Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Anh

ThichTiengAnh.
Com - Website chia sẻ đề thi, tài liệu Tiếng Anh hay, mới nhất
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)
A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE)
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Part 1. Questions 1-10
You are going to hear a conversation on filling an enrollment form. As you listen, complete the
form below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each
numbered blank.
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EARLY LEARNING CHILDCARE CENTRE ENROLLMENT FORM
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Example
Parent or guardian: Carol Smith
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Personal details
Child’s name: Kate
Age: (1)____________________
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Address: (2)___________________ Road, Woodside 4032

Phone: (3)____________________
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Childcare information
Days enrolled for (4)____________________
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Start time (5)____________________am
Childcare group The (6)____________________ group

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Which meal(s) are required each day? (7)____________________
Medical conditions Needs (8)____________________
Emergency contact Jenny Ball
Relationship to child (9)____________________
Fees Will pay each (10)____________________
Part 2.Questions 1-5
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You will hear people talking about different situations. For each question, choose the best answer A, B
or C.
1. What does the woman say about learning Chinese?
A. It's more difficult to speak than write.
B. She finds the pronunciation easy to learn.
C. The grammar is not so difficult.
2. What does the woman say about her current job?
A. She is able to focus on her work.
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B. She finds her colleagues very chatty.
C. She likes the atmosphere in the office.
3. What does the man say about travelling alone?
A. There is always someone to talk to.
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B. It can be a problem if you are ill.
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C. Decisions are easier to make.
4. What does the man plan to do after his voluntary work?
A. Find a job in a zoo. B. Do a journalism course. C. Work in Borneo.
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5. Why is the woman calling?
A. To explain changes in arrangements.
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B. Because she's run out of money.
C. To avoid being late for an interview.
Part 3. Questions 1-5
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You will hear an interview with Leo Stone reviewing a book called “Following in Shackleton's
Footsteps” by Henry Worsley. For questions 1-5 complete each sentence with ONE word.
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1. Leo Stone has been on quite a few __________ to the Pole himself.
2. Henry Worsley, descended from Shackleton's captain, took Shackleton's compass and _________
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with him on the trip.

3. The team had to undergo strict training, but they found the biggest challenge was the ________one.
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4. They had similar problems to Shackleton, for example strong __________ kept them inside their
tents for a couple of days.
5. Despite the difficulties, Worsley was __________ about reaching the Pole.
B. PHONETICS
Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your
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answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
1. A.September B. government C. primary D. separate

2. A. oceanic B. comprehensible C. television D. situational
3. A. mountain B. fountain C. police D. kitchen
4. A. replacement B. confinement C. argument D. enjoyment
5. A. politics B. frequency C. algebra D. specific
C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
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Part 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. We hadn’t expected the trip to be ________ exhausting.
A. such B. so C. such an D. like so
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2. Jane: “I hear Tom’s always been a bit of a problem.” Brian: “Yes, he’s the _______ of the
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family.”
A. lone wolf B. black sheep
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3. The curriculum at a public school is as good________ of any private school.
A. as or better than that B. as or that better than
C. as that or better than D. or better than
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4. Well, it was _______good result, but you could’ve done better!
A. rather B. a bit C. a little D. a fairly
5. Jane: “Should we go to London or Paris?” Brian: “______________”
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A. Let’s sleep on it and make our decision tomorrow.

B. How about tomorrow morning?
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C. Let sleeping dogs lie, will you?

D. What about doing overnight?
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6. Marriage, the American students believe, is essentially a partnership of _________.

A. equivalents B. equals C. equivalence D. equaling
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7. About six million years ago, the Mediterranean sea is said ________, ________ thick layers of salt
in southern France.
A. to have evaporated – depositing B. to be evaporating – deposit
C. to evaporate – depositing D. having evaporated – to deposit
8. Not knowing who her father was, Laura asked her mother to __________ at the wedding.
A. give away herB. give her away C. give up her D. give her up
9. Susanna had always been an exemplary student, so it came as no surprise to us all that she passed
the exam__________.
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A. correctly B. with difficulty C. truly D. with flying colors

10. Jane: “How do you like your meat done?” Brian: “_________________________.”
A. I don’t like it B. Yes, please C. Well done please D. Very much
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Part2.Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank.
Not all the creatures on the (1) _________ species list are doomed to extinction, as the 1. DANGER
story of the giant panda has shown. Their whole (2) _________ was considered to be in 2. EXIST
jeopardy some years ago, but now, after (3) __________ the most influential symbol of 3. BECOME
nature conservation, things are looking up. Their plight highlights how (4) _________ can 4. POPULATE
impact natural (5) _________ and should serve as a reminder that the unique habitats of 5. DIVERSE
these incredible creatures are (6) _________ irreplaceable. The good news is that whilst 6. SIMPLE
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there may be an unwillingness to halt development and (7)_________ for the sake of 7. GROW
nature alone, many people are beginning to understand that sustainability can aid (8) 8. DEVELOP
_________ by bringing economic benefits, through eco-tourism for example, to
communities that are home to pandas. Such an (9) _________ would not only serve to 9. ARRANGE
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protect the pandas, but also (10) _________ the lives of the inhabitants in the local 10. RICH
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communities.
Part 3.The text below contains 5 errors. Edit the text by finding and correcting the errors as the
example below.
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Line
The effects to employees of working long hours can be very serious, especially over a period of 1
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time. Businesses need to look at whether their working practises encourage overwork. We
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should consider the impact of long working hours on health and for family life. Children whose
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parents are at work most of the times really miss out. When parents have little free time to spend
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with their family, their children often develop problems with their behavior but get into bad
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habits. It is very easy for children to get out of control because their busy parents have very few
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influence on them.
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Example: Line 1: to => on

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D. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by circling the corresponding
letter A, B, C or D.
In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America, there is much
salt, and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas elsewhere, where streets and
highways are salted to control ice, are familiar with the resulting rust and deterioration on cars. That
attests to the chemically corrosive nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks
rocks apart principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by soaking
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the rocks in salt water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water. Such conditions exist in many
areas along the eastern edge of central Death Valley. There, salty water rises from the groundwater
table by capillary action through tiny spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.
Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground. Death Valley
provides an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote evaporation and the
formation of salt crystals along the cracks or other openings within stones. These crystals grow as long
as salt water is available. Like tree roots breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure
on the rock and eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in
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metamorphic rocks, bedding in sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient fractions, and along
boundaries between individual mineral crystals or grains. Besides crystal growth, the expansion of
halite crystals (the same as everyday table salt) by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by
hydration can contribute additional stresses. A rock durable enough to have withstood natural
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conditions for a very long time in other areas could probably be shattered into small pieces by salt
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weathering within a few generations.
The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts, mostly carbonates and
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sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice. Weatheringby a variety of salts, though
often subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon. Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt weathering occurs
mostly in salt-rich places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica,
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and in desert sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.
1. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The destructive effects of salt on rocks.
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B. The impressive salt rocks in Death Valley.

