 P0 P0
F
Shearing stress v S=
h= r r + dr l Pi Pi
m Pi
Shear strain rate r
m Surface tension of a liquid falls with temperature.
m SI unit is poiseiulle (rl).
m Surface energy: Molecules on the surface of liquid have Drop Cavity Bubble
some extra potential energy in comparison to molecules in 2S 2S 4S
8 STOKE'S LAW the interior. A liquid thus tends to have minimum surface Pi – P0 = Pi – P0 = Pi – P0 =
r r r
4 3 area.
m The viscous force acting on a spherical FB = pr sg
3
body of radius a. F = –6phav
FV
11 SURFACE ENERGY AND SURFACE TENSION 13 CAPILLARITY
m Terminal velocity: FV = 6pr hv
2
2 r (r – s)g 4 3 m Work done in increasing d m When a capillary tube is dipped in any liquid then liquid
vt = W = pr rg
9 h 3 surface area. either rise or fall inside the capillary tube.
r = density of sphere material Height of liquid column rise or fall inside a capillary tube is
v W = S(DAeff) l DA m
s = density of fluid l Thin film, liquid bubble have

vt 2Scosq
two surfaces so, h=
m Variation of Velocity with Time a rg
t DAeff = 2DAGeo. 1
hµ
m Angle of contact: a
Sla Pa
9 REYNOLDS NUMBER (Re):
q
Sla
Inertial force q q h
Re = (dimensionless) a
Viscous force
Ssa Ssl Ssa Ssl
r vd At the point of contact, the angle between tangent planes
Re = h m
drawn at the surface of liquid and at surface of solid inside
Where v = velocity of liquid liquid called angle of contact.
r = density of liquid l If q < 90° ® Surface will be concave, liquid stick to solid m In a tube of insufficient length, liquid will rise to the top of
and rise in capillary. capillary, increase radius of curvature and stay there.
m The flow is turbulent for Re > 2000.
l If q > 90° ® Surface will be convex, liquid does not stick Never comes out in the form of fountain.
m Flow is unsteady for Re between 1000 and 2000. to solid and fall in capillary.
m This is consequence of pressure difference across a
m Flow is streamline for Re less than 1000. l If q = 90° ® Surface will be plane, liquid does not stick to curved liquid air interface a well known effect that water
m Critical Reynold number is one at which turbulence sets. solid neither rise nor fall in capillary.
rises up in narrow tube inspite of gravity.
m Reynold number helps study nature of fluid flow. l Water forms droplets over a lotus leaf while spreads
m Turbulence dissipates kinetic energy in the form of heat. over a clean plastic plate.
46 Mechanical Properties of Fluids NCERT Maps
1. The energy required for having a molecule (3) The velocity of all fluid particles at a 7. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with
at the surface of liquid is [NCERT Pg. 261] given instant is constant [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) Heat of evaporation (4) The speed of all fluid particle at any (1) High density and high viscosity
instant must be constant
(2) Roughly half the heat of evaporation (2) Low density and low viscosity
5. Which of the following statements is
(3) Heat capacity
incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 257] (3) High density and low viscosity
(4) Roughly half of heat capacity of liquid (1) Blood is more viscous than water (4) Low density and high viscosity
2. Which of the following conversion is correct? (2) The blood pressure in humans is greater 8. The ratio of inertial force to the viscous force
[NCERT Pg. 250] at the feet than at the brain represents [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) 1 atm = 1.01 × 104 Pa (3) The angle of contact of mercury with (1) Magnus effect
(2) 1 mm of Hg = 133 Pa glass is obtuse while that of water with
glass is acute (2) Reynold's number
(3) 1 bar = 107 Pa
(4) A spinning cricket ball in air follows a (3) Relative density
(4) 1 torr = 102 Pa
parabolic trajectory
(4) Torricelli's law
3. Pressure is equal to [NCERT Pg. 247] 6. A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in
9. The onset of turbulence in a liquid is
(1) It is product of force and area and both an enclosure as shown in figure. The
determined by [NCERT Pg. 260]
force and area are vectors absolute and gauge pressure of the gas (in
cm of mercury) in the enclosure is (1) Pascal's law
(2) It is the ratio of force which is a vector
and parallel to area (2) Avogadro number
(3) It is ratio of the component of force (3) Stoke's law
normal to area
(4) Reynold's number
(4) It depends on size of area chosen
10. A plane is in level flight and each of its wings
(Take atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
4. Along a streamline in flow has an area 20 m2. If the speed of air on
[NCERT Pg. 250] upper and lower surfaces are 80 m/s and 70
[NCERT Pg. 253]
(1) 76, 20 m/s respectively, then the mass of plane is
(1) The velocity of a fluid particle remains
(density of air = 1 kg/m3) [NCERT Pg. 271]
constant (2) 20, 76
(3) 96, 20 (1) 1500 kg (2) 1700 kg
(2) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing
a given position is constant (4) 20, 96 (3) 1650 kg (4) 1750 kg
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Fluids 47
11. Which of the following instrument is used to 14. When a drop of water splits up into number 17. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid,
measure blood pressure in humans? of droplets [NCERT Pg. 264] the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The
[NCERT Pg. 273] free liquid surface in the tube is
(1) Surface area will increase hemispherical in shape. The tube is now
(1) Sphygmomanometer (2) Volume decreases pushed down so the height of the tube
outside the liquid is less than h. Then the
(2) Cardioverter defibrillator (3) Energy is absorbed [NCERT Pg. 265]
(3) Barometer (4) Both (1) and (3) (1) Liquid will come out of the tube in the
15. Which of the following statement is not true form of small fountain
(4) Syphnometer
about angle of contact? [NCERT Pg. 263] (2) Liquid will ooze out of the tube slowly
12. When temperature increases, the viscosity
(1) The angle of contact for pure water and (3) Free liquid surface inside the tube
of [NCERT Pg. 259] remain hemispherical
glass is nearly zero
(1) Gases decreases and liquids increases (4) Liquid will rise to the top of capillary tube
(2) Angle of contact may increase with
increase the radius of curved surface
(2) Gases increases and liquid decreases increase in temperature and stay there
(3) Both gases and liquids increases (3) If the angle of contact of a liquid and a 18. Dynamic lift due to spinning of a ball is
(4) Both gases and liquids decreases solid surface is less than 90°, then liquid [NCERT Pg. 257]
spread on surface of solid
13. Which of the following figure shown below is (1) Magnus effect (2) Doppler's effect
(4) Angle of contact depends upon the (3) Pascal effect (4) Torricelli effect
correct regarding the steady flow of an ideal
inclination of the solid surface to the
liquid? [NCERT Pg. 269] 19. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity v
liquid surface in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum, then
16. A soap bubble is having internal and [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) external radii as R and 2R respectively. If (1) Terminal velocity of sphere is equal to v
surface tension of soap solution is T, then (2) Terminal velocity of sphere is greater
excess pressure inside bubble will be than v
[NCERT Pg. 264] (3) Terminal velocity of sphere is less than v
(2)
4T (4) Sphere will never attain terminal velocity
(1)
R 20. The sap in tree rises in a system of
capillaries of radius 2.5 × 10–5 m.
3T
(3) (2) The surface tension of sap is 7.28 × 10–2 N/m
R and the angle of contact is 0°. The maximum
2T height to which sap can rise in a tree through
(3) capillary action is (density of sap is = 1 ×
R
103 kg/m3) [NCERT Pg. 265]
(4) 4T
(4) (1) 0.21 m (2) 0.59 m
3R (3) 0.87 m (4) 0.91 m
48 Mechanical Properties of Fluids NCERT Maps
1. Shearing stress of fluids is about _______ 8. Steady flow is achieved at _______ flow 14. The dynamic lift due to spinning is called
times smaller than that of solids. speeds. [NCERT Pg. 253] _______. [NCERT Pg. 257]
[NCERT Pg. 246] 15. In fluids, the stress is found experimentally
9. In laminar flow velocities at different points
2. Force due to pressure on a surface is to depends on _______.
in the fluid may have _______ but their
_______ to the surface. directions are _______. [NCERT Pg. 254] [NCERT Pg. 258]
[NCERT Pg. 247] 16. Relative viscosity (η/ηwater) of blood remains
10. Bernoulli's equation is a general expression
3. The excess pressure (P – Pa) at depth h in that relates the pressure difference between constant between temperature _______.
liquid is called _______ at that point. two points in a pipe to both _______ and [NCERT Pg. 259]
[NCERT Pg. 248] _______. [NCERT Pg. 254] 17. In a turbulent flow, the velocity of the fluids
4. In manometer for measuring small pressure 11. A fluid flowing out of a small hole in a vessel at any point in space varies _______ and
differences we use _______ density liquids. results in a _______ on the vessel. _______ with time. [NCERT Pg. 260]
[NCERT Pg. 250]
[NCERT Pg. 268] 18. Turbulence promotes mixing and increase
5. Whenever external pressure is applied on the rates of transfer of _______, momentum
any part of a fluid contained in a vessel it is 12. The venturimeter is a device to measure the and _______.
transmitted _______ and _______ in all _______ of incompressible fluid.
[NCERT Pg. 261]
directions. [NCERT Pg. 251] [NCERT Pg. 256]
19. The pressure at the concave surface of
6. In steady flow at any given point, the velocity
13. The speed of flow of the blood in an artery liquid is _______ than, that at the convex
of each passing fluid particle _______ in
in a region of constriction is raised which surface. [NCERT Pg. 266]
time. [NCERT Pg. 253]
lowers the _______ inside the artery and it 20. The coefficient of viscosity for a fluid is
7. Equation of continuity is a statement of may collapse due to _______. defined as the ratio of _______.
_______ in flow of incompressible fluids.
[NCERT Pg. 253] [NCERT Pg. 257] [NCERT Pg. 267]
  
Thermal Properties of Matter
11
Chapter
1 TEMPERATURE 2 HEAT 3 CALORIMETRY 5 CHANGE OF STATE

m Temperature is a relative measure of A form of energy transferred between two or m Heat lost by a part at higher temperature is
hotness or coldness. more systems by virtue of temperature equal to heat gained by the part at lower m Change of state from solid to liquid is
difference. temperature. called melting or fusion.
m Heat transfer takes place between system
and surrounding medium until they are at Thermal Expansion m Calorimetry means measurement of heat. m Change of state from liquid to vapour is
same temperature. m A change in temperature of a body m A device in which heat measurement can be called vaporisation
m Measure of temperature is obtained using a causes change in its dimensions. done is called a calorimeter. CHANGE
m OF STATEat
The temperature ONwhich
HEATtheSUPPLY
liquid
thermometer. and vapour states of substance
Three types of expansion 4 HEAT CAPACITY
m Some properties of material change with coexist is called its Boiling point.
The change in temperature of a substance, when
temperature to be used as basis of Boiling point increases with increase in
1. Linear Expansion a given quantity of heat is absorbed or rejected is m
constructing thermometer. Dl 1
al = ´ characterised by a quantity called heat capacity. pressure and vice versa.
m For standard scale a fixed reference point l DT
m The change from solid state to vapour
is taken. DQ
S= state without passing through the
m A relationship for conversion between DT
Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scale is 2. Area Expansion liquid state is called sublimation and
t F - 32 t Specific heat capacity substance is said to sublime.
= c DA 1
180 100 aa = ´ Latent heat
A DT This is unique value of heat absorbed or given
m A temperature –273.15°C is designated as off, to change unit mass of it by one unit m Amount of heat transferred during
absolute zero. This is foundation of Kelvin aa = 2al temperature change. change of state of substance is called
temperature scale. For anisotropic solid aa = al1 + al2 its latent heat.
m Size of unit of Kelvin and Celsius 3. Volume Expansion s=
S
=
1 DQ
DQ
temperature scales is the same. Relation m m DT L= J kg –1
M
between scales is DV 1
aV = ´ Molar specific heat
V DT L depends on pressure.
TK = tC + 273.15 m
If the amount of substance is specified in terms m Solid-liquid state change ® Latent

m aV is constant only at high temperature of moles heat of fusion (Lf)
6 TRIPLE POINT we define heat capacity per mole
P The temperature and pressure at which m Pyrex glass and invar has low aV. m Liquid-gas state change ® Latent heat
(atm)
A
the fusion curve, the vaporisation curve m Alcohol has high volume expansion S 1 æ DQ ö -1 -1 of vaporisation (Lv)
C= = ç J mol K
and the sublimation curve meet and all coefficient than mercury. m m è DT ÷ø
the three phases of a substance coexist 1 5
22.6 × 10 J/kg
m aV = for ideal gases For gases two molar specific heat (540 kcal/kg)
T Boiling Phase
218
Solid
C
(aV )gases > (aV )liquid > (aV )solids capacities point change
100 5
3.33 × 10 J/kg Gas
Liquid AO ® Fusion curve
Temperature (°C)
(80 kcal/kg) phase
BO ® Sublimation curve m When a solid rod has its ends rigidly Molar specific heat Molar specific heat Melting Phase
(steam)
point change Liquid phase
O CO ® Vaporisation curve fixed, it results in thermal stress in capacity at constant capacity at constant 0 (water)
0.006 B Vapour material which is proportional to pressure CP volume CV Solid phase
B temperature change. (ice)
–220 0.01 374 T(°C)
Thermal Stress = Y×al×DT
Pressure-temperature phase diagrams for water CP – CV = R (for ideal gases)
50 Thermal Properties of Matter NCERT Maps
HEAT TRANSFER MODES
7 CONDUCTION 8 CONVECTION 9 RADIATION
m It is a mechanism of heat transfer between In convection mode heat transfer by actual motion of matter occurs. m This heat transfer mechanism needs
adjacent parts of a body due to temperature m Convection occurs in fluids only. no medium.
difference. m Two types of convections are m Energy transferred by waves is called
m At steady state, the temperature of bar, through 1. Natural convection radiant energy.
which heat is flowing, decreases with distance, 2. Forced convection m Heat transferred from sun to earth is
and heat starts flowing at a constant rate. m Trade winds is example of natural convection in which gravity plays an important role. by radiation.
m The rate of flow of heat m In forced convection material is forced to move by a pump. Human circulatory m Radiations emitted by hot bodies are
system, cooling system of automobile engine are forced convection method. called thermal radiations.
æ T - TC ö
H = KA ç H ÷
è L ø
L LAWS OF RADIATIONS
H Conduction 10 Wien's Displacement Law 11 Stefan-Boltzmann's Law
TH TC Convection Wavelength for which radiation For a black body which is perfect
energy is maximum decreases with radiator energy emitted per unit
TH = Hot end Temperature time is given as
increasing temperature.
TC = Cold end Temperature 4
lmT = constant H=AsT
L = Length of rod Radiation
Value of constant (Wien's constant) A is area, T is absolute temperature
A = Cross -section of rod
o f b o d y, s i s c a l l e d S t e f a n
K is called thermal conductivity of material. –3
is 2.9 × 10 m K. Boltzmann's constant
m Greater value of K for a material, more rapidly m This law is used to measure –8 –2 –4
–1 –1
loge (T2 – T1) s = 5.67 × 10 Wm K
will it conduct heat. Its SI units are Wm K surface temperature of celestial
DT(°C) m But if a body is surrounded by
bodies like stars, moon and sun.
surroundings at temperature Ts.
12 Newton's law of cooling time For perfect radiator net rate of heat
O time
cooling curve radiated
Rate of heat loss of a body is directly H = sA(T 4 - Ts4 )
proportional to difference of temperature of Average method
Change in temperature
dQ = kDT m For body with emissivity e
body and surroundings. - = k (TB - TS ) time
dt modified relation is
m This law holds for small temperature DT = (Tav – Ts) 0<e£l
difference only. H = esA(T 4 - Ts4 )
loge (T2 – T1) = –kt + C
13 Greenhouse effect: The absorption of infrared waves by greenhouse gases such as CO2, methane (CH4) nitrous dude (N2O) chlorofluorocarbon (CFxClx) and ozone (O3). Heating of
atmosphere ® More energy to earth ® Warmer surface. Without Greenhouse effect temperature of earth would have been –18°C
NCERT Maps Thermal Properties of Matter 51
1. A rod of length 5 m is prevented from 4. The property of water that has important 7. Which of the following graph gives the
thermal expansion by fixing its ends rigidly. environmental effect on marine life is correct dependency of coefficient of volume
Its cross-sectional area is 40 cm2. [NCERT Pg. 282] expansion of copper with temperature?
Calculate thermal stress developed on a (1) Low viscosity [NCERT Pg. 281]
temperature rise of 20°C, if Y = 2 × 1011
(2) Low thermal conductivity
Nm–2 and α = 1.2 × 10–5 K–1.
(3) High heat capacity (1)
[NCERT Pg. 283]
(4) Maximum density at 4°C
(1) 2.4 × 103 N m–2
5. Coefficient of volume expansion of ideal
(2) 2.4 × 107 N m–2 gases at constant pressure and at
(3) 4.8 × 107 N m–2 temperature T K is equal to
[NCERT Pg. 282]
(4) 5.6 × 107 N m–2
1 (2)
2. A blacksmith fixes iron ring on rim of woods (1)
T
wheel of a cart. The diameter of rim and iron
ring are 3.243 m and 3.231 m respectively (2) T
at 27°C. To what temperature should ring be 1
(3)
heated to fit on rim? (α = 1.2 × 10–5 K–1) T2
[NCERT Pg. 283]
(4) T
(1) 309.5°C (3)
6. Assertion: When hot water is poured in a
(2) 336.5°C beaker of thick glass, the beaker cracks.
(3) 412°C Reason: The beaker experiences unequal
expansion. [NCERT Pg. 280]
(4) 232.6°C
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
3. A temperature of 60°C in Fahrenheit scale is
reason is true explanation of assertion
equal to [NCERT Pg. 279]
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (4)
(1) 104°F reason is not correct explanation of
(2) 140°F assertion
(3) 119°F (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) 100°F (4) Both assertion and reason are false
8. The specific heat of a substance depends (1) 392.69 K, 391.98 K 14. Steam at 100°C causes more burns than
on [NCERT Pg. 284] (2) 362.3 K, 378.6 K boiling water at 100°C because
(1) Nature of substance [NCERT Pg. 289]
(3) 378.4 K, 375.4 K
(2) Temperature of the substance (1) Low specific heat of steam
(4) 387.5 K, 386.3 K
(3) Mass of the substance (2) Steam is in gaseous phase
11. Boiling water is converting into steam at
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Steam at 100°C carries more heat than
atmospheric pressure. The heat supplied is
9. An aluminium sphere of mass 47 gm is at now being utilised to change water from water at 100°C
100°C. It is then transferred to 140 gm liquid state to vapour state. Under this (4) Steam has low viscosity
copper calorimeter containing 250 gm of condition, specific heat of water is
water at 20°C. In steady state the 15. The incorrect statement among the
[NCERT Pg. 287] following is [NCERT Pg. 293]
temperature of water rises by 3°C. What is
specific heat of aluminium if that of copper is (1) Less than zero (1) Cooking pots have copper coating on
386 J kg–1 K–1? [NCERT Pg. 286] (2) Zero bottom to promote distribution of heat
(1) 911 J kg–1 K–1 quickly
(3) Slightly greater than zero
(2) 516 J kg–1 K–1 (2) Plastic foams are insulators because
(4) Infinite
they contain pockets of air
(3) 312 J kg–1 K–1
12. Certain amount of heat is given to 200 gm of (3) Convection can be forced or natural but
(4) 612 J kg–1 K–1 copper to increase its temperature by 20°C. is possible only in fluids
10. Two ideal gas thermometers A and B use If same amount of heat is given to 60 gm of
oxygen and hydrogen gas respectively. water, then rise in its temperature is (4) Trade winds is an example of forced
Following observation were made (Specific heat of copper = 385 J kg–1 K–1 and convection
Temperature Pressure Pressure water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1) [NCERT Pg. 289] 16. An iron bar of conductivity K1 = 79 W m–1
thermometer A thermometer K–1 and an identical brass bar of conductivity
(1) 4°C (2) 5°C
B K2 = 109 W m–1 K–1 are soldered end to end.
(3) 6°C (4) 9°C The free end of iron and brass bars are
Triple point of 1.25 × 105 Pa 2 × 104 Pa
water 13. When 150 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with maintained at 400 K and 300 K respectively.
Normal 1.797 × 105 Pa 2.87 × 104 Pa
300 gm of water at 50°C in a container, the What is temperature of junction of two bars?
melting point resulting temperature is [NCERT Pg. 292]
of sulphur
(Lf = 3.34 × 105 J kg–1, Sw = 4186 J kg–1 K–1) (1) 350 K
What is absolute temperature of normal (2) 342 K
[NCERT Pg. 289]
melting point of sulphur as read by
(1) 2.7°C (2) 3.7°C (3) 333 K
thermometer A and B respectively?
[NCERT Pg. 300] (3) 5.7°C (4) 6.7°C (4) 305 K
NCERT Maps Thermal Properties of Matter 53
17. When a piece of iron is heated in a hot 18. A tungsten lamp at a temperature of 3000 K (3) Square of area of the black body
flame, it first becomes dull red, then reddish has surface area of 0.3 cm2. If the lamp has (4) Square of temperature on Celsius scale.
yellow and finally white hot. This emissivity of 0.4, the rate of heat radiated is
20. A box filled with hot tea cools from 94°C to
phenomenon can be explained by [NCERT Pg. 295]
86°C in 4 minute, when room temperature is
(1) 40 W (2) 50 W
[NCERT Pg. 294] 40°C. How long will it take to cool from 71°C
(3) 90 W (4) 55 W to 69°C? [NCERT Pg. 297]
(1) Stefan- Boltzmann’s law 19. The amount of radiations emitted by a
(1) 10 minute
(2) Greenhouse effect perfectly black body is proportional to
[NCERT Pg. 295] (2) 3 minute
(3) Wien’s displacement law (1) Temperature on ideal gas scale (3) 100 second
(4) Newton’s law of cooling (2) Fourth power of temperature on ideal (4) 50 second
gas scale
1. Heat transfer takes place between system 5. With a constant volume gas thermometer, 10°C and coefficient of linear expansion is
and surrounding medium, until the body and temperature is read in terms of _______. 1.2 × 10–5 K–1. The thermal strain produced
surrounding medium are at same _______. [NCERT Pg. 280] is _______
[NCERT Pg. 278] 6. Coefficient of volume expansion of a [NCERT Pg. 283]
substance depends in general on 10. Coefficient of area expansion is _______
2. Heat is a form of energy transferred temperature, it becomes constant only at times its linear expansivity in solids.
between two systems or a system and _______ temperature [NCERT Pg. 281] [NCERT Pg. 283]
surroundings by virtue of _______.
7. Value of αν for alcohol (ethanol) is _______
[NCERT Pg. 279] 11. If equal amount of heat is added to equal
than mercury. [NCERT Pg. 282] masses of different substances, the
3. On the Fahrenheit scale, there are _______ 8. The volume of a given amount of water resulting temperature change will be
equal intervals between two reference _______ as it is cooled from room different. [NCERT Pg. 284]
points and on the Celsius scale, there are temperature until its temperature reaches
_______. [NCERT Pg. 279] (1) True (2) False
4°C. Below 4°C, the density _______.
4. If Fahrenheit is plotted along y-axis and [NCERT Pg. 282] 12. Specific heat capacity of a substance
Celsius temperature on x-axis, the shape of depends on nature of substance and its
9. Consider a steel rail of length 5 m and area
graph obtained is a _______. mass. [NCERT Pg. 284]
of cross-section 40 cm2 that is prevented
[NCERT Pg. 279] from expansion. Its temperature rises by (1) True (2) False
13. Water is used as a coolant in automobile 16. Boiling point of water inside the cooker is [NCERT Pg. 293]
radiators as well as a heater in hot water ______ by increasing the pressure. 19. The amount of heat that a body can absorb
bags due to its ______ specific heat [NCERT Pg. 288] by radiation depends on the colour of the
capacity. [NCERT Pg. 285] 17. The heat required during a change of state body. This statement is [NCERT Pg. 294]
14. The temperature at which the liquid and the of substance depends upon the heat of (1) True
vapour states of the substance co-exist is transformation and mass of substance
(2) False
called its _______. [NCERT Pg. 287] undergoing the change. [NCERT Pg. 289]
20. The wavelength (λm) for which energy
15. The temperature and pressure at which the (1) True (2) False
radiated by a hot body is maximum
fusion curve, the vaporisation curve and 18. Cooling system of an automobile engine, decreases with increasing temperature.
sublimation curve meet and all three phases human circulatory system, heating system This statement is related with _______ law.
coexist is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 287] in homes are examples of ______. [NCERT Pg. 295]
  
Thermodynamics
12
Chapter
1 THERMODYNAMIC EQUILIBRIUM 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY 6 THERMODYNAMIC STATE VARIABLES

m Temperature of a body is related to its average internal m Molar specific heat at constant volume. m Thermodynamic state variables describe equilibrium state of
energy, not to kinetic energy of motion of centre of mass. system. These state variables are not necessarily independent.
æ DQ ö æ DU ö
CV = ç ÷ =ç ÷ m The connection among state variables is called equation of state.
m Equilibrium in thermodynamics refer to situation when è DT øV è DT ø
macroscopic variables defining thermodynamic state of m Equilibrium state of thermodynamic system is described by state
m Molar specific heat at constant pressure variables. The value of state variable depends on particular state
system don't depend on time. not by the path used to arrive that state. Pressure, volume,
æ DQ ö æ DU ö æ DV ö
CP = ç ÷ =ç ÷ +Pç ÷ temperature and mass are state variable. Heat and work are not
è DT øP è DT øP è DT øP
2 ZEROTH LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS state variables.
æ DV ö
m Two systems in thermal equilibrium with third system PV = RT \ P ç ÷ =R m For an ideal gas, equation of state is PV = mRT
è DT øP
separately are in thermal equilibrium with each other. m Thermodynamic state variables are of two types
m If TA = TC and TB = TC, then TA = TB CP = CV + R (MAYER'S Equation)
m (1) Extensive
m Thermodynamic variable whose value is equal for two
C C +R R (2) Intensive
systems in thermal equilibrium is called temperature. m g= P = V = 1+
CV CV CV m Extensive variables indicates size of system.
3 HEAT, INTERNAL ENERGY AND WORK CP = g × CV m Internal energy, volume and mass are extensive variables. But
m Heat is energy transfer arising due to temperature difference pressure, temperature and density are intensive variables.
between system and surroundings. 5 FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
m Internal energy is simply the sum of kinetic energies and 7 REVERSIBLE AND IRREVERSIBLE PROCESS
m DQ = DU + DW (Energy conservation law)
potential energies of the molecules in the frame of reference m Spontaneous processes in nature are irreversible.
to which centre of mass of system is at rest. DQ = heat supplied to system by the surrounding
m A process is reversible if the process can be turned back such that
m Internal energy depends on state of the system, not how the DW = work done by the system on the surrounding both the system and surrounding return to their original states with
state was achieved. DU = Change in internal energy of a the system no any other change anywhere else in universe.
m There are two ways to change internal energy of a m Heat supplied to system goes in partly to increase
thermodynamic system m A quasi-static isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a cylinder
internal energy and rest in work on environment. fitted with a frictionless movable piston is a reversible process.
(1) To do work on system m This is simply the general law of conservation of
(2) Supply heat to system energy applied to any system in which energy m A quasi-static process is an infinitely slow process such that system
So heat and work are two modes of altering the state of a transfer is taken into account. remains in thermal and mechanical equilibrium with surroundings
thermodynamic system and changing internal energy. throughout. In this process pressure and temperature of the
m DW = PDV environment can differ from those of system only infinitesimally.
m Heat and work in Thermodynamics are not state variables. \ DQ = DU + PDV
m U is a state variable. DU depends only on initial and final
states and not on path taken by gas to go from one to 8 THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
another.
m DQ and DW will depend on path taken to go from initial to m A thermodynamic process is an activity where a
final state. thermodynamic system is taken from one
m Work done during thermodynamic process equilibrium state to another.
v2
DW = m Reversible process
ò PdV
v1
m Irreversible process
m Area under the P – V diagram with the volume axis gives the
work done in thermodynamic process. No accelerated motion of Piston
m Cyclic process
56 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps
9 ISOTHERMAL PROCESS 12 ISOCHORIC PROCESS 14 HEAT ENGINE

m For isothermal process Temperature during the process m For isochoric process volume during the process should be m Heat engine is a device in which a system undergoes a
should be constant constant cyclic process resulting in conversion of heat in to the
PV = constant P sink.
= constant
m So pressure of given mass of a gas varies inversely as its T m Efficiency of the engine is
volume. m Work done in isochoric process, DW = PDV = 0 W Q1 - Q2 Q
h= = = 1- 2
m Work done in isothermal process. m DQ = DU + DW Q1 Q1 Q1
If a system of ideal gas at temperature T goes from DQ = DU Q1 = heat absorbed from source
(P1, V1) to (P2, V2) equilibrium state, then work done m Heat absorbed by gas goes entirely to change its internal Q2 = heat released to sink
æv ö æP ö energy and its temperature. h = efficiency of heat engine
W = mRT ln ç 2 ÷ = mRT ln ç 1 ÷
è v1 ø è P2 ø
m Change in internal energy is determined by specific heat at
constant volume and temperature change. W
m Here DT = 0 \ DU = 0
Cold Reservoir T2
Hot Reservoir T1
æV ö 13 CYCLIC PROCESS
DQ = DW = mRT ln ç 2 ÷
è V1 ø m In any cyclic process system returns to initial state, DU = 0 Q1 Q2
m Hence total heat absorbed equals the work done by the system, Engine
10 ADIABATIC PROCESS DQ = DW
m In adiabatic process heat interaction between system and
surrounding is zero. i.e. DQ = 0 15 REFRIGERATOR
g
m PV = constant m A refrigerator is the reverse of a heat engine. Working
m Heat engine based on idealised reversible processes
Where g = ratio of molar specific heats at constant substance extracts heat from cold reservoir, some external
achieve the highest possible efficiency.
pressure and at constant volume. work is done on system and heat is released to reservoir at high
m System is insulated from surroundings and heat absorbed temperature.
or released is zero. heat extracted 17 CARNOT ENGINE
m Coefficient of performance of refrigerator = Carnot engine is a reversible engine operating between
m Work done by gas results in decrease in its internal work input m
energy. two temperatures T1 and T2. Carnot cycle consists of

Q2 Q2 T2 1- h two isothermal and two adiabatic processes. Its
m If system change from (P1, V1, T1) to (P2, V2, T2) b= = = =
W Q1 - Q2 (T1 - T2 ) h efficiency is
mR(T1 - T2 ) (PV - P2V2 ) (P1, V1, T1)
DW = = 1 1 where g = CP/CV T2
g -1 ( g - 1) m Coefficient of performance for heat pump is h = 1- P (P2, V2, T1)
m If work done by gas (W > 0), then, T2 < T1 T1
Q T1 1
b= 1 = =
W T1 - T2 h
11 ISOBARIC PROCESS
m For isobaric process pressure during the process (P4, V4, T2)
should be constant 16 SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS (P3, V3, T2)
V m Kelvin-Planck statement : No process is possible whose sole V
= constant result is absorption of heat from a reservoir and complete
T m Engine efficiency of Carnot engine does not depend on
conversion of heat into work.
m Work done in isobaric process nature of working substance.
W = P(V2 – V1) = mR(T2 – T1) m Clausius statement : No process is possible whose sole Carnot Theorem: Any other engine working between
result is transfer of heat from cold reservoir to hotter object. temperature T1 and T2 can not have efficiency more than
m Heat partly to do absorbed goes partly to increase internal
Two statements are completely equivalent. that of Carnot engine. The Carnot engine's efficiency is
energy and mechanical work. m
independent of nature of working substance.
DQ = DU + DW m It shows that efficiency of a heat engine can never be unity so In Carnot cycle
DU = mCVDT, DQ = mCPDT and DW = mRDT heat released to cold reservoir can never be made zero.
DW R g -1 DU CV 1 m Kelvin Planck and Clausius deny the perfect heat engine and Q1 T1 is universal relation and this relation can be
= = and = = =
DQ CP g DQ CP g refrigerator. Q2 T2 used to design universal thermodynamic scale.
NCERT Maps Thermodynamics 57
1. 1 gm of water is changed from its liquid to 6. What amount of heat must be supplied to (1) Increases
vapour phase. The measured latent heat of 2 × 10–2 kg of nitrogen at room temperature (2) Decreases
water is 2256 J/g. What is the amount of to raise its temperature, by 25°C at constant
change in internal energy?[NCERT Pg. 308] pressure? (Molecular wt. of N2 = 28) (3) No change
(1) 169.2 J (2) 3068.2 J [NCERT Pg. 321] (4) May decrease or no change
(3) 2086.8 J (4) 2548.3 J (1) 270.5 J (2) 519.6 J 10. A thermodynamic system is taken from
2. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes an (3) 370.4 J (4) 148.3 J original state to another intermediate state
adiabatic process from temperature 300 K to by linear process shown in diagram. Its
7. In changing the state of a gas adiabatically
600 K. The gas has 2 moles, calculate work
from an equilibrium state A to another volume is then reduced to original volume
done by this ideal gas. [NCERT Pg. 312]
equilibrium state B, an amount of work equal from B to C by an isobaric process. What is
(1) 600 R (J) (2) –200 R (J) to 104.6 J is done on the system. If this gas total work done by gas from A to B to C?
(3) –450 R (J) (4) –900 R (J) is taken from state A to B via a process in
3. A reversible cyclic heat engine absorbs 900 which the net heat absorbed by the system [NCERT Pg. 322]
joule of heat from source. If 400 J of heat is is 35 cal, how much is net work done by the
released to the sink, what is the efficiency of system in later case? (1 cal = 4.19 J)
the engine? [NCERT Pg. 314] [NCERT Pg. 321]
2 3 (1) 192.7 J (2) 89.6 J
(1) (2)
9 7
(3) 42.05 J (4) 142.5 J
5 4
(3) (4) 8. A cylinder with movable piston contains 2
9 9
moles of hydrogen at standard temperature
4. In an isothermal process, two moles of an
and pressure. The cylinder walls of the
ideal gas expands from volume 2 m3 to 8 m3 (1) 500 J (2) 400 J
cylinder are made of heat insulator. By what
at temperature of 227°C. Heat absorbed by (3) 1200 J (4) 2000 J
factor does the pressure of a gas increase
the gas during process is nearly
when gas is suddenly compressed to half of 11. A steam engine working like an ideal heat
[NCERT Pg. 311] its original volume? [NCERT Pg. 321] engine delivered 5.4 × 108 J of work per
(1) 2752 cal (2) 3250 cal (1) 1.5 (2) 3.82 minute and takes 3.6 × 109 J of heat per
(3) 1945 cal (4) 1875 cal
(3) 2.64 (4) 6.23 minute from its boiler at 127°C. What is sink
5. In a refrigerator, the system extracts heat of
9. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are temperature? [NCERT Pg. 322]
600 J from a cold reservoir and released 900
connected to each other via a stopcock. A
J of heat to hot reservoir. The coefficient of (1) 37°C
contains a gas at standard temperature and
performance of a refrigerator is given by (2) 47°C
pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
[NCERT Pg. 314] entire system is thermally insulated. The (3) 57°C
(1) 2 (2) 3 stopcock is suddenly opened. What is effect
(3) 6 (4) 9 on internal energy of gas? [NCERT Pg. 321] (4) 67°C
58 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps
12. A diatomic gas with three moles are in a (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 17. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat
container at 400 K. Under isobaric process, (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) added, change in internal energy and work
its temperature is changed to 900 K. How done in a closed cyclic process, then
much heat is absorbed by the gas during this (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
[NCERT Pg. 312]
process? [NCERT Pg. 312] (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) 6.4 kcal (1) Q = 0
15. Molar specific heat of an ideal gas at
(2) 9.4 kcal (2) Q = W = 0
constant volume is 21 joule/mol K and molar
(3) 10.4 kcal specific heat at constant pressure is about (3) W = 0
(4) 12.4 kcal 35 joule/mol K. The ideal gas is (4) E = 0
13. Which of the following is incorrect [NCERT Pg. 314] 18. Thermodynamic state variables may be
statement? [NCERT Pg.315] [NCERT Pg. 310]
(1) Monoatomic
(1) Free expansion of a gas is irreversible
(2) Diatomic (1) Extensive only
process
(3) Triatomic (2) Intensive only
(2) A thermodynamic process is reversible if
process can be turned back so that both (4) Polyatomic (3) Both (1) and (2)
system and surrounding return to their (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
original states 16. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via
three different processes as indicated in 19. An ideal gas is compressed to half of its
(3) No process is possible whose sole result
P – V diagram. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 indicate the initial volume by means of different
is transfer of heat from a colder object to
heat absorbed by gas along the three thermodynamic processes. Which of the
hotter object
processes and ∆U1, ∆U2 and ∆U3 indicate process result in the maximum work done on
(4) The efficiency of an ideal heat engine is
the gas? [NCERT Pg. 312]
unity. the change in internal energy along three
processes, then [NCERT Pg. 306] (1) Isothermal
14. In thermodynamic processes, correct match
of column-I with column-II is (2) Adiabatic
[NCERT Pg.306] (3) Isobaric
Column-I Column-II (4) Isochoric
Type of process Feature
20. Refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept
a. Isothermal (i) Volume constant inside at 7°C. If the room temperature is
b. Isobaric (ii) Pressure 43°C, coefficient of performance of
constant refrigerator must be [NCERT Pg. 322]
c. Isochoric (iii) No heat flow (1) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
(1) 7.78
between system (2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
and surroundings (2) 13.7
(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3 (3) 9.72
d. Adiabatic (iv) Temperature
constant (4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3 (4) 0.75
NCERT Maps Thermodynamics 59
1. Thermodynamics is a _____ science. It 8. The connection between state variables in 15. According to _____ statement no process is
deals with bulk systems and does not go into thermodynamics is called _____. possible whose sole result is the absorption
molecular constitution of matter. of heat from a reservoir and complete
[NCERT Pg. 310]
[NCERT Pg. 304] conversion of heat into work.
9. Thermodynamic state variables are of two
2. Two systems in thermal equilibrium with a type _____ and _____. _____ variables NCERT Pg. 315]
third system separately are in thermal indicate size of the system. The variables
equilibrium with each other. This forms the 16. The dissipative effects are present
that remain unchanged for each part are
basis of _____ law of thermodynamics. everywhere and cannot be eliminated but
_____. [NCERT Pg. 310]
[NCERT Pg. 305] can only be minimized so most processes
10. A process in which temperature of the
3. The thermodynamic variable whose value is that we deal with are _____ in nature.
thermodynamic system is kept fixed
equal in two systems in thermal equilibrium throughout is called an _____ process. [NCERT Pg. 315]
is called _____. [NCERT Pg. 305]
[NCERT Pg. 312] 17. Heat capacity in general, depends on _____
4. Internal energy depends only on the state of
11. There is no change in internal energy of a of the system goes through when heat is
system, not how the state was achieved.
gas in an isothermal process. In isothermal supplied. [NCERT Pg. 306]
This is an example of thermodynamic
_____. compression work is done _____ gas and 18. When work is done by a gas in
[NCERT Pg. 306] heat energy is _____ [NCERT Pg. 312] thermodynamic adiabatic process then final
5. Internal energy of a system can change 12. Heat absorbed by the gas goes entirely to temperature of gas is _____ than its initial
through two modes of energy transfer. change its internal energy and temperature, temperature. [NCERT Pg. 312]
These are _____ and _____ the process is _____ [NCERT Pg. 312]
19. Carnot engine is a reversible engine
[NCERT Pg. 307] 13. Heat engine is a device by which a system operating between two temperatures
6. First law of thermodynamics is the general is made to undergo a cyclic process that
T1(source) and T2(sink). The efficiency of
law of _____, applied to any system in which results in conversion of _____ to _____.
Carnot engine is given by η = 1 – (––)
energy transfer from or to system is taken [NCERT Pg. 313]
into account. [NCERT Pg. 307] [NCERT Pg. 317]
14. A refrigerator cannot work without some
7. _____ and _____ will in general depend on external work done on the system. So 20. The second law of thermodynamics gives a
the path taken to go from one state to coefficient of performance cannot be _____. fundamental limitation to the _____ of a heat
another state. [NCERT Pg. 307] [NCERT Pg. 314] engine. [NCERT Pg. 315]
  