C. The amount of salt produced in Death Valley.
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D. The damaging effects of salt on roads and highways.

2. The word "it" in bold refers to _______.
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A. salty water B. groundwater table C. capillary action D. sediment

3. The word "exert" in bold is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. put B. reduce C. replace D. control

4. In paragraph 2, why does the author compare tree roots with growing salt crystals?
A. They both force hard surfaces to crack.
B. They both grow as long as water is available.
C. They both react quickly to a rise in temperature.
D. They both cause salty water to rise from the groundwater table.
5. The author mentions “theexpansion of halite crystals … by hydration" in order to__________.
A. present an alternative theory about crystal growth
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B. explain how some rocks are not affected by salt

C. simplify the explanation of crystal prying and wedging
D. introduce additional means by which crystals destroy rocks
6. The word "durable" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.
A. large B. strong C. flexible D. pressured
7. The word "shattered" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.
A. arranged B. dissolved C. broken apart D. gathered together
8. The word "dominant" in bold is closest in meaning to__________.
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A. most recent B. most common C. least available D. least damaging
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the effects of salts on rocks?
A. Only two types of salts cause prying and wedging.
B. Salts usually cause damage only in combination with ice.
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C. A variety of salts in all kinds of environments can cause weathering.
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D. Salt damage at the seashore is more severe than salt damage in Death Valley.
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rocks that are found in areas where ice is
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common?
A. They are protected from weathering.
B. They do not allow capillary action of water.
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C. They show similar kinds of damage as rocks in Death Valley.
D. They contain more carbonates than sulfates.
Part 2.Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by
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circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
TEEN FASHION
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It is widely believed that boys are less interested in fashion than girls. While it is true that fashion for guys
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is not as widely followed as fashion for girls, it is becoming more and more important. Girls’ fashion (1)
_________ to change more often, or at least it is more widely advertised. You can’t help (2) _________
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when fashion gets serious. One minute everyone is wearing one (3) _________ brand of trainers; six
months later, something new is in and a perfectly good pair of trainers gets pushed to the back of the
wardrobe.
At some schools, the abolition of school uniform has also had (4) _________ an impact on what teenagers
wear. In other schools, where uniforms are more common, keeping up with teenage fashion is less (5)
_________ than in schools where kids can wear casual clothes. Nowadays, it costs more and more to stay
(6) _________ fashion and this can mean some students feel (7) _________ ifwhat they are wearing is not
trendy enough. Some kids may even feel ashamed (8) _______ their parents don’t have enough money to
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buy them the latest gear. The pressure from friends and the media to be trendy is so great that it is difficult
to(9) _________. For adults, it is easier to ignore the peer pressure, but (10)________ a teenager-boy or
girl-you need a lot of courage to say no to fashion.
1.A. looks B. comes C. becomes D. seems

2. A. to notice B. noticing C. to raise awareness D. awareness raising
3. A. similar B. same C. particular D. peculiar
4. A. fairly B. quite C. very D. really
5. A. profitable B. wealthy C. economic D. expensive
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6. A. at B. by C. for D. in
7. A. embarrassed B. shameful C. shameless D. shy
8. A. if B. unless C. provided D. whether
9. A. refrain B. resist C. react D. retain
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10. A. as B. from C. with D. like
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Part3. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
MY FIRST ENCOUNTER WITH DRACULA
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I had been riding all (1) _________ and it had already got dark. I was on my way to Dracula’s
castle, but I had only got as far as the first village. I wanted to get (2) _________ my destination before
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midnight. The mountain was steep and the forest all around was black and silent. Suddenly, I heard a
strange sound (3)_________ the distance. A few seconds later, I heard a horrible howl and realized
that there were wolves in the forest. I was beginning to wish I (4) _________ stayed at the village inn
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and waited until morning before continuing with my journey, but I had been hoping to reach the castle
just after eleven – no later than mid-night. In his letter, Count Dracula had said he (5) _________ wait
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up till I arrived. I rode on.

(6) _________ a while, I came to a fork in the road. On my left, through the trees, I could see the
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castle. Excited, I took the road (7) _________ led to Dracula’s castle. Soon, I was outside the gate. I
knocked and waited. After a few seconds, I heard a key turning. The door (8) _________ and I saw
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him. “Good evening” he said “Come in, we have been waiting for you. We’ll have some wine and
after that I’ll show you to your room.” I made polite conversation with the Count for an hour or so and
(9) _________ I was shown upstairs. I was so tired I slept till midday the (10) _________ day.
E. WRITING
Part 1.Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. You must not change the word given.
1. There is no point in waiting any longer. He’s not going to come. (WORTH)
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→ It ___________________________________________________________.
2. They said he wasn’t tall enough to play basketball in the national team. (TOO)
→ According ____________________________________________________.
3. The number of students applying for our scholarship has increased dramatically. (INCREASE)
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
4. “Many thanks for your timely support”, said Jenny to the man. (GRATITUDE)
→ Jenny _______________________________________________________.
5. He was so angry that he was lost for words. (ANGER)
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→ Such was ____________________________________________________.
Part2. Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic.
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication such as letters, e-
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mails, or telephone calls.”
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Do you agree or disagree with the following statements?
Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.
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-----THE END-----
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Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – THPT
(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)
A. LISTENING. (20pts)
Part 1.(10pts: 1pt/each correct answer)
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1. 4 2. 46 Wombat 3. 3345 9865 4. Monday (and)Thursday 5. 8.30
6. red 7. lunch 8. (to wear) 9. aunt 10. month
glasses
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Part2.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)
h.
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A
Part 3.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

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1. expeditions 2. diary 3. mental 4.winds 5. confident
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B. PHONETICS. (5 pts: 1p/each correct answer)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D
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C. LEXICO -GRAMMAR. (25pts)

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1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C
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1. endangered 2. existence 3.becoming 4. overpopulation 5. diversity

6. simply 7. growth 8. development 9. arrangement 10. enrich
Part 3.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer– 0.5 pt/ each finding + 0.5pt/ each correction)
Mistake/ line Correction
1. Line 2: practises practices
2. Line 3: for on
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3. Line 4: times time

4. Line 5: but and
5. Line 6: few little
D. READING(30 pts)
Part 1.(10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

1.A 2. A 3. A 4.A 5.D 6. B 7.C 8. B 9. C 10. C
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Part 2.(10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A
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Part 3 (10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)
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1. day/ afternoon 2. to 3. in 4. had 5. would
6. After 7. that/which
an 8. opened 9. finally/ then 10. next/
following
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E. WRITING. (20 pts)
Part 1.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. It is not worth waiting any longer. He’s not going to come.
2. According to them, he was too short to play basketball in the national team.
3. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of students applying for our scholarship.
4. Jenny expressed her gratitude to the man for his timely support/ for the man’s timely support.
5. Such was his anger that he was lost for words.
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Part 2. Essay Writing (15 pts)
Correct form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
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writing ideas and relevant examples (8pts)
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(15 points) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (4pts)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (3pts)
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Incorrect form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
writing ideas and relevant examples (4pts)
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(8 points) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (2pts)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (2p)

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SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT
Kỳ thi thứ nhất - Năm học 2012–2013
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi 09 /10/2012
(Thời gian 180, phút không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 12 câu, trong 07 trang
HỌ VÀ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH
ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO (Do CTHĐ chấm ghi)
Giám khảo 1:
Bằng số:.......................... ......................................................
Bằng chữ:....................... Giám khảo 2:
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......................................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi)
PART A: PHONETICS (1 point)

I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group
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1. A. redundant B. descendant C. relevant D. consultant
2. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
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3. A. compensate B. sacrifice C. renovate D. contribute
4. A. associate B. original C. stability D. accelerate
5. A. tremendous B. luminous C. enormous D. autonomous
1________
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2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (9 points)
II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points)
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1. The brochure stated the hotel was situated ............. beside the sea.
A. direct B. right C. precise D. exact
2. All candidates will be treated equally_____ of their age or background.
A. notwithstanding B. discounting C. irrelevant D. irrespective
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3. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thanks ..............”

A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all
4. You are late again. Try to be ................... in future.
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A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable

5. In some educational systems, ……………education is post-secondary education up
to the level of a bachelor’s degree.
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A. graduate B. postgraduate C. undergraduate D. lower-graduate

6. . ……Japanese he speaks is often heard in the countryside.
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A. A B. An C. Any D. The
7. The majority of nurses are women, but in the higher ranks of the medical profession
women are in a …………..
A rarity B. minority C. scarcity D. minimum
8. Why don’t the police take _____ measures against crime?
A. affective B. ineffective C. effective D. efficient
9. ……….the consequences, I would never have contemplated getting involved.
A. If I realized B. Had I realized C. Unless I realized D. When I had realized
10. The Silence of the Lambs is the most ................ film I’ve ever seen.
A. terrified B. terrifying C. scared D. excited
1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
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6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)

- What you (1. mean) ...................., the accident (2. be) ............ my fault? If it (3. be)
.........., surely I (4. not call) ............... the police.
- (5. Be) .................... it not for Mary’s help, I (6. not be) ................. able to take part
in the competition.
- When the school finally (7. close) ............ its doors in 1988, Mr. Roberts (8. teach)
.............. there for 25 years. As a result, he (9. decide) ............. to take early
retirement and (10. be) ........... now to be seen tending his garden most sunny
afternoon.
1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
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6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points )

1. People used to suffer from their life-time physical ________ (normal)
2. If you think I am going to marry you, then I’m afraid you’re very much ____(take).
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3. The man was found guilty of fraud and sentenced to three years _____ (prison)
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4. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later _____ when a medical
check proved that he had been taking drugs (qualify)
5. The recent hurricane caused _____ damaged
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6. Jim is one of the most _____ members of the committee (speak)
7. We try to ensure the ____ of our employees (be)
8. The dictionaries are with the other_______ books. (refer)
9. I was annoyed at his _________to co-operate. (refuse)
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10. Thank you for your present. It was very ________ of you to send it. (think)
1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
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V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points)

Dear Mr Rees,
Thank you for your letter of 21 June. I was very disturbed by your account (1)____
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what happened (2)______ our hotel last week and I am writing to apologize for this. I can
understand that you were shocked by the way the employee spoke to you. There can be no
excuse (3)_____such behaviour and I fully understand why you felt the need to complain
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(4)_____the situation. I can provide no explanation _____(5) the way the receptionist
behaved.
Our hotel group has a reputation for being good at looking (6)_____ our customers,
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and I am very sorry that your experience (7)_____our service did not confirm this. I intend
to deal with the staff member appropriately and I will ensure that she does not repeat this
behaviour by sending her (8)______ a retraining course next week. I would like to assure
you that the behaviour you encountered is not typical (9)_____our staff.
As the manager, I am responsible for all of our employees, so please accept my
apologizes again and this voucher worth $50 to spend in any (10)____ our hotels
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
VI. In most lines of the following text, there is one word which is either grammatically
incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. Find this wrong word and then write
in the space given. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (). Two
examples are given (0) and (00) (2 points)
Midsummer, the celebration of the turning of the sun, has been being the 0. being
highlight of the northern summer for centuries- an event full of symbolism, 00. √
customs, magic and superstitions. In Finland, Midsummer night is so short 1……….
as that evening duck flows into morning dawn almost unnoticed. Even in 2……….
southern Finland, midnight is the best described as strong twilight. 3……….
Midsummer night was, most of all, the cerebration of greenery and fruit. Nature is
in a full bloom then and the day is never-ending. It was 4……….
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customary throughout Finland to bring branches and greenery to indoors on 5……….
Midsummer Eve. Houses were so thoroughly cleaned and decorated with 6……….
birch branches and flower garlands. This ‘indoor forest’ was complete when
leaves on the scrubbed floor gave out a fresh forest aroma. Midsummer is 7………
still the Finns’ most important summer cerebration. They gather together around
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the bonfire to make dance, play and be with family and friends 8………
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themselves. In some areas Midsummer poles decorated with flowers garlands and 9………
leaves are erected for the festivities. Although some of the old ceremonies are
now performed only for fun, Midsummer night, as bathed in the strange white 10………
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light of the North, is still mysterious.
PART C: READING (6 points)

VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word (2 points)
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RULES, LAWS AND NORMS
Any discussion of criminal behaviour requires understanding of the difference in
meaning of rules, laws, and norms. Rules may be (1)_____, or formal and written. The rules
of dress or how we eat are unwritten guides. (2) ______contrast, the rules of a factory, for
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example safety regulations, are usually written down and serve (3)____strict regulators of
behaviour.
Laws are perhaps, the best example of written, formal rules and are decided upon by
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powerful and influential groups in society. In order to ensure that everyone adheres
(4)_____ the laws, there are specific penalties, including fines or imprisonment, for those
(5)_____ guilty of breaking them .Unlike other rules, (6)_____ as rules of dress or of
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grammar, laws can always be enforced by agencies like the police and the courts.
A norm is very much a general term; it is an expected (7)____ of behaviour shared
by member of a social group. Norms can be thought of as unwritten rules. Example of these
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are that parents should play with their children, or that you should (8)_____ in the
appropriate way to a “good morning” greeting. Norms are part of the culture of a (9)_____
and are (10)_____ on from one generation to the next over time.
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5_________
6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
VIII. Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points)
Sigmund Fred was not a literary theorist. However, he did contribute to critical theory
through both his theories and his use of art to show that the application of psychology can
extend to the highest forms of cultures. Freud was always interested in literature, and he drew
some of the best illustrations of his theories from classic poems and plays.
Freud saw the unconscious as the impetus of both natural and psychic activity.
Therefore, the same principles operated in both, and that the same mechanisms – such as
displacement and symbolization – applied. While Freud was not the first to note the
importance of the unconscious mind, he was the first to attempt to coherent theory of its
operation and function. He argued that the unconscious operates according to universal law
and is crucial to all aspects of mental life that involve fantasy, or diversion from reality.
From this point of view, it is natural to apply Freudian principles to imaginative
literature. Writers transform individual, unconscious fantasy into universal art – a kind of
formal fantasy halfway between a reality that denies wishes and a world of imagination in
which every wish is granted.
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In focusing on the unconscious origins for literature, Freud was in a sense reviving
the traditional idea of divine inspiration. (1) Philosophers and art theorists have often turned
to such a theory of the imagination to explain multiple meanings, repetition, and any
apparent disorder in art. Similarly, psychoanalysis uses the theory of the unconscious to
explain examples of “disorder” in consciousness, such as dreams.
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(2) This analogy allowed Freud to suggest that fantasies called art could be
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interpreted in the same way as dreams. Writers, as Freud noted, have always seen great
significance in dreams. In his view, portrayals of dreams in works of literature supported his
own theories about their structures, mechanism, and interpretation. For example, the
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mechanisms of displacement and symbolization obviously resemble the literary devices of
metaphor and symbolism. (3)
Critics of Freud have objected that the non-logical processes of the unconscious do
not resemble the conscious effort that results in work of literature. Freud would reply that
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while conscious thought is necessary to produce works of art, the creative source of art
remain in the conscious. In this view, conscious activity merely obscures what is truly
important in art. What interested Freud were the deep unconscious structure literature shares
with myth and religion, as well as with dreams. The apparent individuality of literature was
not as significant as its ultimate universality. (4)
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1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?
A. The best way to understand the creation of literature is through Freud’s theory of
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psychoanalysis.
B. Freud argued convincingly that both psychic phenomena and literature may be
interpreted with reference to the unconscious.
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C. Creating works of literature is very similar to dreaming.

D. Freud’s theories explain why both dreams and literature contain various form of disorder.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is true of Freud
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A. He was a literary theorist.

B. He has had an influence on literary theory.
C. He wrote several plays and poems that illustrate his theories
D. He was the first to discover the unconscious.
3. The word impetus could be best replace by
A. Source B. opposite C. form D. reason
4. The word both refers to
A. displacement and symbolization
B. repression and the economy of psychic expenditure
C. cultural and psychic phenomena
D. principles and mechanisms
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5. The author uses the phrases formal fantasy in order to

A. describe the nature of literature.
B. describe the nature of the unconscious
C. give an example of diversion from reality
D. give an example of a Freud principle
6. Which is the best place for the following sentence?
“And like dreams, literary works can have more than one interpretation”
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)
7. According to the passage, displacement in dreams is similar to
A. symbolization B. metaphor C. symbolism D. repression
8. What is possible objection to the passage’s main idea does the author discuss in the
last paragraph?
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A. Freud emphasized the unconscious, but writing results from conscious thought
B. Freud claimed that art is created logically, but it really has unconscious origins
C. Writers have never placed much significance on dreams
D. Freud argued that literature is individual, but it is actually universal
9. The word their refer to
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A. writers B. works C. theories D. dreams
h.
10. Why does the author mention multiple meaning and repetition?
A. To emphasize the non-rational nature of art
B. To give examples of disorder in art
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C. To show the similarity between art and dreams
D. To give examples of divine inspiration
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
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IX. Choose the best option to complete the reading text (2 points)
When I first arrived to take up my new job, I stayed in a hotel, but I soon started
looking for some permanent (1) .......... The first flat I (2) ..............over was in a basement
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and was obviously extremely damp in winter. Quite apart from the fact that the only (3)
............. was of brick wall. Then I had a look at a small flat in a modern (4) ............. It had a
(5) ..................space and a garden, but the (6) ............... was far too high for me. I did not
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want to end up in a tiny place, so I answered an ad for house-sharing. The house was in a
quiet (7) ..........., and as soon as I saw it I fell in love with it. There was a high overgrown
hedge around the front garden, and place to park car in the drive. The room to (8)
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...........looked out (9) ................the back garden, and had a big bay window. Although it
meant (10) ................ the kitchen and living room, I did have my own bathroom, really just
a shower and washbasin crammed into what must have once been a cupboard.
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1. A. home B. accommodation C. house D. landlady