Kinetic Theory
13
Chapter
1 LAWS ASSOCIATED WITH KTG 3 KINETIC INTERPRETATION 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITIES

m An ideal gas is only theoretical model of a gas. No real gas is truly OF TEMPERATURE m Specific heat capacity for solids = 3R
ideal. Without interactions gas behaves like an ideal gas. At low m Average kinetic energy of molecule m Specific heat capacity of water = 9R
pressure or high temperature, molecules are far apart and 1 3 3 2
= mv 2 = K BT m CV (monoatomic gas) = R m g = 1 +
molecular interaction is negligible. 2 f
2 2
Ideal gas 1 5 7
1 VRMS = (V 2 ) 2 m g=
3
(monoatomic) m g= (rigid diatomic)
5
3K BT Polyatomic gases in general a polyatomic molecules has 3
J mol–1K–1
T1 m
= translational, 3 rotational degree of freedom and a certain
T2 m
T1 > T2 > T3 > number (f¢) of vibrational modes. Then for one mole of gas
m In a mixture of gases at a given temperature,
3 3
heavier molecule has lower average speed. U= K T + KBT + fKBT NA
pV
mT
T3 2 B 2
m Translational kinetic energy of gas CV = (3 + f)R (4 + f )
3 2 E 1 3 g=
0 200 400 600 800 CP = (4 + f)R (3 + f )
E = K B NT and PV = E , = mv 2 = K BT
P (atm) 2 3 N 2 2 m Each vibrational frequency has two modes of energy with
m Boyle's Law : Pressure of a given ideal gas is inversely m Average KE is proportional to temperature. corresponding energy equal to KBT.
proportional to its volume if temperature is kept constant. m Molecules of a monatomic gas have only translational degree of
m Charle's Law : Volume of given ideal gas is directly proportional to m R.M.S. speed of gas molecule, freedom.
its temperature in kelvin if pressure is kept constant. 3RT m Molecules like CO even at moderate temperature has mode of
VRMS =
m Gay Lussac’s Law : Pressure of an ideal gas is directly M vibration.
proportional to its absolute temperature if volume is kept constant. m Diatomic molecule, like a dumbell, has five degree of freedom.
m Most probable speed of molecule
m Polyatomic molecule has 3 transitional, 3 rotational and a
m Avogadro's Law : Equal volume of all the gases under similar 2RT degree of a certain number of vibrational modes.
conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of =
M
molecules. PV PV
1 1 Average speed of gas molecule 5 MEAN FREE PATH
= 2 2 = KB m
N1T1 N2T2 m Molecules of gas have rather large speeds of the order of
8RT
= speed of sound.
Ideal gas equation connecting the variables is pM
rRT m Molecules of gas undergo collisions and their paths keep
PV = mRT = KBNT P= m This concept of maxwell energy distribution getting deflected.
M0
predict specific heat of gases theoretically. m Average distance a molecule can travel without collision is
m Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure : Total pressure of a mixture of LAW OF EQUIPARTITION OF ENERGY called mean free path.
non-reactive gases is the sum of their partial pressures. m Mean free path of gas molecule is related to number of
m KTG is consistent with ideal gas equation. molecules per unit volume and size of gas molecule.
2 AVERAGE PRESSURE OF GAS m For a system in equilibrium at absolute temperature 1 KBT
T, total energy is distributed equally in different l= 2
º l = 2
2pnd 2pPd
1 1 modes of absorptions. Energy of each mode is
P= n mv 2 and PV = nV mv 2
3 3 n : number density; d : diameter of molecules
equal to 1/2 KBT.
m Mean free path in gases is of order of thousands of angstrom.
n ® Number density m ® Mass of molecule m Each translational and rotational degree of freedom P : Pressure of gas; T : Absolute temperature
v 2 ® Mean of squared speed corresponds to one energy mode of absorption. KB : Boltzmann's Constant
NCERT Maps Kinetic Theory 61
1. A vessel contains two non-reactive gases; 4. Which of the following statement is 7. Three moles of oxygen are mixed with two
monoatomic neon and diatomic oxygen. The incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 327] moles of helium, what will be approx. ratio of
ratio of their partial pressure is 5 : 3. (1) In case of collision of gas molecules in a specific heat at constant pressure and
Estimate the ratio of number of moles of given amount of gas in container, total constant volume for the mixture?
neon and oxygen in a vessel. (Molar mass kinetic energy is conserved [NCERT Pg. 329]
oxygen O2 = 32.0 u and atomic mass of neon
(2) All collisions of gas molecules is elastic (1) 1.2
= 20.2 u) [NCERT Pg. 322]
in nature
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 1.4
(3) Average kinetic energy per degree of
(2) 3 : 5 (3) 1.5
freedom depends on temperature only
and is independent of nature of gas (4) 1.67
(3) 4 : 3
(4) By law of equipartition of energy, the 8. The kinetic theory of gases gives the formula
(4) 2 : 5
energy for each degree of freedom in 1 Nm 2
2. In case of two ideal gases under ideal P= (v ) for the pressure P exerted
thermal equilibrium is KBT 3 V
conditions of same temperature, pressure
5. Which of the following is not an assumption by a gas enclosed in a vessel of volume V,
and volume, the ratio of mean free paths of
of kinetic theory of gases? [NCERT Pg. 327] the term Nm represents [NCERT Pg. 324]
molecules having molecular diameter 1Å
and 2Å is [NCERT Pg. 337] (1) The volume occupied by molecule of gas (1) Mass of one mole of the gas
(1) 2 : 1 is negligible (2) Mass of gas present in volume V
(2) 4 : 1 (2) The force of attraction between (3) Total number of molecules present in
molecules is negligible volume V
(3) 1 : 4
(3) All molecules have same speed at a (4) Average mass of one molecule of the
(4) 8 : 1 temperature gas
3. An inflated rubber balloon contains one mole (4) The collisions of molecules among
9. A balloon contains 1500 m3 of helium at
of an ideal gas has a pressure P, volume V themselves are elastic
and temperature T. If temperature rises to 300 K and 4 atmospheric pressure. The
6. The temperature of the gas is increased from volume of helium at 270 K and 2
1.1 T and volume increases to 1.05 V, final
120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K, the rms speed of atmospheric pressure will be
pressure will be [NCERT Pg. 322]
gas molecules is VRMS then at 480 K, it
(1) 1.1 P [Assuming no leakage of gas]
becomes [NCERT Pg. 325]
(2) P [NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) 4 VRMS (2) 2 VRMS
(3) Less than P (1) 1500 m3 (2) 1900 m3
V
(3) VRMS (4) RMS (3) 1700 m3 (4) 2700 m3
(4) Between P and 1.1 P 2
62 Kinetic Theory NCERT Maps
10. A vessel contains 6 g of oxygen at pressure 14. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its 18. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the
P and temperature 400 K. A small hole is [NCERT Pg. 321] ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The mixture
made in it so that oxygen leaks out. How temperature is 300 K. What is ratio of root
(1) Both pressure and temperature are high
P mean square speed of molecules of two
much oxygen leaks out if final pressure is (2) Both pressure and temperature are low
2 gases? [NCERT Pg. 330]
and temperature is 300 K? (3) Pressure is high and temperature is low [Atomic mass of argon = 39.9 u and
[NCERT Pg. 339] (4) Pressure is low and temperature is high molecular mass of chlorine = 70.9 u]
(1) 5 g (2) 3 g 15. What will be mean free path of a nitrogen (1) 1.33
(3) 2 g (4) 4 g molecule in a container at 2 atmospheric
(2) 1. 55
pressure and at 17°C, radius of nitrogen
11. If the pressure and volume of a certain
molecule is about 1Å? [NCERT Pg. 337] (3) 1.77
quantity of an ideal gas is halved, then its
temperature becomes [NCERT Pg. 325] (Molar mass of nitrogen = 28.0 u) (4) 1.66
(1) Doubled (2) One fourth (1) 1.11 × 10–7 m 19. A polyatomic gas has 3 translational, 3
(2) 2.3 × 10–6 m rotational degrees of freedom and 2
(3) Four times (4) Remains same
vibrational modes. What is molar specific
12. Pressure of a gas at constant volume is (3) 2.4 × 10–7 m
heat ratio for the gas? [NCERT Pg. 334]
proportional to [NCERT Pg. 325] (4) 1.8 × 10–9 m
(1) 1.50
(1) Total internal energy of gas 16. Air has density of 1.3 kg m–3 and
temperature of air is 37°C. If molar mass of (2) 1.30
(2) Square of average kinetic energy of gas
molecule air is 28.8, what will be air pressure? (3) 1.40
(3) Average potential energy of molecules [NCERT Pg. 326] (4) 1.20
(4) Speed of the gas molecule (1) 1.16 × 105 N m–2
20. A cylinder of capacity 44.8 litres contains
13. If three molecules have speeds of (2) 2.1 × 104 N m–2 helium gas at standard temperature and
2000 ms–1, 1000 ms–1 and 500 ms–1, the (3) 1.92 × 105 N m–2 pressure. What amount of heat is needed to
ratio of rms speed to average speed is raise the temperature of gas in cylinder by
(4) 0.92 × 105 N m–2
[NCERT Pg. 325] 10°C? [NCERT Pg. 335]
17. The ratio of degrees of freedom of a
(1) 1.14 monoatomic gas to diatomic gas is (1) 173.5 J
(2) 0.92 [NCERT Pg. 327] (2) 249.3 J

(3) 1.78 (1) 3:5 (2) 3:1 (3) 205.2 J
(4) 1.71 (3) 4:5 (4) 1:1 (4) 374.2 J
NCERT Maps Kinetic Theory 63
1. In a closed vessel if pressure is increased 8. Total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is 15. Mean free path depends inversely on
by adding some gas, the mean free path of the sum of partial pressures. This is called ________ and inversely as square of
a molecule of gas ________. ________ law of partial pressure. ________ the gas molecules.
[NCERT Pg. 321]
2. When an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal
9. Average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is 16. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant
expansion, the pressure of the gas in
pressure and specific heat at constant
enclosure ________. [NCERT Pg. 321] proportional to ________ of the gas.
volume for a diatomic gas is ________ than
3. If a gas container in motion is suddenly [NCERT Pg. 325]
that of a monatomic gas. [NCERT Pg. 329]
stopped, the temperature of the gas may
10. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only 17. Heat capacity of a system, in general
________. [NCERT Pg. 325]
on parameter ________ not on ________ depends on ________ it goes through when
4. The absolute temperature of a gas is
and ________. [NCERT Pg. 325] heat is supplied. [NCERT Pg. 329]
increased three times; the root mean square
speed of gas molecule will increase 11. When gases diffuse, their rate of diffusion is 18. Number of molecules per unit volume is the
________. [NCERT Pg. 325] inversely proportional to ________. same for all gases at fixed ________ and
5. If the pressure of a closed vessel is reduced [NCERT Pg. 327] ________. [NCERT Pg. 320]
by drawing out some gas with help of a 19. All collisions between molecules among
12. Molecules of monoatomic gas like argon
pump, the mean free path of molecules of themselves or between molecules and wall
have only ________ degrees of freedom.
the gas is ________. [NCERT Pg. 331] of container are ________. This is in
[NCERT Pg. 328]
6. Equal volume of all gases under similar accordance with kinetic theory of an ideal
conditions of temperature and pressure 13. In equilibrium, in a gas total energy is gas. [NCERT Pg. 320]
contains equal number of molecules. This equally distributed in all possible energy
20. In equilibrium, total energy is equally
statement was given by _______. modes, with each mode having an average
distributed in all possible energy modes,
[NCERT Pg. 320] energy equal to ________. This is known as
with each mode has an average energy
7. At low pressure or high temperature, the gas the law ________. [NCERT Pg. 328]
1
molecules are far apart and molecular equal to KBT. But each vibrational mode
14. For one mole of solid, total energy at 2
interaction is minimum. Without interactions
absolute temperature T is equal to has energy contribution of ________.
the gas behaves like ________.
________. [NCERT Pg. 330] [NCERT Pg. 333]
[NCERT Pg. 321]
  
14
Oscillations Chapter
1 SPECIAL TYPES OF MOTIONS 2 SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
m Periodic Motion m Simple harmonic motion is an example of periodic m Velocity displacement graph will be an ellipse
–1
oscillatory motion. (w ¹ 1) or a circle (w = 1 rad s ).
A motion which repeats itself after regular intervals of time, (T) is
m Special type of oscillatory motion which satisfies
periodic. Examples: following conditions. m The maximum velocity of particle executing SHM
A. Oscillatory amplitude of particle is small. will be at mean position and at extremes speed
l Motion a particle in circle with constant speed becomes minimum (zero).
B. During oscillation, acceleration towards mean
l Skipping position, due to net restoring force, is directly m Different graphs for a particle executing SHM
l Spring block system proportion to displacement from mean position. (A) Displacement - time graph
m Force displacement relation in S.H.M.
l Simple pendulum If at t = 0 particle is at mean position
F = –ky, where K is force constant (Force law in
l Motion of Earth around sun S.H.M.), y is displacement from mean position. A
m Acceleration of particle F F
l Motion of needle of sewing machine y A
F æK ö
A boat tossing up and down in a lake a= = - ç ÷ y = - w2 y T
l
m èmø –A +A (t)
l Piston of engine going back and forth can be periodic \ Acceleration and displacement are antiparallel –A
m Oscillatory Motion d 2y K y = A sin(wt)
+ w2 y = 0 , here w = (Angular frequency)
Special type of periodic motion in which a particle moves to and fro dt 2 m
(B) Velocity - time graph
about a fixed point. The force acting on the particle in a direction m is mass oscillating, K is force constant.
vP
directed towards equilibrium position is called restoring force. m General equation for displacement in S.H.M. wA
l Every oscillatory motion is periodic but every periodic motion y = A sin (wt + f) or y = A cos (wt ± f)
may not be oscillatory. 2p
w= = 2 p n is angular frequency and (wt + f) is
T T (t)
l Back and Forth motion can be oscillatory or vibratory. When called phase, a time varying quantity.
oscillations frequency is small we call it oscillatory, at high –wA
Here f is called epoch or initial phase.
frequency we call it vibratory.
A. If particle at t = 0 is at equilibrium position. v = Aw cos (wt)
Oscillations can be (y = 0)
(C) Acceleration time graph
A. Free oscillations y = A sin wt n
2 acc
B. If particle at t = 0 is at extreme right position +w A
l When a system oscillates with its natural frequency the
(y = A)
oscillations are called free oscillations.
y = A cos wt 0
B. Damped oscillations T T
m Velocity of particle in SHM.
l If some external resisting force appears opposing restoring dy 2 2
vP = = w A cos ( w t ± f ) –w A
force, oscillatory amplitude starts decreasing with time. dt
2
If at t = 0 particle is at origin. a = –w A sin (wt)
C. Forced oscillations
l Velocity leads displacement by a phase
v P = wA cos wt = w A2 - y 2
l Forced oscillations are those in which damping is not allowed of (p/2) rad.
by applying an external time varying force, which m Acceleration of particle in SHM
2 l Acceleration leads velocity a phase of p/2
compensates the effect of damping force acting on it. aP = –w A sin wt, at t = 0 particle is at mean position. rad.
NCERT Maps Oscillations 65
3 SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION AND UNIFORM 5 MECHANICAL ENERGY IN SIMPLE 6 OSCILLATIONS DUE TO A SPRING
CIRCULAR MOTION HARMONIC OSCILLATOR
1 2
m Projection of uniform circular motion on a diameter of m Potential energy in SHM U = ky + U 0 (1) Oscillations of a spring block system
2
the circle follows simple harmonic motion.
U0 is generally taken zero at equilibrium. k
dU m
B Y Fint =- ; instantaneous force on particle.
dy
m Maximum potential energy occurs at extreme positions and
P(t) minimum at mean position. (Linear S.H.M.)
y R
wt (t) = 0 m Graph of potential energy versus displacement of particle will
x be parabolic, symmetric about y-axis. Force law, F = –kx
O A
m Kinetic energy of particle in S.H.M. varies directly as square 2
F = –ma = –mw x
of its velocity at any location.
1 1 k
KE = (mw2 ) ( A2 - y 2 ) = mw2 A2 cos2 (wt + f) 2
\ k = mw or w =
2 2 m
Particle position m Kinetic energy can not be negative. Potential energy increases
y = R sin wt is SHM. at expense of KE and vice versa. Where k spring constant of spring and m is mass
of block executing SHM.
m Kinetic energy will be maximum at mean position and zero at
extreme position. (2) For two Identical Springs
This is an equation of S.H.M. for particle
displacement at any time. m Total mechanical energy is independent of time.
This is also linear harmonic oscillator
m Potential energy and kinetic energy peaks twice during every
period. Element of springiness stores potential energy and x
element of inertia stores its kinetic energy. F1 F2
4 SPECIAL PARAMETERS IN SHM k k
m Graph of kinetic energy versus position of particle will be m
m Since particles speed is not constant ; from mean an inverted parabola.
position to half of amplitude it takes half of time than m In absence of damping ; total mechanical energy of harmonic
to move from half of amplitude to extreme position. oscillator will remain constant.
1 When displaced right, restoring forces towards left
m Minimum velocity in S.H.M. is vmin = 0 at extremes E = kmax = Umax = mw2 A2
2 T
and maximum velocity at equilibrium position. m Potential energy and kinetic energy is periodic with period .
2 F1 = –kx, F2 = –kx, F = F1 + F2
vmax = wA
m The graphs for energy versus position are
m Maximum acceleration of particle is at extreme F = –2 kx
2
positions amax = w A and minimum (zero) is at Since force acting on mass is proportional to
U
equilibrium. 1 2
displacement and directed towards mean position. It is
E = const. = K + U = KA
(U) 2
m Maximum force on particle is at extreme positions SHM. The period of oscillation is
and zero at mean, in between it varies linearly (E)
always directed towards equilibrium. (K) KE
(Displacement) m
2 T = 2p
Fmax = mw A and Fmin = zero –A O +A 2k
66 Oscillations NCERT Maps
7 SIMPLE PENDULUM 8 DAMPED SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
Simple Pendulum m A viscous surroundings will apply force on simple pendulum or a spring pendulum
m By attaching a small mass to an inextensible string, a simple pendulum can be made. and system will ultimately come to rest.
m The mass executes SHM for small displacements only. m The damping force depends on nature of surrounding medium. When damping is
Rigid Support high, energy is quickly dissipated. This force is generally proportion to velocity
of oscillator.
q ur r ur r
F d µ v Þ F = - bv
L
m Net force F = –ky – bv (b ® damping factor)

m
ma = –ky – bv
mg
2
md y dy
I +b + ky = 0 is damped equation, whose solution is given by
T = 2p 2
Also here I = mL , about rigid support point. dt 2 dt
mgL
- bt
y = Ae 2m cos ( w ¢ t + f ) for displacement of oscillator.
L
T = 2p
g k b2
Where w¢ = -
m The time period of a simple pendulum depends on its length and acceleration due to m 4m 2
gravity but is independent of its mass and amplitude.
m Time period of a clock pendulum which ticks every second is 2s and its length is 10
approximately 1 metre.
5
9 FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND RESONANCE
x(t)
0
m An external agency can maintain motion by resisting damping forces.
These are called driven or forced oscillations. An external force which is –5
periodic is applied to damped oscillator. Equation of oscillations of mass
–100
md 2 y dy
is +b + ky = F0 cos wd t , and after natural oscillation, die out eqn. is 5 10 t 15 20 25
dt 2 dt
y = A cos(wdt + f) and A depends on wd and w.

F0 b
m If wd is close to w then A = l Small damping means << 1
wd b km
m The phenomenon of increase of amplitude when driving frequency is close to natural é 1 2 - bt / m ù
frequency of the oscillators is called resonance.
l ê E = 2 kA e ú energy eq n .
ë û
1. The equation of motion is represented by 6. A particle executes SHM. Its time period is
y = sin ωt + cos ωt. The time period of T. The kinetic energy of the particle is also
(1) periodic with time period of
periodic motion is [NCERT Pg. 339]
[NCERT Pg. 346]
π 2π
(1) (2)
ω ω (1) T
2π 4π (2) (2) 2T
(3) (4)
ω ω T
(3)
2. The equation of motion of particle executing 2
SHM is given as y = sin2 ωt. The position of (4) Infinity
(3)
equilibrium is [NCERT Pg. 341]
7. A block whose mass is 500 g is fastened to
(1) y = 0 (2) y = 1 a spring. The spring has spring constant of
100 N/m. The block is pulled to a distance of
1 x = 10 cm from its equilibrium position
(3) y = (4) y = –1
2 (4)
state of x = 0 from rest at t = 0. What is
3. A body execute SHM according to equation kinetic energy of block at x = 5 cm?
x = 10 cos(2πt + π/4). At t = 3/2 s, what is 5. Two springs with spring constants K and 2K [NCERT Pg. 347]
speed of the particle? [NCERT Pg. 339] are attached to a block of mass m and with
(1) 0.375 J (2) 0.19 J
fixed supports as shown. When mass is
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 (3) 0.56 J (4) 0.76 J
displaced from equilibrium position on either
(3) 22 ms–1 (4) 44 ms–1 side, it executes SHM. The frequency of 8. A block of mass 2 kg is attached to a spring
oscillation is [NCERT Pg. 345] of spring constant 200 Nm–1 oscillates
4. Acceleration versus time graph for a particle
without friction over a smooth horizontal
executing SHM is shown in figure below.
surface. The block is displaced by 10 cm
Corresponding position time graph will be
from equilibrium position and released.
[NCERT Pg. 344]
What is maximum acceleration of block?
1 3m 1 m
(1) (2) [NCERT Pg. 348]
2π K 2π 2K
(1) 1 ms–2 (2) 2 ms–2
1 3m 1 3K
(3) (4)
2π 2K 2π m (3) 0.5 ms–2 (4) 1.5 ms–2
9. Length of a simple pendulum whose time 12. A spring having spring constant of 800 Nm–1 15. A spring balance has a scale that reads from
period is 2 second on earth surface will be is mounted on a horizontal table as shown. 0 to 100 kg. The length of scale is 25 cm.
nearly [NCERT Pg. 351] A mass of 2 kg is attached to free end of the A block suspended from this balance when
spring. The mass is pulled sideways to displaced and released oscillates with time
(1) 0.5 m
distance of 2.5 cm and released. How much period of 0.2 s. What is mass of block
(2) 1 m time the mass takes from one extreme to approximately? [NCERT Pg. 359]
(3) 1.5 m other [NCERT Pg. 359]
(1) 2 kg
(4) 2 m
(2) 4 kg
10. A block of mass 500 g and attached to one
end of a spring of spring constant K = 450 (3) 5 kg
Nm–1. The friction is also present which (4) 6 kg
dissipate energy and damping constant of (1) 0.157 s (2) 0.2 s
system is 25 g/s. What is time taken for its 16. The graph between length of pendulum and
(3) 0.314 s (4) 0.782 s
amplitude of oscillation to drop to half of its square of its time period is shown below.
initial value. [NCERT Pg. 352] 13. The acceleration due to gravity on the The best graph is [NCERT Pg. 351]
surface of moon is 1.7 ms–2. What will be
(1) 18.73 s
period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on
(2) 27.72 s (1)
the surface of moon if its time period on the
(3) 32.2 s surface of earth is 2s? [NCERT Pg. 361]
(4) 6.52 s (1) 4.8 s (2) 2.8 s
11. Which of the following example does not (3) 1.8 s (4) 3.5 s (2)
represents SHM? [NCERT Pg. 358]
14. A particle executes SHM has maximum
(1) Oscillations of a spring block system speed of 20 cm s–1 and maximum
(2) Motion of ball bearing inside smooth acceleration of 40 cm s–2. The period of
(3)
curved bowl, when released slightly oscillation is [NCERT Pg. 361]
away from equilibrium π
(1) π s (2) s
(3) Motion of oscillating mercury column in 2
(4)
vertical U-tube
π
(3) s (4) 2π s
(4) Rotation of earth about its axis 3
17. A collar of mass 4 kg is attached to a spring 2

(1) T
of spring constant 500 Nm–1. If collar is 3
displaced from equilibrium position by a
distance of 2 cm and released, what is 3
(2) T (3)
frequency of oscillation? 2
[NCERT Pg. 348]

(3) 2T
1 (4)
(4) ×T
3
(1) 5.4 Hz 19. A particle executes SHM, has potential

(2) 1.78 Hz 20. The graph of a particle executing SHM is
energy which changes with position. If
(3) 9.36 Hz potential energy at equilibrium position is shown for two particles A and B. The ratio of
(4) 3.26 Hz assumed to be zero, then potential energy maximum accelerations of A to B is
18. Two identical springs of spring constant K versus position graph is best represented by
[NCERT Pg. 341]
each are attached to block of mass m and
[NCERT Pg. 347]
fixed supports as shown in figure (a). The
period of oscillation was observed to be T.
If one more identical spring is attached as
shown in figure (b) then new period will be
[NCERT Pg. 345]
(1)
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(2)
(4) 1 : 4
1. The direction of acceleration in case of SHM 8. Motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth 14. When amplitude of a particle executing
is always towards mean position and is hemispherical bowl, when released from a S.H.M. increases its time period ________.
________ to displacement. point slightly above equilibrium point is [NCERT Pg. 348]
[NCERT Pg. 344] ________. [NCERT Pg. 358] 15. The motion of a sewing needle when handle
2. The ratio of distance travelled by an rotated at constant speed is ________.
9. The phenomenon of increase in amplitude
oscillator to its amplitude in one time period [NCERT Pg. 337]
when driving force is closed to natural
is ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
frequency of the oscillation is called 16. Maximum possible time period of a simple
3. In case of a particle executing SHM, phase
________. [NCERT Pg. 354] pendulum on the surface of earth will be
difference between velocity and
________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
acceleration is ________. 10. The mechanical energy in a real oscillating
17. The projection of uniform circular motion on
[NCERT Pg. 343] system decreases during oscillations. The
a diameter of circle follows ________.
4. The length of second’s pendulum on surface real oscillator and its motion are then said to
of Earth is 1 m. The length of second’s [NCERT Pg. 342]
be ________. [NCERT Pg. 351]
pendulum on surface of moon will be 18. A particle executing SHM of amplitude
________. [NCERT Pg. 351] 11. Every periodic motion is not simple 10 cm. At extreme position the force acting
5. The displacement of the particle executing harmonic motion, only that periodic motion is 6 N. At a point midway between mean and
SHM where PE and KE are equal is governed by the force law in which force is extreme position the force is ________.
________ times amplitude of motion. linear proportion to ________ is simple [NCERT Pg. 345]
[NCERT Pg. 346] harmonic motion. [NCERT Pg. 345]
19. A particle executes SHM with amplitude A
6. A spring pendulum and simple pendulum
12. The kinetic energy of a particle executing and period T. The time taken by the particle
have equal time period on earth surface. On
simple harmonic motion is maximum at from extreme position to half of amplitude is
the surface of moon simple pendulum has
________. [NCERT Pg. 346] ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
time period ________ than spring
pendulum. [NCERT Pg. 348] 20. In simple harmonic motion at mean position
13. The graph between acceleration and
7. A body is performing SHM, then its average ________ energy is minimum and
displacement of a particle executing S.H.M.
velocity over a complete cycle is ________. ________ energy is maximum.
is ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
  
15
Waves Chapter
WAVE 2 DISPLACEMENT RELATION IN A 3 PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION OF WAVES

It is a disturbance produced, which transfer energy and PROGRESSIVE WAVES
momentum without transfer of matter. m If y1(x, t) and y2(x, t) be the displacement due to two wave
m y(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt + f)
a = amplitude of wave disturbances in the medium and the waves arrive in a region
1 TYPES OF WAVES
is linear combination of sine and cosine function simultaneously and overlap, the net displacement y(x, t) is
m Electromagnetic Wave – wave propagates in the form of
time varying electric and magnetic fields. It require no y(x, t) = A sin(kx – wt) + B cos(kx – wt) given by
medium. Amplitude of resultant wave, a = A + B 2 2
y(x, t) = y1(x, t) + y2(x, t)
m Matter waves – wave associated with the particles having
f = tan
–1 B
momentum. A Similarly, resultant waveform
w
Speed of wave v = k = nl n
m Mechanical waves – The waves which require a material
2p y = å fi (x – vt)
medium for their propagation. k= called angular wave number) i=1
l
MECHANICAL WAVES In the phenomenon of interference of two waves
(kx – wt + f) = Phase of wave
y1(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt)
Transverse waves Longitudinal waves m Speed of a Transverse Wave on a Stretched String
and y2(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt – f)
The individual particle of The individual particle of v= T
m
The net displacement
medium vibrate perpendicular medium vibrate parallel to
to direction of propagation. direction of propagation Here f f
T = tension in string (in newton)
y(x, t) = 2a cos
2 )
sin kx – wt +
2 )
Rarefaction
Crest Trough Amplitude
Displacement
Wavelength m
m = l ( mass per unit length of string) So, amplitude is a function of phase difference
v v
Speed of a Longitudinal wave
A(f) = 2a cos ) 2f )
Compression Y
m Speed of longitudinal wave in a solid bar v = r
Wavelength For f, = 0, A = 2a (Constructive interference)
where Y = Young’s modulus of material of bar For constructive interference, path difference between two
m Trasverse waves are possible in solids like strings (under
r = Density of material of bar waves, Dx = 0, l, 2l,....nl
tension), due to shear modulus.
m Speed of longitudinal wave in gases For f = p, A = 0 (Destructive interference)
m Longitudinal waves, involve compressive stress, i.e. (Bulk
For destructive interference, path difference between two
modulus), so is possible in both solids and fluids According to Newton, v= P
r (Isothermal)
waves,
m Waves on the surface of water are of two kinds capillary waves
gP l 3l ,....(2n – 1) l
and gravity waves According to Laplace, v = r (Adiabatic) Dx =
2 2 2
72 Waves NCERT Maps
4 REFLECTION OF WAVES 5 NORMAL MODES OF ORGAN PIPES 6 BEATS

m Rigid Boundary – At rigid boundary wave suffer a Closed organ pipe m When two harmonic sound waves of nearly same
phase change of p. frequencies travel in the same direction then the intensity
yi = a sin(wt – kx) of resultant wave produced from their superposition
increase and decrease continuously at same point with
yr = – a sin(wt + kx)
time. It is called beat formation.
m Open Boundary or Free boundary : At open boundary m Two waves of angular frequencies w1 and w2 superimpose
phase change is 0. at , x = 0 at time t
s1 = a1cosw1t, s2 = a2cosw2t
yi = a sin(wt – kx)
from superposition, s = s1+ s2
yr = a sin(wt + kx) w – w2 w + w2
s = 2a cos 1 t.cos 1 t
2 2
Standing Waves and Normal Modes
When two waves of same amplitude and of same (w1 – w2) (w + w2)
wb = and wa = 1
frequency travel in opposite direction then resultant wave Seventh Ninth Eleventh 2 2
pattern from their superposition is called standing waves. harmonic harmonic harmonic Beat frequency, nbeat = |n1 – n2|
From open boundary. m We hear a waxing and warning of sound with frequency
1 l equal to difference between the frequencies of
L= n+ : for n = 0, 1, 2, 3,.....
yi(x, t ) = a sin (wt – kx), 2 2
superposing waves.
2L
Possible wavelengths l =
yr(x, t ) = a sin (wt + kx) 1
n+ 7 DOPPLER EFFECT
2
y = yi + yr for n = 0, 1, 2, 3 Generally, if there is relative motion between a source(s)
1 v and observer then observed frequency will be other than
y(x, t) = 2a sin wt coskx Natural frequencies n = n + 2 , for n or = 0, 1, 2, 3 real frequency. This apparent change in frequency is
2L
m The amplitude varies from point to point, but each element Open Organ Pipe called Doppler effect.
of string oscillate with same angular frequency (w) m Both source and observer moving
A A A v + v0
m Nodes – The point at which amplitude is zero or there is no
N n = n0
motion called nodes. Distance between two consecutive N A v + vS
nodes is l/2. L N A N here v is the speed of sound through the medium, n0 is the
N A
m Antinodes – The points at which amplitude is maximum A N velocity of observer relative to the medium, and vs is the
called antinodes. Distance between two consecutive A A
source velocity relative to the medium. In using this
antinodes is l/2 First Second Third formula, velocities in the direction O to S should be
harmonic harmonic harmonic
Normal modes of stretched string Fixed At Both Ends treated as positive and those opposite to it should be
l taken to be negative.
L=n , for n = 1, 2, 3...
A (a) 2 m When source and observer stationary and wind is blowing
L = nl , n = 1, 2 3 fundamental or
Wavelength of stationary wave, l = 2L
2 A first harmonic n , for n = 1, 2, 3... towards stationary observer with speed vw, apparent
A A (b)
nv wavelength
Frequencies of different second harmonic Frequencies of different modes, n = 2L , for n = 1, 2, 3...
A N A
modes (c) (v0 –vw)
A A A
third harmonic m A compression is reflected as compression from the closed la = n
n = nv , n = 1, 2 3-- A N A N A
end of the organ pipe and as rarefaction from the open end. m When source is moving towards the stationary observer
2L A A A (d)
A with medium at rest, apparent wavelength
fourth harmonic m A rarefaction is reflected as rarefaction from the closed end
N N N
A A A A of the organ pipe and as compression from the open end. (v –v )
la= n s
NCERT Maps Waves 73
1. Some examples of wave motion are given in 4. At what temperature will the speed of sound 8. Equation of a plane progressive wave is
the following options. In which case wave in air becomes 3 times of its value at 0°C? x

motion is a combination of both transverse [NCERT XI Pg. 391] =
given by y 0.6 sin2π  t −  .On reflection
 2
and longitudinal waves? (1) 1184°C (2) 1148°C from a denser medium its amplitude
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] (3) 2184°C (4) 2148°C rd
2
5. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency becomes   of the amplitude of incident
(1) Motion of a kink in a longitudinal spring 3
produced by displacing one end of the 1000 kHz in air. If the sound meets a water wave. The equation of reflected wave is
spring side ways surface, the wavelength of the reflected and
transmitted sound are (speed of sound in air [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
(2) Waves produced in a cylinder containing
= 340 m/s and in water 1500 m/s) x
a liquid by moving its piston back and 
[NCERT XI Pg. 391] (1)
= y 0.6 sin2π  t + 
forth  2
(3) Waves produced by a motorboat sailing (1) 3.4 mm, 30 mm (2) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
 x
in water (3) 0.34 mm, 1.5 mm (4) 6.8 mm, 30 mm =
(2) y 0.4 sin2π  t + 
 2
(4) Both (1) and (3) 6. A pipe 30 cm long, is open at both the ends.
Which harmonic mode of the pipe resonates  x
2. Longitudinal waves in a medium propagate (3) y – 0.4 sin2π  t − 
=
with 1.1 kHz source?  2
due to [NCERT XI Pg. 390]
(v = 330 m s–1) [NCERT XI Pg. 382]
(1) Shear modulus  x
(1) First (4) y – 0.4 sin2π  t + 
=
 2
(2) Bulk modulus (2) Second
9. A sound is produced by plucking a string in
(3) Both Shear and Bulk modulus (3) Third
a musical instrument, then
(4) Young’s modulus (4) Forth
7. A progressive wave is represented by y = 2 [NCERT XI Pg. 381]
3. Modification in Newton’s formula for speed
sin(100πt – 2πx), where x and y are in cm
of sound in air was made by (1) The velocity of wave in string is equal to
and t is in second. The maximum particle
velocity and wave velocity respectively are the sound velocity in string
[NCERT XI Pg. 376]
[NCERT XI Pg. 373] (2) The frequency of wave in string is equal
(1) Stefan
(1) 628 cm/s, 628 cm/s to the frequency of sound produced
(2) Boltzman (2) 50 cm/s, 50 cm/s
(3) The wave in string is progressive
(3) Laplace (3) 628 cm/s, 50 cm/s
(4) 50 cm/s, 628 cm/s (4) The frequency of the wave in string is
(4) Edison
double the frequency of sound
74 Waves NCERT Maps
10. A glass tube of 100 cm length is filled with 13. A second harmonic has to be generated in
water. The water can be drained out slowly a string of length L stretched between two
at the bottom of the tube. If a vibrating tuning rigid support. The point where the string has
fork of frequency 500 Hz is brought at the to be plucked and touched are
(1)
upper end of the tube and the velocity of
[NCERT XI Pg. 381]
sound in air is 330 m/s, then the total
number of resonances obtained will be L L
(1) Plucked at and touch at
[NCERT XI Pg. 382] 4 2
(1) 4 L 3L
(2) Plucked at and touch at (2)
(2) 3 4 8
(3) 2
(4) 1 L L
2 4
11. A tuning fork A of frequency 512 Hz (3)
produces 5 beats per second when sounded
with another tuning fork B of unknown L 3L
frequency. If B is loaded with wax the 2 4
number of beats is again 5 per second. The
14. An observer moves towards a stationary
frequency of fork B before it was loaded is
source of sound with a velocity one fifth of (4)
[NCERT XI Pg. 384]
the velocity of sound. The percentage
16. If a wave is incident on a surface and a part
(1) 507 Hz (2) 502 Hz change in apparent frequency is [NCERT
of the incident wave is reflected back and a
(3) 517 Hz (4) 522 Hz XI Pg. 386]
part is transmitted into the second medium,
12. The equation of a stationary wave along a (1) 0% (2) 5% then [NCERT XI Pg. 378]
stretched string is given by (3) 10% (4) 20% (1) Incident and refracted waves obey
2πx Snell’s law of refraction
y = 5 sin cos 40 πt in, where x and y 15. A railway engine whistling at a constant
3 frequency moves with a constant speed.It
(2) Incident and refracted waves doesn’t
are cm and t is in second. The separation goes past a stationary observer standing
between two adjacent nodes is obey laws of refraction
beside the railway track. The frequency (ν′)
[NCERT XI Pg. 379] of the sound heard by observer is plotted (3) Incident and reflected waves obey the
against time (t). Which of the following graph usual laws of reflection
(1) 1.5 cm (2) 3 cm
best represent the variation in apparent (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 6 cm (4) 4 cm frequency with time? [NCERT XI Pg. 385]
NCERT Maps Waves 75
17. Two sitar strings A and B playing a note are 18. The transverse displacement of a string (1) Maximum displacement and maximum
clamped at its both ends is given by pressure
slightly out of tune and produce beats of
 2πx  (2) Minimum displacement and minimum
= y 0.06 sin   cos(120πt ) , where x and
frequency 5 Hz. When the tension in the  3  pressure change
y are in metre and t is in second. The length
string B is slightly increased, the beat (3) Minimum displacement and maximum
of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is
pressure change
frequency is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the 3 × 10–2 kg. The tension in string is
(4) Maximum displacement and maximum
[NCERT XI Pg. 392]
frequency of string A is 427 Hz. The original pressure change
(1) 324 N
frequency of string B is [NCERT XI Pg. 392] 20. Newton assumed that sound propagation in
(2) 648 N a gas takes under [NCERT XI Pg. 376]
(1) 422 Hz (3) 832 N (1) Isothermal condition
(2) 424 Hz (4) 972 N (2) Adiabatic condition
(3) 430 Hz 19. In longitudinal stationary waves, (3) Isotropic condition
(4) 432 Hz displacement nodes are the points where
(4) Isochoric condition
there is [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
1. In any mechanical wave, _______ and not medium depends only on _______ and 7. In stationary waves, wavelength is equal to
_______ is transferred from one point to the Inertial properties of medium. _______ the distance between two
other. [NCERT XI Pg. 367] consecutive nodes or antinodes.
[NCERT XI Pg. 374]
2. Transverse wave can propagate only in a [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
5. At rigid boundary there is a phase difference
medium which can sustain _______ stress. 8. The speed of sound in air at constant
of _______ between incident and reflected
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] temperature is independent of _______.
wave. [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
3. The lowest possible natural frequency of a [NCERT XI Pg. 391]
6. When two or more waves traverse in
system is called its _______ mode. 9. The propagation constant represents 2π
opposite direction in the same medium, the
[NCERT XI Pg. 380] net displacement of any element of the times the _______ that can be
medium is the _______ of displacement due accommodated per unit length.
4. Relative to an observer at rest in a medium
to each wave. [NCERT XI Pg. 377] [NCERT XI Pg. 372]
the speed of a mechanical wave in that
76 Waves NCERT Maps
10. For a travelling wave, minimum distance 14. The waves in an ocean are the combination 17. In a stationary wave, all the particles on the
between two point having the _______ is of both _______ and _______ waves. two sides of a node oscillates in _______
called the wavelength of wave. phase. [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
[NCERT XI Pg. 367] [NCERT XI Pg. 370] 18. If a wave is incident obliquely on the
11. The argument of trigonometric function boundary between two different media, the
15. In a harmonic progressive wave of a given
representing a travelling wave is called the transmitted wave is called the _______
_______ of the wave. frequency, all the particles have the same wave [NCERT XI Pg. 378]
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] amplitude but different _______ at a given 19. If there is no medium present Doppler shifts
12. The phase determine the _______ of the instant of time. [NCERT XI Pg. 371] are _______ irrespective of whether the
wave at any position and at any instant. source moves or the observer moves.
[NCERT XI Pg. 371] 16. In a stationary wave, all particles between
[NCERT XI Pg. 385]
13. Beats arise when two waves having two nodes have the same _______ at a
20. In stationary waves, the points at which the
_______ frequencies and comparable given instant but have different _______.
amplitudes are superposed. amplitude is largest are called _______.
[NCERT XI Pg. 389] [NCERT XI Pg. 379] [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
  
NCERT Maps Answers 153
Class XI
Chapter-1 : Physical World
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 6. Cyclotron
1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Terrestrial 7. Angular momentum

3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Energy
8. Same
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Momentum
9. Four
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Electrons
10. Weak nuclear
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Nuclear
Chapter-2 : Units and Measurements
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Relative errors

1. (1) 2. (3) 1. 1.745 × 10–2 12. Precision
3. (3) 4. (4) 2. 5.82 × 10–4
13. Number
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Derived
14. Addition or subtraction
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. [caesium – 133]
15. Powers or exponents
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. Parallax
16. Significant
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. Earth orbit, one arc second
13. (4) 14. (1) 17. Multiplication or division
7. 10–15
15. (3) 16. (4) 8. ± 1 × 10–13 18. 3
17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Smallest 19. 6.6 × 10–27
19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Absolute error 20. 3.7 × 10–3
154 Answers NCERT Maps
Chapter-3 : Motion in a Straight Line
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Continuous

1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Straight line 12. Uniform acceleration
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Kinematics 13. Instantaneous
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Frame of reference
14. Slope of line
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. Magnitude, direction
15. On
9. (2) 10. (4) 5. May or may not be
16. Constant
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Less
17. Parallel
13. (2) 14. (3) 7. Average velocity, infinitesimally
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Average velocity 18. Uniform acceleration
17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Speed, Direction, Both 19. Increasing, Decreasing
19. (1) 20. (4) 10. Displacement 20. Acceleration
Chapter-4 : Motion in a Plane
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. 0° or 180°

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Magnitude 12. One dimensional
3. (1) 4. (3) 2. Same, Different 13. Vector
5. (3) 6. (1) 3. Free vectors
14. Vector difference
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Opposite
15. Constant
9. (4) 10. (1) 5. Commutative, Associative
16. Remains constant, continuous change
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. Zero vector or null vector
17. Continuous change
13. (3) 14. (4) 7. Unit, dimension and unit
18. Constant speed
15. (2) 16. (3) 8. One
19. Acceleration
17. (1) 18. (4) 9. Average acceleration
20. Radius
19. (3) 20. (2) 10. 0° and 180°
Chapter-5 : Laws of Motion
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Conserved

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Rest 12. Zero
3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Motion 13. Impending
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Backward 14. Independent
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. Momentum 15. Component
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Change in momentum 16. Friction
11. (3) 12. (1) 6. Directly, Direction 17. Independent
13. (4) 14. (1) 7. Time, Impulse 18. Rg ( µ s + tan θ )
15. (2) 16. (2) 8. Internal (1– µs tan θ )
17. (3) 18. (2) 9. mg 19. [MLT –1 ]
19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Different 20. Less
Chapter-6 : Work, Energy and Power
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Gravity and tension in string
1. (2) 2. (2) 1. Component of force 12. Positive
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. 3.6 × 106 13. Kinetic, Potential
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Kinetic
14. Friction
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Work done
15. Heat
9. (3) 10. (1) 5. Second law
16. Linear momentum, Total kinetic energy
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Position
17. Completely inelastic
13. (2) 14. (1) 7. Conservative
18. Inelastic
15. (1) 16. (3) 8. ML2T–2, joule (J)
19. Maximum
17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Zero
20. Right angles
19. (2) 20. (3) 10. Conservative
Chapter-7 : System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 12. Angular velocity

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Centroid 13. Conservation of angular momentum
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Their geometric centre 14. Rolling
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Remains constant 15. Shape of body
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. Axis of rotation
16. Ring
5. Moment of force, torque
9. (1) 10. (3) 17. (a) Total external force is zero ( ∑ Fi =
0)
6. External torque
11. (4) 12. (2) (b) Total external torque is zero
7. Couple  
13. (1) 14. (1) ( ∑ τi = ∑ ri × Fi = 0)
8. Torque
15. (1) 16. (3) 18. Rω
9. Uniform gravity
17. (3) 18. (2) 19. Right hand rule
10. Radius of Gyration
19. (3) 20. (3) 20. Zero
11. Rotational kinetic
Chapter-8 : Gravitation
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Zero

1. Elliptical −Gm1m2
1. (3) 2. (2)
2. Angular momentum 11.
r
3. (1) 4. (1) Gm1m2
3. 12. ve = 2v 0
5. (1) 6. (2) d2
13. 84.6 min
4. Attractive
7. (4) 8. (1)
5. Inside it  4 π2 
14.  
9. (3) 10. (2) 6. 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2  GMe 
11. (1) 12. (4) 4 15. Constant
7. πGρRe
3
13. (2) 14. (1) 16. 500-800 km
 2h 
15. (1) 16. (2) 8. g 1 −  17. Geostationary
 Re  18. Free fall
17. (4) 18. (2)
 d  19. Telecommunication
19. (4) 20. (4)
9. 1 − 
 Re  20. 100 minutes
Chapter-9 : Mechanical Properties of Solids
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Less

1. (4) 2. (1) 1. Restoring force
12. Gases
2. Elastomers
3. (4) 4. (3)
3. Elastic 13. Less
5. (1) 6. (1)
4. Bulk 14. –3
7. (3) 8. (3)
5. Strain
15. Larger
9. (1) 10. (3) 6. Brittle
16. F
11. (1) 12. (3) 7. Elastic
13. (1) 14. (2) 8. 0.28 and 0.30 17. False
15. (1) 16. (1) 1 18. Solids

9.
B
17. (2) 18. (1) 19. 4F
Yσ2
19. (2) 20. (2) 10. 20. Ductile
2
Chapter-10 : Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Backward thrust

1. (2) 2. (2) 1. Million
12. Flow speed
3. (3) 4. (2) 2. Normal
13. Pressure, external pressure
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. Gauge pressure
14. Magnus effect
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Low
5. Undiminished, equally 15. Strain rate
9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (2) 6. Remains constant 16. 0°C and 37°C
13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Conservation of mass 17. Rapidly, Randomly

15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Low 18. Mass, energy
9. Different magnitude, parallel
17. (4) 18. (1) 19. More
10. Kinetic energy change, potential energy
19. (4) 20. (2) 20. Shearing stress, strain rate
change
Chapter-11 : Thermal Properties of Matter
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. True

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Temperature 12. False
3. (2) 4. (4) 2. Temperature difference 13. High
5. (1) 6. (1) 3. 180, 100
14. Boiling point
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. Straight line
15. Triple point
9. (1) 10. (1) 5. Pressure
16. Increased
11. (4) 12. (3) 6. High
17. True
13. (4) 14. (3) 7. More
18. Forced convection
15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Decreases, decreases
19. True
17. (3) 18. (4) 9. 1.2 × 10–4
20. Wien’s displacement
19. (2) 20. (3) 10. Two
Chapter-12 : Thermodynamics
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 12. Isochoric process

1. (3) 2. (4) 1. Macroscopic
13. Heat, work
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Zeroth
14. Infinite
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Temperature
4. State variable 15. Kelvin Planck
7. (3) 8. (3)
5. Heat and work 16. Irreversible
9. (3) 10. (2)
6. Conservation of energy
11. (4) 12. (3) 17. Process
7. ∆Q and ∆W (Heat and work)
13. (4) 14. (4) 18. Less
8. Equation of state
15. (1) 16. (1) 9. Extensive, Intensive, Extensive, Intensive T2
19.
T1
17. (4) 18. (3) 10. Isothermal
19. (2) 20. (1) 11. On the, released 20. Efficiency
Chapter-13 : Kinetic Theory
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Square root of their masses
1. (1) 2. (2) 1. Decreases 12. Translational
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Falls 13. 1
K BT , of equipartition of energy
2
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Increase
14. 3 RT
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. 3 times
15. Number density, diameter
9. (4) 10. (3) 5. Increases
16. Less
11. (2) 12. (1) 6. Avogadro
17. Process
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Ideal gas
18. Temperature, pressure
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Dalton’s law
19. Elastic
17. (1) 18. (1) 9. Absolute temperature
20. KBT
19. (4) 20. (2) 10. Temperature, volume, pressure
Chapter-14 : Oscillations
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Damped
1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Opposite 11. Negative of displacement
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Four 12. Mean position
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. π/2 13. Straight line
7. (1) 8. (1) 1 14. Remains same

4. m
6 15. Periodic
9. (2) 10. (2)
1 16. 84.6 min = 1.4 hour
11. (4) 12. (1) 5.
2
17. Simple Harmonic motion
13. (1) 14. (1)
6. More
18. 3 N
15. (2) 16. (4) 7. Zero
T
17. (2) 18. (1) 19.
8. Periodic and simple harmonic 6
19. (2) 20. (2) 9. Resonance 20. Potential, Kinetic
Chapter-15 : Waves
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Phase

1. (4) 2. (2) 1. Energy, Matter 12. Displacement
3. (3) 4. (3) 2. Shearing 13. Slightly different
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Fundamental
14. Longitudinal, transverse
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Elastic properties
15. Phases
9. (2) 10. (2) 5. 180°
16. Phase, Amplitudes
11. (3) 12. (1) 6. Algebraic sum
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Twice 17. Opposite
15. (4) 16. (4) 8. Pressure 18. Refracted

17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Number of waves 19. Same
19. (3) 20. (1) 10. Same phase
20. Antinodes
  
Electric Charges and Fields
1
Chapter
1 ELECTRIC CHARGE 3 CONDUCTORS AND INSULATORS 4 CHARGES INTERACTION

Positive and negative charges were named by Benjamin Franklin. Coulomb’s law is quantitative statement about force
m Some substances which readily allow passage of
Charging can be done by electricity through them are called conductors between two point charges.
1. Friction 2. Induction 3. Conduction m Metals, human body and earth are conductors. m Force varies inversely as square of distance between
Charging by friction m Materials which opposes flow of charge through them the charges and directly proportional to product of
When glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod acquires one type are insulators. magnitude to two charges and acts along the line
of charge and silk acquires other type of charge. m Glass, porcelain, plastic, nylon, wood etc are insulators. joining two charges
Earthing m Two charges q1 and q2 separated by distance r in
2 PROPERTIES OF CHARGES A process of sharing charges with earth is called grounding vacuum, the magnitude of force (F) between them
m Two types of charges exist. or earthing
| q1q2 |
F =K
m Like charges repel unlike attract. r2
m A body is charged by loss or gain of electrons. m Accelerating charges emit radiations. K depends on system of units and medium. In SI unit
m In an isolated systems, total charge remains conserved. m Gold leaf electroscope detects charge on a body. in vacuum K = 9 × 109 . Unit of charge is coulomb(C)
m Charge exists in discrete nature. q = ± n × e m Charge is scalar and additive in nature. 1 (q1q2) , e0 = 8.854 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2
F=
m Moving charge has magnetic effects along with electric effects. 4pe0 r2
5 FORCE BETWEEN MULTIPLE CHARGES 6 ELECTRIC FIELD OF GHARGES

Force on any charge due to number of other charges is the vector sum of all m A charge placed at a point produces an electric field everywhere in the surrounding. When another charge is
brought in field, field there acts on it and produces a force. Faraday introduced field concept.
the forces on that charge due to the other charges, taken one at a time, the
m Electric field intensity produced by a charge Q at a point distance r is given by
individual forces are unaffected by presence of other charges. This is termed 1 Q
E(r) = r
as superposition principle of electrostatics. Vector sum of forces is obtained 4pe0 r2
by parallelogram law of addition of vectors. Force on first charge due to other m SI unit of electric field is N/C. Field intensity at a point due to charge Q in space is defined as the force
n qi that a unit positive charge would experience if placed at that point.
® q r1i
is given as F1 = 1
4pe0 i =2 r1i2 ®
® F
lim
m E =q®0
q
7 ELECTRIC DIPOLE
m An electric dipole is an arrangement of pair of equal and opposite point charges separated by m Field vary from point to point and is a vector quantity. Field can transport energy.
a distance.
m Direction from –q to +q is direction of dipole moment. Field Due to System of Charges
Electric fields due to dipole Electric field at a point P in space due to system of charges is defined as force
experienced by a unit test charge placed at that point
On Axis of Dipole On Equatorial Plane
® ® ® 1 n qi
® 1
®
2pr 1 2p ® –1
®
p –1 p E(r) = 2
rip
E = 4pe » 4pe (if r >> a) E = 4pe » (if r >> a) 4pe0 i =1 r i p
0 (r 3 – a 2) 2 0 r3 0 (r 2 + a2) 3/2 4pe0 (r3)
78 Electric Charges and Fields NCERT Maps
m Polar molecule : H2O have permanent electric dipole moment even in absence of electric field. 10 ELECTRIC FLUX
m Non polar molecule : CH4, CO2. The Dipole moment is zero. m Similar to fluid flow an analogous quantity exists in electrostatic called electric flux.
m A dipole in external uniform electric field experience torque but no net force. There is no flow of observable quantity.
® ® ® qE E
t=p×E E q m The number of (field) lines crossing a unit area placed normal to field at a point is
|t| = PE sinq P –q +q measure of strength of electric field at that point.
qE m Number of field lines crossing DS area is proportional to EDScosq. This is called
Force Force
electric flux through area element DS.
8 ELECTRIC FIELD LINES ® ®
Df = E·DS = EDS cosq
(Lines of force by Faraday) ® ®
Region of q = angle between E and outward drawn normal to area element DS .
Field lines carry information about direction of weak field –1 2
S m Units : NC m
electric field at different points in space. Relative ® ®
m Total flux f » SE·DS
density of field lines at different points indicates Region of
strong field
Approximate sign is because electric field is taken uniform over area element.
P ®®
relative strength of electric fields at these points. If DS ® 0 then, f = E·ds
R P2
Faraday introduced non mathematical way of
r1 = OP1 r22 DW
visualizing electric field around charge r12 DW
11 GAUSS’S LAW
O q
configuration. q DW r2 = OP2 m Total electric flux through closed surface s = e , where q = Total charge enclosed by s
0
m Total flux is zero if closed surface encloses no charge.
9 ELECTRIC FIELD LINES PROPERTIES m Gauss law is true for any surface, no matter what its shape or size is.
m It is a way of pictorially mapping the electric field around a configuration of charges. m q is total charge enclosed by surface, located anywhere inside.
m A line is a curve drawn in such a way that tangent to it at each point is in the direction of m Gaussian surface should not pass through discrete charges.
net field at that point. m Any violation of Gauss’s law will indicate departure of inverse square law.
m A field line is a space curve (A curve in three dimension)
Application of Gauss’s law
m Field lines of a single positive charge are radially outward.
m Electric field due to infinitely long wire
m Field lines start from positive charges and end at negative charges.
l
E= , at distance r from linearly charged rod.
m From a single charge, line can start from or end at infinity. 2pe0r
m In a charge free region, electric field lines can be taken to be continuous curves m Field of Uniformly Charged Shell m Electric field due to infinite plane sheet
without any breaks. q ® s
E= (r ³ R) n is independent of distance from sheet.
4pe 0 r 2 E=
m Two field lines can never cross each other. 2e0
m Electrostatic field lines don’t form any closed loop. This follows from their Directed out for q > 0, directed inwards for q < 0
conservative nature. E = 0 (r < R) field is zero inside shell.
NCERT Maps Electric Charges and Fields 79
1. The electrostatic force between two small 5. An electron falls through distance of (3) The electric field due to a point charge
charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10–6 2 × 10–2 m in uniform electric field from state has spherical symmetry
C and 3 × 10–6 C placed 30 cm apart in air is of rest. The time of fall if E = 6 × 104 NC–1 is (4) A test charge q experiences electric
[NCERT Pg. 46] 
[NCERT Pg. 21] force F at a point then electric field

(1) 0.9 N (2) 0.6 N (1) 1.5 × 10–6 s
 F
intensity is defined as E = 2
(3) 1.2 N (4) 1.8 N q
(2) 1.94 × 10–9 s
2. Four point charges q A =−2 µC, qB =−5 µC , 8. A proton and an electron are released form
(3) 3.3 × 10–5 s
qC =−2 µC and qD =−5 µC are located at rest in uniform electric field then the correct
(4) 2.3 × 10–6 s statement among the following is
the corners of a square of side 20 cm (In
cyclic order). What is electric force on a 6. Consider charges q, –q and q placed at [NCERT Pg. 46]
charge of 1 µC placed at the centre of vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown
(1) Time required to fall through certain
square? [NCERT Pg. 46] in figure. Calculate force on –q charge due
distance is more for an electron
to other. [NCERT Pg. 17]
(1) 0.9 N (2) Zero (2) The force experiences by proton will be
(3) 0.6 N (4) 2.4 N more
2.5 × 10−7 C (3) Magnitude of acceleration experienced

3. A system of two charges q=
A
by proton is more
−2.5 × 10−7 C are located at points
and qB =
(4) KE gained by both charges in moving
A: (0, 0, – 15 cm) and B: (0, 0, 15 cm) 2 2 through same distance are equal
q q
respectively. The electric dipole moment of (1) 2
(2)
system is [NCERT Pg. 46]
2πε0  4πε0  2 9. Regarding electric lines of force, the correct
statement is/are [NCERT Pg.24]
(1) 2.5 × 10–7 C m (2) 5 × 10–7 C m 2q 2 3q 2
(3) (4) (1) Field lines carry information about
(3) 7.5 × 10–8 C m (4) Zero πε0  2 4πε0  2
direction of electric field
4. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found 7. Which among the given statements is (2) Relative density of field lines at different
to have negative charge of 3.2 × 10–6 C. The incorrect statement? [NCERT Pg. 19]
points indicates relative strength of
number of excess electrons on polythene is (1) For every positive point charge, electric
electric field at these points
NCERT Pg. 46] field lines will be directed radially
outwards from charge. (3) The field lines crowd where field is weak
(1) 2 × 1013 (2) 4 × 1012 and spaced apart where field in strong
(2) Magnitude of electric field E will depend
(3) 5.5 × 109 (4) 6 × 1020 on distance form point charge (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
10. The incorrect statement among the following (1) 900 Nm2 C–1 (2) 1800 Nm2 C–1 electric field of 107 N C–1. Maximum torque
statements is [NCERT Pg. 25] exerted by field on dipole is
(3) 600 Nm2 C–1 (4) 3600 Nm2 C–1
(1) Electric field lines can never cross each [NCERT Pg. 31]
13. An infinite long straight wire has linear
other (1) 2 × 10–4 Nm (2) 4 × 10–4 Nm
charge density λ = 4 × 105 C m–1. The
(2) Electrostatic field lines do not form any electric force experienced by a proton at (3) 8 × 10–4 Nm (4) 2 × 10–6 Nm
closed loop perpendicular distance of 10 mm from axis
17. A thin spherical shell is given a charge
(3) In charge free region, electric field lines of wire is [NCERT Pg. 37]
q = 4 µC, uniformly distributed over its
can be taken to be continuous curve
(1) 1.25 × 10–4 N (2) 1.68 × 10–3 N surface. Consider a point P outside the shell
(4) Field lines around a system of two at distance of 2 m from surface. If the radius
(3) 2.8 × 10–6 N (4) 1.15 × 10–1 N
positive charges is straight and parallel of shell is 1 m, what is electric field at point
lines pictorially 14. Coulomb’s law of electrostatic for the force P? [NCERT Pg. 39]
between two point charges most closely
11. A dipole consist of two charges q and –q (1) 4 kN C–1 (2) 2 kN C–1
resembles [NCERT Pg. 12]
separated by a distance 2a. The electric field
(3) 9 kN C–1 (4) 36 kN C–1
of this dipole at distance r from centre of (1) Law of conservation of charges
dipole at a point A on axis is [NCERT Pg.28] 18. Figure shows track of three positive charged
(2) Law of conservation of energy
particles through uniform electric field E. All
2p 2p
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) Newton’s second law of motion charges are equal in value. Which charge
4πε0 r
4πε0 (r 2
+ a2 ) 2 particle has more initial kinetic energy on
(4) Newton’s law of gravitation
entering horizontally between the plate?
p 2 pr 15. A point charge q of mass m is placed in front
(3) 3
(4) [NCERT Pg. 47]
4πε0 r 4πε0 (r 2 − a 2 )2 of a uniformly charged infinite sheet and
released. The surface charge density of
12. Electric field components are
1
sheet is σ C m–2. The kinetic energy of
E= 100 x ,
2 E= E= 0. Calculate net charge after t second is [NCERT Pg. 39]
x y z
electric flux though the cube placed in q 2 σ2 t 2 q 2 σ2 t 2

(1) (2)
electric field at shown position. 4ε02 m ε02 m
[NCERT Pg. 35]
q 2 σ2 t 2 q 2 σ2 t 2
(3) (4) (1) Particle 1
8ε02 m 4ε02 m 2
(2) Particle 2
16. An electric dipole consists of two equal and
opposite charges 0.02 µ C separated by (3) Particle 3
2 mm. The dipole is placed is uniform (4) Both 1 and 2 have equal initial KE
NCERT Maps Electric Charges and Fields 81
19. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 20. Incorrect statement among the following is (3) Gauss’s law is based on inverse square
3 m diameter has a surface charge density dependence of electric field on distance
[NCERT Pg.48]
of 90 µC/m2. What is total electric flux
leaving the surface of sphere? (1) Gauss’s law is useful in calculating (4) In situation when surface is so chosen
[NCERT Pg.48] that some charges are outside and some
electric field when system has some
(1) 1.76 × 108 N m2 C–1 inside, electric field (whose flux appears
symmetry
(2) 2.87 × 108 N m2 C–1 on left side of Gauss’s equation) is only
(2) Gaussian surface can pass through a
(3) 5.2 × 108 N m2 C–1 due to the charges inside the closed
continuous charge distribution
(4) 4.52 × 106 N m2 C–1 surface
1. When a charge is put on an insulator, it 6. SI units of absolute permittivity of free space 11. Electrostatic field lines do not form any
stays at same place, when some charge is is _____. [NCERT Pg. 11] closed loops. This follows from the
transferred to conductor it gets distributed 7. Coulomb’s law of electrostatic agrees with conservative nature of electric field. The
over ______ surface of conductor. statement is [NCERT Pg. 25]
the Newton’s ______ law. [NCERT Pg. 12]
[NCERT Pg. 5] (1) True (2) False
8. The ratio of electrostatic force between two
2. A body is positively charged by ____ protons to gravitational force at same 12. Total charge of electric dipole is _____. The
electrons and negatively charged by ____ electric field at distance much larger than
separation in vacuum is ____.
electrons. [NCERT Pg. 4] dipole length of a dipole, on a plane
[NCERT Pg. 13] perpendicular to dipole axis varies as ____.
3. A simple apparatus to detect charge on a
9. Experimentally it is verified that force on any NCERT Pg. 27]
body is ____. [NCERT Pg. 3]
charge due to number of other charges is
4. When electrified rods are brought near light 13. Total electric flux through a closed surface
the vector sum of all the forces on that
objects. The rod induces opposite charges q
charge due to other charges. This is termed is equal to , here q is _______.
on near surface of the objects and similar ε0
as _____. [NCERT Pg. 15]
type of charges move to farther side of [NCERT Pg. 34]
10. Away from a point charge, the field gets
objects, this method is called _____. 14. In a situation when surface is so chosen that
weaker and density of field lines is less,
[NCERT Pg. 6] there are some charges inside and some
resulting in well separated field line away
5. Experimentally, it is established that all free outside. The electric field whose flux
from charge. This statement is
charges are integral multiple of basic unit of appears on left side of Gauss’s equation is
charge. This discrete nature of charge is [NCERT Pg. 23] due to all charges ____ the surface.
called ______ of change. [NCERT Pg. 08] (1) True (2) False [NCERT Pg. 34]
15. The shape of graph between electric field 18. Statement A: Coulomb’s force and 19. The electric field due to a discrete charge
intensity and distance from axis of uniformly gravitational force follow the same inverse configuration is not defined at the location of
charged wire is ______. [NCERT Pg. 38] the discrete charges. The statement is
law.
[NCERT Pg. 45]
16. Electric field due to uniformly charged large
Statement B: Gravitation force has one sign (1) True (2) False
planar sheet from the surface of planar
(Only attractive) and Coulomb force can 20. The electric field due to charge configuration
sheet is _____ distance from sheet.
give both signs (attractive and repulsive). with total charge zero is not zero, but for
[NCERT Pg. 39]
distance large compared to the
17. Electric field inside uniformly charged thin Both statements are
1
configuration, its field falls of faster than 2 ,
spherical shell is ___and for points outside [NCERT Pg. 45] r
the shell, entire charge of the shell is typical of field due to single charge. This
(1) True
assumed to be concentrated at ____. statement is [NCERT Pg. 46]
[NCERT Pg. 39] (2) False (1) True (2) False
  
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
2
Chapter
1 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL ENERGY 3 ELECTRIC POTENTIAL 7 RELATION BETWEEN FIELD AND POTENTIAL
m
Work done by an external force in bringing a unit positive E
Work done by external force in moving a charge against V + dV
charge from infinity to that point without acceleration is equal
electrostatic repulsive force gets stored in it as potential
energy. to electrostatic potential at that point. dl
m Electric potential energy difference between two points Its SI unit is volt.
is work required to be done by an external force in slowly E = – dV/dl
moving charge from one point to another against 4 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL DUE TO A
electric field of any charge configuration. POINT CHARGE
8 POTENTIAL DUE TO UNIFORMLY CHARGED
m Potential energy of a charge at a point in electric field Q SPHERICAL CONDUCTING SHELL
V(r) =
due to any charge configuration, is the work done by 4pe0r
external force in slowly bringing the charge from infinity V V
For Q > 0, V > 0
to that point. For Q < 0, V < 0
r r 1 q
0 r m
V = 4pe r (r ³ R)
U = Fext . dr = – FE . dr 0 O R (r)
¥ ¥ q is charge on shell and R is its radius.
5 POTENTIAL DUE TO A SYSTEM OF CHARGES
(SUPERPOSITION LAW) m Potential is constant inside shell and is equal to
2 POTENTIAL ENERGY OF A SYSTEM
OF CHARGES potential at surface.
m Potential at a point due to total charge configuration is 1 q
V=
m For assembly of two charges the algebraic sum of the potentials due to individual 4pe0 R
charges
q1 q2 9 EQUIPOTENTIAL SURFACES
for q1 and q2 at separation r q
1
r V = V1 + V2 + V3 + .......= å ri m It is a surface with a constant value of potential at all points
4pe0 i
on its surface.
1 q1q2 m Equipotential surfaces of a single point charge are
U= (Depends on charge nature)
4pe0 r concentric spherical shells centered at the charge.
6 POTENTIAL DUE TO AN ELECTRIC DIPOLE
m m For any charge configuration, an equipotential surface is
For assembly of three charges
U=
1
) q 1q 2 q 1q 3 q2q3
r12 + r13 + r23
) m V=
pcosq
4pe0r2
m
normal to electric field at that point
No two equipotential surfaces cut each other.
4pe0 (r >> dipole length at general point) For dipole : Equipotential surfaces :
q2
r23 m Potential on axis of dipole
r12 q3 1 p + For q = 0 – ––
V=±
4pe0 r2 – For q = p
r13
m
q1 Potential in the equatorial plane of dipole is zero
84 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance NCERT Maps
10 POTENTIAL ENERGY IN EXTERNAL FIELD 13 DIELECTRICS 16 PARALLEL PLATE CAPACITOR
m Dielectrics are non conducting substances