2. A. passed B. viewed C. came D. looked
3. A. view B. entrance C. distance D. bathroom
4. A. tower B. department C. block D. square
5. A. living B. breathing C. working D. parking
6. A. lift B. roof C. area D. rent
7. A. surrounding B. neighborhood C. context D. premises
8. A. let B. myself C. pay D. lend
9. A. in B. over C. at D. for
10. A. without B. in C. sharing D. having
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________

6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10_______
PART D: WRITING (4 points)

X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the
ones printed before them. (1 point)
1. I don’t suppose you have change for a pound, do you?
Do you happen……………………………………………………………?
2. She insisted on a full apology.
Nothing but…………………………………………………………………
3. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
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There has ......................................................................................................
4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.
There was no question……………………………………………………..
5. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
It came ..........................................................................................................
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XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point)
h.
1. She does not want to be involved in the scandal caused by her husband’s remarks.
(DISTANCE)
She ………………………………………………………………………………
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2. It wasn’t my intention to upset you. (MEAN)
I ……………………………...................................................................
3. We won’t get to the airport in less than 30 minutes. (LEAST)
It will ..........................................................................................................
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4. I tried the talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (WORD)
I tried to ...........................................................................................................
5. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice. (COMPARED)
Nothing………………………………………………………………………….…
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XII. Writing an essay (2 points)

It is said that increasing in the price of petrol is best way to solve growing traffic
and pollution problems.
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What is your opinion? Write an essay discussing the matter.

You should write at least 200 words
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h.
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-- The end--
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT LẦN 1
TỈNH NINH BÌNH NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Ngày thi 09/10/2012
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang
Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm.

Biểu điểm, đáp án chi tiết cho từng phần như sau.
PART A: PHONETICS
I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group (1
point)- (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)
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1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR
II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points))- (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
c
h.
III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)(0,1 x 10 = 1.0 point)
1. do you mean 2. was 3. had been 4. would not have called
5. Had it not been 6. would not have been 7. closed
8. had been teaching 9. decided 10. is
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IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points ) ( 0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. abnomalities 2. mistaken 3. imprisonment 4. disqualified
5. widespread 6. outspoken 7. well-being 8. reference
9. refusal 10. thoughtful.
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V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. of 2. in 3. for 4. about 5. for
6. after 7. of 8. on 9. of 10. of
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VI. Find this wrong word and then write in the space given. Some lines are correct.
Indicate these lines with a tick (). Two examples are given (0) and (00). (2 points) (0,2 x
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10 = 2.0 points)
1. () 2. as 3. the 4. a 5. to
6. so 7. () 8. make 9. themselves 10. as
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PART C: READING
VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word ( 2 points)
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(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)

1. unwritten 2. In 3. as 4. to 5. found
6. such 7. mode 8. respond 9. society 10. passed/handed
VIII. Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D
IX Choose the best option to complete the reading text ( 2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D
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6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
PART D: WRITING
X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones
printed before them. (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)
1. Do you happen to have change for a pound?
2. Nothing but a full apology would satisfy her/was accepted
3. There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
4. There was no question of drugs being involved whatever the methods used to obtain the
result.
5. It came as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job.
XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
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meaning to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point)
1. She wants to distance hersefl from the scandal caused by her husband’s remarks
2. I did not mean to upset you
3. It will take us at least 30 minutes to get to the airport.
4. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem but he was too busy.
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5. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice.
h.
XII. Writing an essay ( 2 points)
1. Content: (1,0 point)
a. Providing main ideas and details as required
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b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (0,25 point)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured
3. Language: (0,5 point)
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a. Demonstration of a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures

b. Good use of grammatical structures
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (0,25 point)
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a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

b. Intelligible handwriting
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-----------Hết-----------
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Kỳ thi thứ nhất - Năm học 2012–2013
Ngày thi 10 /10/2012
(Thời gian 180, phút không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 13 câu, trong 09 trang
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH

ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO (Do CTHĐ chấm ghi)
Giám khảo 1:
......................................................
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Bằng số:..........................
Giám khảo 2:
Bằng chữ:.......................
......................................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi)
c
PART A: LISTENING (3 points):
HƯỚNG DẪN THI NGHE HIỂU:
h.
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần
nghe.
I. Section 1: Question 1-9
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Question 1-4: Choose the best answer to every question
1. Why would the woman prefer not to live in London?
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A. It’s too big B. It’s an unfriendly place
B. It’s too far from Liverpool D. It makes her tired
2. What does the woman say about the people she knows in London?
A. She would like to find out more about them
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B. She thinks they are uninteresting

C. She thinks they have to work too hard
D. She thinks they hardly show any interest in things
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3. The man dislikes village life because

A. You can’t keep any private property
B. People in villages like doing nothing
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C. Everybody knows about your private life

D. People in villages never stop talking
4. What does the man say about people in London?
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A. They think everyone should be the same as them

B. They don’t go out much
C. They try to make friends with you
D. They don’t usually mind how people behave
Question 5-9 Indicate whether the statements are True or False
5. The woman came from Liverpool
6. The woman doesn’t know many people in London
7. The man thought people in London had a very unrealistic idea about country life
8. The man said he had stolen his mother’s money to come to London
9. The man thought people should go out to make friends in London.
1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
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6_________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________
II. Section 2: Question 10-22

Complete the checklist of career goals with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
CAREER GOALS
Goal 1 To start a career
Goal 2 10. ____________
Goal 3 11. ____________
Goal 4 12. ____________
Question 13-14 Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
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Applicants should hand in their application forms between (13)___________ and
December. And anyone who wants to apply for the University of Oxford and Cambridge
should submit their form by (14)_______________
Question 15-17: Look at the note and tick if the information is correct according to
what you hear.
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SOURCE OF INFORMATION
h.
A. Student magazines
B. Rankings
C. Reference books
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D. Government offices
E. Prospectuses
15__________ 16___________ 17_________
Question 18-22 Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F)
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18. The speaker mentioned students should adopt many study methods in the course, such as
brainstorming sessions, field trips, seminars, tutorials and peer review.
19. British universities only offer accommodation for the refreshment
20. According to the speaker, before a student made a decision, he should confirm what
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kind of social life the school could offer.