V2 e0A
having no charge carriers. C= d
E q2 ++++++++++++
m Polar dielectric : Polar dielectric has E d Plate area : A (For each)
permanent dipole moment. Ex. HCl, H2O.
r12 m Non polar dielectric : Non polar dielectric has Plate separation : d
V1
no dipole moment. Ex. O2, H2.
q1
m A dielectric with polar/non polar molecules Dielectric inserted occupying full intervened region
develops a net dipole moment in an external Ke A
C = d0
q1q2 electric field. The dielectric is polarized.
U = q1V1 + q2V2 + 4pe r K = dielectric constant of the substance
0 12 Dipole moment developed per unit volume
called polarization P.
17 COMBINATION OF CAPACITORS
11 POTENTIAL ENERGY OF A DIPOLE P = e0ceE, ce = electric susceptibility of
dielectric medium. Series Combination of Parallel Combination of
Capacitors Capacitors
U(q) = –pEcosq = –p. E ce = (K – 1)
Charges on plates ± Q are same Same potential difference is
on each capacitor. applied across each
+q 14 DIELECTRIC STRENGTH + Q1 –
capacitor.
V = V1 + V2 + V3 Plate charges not
m Maximum value of electric field that a dielectric necessarily same.
1 1 1 1 + C1 –
p medium can withstand without breakdown (of = + +
E C C1 C2 C3 Equivalent capacity Q2
its insulating property) is called its dielectric +– +– +– C = C1 + C2 + C3 A B
+ C2 –
strength . A B Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
m For air dielectric strength is + –
C1 C2 C3 m Equivalent capacity
E = 3 x 106 V/m Q3 C3
–q Equivalent capacity decreases.
m increases in parallel
m For any capacitor, the electric field do not
12 ELECTROSTATICS OF A CONDUCTOR exceed the break down limits. There is limit to 18 ENERGY STORED IN A CAPACITOR
charge amount that can be stored on a given 1
m Inside conductor, electrostatic field is zero, either is QV 1 Q2 U/V = u = e E2
capacitor without significance leakage. m U= = CV2 = m
2 0
neutral or charged. 2 2 2C
(Enegry density)
m Electrostatic potential is constant throughout volume of
the conductor & same value as on surface. 15 CAPACITANCE OF CAPACITORS
19 CHARGE SHARING IN CAPACITORS
m If a cavity is created inside conductor and a charge is kept Q
C= m When two capacitors of different potential are joined with positive plates
outside cavity. Any electric field outside conductor does V
together and negative together, common potential is
not enter into the cavity. So cavity of conductor remains C is independent of Q and V but depends on
C1V1 + C2V2
shielded. shape, size and separation of system of two V=
C1 + C 2
m No work done is done in moving a charge on a conducting conductors & also on dielectric, separating two m Final energy is less than initial and is lost as heat and electromagnetic
surface. conductors. Every capacitor has limited electric radiation
m When a conductor placed in external electric field, field capacity. 1 C 1C 2 2
lines are always normal to conducting surface. DU = 2 C + C (V1 – V2)
SI unit : F (farad) 1 2
NCERT Maps Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 85
1. An electric point charge q = 6µC is placed at (1) The electric dipole potential falls off, at
origin of x – y Co-ordinate axis. Calculate large distance, as 1/r2
electric potential due to the charge at point (2) The electric potential due to dipole in the
P(12m, 16m) in free space. equatorial position is zero
[NCERT Pg. 54] (3) (3) The electric potential due to dipole has
axial symmetry about dipole moment
(1) 1.2 kV (2) 2.3 kV 
vector P
(3) 3.7 kV (4) 2.7 kV (4) Electric potential on dipole axis is
maximum.
2. The comparative graph of potential and
5. Two charges 6 nC and –4 nC are located
electric field due to a point charge at a
15 cm apart. At what point on line joining two
distance r from it is best shown by graph.
charges is electric potential zero?
(1) 6 cm from 6 nC charge
(4)
(4) 9 cm from –4 nC charge
(1)
6. The incorrect statement regarding
equipotential surface is [NCERT Pg. 60]
3. A point charge Q = 4 × 10–7 C is placed at a
point in free space. How much work is (1) Equipotential surface through a point is
required to bring a charge 2 nC from infinity normal to electric field at that point
to a point 9 cm from charge Q? (2) An equipotential surface is a surface
[NCERT Pg. 55] with a constant value of potential at all
(1) 3 × 10–4 J points on the surface
(2) 8 × 10–5 J (3) Equipotential surfaces of a single point

charge are concentric spherical
(2) (3) 2 × 10–5 J surfaces centred at the charge
(4) 5 × 10–5 J (4) For uniform electric field along x-axis,
4. Which among the following statements is an equipotential surfaces are planes
incorrect statement? [NCERT Pg. 57] parallel x – y plane
7. Work done by external agent in assembling 10. When a conductor is placed inside uniform 13. A network of four capacitors each 10 µF are
three identical charges from infinity to given electric field. Then [NCERT Pg. 68] connected as shown with 500V supply.
locations is (1) At the surface of conductor, electrostatic Calculate the ratio of charges stored on
field is normal to the surface at every C4 and C2
point.
[NCERT Pg. 62]
(2) Inside the conductor, electrostatic field
5 q2  5 q2  is zero.
(1) (2)  
8ε 0 r  8πε0 r  (3) The electrostatic potential is constant
throughout the volume of conductor and
5 q2 3q2
(3) (4) has the same value on its surface
2πε0 r 8πε0r
(4) All of above are correct
[NCERT Pg. 80]
8. Two point charges 7 µC and –2 µC are 11. Two conductors are separated by distance
placed at position (–9 cm, 0) and (9 cm, 0) of 1 cm in air. The dielectric strength of air is (1) 1
respectively. How much work is required to about 3 × 106 Vm–1. What maximum safe
separate two charges infinitely away from 1
potential difference can be applied across (2)
each other? [NCERT Pg. 66] 2
conductors? [NCERT Pg. 78]
(1) 0.2 J (2) 0.5 J (1) 3 × 104 V (2) 6 × 104 V 1
(3)
(3) 3 × 106 V (4) 1.5 × 104 V 3
(3) 0.6 J (4) 0.7 J
12. A slab of material having dielectric constant (4) 3
9. A dipole with dipole moment 3 × 10–9 C m is
K = 1.5 has the same area as of a plates of
placed in external uniform field of E = 4 × 14. A 900 pF parallel plate capacitor is charged
105 N C–1. Calculate amount of work done 3
parallel plate capacitor but has thickness by 100 V ideal battery. The space between
by field in rotating the dipole from θ = 60º to 4
the plates is 1cm. How much electrostatic
of plate separation is introduced between
0º. (θ is angle between electric field E and energy is stored per unit volume of empty
the plates of the capacitor having
dipole moment vector) [NCERT Pg. 66] space of capacitor? NCERT Pg. 82]
capacitance C. On introducing slab,
(1) 200 µJ capacity becomes factor of [NCERT Pg. 78] (1) 4.42 × 10–4 Jm–3
(2) 600 µJ 12 5 (2) 8.85 × 10–6 Jm–3

(1) C (2) C
7 7
(3) 300 µJ (3) 2.21 × 10–7 Jm–3
6 4
(4) 90 µJ (3) C (4) C (4) 6. 2 × 10–6 Jm–3
7 3
NCERT Maps Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 87
15. A 90 pF capacitor is charged by a 10 V (3) Capacitance C decreases from initial 19. A spherical capacitor consists of two
battery. The capacitor is then disconnected value C0 to (C0 / K) concentric spherical conductors held in
from battery and connected to another position by filling insulating material of
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
charged 90 pF capacitor. Final electrostatic dielectric constant 6. The inner sphere has
energy stored by the system is 17. A parallel plate capacitor with each plate of
radius of 10 cm and outer has 40 cm.
[NCERT Pg. 82] area 6 × 10–3 m2 has plate separation of
The capacitance of spherical capacitor is
3 mm. A 3 mm thick mica sheet of dielectric
[NCERT Pg. 91]
constant K = 6 was inserted between the
(1) 100 pF (2) 108 pF
plates. If this capacitor is connected to
100 volt supply, what is charge on positive (3) 88.8 pF (4) 73.3 pF
plate of capacitor? [NCERT Pg. 87] 20. A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed
with a voltage rating of 2 kV, using a
(1) 1.92 × 10–9 C (2) 1.06 × 10–8 C
material of dielectric constant 3 and
(1) 225 pJ (2) 2.25 nJ (3) 4.2 × 10–8 C (4) 4.36 × 10–7 C dielectric strength about 12 × 106 Vm–1, for
(3) 4.5 pJ (4) 4.5 nJ 18. Equivalent capacitance of the network safety we should like the field never exceed
across points A and B is 20% of dielectric strength. What minimum
16. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a
battery. Now battery is removed and area of plate is required to have
medium between the plates of the capacitance of 60 pF?
capacitor is filled with an insulating [NCERT Pg. 91]
material of dielectric constant K, then –6 2
[NCERT Pg. 85] (1) 1.2 × 10 m
(1) Electric field due to charged plates (2) 4.75 × 10 m

–4 2
induces a net dipole moment in the [NCERT Pg. 90]

–3 2
dielectric (insulating material) (1) 200 pF (2) 150 pF (3) 1.88 × 10 m
(2) Net potential difference between the (3) 100 pF (4) 700 pF (4) 5.65 × 10 m
–3 2
plates is reduced
1. The electric field is discontinuous across the 2. Two large conducting spheres carrying
3. Constant uniform electric field is along Y
surface of a charged conductor, but electric charges Q1 and Q2 are brought close to
axis, then equipotential surfaces
potential is continuous over the surface. The each other. The electrostatic potential
corresponding to field is in____ plane.
statement is ______ (True/False) energy of the configuration_____.
[NCERT Pg. 91] [NCERT Pg. 91] [NCERT- Pg. 91]
4. A large number of 1 µF capacitors are 10. The maximum electric field that a dielectric 16. Electric field inside uniformly charged
available which can withstand a potential medium can withstand without breakdown conducting shell is ______ and electric
difference of 250 V. A technician requires of its insulating property is called its______. potential inside shell is_____.
a capacitance of 1 µF in a circuit across [NCERT Pg. 74] [NCERT Pg. 58]
1000 V, the minimum number of capacitors 11. The capacity of any capacitor is
17. The electric potential due to dipole depends
required will be________. [NCERT Pg. 89] independent of Q or V but capacity depends
not just on distance from dipole but also on
5. Any cavity in a conductor remains shielded only on_______. [NCERT Pg. 74]
angle between position vector and dipole
from outside electric influence. This is 12. When a polar or non polar dielectric moment vector. This statement is _______
known as _________. [NCERT Pg. 87] develops a net dipole moment in the
(True/False) [NCERT Pg. 57]
presence of external field, the dipole
6. Equivalent capacitance when capacitors are
moment per unit volume is called _______. 18. Work done by an external force in bringing a
arranged in series is ______ than when
[NCERT Pg. 72] unit positive charge from infinity to that point
same capacitors are arranged in parallel.
is equal to ______ at that point
[NCERT Pg. 86] 13. No work is done in moving a charge (test)
within the conductor and on its surface. [NCERT Pg. 53]
7. The electrostatic force is conservative in
Thus there is no potential difference 19. Actual value of potential energy is not
nature, so work done on charging a between any two points inside or on the
capacitor gets stored as potential energy of physically significant, it is only the difference
surface of the conductor. This statement is
system. This statement is ____ (True/False) of potential energy that is significant. So
_______ (True/False) [NCERT Pg. 68]
there is always a freedom in choosing a
[NCERT Pg. 81] 14. Electric field is in the direction in which
point where potential energy is zero. The
8. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacity 1F electric potential ______. The magnitude of
statement is _______ (True/False)
cannot be kept in a room. This statement is electric field is given by change in
magnitude of potential _______ normal to [NCERT Pg. 53]
________. (True/False) [NCERT Pg. 75]
an equipotential surface at the point.
9. Electric field between plates of parallel 20. 64 identical mercury droplets equally
[NCERT Pg. 61] charged are combined to form a big drop.
capacitor is uniform. But this is not true near
the outer boundaries of the plates. The field 15. An equipotential surface through a point is The capacity of big drop compared to one
lines bend outward at the edge, this effect is ______ electric field at that point. droplet increases by a factor of______.
called________. [NCERT Pg. 75]
  
Current Electricity
3
Chapter
1 ELECTRIC CURRENT 4 OHM's LAW 5 RESISTIVITY AND ITS 6 TYPES AND COLOUR CODING
Current through a given area is net charge The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to TEMPERATURE OF RESISTORS
potential difference across it, provided temperature is constant. DEPENDENCE (a) Wire Bound Resistors
passing per unit time through the area.
m Made of materials which are relatively
m Current may not always be steady. We V µ I or V = RI m Materials are classified as
insensitive to temperature.
–1
define current in general R is the resistance of substance. SI unit of is ohm (1 W = 1 V A ) conductors, m Winding of wires are of alloys viz.,
Equivalent form: J = sE (J : Current density vector) semiconductors and manganin, constantan, nichrome etc.
DQ
I = lim rl insulators according to their m Range : fraction of an ohm to few
Dt ® 0 DT Factors affecting R: R = hundred ohms.
A resistivity value.
m Its SI unit is ampere (A) 1. Material of conductor (b) Carbon Resistors
m Metals have resistivity range
2. Area of cross-section of conductor m Compact, inexpensive and have higher
m A cell can maintain a steady current –8 –6
3. Length of conductor, 10 W m to 10 W m. range.
Insulators have resistivity m Colour coding of carbon resistors
2 DRIFT VELOCITY Limitation of ohm's law m
m The relation of V and I is not unique in GaAs. 5 18

Colour Number Multiplier Tolerance
The charge carriers like electrons move with range from 10 to 10 W
m V ceases to be proportional to I. Material becomes non- (%)
an average velocity which is independent of m.
ohmic material. Black 0 1
time, this is phenomenon of drift, and is m For metallic conductor over
m For a diode, relation of V and I depends on sign of V. This Brown 1 101
called drift velocity. material is used in electronic devices. a limited range, resistivity is Red 2 102
–eE approximately given by Orange 3 103
vd = t
m Negative
Non-linear resistance
I rT = r0 [1 + a(T –T0)] Yellow 4 104
1.5 mA
t = relaxation time. region region Green 5 105
I (mA)
rT = resistivity at temp. T
Although collision of electrons don't occur at Blue 6 106
r0 = resistivity at temp. T0
regular intervals but average time between –2 0.2
V Violet 7 107
a = temperature coefficient Gray 8 108
successive collision is taken as relaxation 0
V (GaAs) I mA
(not obeying ohm's law) of resistivity White 9 109
time.
Gold 10–1 5
Silver 10–2 10
3 CURRENT DENSITY AND MOBILITY
W m)
No colour 20
Current through unit cross-sectional area is m Conductivity is due to mobile carriers. V 0.4
–8
(10
called current density. m In metals, charge carriers are electrons. 0.2 7 CELL AND ITS EMF
m It is denoted by J and is a vector. m In ionised gas, they are electrons and r
m It is a simple device which can maintain a
–2
positive charged ions. 0
T(K) steady current in electric circuit.
m SI unit is A m I 50 100 200 m EMF of cell is potential difference
2 m In electrolytes they are positive and (For good conductor) (Copper) between positive and negative electrode
ne
m J = sE = t E negative ions. when no current is flowing through the
(mW m)
m cell.
m Mobility is magnitude of drift velocity per 1.20 r
m V = e – ir (discharging)
s = conductivity unit electric field. 1.10 V = e + ir (charging)
E = electric field inside conductor |vd| et r m r is called internal resistance. The actual
m= = 1.00
E m T(K) T(K) value of r vary from cell to cell.
The relation is Ohm's law in microscopic 2 –1 –1 200 400 600 0 m Internal resistance of dry cell is higher
form. m SI units are m V s (Nichrome) Semi-conductors than electrolytic cell.
90 Current Electricity NCERT Maps
8 COMBINATION OF RESISTORS 10 KIRCHHOFF'S RULES 12 WHEATSTONE BRIDGE B

The resistors are sometimes joined m For complicated electric circuits to m Wheatstone bridge in its balanced condition provide a
together and there are simple rules for R2 unknown
determine all the currents and potential practical method for determination of internal resistance.
R4
calculation of equivalent resistance of differences, Kirchhoff formulated two m If R1 and R2 are two resistances in first and second arm and R3
such combination. A G C
laws: in third arm. R3 is kept on changing till galvanometer shows no
1. Series combination: If only one of
their end point is joined. m Junction rule: At any junction, sum of deflection. The bridge is then balanced and from balance
currents entering the junction is equal R1 R3
B A B condition R4 is known.
A = to sum of currents leaving the junction.
I R1 R2 I Req R2 D
m Mesh or loop rule: The algebraic sum R 4 = R3 ×
R1
Req = R1 + R2 r V
of changes in potential around any
m The value of one resistance is determined knowing other
2. Parallel combination: If one end of all closed loop involving resistors and cells
the resistors are joined together and three resistors.
in the loop is equal to zero.
similarly other ends joined together.
Note: Binding or reorientation of wire does R
(The potential drop across resistors is 13 METER-BRIDGE S
not change the validity of junction law. B
same). m It is based on wheatstone bridge.
m With same principle as of Wheatstone G
R1
(I) 11 COMBINATION OF CELLS bridge it is used to calculate unknown A l1 –l1 C
D
I1 = m Cell can be grouped in series or parallel resistance, R, under balance condition.
I Req l1
I2 R2 depending upon current requirements. R =S×
100 - l1 Metre scale
I = I1 + I2 m In series: Two cells of emf e1 and e2 with m Percentage error in R is minimised by
+ –
1 1 1 adjusting balance point near the middle of
internal resistances r 1 and r 2 the
Req = R1 + R2 bridge.
e K1
combination can be considered as one cell
9 Electrical Energy and Power of emf eeq and internal resistance req 14 POTENTIOMETER
Under a potential difference in a e1 e2 This is a versatile electric instrument used to compare emf(s) and to determine internal resistance
conductor charges are moving. These of a cell.
A r1 B I r2 C
charges suffer collisions with ions and
m The method involves condition of no current flow. In this way it can compare emfs of two cells.
atoms during transit. Energy shared by A eeq
m The potentiometer wire has uniform cross-section and homogeneous material so potential drop
ions and atoms heats up the conductor.
I req C per unit length of potentiometer wire is constant.
Amount of energy dissipated as heat per K2
m The formula for internal resistance calculation of cell is
unit time is called power loss. (eeq = e1 + e2) and (req = r1 + r2) R.B.
2 2
P = I R = V /R = IV I1 e
m In parallel combination of two cells
r=R –1 B A
R is resistance when current I is flowing e1
I2
through it. e1r2 + e2r1 I1 I1 l1 = balancing length without shorting cell
eeq = r1 G
This energy is supplied by source in r1 + r2 A I B1 I
e2 B2 I C
l2 = balancing length with cell by parallel resistance R N2
2 I2 R
circuit. r2
m The potentiometer has the advantage that it draws
m For long distance transmission, no current from voltage source being measured. It C N1
r1 r2 eeq
power loss is minimised by req = º is not affected by internal resistance of the source.
r1 + r2 A I req I C
transmitting it at high voltage. Thus it has high accuracy. K1
NCERT Maps Current Electricity 91
1. Estimate the average drift speed of 4. Arrange following materials in correct order (3)
conduction electrons in a conductor of of their conductivity. Nichrome, Copper,
cross-sectional area 10–7 m2 carrying Germanium, Silver.
current of 1.5 A. The number density of [NCERT Pg. 102]
conduction electrons is 8.5 × 1028 m–3. (1) Silicon > Germanium > Nichrome >
Copper (4)
[NCERT Pg. 99]
(2) Silver > Copper > Germanium >
(1) 2.2 mm s–1 Nichrome
(2) 1.1 mm s–1 (3) Silver > Copper > Nichrome >
Germanium
(3) 3.3 mm s–1 (4) Germanium > Nichrome > Copper > 7. A resistor is marked with rings coloured as
(4) 0.1 mm s–1 Silver brown, black, green and gold. The
5. The resistivity of alloy manganin resistance in ohm is [NCERT Pg. 103]
2. Average collision time for electrons in a [NCERT Pg. 102]
conductor under a certain potential (1) (3 × 106 ± 5%) Ω
(1) Increases rapidly with increase of
difference is found to be 10–15 s. The mobility temperature (2) (1.10 × 105 ± 5%) Ω
of electron in metal conductor is (2) Decreases linearly with increase in (3) (106 ± 5%) Ω
[NCERT Pg. 101] temperature
(4) (8.5 × 106 ± 5%) Ω
(3) Increases rapidly with decrease in
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 m2/V s temperature 8. Which among the following statements is
(2) 2.2 × 10–3 m2/V s (4) Is nearly independent of temperature correct? [NCERT Pg. 104]
6. The graph of resistivity versus temperature (1) In a metal, number density is
(3) 2.9 × 10–3 m2/V s for copper is best represented by graph
independent of temperature
(4) 1.75 × 10–4 m2/V s shown below. The correct graph is
(2) With increase in temperature, relaxation
[NCERT Pg. 104]
3. A charged particle is having drift velocity of time in metal decreases
7.5 × 10–4 m s–1 in an electric field of (1)
(3) For semiconductors and insulators
3 × 10–9 V m–1. The electron mobility is number density increases with increase
[NCERT Pg. 101] in temperature
(1) 2.5 × 104 m2 V–1 s–1 (4) All the above
(2) 9. Nichrome has resistance of 75.3 Ω at 30°C.
(2) 2.5 × 105 m2 V–1 s–1
The resistance of nichrome becomes 85.8 Ω
(3) 2.25 × 10–13 m2 V–1 s–1
when current passes through it, if average
(4) 4.1 × 103 m2 V–1 s–1 temperature coefficient of resistance of
nichrome is 1.7 × 10–4 C–1. The temperature
of nichrome now is [NCERT Pg. 105]
(1) 700 °C (2) 750 °C
(3) 850 °C (4) 900 °C
10. The incorrect statement among the
following statements is [NCERT Pg. 111]
(1) Emf of a cell is the potential difference (1) 7 A (2) 10 A
between its positive and negative (3) 2 A (4) 8 A
electrodes in an open circuit 13. When a metal conductor connected to right (1) 1 A
(2) Internal resistance of dry cells is much gap of meter bridge is heated, the balancing
higher than common electrolyte cells. point from left end [NCERT Pg. 120] (2) 2 A
(3) The terminal potential difference of a cell (1) Shifts towards left (3) 3 A
can be zero (2) Shifts towards right (4) 4 A
(4) When current passes from positive to (3) Remains unchanged 16. Four arms of wheat-stone bridge have the
negative terminal of a cell inside it, (4) Shift to zero position following resistances, AB = 60 Ω,
terminal potential difference is less than BC = 100 Ω, CD = 60 Ω, DA= 12 Ω. A
14. Resistance P, Q, S and R are arranged in
its emf.
clockwise cyclic order to form a balanced galvanometer of 15 Ω is connected across
11. When a current of 2 A flows in a battery from wheatstone bridge. The ratio of electric BD. Calculate the value of additional
its negative to positive terminal, the potential power consumed in the branches (P + Q) resistance connected across CD to balance
difference across it is 12 V. If a current of 3 and (R + S) is [NCERT Pg. 109] the bridge. [NCERT Pg. 119]
A is flowing in opposite direction it produces
(1) 1 : 1
a potential difference of 15 V, the emf of the
battery is [NCERT Pg. 111] (2) R : P
(3) R2 : P2
(1) 12.6 V (2) 13.5 V
(4) Q : S
(3) 14.0 V (4) 13.2 V
15. A battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal
12. In the combination of two cells in parallel by resistance is connected across the
joining positive terminals together and diagonally opposite corners of a cubical
similarly two negative ones, the value of network consisting of 12 resistors of network
Eeq (1) 12 Ω (2) 15 Ω
in circuit is [NCERT Pg. 115] each of resistance 1 Ω. The current along
req one edge of the cube is [NCERT Pg. 116] (3) 18 Ω (4) 30 Ω
NCERT Maps Current Electricity 93
17. In a Meter Bridge null point is found to be at 18. In a potentiometer of 8 wires, the balance 20. Pick out wrong statement about the
30 cm from end A. If now a resistance of 10 point is obtained on fifth wire. To shift Kirchhoff’s laws of electric circuit.
balance point to 6th wire, we should
Ω is connected in parallel with S, the null
[NCERT Pg. 122]
[NCERT Pg. 116]
point occurs at 65 cm, value of S is nearly
(1) Decrease resistance in main circuit
(2) Increase resistance in main driver circuit (1) Outgoing currents adds up and are
[NCERT Pg. 121]
(3) Decrease resistance in series with cell equal to incoming currents at a junction
whose emf is to measure
(4) Taking driver battery with higher emf (2) Electric potential in electric circuit is
19. A potentiometer with driver battery of emf 2 position dependent. Starting with any
V is used for determination of internal point if we come back to same point,
resistance of 1.5 V cell. The balance point of
total potential change must be zero
the cell in open circuit is 225 cm. When a
resistance of 7.0 Ω is used in external circuit
(1) 20 Ω (3) Junction rule is based on conservation
across of the cell, the balance point shifts to
210 cm length of potentiometer wire. The of energy law
(2) 28 Ω internal resistance of the cell is
[NCERT Pg. 131] (4) Bending or reorienting the wire does not
(3) 33 Ω
(1) 1 Ω (2) 0.5 Ω change the validity of Kirchhoff’s
(4) 38 Ω (3) 2 Ω (4) 5 Ω junction rule.
1. Resistance of a conductor depends on 4. In a conductor, when no potential difference

(1) True (2) False
material of conductor and also on is applied, average velocity of all free
______ of conductor. [NCERT Pg. 95] 3. Ohm’s law is often stated in an equivalent electrons is ______. [NCERT Pg. 97]
  
2. Halving the area of cross-section of a form J = σE where J is current density and 5. In a conductor, collision of electrons don’t

conductor by dividing the conductor into two E the magnitudes of electric field. The occur at regular intervals but at random
(by cutting it lengthwise); doubles its statement is [NCERT Pg. 97] times. The average time between two
resistance. The statement is successive collision is called ______.
(1) True (2) False [NCERT Pg. 98]
[NCERT Pg. 96]
6. Conductivity of conductor has relation with 11. Between two successive collisions, path of 15. Metals have low resistivities in the order of
number density of free electrons as electrons are straight line in the absence of ______ Ω m to ______ Ω m and for
me 2 electric field but in the presence of electric semiconductors like graphite and silicon, its
=
σ τ . This relation is [NCERT Pg. 99] field, the paths are in general curved. This
n order is from ______ to ______ Ω m
statement is [NCERT Pg. 100] respectively. [NCERT Pg. 102]
(1) True (2) False
(1) True 16. Materials like Nichrome, manganin and
7. The direction of drift velocity of conduction
electrons is ______ to the electric field (2) False constantan are widely used in wire bound
direction. [NCERT Pg. 99] 12. SI units of mobility is ______. standard resistors, since their resistance
[NCERT Pg. 100] value would change very little with ______.
8. Thermal speed of a copper atom with mass
[NCERT Pg. 104]
63.5 u at 300 K is about ______. 13. The relation between potential difference V
applied and flowing current I in certain 17. The emf of a cell is potential difference
[NCERT Pg. 99]
materials depends on sign of V, in other between the positive and negative electrode
9. The ratio of drift speed of an electron to the
words, if I is current for certain V, then of a cell when ______. [NCERT Pg. 110]
magnitude of speed of electromagnetic
reversing the direction of V keeping its 18. The algebraic sum of changes in potential
wave along conductor is approximately
magnitude fixed does not produce current of around any closed loop, involving resistors
______. [NCERT Pg. 99]
same magnitude. One such material is and cells in a loop, is zero. This rule is a
10. When electrons drift in a metal from lower to
_____. [NCERT Pg. 101] statement of ______ rule. [NCERT Pg. 116]
higher potential, it means that all free
14. The relation between potential difference ‘V’ 19. The Wheatstone Bridge and its balance
electrons of metal are moving in same
applied and current (I) flowing through a condition provide a practical method of
direction. This statement is
conductor is not unique. There is more than determination of ______. [NCERT Pg. 119]
[NCERT Pg. 100]
one value of voltage V for same current. A 20. An error in measurement of resistance R, by
(1) True
material exhibiting such behaviour is meter bridge method can be reduced by
(2) False ______. [NCERT Pg. 101] adjusting balance point on wire near
_______. [NCERT Pg. 121]
  
Moving Charges and Magnetism
4
Chapter
1 MAGNETIC FIELD 3 VELOCITY SELECTOR 6 BIOT-SAVART'S LAW

m It is space around a current carrying When electric field and magnetic fields are m According to this law, the magnetic field at a point due to a
conductor in which its magnetic effects can crossed and velocity of particle is perpendicular current element of length dl carrying current I at distance r
to from element is
be felt. E
both fieldsthen particles with speed v = pass r mIdl sin q
m Oersted concluded that moving charges or B dB =
currents produced a magnetic field in the undeflected. This principle is employed in mass 4pr 2
uur r
surrounding space. spectrometer. q is angle between dl and r
2 LORENTZ FORCE 5 CYCLOTRON 7 MAGNETIC FIELD ON AXIS OF CIRCULAR COIL

Mechanical force experienced by a moving charge through A machine to accelerate charged particles or ions to high m0IR 2
electric and magnetic field B=
energies cyclotron; uses both electric and magnetic field in 2(R 2 + x 2 )3/2
r r r r r
F = q éë E + (v ´ B ) ùû = Felectric + Fm agnetic combination to increase kinetic energy of charge particles where R = radius of coil
m Magnetic force depends on magnitude of charge, its m Frequency of revolution of charge particle is independent x = distance along axis from
nature and its velocity. of its energy.
m When charge is at rest, it does not experience any centre of coil plane
magnetic force. m At the centre of loop, x = 0
qB
m f = . The frequency is called cyclotron frequency. m 0I
m When charge is moving parallel to magnetic field, it does 2pm B=
not experience any mechanical force. 2R
The frequency of electric field is in resonance with cyclotron Field lines form closed loop around circular wire
4 MOTION IN MAGNETIC FIELD frequency. Final KE of ion
In uniform magnetic field charge particle can have three types 8 AMPERE'S CIRCUITAL LAW
r uur
of path. q 2B 2R 2 , R = radius of Dee Law states Ñò B × dl = m 0I , where I refers to current passing the
r r EK = c
1. Straight line: when B || v 2m
loop through open surface S. The sign of current is
r r determined from right hand rule.
2. Circular path: v ^ B Magnetic field out
Deflection plate
of the paper
m If B is directed along tangent to amperian loop of perimeter
Perpendicular force acts as a centripetal force and
L and field is constant in magnitude
produces a circular motion perpendicular to magnetic field.
Exit port
mv 2 pm BL = m0Ie
Radius of circle r = and T =
qB qB Ie = net current enclosed by closed loop.
r r Charged
3. Helical path: velocity v and B are inclined at angle particle
9 MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO SOLID CONDUCTOR
q ¹ 0, q ¹ 90° , q ¹ 180°
A long straight wire with circular cross-section B
Velocity component along magnetic field remains of radius a
unchanged, due to other component motion is circular. D1 D2 æ m I ö B
r
Magnetic field in region r < a, B = ç 0 2 ÷ r
µ
The combined path is helical motion. m µ
è 2pa ø 1/
B
r
mv ^ qB 2 pmv || m I
r = ,w = ,p= Magnetic field in region (r ³ a), B = 0
qB m qB OSCILLATOR
m
2 pr 0 r
a
96 Moving Charges and Magnetism NCERT Maps
10 MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO A LINE CURRENT 14 FORCE BETWEEN CURRENT 17 MOVING COIL GALVANOMETER
CARRYING WIRES m Torque due to radial magnetic field on loop of area A with
m Magnetic field at distance R from straight long infinite wire m Two current carrying conductors placed near each other
carrying a current I. N number of turns carrying current I is
experience magnetic forces.
m I t = NIAB
B = 0 , field lines are circles concentric with wire. When conductors are parallel
2pR m deflection on scale
m0I1I2
F= L æ NAB ö
11 DIRECTION OF MAGNETIC FIELD 2pd f=ç ÷I
m Force on one conductor of length L due to current in other è K ø
The rule is called right hand rule: Quantity in bracket is constant for galvanometer. This
at separation d. Parallel currents attract and antiparallel m
Grasp the wire in your right hand with your extended thumb makes linear scale
currents repel. The results are in accordance with
pointing in the direction of the current, your fingers will curl Current sensitivity of galvanometer
Newton's third law. m
around in the direction of magnetic field.
f NAB
Si = =
15 TORQUE ON CURRENT LOOPS I K
12 LONG SOLENOID
m Torque on magnetic dipole m Current sensitivity can be easily increased by changing N
Magnetic field inside long solenoid (B)
t = mBsinq
When solenoid carries current I is t = NIAsinq 18 GALVANOMETER CONVERSION AMMETER
B = m0nI m Any planner current loop is equivalent to magnetic dipole m Modification of galvanometer by connecting a low
of dipole moment resistance in parallel.
n = number of turns per unit length
m = IA
Q VOLTMETER
Q
m To measure voltage across any section of circuit. It is
16 MAGNETIC MOMENT OF REVOLVING connected in parallel. When a large resistance is in series
P
CHARGED PARTICLES with galvanometer, it becomes a voltmeter.
m Magnetic moment associated with revolving electron with
speed v in a radius of circle r is 19 ROGET'S SPIRAL
evr
m=- m When current passes through spring the effect is length
FOR A TOROID 2
m NI r -e r of parallel current produces attraction, decreasing spring
B= 0 and m = J length, oscillations starts and continue with tick - tick -
2 pr 2me
r tick ...
N = total number of turns and r = average radius Where J is angular momentum of the electron
m For electron, angular momentum is opposite in direction
13 MECHANICAL FORCE ON A CURRENT
to magnetic moment.
CARRYING CONDUCTOR
m In general for any charge q angular momentum and
A current carrying conductor of straight length L carrying Current
magnetic moment are in same direction. source
current I experience force m e
r r r =
F = I (l ´ B ) J 2m
But if wire is of arbitrary shape This is called Gyromagnetic ratio and is constant.
r uur Minimum value of magnetic moment is called Bohr magneton Mercury
F = å i (dl ´ B ) 2
mm = 9.27 × 10–24 Am
Summation can be converted into integration in most cases
NCERT Maps Moving Charges and Magnetism 97
1. A current element ∆l =dxiˆ (where dx = (1) 2π × 10–4 T

1 cm) is placed at the origin and carries a (2) 4π × 10–3 T
(3)
large current of 10 A. The magnetic field on
(3) 6π × 10–4 T
y-axis at distance of 50 cm from it is
(4) 3π × 10–3 T
[NCERT Pg. 148]
5. A long straight wire of circular cross-section
(1) 2 × 10–8 T
of radius 5 cm is carrying a steady current of
(2) 2 × 10–5 G (4)
20 A, uniformly distributed over its cross-
(3) 4 × 10–8 T section. The magnetic field induction at 2 cm
(4) 3 × 10–5 G from the axis of the wire is[NCERT Pg. 149] 7. A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5
2. Consider a tightly wound 100 turn coil of (1) 1.6 × 10–4 T layers of winding of 400 turns each. The
radius 12 cm carrying current of 10 A. What (2) 2.8 × 10–2 T diameter of solenoid is 1.8 cm. If it carries
is magnetic field at centre of this coil. (3) 3.3 × 10–6 T current of 8 A then magnitude of magnetic
[NCERT Pg. 146] field intensity inside solenoid near its centre
(4) 3.2 × 10–5 T
(1) 1.2 × 10–3 T is [NCERT Pg. 173]
6. A long straight cylindrical wire carries
(2) 5.2 × 10–3 T (1) 1.62 × 10–4 T
current I and current is uniformly distributed
(3) 4.6 × 10–5 T across cross-section of conductor. Figures (2) 25.13 × 10–3 T
(4) 1.9 × 10–6 T below shows a plot of magnitude of (3) 3.1 × 10–2 T
magnetic field with distance from centre of (4) 16.8 × 10–3 T
3. A straight wire carrying current of 15 A is
the wire. The correct graph is 8. A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8 cm
bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2.5 cm.
The magnetic field at the centre of [NCERT Pg. 150] carries a current of 6 A. It is suspended in a
semicircular arc is [NCERT Pg. 150] uniform horizontal magnetic field of 1.0 T.
(1) 1.88 × 10–4 T The field lines make an angle of 60° with the
(1) normal of the coil. The magnitude of counter
(2) 2.6 × 10–4 T
torque that must be applied to prevent the
(3) 3.77 × 10–4 T coil from turning is [NCERT Pg. 169]
(4) 5.2 × 10–4 T (1) 3.133 N m
4. Consider a tightly wound 200 turns coil of (2) 0.236 N m
(2)
radius 10 cm carrying current of 10 A. The
(3) 30.8 N m
magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of
the coil is [NCERT Pg. 151] (4) 35 N m
9. In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 12. Two concentric circular coils X and Y of 15. Magnetic moment associated with an
1.2 T is maintained. An electron is shot into radius 20 cm and 25 cm respectively lie in electron moving at speed v in a circular orbit
the field with a speed of 3.2 × 106 m s–1 the same vertical plane. Coil X has 40 turns of radius r is (in magnitudes)
normal to the field. The radius of circular and coil Y has 100 turns. If coil X and Y
[NCERT Pg. 162]
orbit in which it starts circular path is carries currents of 18 A each but in opposite
sense, the net magnetic field due to the coils evr
(me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) [NCERT Pg. 169] (1) evr (2)
at their centre is [NCERT Pg. 170] 2
(1) 15.16 µm
(1) 3.12 × 10–4 T evr ev 2
(2) 6.27 µm (3) (4)
(2) 1.2 × 10–5 T 4 2r
(3) 12.42 µm
(3) 7.2 × 10–4 T 16. The horizontal component of earth’s
(4) 22.4 µm
(4) 2.26 × 10–3 T magnetic field at a certain place is
10. Two moving coil galvanometers M1 and M2 3.2 × 10–5 T and field is directed from south
have the following particulars. N1 = 30, 13. A galvanometer has resistance of 60 Ω. It is to North. A long straight conductor is
B1 = 0.25 T, A1 = 7.2 × 10–3 m2, G1 = 10Ω converted in to an ammeter by connecting a carrying a current of 3 A. What is force per
and N2 = 60, B2 = 0.50 T, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 shunt resistance of 1.2 Ω. Its range unit length experienced by it when it is
m2, G2 = 5Ω respectively. The spring becomes [NCERT Pg. 172] placed on horizontal table and current in
constants are identical to both (1) 68 wire is from west to east? [NCERT Pg. 156]
galvanometers. The ratio of their current
(2) 50 (1) 9.6 × 10–5 Nm–1, upwards
sensitivity is [NCERT Pg. 173]
(1) 1 : 1 (3) 51 (2) 9.6 × 10–5 Nm–1, downwards
(2) 2 : 1 (4) 60 (3) 3.6 × 10–5 Nm–1, upwards

(3) 4 : 1 14. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter (4) 9.6 × 10–5 Nm–1, horizontal
of large range, we connect a resistance with
(4) 1 : 4 17. Two long straight parallel wires A and B
galvanometer. The resistance
11. A toroid ring has inner radius 21 cm and carrying current of 20 A and 10 A is same
outer radius 23 cm in which 4400 turns of [NCERT Pg. 165] direction are separated by a distance of 5
wire are wound. If the current in the wire is (1) Is connected in parallel and of higher cm. The force of 15 cm section of wire B is
10 A, then magnetic field inside the core of value [NCERT Pg. 173]
the toroid will be [NCERT Pg. 170] (2) Is connected in series and of lower value (1) 1.5 × 10–3 N, attractive
(1) 4.4 × 10–4 T
(3) Is connected in parallel and of lower (2) 1.6 × 10–4 N, repulsive
(2) 4 × 10–2 T value
(3) 1.2 × 10–3 N, attractive
(3) 6.6 × 10–4 T (4) Is connected in series and of higher
(4) 1.2 × 10–4 N, attractive
(4) 12.6 × 10–3 T value
NCERT Maps Moving Charges and Magnetism 99

18. A cyclotron’s oscillatory frequency is 10 B = 1.2 T . The electric field and magnetic 20. A proton is moving with speed of
MHz. What should be the operating 2 × 105 m s–1 enters a uniform magnetic field
magnetic field for accelerating deuterons? fields are crossed and velocity v is also B = 1.5 T. At the entry velocity vector makes
[NCERT Pg. 146] perpendicular to both. If the charge particle an angle of 30° to the direction of the
crosses both fields undeflected, the value of magnetic field. The pitch of helical path it
(1) 0.96 T (2) 1.52 T v is [NCERT Pg. 140] describes is nearly [NCERT Pg. 138]
(3) 0.46 T (4) 1.32 T (1) 7.2 × 105 (1) 6.25 mm
19. A charge q = 1.6 × 10–12
C moving with (2) 7.2 × 104 (2) 4.37 mm
speed of v m s–1 crosses electric field (3) 5 × 105
 (3) 7.25 mm
E = 6 × 104 Vm–1 and magnetic field (4) 5 × 104 (4) 1.67 mm

1. Earth’s natural magnetic field is about _____ 5. In uniform magnetic B , when a charge 9. In a cyclotron, under perpendicular

tesla and that on the surface of a neutron particle has motion directed perpendicular magnetic field B (uniform) and radius of
star is about ______ tesla. to field, particle will move on ______ and Dee R, maximum kinetic energy gained by
[NCERT Pg. 135] work done by magnetic force is _______. an ion of charge q and mass m is ______.
2. Magnetic field exerts a mechanical force on
  6. When a charged particle enters 10. The electrostatic field is produced by a
current carrying wire F = ______ , where l
perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field, scalar source, namely, electric charge. The
is conductor length with a direction identical magnetic field is produced by a vector
magnitude of its angular velocity will be
to current I. [NCERT Pg. 136] source namely ______. [NCERT Pg. 143]
independent of the _______.
3. The product of µ and ε has relation with [NCERT Pg. 138] 11. A current element is placed at origin along
speed v of electromagnetic wave in a +x-axis. The observation point where
7. When electric field and magnetic field are
medium and µε = _______. perpendicular to each other and also magnetic field is desirable is along +y axis,
perpendicular to velocity of a charged then magnetic field is directed along ______
[NCERT Pg. 136]
particle, then electric and magnetic force are axis. [NCERT Pg. 144]
4. If magnetic field is parallel to positive y axis
in ______ directions. [NCERT Pg. 140] 12. Magnetic field due to a long current carrying
and a positive charge particle is moving
8. Cyclotron uses the concept that frequency wire at finite distance is directly proportional
along positive x-axis, it will experience
of revolution of the charged particle in to _______ and inversely proportional to
Lorentz force along ______.
magnetic field is independent of its _______.
[NCERT Pg. 137] _______. [NCERT Pg. 140] [NCERT Pg. 148]
13. There exists a simple rule to determine the solenoid is parallel to axis and ______. 18. One ampere is the value of that steady
direction of magnetic field due to a long wire. [NCERT Pg. 151] current which when maintained in each of
This rule is called _______. 16. Toroid can act like magnetic container and two long, straight, parallel conductors of
[NCERT Pg. 149] are expected to play key role in ______, an negligible cross-section, and placed one
equipment for plasma confinement in fusion metre apart in vacuum, would produce on
14. A long straight wire of circular cross-section
power reactors. each of these conductors a force equal to
is carrying steady current. The current is
______ newton per metre of length.
uniformly distributed over the cross-section [NCERT Pg. 153]
[NCERT Pg. 155]
of wire. The magnitude of magnetic field on 17. Two current carrying wires placed near each
the axis of wire is ______. 19. Dimensions of magnetic moment are
other can exert mechanical forces on each
______ and its SI unit is _______.
[NCERT Pg. 149-150] other. When two straight wires are held
parallel it can be observed that parallel [NCERT Pg. 158]
15. A solenoid consists of a long wire wound in
the form of helix where neighbouring turns currents ______ and antiparallel currents 20. Voltage sensitivity is defined as the
are closely packed. The field outside the _______ each other. deflection per unit _______.
solenoid is ______ and field inside the [NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 163]
  
Magnetism and Matter
5
Chapter
1 BAR MAGNET 2 THE ELECTROSTATIC ANALOGUE 4 EARTH’S MAGNETISM

m It is a magnet in form of a bar Magnetism Electrostatics m Magnetic field of earth is now thought to arise due to electrical current
m When freely suspended, it points in N - S r r produced by convective motion of metallic fluids in outer core of the earth. This
direction B E is known as dynamo effect .
r r
m Like poles repel each other, unlike poles attract m P m Magnetic poles inside earth change position with times.
each other 1 True North
m Magnetic monopoles do not exist m0
e0
m Magnetic field lines of magnet form continous r r r r r r Nm
t = m´B t = P É
closed loops r r r r
The tangent at a given pointr represents the U = -m × B U = -P × E Magnetic I HE
m
r r
ZE BE
Equator
direction of net magnetic field B at that point r m 2m 1 2P Geographic
Baxial = 0 3 Eaxial = Equator
m Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other. 4p r 4pe0 r 3
r r
r -m0 m r -1 P
i Beq = Eeq =
4p r 3 4pe0 r 3
3 GAUSS'S LAW FOR MAGNETISM m Earth's magnetic field varies from point to point on earth surface, its value being of
–5
r r order of 10 T.
ii
m
Ñò B × dA = 0 m Magnetic field lines of earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic dipole
m Isolated magnetic poles do not exist. located at the centre of earth.
m The net magnetic flux is zero for any closed m The vertical plane which passes through the imaginary line joining the magnetic
m When magnet cut transverse to length or along north and the south poles is called magnetic meridian.
surface.
its length M¢ = M/2
m The vertical plane containing longitudinal circle and axis of rotation of earth is
m Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid called geographic meridian.
5 MAGNETISM AND MAGNETIC INTENSITY
m 2m
B= 0 3 r m Inclination or magnetic dip(I)
4p r r m Net magnetic moment
m Magnetic moment of solenoid
m
M = net = Angle made by the net magnetic field of earth with the horizontal
2
V Volume
m = nI (2l) × (pa ) Iequator = 0
m Net field in the interior of a solenoid
m Bar magnetic in uniform magnetic field r r r
r r r B = B0 + Bm
r Ipole = 90º
t = m´B r
r B0 : Field in free space
Um = -m × B = -mB cos q r m Horizontal component (HE)
Bm : Field contributed by material core
m q = 0º (Most unstable position) r r r r Horizontal Component of net magnetic field of earth
B0 = m0H Bm = m0M
m q = 180° (Most unstable position) r r r r r m Magnetic declination(D)
m Time period of oscillation of a magnet when r
(
B = m0 H + M
r
) M = cH
Angle between magnetic meridian and geographic meridian
freely suspended B = m0 (1 + c)H mr = 1 + c m Declination in India is small. It is 0°41¢ E at Delhi.
r r
I 4 p2 B = m0m r H m = m0mr = m0 (1 + c) m Declination is greater at higher latitudes and smaller near equator.
T = 2p and B = r r
mB mT 2 B = mH m BEsinI = ZE, BEcosI = HE, tanI = ZE/HE
102 Magnetism and Matter NCERT Maps
6 MAGNETIC PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS 7 HYSTERESIS LOOP

Properties Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic B
c –1 £ c £ 0 0 < c < k (k is a small positive c >> 1 (Tesla)
number)
a
mr 0 £ mr < 1 1 < mr < 1 + k mr >> 1
b
m m < m0 m > m0 m >> m0
Magnetisation Weak magnetisation is Weak magnetisation Strong magnetisation
opposite direction in same direction in same direction
Movement in (Weak tendency) from strong (Weak tendency) from weak (Strong tendency) from weak c H
O f
non-uniform to weak magnetic field to strong magnetic field to strong magnetic field A/m
magnetic field
Magnet Weak Repulsion Weak Attraction Strong Attraction
e
E.g. Bi, Au, Pb, Si, H2O, NaCl Al, Na, O2 (STP), Pt, W Fe, Co, Ni, Fe2O3 and Gd
N2 (STP), Ag, superconductor d
m Retentivity: The value of B at H = 0

Mag. Field lines
m Coercivity: The value of H for which net magnetic field becomes
zero.
Susceptibility Independent of temperature Inversely proportional to Curie temperature: The m Energy is lost in the form of heat during complete cycle of
temperature temperature at which magnetisation and de-magnetisation.
ferromagnetic substance
becomes paramagnetic m Hysteresis curve of soft iron is tall and narrow.
Disappearance of m Hysteresis curve of steel is broad
magnetisation with
temperature is gradual.
Beyond curie temperature 8 PERMANENT MAGNETS AND ELECTROMAGNETS
Susceptibility obeys
Curie-Weiss law Permanent Magnets Electromagnets
Cm0 C
cm µ T 0 cm = cm = (T > TC ) Material should have Material should have
T T - TC
Where C is curie constant TC for iron is 1043 K m High Retentivity m Low Retentivity
c TC for nickel is 631 K
cm c m High Coercivity m High permeability
m High permeability m Low Coercivity
m Material used for making these m Material used for making these
magnets are Alnico, Cobalt, magnets is soft Iron
0 T Steel, Ticonal
0 m Electromagnets are used in
0 T
T TC m These materials retain their electric bells, loud speakers
ferromagnetic property for long and telephone diaphragms.
m Domain formation is special characteristic of ferromagnetic material. Typical domain size is 1 mm and
11 period of time.
domain contains about 10 atoms.
NCERT Maps Magnetism and Matter 103
1. Magnetism and
The net magnetic flux Matter
through any closed (1) µr = χµ
surface is [NCERT Pg. 182] (2) µr = 1 + χ
(1) Always positive (3) µr = 1 – χ
1
(2) Always negative (4) µr =
χ
[NCERT Pg. 178]
(3) May be positive or negative
(1) 0.02 T (2) 0.01 T 9. A solenoid has a core of a magnetic material
(4) Always zero with relative permeability 500. Number of
(3) 0.03 T (4) 0.05 T turns in the solenoid are 1000 per metre and
2. The vertical plane which passes through the
5. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 53º carry a currents of 5 A. Magnetic intensity
imaginary line joining the magnetic north &
with an external field of 600 G experiences a H will be. [NCERT Pg. 191]
the south poles is known as
torque of 0.024 N m. Magnetic moment of the (1) 5 × 103 A/m
[NCERT Pg. 186] magnet is [NCERT Pg. 179] (2) 2.5 × 106 A/m
(1) Geographical meridian (1) 0.4 A m2 (2) 0.8 A m2 (3) 105 A/m
(2) Magnetic meridian (3) 0.6 A m2 (4) 0.5 A m2 (4) 250 A/m
6. A magnetic needle is placed in an external 10. Which of the following is not a diamagnetic
(3) Magnetic declination
magnetic field at an angle θ with the field. material? [NCERT Pg. 192]
(4) Magnetic dip Needle is in most stable position if the value (1) Bismuth (2) Copper
3. Which of the following quantities include in of θ is [NCERT Pg. 178] (3) Nitrogen (STP) (4) Sodium
the element of earth’s magnetic field? (1) 180º (2) 90º 11. According to Curie’s law for paramagnetic
[NCERT Pg. 187] (3) 0º (4) 60º material [NCERT Pg. 193]
7. In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, Cχ
(1) The declination (1) µ0 = (2) χ = Cµ0T
the horizontal component of earth’s T
(2) Angle of dip
magnetic field is 0.48 G and the dip angle is Cµ0
(3) χ = (4) µ0χ = CT
(3) Horizontal component of earths 53º. Magnetic field of the earth at this T
magnetic field location is [NCERT Pg. 188] 12. The temperature of transition from
(4) All of the above (1) 0.3 G ferromagnetic to paramagnetic is called the
4. The magnetic needle shown in the figure (2) 0.8 G [NCERT Pg. 194]
has magnetic moment 6.7 × 10–2 A m2 and (3) 0.64 G (1) Transition temperature
moment of inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2. It (4) 0.96 G (2) Inversion temperature
performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70 s. 8. Which of the following is a correct relation? (3) Curie temperature
The magnitude of magnetic field is [NCERT Pg. 190] (4) Neutral temperature
104 Magnetism and Matter NCERT Maps
13. Suitable materials for permanent magnets, 16. Correct dimensional formula for the 19. A closely wound solenoid of 3000 turns and
should have [NCERT Pg. 196] permeability of free space is area of cross- section 1.6 × 10–4 m2, carrying
(1) High retentivity and low coercivity [NCERT Pg. 198] a current of 5.0 A, is suspended through its
(2) Low retentivity and high coercivity (1) [MLT–2A–2] (2) [ML–1T–2A3] centre. Magnetic moment associated with
the solenoid is [NCERT Pg. 201]
(3) High retentivity and high coercivity (3) [M–1L2T–2A] (4) [ML3T–3A2]
(4) Low retentivity and low coercivity 17. Which of the following relation is correct? (1) 12.8 A m2
(symbols have their usual meaning) (2) 5.6 A m2
14. Curie temperature for cobalt is
[NCERT Pg. 190]
NCERT Pg. 194] (3) 4.8 A m2
(1) B = µ0(1 + χ)H (2) B = µ0µrH
(1) 1394 °C (2) 1394 K (4) 2.4 A m2
(3) B = µ0 (H – M) (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 1043 °C (4) 1043 K
18. The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism 20. Electromagnets are used in
15. At a certain place a freely suspended
in superconductors is called [NCERT Pg. 196]
magnetic needle makes 20 oscillations per
minute. At another place where the [NCERT Pg. 192]
(1) Electric bells
magnetic field is 4 times, time period of (1) Dynamo effect
(2) Cranes to lift machinery
same needle will be [NCERT Pg. 178] (2) Meissner effect
(1) 10 s (2) 1 s (3) Stark effect (3) Loudspeaker
(3) 1.5 s (4) 3 s (4) Zeeman effect (4) All of the above
1. The word magnet is derived from the name 5. When a magnetic needle is placed 8. The vertical plane containing the longitude
of an island in Greece called _____. perpendicular to uniform external magnetic circle and the axis of rotation of the earth is
field, its potential energy is _____. called _____. [NCERT Pg. 186]
[NCERT Pg. 173]
9. The declination is greater at higher latitudes
2. A thin long piece of magnet, when [NCERT Pg. 178]
and smaller near the _____
suspended freely points in _____ direction.
6. The electrostatic analog of µ0 is _____. [NCERT Pg. 186]
[NCERT Pg. 173]
[NCERT Pg. 180] 10. _____ is the angle that the total magnetic
3. The magnetic field lines of a magnet form field of the earth makes with surface of the
_____ loops. [NCERT Pg. 175] 7. The pole near the geographic north pole of earth. [NCERT Pg. 187]
4. Magnetic _____ do not exist the earth is called _____ magnetic pole.
11. Magnetization of a sample is defined as the
[NCERT Pg. 174 & 177] [NCERT Pg. 185] _____ per unit volume [NCERT Pg. 189]
NCERT Maps Magnetism and Matter 105
12. Magnetic susceptibility of a material is small 15. In diamagnetic substances resultant 18. Typical domain size in ferromagnetic
and positive. This material is _____. magnetic moment in an atom is _____ material is _____ mm [NCERT Pg. 193]
Magnetism and[NCERT
Matter
Pg. 190]
[NCERT Pg. 192] 19. Substances which at room temperature
13. Relative magnetic permeability of a
16. Paramagnetic substances have tendency to retain their ferromagnetic property for a long
substance is analog of _____ in
electrostatics. [NCERT Pg. 190] move from _____ to _____ part of the period of time are called _____ magnets
14. Diamagnetic substance has tendency to external magnetic field. [NCERT Pg. 192]
[NCERT Pg. 195]
move from _____ to _____ part of the
17. Aluminum, sodium, calcium and oxygen all
external non-uniform magnetic field. 20. Gadolinium is an example of _____ material.
are the examples of _____ substances.
[NCERT Pg. 192]
  
Electromagnetic Induction
6
Chapter
1 FARADAY’S EXPERIMENTS 2 MAGNETIC FLUX 5 MOTIONAL EMF

®
(a) First experiment : Relative motion Magnetic flux through a surface of area A placed in uniform (1) Straight conductor in motion: In uniform and time independent
® ® ®
between a bar magnet and wire loop magnetic field B is written as fB = B·A = BA cosq magnetic field.
produces a small amount of current. Slider e = B/v (emf across rod)
For non-uniform magnetic field
× × × ×
l B V e Blv DfB 2 2 2
B l v
× × × × i=R= R DQ = R P=
N S R
G 3 FARADAY’S LAWS OF INDUCTION x
(b) Second experiment : If one coil is Conclusion of experiments was formulation of laws:
m Mechanical energy which is needed to move arm is converted into
connected to a battery and another coil is (1) The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to the
electric energy and then to thermal energy.
moved towards or away from it, electric time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit.
(2) Rod rotated about one end :
current is produced in neighbouring coil. (2) Mathematically the emf induced is given by
× × × ×
dfB Fleming’s Right hand Rule : This gives the
e=– direction of induced emf or current in a conductor
C1 dt × ×
w × ×
R
C2 moving in a magnetic field. If we stretch forefinger,
m Negative sign indicates the direction of e and hence the × × × ×
central finger and thumb of our right hand in
direction of current in the closed loop. × × × × mutually perpendicular directions such that
m If loop contains N turns, change of flux is associated with each 2
forefinger along field, thumb along direction of
BwR
turn. e= motion of conductor then central finger will give the
dfB 2
I e=–N direction of induced current.
G dt
m The induced emf can be increased by increasing the number of
6 EDDY CURRENTS
turns of closed coil.
Fig. : Current is induced in coil C1 due to
Electric currents are induced in well defined path in a conductor like
motion of the current carrying coil C2. circular loops, when bulk piece of conductor is subjected to changing
4 LENZ’S LAW
(c) Third experiment : Galvanometer m LENZ’S LAW: This law gives the polarity of induced emf. The magnetic flux, induced currents are produced in them known as eddy
polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current currents.
shows a momentarily deflection when
which opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it. The eddy currents are also called Foucault currents after its discovery.
tapping key K is pressed
m The law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy. m The changing magnetic flux induces current.
C1
m These currents are used to advantage in many applications.
C2
(1) Magnetic braking of trains
(2) Electromagnetic damping
(3) Induction furnace
N N
m Eddy currents dissipate energy in the form of heat energy.
(a) (b)
G m Eddy currents are minimized using laminations of metal to make a
K
Fig. : Illustration of Lenz’s law. metal core
NCERT Maps Electromagnetic Induction 107
7 INDUCTANCE 9 AC GENERATOR
The current can be induced in a coil by the flux change The magnitude of induced emf depends on rate of
m This technology is based on electromagnetic induction
produced by same coil OR another coil. change of current and mutual inductance of two phenomenon.
m In both cases, flux through a coil is proportional to coils: l Modern A.C. generator has output capacity upto
current m SI unit of inductance is Henry and is denoted 100 MW.
dfB dI by H. Its dimensional formula is ML2T–2A–2.
µ l This machine converts mechanical energy into
dt dt electric energy.
For two long co-axial solenoids each of length l
m Constant of proportionality is called inductance. M12 = m0n1n2Al l The emf induced is sinusoidal.
m Inductance is the ratio of flux linkage and current. M12 is coefficient of mutual induction e = NBAw sinwt Coil Axle
m This inductance depends on geometry of the coil N2
and intrinsic material properties. NBAw is the maximum value of emf when sinwt = ±1.
SELF INDUCTANCE e0 = NBAw e = e0 sinwt

N1
Phenomenon of induced EMF in a single isolated coil
due to changing flux through the coil by means of w is angular speed of rotor of ac N S
generator.
varying the current through same coil is self induction.
M12 = M21 Slip
The direction of current and emf changes rings Alternating emf
Total flux linkage = Li periodic with time
m Mutual inductance of a pair of coils, solenoids
L is called self inductance. depends on their separation as well as their e = e0sin(2pnt)
relative orientations. Carbon brushes
di
e = –L m n in India is 50Hz
dt m For two concentric circular coils with radius r
m n in USA is 60Hz
m Self induced emf always opposes any change of and R (R >> r) coils are coplanar also.
current in the coil. Stage-1 : The Stage-2 Stage-3 Stage-4 Stage-5
2
2 m0p(r) plane of the When the Armature Armature Armature
Self inductance of a solenoid is L = m0n Al M12 = M21 = armature is armature after a after a after a
2R
n is number of turns per meter of solenoid length. perpendicular rotates about rotation of rotation of rotation
to the through 90° 180° 270° through
When solenoid is filled with some material 8 MAGNETIC POTENTIAL ENERGY
magnetic the plane of 360°
L = m0mrn2Al m Energy required to built any current I in a field. the armature
system of self inductance L is parallel to
m Self inductance plays the role of inertia. It is magnetic
1 2
electromagnetic analogue of mass in mechanics. W= ×L×I field.
2 R Q R
m Unit of self inductance is henry (H) in SI units.
m This work done gets stored as magnetic Q R R
m Self inductance of the coil depends on its geometry P Q S
N S Q S N S N R S N S N S Direction of
potential energy. Q
and on the permeability of the medium. A A A magnetic field
P
2 BP A S BS S P
1 2 B Al P B
MUTUAL INDUCTANCE UB = LI = B A B
2 2m0 Induced
m Varying current in one coil can induce emf in emf
m Magnetic energy per unit volume. 0° 90° 270° 360°
neighbouring coil.
2 180° time
di B
e1 = M 2 uB = ® Energy is proportional to
dt 2m0 square of field strength 0 T/4 T/2 3T/4
108 Electromagnetic Induction NCERT Maps
1. Direction of current induced in a wire by 4. The self-inductance L of a solenoid of length 7. A 20 cm long conductor carrying a current of
moving it in a uniform magnetic field is found l and area of cross section A, with fixed 10 A is kept perpendicular to magnetic field
using [NCERT Pg. 215] number of turns per unit length increases as of 0.6T. The mechanical power required to
[NCERT Pg. 223] move conductor with a speed of 1 ms–1 is
(1) Newton’s laws
(1) l and A increases [NCERT Pg. 215]
(2) Lenz’s law
(2) l decreases and A increases (1) 1.2 W (2) 1.5 W
(3) Ampere’s rule
(3) Both l and A decreases (3) 0.6 W (4) 0.4 W
(4) Right hand grip rule
(4) l increases and A decreases 8. A square loop of edge 20 cm and resistance
2. A metallic plate is getting heated. It cannot
5. The mutual inductance of pair of co-axial of 1 Ω is placed vertically in horizontal plane.
be due to [NCERT Pg. 218]
neighbouring coils [NCERT Pg. 220] A uniform magnetic field of 0.5T is set up
(1) A direct current passing through plate across the plane in the direction at 45° to the
(1) Increases when they are brought nearer
(2) An alternating current passing through it plane. The magnetic field is decreased to
(2) Increases when one of them is rotated zero in 0.2 s, at a steady rate. Calculate
(3) It is placed static in space varying about an axis
magnitude of current induced in this time
magnetic field but does not vary with
(3) Is independent of current passing interval. [NCERT Pg. 208]
time
through coils
(1) 20 mA (2) 50 mA
(4) It is placed in time varying magnetic field
3. A rectangular coil expands on pulling from (3) 60 mA (4) 70 mA
6. A square loop of side length L meter lies in
two diagonal edges in a region of magnetic x-y plane in a region, where the magnetic 9. A circular loop with its plane parallel to plane
field and no emf is induced in the coil. This  of paper is entering into uniform magnetic
field is given by B= B0 (iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ ) T , B0 is
can be because of [NCERT Pg. 230] field directed into the plane of paper
positive constant. The magnitude of perpendicularly. The loop is moved at
(1) Magnetic field is constant
magnetic flux passing through square is constant speed V. Then [NCERT Pg. 212]
(2) Magnetic field is in the plane of [NCERT Pg. 207]
rectangular coil (1) No. emf will be induced in the coil
(1) 5 B0 L2 Wb
(3) Magnetic field has a perpendicular (2) Induced emf is constant in magnitude
component to the plane of coil whose (2) 3 B0 L2 Wb only
magnitude is decreasing (3) Induced emf is varying with time
(3) 14 B0 L2 Wb
(4) There is a uniform magnetic field
(4) Induced emf is constant in magnitude as
perpendicular to plane of coil (4) B0 L2 Wb
well as in direction
10. A metallic rod of length 20 cm is rotated with, (1) 0.14 N (2) 8 N 16. A rectangular coil of 100 turns with area
frequency of 50 rev/s with one end pivoted (3) 16 N (4) 0.25 N 0.1 m2 is rotated at 10 revolution per second
at the centre and other end at circumference and placed in a uniform magnetic field of
of circular metallic ring of radius 20 cm about 13. Which statement regarding eddy currents
0.01 T perpendicular to axis of rotation of the
an axis passing through centre and among the following is incorrect?
coil. The maximum voltage generated in coil
perpendicular to plane of the ring. A constant [NCERT Pg. 218] is [NCERT Pg. 226]
and uniform magnetic field 1.5 T parallel to
(1) If rectangular slots are made in copper (1) 3.14 V (2) 6.28 V
axis is present everywhere. What is emf
plate, the magnitude of eddy currents will
induced between centre and periphery of (3) 9.42 V (4) 31.4 V
decrease
circular ring. [NCERT Pg. 214]
17. Two thin cylindrical pipes of equal internal
(1) 2.6 V (2) 9.4 V (2) Dissipation of heat produced is
diameters made of aluminum and plastic are
proportional to strength of eddy currents
(3) 4.7 V (4) 12.3 V taken. The pipes are kept vertical. A small
11. A cycle wheel with 20 metallic spokes each (3) Dead beat galvanometer has fixed core cylindrical magnet without touching sides of
1 m long is rotated with speed of 60 rad/s in made of non-magnetic metallic material wall of pipe is allowed to fall one by one.
a plane normal to horizontal component of (4) Magnetic brakes in train use the Then correct observations are
earth’s magnetic field BH = 0.5 G at a place. application of eddy current [NCERT Pg. 219]
The emf induced between axle and rim of
14. Two circular coils one of small radius r and (1) Magnet takes longer time to cross
wheel is [NCERT Pg. 215]
other of larger radius R (r << R) are placed aluminum pipe
(1) 1.5 mV (2) 12.3 mV
co-axially with centres coinciding. The
(3) 3.0 mV (4) 0.75 mV (2) Magnet takes longer time to cross plastic
mutual inductance of the arrangement is
12. A conducting arm AB of length 30 cm moves pipe
[NCERT Pg. 221]
on conducting rails held parallel. A uniform (3) Eddy currents are generated in
magnetic field B = 0.2 T exists perpendicular µ πR 2 µ πr 2 aluminum pipe but not in plastic
(1) 0 (2) 0
to planes of rails. Only the conducting arm 2r 2R
has resistance of 0.5 Ω. The arm is pulled 2µ0 πr 2
µ πrR 18. Which of the following statement is wrong?
out with constant speed of 20 ms–1, how (3) 0 (4)
(r + R ) R [NCERT Pg. 225]
much force is required parallel to rails to
keep it moving at same speed. 15. A long solenoid is of length 1.25 m and 600 (1) In ac generator when flux through coil is
[NCERT Pg. 216] turns per unit length. It is connected to a maximum, emf induced is minimum
source which establishes a current of 2A in (2) Maximum emf is induced when plane of
circuit. Magnetic energy stored in the coil is parallel to magnetic field
solenoid coil with cross-sectional area
(3) The emf induced changes periodically
0.1 m2 is [NCERT Pg. 224]
with time if coil is rotated at uniform rate
(1) 0.1 J (2) 0.4 J
(4) The frequency of rotation of armature
(3) 0.6 J (4) 1.2 J coil is 60 Hz in India and 50 Hz in USA
110 Electromagnetic Induction NCERT Maps
19. A pair of adjacent coils has mutual 20. A circular coil is being deformed into a (1) The direction of induced current is
inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil narrow straight wire at regular stretch. Then clockwise
changes from 0 to 10 A in 0.5 s, the rate of [NCERT Pg. 230]
change of flux linkage with other coil is (2) The direction of induced current is
anticlockwise
[NCERT Pg. 219]
(1) 20 V (2) 30 V (3) Magnetic flux through coil increases
(3) 4 V (4) 5 V (4) The amount of charge flowing in coil

depends on time
1. The relative motion between a magnet and 6. We are able to produce induced emf by
a coil is responsible for generation of moving a conductor instead of varying the
______ in coil. [NCERT Pg. 205] magnetic field, that is, by changing magnetic
flux enclosed by the circuit. This statement
2. SI units of magnetic flux is ______.
is [NCERT Pg. 213]
[NCERT Pg. 207] (1) True (2) False
3. The polarity of induced emf is such that it (1) True (2) False
tends to produce a current which apposes 7. A charge in motion can exert force on a
5.
the change in ______ that produced it. stationary magnet. Conversely a bar
[NCERT Pg. 210] magnet in motion can lead to a force on
4. A magnetic field is directed normal to plane Due to motion of the magnets, the polarity of stationary charges. This statement is
of triangular loop away from reader. Due to plate A of capacitor will be positive with [NCERT Pg. 213]
outward motion, magnetic flux through loop respect to plate B. This statement is (1) True (2) False
decreases due to which induced current
[NCERT Pg. 212] 8. Lenz’s law is consistent with the law of
flows along path cabc. This statement is
[NCERT Pg. 211] (1) True (2) False conservation of ______ [NCERT Pg. 215]
9. Relation between total charge flowing 13. Inductance is a scalar quantity. It has the 19. In an ac generator, the coil has N turns and
through closed circuit of resistance R and dimensions of ______ [NCERT Pg. 220] A area rotated at f revolutions per second in
change in magnetic flux through it, is______ 14. Mutual inductance of a pair of coils, a uniform magnetic field B, then peak value
[NCERT Pg. 216] solenoids depends on their separation as of motional emf is directly proportional to
well as on their ______ [NCERT Pg. 221] frequency and area. This statement is
10. When bulk pieces of conductors are
subjected to changing magnetic flux, 15. It is possible that emf is induced in a single ______ [NCERT Pg. 228]
induced currents are produced in them. isolated coil due to change of flux through
(1) True
These currents are called ______ coil by means of varying current through
same coil. This phenomenon is called (2) False
[NCERT Pg. 218]
______ [NCERT Pg. 222]
11. Eddy currents are minimized using 20. In the shown experiment excess positive
16. Self-inductance plays the role of inertia. It is
laminations of metal. The laminations are charge is built at end P of the metal rod. This
electromagnetic analogue of ______ in
separated by an insulating material like mechanics. [NCERT Pg. 223] statement is
lacquer. This statement is [NCERT Pg. 218] 17. The expression of magnetic energy stored
in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B
(1) True (2) False length and area of solenoid is ______
12. Galvanometer has a fixed core made of [NCERT Pg. 224]
______ metallic material. When coil 18. The basic principle behind ac generator
machine is of changing magnetic flux by
oscillates, the eddy currents generated in
rotating coil in a magnetic field. An ac [NCERT Pg. 231]
core oppose the motion and bring the coil to generator converts ______ energy into
rest quickly. [NCERT Pg. 218] ______ energy [NCERT Pg. 225] (1) True (2) False
  
Alternating Current
7
Chapter
1 ALTERNATING CURRENT 5 PURELY CAPACITIVE CIRCUIT 7 SERIES LCR CIRCUIT

Current which changes continuously in m Let applied voltage is e = e0 sin wt m e = e0sin wt and I = I0 sin (wt – f)
magnitude and periodically in direction. m Current leads the voltage by a phase angle p/2 e0
m I0 = , where z = R 2 + ( X L - X C )2 , e 02 = (VRo )2 + (VCo - VLo )2
æ pö z
m I = I0 sin ç wt + ÷ X L - XC
2 ROOT MEAN SQUARE VALUE è 2ø m Phase difference between current and voltage is f, tan f =
R
r.m.s. value of a function over a period T is
e
I0 = 0 = w C e 0 , where XC =
1 m If XL > XC Þ f is +ve (Inductive)
m
XC wC
2 If XL < XC Þ f is –ve (Capacitive)
given by
ò f (t ) dt u m
V i
ò dt Vmsin wt1
m If XL = XC Þ f = 0 (Resistive)
m RMS current is equivalent to dc current I Impedance and Voltage Triangles
wt1
that would produce same average
0 wt1 p 2p wt VLo - CCo
power loss as alternating current. tan f =
imsin(wt1 + p/2) VRo
Z (XL – XC) V (VL – VC)
3 AVERAGE VALUE
f X L - XC f
Average value of a function over a period T (a) (b) tan f =
T e I R VR
1 m Instantaneous power = 0 0 sin[2wt ] R
is given by < f (t ) > = f (t )dt
T ò0 m Average power = 0
2 Impedance Triangle Voltage Triangle
4 PURELY RESISTIVE CIRCUIT 6 PURELY INDUCTIVE CIRCUIT 8 POWER IN AC CIRCUITS

m Let applied voltage is e = e0 sin wt m Let applied voltage is e = e0 sin wt e 0I 0 2
Pavg = erms Irms cos f = cos f = IRMS Z cos f
m Current lags behind the voltage by a phase angle p/2 2
m Alternating voltage is in phase with current
m I = I0 sin (wt – p/2) 2 æ e2 ö
e = Irms R = ç rms R
m I = = I0 sin wt m Current reaches maximum value later than voltage by one fourth of period. ç z2 ÷÷
R è ø
e0 e
m I0 = = 0 , where X L = w L
e X L wL
m I0 = 0 V 9 POWER FACTOR
R i
V R
I 2 m Power factor: cos f =
m Pav = I0 R Z
2
Vmsin wt1
v wt1 wt1 wt m In pure resistive circuit
i p 2p f = 0° Þ cos f = 1
v I
m In pure inductive circuit or pure capacitive circuit
I imsin(wt1 – p/2) p
wt1 f = ± Þ cos f = 0
m
p 2p wt 2
0 wt1
imsin wt1 (a) (b) m In series LCR circuit at resonance, XL = XC
vmsin wt1 I0Vm
m Instantaneous power supplied = - sin 2 w t Þ Z = R and f = 0°
2
(a) (b) m Average power supplied by an inductor over one complete cycle is zero. Þ cos f = 1 (POWER FACTOR)
NCERT Maps Alternating Current 113
10 RESONANCE IN LCR SERIES CIRCUIT 11 LC OSCILLATIONS 12 TRANSFORMER
m When XL = XC Þ Z = R d 2q 1 m To change an alternating voltage from one to another of greater or smaller

m + (q ) = 0 value, we use transformer.
m Current become maximum dt 2 LC i
+ A transformer consists of two sets of coils, insulated from each other. It works
V m q = q0 cos (w0t + f) + on mutual induction principle.
m i0 = 0 q
R i C
– Soft iron-core
–
1 1
m w0 = m w0 =
LC LC
w
w0
Secondary
R
Primary
2
m Dw = qm 1 2
2L m UTotal = = Li m
2C 2
where w1 = w0 + Dw
Analogies Between Mechanical and
w2 = w0 – Dw
Electrical Quantites
eP IS NP fP
m Quality factor = = = = constant
Mechanical system Electrical (system) eS IP NS fS
It is a measure of sharpness of resonance
Mass (m) Inductance (L) m Efficiency of transformer
w0 Resonance frequency
Q= = Force constant (K) Reciprocal capacitance Pout e S IS
2 Dw Band width h= =
æ 1ö Pin e P IP
w0 L çC ÷
= è ø
R Step-up Transformer Step-down Transformer
Displacement (x) Charge (q) m Number of turns in primary binding is m Number of turns in secondary
1
=
w0 RC lesser than in secondary binding binding is lesser than in primary
æ dx ö æ dq ö
Velocity ç v = Current ç i = binding
dt ÷ø
÷
è è dt ø
1 L m NS > NP m N S < NP
Q=
R C Mechanical energy Electromagnetic energy m ES > EP m ES < EP
Resonance circuits are used in tuning 1 1 q2 1 2
m
E = kx 2 + mv 2 U= + Li m IS < IP m IS > IP
mechanism of radio or TV set. 2 2 2C 2
m Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a m Output voltage of transformer is out of phase with input.
circuit having both L and C present in circuit. m Every inductor has resistance. This introduces m Energy losses in a transformer are due to
m If resonance is not sharp, maximum current is damping effect on charge and current and
A. Flux Leakage
less, the circuit is close to resonance for a oscillation finally die away.
B. Resistance of winding
larger range of Dw of frequencies and tuning of m Total energy is radiated away from the system in
circuit will not be good. For good quality L be the form of electromagnetic waves. The Radio and C. Eddy currents
large and R low. TV transmission depend on this radiation. D. Hysteresis
114 Alternating Current NCERT Maps
10 4. The instantaneous values of alternating 7. An ac supply is connected across a series

1. A µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, LCR circuit. If capacitor is removed then
π current and voltage in an ac circuit are given
50 Hz ac source. The capacitive reactance 1 which of the following phasor diagram may
as i
= sin(100 πt ) A and ε = 2 sin be correct? [NCERT Pg. 245]
of the circuit is [NCERT Pg. 242] 2
(1) 1000 Ω  π
 100πt + 3  V . The average power
 