21. If you go to the same university, all the courses would cost the same
22. Students may apply for financial help or scholarships in British universities.
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18_______ 19__________ 20__________ 21________ 22________
III. Section 3
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Question 23-30: Fill in the missing information with NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS
GREENPEACE SAVE THE CAMPAIGN
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The twentieth century has brought many dangers to the world’s largest mammal. Due to
improved (23)_____________ and (24)____________ ships, we might be too late to
prevent whales from becoming (25)__________
There are only 2,000 (26)___________ left, and although the species is (27)_________,
there is no sign that their population is growing.
Only three countries (28)___________, (29)__________and (30)___________
IV. Choose the correct answer to each question (1 point)
1. Children can be difficult to teach because of their short attention ____
A. limit B. span C. duration D. time
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2. Read that sign, please. It says “English ………here.”

A. speaking B. spoken C. should speak D. must speak
3. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _____of mind
A. frame B. trend C. attitude D. tendency
4. He could provide no documentary evidence to _____ up his claim that dinosaurs had
once inhabited these hills.
A. back B. fill C. make D. hold
5. Because of road works, traffic is restricted to one ______ in each direction
A. lane B. row C. alley D. path
6. They turned down the proposal_____ that it didn’t fulfill their requirement
A. by reason B. on the grounds C. as a cause D. allowing
7. _____ the public’s concern about the local environment, this new road scheme will
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have to be abandoned.
A. as regards B. In view of C. In the event of D. However much
8. I hadn’t been riding before and I could barely .............. the horse at first.
A. get into B. get out of C. get on D. get off
9. Let’s get to the ……..of the discussion to save time.
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A. core B. centre C. point D. importance
h.
10. The meeting didn’t _____ until late.
A. end up B. break up C. come about D. breakthrough
1_______ 2__________
an 3__________ 4________ 5________
6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
V. Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition (1 point)
1. What a mess! Sam’s toys haven’t been put ________
2. I must warn you that if you have anything to say, it’ll be taken ________ and may be
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used in evidence against you.
3. Cheques should be made __________ to Wellington
4. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang __________here until you are ready.
5. The little boy’s ear stuck__________ from under his school cap.
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6. I am Polish ________birth, but I have French nationality.

7. Your plan doesn’t allow __________ changes in the weather.
8. How are you ___________ for work?
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9. He muttered a few words and __________ that he left.

10. _________its new conductor, the orchestra has established an international
reputation.
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1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________

6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
VI. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them (1 point)
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In countries where two or more languages are spoken, language is frequently a

political and highly emotive issue. Although Canada is officially bilingual, the French –
speaking province of Quebec introduced the law in 1976 which, in other measures, banned
languages rather than French on commercial signs and restricted admissions to English
speaking schools. In 1988, the supreme court of Canada rules that some in sections of this
law were illegal. No sooner had they done so than thousands of French speakers took to the
street protest. Under the regime of General Franco, a Basque language spoken by about
600,000 people in Spain was forbidden. So strict was this ban that people using Basque in
public could be imprisoned.
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Lingual suppression still goes on, but on the whole, governments today are more tolerable
of their minority languages. Nowhere has this reverse of attitudes been more pronounced
than in Wales. Until the twentieth century, Welsh was all along illegal, and its usage was
forbidden in schools and at many places of work. Only a long campaign of protests and
vandalism by Welsh speakers in the 1960s did the British government allow Welsh to
become an official language.
1_______________ 2__________ ___ 3__________ _

4_______________ 5_____________ 6___________
7_______________ 8_____________ 9___________
10________
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VII. Supply the correct form of the words in the bracket (1 point)
SCIENCE 2002
“Science 2002” is the name given to an imaginative development which aims to make (1.
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science) ............... and technological developments exciting, even to people who thought
they were (2. interest) ..................... in the subject. As well as its main permanent (3.
h.
exhibit) ................., there is also a changing (4. select) ........................ of educational
programs, such as sessions for schools and colleges, and adults (5. train) ..............
course. Everyone can share the (6. excite) ............ of experiments and discovery. Even
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(7. experience) ................. visitors can carry out simple experiments with the help of (8.
special) .............. who are always available to give them all the (9. practice) .............
advice and guidance they need. What’s more, the friendly staff are keen to provide a (10.
welcome) .............. atmosphere.
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1_________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
6_________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
VIII. Supply the correct form of the verbs (1 point)
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Millions of years ago, trees from now vanished forests (1) ______(produce) a sticky
substance that slowly (2)_____(harden) into sparkling rocks. Often, the hardening sap
(3)_____(drip) onto an unlucky grasshopper or beetle, (4)____(encase) it in a premature
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tomb. Today, a piece of amber with such content is worth thousands of dollars. However,
not long ago, miners (5)______(toss) out these pieces, (6) ______(believe) them to be
flawed and worthless. The preservation of creatures in amber is amazing. Scientist are able
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to cut the amber and (7)_____ (expose) the actual structures of a prehistoric creature’s
muscles, eyes, jaws and nervous systems. Although amber supplies (8)______(decline) in
some areas of the world, it is doubtful that the supplies will be depleted any time soon. New
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deposits always (9)____(discover), (10)_____(guarantee) a rich link to the past.