(2) 500 Ω (1) (2)
dissipated through the circuit is
(3) 212 Ω
[NCERT Pg. 252]
(4) 100 Ω
3 1
2. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V, 50 (1) W (2) W (3) (4)
2 4
Hz supply. The rms current through the bulb
is [NCERT Pg. 236] 1 3
(3) W (4) W 8. The analogue of displacement x in
8 4
5 5 mechanical system (spring block) is P in
(1) A (2) A 5. For a series LCR circuit, the power
110 11 electrical system (LC oscillation). Then P is
dissipated at resonance is [NCERT Pg. 252] [NCERT Pg. 257]
3 4
(3) A (4) A (1) Inductance (L) (2) Charge (q)
11 11 v2
(1) (2) I 2ωL
( X L − XC ) (3) Current (i) (4) Capacitance (C)
3. An ac signal (sinusoidal) output from a
device is shown in the figure. The average 2 9. A capacitor (C), initially charged upto qm is
(3) I2(XL – XC) (4) Irms R
value and rms value respectively in the connected to an inductor (L). The differential
given case are 6. The primary winding of a transformer has equation of LC oscillator is[NCERT Pg. 255]
200 turns whereas its secondary winding d 2q dq
has 2000 turns. If the primary is connected (1) 0
+q= (2) 0
+q=
dt 2 dt
to an ac source of 20 V and 60 Hz, then
secondary will have output of dq q d 2q q
(3) + 0
= (4) 2
+ 0
=
dt LC dt LC
10. For pure resistive ac circuit the phase angle
I I 2I0 I0 (1) 200 V and 6 Hz
(1) 0 , 0 (2) , between voltage and current and power
π 2 π 2 (2) 2 V and 60 Hz factor are respectively. [NCERT Pg. 252]
2I0 I0 I0 I0 (3) 200 V and 60 Hz (1) 0°, 1 (2) 0°, 0
(3) , (4) ,
π 2 π 2 (4) 2 V and 6 Hz (3) 90°, 1 (4) 90°, 0
NCERT Maps Alternating Current 115
11. A resistor of 100 Ω is connected in series 15. Consider a series LCR circuit in which 18. For an ideal transformer, which of the
with series combination of inductor and reactance and resistance are 100 Ω each. following option is correct?
capacitor. If XL and XC are the reactances of When the circuit is connected to ac source
(Symbols have their usual meaning)
inductor and capacitor respectively, then 220 V, 50 Hz, then current drawn from the
reactance of circuit will be [NCERT Pg. 245] source is [NCERT Pg. 245] [NCERT Pg. 261]
(1) | X L + XC | (2) | X L − XC | (1) 2.2 2 A (2) 1.1 2 A IS NS IS VS

(1) = (2) =
IP NP IP VP
(3) X L2 + XC2 (4) X L XC (3) 3.3 2 A (4) 2.2 A
VS NP
12. The quantity which measures the sharpness 16. In the circuit shown in the figure. The (3) VS IS = VP IP (4) =
VP NS
of resonance is [NCERT Pg. 249 voltmeter and ammeter reading will
(1) Quality factor (2) Peak factor respectively be (source, voltmeter and 19. A radio can tune over the frequency range
(3) Form factor (4) Ripple factor ammeter are ideal) [NCERT Pg. 245] (800 - 1200) kHz. If LC circuit has an
effective inductance of 200 µH. What should
13. A steady current of 2 A flowing through a
be the range of its variable capacitor?
resistor produces a heat of 100 W. To
[NCERT Pg. 266]
produce a heat of 400 W by supplying an ac
current through the same circuit, the value (1) 100 pF – 280 pF (2) 88 pF – 198 pF
of peak current will be [NCERT Pg. 235
(3) 40 pF – 80 pF (4) 200 pF – 400 pF
(1) 4 A (2) 5.6 A
20. The figure shows a series LCR circuit
(3) 2.8 A (4) 8 A
(1) 0 V, 2 2 A (2) 0 V, 4.4 A connected to a variable frequency and 220
14. The variation of impedance of an ac circuit V source. The source frequency which
(having one of the element) with frequency (3) 110 V, 2 2 A (4) 110 V, 3 A drives the circuit in resonance will be
of source is given for different elements.
Choose the incorrect plot. [NCERT Pg. 246] 17. In an oscillating L-C circuit, Qm is the [NCERT Pg. 248]
maximum charge on the capacitor. If at any
time, the energy stored in capacitor and
(1) (2) inductor are equal, then charge stored on
the capacitor at that instant is
[NCERT Pg. 256]
Qm Qm
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 2
(1) 25 Hz (2) 100 Hz
Q Qm
(3) m (4)
3 3 (3) 50 Hz (4) 80 Hz
116 Alternating Current NCERT Maps
1. In pure resistive circuit, voltage and current 7. If an alternating voltage source having emf 13. An ac source given by ε = ε0 sin ωt is applied
are in ________ with each other.  π to a series LCR circuit, then current is given
ε = ε0 sin  ωt +  is applied across an ac
 6 by i = I0 sin (ωt + φ). Here φ is given by
[NCERT Pg. 234]
circuit containing pure inductor L, then the ________. [NCERT Pg. 246]
2. An alternating voltage v = v0 sin ωt is applied expression of current through inductor is 14. In an LCR series circuit, if XL is the
across an ac circuit containing a resistor R ________. [NCERT Pg. 238] reactance of inductor and XC is the
only. The current through the circuit is given reactance of capacitor then at resonance
8. The average power supplied to an inductor
by ________. [NCERT Pg. 234] ________. [NCERT Pg. 248]
over one complete cycle is ________.
3. If an alternating current is expressed as [NCERT Pg. 239] 15. At resonance, the impedance of circuit is
i = i0 sin ωt, then its average value for half ________. [NCERT Pg. 248]
9. The reactance of inductor is ________
time period is ________. [NCERT Pg. 235] 16. Quality factor of a series LCR circuit is given
proportional to signal frequency applied
by ________. [NCERT Pg. 250]
4. Average value of a function <sin2 ωt> over a across inductor. [NCERT Pg. 238]
17. Average power dissipated in series LCR
complete cycle is ________. 10. If an alternating voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is applied
circuit at resonance is ________.
[NCERT Pg. 235] across a pure capacitor of capacitance C,
[NCERT Pg. 252]
then amplitude of alternating current (i0) is
5. The effective voltage of an ac supply is also 18. The mechanical equivalent of inductance (L)
________. [NCERT Pg. 241]
called as ________ voltage. in electrical system, is ________.
11. In pure capacitive ac circuit voltage
[NCERT Pg. 257]
[NCERT Pg. 236] ________ the current by phase angle
19. In step-up transformer IS is ________ than
6. A ________ is a vector that rotates about ________. [NCERT Pg. 242]
IP. [NCERT Pg. 261]
the origin with angular speed ω. 12. In a series LCR circuit, the impedance of the 20. For pure inductive circuit power factor is
[NCERT Pg. 237] circuit is Z = ________. [NCERT Pg. 245] ________. [NCERT Pg. 252]
  
Electromagnetic Waves
8
Chapter
1 MAXWELL’S EQUATIONS 3 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 4 NATURE OF ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

Sources of Waves m Waves are sinusoidal, having variation of electric and magnetic field at
q
E.dA = e (Gauss’s Law of electrostatics) m Through accelerating charges right angles to each other and perpendicular to direction of wave
0
m Through oscillating electric dipoles propogation.
B.dA =0 (Gauss’s Law of magnetism) m By harmonically oscillating electric charges m Frequency of electromagnetic wave equals the frequency of oscillating
m Oscillating fields of electromagnetic waves charge.
df (Faraday’s Law of EMI) Energy associated with propagating wave comes from energy of source,
E.dl = – dtB can accelerate charges and can produce m
oscillating currents the accelerated charge.

Produced and detected by Hertz in 1887 in laboratory. This verified a
B.dl = m0 ic + e0 dfE
m
Maxwell-Ampere’s circuital theorem m Electromagnetic waves in interaction with
dt matter interacts through its electric and basic prediction of Maxwell’s equation.
These equations express all basic laws of electro- m No material medium is involved in vibration of electric and magnetic
m magnetic field which set in oscillating
fields.
magnetism charges present in all matter
m E.M. wave carry energy and energy is shared equally by electric and
m Mechanism of absorption and scattering magnetic fields.
2 DISPLACEMENT CURRENT depends on wavelength of electromagnetic m Electromagnetic wave other than light also have same velocity in
m Source of a magnetic field is not just the conduction electric wave, nature of atoms and molecules in vacuum.
current but also time varying rate of change of electric field. medium m Wave transports momentum and exerts pressure
m It arises whenever the electric flux is changing with time. U
df E. UV RAYS P= , (U = Energy transfer for complete absorption by surface)
id = e0 E c
dt m Wavelength 400 nm to 1 nm
m Changing electric field must also produce a magnetic field. m Sun is import ant source m The magnitude of total momentum delivered.
m Absorbed by glass used by m So wave can carry energy from one place to another.
5 SPECTRUM OF ELECTRO- C. INFRARED WAVES welders m Ex = E0sin(kz – wt) and B0 = E0/c x
MAGNETIC WAVES AND m Wavelength 1 mm to 700 nm m Used in eye surgery (LASIK) E
PROPERTIES By = B0 sin(kz – wt) (wave equations) z
m Produced in vibration of atoms m UV lamps for water purefication
A. RADIO WAVES and molecules B
F. X-RAY m k = wave vector and speed of y
m Wavelength greatest –4
m These are called heat waves m Wavelength 10 nm to 10 nm w
m Produced by vibrating electrons propagation is, v =
m Used in physical therapy Obtained from bombarding a k
m AM BAND : 530 kHz to 1710 kHz , m 1 ORDER OF FREQUENCY
Trapped by greenhouse gases metal target by high energy in medium, speed of wave, v =
m SHORT band: 3 MHz to 54 MHz m
1 me m Gamma rays > X rays >
FM band : 88 MHz to 108 MHz m Remote switches electron In vacuum, c =
m
m0e0 U.V > Visible > Infrared >
m UHF band : CELULAR PHONE m Infrared detector m Used as diagnostic tools to treat
microwaves > short radio
B. MICRO WAVES D. VISIBLE RAYS cancer. m This is fundamental constant. These
Photographic films waves > FM and TV > AM
m Wavelength 0.1 m to 1 mm (Frequency m Wave length 700 nm to 400 nm m
waves can be polarized.
GHz) Radio > Long Radio
from electrons in atom by G. g-RAYS 1 2
m Produced by special vacuum tubes –10 –14 m Energy density in E field , uE = e0E waves
transitions from high to lower m Wavelength 10 m to 10 m 2
(Klystrons, Magnetrons and Gunn
level m Produced in nuclear reaction
diodes) B
2
m Used in radar system m Detected by human eye m Emitted by radioactive nuclei m Energy density in B field, uB =
2m0
m Micro wave oven works with m Different animals are sensitive m used in medicine to destory
m uE = u B
microwaves to different ranges of wave cancer cells
2
m Used in speed guns length m I = e0 Erm c
118 Electromagnetic Waves NCERT Maps
1. The correct order of arrangement of (1) 1.42 × 10–6 J m–3 (2) 1.92 × 10–6 J m–3 (1) Infrared detectors are used in earth
electromagnetic waves according to their (3) 2.6 × 10–5 J m–3 (4) 8.85 × 10–7 J m–3 satellites
frequency is [NCERT Pg. 283] (2) Electronic devices emit infrared
5. Cellular phones use radio waves to transmit
(1) Radio waves > Microwaves > γ-rays > voice communication in [NCERT Pg. 281] radiations and are used in remote
U.V. rays switches
(1) Frequency modulated radio bands
(2) Radio waves > U.V. rays > Microwaves (3) U.V. lamps are used in physical therapy
(2) Ultra high frequency bands
> γ -rays (4) Visible range of many insects extend
(3) Short wave bands
(3) γ -rays > Microwaves > U.V. rays > well into ultraviolet waves
Radio waves (4) Amplitude modulated bands
9. The instantaneous magnitudes of electric
(4) γ -rays > U.V. rays > Microwaves > 6. Which of the following is not an field E and magnetic field B vectors in
Radio waves electromagnetic wave? [NCERT Pg. 283] electromagnetic wave propagating in
(1) Heat rays vacuum are related as [NCERT Pg. 276]
2. The electromagnetic radiations used in
radar system is [NCERT Pg. 281] (2) X-rays c
(1) E = (2) E = cB
(1) Gamma rays (2) Radio waves B
(3) γ -rays
(3) Infrared (4) Microwaves B
(4) β-rays (3) E = (4) EB = c2
3. Microwaves oven works on the principle of c
7. Which among the following statement is
[NCERT Pg.281] 10. A plane electromagnetic wave E = 100 sin
incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 283]
(1) Giving rotational energy to water (5 × 108 t + 3x )V/m is propagating through
(1) Wavelength of X-rays can range from a medium. The refractive index of the
molecules
10 nm to 10–4 nm. medium is [NCERT Pg.276]
(2) Giving vibrational energy to water
(2) X-rays are used in treatment of certain (1) 1.6 (2) 1.7
molecules
form of cancer
(3) Giving translational energy to water (3) 1.8 (4) 1.9
(3) X-rays are produced by bombarding a
molecules 11. Light with energy flux 1.2 W/m2 falls on a
metal target by high energy electrons
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct options non-reflecting surface at normal incidence.
(4) X-rays are used to observe growth of The pressure on the plate is
4. The RMS value of electric field of light
crops
coming from sun is 400 N C–1. Total energy [NCERT Pg.279 ]
density of electromagnetic waves is 8. Which among the following statement may
(1) 3 × 10–8 N m–2 (2) 2 × 10–8 N m–2
[NCERT Pg. 279] be incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 282]
(3) 4 × 10–9 N m–2 (4) 2 × 10–9 N m–2
NCERT Maps Electromagnetic Waves 119
12. What is peak electric field produced by the 16. A capacitor is made of two circular plates 19. Correct match of column I with column II is
radiations coming from 100 W bulb at a each of radius 7 cm and separated by 2 cm.
[NCERT Pg. 283]
distance 3 m. Assuming that bulb is point The capacitor is being charged by an
source with efficiency of 2.5%? external source. The charging current is C-I C-II (Production)
[NCERT Pg. 279] constant and equal to 0.2 A. What is the rate (waves)
of change of potential deference between
(1) 2.9 V/m (2) 3.1 V/m A. Infra-red P Rapid vibration of
the plates? [NCERT Pg.285]
electrons in aerials
(3) 1.6 V/m (4) 4.07 V/m
(1) 1.62 × 1010 V/s
13. In electromagnetic wave, if peak value of B. Radio Q Electrons in atoms
(2) 2.94 × 1010 V/s emit light when they
magnetic field is 1.4 × 10–8 T, then RMS move from higher to
value of electric field will be (3) 3.54 × 1010 V/s lower energy level.
[NCERT Pg. 280] (4) 3.24 × 1010 V/s
C. Light R Klystron valve
(1) 4.07 V/m (2) 2.9 V/m 17. A radio is tuned to station in the 30 MHz to
D. Microwave S Vibration of atoms
(3) 6.2 V/m (4) 3.4 V/m 54 MHz. What is corresponding wavelength
and molecules
band? [NCERT Pg. 281]
14. Light with an energy flux of 6 W/cm2 falls on
(1) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
a non reflecting surface at normal incidence. (1) AM band
If surface has an area of 50 cm2. What is (2) FM band (2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
total momentum transferred in one minute to
(3) Short band (3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
the surface (for complete absorption)?
[NCERT Pg. 279] (4) UHF band (4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(1) 6 × 10–5 kg m s–1 (2) 3 × 10–5 kg m s–1 18. Which among the following statement is 20. Find the incorrect statement among the
(3) 2 × 10–5 kg m s–1 (4) 6.4 kg m s–1 incorrect in electromagnetic spectrum? following. [NCERT Pg. 285]
15. The electric field component propagating [NCERT Pg. 282] (1) Accelerated charge particles radiate
along x-axis is given as Ey = 30 sin (4.5 × (1) Long distance radio broadcast use electromagnetic waves
102x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) V/m. The frequency of short waves (2) Visible radiations emitted by atoms is
propagating wave is [NCERT Pg. 278]
(2) X-rays astronomy is possible from much longer in wavelength than atomic
(1) 5 GHz satellite orbiting earth size
(2) 17.6 GHz (3) Microwaves range from 400 nm to (3) X-rays are emitted from heavy atoms
(3) 23.9 GHz 0.6 nm
(4) Radio waves are produced by atomic
(4) 15.4 GHz (4) Snakes are sensitive to infrared waves nucleus
120 Electromagnetic Waves NCERT Maps
1. Maxwell’s work, unified the domain of 7. The frequency of the electromagnetic wave 13. Radio waves are used in radio
electricity. magnetism and_____. is equal to frequency of _____. The energy communication system. The frequency
[NCERT Pg. 269] modulation (FM) radio wave extends from
associated with the propagating wave
2. The current carried by conductors due to ______ Hz to ______ Hz. [NCERT Pg. 281]
comes at the expense of energy of the
flow of charges is called conduction current 14. Microwaves which are short wavelength
source i.e.______. [NCERT Pg. 274] radio waves with frequency in GHz are
and current due to changing electric field is
called_____. [NCERT Pg. 271] 8. Maxwell’s equations show that electric and produced by______. [NCERT Pg. 281]
3. The source of magnetic field is not just magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave 15. The frequency of microwaves is selected to
conduction electric current due to flowing are _____ to each other, and to the direction match the resonant frequency of water
charges but also time rate of change of molecules so that energy from waves is
of propagation. [NCERT Pg. 275]
electric field. This statement is transferred efficiently to kinetic energy of
9. Magnitude of electric and magnetic fields in molecules. This concept is used for_____.
(1) True (2) False
an electromagnetic waves are related as [NCERT Pg. 281]
[NCERT Pg. 272]
B0 = … [NCERT Pg. 276] 16. These radiations are trapped by green-
4. “Total current passing through any surface house gases, These radiations are easily
of which the closed loop is a perimeter” is 10. In an AM radio, antenna is telescopic, it
absorbed by water molecules and are used
sum of the conduction current and responds to electric part of the signal. When in light emitting diodes. These radiation are
displacement current. So ampere Maxwell’s antenna is turned horizontal, the signal is ______. [NCERT Pg. 282]
 
law is ∫ B.dl = µ0 iC + µ0 (....) greatly diminished. This is due to fact that 17. These radiations are absorbed by glass and
[NCERT Pg. 272] electromagnetic waves are_____. are produced by special lamps. The
5. Electric field changing with time gives rise to radiations are______. [NCERT Pg. 282]
[NCERT Pg. 277]
a _____ and a consequence of 18. In LASIK eye surgery, the radiations used
11. If total energy transferred by an are______. [NCERT Pg. 282]
displacement current being a source of a
_____. [NCERT Pg. 273] electromagnetic wave in time t is U, 19. The radiations are used in treatment of
6. A charge oscillating with some frequency magnitude of total momentum delivered to certain forms of cancer and as a diagnostic
produces an oscillating electric field in surface for complete absorption is p tool in medicine, these radiations
space which produces a magnetic field =______. [NCERT Pg. 277] are______. [NCERT Pg. 283]
which is also oscillating which in turn is a 20. High frequency radiations are produced in
12. If an electromagnetic wave propagates nuclear reactions and also emitted by radio-
source of oscillating electric field. The
along x-axis and E is along y-axis, the B active nuclei. These are used to destroy
statement is
should be along ______ axis. cancer cells. The radiations are______.
(1) True (2) False
[NCERT Pg.274]
  
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
9
Chapter
1 REFLECTION OF LIGHT Image Formation by Spherical Mirrors m Optical denser medium has high refractive index. Mass density of optical denser
m The image by a mirror is real if rays after reflection actually medium may be less than mass density of rarer medium.
Law of Reflection
meet and virtual if rays are not actually meeting but appear m Elementary results from laws of refraction are
m Incident ray, reflected ray and normal to reflecting surface
at the point of incidence lie in the same plane. to diverge from a point. (1) n32 = n31 × n12
m Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. m An incident ray passing through centre of curvature of mirror (2) For rectangular slab with parallel Medium ift
sh
(Class) teral
Sign-convention retraces its path. faces, the emergent ray is parallel La
m In sign convention, all distances measured in the same 1 1 1 to incident ray, there is no
m Mirror equation is and magnification (1) r2
direction as incidence ray are taken positive and those + =
u v f deviation but Medium i2
measured in the direction opposite of incident ray are taken formula Medium
(Air)
A has lateral shift. r1 (Air) (1)
negative. M
v f i1
m The heights taken above the principal axis are positive and m=– =
u f–u (2)
B¢ P
below negative. f–v
= B C F
Mirror
f f (3) Bottom of tank filled with water appears to be raised.
Object on left A¢
Incident light v Observer
Heights
upwards u N
positive
D
Observer
Distance against
incident light 2 REFRACTION OF LIGHT
Heights negative
downwards Distances along m When a beam of light encounters another transparent
negative incident light
positive medium, part of light is reflected back. This called internal
Focal Length of Spherical Mirrors reflection. The rest of light enter other medium.
m The distance between focus and pole of a mirror is called m When light is incident obliquely, its propagation direction
Apparent
focal length. changes in other medium, this phenomenon is called depth
h1
Real depth
m Focal length is equal to half of radius of curvature of the O¢ O¢
refraction.
curved spherical mirror. h2
m Red light travels faster than blue light in same medium.
Law of Refraction
O O
R m The incident ray, refracted ray and normal to interface at the
f=
2 P point of incidence, (1)
(a) (b) Apparent position
C F Normal of the Sun
all lie in same plane. Incident ray Reflected ray Real depth
The ratio of sine of angle Apparent depth =
m n21 Horizon
(Concave) of incidence to the sine i i Observer
(4) Sun is visible a little before the
of angle of refraction Reflecting
surface actual sunrise and until a little Actual position
P F C is constant. of the Sun
(2) r after the sunset, this time
sin i = n
21
(Convex) sin r Refracted ray difference is about 2 minute,
Atmosphere
n21 is refractive index of second medium with respect to first. the sun appears oval shaped.
122 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments NCERT Maps
3 TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION 4 REFRACTION AT SPHERICAL SURFACES
m If angle of incidence, for light traveling from denser to rarer

N n 2 n1 n 2 - n1
medium is greater than certain angle called critical angle for n1 - =
i n2 v u R
the media, no light is transmitted. r
O C I R = radius of curvature of the curved spherical surface.
1 M R
sin ic = n : refractive index of denser medium w.r.t rarer medium. It holds for any curved surface (for paraxial approximation).
n12 12
u v
(2) B
Rarer
medium
(Air) 5 REFRACTION BY LENSES
Water-air
r O2 r¢ D O4 interface
O1 O3 m A lens is a transparent optical medium bounded by Object
v
(1) i¢ N ic i > ic two surfaces.
i h F¢
N N Totally At least one surface should be spherical.
reflected ray F h¢
Denser m After two refraction through a lens, image is formed.
medium Partially
(water) The thin lens formula becomes u image
reflected ray
A C
1 –1 =1 (a)
v u f
m Higher is value of refractive index, smaller will be critical angle.
Size of image h¢ v
Substance Ref. index Critical angle m= = = = f = f–v Object
Size of object h u f+u f
Water 1.33 48.75°
m Formula is valid for convex and concave lenses and 2F F image F¢ 2F¢
Flint glass 1.62 37.31°
Diamond 2.42 24.41° magnification produced by lens (for paraxial
approximation) (b)
Phenomenon based on TIR are
l Mirage
l Sparkling of diamond 6 POWER OF THIN LENS
l Special prisms of flint glass to bend light by 90° m It is measure of its convergence or Lens maker’s formula
and 180° divergence ability. m A lens of shorter focal length
l Optical fibre for communication
bends incident ray more and 1 1 1
P= = (n – 1) –
f R1 R2
d has high power.
7 THIN LENSES IN CONTACT
h
m When thin lenses are m Net power is individual power’s d 1 m n is relative refractive index of
O
f
F P=
kept in contact algebraic sum. Some terms f glass with respect to surrounding
P = P1 + P2 + P3 + .... may be positive (convex) and m Its SI unit is dioptre (D) and R1 and R2 are radii of curvature
some terms may be negative m The power P of a lens is defined as of two surfaces.
1 1 1 1 1D = 1 m–1
= + + + .... the tangent of the angle by which it m A converging lens in a transparent
f f1 f2 f3 (concave) on right hand side.
converges or diverges a beam of m It is positive for converging lens liquid of refractive index greater
This combination helps to get diverging or converging lens light parallel to the principal axis
m than lens glass behaves like a
falling at unit distance from the and negative for diverging lens.
combination of desired magnification. diverging lens and vice versa.
optical centre.
NCERT Maps Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 123
8 REFRACTION THROUGH A PRISM
m Refractive index of prism is calcutated by formula.

m For any triangular prism angle between When d = D m Dispersion by a prism
incidence ray and emergent A + Dm
i = e, D m = 2i – A sin
d n2 2
ray is called angle of deviation r = r 1 = r 2 or r 1 = A/2 n21 = =
n1 sin (A/2)
d=i+e–A A The refracted ray inside prism i=e
m For small angle thin prism
m d remains same becomes parallel to its base.
S R 0 White light
if i and e are Q i Dm = (n21 – 1)A beam White light
e
r1 r2 (Angle of incidence) spectrum
interchanged. m It implies thin prism don’t deviate light much
P Glass Prism
S
B C
9 NATURAL PHENOMENA DUE TO SUNLIGHT 10 OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

Dispersion of Light
Compound Microscope
m The phenomenon of splitting of light into constituent colours is known as dispersion. Eye Defects Cure m For large magnification objective and eye piece
m Dispersion takes place due to different refractive index of medium for different wavelengths. should have low focal length
m Myopia Concave lens
m Chromatic aberration in thick lenses is due to dispersion. m Final image at near point
m Hypermetropia Convex lens
m Rainbow is an example of dispersion of light (sun) by water drops vo
m Astigmatism
D
m In vacuum speed of light is independent of wavelength. So Vacuum is non dispersive medium. Cylindrical lens m = mo × me = 1+
uo fe
ht
Rainbow nlig Simple Microscope
Su m Final image at infinity
Sunli
ght 1 m Microscope : A simple magnifier or microscope
Raindrop vo D
is a converging lens of high power. m=
Raindrops uo fe
2 m Angular magnification is equal to ratio of
Telescope
42° 40° angular size of image to angular size of object
m It is used to provide angular magnification for
m Final image at near point distant objects
40°
Observer 42° m Final image at infinity
(a) D
m=1+ fo
(b)
f m= and L = fo + fe
fe
Raindrops m Final image at infinity m Final image at near point

fo fe Dfe
D m= 1+ and L = fo +
Sunlight m= fe D D + fe
f
Scattering of light: Light of shorter Sun nearly overhead

50° 53°
wavelength is scattered much more
Observer Distance of atmosphere
(c) than of longer wavelength. Amount of through which sunlight
Rainbow: (a) The sun rays incident on a water drop get refracted twice and reflected internally by a drop; Sun near travels in atmosphere
scattering is inversely proportional to
(b) Enlarge view of internal reflection and refraction of a ray of light inside a drop form primary rainbow; and horizon
fourth power of wavelength. Observer
(c) Secondary rainbow is formed by rays undergoing internal reflection twice inside the drop.
1. Which of the following statements is wrong 5. In the position of minimum deviation when a 8. In a compound microscope, the intermediate
for an image formation of a real object? ray of yellow light passes through the prism, image is [NCERT Pg. 340]
[NCERT Pg. 315] then its [NCERT Pg. 331] (1) Virtual, erect and magnified
(1) The magnification produced by convex (1) Angle of incidence is less than angle of (2) Real, erect and magnified
mirror is always less than one
emergence
(2) A virtual, inverted, same size image can (3) Real, inverted and magnified
be obtained using plane mirror (2) Angle of incidence is greater than
(4) Virtual, erect and reduced
emergent angle
(3) A virtual, erect, magnified image can be 9. Mark the correct option among following
formed using a concave mirror (3) Sum of angle of incidence and emergent statements.
(4) A real, inverted, same sized image can angle is equal to 90°
(1) If far point come closer to eye, the defect
be formed using a convex mirror (4) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of is farsightedness.
2. Advanced sunset and delayed sunset is due emergence
to [NCERT Pg. 318] (2) If near point goes ahead (away from
6. The focal length of a lens depends upon eye), the defect is called myopia.
(1) Atmospheric reflection
[NCERT Pg. 327] (3) If defective far point is 1 m away from
(2) Atmospheric refraction
(1) Nature of material of lens eye, divergent lens should be used
(3) Atmospheric scattering
(4) Atmospheric dispersion (2) Colour of light (4) If near point is 1 m away from eye,
(3) Medium in which lens is placed divergent lens should be used
3. If µa, µb and µc are refractive indices of media
A, B and C respectively such that µa > µb > (4) All of these [NCERT Pg. 337]
µc, total internal reflection can take place 10. P is a small angled prism of angle 3° made
7. A screen is placed at a distance of 40 cm
when a ray of light travels from away from an illuminated object. A from material of refractive index 1.2. A ray of
[NCERT Pg. 320] converging lens is placed between the light is incident on it as shown in figure. The
source and screen and it is attempted to angle of deviation for the rays refracted from
(1) C to A (2) C to B
form the image of the source on the screen.
(3) B to A (4) B to C prism is [NCERT Pg. 331]
If no lens position could be found, the focal
4. Which of the following concept is used in length of the lens
optical fibre? [NCERT Pg. 322] [NCERT Pg. 347]
(1) Refraction of light (1) Should be greater than 10 cm
(2) Scattering of light (2) May be 6 cm
(3) Dispersion of light (3) May be infinity (1) 2° (2) 3°
(4) Total internal reflection (4) Must be less than 10 cm (3) 0.8° (4) 0.6°
11. When white light enters a prism, it gets split (B) Compound (F) Image virtual, 17. Find the position of the image formed by lens
into its constituent colours. This is due to microscope erect and combination with convex lens of focal length
[NCERT Pg. 333] high 10 cm and concave lens of focal length 12
(1) Scattering of light resolution cm. The object is kept at 30 cm from the
(2) Dispersion of light convex lens as shown [NCERT Pg. 330]
(C) Astronomical (G) Virtual,
(3) Reflection of light telescope inverted and
(4) Diffraction of light high
resolution
12. A compound microscope consists of an
objective lens of focal length 1 cm and an (D) Terrestrial (H) Image virtual,
eye piece with focal length of 2.0 cm and telescope erect and
tube has length 20 cm. What is its enlarged
magnification? [NCERT Pg. 341] [NCERT Pg. 339]
(1) 36 cm to right of convex lens
(1) 100 (2) 200 (1) A–H, B–F, C–E, D–G
(3) 220 (4) 250 (2) 36 cm to right of concave lens
(2) A–H, B–E, C–G, D–F
13. With regards to a telescope, which (3) A–H, B–E, C–F, D–G (3) 16 cm to left of concave lens
statement is incorrect. [NCERT Pg. 340]
(4) A–F, B–G, C–E, D–G
(1) Telescope is used to provide angular (4) 20 cm to right of convex lens
15. A simple magnifier has converging lens of
magnification of distant objects
focal length 2.5 cm. What is its linear 18. A small pin fixed on table top is viewed from
(2) Telescope has objective lens of large magnification for the image formed at near above from a distance of 40 cm. By what
power point? [NCERT Pg. 341] distance would pin appear to be raised if
(3) Final image of refracting telescope is (1) 6 (2) 9 viewed from the same point through a 12 cm
inverted thick glass slab held parallel to the table?
(3) 11 (4) 16
(4) With larger diameter of objective fainter Refractive index of glass is 1.5
16. A prism has prism angle of 60° and its
objects can be observed
absolute refractive index is 1.76. The prism [NCERT Pg. 345]
14. Match the elements of List-I with List-II is dipped in a transparent liquid of refractive
index x. If the angle of minimum deviation is (1) 4 cm
List-I List-II
found to 46° in liquid, what is x? (2) 5 cm
(A) Simple (E) Image
microscope magnified, [NCERT Pg. 331]
(3) 6 cm
inverted and (1) 1.1 (2) 1.3
virtual (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5 (4) 8 cm
19. Biconvex lenses are to be manufactured (1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm rays with the axis of the pipe for which total
from glass of refractive index 1.5 with both (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm internal reflection inside the pipe take place
faces of same radii of curvature. The radius is nearly [NCERT Pg. 345]
20. A light pipe is made of glass fibre of
of curvature required if focal length is 15 cm
refractive index 1.57. The outer covering of (1) 0° < i < 38° (2) 0° < i < 90°
will be
the pipe is made of a material of refractive
[NCERT Pg. 344] (3) 0° < i < 60° (4) 0° < i < 53°
index 1.36. The range of angles of incident
1. The direction of propagation of an obliquely 5. A ray of light passing through first principal 9. In prism theory in general any given value of
incident (0 < i < 90) ray of light that enter the focus of a convex lens emerges _______ angle of deviation; except i = e; there
other medium, changes at the interface of after refraction. [NCERT Pg. 327] corresponds to two values of ∠ i and ∠e (i.e.
two media, this phenomenon is called 6. A glass lens with refractive index 1.33 deviation angle remains same if ∠ i and ∠e
_______ of light. disappears in a trough of water with are interchanged). This statement is
refractive index 1.33. The statement is (1) True [NCERT Pg. 331]
[NCERT Pg. 316]
(2) False
(1) True [NCERT Pg. 327]
2. In case of light, the ratio of velocity of light in
10. Thick lenses show chromatic aberration due
c  (2) False
vacuum to that in medium   , is called to _______. [NCERT Pg. 333]
v  7. Power of a convex lens is always positive 11. Vacuum is a non-dispersive medium in
_______ of medium. [NCERT Pg. 319] and that of concave lens is negative. The which all colours travel with same speed.
statement is [NCERT Pg. 328] But glass is a dispersive medium. The
3. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42, then
its critical angle is _______. (1) True statement is [NCERT Pg. 333]
(2) False (1) True

[NCERT Pg. 320]
(2) False
4. When layers of air close to ground having 8. Power of lens combination is equal to
12. The rainbow is a phenomenon due to
algebraic sum of individual powers and
varying temperature, with hottest layer near combined effect of dispersion, refraction
magnification of combination is product of
ground, image of tree may create an illusion and reflection of sunlight by spherical
magnification of lenses. The statement is
to an observer that the tree is near a pool of droplets of rain water. This statement is
water. This is due to phenomenon of (1) True [NCERT Pg. 329]
(1) True [NCERT Pg. 333]
_______. [NCERT Pg. 321] (2) False (2) False
13. When light rays undergoes two internal 16. The final image formed by a compound 18. The virtual image produced by a convex
reflections inside a rain drop, a secondary microscope is inverted and magnified. The mirror is generally diminished in size and
rainbow is formed and order of colours is statement is [NCERT Pg. 338] located between the focus and pole.
reversed to primary rainbow. The statement
(1) True (1) True
is [NCERT Pg. 334]
(1) True (2) False [NCERT Pg. 345]
(2) False 19. An object placed between f and 2f of a
(2) False
14. At the sunset or sunrise, the sun looks concave mirror produces a real inverted
17. A telescope has objective of larger focal
reddish. The reddish appearance of sun image beyond 2f.
length and large aperture, whereas
near horizon is due to _______. eyepiece has small focal length and small (1) True
[NCERT Pg. 335] aperture. The statement is (2) False [NCERT Pg. 315]
15. Angular magnification of a magnifier when 20. If eye lens focusses the incoming light at a
(1) True [NCERT Pg. 339] point behind the retina, a convergent lens is
the image formed at infinity compared to
final image at near point is _______. needed to compensate for the defect in
(2) False
vision. This defect is called _______
[NCERT Pg. 337]
[NCERT Pg. 345]
  