1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (7 points)
IX. Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank (3 points)
SPORTS PHOTOGRAPHY
Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action, have developed together.
At the turn of the 20th century, Edward Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of
movement. His pictures of a runner (1)_____ in every history of photography. Another
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milestone was when the scientist/photographer Harold Edgerton (2)_____ the limits of
photographic technology with his study of a (3)_____ of milk hitting the surface o of a dish
of milk. Another advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s
which made it possible for sports photographers to (4)_____ their cumbersome cameras
behind.
The significance of television as a transmitter of sport has (5)_____ the prospects of still
photographers. All those people who watch a sports event on TVG, with all its movement
and action, (6)_____ the still image as a reminder of the game. The (7)_____majority of
people do not actually (8)_____ sports events, but see them through the eyes of the media.
And when they look at sports photography, they look not so much for a (9)____of the event
as for emotions and relationships with which they can (10)_____.
Looking back, we can see how (11)_____ sports photography has changed. (12)_____
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sports photographers were as interested in the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself.
Contemporary sports photography (13)_____the glamour of sport, the color and the action.
But the best sports photographers today still do more than (14)_____tell the story of the
event. They (15)_____in a single dramatic moment the real emotions of the participants.
1. A. exhibit B. show C. demonstrate D. feature
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2. A. extended B. enlarged C. prolonged D. spread
h.
3. A. splash B. drip C. dash D. drop
4. A. put B. leave C. lay D. keep
5. A. assisted an B. aided C. benefited D. improved
6. A. choose B. value C. praise D. cheer
7. A. high B. wide C. vast D. main
8. A. attend B. visit C. follow D. meet
9. A. preservation B. store C. record D. mark
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10. A. identify B. share C. unite D. join
11. A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely
12. A. Early B. First C. Initial D. Primary
13. A. outlines B. signals C. emphasizes D. forms
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14. A. alone B. simply C. singly D. only

15. A. seize B. grasp C. capture D. secure
1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________
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6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________

11_______ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________
X. Read and choose the best answer for the question (2 points)
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Biographies of Mohammed are both numerous and unreliable. Non was written in his
lifetime, and all are plagued by legends and embellishments. The best known ones are,
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based on the Hadiths, or “traditions”, which are dubious historical value. The Koran may be
the only trustworthy account of the major event of his life.
Mohammed, “the praised One”, founder and prophet of Islam, was born in Mecca in
the years 570. He became an orphan at the age of six and was taken into the care of his
uncle, Abu-Talib. The tribe of Fihr, to which Mohammed’s family belonged, was then on
the rise. (1)They had become the keepers and guardians of the Kaaba in Mecca, a site of
pre-Islamic Arab worship (and now the holiest place in Islam). Their preeminence made it
easier for Mohammed to accomplish his later religious and political conquest. (2)
(3) Mohammed’s early life was spent as a shepherd and caravan attendant. He is thought to
have been quiet man, much given to fasting and prayer. At the age 25 he married a rich,
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older widow, Khadeejah.(4) The frequent commercial journey he made after his marriage
allowed him to learn the rudiments of Judaism and Christianity.
When Mohammed was forty years old, he received what he believed to be a call from
the Angel Gabriel, inaugurating his career as a phrophet of Allah and the apostle of Arabia.
His first converts included his wife and daughter, his adopted son Ali, and his slave Zayd.
Mohammed’s attacks on traditional Arab belief provoked ourage and persecution in Mecca,
which drove him to the city of Medina in 622. There he was welcomed as God’s prophet,
and found a growing number of supporters. With their help he conquered several Arab,
Jewish and Christian tribes, of marched triumphantly back to Mecca in 630, destroyed the
idols, and united all the tribes under one religion. He made his last pilgrimage to Mecca
with 40,000 followers in 632 and died soon afterward of a fever at the age of 63.
After Mohammed’s death, his successors, the caliphs, aspired to make Islam a world
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religion through the conquest of foreign lands. In less than a century they succeeded in
taking Palestine, Syria, Mesopotania, Egypt, North Africa, and southern Spain. In 732 the
Muslim armies were at last defeated at Tours, where their western conquests ended. But
they went on to conquer Oersia, Afghanistan, and part of India. When the Mongols and
Turks conquered the Muslims in the thirteenth century, they adopted Islam as their own
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religion.
h.
The succession of the first three caliphs was the source of a schism within the faith that
persists today. The Sunni, or Orthodox, supported the legitimacy of Abu Bakr, Omar, and
Uthman; the Shiah, or Schismatics, upheld the divine right of Mohammed’s son Ali to be
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his father’s successor.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. The founding and spread of Islam C. the basis of Islamic belief
B. The tribe of Mohammed D. Islam after Mohammed
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2. According to the passage, what is the problem with most accounts of Mohammed’s
life?
A. They were written by non-Muslims
B. They do not describe his early life
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C. They contain some false information

D. They have been destroyed
3. The word which refers to
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A. Tribe B. family C. uncle D. Mohammed

4. Which is the best place for the following sentence?
“Of the six children, only their daughter Fatima survived into adulthood”
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A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D(4)