Wave Optics
10
Chapter
1 HUYGEN’S PRINCIPLE 3 REFLECTION OF A PLANE WAVEFRONT AT 6 COHERENT SOURCE
m Huygen gave a geometrical method for the PLANE SURFACE If the phase difference between two waves reaching at a point remains
propagation of wave in any medium. constants with time, then the sources are said to be coherent.
From DABC and DACD, BC = AD = vt
m Wavefront : Surface of constant phase. The When the phase difference between two waves change with time it is
ÐABC = ÐADC = 90° incoherent.
line drawn perpendicular to wavefront gives
direction of propagation of wave and energy. AC is common. 7 PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION
m Each point on primary wavefront behaves like So DABC and DACD are congruent If number of waves reach at a point, then the resultant displacement of
a new wave source from which secondary \ ÐBAC = ÐDCA or Ði = Ðr (This is law of reflection) point is the vector sum of displacement of individual waves at that point
waves emit in all directions. and at that time.
m If we draw the envelope of these secondary D Consider two waves reach at origin y1 = a1coswt, y2 = a2cos(wt + f)
wavelets then it will give the position of B From superposition law resultant amplitude is A = a21 + a22 + 2a a cosf
secondary wavefront. Incident Reflected 1 2
wavefront wavefront For Amax or constructive interference
m The shape of wavefront depends on shape
of wave source. r Phase difference, f = 0, 2p, 4p ... 2np
i
Point source - Spherical wave fronts i r
m Path difference, Dx = l, 2l, ... nl where n = 0, 1, 2, 3 ...
m Line source - Cylindrical wavefronts A C
Amax = (a1 + a2), Imax µ (a1 + a2)2
at a large distance from the source, a small
portion of wavefront is planar. For Amin or destructive interference
Phase difference, f = p, 3p, 5p ... (2n + 1) p
4 REFRACTION OF PLANE WAVE BY PRISM, LENS
2 REFRACTION OF PLANE WAVEFRONT AND MIRROR Path difference, Dx = l/2, 3l/2 ..., (2n + 1) l/2 where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
Amin = (a1 – a2), Imin µ (a1 – a2)2
BC
From DABC, sini = If a1 = a2 = a, A = 2acos(f/2) and I1 = I2 = I0 Þ I = 4I0 cos2(f/2)
AC m
m When phase difference between two vibrating sources changes
AE Incident plane Refracted rapidly with time, two sources are incoherent and the intensities just
From DAEC, sinr =
AC wavefront wavefront add up. i.e. I = I1 + I2
sini BC v1t v1 m2 Screen
8 YOUNG’S DOUBLE SLIT EXPERIMENT
sinr = AE = v2t = v2 = m1 (a) P
Incident Spherical Incident plane m Path difference,
plane wavefront wavefront Spherical
wavefront wavefront
v1 > v2 Dx = S2P – S1P, Dx = yd/D
S1 y
m For constructive interference
Incident B or bright fringes
wavefront Rarer (m1) F
v1t F S d O
yd/D = n l, n = 0 ±1, ± 2, ...
i (b) m For destructive interference S2
i
A r C (c) or Dark fringes Dx
D
yd/D = (2n + 1) l/2, n = 0 ±1, ± 2, ...
5 THE DOPPLER’S EFFECT m Distance between two consecutive bright (or dark) fringe called fringe
v2t
When the source moves away from observer the frequency as width(b)
E 90° Denser (m2) measured by source will be smaller and wavelength will be longer, b = xn+1 – xn = lD/d
this is called red shift. Towards the observer, there is an apparent m The fringe pattern is hyperbolic, for large distances the fringe will be
Dn nradial nearly straight lines.
decrease in wavelength, this is called red shift. =–
n C
NCERT Maps Wave Optics 129
9 DIFFRACTION 11 VALIDITY OF RAY OPTICS

m The phenomena of bending of waves To P Fresnel’s Distance :
at the narrow holes and sharp edges is
called diffraction. This is exhibited by L q m Distance at which diffraction spread is equal to the size of aperture. zf ; a2/l
all types of waves. q
m Single slit diffraction
m This gives the distance beyond which divergence of beam of width a becomes significant.
a M To centre
Path difference at point P Q m Ray optics is valid in the limit of wavelength tending to zero.
q
Dx = NP – LP = NQ; Dx = asinq ; aq N
Dx 12 POLARISATION
m For central maxima q = 0
m For secondary maxima : q ; (n + 1/2) l/a where n = ±1, ± 2, ± 3, ... m The phenomena of restricting the vibration of electric vector only in one direction perpendicular to
m For minima : q ; nl/a where n = ±1, ± 2, ± 3, ... the direction of propagation is called polarisation.
m Width of central fringe WC = 2lD/a m Malus’ law : The intensity of transmitted light passed through an analyser is I = I0cos2q
m Width of secondary fringe W = lD/a
where, I0 = Intensity of polarised light after passing through polariser.
Intensity q = Angle between axis of polariser and analyser
I0 m Polarisation by scattering : An observer looking at 90° to the direction of sun. The radiations
scattered by the molecules perpendicular to the incident unpolarised light (figure) is polarised.
m Scattering of light by molecules studied by C.V. Raman is called Raman effect.
Incident sunlight
Ÿ Molecule
0 sinq Scattered
– 3l – 2l –l l 2l 3l
polarised light
D D D D D D
10 RESOLVING POWER OF OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

TO OBSERVER
m It is the ability to resolve the image of two nearby objects distinctly.
m Resolving power of microscope = 2nsinb/1.22l m Polarisation by Reflection : When an unpolarised light is incident at Brewster’s angle (iB), then
Image reflected light is polarised and refracted light is partially polarised. Brewster’s angle depends on
D refractive index of two media,
b 1.22 f l
q m = tan iB and iB + r = 90°
f D
Object
Incide
Object nt To observer
v Air
plane d
Image plane
Objective lens iq
ecte
m The product nsinb is called the numerical aperture. Refl
m Resolving power of telescope = a/0.61l r
Refracted
Medium
2a 0.61lf
a
m Electric field vector perpendicular to plane of incidence is reflected.
f
130 Wave Optics NCERT Maps
1. The phenomenon of diffraction takes place 5. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits 9. The idea of secondary wave wavelets for the
for [NCERT Pg. 367] are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is propagation of the light wave was first given
(1) Sound waves only placed 1.4 m away. The width of bright fringe by [NCERT Pg. 354]
(2) Light waves only is measured to be 1.2 cm. The wavelength (1) Fresnel
of light used in the experiment is (2) Newton
(3) Matter waves only
(4) All type of waves [NCERT Pg. 364] (3) Maxwell
2. If Young’s double slit experiment uses a (1) 2.4 × 10–6 m (2) 3 × 10–7 m (4) Huygen
monochromatic light, the shape of fringes (3) 1.5 × 10–7 m (4) 5 × 10–7 m 10. The ratio of the amplitude of the two sources
formed on the screen is [NCERT Pg. 364] producing interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of
6. The angle between the axis of two polaroids
(1) Parabola (2) Straight line is 30°. The ratio of intensities of the intensities at maxima and minima is
(3) Circle (4) Hyperbola emergent and unpolarised incident light will [NCERT Pg. 360]
3. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using be [NCERT Pg. 378] (1) 25 : 6 (2) 5 : 3
beam of red light. What will happen, if red (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
light is replaced by the blue light?
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 8 11. Colours of the soap bubble is due to
[NCERT Pg. 369]
7. In Young’s double slit experiment, the phase [NCERT Pg. 360]
(1) Bands disappear difference between two waves reaching at a (1) Interference
(2) Bands become broader and farther apart point is π/3. The intensity of this point
(2) Heat radiation
(3) Diffraction bands becomes narrow and expressed as a fraction of maximum
crowded intensity I0 is [NCERT Pg. 364] (3) Polarisation
(4) No change takes place 3 I0 (4) Absorption

(1) I0 (2)
4. Which of the following is correct for light 2 2 12. Intensity of a bright fringe in a single slit
diverging from a point source? diffraction pattern on a screen
4 3
(3) I0 (4) I0 [NCERT Pg. 369]
[NCERT Pg. 360] 3 4
(1) The intensity changes in proportion to 8. When a low flying aircraft passes overhead, (1) Is same for all bright fringes
the distance squared we sometimes notice a slight shaking of the (2) Increases and decreases alternatively
(2) The wavefront is parabolic picture in our T.V. screen. This is because of as we move away from central fringe
(3) The intensity changes inversely _________ between the direct signal and (3) Decreases as we move away from
proportional to distance squared reflected signal [NCERT Pg. 364] central bright fringe
(4) The intensity changes inversely (1) Interference (2) Diffraction (4) Increases as we move away from central
proportional to distance (3) Polarisation (4) Refraction bright fringe
NCERT Maps Wave Optics 131
13. Wavefronts associated with point source of 16. The refractive index of a medium is 3 . If microscope when light of wave length 6000
wave is [NCERT Pg. 353] the unpolarised light is incident on it from air Å is used. If the light of wavelength of 8000
(1) Spherical (2) Planar Å is used, then the limit of resolution will be
at the polarizing angle of the medium, the
(3) Cylindrical (4) Ellipsoid angle of refraction is [NCERT Pg. 379] [NCERT Pg. 373]
14. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on an (1) 60° (1) 0.8 mm (2) 1.2 mm
aperture of size 2mm. The distance upto (2) 45° (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.13 mm
which light can travel such that its spread is (3) 30° 19. Transverse nature of light was confirmed by
less than the size of aperture is the phenomena of [NCERT Pg. 376]
(4) 0°
[NCERT Pg. 379] (1) Reflection of light
17. When interference of light waves takes place
(1) 12.13 m (2) 6.67 m (2) Diffraction of light
[NCERT Pg. 361]
(3) 3.33 m (4) 2.19 m (3) Interference of light
(1) Energy is created in the region of
15. The slits in Young’s double slit experiment (4) Polarisation of light
maximum intensity
are illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 20. A light of wavelength 550 nm coming from a
(2) Energy is destroyed in the region of
Å. If the path difference at the central bright distant star. The limit of resolution of a
minimum intensity
fringe is zero, then the path difference at telescope whose objective has a diameter of
fourth bright fringe is [NCERT Pg. 364] (3) Conservation of energy hold good and 2 m is [NCERT Pg. 373]
energy is redistributed
(1) 2.4 × 10–6 m (1) 3.38 × 10–7 rad
(4) Conservation of energy does not hold
(2) 1.2 × 10–6 m (2) 3.35 × 10–5 rad
good
(3) 10–6 m (3) 3.35 × 10–6 rad
18. Two points separated by a distance of
(4) 0.5 × 10–6 m (4) 2.15 × 10–7 rad
0.1 mm can just be inspected in a
1. The branch of optics in which one 3. If a plane wavefront is incident on a convex 5. According to principle of superposition, the
completely neglects the finiteness of lens then the emerging wavefront will be
_______ and converge to a _______ resultant displacement produced by a
wavelength is called ______ optics.
[NCERT Pg. 358] number of waves is the _______ of
[NCERT Pg. 352] 4. When the source moves away from the
displacements produced by _______ of the
2. Locus of points, which oscillate in _______ observer, astronomers observes increase in
_______ and it is called _______. waves. [NCERT Pg. 362]
is called a wavefront. [NCERT Pg. 353]
[NCERT Pg. 358]
132 Wave Optics NCERT Maps
6. When the phase difference between the 11. For a single slit of width a and wavelength λ, 16. The width of central maximum in single slit
displacements produced by each of the the first null of the interference pattern diffraction is distance between _______ on
waves does not change with time then the occurs at an angle of _______. either side of _______. [NCERT Pg. 369]
sources are said to be _______. [NCERT Pg. 371] 17. In diffraction of a single slit of width a, using
[NCERT Pg. 352] 12. The limit of resolution of a microscope can wavelength λ, condition for nth minima is
7. Locus of a point lying in a plane such that be decreased by filling a liquid of _______ ______ [NCERT Pg. 369]
path difference of two waves reaching the between _______ and _______
18. Resolving power of an optical instrument is
point is constant, is a _______. [NCERT Pg. 372]
the ability of the instrument to _______ or
[NCERT Pg. 364] 13. Light waves are _______ in nature, i.e. the
_______ the image of two ______objects
electric field associated with a propagating
8. If instead of in air, interference experiment is light wave is always at _______ to the [NCERT Pg. 372]
performed in water then the fringe width will direction of propagation of wave. 19. Angular width of central maxima in
_______ [NCERT Pg. 383] [NCERT Pg.377] diffraction at a single slit is equal to ______.
9. A micrometer size obstacle will be able to 14. The intensity of light coming through a single
[NCERT Pg. 369]
stop a light ray from diffracting. (True/False) polaroid is _______ of the incident intensity.
[NCERT Pg. 353] [NCERT Pg. 378] 20. The condition of constructive interference of
a point is that path difference between two
10. The interference pattern has a number of 15. Huygens argued that the amplitude of the
secondary wavelets is _______ in the waves reaching the point should be
_______spaced bright and dark bands.
forward direction and zero in the backward _______ or _______ of full wavelength
[NCERT Pg. 362] direction. [NCERT Pg. 354] [NCERT Pg. 361]
  
11
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Chapter
1 ELECTRON EMISSION 3 EXPERIMENTAL STUDY OF 3. Effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping
Thermionic Emission PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT potential:
m The process of emission of electrons when a metal is Quartz (i) Saturation current is independent of frequency
heated is known as thermionic emission window S (ii) Stopping potential depends on frequency of radiation.
m The emitted electrons are called thermions
Evacuated
Photosensitive glass tube
(hn – hn0 = eV0)
m Emitted number of thermions depends on temperature of plate
metal surface Electrons
Field Emission
m The process of emission of free electrons when a strong n3 > n2 > n1
8
electric field (;10 V/m) is applied across the metal Commutator Saturation current
n3 n2 n1
surface is called field emission or cold emission, as in mA
spark plug. V
0 Collector plate potential
–V03 –V02 –V01
Photoelectric Emission Retarding potential
m The process of emission of electrons when light of
i
m The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies
suitable frequency is incident on metal surface is called 1. Effect of Intensity: The number of linearly with the frequency of incident radiation, but is
as photoelectric emission photoelectrons emitted per second independent of intensity.
m Emitted electrons are called photoelectrons or photoelectirc current is directly m For a frequency less than threshold ( n < n 0 ) no
m Number of photoelectrons emitted depends on the proportional to the intensity of photoelectric emission is possible even if intensity is
intensity of incident light radiation. Intensity of light large.
2. Effect of potential on m Threshold frequency (n0): The minimum frequency of
Secondary Emission
photoelectric current: incident radiation required to emit electrons called
m The process of emission of free electrons when highly
(i) For a given frequency of incident radiation, stopping threshold frequency. It is different for different metals.
energetic electron beam is incident on a metal surface is
potential is independent of intensity. m Work function (f0): The minimum energy of incident
called secondary emission.
(ii) Maximum kinetic energy radiation required to emit electrons from metal called
m The emitted electron is called secondary electrons.
work function
Kmax = eV0 f0 = hn0
2 PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT Stopping potential: –9
Photocurrent
m
m Emission starts in a time of the order of 10 s or less.
m The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was The minimum negative
discovered in 1887 by Heinrich Hertz potential given to plate I3 > I2 > I1
I3
m Wilhelm Hallwachs and Philipp Lenard investigated the for which the photo I2
phenomenon of photoelectric emission in detail during current becomes I1 Stopping
1886-1902. potential
zero is called the Metal A
m Certain metals like zinc, cadmium, magnesium etc (V0)
cut-off or Stopping potential Metal B
responded only to ultraviolet light to cause electron n > n0
emission. However, some alkali metals such as Lithium, stopping
–V0 0 n > n 0¢
Sodium, Potassium, Caesium and rubidium were potential. n0 n 0¢
Retarding potential Collector plate
sensitive to visible light. potential Frequency of incident radiation (n)
134 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter NCERT Maps
4 EINSTEIN'S PHOTOELECTRIC EQUATION: 6 WAVE NATURE OF MATTER 7 DAVISSON AND GERMER EXPERIMENT
ENERGY QUANTUM OF RADIATION de-Broglie proposed that the wavelength l associated with a m The experimental set up used by Davisson and Germer is
In 1905 Albert Einstein proposed that radiation energy is built particle of momentum P is as shown in figure to verify wave nature of electrons
up of discrete units-the so called quanta of energy radiation. h h h m The experiment was performed by varying the voltage
Later it was called photon. Each photon has energy (hn). When l= = = from 44 V to 68 V. It was noticed that strong peak
P mv 2Km
energy of photon striking at surface is greater than work appeared in intensity (I) of scattered electron for voltage
m If a charged particle having charge q accelerate from rest
function (f0), electron is emitted 54 V at scattering angle 50°
through a potential V.
Maximum kinetic energy of electrons
h
l= H.T.
Kmax = eV0 = hn – f0 h = Planck's constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js 2mqV
æhö f 1.227
V0 = ç ÷ n – 0 (i) For electron, l = nm .
èeø e V
æhö 0.0286 A Nickel
This is equation of straight line with slope ç ÷ (ii) For proton, l = nm . F Electron Beam
èeø V Target
q
æhö 0.0101 Electron
m ç ÷ is independent of nature of material (iii) For a-particle, l = nm.
èeø V L.T. gun
m All photons of frequency (n), have the same energy (hn), Diffracted
m According to Heisenberg, it is not possible to measure Vacuum
electron
h Movable Chamber
momentum, P = æç ö÷ both the position and momentum of a particle at the same collector beam
èlø
m Photons are electrically neutral time exactly. To galvanometer
Increase in intensity of a given frequency means increase h

m m Dx Dp »
in number of photons per second crossing a given area. 2p
5 PHOTOCELL 8 ELECTRON MICROSCOPE

m It is a device which converts light energy into electrical m It is a practical device that relies the wave characteristics
energy. of electron.
1
m The photocurrent produced is of order of microampere. m Resolving power of electron microscope µ
l 50°
m In gas filled photocell, current is increased due to ionization
of the gas. µ V (V is accelerating potential)
m It is also called electronic eye m Resolving power of electron microscope is approximately
m It is used in operation of control system and in light 105 times the resolving power of optical microscope.
Nickel Crystal
measuring devices
NCERT Maps Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 135
1. Work function depends on 5. An electron microscope uses electrons 8. Which of the following statements is
[NCERT Pg. 387] accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV, how does incorrect about the photons?
(1) Metal only the resolving power of this electron [NCERT Pg. 396]
(2) Nature of surface only microscope compare with that of an optical h
microscope which uses yellow light? (1) Momentum of photon is
(3) Both metal and nature of surface λ
[NCERT Pg. 411] (2) Rest mass of photon is zero
(4) Threshold frequency
2. Saturation photoelectric current (1) 104 times (3) Photons exert no pressure
[NCERT Pg. 391] (2) 105 times (4) Energy of photon is hν
(1) Increase with increase in plate potential (3) 106 times 9. The wavelength of matter wave is
(2) Increase with decrease in plate in plate (4) 103 times independent of [NCERT Pg. 398]
potential (1) Mass
6. A particle is dropped from a height H.
(3) Is independent of plate potential (2) Velocity
The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle as
(4) Increase with increase in frequency a function of height is proportional to (3) Kinetic energy
3. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × (4) Charge
[NCERT Pg. 400]
1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power
(1) H 10. Which experiment best support the theory
emitted is 2 × 10–3 W. The number of
that matter has wave nature?
photons emitted per second by source is (2) H 1/2
[NCERT Pg. 403]
[NCERT Pg. 396]
(3) H0 (1) Photoelectric effect
(1) 5.0 × 1015
−1/2
(4) H (2) α-scattering experiment
(2) 5.0 × 1016
(3) 5.0 × 1017 7. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated (3) Davisson and Germer experiement
(4) 5.0 × 1018 through the same potential difference. The (4) Compton effect
ratio of de-Broglie wavelength λp to that λα 11. Which among the following phenomenon
4. A particle is moving three times as fast as
is [NCERT Pg. 400] shows particle nature of light?
an electron. The ratio of de-Broglie
wavelength of particle to that of electron is (1) 2 :1 [NCERT Pg. 395]
1.813 × 10–4. The particle may be (1) Photoelectric effect
(2) 2 : 1
[NCERT Pg. 402] (2) Interference
(1) Proton (2) Deutron (3) 2 2 : 1
(3) Polarization
(3) α-particle (4) Triton (4) 1: 2 (4) Matter waves
136 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter NCERT Maps
12. Which of the following device is some times 15. For a wavelength of 400 nm, kinetic energy 18. In a photon particle collision (such as photon
called electric eye? [NCERT Pg. 399] of emitted photoelectron is twice that for a electron collision). Which of the following
(1) Light emitting diode wavelength of 600 nm from a given metal. may not be conserved? [NCERT Pg. 396]
(2) Photocell The work function of metal is (1) Total energy
(3) Electric generator [NCERT Pg. 395] (2) Number of photons
(4) Integrated chip (1) 1.03 eV (2) 2.11 eV (3) Total momentum
13. For a certain metal, incident frequency ν is (4) None of above
(3) 4.14 eV (4) 2.43 eV
five times of threshold frequency ν0 and
16. The linear momentum of a 3 MeV photon is 19. If the momentum of an electron is changed
maximum speed of coming out
[NCERT Pg. 398] by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength
photoelectrons is 8 × 10 m/s. If ν = 2ν0, the
6
associated with it changes by 0.5%. The
maximum speed of photoelectrons will be (1) 0.01 eV s m–1 (2) 0.02 eV s m–1 initial momentum of electron will be
[NCERT Pg. 395]
(3) 0.03 eV s m–1 (4) 0.04 eV s m–1 [NCERT Pg. 400]
(1) 4 × 106 m/s (2) 6 × 106 m/s
17. A particle of mass 4m at rest decays into two (1) 200P (2) 400P
(3) 3 × 106 m/s (4) 1 × 106 m/s
particles of mass m and 3m. The ratio of de- P
14. An electron is moving with an initial velocity (3) (4) 100P
 Broglie wavelength of two particles will be 200
v = v 0 iˆ enters in a uniform magnetic field [NCERT Pg. 400]
 20. The phenomena of photoelectric effect was
B = B0 ˆj . Then its de-Broglie wavelength 1
(1) first explained by [NCERT Pg. 395]
[NCERT Pg. 400] 2
(1) Albert Einstein
(1) Increase with time
(2) 4 (2) Heinrich Hertz
(2) Decrease with time
(3) 2 (3) Wilhelm Hallwachs
(3) Remains constant
(4) Increases and decreases periodically (4) 1 (4) Philipp Lenard
1. The minimum energy required by an 3. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted 6. The intensity of light depends upon the
electron to just _______ from the metal photoelectrons is independent of _______
_______ present in light. [NCERT Pg. 391]
surface is called _______.[NCERT Pg. 387] of radiation. [NCERT Pg. 392]
2. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted 4. The speed of photon in different media is 7. The maximum wavelength required to emit
_______. [NCERT Pg. 395]
photoelectrons depends on the _______ of electrons from the surface of metal called
incident radiation and _______ of cathode. 5. Photon is not a material body, it is a
_______. [NCERT Pg. 389]
[NCERT Pg. 390] _______. [NCERT Pg. 395]
NCERT Maps Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 137
8. The momentum of a photon of energy E is 13. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of electron of 18. Slope of graph of variation of stopping
_______ and of wavelength λ is _______. kinetic energy E and mass m is _______. potential with frequency of incident
[NCERT Pg. 398] [NCERT Pg. 400] radiation, with frequency axis is _______.
9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a photon of an 14. The rest mass of a photon is _______. [NCERT Pg. 392]
electromagnetic radiation is _______ the [NCERT Pg. 396]
wavelength of the radiation. 15. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with 19. The intensity of radiations depends on
[NCERT Pg. 398] a proton accelerated through a potential _______ striking per unit area per second.
10. A photon and an electron have got same de- difference 100 V is _______. [NCERT Pg. 395]
Broglie wavelength. Total energy of an [NCERT Pg. 400]
electron is _______ than that of photon. 20. In Davisson and Germer experiment, when
16. The main aim of Davisson-Germer
[NCERT Pg. 400] experiment is to verify wave nature of beam of electrons accelerated through a
11. It is now known that photoelectric emission _______. [NCERT Pg. 403] potential of _______ was made to incident
starts in a time of the order of _______. 17. The minimum de-Broglie wavelength of on a nickel crystal, the intensity of scattered
[NCERT Pg. 392] emitted photoelectron _______ with the beam was maximum at scattering angle
12. 1 eV is equal to _______ J. increase in intensity of radiation. _______. [NCERT Pg. 404]
  
12
Atoms Chapter
1 ATOMIC MODELS 2 IMPACT PARAMETER 3 DIFFERENT QUANTITIES FOR
It is perpendicular distance of initial velocity vector of the a particle HYDROGEN LIKE ELEMENTS
Thomson's Model Rutherford Model Bohr's Model from the centre of nucleus. l Radius of the nth orbit:
æqö
Thomson's Model Ze2 cot ç ÷
Atom is a spherical cloud of positive charge with electrons embedded è2ø æ e h2 ö n 2 n2
b= rn = ç 0 2 ÷ = 0.529 Å
into it, like seeds in watermelon. 4pe0E ç pme ÷ Z Z
è ø
Electron orbit
a-Particle Scattering Experiment and Rutherford nuclear model of atom
e 2 n2
Thin gold m radius (r) = Þ rn µ
Z
foil thickness
–7 4pe0 mv 2
Lead bricks 2.1 × 10 m
e2 l Speed of electron in nth orbit:
Small angle m Kinetic energy (K) =
Beam of scattering of some 8pe0 r
a-particles a-particles e2 Z C Z
e2 vn = =
Source of q m Potential energy (U) = - 2he0 n 137 n
4 pe 0 r
a-particles
e2 Þ vn µ
Z
214 ZnS screen m Total energy (E) = K + U = - n
83 Bi 8pe0 r
Large angle Bohr's Model
scattering of some l Energy of electron in nth orbit
Backward scattering a-particles Detector
Bohr combined classical and quantum concepts and gave the
of a very small (Microscope) theory in terms of three postulates. æ me 4 ö Z 2 Z2
fraction (1 in 8000 or so) E n = - ç 2 2 ÷ 2 J = (2.18 ´ 10 - 18 ) 2 J
1. An electron can revolve in certain stable orbits without ç 8e h ÷ n n
è 0 ø
Conclusions emission of radiant energy.
1. Only about 0.14% of incident a-particle scatter by more than 1° 2. Electron can revolve only in those orbits in which angular 13.6Z 2
2. About 1 in 8000 deflect by more than 90° or En = - eV
æ h ö n2
–15 –14 momentum is integral multiple of ç ÷
3. Size of nucleus to be about 10 m to 10 m è 2p ø Z2
nh Þ En µ
4. For large impact parameter the a-particle goes nearly undeviated. L = mv n rn = , n = 1, 2, 3, ... n2
2p
5. In case of head on collision, the impact parameter is minimum and
3. When an electron makes a transition from one of the specified l Time period of revolution of electron in
a-particle rebound back (q @ p) non radiatory orbit to another lower energy orbit then radiate nth orbit.
Rutherford's Model energy equal to the difference of energy equal to final and
initial state. æ 4e h 3 ö n 3
According to Rutherford most of the mass of atom and all its positive T =ç 04 ÷ 2
–14 m Bohr's model is applicable for hydrogen and hydrogen like ç me ÷ Z
charge are concentrated in a tiny space of the order of 10 m, called è ø
elements.
nucleus and electrons revolve around it. Centripetal force is obtained Limitations of Bohr's Model n3
from electrostatic attraction between electron and nucleus. = (1.51´ 10-16 s)
m Bohr's model is applicable for single electron atom/ions. Z2
Draw backs m Bohr's model correctly predict the frequencies of the light
(i) Stability of atom n3
emitted by hydrogenic (hydrogen like) atoms but unable to Þ Tµ
(ii) Line spectrum of atoms explain the relative intensities of light Z2
NCERT Maps Atoms 139
4 HYDROGEN SPECTRUM 5 DE BROGLIE'S EXPLANATION OF BOHR'S SECOND

POSTULATE OF QUANTISATION
1. Lyman series de-Broglie explained second postulate of Bohr's atomic model by assuming
an electron has wave nature.
1 é1 1 ù
= R ê 2 - 2 ú , n = 2, 3, 4 ... ¥ The circumference of orbit should be integer multiple of de-Broglie
l ë1 n û
wavelength of electron in nth orbit.
lies in U.V. region m 2prn = nl, n = 1,2,3,...
or
2. Balmer series nh
mv n rn =
1 é 1 1 ù 2p
= R ê 2 - 2 ú , n = 3, 4, 5 ... ¥
l ë2 n û m This is quantum condition proposed by Bohr for an angular momentum
n=¥ E¥ = 0 of an electron.
Mostly lies in visible region l
n=7
3. Paschen series
n=6
1 é 1 1 ù n=5 Pfund series
= R ê 2 - 2 ú , n = 4, 5, 6 ... ¥
l ë3 n û
n=4 Bracket E4 = –0.85 eV
series Nucleus
lies in near infra red region
n=3 Paschen E3 = –1.51 eV r
series
4. Bracket series
Balmer E2 = –3.4 eV
n=2
1 é 1 1ù
= R ê 2 - 2 ú , n = 5, 6, 7 ... ¥
l ë4 n û
lies in infra red region

n=1 Lyman E1 = –13.6 eV
5. Pfund series series 6 LASER
(Line spectra originate in Transition between energy levels) Acronym: light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
1 é1 1ù
= R ê 2 - 2 ú , n = 6, 7, 8 ... ¥ m It involves population inversion.
l ë5 n û
m It is highly coherent
lies in far infra red region m Laser light is highly monochromatic
m Divergence of laser beam is very less

Rydberg constant
m If there are N atoms, each emitting light with intensity I, then net
me 4 intensity produced by ordinary source is proportional to NI whereas in

R = = 1.03 ´ 10 7 m –1 (By Bohr-model)
8e0 h 3c laser source, it is proportional to N2I
m There are low power lasers with a power of 0.5 mW, called pencil lasers
R = 1.097 × 107 m–1 (from Balmer empirical formula)
which serve as pointers. There lasers are used for delicate surgery of eye
or glands in stomach.
m Laser can cut and weld steel.
140 Atoms NCERT Maps
1. The thickness of gold foil used in α-particle 5. In which of the following, will the radius of 9. The minimum energy that must be given to
scattering experiment was the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum? a hydrogen atom in ground state so that it
[NCERT Pg. 416] [NCERT Pg. 425] can emit an Hγ line in Balmer series.
[NCERT Pg. 429]
(1) 2.1 × 10–7 m (2) 2.1 × 10–3 m (1) Doubly ionized lithium
(1) 12.4 eV
(3) 3.1 × 10–10 m (4) 2.1 × 10–12 m (2) Singly ionized helium
(2) 10.2 eV
2. In α-particle scattering experiment number (3) Deuterium atom
(3) 13.06 eV
of α-particles scatter by more than 1° is (4) Hydrogen atom
about [NCERT Pg. 416] (4) 12.75 eV
6. If 13.6 eV energy is required to separate a
(1) 0.3% 10. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state
hydrogen atom into a proton and electron,
absorbs a photon and is excited to n = 4
(2) 0.24% then the velocity of revolving electron is
level, then the wavelength of photon is
[NCERT Pg. 425]
(3) 0.20% nearly [NCERT Pg. 427]
(1) 1.2 × 106 m/s (2) 2.2 × 106 m/s
(4) 0.14% (1) 790 Å
(3) 3.2 × 106 m/s (4) 1.8 × 106 m/s
3. In α-particle scattering experiment, number (2) 870 Å
of α-particles deflected by more than 90° is 7. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a
(3) 970 Å
transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time
[NCERT Pg. 416] (4) 1070 Å
period of revolution of the electron in the
(1) 1 in 8000 initial state is eight times that in final state. 11. The wavelength of first line of Lyman series
(2) 1 in 2000 The possible value of n1 and n2 are is 1215 Å, the wavelength of first line of
[NCERT Pg. 429] Balmer series will be [NCERT Pg. 421]
(3) 1 in 1000
(1) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (2) n1 = 8, n2 = 2 (1) 4545 Å (2) 5295 Å
(4) 1 in 10,0000
(3) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (4) n1 = 6, n2 = 2 (3) 6563 Å (4) 6750 Å
4. Rutherford’s experiments suggested that
the size of nucleus is about 8. If muonic hydrogen atom is an atom in which 12. The ratio of the speed of electron in the
a negatively charged muon (µ) of mass ground state of hydrogen atom to the speed
[NCERT Pg. 417]
about 207me revolve around a proton, then of light in vacuum is [NCERT Pg. 425]
(1) 10–14 m to 10–11 m
first Bohr radius of this atom is (radius of 1 2
(2) 10–16 m to 10–13 m (1) (2)
electron orbit is 0.53 Å) [NCERT Pg. 437] 2 237
(3) 10–15 m to 10–14 m (1) 2.56 ×10–10 m (2) 2.56 ×10–11 m 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) 10–15 m to 10–10 m (3) 2.56 ×10–12 m (4) 2.56 ×10–13 m 137 237
NCERT Maps Atoms 141
13. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 15. If E is the energy of nth orbit of hydrogen 1
(1) Angular momentum ∝
13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground atom, the energy of nth orbit of He+ ion will n
state are excited by monochromatic be [NCERT Pg. 425] 1
radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. (2) Radius of orbit ∝
(1) E (2) 2E n
According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral
(3) 3E (4) 4E (3) Magnitude of linear momentum of
lines emitted by hydrogen will be
16. The shortest wavelength present in, the 1
[NCERT Pg. 429] electron in any orbit ∝
Paschen series of spectral lines is nearly n
(1) One 1
[NCERT Pg. 429] (4) Energy of electron in any orbit ∝
(2) Two n3
(1) 720 nm (2) 790 nm
(3) Three 19. The first spectral series of hydrogen atom
(3) 800 nm (4) 820 nm was discovered by [NCERT Pg. 421]
(4) Five
14. Bohr’s basic idea of discrete energy levels 17. If there are N atoms in a source of Laser light (1) Balmer (2) Lyman
in atoms and process of emission of photons and each atom is emitting light with intensity
(3) Paschen (4) Bohr
from the higher levels to the lower levels I, then the total intensity produced by it is
20. In a hydrogen atom, total energy of electron
was experimentally confirmed by [NCERT Pg. 432] is [NCERT Pg. 420]
experiments performed by[NCERT Pg. 428] (1) NI (2) N2I
e2 −e 2
(1) Michelson-Morley (3) N3I (4) N4I (1) (2)
4πε0 r 4πε0 r
(2) Millikan 18. Which of the following statements is true for
hydrogen atom? (n is principal quantum −e 2 e2
(3) Joule (3) (4)
number of orbit) [NCERT Pg. 425] 8πε0 r 8πε0 r
(4) Franck and Hertz
1. The source of α-particles in Rutherford 4. At room temperature most of hydrogen 7. Orbital velocity of electrons in inner orbits
experiment is _______. [NCERT Pg. 416] atoms are in ______ state. ______ as compared to outer orbits.
[NCERT Pg. 427]
2. Emission line spectrum consists of _______ [NCERT Pg. 425]
lines on a ______ background. 5. According to Thomson model, the entire
mass and charge of an atom are _______ 8. Total energy of electron in any orbit of atom
[NCERT Pg. 421] distributed throughout the volume of atom. is _______. This indicates that electron is
[NCERT Pg. 414] bound to nucleus. [NCERT Pg. 425]
3. ______ the impact parameter, α-particle
goes nearly undeviated 6. Total energy of electron in inner orbits is 9. According to Bohr, ______ momentum of
_______ than in outer orbits revolving electron in hydrogen atom is
[NCERT Pg. 418] quantised. [NCERT Pg. 424]
[NCERT Pg. 425]
142 Atoms NCERT Maps
10. Lyman series lies in _______ region of ______ is emitted having energy equal to 17. In Balmer series, the line with _______
hydrogen spectrum. [NCERT Pg. 429] the ______ of two levels. [NCERT Pg. 424] colour is called Hβ line. [NCERT Pg. 421]
11. In Bohr model, contrary to ordinary classical 14. Bohr model is valid for only 18. Thomson’s model is unstable
expectation, the frequency of revolution of _______atom/ions. [NCERT Pg. 426] electrostatically, while Rutherford model is
an electron in its orbit is not connected to 15. If there are N atoms in a source, each unstable ______. [NCERT Pg. 434]
_______ of spectral lines. [NCERT Pg. 423] emitting light with intensity I, then the total 19. With the increase in principal quantum
12. According to classical electromagnetic intensity produced by an ordinary source is number in the stationary states, the
theory _______ charge particles emits proportional to ______ where as in laser difference of energy from ground state
radiation in the form of electromagnetic source it is proportional to ______ ______. [NCERT Pg. 427]
wave. [NCERT Pg. 423] [NCERT Pg. 432] 20. According to _______ postulate of Bohr’s,
13. According to Quantum theory when an 16. An electron can have any total energy above an electron in an atom could revolve in
electron makes a transition from one of the E = 0 eV. In such situations the electron is certain stable orbits without the emission of
specified orbit to lower energy orbit a ______. [NCERT Pg. 427] radiant energy. [NCERT Pg. 423]
  
13
Nuclei Chapter
1 ATOMIC MASSES AND COMPOSITION OF NUCLEUS 7 LAW OF RADIOACTIVE DECAY 6 NUCLEAR FORCE
m Before discovery of neutron, nucleus was assumed to be dN m Inside the nucleus, a large attractive force is required to bind
made up of protons and electrons but later this was ruled out m Rate of disintegration, = -lN the nucleons against repulsion. The force is called nuclear
–lt dt
using argument of quantum theory. m N = N0e force.
m It is strongest attractive force. FP -P = Fn -n = FP -n
Half life : Tln2 0.6931
2 DISCOVERY OF NEUTRON m
1/2 == m It is charge independent force i.e.
l l
m In 1932 James Chadwick observed emission of neutral m It is short range force.
m l = Decay constant.
radiation, when beryllium nuclei was bombarded with a- m It has property of saturation.
particle on the basis of energy and momentum conservation. m Mean life,t = 1 = 1.44T1/2 m For a distance (r < 0.8 fm) it is repulsive force.
Chadwick concluded that it was a new type of neutral particle l
called neutron. a-Decay : During a-decay, atomic number decreases
9
B e + 24 H e ® 162 C + 10 n by two and mass number by four. 8 NUCLEAR FISSION
4
m All nuclides with same atomic number but having different m It is nuclei of helium m When a slow moving neutron strikes a heavy nucleus, which
A A -4 4
mass are called isotopes. Z X ® Z - 2 Y + 2He + Q breaks into two intermediate mass nuclear fragments. This is
2
m All nuclides with same mass number are called isobars. Q = (mx – my – mHe) C called nuclear fission.
1 235 236 144 89 1
m Nuclides with same neutron but different atomic number are m b-Decay : 0 n +92 U ®92 U ®56 Ba +36 Kr + 30 n
called isotones. (i) b– decay: A X ® A Y + e - + n m The energy released (the Q-value) in the fission of single
m A=Z+N Z Z +1 uranium is of the order of 200 MeV.
Rate of production of neutrons
3 SIZE OF NUCLEUS
Q = ém
ë (
Z ) (
XA -m Z +1 )
Y A ù C2
û m Multiplication factor (K) =
Rate of loss of neutrons
+
1/3 (ii) b decay: A X ® A Y + e + + n m Uncontrolled chain reaction is the principle of atom bomb.
m The radius of nucleus with mass number 'A' is R = R0A where, Z Z -1
–15 m Controlled chain reaction is the principle of nuclear reactors.
R0 = 1.2 × 10 m.
17
Q = ém
ë (
Z ) (
XA -m Z -1 )
Y A - 2me ù C 2
û
3
m Density of nucleus is approximately 2.3 × 10 kg/m and is g-Decay : 9 NUCLEAR REACTOR
independent of mass number. m Like an atom, a nucleus also has discrete energy
m U235 or Pu239 is used as fuel in a nuclear reactor.
levels, the ground state and excited states. When a
4 MASS ENERGY AND NUCLEAR BINDING ENERGY nucleus in an excited state spontaneously decays to m D2O, graphite and beryllium oxide are used as moderator to
m Mass energy : Einstein showed that mass is another form of ground state (or to lower energy state), a photon is slow down the fast neutrons.
energy and one can convert into other form. Einstein gave the emitted. This is called g-decay. m Rate of reaction is controlled by control rods made of
2
famous mass energy equivalence relation E = mC . m The difference in nuclear energy levels is of the order of cadmium or boron
2
m 1u = 931.5 MeV/C MeV. m Air, ice cold water, molten sodium or CO2 are used as coolant.
5 NUCLEAR BINDING ENERGY 10 NUCLEAR FUSION

A
m The difference in mass of a nucleus ( Z X ) and its m Binding energy per nucleon is the measure of stability It is the phenomenon in which two or more lighter nuclei
constituents, DM, is called the mass defect. of nucleus. combine to form a single middle weight nucleus.
m The binding energy per nucleon is practically constant
DM = [ZmP + (A – Z)mn] – M Some examples of nuclear fusion.
for nuclei of middle mass number (30 < A < 170), with 1 1 2 +
m If one wants to break the nucleus into protons and neutrons. maximum of 8.75 MeV for A = 56 and has a value of 1H + 1H ® 1 H + e + n + 0.42 MeV
2
This extra energy (DM)c , has to be supplied. This energy 7.6 MeV for A = 238. 2
H + 12H ® 32He + n + 3.27 MeV
called binding energy. m Binding energy per nucleon is lower for both light nuclei
1
2
Eb = DMc
2 (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A > 170) 1 H + 12H ® 13H + 11H + 4.03 MeV
144 Nuclei NCERT Maps
1. The atomic masses of various elements 5. The SI unit of activity is [NCERT Pg. 447] 10. In a sample of radioactive material, what
expressed in atomic mass unit (u) are close fraction of the initial number of active nuclei
(1) Becquerel (2) Curie
to being integral multiples of mass of will remain undisintegrated after half of the
[NCERT Pg. 439] (3) Rutherford (4) Both (1) and (2) half life of the sample? [NCERT Pg. 448]
(1) A hydrogen atom 6. The mass of iron nucleus is 55.85u and 1 1
(1) (2)
A = 56. The nuclear density of iron is 4 2 2
(2) A proton
[NCERT Pg. 441] 1
(3) A neutron (3) (4) 2 −1
(1) 2.5 × 1015 kg/m3 (2) 2.3 × 1016 kg/m3 2
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3 (4) 3.5 × 1016 kg/m3 11. The natural boron of atomic mass 10.81 u is
2. The density of nuclear matter
found to have two isotopes 10B and 11B. The
[NCERT Pg. 441] 7. 1 curie is equal to
ratio of abundance of isotopes of natural
(1) Increases with mass number [NCERT Pg. 448] boron should be nearly [NCERT Pg. 439]
(2) Decreases with mass number (1) 3.7 × 107 Bq (2) 3.7 × 1010 Bq (1) 11 : 10 (2) 81 : 19
(3) 3.7 × 108 Bq (4) 3.7 × 106 Bq (3) 10 : 11 (4) 19 : 81

(3) Is independent of mass number
12. The energy liberated in a single uranium
(4) Increases up to mass number 56 then 8. The half life of 92U238 undergoing α-decay is fission is about [NCERT Pg. 457]
decreases 4.5 × 109 years. The activity of 4 g sample of
(1) 200 MeV
92U
239 is [NCERT Pg. 448]
3. For thermonuclear fusion reaction, the
(2) 235 MeV
estimated temperature of the system should (1) 1.23 × 104 Bq
(3) 20 MeV
be about
(2) 1.23 × 105 Bq (4) 100 MeV
[NCERT Pg. 456]
(3) 4.9 × 104 Bq 13. Pick out the incorrect statement from the
(1) 3 × 103 K (2) 3 × 109 K following. [NCERT Pg. 450]
(4) 4.9 × 105 Bq
(3) 1 × 105 K (4) 3 × 106 K (1) β– emission from the nucleus is always
9. 1 mg radium has 2.68 x 1018 atoms. Its half
4. Nuclear force is [NCERT Pg. 445] accompanied with a neutrino
life is 1620 years. How many radium atoms
(1) Attractive for distance, r = 0.5 fm (2) The energy of the α-particle emitted from
will disintegrate from 1 mg of pure radium in
a given nucleus is constant
(2) Repulsive for distance, r < 0.8 fm 3240 years. [NCERT Pg. 448]
(3) γ-ray emission makes the nucleus more
(3) Attractive for distance, r < 0.8 fm (1) 2.01 × 109 (2) 2.01 × 1018 stable
(4) Repulsive for distance, r > 0.8 fm (3) 0.67 × 1018 (4) 1.01 × 109 (4) Nuclear force is charge-independent
NCERT Maps Nuclei 145
14. The radius of a spherical nucleus as 17. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at 19. Fission of nuclei is possible because the
measured by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. rest emits an α-particle. If the Q-value of binding energy per nucleon in them
What is the mass number of the nucleus reaction is 5.5 MeV, the kinetic energy of
[NCERT Pg. 444]
most likely to be? [NCERT Pg.441] α-particle is [NCERT Pg. 449]
(1) Decreases with mass number at low
(1) 27 (2) 40 (1) 4.4 MeV
mass numbers
(3) 56 (4) 120 (2) 5.4 MeV
(2) Increases with mass number at low
(3) 5.0 MeV mass numbers
15. The number of β–-particles emitted by a
radioactive substance is twice the number of (4) 4.8 MeV (3) Increases with mass number and high
α-particles emitted by it. The resulting 18. Choose the incorrect nuclear fusion mass numbers
daughter is an [NCERT Pg. 450] reactions among the following
(4) Decreases with mass number at high
[NCERT Pg. 455] mass numbers
(1) Isomer of parent (2) Isotone of parent
(3) Isobar of parent (4) Isotope of parent (1) 11H + 11H →12 H + e + + ν + 0.42 MeV 20. Consider α, β-particles and γ-rays. The
increasing order of penetration power is
16. In nuclear reactors, the controlling rods are (2) 12 H + 12H →32 He + n + 3.27 MeV [NCERT Pg. 451]
made of [NCERT Pg. 454]
(3) 12 H + 12H → 13 H + 11 H + 4.03 MeV (1) α, β, γ (2) γ, β, α
(1) Cadmium (2) Graphite
(3) β, α, γ (4) β, γ, α
(3) Krypton (4) Plutonium (4) e + + e − → γ
1. The radius of nucleus is smaller than the 4. α-particles are the _____ of helium 7. The constancy of binding energy in the
radius of atom by a factor of about _____ range 30 < A < 170 is a consequence of the
[NCERT Pg. 449]
fact that nuclear force is _____ force
[NCERT Pg. 438]
5. A free neutron, unlike a free proton is _____ [NCERT Pg. 444]
2. Nucleus of an atom contains more than and has a mean life of about _____
8. The property that a given nucleon influences
_____ of the mass of an atom
[NCERT Pg. 440] only nucleons close to it, is also referred as
[NCERT Pg. 438] _____ property of nuclear force.
6. If a certain number of neutrons and protons
3. The fractional atomic masses of elements in [NCERT Pg. 445]
are brought together to form a nucleus, then
atomic mass unit shows that most of 9. Like an atom, nucleus has _____ energy
energy is _____ [NCERT Pg. 443]
elements have _____ [NCERT Pg. 439] levels [NCERT Pg. 451]
146 Nuclei NCERT Maps
10. The difference in nuclear energy levels is of 13. Energy associated with nuclear processes 17. The Apsara reactor at Bhabha Atomic
order of _____ [NCERT Pg. 451] is about a _____ times larger than in a Research Centre, Mumbai uses _____ as
chemical process. [NCERT Pg. 452] moderator [NCERT Pg. 454]
11. If nuclei with less total binding energy
transform to nuclei with greater binding 14. The mass density of the nuclei is _____ of 18. Isotones are the nuclides which contains
energy, there will be a net energy _____ mass number [NCERT Pg. 441] same number of _____ [NCERT Pg. 441]
[NCERT Pg. 451] 15. The energy equivalent to 1 amu is_____ 19. Radioactivity is an indication of the _____ of
[NCERT Pg. 443] nuclei. [NCERT Pg. 461]
12. In nuclear fusion two lighter nuclei combine
16. Isobars are atom of different elements which 20. The mass of the nucleus is ____ the sum of
to form a comparatively _____ nucleus
have same _____ number but different the masses of nucleons forming it
[NCERT Pg. 445]
_____ number [NCERT Pg. 441] [NCERT Pg. 443]
  
Semiconductor Electronics : 14
Material, Devices and Simple Circuits Chapter
1 SEMICONDUCTOR 4 APPLICATION OF DIODE

m Its conductivity or resistivity Extrinsic Semiconductor
lies between conductor and m Conductivity is increased by Diode as a Rectifier Zener diode as a Voltage Regulator
insulator doping.
Half wave-rectifier m Zener diode is highly order reverse doped p-n
m Negative temperature p-type semiconductor
m It rectifies either positive or negative cycle only, of input signal junction diode
coefficient of resistance m Doped with trivalent atom
m Frequency of output and input are same m It is operated as regulator when diode is in reversed
m Band gap is less than 3 eV m Holes are majority carriers
Transormer bias
Intrinsic Semiconductor m nh >> ne A X m The output voltage is fixed and is equal to Zener
m It is pure semiconductor n-type semiconductor voltage
m Carriers are thermally m Doped with pentavalent atom
Primary Secondary RL
generated m Electrons are majority carriers
m At 0 K, behaves like RS
m ne >> nh
insulator 2 B Y
m Law of mass action nenh = n1 (a) Unregulated
m n e = n h = ni voltage (VL) IL Regulated voltage
Voltage across RL Voltage at A

Load (V2)
INPUT ac
RL
2 p-n JUNCTION
m A p-type semiconductor is brought in Biasing of p-n junction

Figure: Zener diode as DC voltage regulator
contact with a n-type semiconductor Forward biasing t
m A depletion layer is formed at junction. m Width of depletion layer Full wave rectifier
m Thickness of depletion layer decreases decreases OUTPUT VOLTAGE m It rectifies both the cycles of input
m Effective barrier potential m Frequency of output is two times the frequency of input
with increase in doping and forward
decreases
biasing
t
Waveform
m Low resistance at junction
(b)
at A
m Current flown is of the Figure : (a) Half-wave rectifier circuit, (b) Input t
3 SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE order of mA ac voltage and output voltage waveforms from (i)
m It is a device having single p-n junction Reverse biasing the rectifier circuit.
Output waveform Waveform

p n m Width of depletion layer
at B
m Symbol: Anode Cathode Centre-Tap
increases
Transormer t
m Effective barrier potential Diode 1(D1) (ii)
V-I characteristics
increases Centre A X (b)
I(mA)
(across RL)
m High resistance at Tap B Due to Due to Due to Due to
Breakdown
voltage junction RL Output D1 D2 D1 D2
Diode 2(D2)
m Current flown is of the
Cut in V(V) t
voltage order of mA (a) Y
(c)
m Breakdown occurs at Figure: (a) A Full-wave rectifier circuit; (b) Input wave forms given to the diode D1 at A and to the diode D2 at
I(mA) high reverse bias voltage B; (c) Output waveform across the load RL connected in the full-wave rectifier circuit.
148 Semiconductor Electronics : Material, Devices and Simple Circuits NCERT Maps
5 OPTOELECTRONIC DEVICE
6 JUNCTION TRANSISTOR
m It is two junction and three terminal device
Light Emitting Diode Photodiode Solar Cell m Fundamental action of transistor is transfer resistor
m It is generally operated m It is generally operated in m It is used in unbiased m Length profile LC > LE > LB m Doping profile E > C > B
in forward bias reverse bias condition
Types of transistor
m It is used to transmit m It is used to detect the m It generates emf from
m n-p-n transistor m p-n-p transistor
optical signals optical signal solar radiations
V-I characteristics is Emitter Base Collector
m
m V-I characteristics lies in m V-I characteristics lies in Emitter Base Collector
same as of normal p-n th
3rd quadrant 4 quadrant
junction diode
m Reverse current increases E C E p n p C
m Eg should be in range of m Semiconductor with Eg n p n
with increase in intensity of
energy of visible light closed to 1.5 eV are ideal
Band width of emitted incoming signal
m
material for solar cell. B B
light is 100 Å to 500 Å (i) (ii)
Collector Collector
hn I (mA)
Base Base
Emitter Emitter
Reverse bias Configuration of transistor
Modes of Operation
mA V(volt) (BJT)
I1 E-B junction B-C junction Mode of Application
I2 m Common base configuration
p-side n-side I3 operation
m Common emitter
I4 mA Forward Reverse Active Amplifier configuration
I4 > I3 > I2 > I1 Forward Forward Saturation Switch (on) m Common collector
(b)
(a) Reverse Reverse Cut off Switch (off) configuration
Fig. : (a) An illuminated photodiode under reverse bias, (b) I-V characteristics of a
photodiode for different illumination intensity I4 > I3 > I2 > I1 7 COMMON EMITTER (CE) CONFIGURATION
Transistor characteristics m Output characteristics of CE amplifier
IL I DVBE
Collector current (IC) in mA

m Input resistance (ri)CE =
VOC (open circuit voltage) DIB
DVCE 10 Base current (IB)
p V Output resistance (ro)CE =
n m 60 mA
DIC 8
50 mA
ISC DIC 6 40 mA
Short circuit current
Depletion m Transconductance (gm) = 4 30 mA
region (b) DVBE
20 mA
(a) 2 10 mA
m Current gain of different configuration 0
Figure : (a) A typical illuminated p-n junction solar cell; 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
DIC DI DIE
(b) I-V characteristics of a solar cell. aac = , bac = C , gac = Collector to emitter voltage (VCE) in volts
DIE DIB DIB
NCERT Maps Semiconductor Electronics : Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 149
8 APPLICATION OF TRANSISTOR 9 LOGIC GATES

m Transistor as an amplifier m Variation of voltage gain with frequency is given
Logic Characteristic
VO as gate Symbol Truth table
l Voltage gain (Av) = equation
VI
Rout Voltage
=–b = – gm Rout A Y
Rin gain
NOT A Y Y = A 0 1
l Power gain (AP) = Av × bac
1 0
m Transistor as a switch
A B Y
Vout active Frequency 0 0 0
A
OR Y Y =A +B 0 1 1
m Transistor as an oscillator B
cut- 1 0 1
off l Barkhausen criteria for sustained oscillation is 1 1 1
saturation Ab = 1
Vin
A B Y
A 0 0 0
11 REALISATION OF BASIC GATES USING NAND OR NOR GATES AND Y Y= A·B 0 1 0
B
Using NAND only Using NOR only 1 0 0
1 1 1
m NOT A Y m NOT A Y
A B Y
Y = A·A Y = A·A = A 0 0 1
=A 0 1 1
A
A NAND Y Y =A B
m OR Y B 1 0 1
B 1 1 0
A
m OR Y
Y=A+B
B A B Y
=A+B
0 0 1
A Y
Y=A·B NOR Y = A+B 0 1 0
B
A 1 0 0
=A+B 1 1 0
=A+B m AND Y
B
A 10 BOOLEAN LOGIC
m AND Y
B Y=A+B m A+A=A m A+0=A m A+B=A·B
m A·A=A m A·0=0 m A·B=A+B
Y=A·B = A·B
m A+1=1 m A·A=0
=A·B = A·B m A·1=A m A+A=1
1. Which of the following is correct range of (1) Na + Nd = n + h 7. The semiconductor used for fabrication of
resistivity for the semiconductor material? visible LEDs must at least have a band gap
(2) Na + n = Nd + h
(3) Nd + n = Na + h
(1) (10–2 to 10–8) Ω m (1) 1.1 eV
(4) Na2 + Nd2 = n 2 + h 2
(2) (10–5 to 106) Ω m (2) 1.21 eV
5. A pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atoms/m3. It is (3) 1.8 eV
(3) (1011 to 1019) Ω m
doped by 1 ppm concentration of As atom.
(4) (105 to 1016) Ω m The number of holes per unit volume is (4) 2.4 eV
2. A material has band gap energy (Eg) greater (consider ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3) 8. The V-I characteristics of photodiode lies in
than 2 eV. The material [NCERT Pg. 471] [NCERT Pg. 477] [NCERT Pg. 487]
(1) Must be conductor (1) 4.5 × 109 m–3 (1) I quadrant
(2) Must be semiconductor (2) 4 × 109 m–3 (2) II quadrant
(3) Must be insulator (3) 2 × 109 m–3 (3) III quadrant
(4) May be semiconductor (4) 2.25 × 1010 m–3 (4) IV quadrant
3. A sample of semiconductor material having 6. Consider the following statements 9. Which of the following diode is in forward
hole as minority carrier is of
[NCERT Pg. 485] bias condition? (When current is flowing)
[NCERT Pg. 476]
(a) Zener diode is fabricated by lightly [NCERT Pg.480]
(1) p-type doped p-n junction
(2) n-type (1)
(b) After breakdown of Zener diode the
(3) Intrinsic current in the circuit is limited by external
resistance
(4) Data is insufficient (2)
Choose the correct statement(s)
4. An intrinsic semiconductor sample is doped
with both pentavalent and trivalent dopants. (1) (a) only
(3)
If Na is number of acceptor atoms per unit (2) (b) only
volume, Nd is number of donor atoms per
(3) Both (a) and (b)
unit volume and n and h are electron and (4)
hole concentrations, then [NCERT Pg. 510] (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
NCERT Maps Semiconductor Electronics : Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 151
10. The output across the load R is

[NCERT Pg. 483]
(1) Half wave rectified

(1) I
(2) Full wave (centre tap) rectified (1) (10 mA, 10 V) (2) (10 mA, 8 V)
(2) II
(3) Quarter wave rectified (3) (5 mA, 8 V) (4) (10 mA, 18 V)
(4) AC (3) III 16. Which of the following relations is/are
11. The value of output voltage V0 in the circuit correct? (Symbols have their usual
(4) In both (I) and (III)
as shown in the figure is [NCERT Pg.486] meaning) [NCERT Pg. 499]
14. The input signal given to a CE amplifier
Rout Rout
having voltage gain 100 is (1) Av = β (2) AP = β2
Rin Rin
 π
=Vi (20 mV)cos  10t +  . The correspond- α
 6 (3) β = (4) All of these
1− α
ing output signal will be [NCERT Pg. 449]
17. A transistor with CE configuration can be
π
(1) 9 V (2) 4.5 V (1) (2 V)cos  10t +  realized as [NCERT Pg. 502]
 6
(3) 12 V (4) 6V (1) NOT gate
π
12. An n-p-n transistor is configured in CE (2) (2 V)cos  10t −  (2) AND gate
 6 
configuration. The input resistance is 2 kΩ (3) OR gate
and load is 10 kΩ. If α = 0.99, then voltage 7π  (4) NOR gate
(3) (2 V)cos  10t +
gain will be [NCERT Pg. 497]  6  18. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a
(1) 495 semiconductor with band gap of 2.0 eV. The
2π 
(2) 990 (4) (2000 V)cos  10t + maximum wavelength of a incident radiation
 3 
that can be detected is [NCERT Pg. 487]
(3) 1000
15. A common emitter amplifier is shown in the (1) 7200 Å
(4) 500
figure. If β = 200 and VBE = 0.5 V, then value (2) 6200 Å
13. The transfer characteristics of a CE amplifier
of IC and VCE respectively will be
is shown in the figure. The transistor works (3) 6200 nm
as an amplifier in region [NCERT Pg. 496] [NCERT Pg. 499] (4) 7200 nm
19. The name of logic gate represented by the 20. If A and B are inputs to a NAND gate and Y (3)
following symbol is is output, then choose the correct option.
(1)
(4)
(1) NOR (2) OR (2)
(3) AND (4) NAND
1. For semiconductor, band gap energy is 8. Zener diode is used as _____. 15. When both junctions of transistor are
_____ than 3 eV. [NCERT Pg. 471] [NCERT Pg. 486] reverse biased then transistor operates in
2. At 0 K, semiconductors behave like an _____ mode and works as _____.
9. _____ are used to detect the optical signals.
_____. [NCERT Pg. 474] [NCERT Pg. 510]
[NCERT Pg. 487]
3. Doped semiconductor (p-type or n-type) is 16. In a p-n junction Si diode, the diode current
electrically _____. [NCERT Pg. 476] 10. LED converts the _____ energy into _____
is expressed as _____. [NCERT Pg. 511]
energy. [NCERT Pg. 488]
4. Electron and hole concentrations at thermal 17. The criteria for stable oscillations to be
equilibrium are related as _____. 11. The magnitude of photocurrent in
photodiode, depends on the _____ of sustained as Aβ = 1, is called _____.
[NCERT Pg. 477] incident light. [NCERT Pg. 487] [NCERT Pg. 509]
5. The movement of electrons or holes due to 12. I-V characteristics of solar cell lies in _____
concentration gradient is known as _____. 18. NAND or NOR gates are also called as
quadrant of co-ordinate system. _____ gates [NCERT Pg. 504]
[NCERT Pg. 478]
[NCERT Pg. 489] 19. In CE amplifier output voltage and input
6. For V-I characteristics of p-n junction dipole,
forward current is measured in _____ and 13. Colour of LED light depends on the _____ voltage are _____ phase.
reverse current is measured in _____. of semiconductor material. [NCERT Pg. 499]
20. Two amplifiers each having voltage gain 10
7. The dynamic resistance for p-n junction 14. The colour of light emitted from diode made are connected in series (cascaded), then
diode is defined as rd = _____. by the material Ga As0.6 P0.4 is _____ overall voltage gain of the amplifier is _____.
[NCERT Pg. 482] [NCERT Pg. 488] [NCERT Pg. 510]
  
Class XII
Chapter-1 : Electric Charges and Fields
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. True

1. (2) 2. (2) 1. Outer 1
12. Zero,
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Losing, gaining r3
5. (2) 6. (4) 3. Gold-leaf electroscope 13. Total charge enclosed by the surface.
7. (4) 8. (4) 4. Charging by induction 14. Both inside and outside
9. (4) 10. (4) 5. Quantisation 15. Hyperbola
11. (4) 12. (1) 6. C2 N–1 m–2 16. Independent of
13. (4) 14. (4) 7. Third law 17. Zero, Center
15. (3) 16. (2) 8. 1.3 × 1036 18. True
17. (3) 18. (3) 9. Principle of superposition 19. True
19. (2) 20. (4) 10. True 20. True
Chapter-2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Geometrical configuration (shape, size,
1. (4) 2. (4) 1. True separation)
3. (2) 4. (4) 2. Increases 12. Polarization
5. (2) 6. (4) 3. x – z plane 13. True
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. 16 Capacitors 14. Decreases steepest, per unit displacement
9. (2) 10. (4) 5. Electrostatic shielding 15. Normal to
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. Less 16. Zero, Non zero
13. (4) 14. (1) 7. True 17. True
15. (2) 16. (4) 8. True 18. Electrostatic potential
17. (2) 18. (3) 9. Fringing of the field 19. True
19. (3) 20. (3) 10. Dielectric strength 20. 3
Chapter-3 : Current Electricity
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context  m2 

1. Dimensions 12.  
1. (2) 2. (4)
 V s
3. (2) 4. (3) 2. True
3. True 13. p-n junction diode
5. (4) 6. (2)
4. Zero 14. Ga As
7. (3) 8. (4)
5. Relaxation time 15. 10–8 Ω m to 10–6 Ω m; 10–5 Ω m to 103 Ω m
9. (3) 10. (4)
6. False 16. Temperature
11. (4) 12. (1) 7. Opposite
17. No current is flowing through cell i.e. cell in
13. (1) 14. (2) 8. 2 × 102 m s–1 open circuit
15. (2) 16. (4) 9. 10–11
18. Kirchhoff’s loop
17. (3) 18. (2) 10. False (drift velocities are superposed over
19. An unknown resistance
random velocities)
19. (2) 20. (3) 20. Mid-point
11. True
Chapter-4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 

10. Idl (current element)
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. 3.6 × 10–5 T, 108 T
  11. (+z axis)
3. (1) 4. (2) 2. (
I l ×B ) 12. Current, distance from wire
5. (4) 6. (4)
1 13. Right hand rule
3.
7. (2) 8. (1) v 2
14. Zero
9. (1) 10. (1) 4. Positive z-axis
15. Zero; uniform
11. (2) 12. (4) 5. Circular path, Zero
16. Tokamak
13. (3) 14. (4) 6. Velocity or energy
17. Attract, repel
7. Opposite
15. (2) 16. (1) 18. 2 × 10–7
8. Kinetic energy
17. (4) 18. (4) 19. [A][L]2, Am2
q 2B 2R 2
19. (4) 20. (3) 9.
2m 20. Voltage
Chapter-5 : Magnetism and Matter
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Net magnetic moment

1. (4) 2. (2) 1. Magnesia 12. Paramagnetic
3. (4) 4. (2) 2. North-South 13. Dielectric constant
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. Closed
14. Stronger, weaker
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Monopoles
15. Zero
9. (1) 10. (4) 5. Zero
16. Weaker, stronger
11. (3) 12. (3) 6. 1/ε0
17. Paramagnetic
13. (3) 14. (2) 7. North
15. (3) 16. (1) 18. 1
8. Geographic meridian
17. (4) 18. (2) 19. Permanent
9. Equator
19. (4) 20. (4) 10. Angle of dip 20. Ferromagnetic
Chapter-6 : Electromagnetic Induction
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Eddy currents

1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Electric current 11. True
3. (2) 4. (1) 2. Weber (Wb or T m2) 12. Non-magnetic
5. (4) 6. (2) 3. Magnetic flux 13. ML2T–2A–2

14. Relative Orientation
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. False
15. Self-induction
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. True
16. Mass
11. (1) 12. (1) 6. True
B2
13. (2) 14. (2) 7. True 17. UB = A
2µ0
15. (1) 16. (2) 8. Energy
18. Mechanical, electrical
17. (4) 18. (4) ∆φ 19. True
9. ∆Q = B
19. (2) 20. (2) R
20. True
Chapter-7 : Alternating Current
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context π

11. Lags,
1. Same phase 2
1. (1) 2. (2)
V
2. I = 0 sin ωt 12. R 2 + ( X L − XC )2
3. (2) 4. (2) R
2i0  X − XC 
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. 13. tan−1  L 
π  R 
7. (2) 8. (2)
1 14. XL = XC
4.
9. (4) 10. (1) 2 15. Minimum
5. r.m.s. 1 L ω0L 1 ω0
11. (2) 12. (1) 16. =
Q = = =
6. Phasor R C R ω0RC BW
13. (2) 14. (3) ε0  π
7.= I sin  ωt −  17. 2
Irms R
15. (2) 16. (2) ωL  3 
8. Zero 18. Mass (m)
17. (1) 18. (3) 9. Directly 19. Less
19. (2) 20. (3) 10. ε0 ωC 20. Zero
Chapter-8 : Electromagnetic Waves
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Polarised.

1. (4) 2. (4) 1. Light. U
2. Displacement current. 11.
3. (4) 4. (1) c
3. True
5. (2) 6. (4) 12. Z-(direction).
 dφ  13. 88 MHz to 108 MHz.
7. (4) 8. (3) 4. ε0  E  .
 dt 
14. Special vacuum tubes.
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Magnetic field, magnetic field.
15. Microwave ovens.
11. (3) 12. (4) 6. True
16. Infrared waves.
13. (2) 14. (1) 7. Oscillation of charge, the accelerated
17. U.V. radiations.
charge.
15. (3) 16. (2) 18. U.V. radiations.
8. Perpendicular.
17. (3) 18. (3) 19. X-rays.
E0
19. (2) 20. (4) 9. 20. Gamma rays.
c
Chapter-9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking of Content 10. Dispersion of light
1. (4) 2. (2) 1. Refraction 11. True
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Refractive index 12. True

5. (4) 6. (4) 3. 24.4° 13. True
7. (1) 8. (3) 4. Mirage (Total internal reflection) 14. Scattering of sunlight
9. (3) 10. (4) 5. Parallel to principal axis 15. Less
11. (2) 12. (4) 6. True 16. True
13. (2) 14. (2) 7. False (depends on refractive index of glass 17. True
15. (3) 16. (1) and surrounding) 18. True
17. (2) 18. (1) 8. True 19. True
19. (2) 20. (1) 9. True 20. Hypermetropia (farsightedness)
Chapter-10 : Wave Optics
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context λ

11.
1. (4) 2. (4) 1. Geometrical a
3. (3) 4. (3) 2. Phase 12. High refractive index, object, objective lens.
5. (1) 6. (4) 3. Spherical, point 13. Transverse, at right angles
7. (4) 8. (1) 4. Wavelength, red shift 14. Half
9. (4) 10. (3) 5. Vector sum, each 15. Maximum
11. (1) 12. (3) 6. Coherent 16. First minima, central maxima
13. (1) 14. (2) 7. Hyperbola 17. asinθ = nλ
15. (1) 16. (3) 8. Decrease 18. Resolve, to separate, closely spaced
17. (3) 18. (4) 9. False 2λ
19.
19. (4) 20. (1) a
10. Equally
20. Zero, integral multiple
Chapter-11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. ~10–9 s or less

1. (3) 2. (3) 1. Escape, work function 12. 1.6 × 10–19
3. (1) 4. (1) 2. Frequency, material h

13.
3. Intensity 2mE
5. (2) 6. (4)
4. Different 14. Zero
7. (3) 8. (3)
5. Packet of energy 15. 0.0286 Å
9. (4) 10. (3)
6. Number of photons 16. Electrons
11. (1) 12. (2)
7. Threshold wavelength 17. Remains unchanged
13. (1) 14. (3)
E h h
8. , 18.
15. (1) 16. (1) c λ e
17. (4) 18. (2) 9. Equal to 19. Number of photons
19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Greater 20. 54 V, 50°
Chapter-12 : Atoms
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Frequency

1. (1) 2. (4) 1. 214
83 Bi 12. Accelerating
3. (1) 4. (3) 2. Bright, dark 13. Photon, Difference
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Larger 14. Single electron
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. Ground 15. NI, N2I
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. Uniformly 16. Free
11. (3) 12. (3) 6. Less
17. Blue-green
13. (3) 14. (4) 7. More
18. Electrodynamically
15. (4) 16. (4) 8. Negative
19. Decreases
17. (2) 18. (3) 9. Angular
20. First
19. (1) 20. (3) 10. Ultraviolet
Chapter-13 : Nuclei
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Release

1. (1) 2. (3) 1. 104 12. Heavy
3. (2) 4. (2) 2. 99.9% 13. Million
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Isotopes
14. Independent
7. (2) 8. (3) 4. Nuclei
15. 931.5 MeV
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. Unstable, 1000 s
16. Mass, atomic
11. (4) 12. (1) 6. Released
17. Water
13. (1) 14. (1) 7. Short range
18. Neutrons
15. (4) 16. (1) 8. Saturation
17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Discrete 19. Instability
19. (4) 20. (1) 10. MeV 20. Less than
Chapter-14 : Semiconductor Electronics :

Material, Devices and Simple Circuits
Sharpen Your Understanding 15. (2) 16. (4) 5. Diffusion

1. (2) 2. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2)
6. mA, µA
3. (2) 4. (2) 19. (4) 20. (3)
∆V
5. (1) 6. (2) Thinking in Context 7.
∆I
7. (3) 8. (3) 1. Less
8. Voltage Regulator
9. (2) 10. (1) 2. Insulator
9. Photodiodes
11. (4) 12. (1) 3. Neutral
13. (2) 14. (3) 10. Electrical, optical

4. ne nh = ni2
11. Intensity 14. Red 17. Barkhausen Criteria
15. Cut-off, switch (off) 18. Universal

12. IVth
 eV  19. Out of
16. I I0  e 2kBT − 1
=
13. Band gap energy   20. 100
 
  

Physical World: Science 1 Principal Thrusts 5 Fundamental Forces in Nature 7

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Physical World: Science 1 Principal Thrusts 5 Fundamental Forces in Nature 7

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Physical World

1 SCIENCE 5 PRINCIPAL THRUSTS 7 FUNDAMENTAL FORCES IN NATURE

(1) Unification Thermodynamics (3) Ernest Rutherford

1 UNITS 3 MEASUREMENT 4 MEASUREMENT OF MASS 5 MEASUREMENT OF TIME

8 SIGNIFICANT FIGURES 10 DIMENSIONAL FORMULAE AND SI UNITS OF VARIOUS PHYSICAL QUANTITIES

unchanged if its even and uncreased by 1 if it is odd. Distance L

Dimensions Dimensional Homogeneity Applications Limitations of Dimensional

1 FRAME OF REFERENCE 4 VELOCITY

m Motion of objects along a straight line is called rectilinear

X m Slope of position time graph

6 Kinematic Equations 8 FOR MOTION UNDER GRAVITY

1 13. A man walks on a straight road from his (4) 80 km/h

X Instantaneous velocity, v = m Centripetal acceleration-Due to change in direction of velocity and

2 NEWTON’S 2ND LAW m It is difficult to walk on sand or ice. m It is a contact force.

m Identify the unknown forces and m Static friction: Fs = Fapplied

Conservation of Liner Momentum accelerated motion m Angle of Bending

Total momentum of an isolated system of m Write constraint relations if exists.

For equilibrium of concurrent forces use

(Fs = Fapp) applied force

pinitial = pfinal m Acceleration of body sliding down a rough

1. A constant retarding force 100 N is applied The correct statement is

(1) Climbs up with acceleration of 6 m/s2

(2) Climbs down with acceleration of 4 m/s2

(3) Climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s

(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under

1 SCALAR PRODUCT 3 ENERGY Some common units of energy

4 LAW OF CONSERVATION MECHANICAL ENERGY 7 COLLISION

D(K + U) = Fnc Dx COLLISION

Displacement x Angular displacement q KE = 1 MVcm + 1 Iw

11 ROLLING MOTION 13 KINEMATICS OF ROLLING BODIES DOWN ROUGH INCLINE PLANE

(3) a (4) 2 a (1) Moment of couple is independent of

(3) 0.255 rad s–1 π π (3) 100 rad s–1

Polar Satellite Geostationary Satellite

(2) Compressibility (3) B is having greater Young’s modulus

1 PRESSURE 4 ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE 6 BERNOULLI'S EQUATION

Pg Buoyant force depends on geff

7 VISCOSITY 10 SURFACE TENSION 12 DROPS AND BUBBLES

s = density of fluid l Thin film, liquid bubble have

1 TEMPERATURE 2 HEAT 3 CALORIMETRY 5 CHANGE OF STATE

If the amount of substance is specified in terms m Solid-liquid state change ® Latent

HEAT TRANSFER MODES

7 CONDUCTION 8 CONVECTION 9 RADIATION

(4) 100°F (4) Both assertion and reason are false

1 THERMODYNAMIC EQUILIBRIUM 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY 6 THERMODYNAMIC STATE VARIABLES

9 ISOTHERMAL PROCESS 12 ISOCHORIC PROCESS 14 HEAT ENGINE

energy. two temperatures T1 and T2. Carnot cycle consists of

1 LAWS ASSOCIATED WITH KTG 3 KINETIC INTERPRETATION 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITIES

(2) 0.92 [NCERT Pg. 327] (2) 249.3 J

1 SPECIAL TYPES OF MOTIONS 2 SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

7 SIMPLE PENDULUM 8 DAMPED SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

m Net force F = –ky – bv (b ® damping factor)

9 FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND RESONANCE

y = A cos(wdt + f) and A depends on wd and w.

(4) 6.52 s (1) 4.8 s (2) 2.8 s

17. A collar of mass 4 kg is attached to a spring 2

[NCERT Pg. 348]

(1) 5.4 Hz 19. A particle executes SHM, has potential

(4) 3.26 Hz assumed to be zero, then potential energy maximum accelerations of A to B is

WAVE 2 DISPLACEMENT RELATION IN A 3 PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION OF WAVES

4 REFLECTION OF WAVES 5 NORMAL MODES OF ORGAN PIPES 6 BEATS

[NCERT XI Pg. 389] [NCERT XI Pg. 379] [NCERT XI Pg. 379]

Chapter-1 : Physical World

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 6. Cyclotron