5. The word inaugurating is closest in meaning to
A. Improving B. confirming C. beginning D. expanding
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6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined
sentence in the passage?
A. Mohammed’s supports in Mecca asked him to go to Media to fight against attacks on
Arab belief.
B. People in Mecca who became angry about Mohammed’s persecution were forced to
go to Media.
C. Mohammed’s traditional Arab belief led to great anger against Mohammed in Mecca
and later in Medina
D. Mohammed had to go to Medina after angering people in Mecca with his criticism of
older Arab belief.
7. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that
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A. Mohammed’s belief did not differ much from traditional Arab beliefs
B. Before Mohammed, Arabs did not all practice the same religion
C. The Arabs had no religion before Mohammed
D. Media was a more religious city than Mecca
8. According to the reading, what helped Mohammed in his conquests?
A. The power of his tribe
B. The support of the caliphs
C. His knowledge of Christianity and Judaism
D. The conversation of his wife, daughter and son
9. Which of the following is true?
A. The Muslim armies won their final victory at Tours
B. The Mongols converted to Islam after being conquered by the Muslims
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C. The Turks and Mongols became Muslims after their defeat of the Muslim armies.
D. Because of their defeat in 73, the Muslim armies lost most of the territory they had
conquered.
10. The Schismatic wanted
A. To make Islam a world religion
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B. To choose the caliphs themselves
h.
C. To let Ali take Mohammed’s place as leader
D. To divide Muslims into various sects
XI. Read the text and fill in each numbered blank with ONE word. (2 points)
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British television is the big success story of post-war years. Little (1) …..than a
limited experiment before the war, it blossomed in (2)………. years following 1945. (3)
…..1955, commercial television began. Today, 90 per cent of population have television in
(4) ………homes.
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In 1960, a committee of enquiry was (5)………up, (6)…………..the chairmanship of
Sir Harry Pilkington, to investigate the working of broadcasting. The Pilkington Report,
published in 1962, had (7)………to say: “Television has been (8)……….a mirror of
society, but the metaphor, (9) ………….striking, wholly misses the major issue of the
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responsibility (10)……….the broadcasting authorities, what is the (11) ……to reflect? It is

to reflect the best or the worst (12)…………us?
One cannot escape the question by saying that it must do both one must ask then
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(13)……….. it is to present the best and the worst with complete indifference and
(14)…….comment. Television (15)……..not, and cannot, merely reflect the moral
standards of society. It must affect (16)……….either by changing or by reinforcing them”.
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All broadcasting, and television (17)……….., must be ready and anxious to experiment, to
show (18)………..new and unusual, to give a hearing (19)………… dissent. Here,
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broadcasting must be worst willing to make mistakes; for if it does not, it will
(20)……….no discoveries.
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________

6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________
11________ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________
16________ 17__________ 18__________ 19________ 20________
Tài liệu được chia sẻ tại thichtienganh.com
PART D: WRITING ( 5 points)
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XII. Writing task 1 (1 point)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the given word. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE AND
EIGHT WORDS; including the word given
Example
Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? (OBJECTION)
Do you have any objection while you pain?
1. It is extremely important that company rules are observed
utmost Observation ____________________-
________________________importance.
2. Sooner or later, Michael will have to ___ fact that he’s not going to win another
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major race.
terms Sooner or later, Michael will have to _______________fact that he’s not
going to win another major race.
3. The film didn’t live up to our expectations, despite all the publicity.
short The film ________________________our expectations, despite all the
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publicity
h.
4. Although the Government has introduced new legislation, the transport crisis is
growing worse
brought Although new legislation____________________, the transport crisis is
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growing worse.
5. The plans for the new bypass were not popular with many people.
favour Many people were __________________the new bypass
XIII. Writing task 2 (4 points)
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The pie chart shows the main reasons why agricultural land become less productive.
The table shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during 1990s.
Summaries the information by selecting and reporting the main features and makes
comparison where relevant.
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Causes of worldwide land degradation

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Causes of land degradation by regions

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Region % land degraded by …..

Deforestation Over- cultivation Over-grazing Total land degraded
North
0,2 3,3 1,5 5%
America
Europe 9,8 7,7 5,5 23%
Oceania* 1,7 0 11,3 13%
*A large group of islands in the South Pacific including Australia and New Zealand
……………………………………………………………………………….………………
…..……………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………
h.
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………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………….………………
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…..……………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
h.
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………………
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- The end--
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT LẦN 1
TỈNH NINH BÌNH NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Ngày thi 10/10/2012
Hướng dẫn gồm 02 trang
Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm.

Biểu điểm, đáp án chi tiết cho từng phần như sau.
PART A: LISTENING (3 points): (0,1 x 30 = 3 points)

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D
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5. F 6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T
10. build your CV 11. gain 12. broaden skills

13. September 14. October 15
15 – 17 (any order): B, C, E
c
18. F 19. F 20. F 21. F 22. T
23. fishing technology 24. faster 25. extinct 26. blue whales
h.
27. protected 28. Iceland 29. Norway 30. Japan

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IV. Choose the correct answer to each question (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B
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V. Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition (1 point) (01 x 10 = 1 point)
1. away 2. down 3. out 4. around 5. out
6. by 7. for 8. off 9. with 10. under
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VI. There are 10 mistakes . Find and correct them (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)
1. a law the law 2. in other among other 3. rather than other than
4. a Basque the Basque 5. lingual linguistics 6. tolerate tolerant
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7. reverse reversal 8. Along but 9. usage use

10. protests protest
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VII. Supply the correct form of the words in the bracket (1 point) (01 x 10 = 1 point)
1. scientific 2. uninterested 3. exhibition 4. selection 5. training
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6. excitement 7. inexperienced 8. specialists 9. practical 10. welcoming
VIII. Supply the correct form of the verbs (1 point)(01 x 10 = 1 point)

1. produced 2. hardened 3. would drip 4. encasing 5. tossed
6. believing 7. expose 8. are declining 9. are always being
discovered
10. guaranteeing.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (7 points)
IX. Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank (3 points)(0,2 x 15 = 3 points)
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A
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11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C
X. Read and choose the best answer for the question (2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2 points)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C
XI. Read the text and fill in with ONE word. (2 points) (0,1 x 20 = 2 points)
1. more 2. the 3. In 4. their 5. set
6. under 7. this 8. called 9. although 10. of
11. mirror 12. in 13. if 14. without 15. should
16. them 17. especially 18. something 19. to 20. make
PART D: WRITING ( 5 points)
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XII. Writing task 1 (1 point) (0,2 x 5 = 1 point)
1. Observation of the company rules is of the utmost importance.

2. Sooner or later, Michael will have to come to terms with the fact that he’s not going to
win another major race
c
3. The film fell short of our expectation.
4. Although new legislation has been brought in, the transport crisis is growing worse.
h.
5. Many people were not in favour of the plans for the new bypass
XIII. Writing task 2 (4 points)
1. Content: (1,5 points)
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a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
- 4 main causes, among which over grazing accounts for the greatest part.
- the effects the 3 causes to different regions at different degree and the total land degraded.
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2. Organization & Presentation: (1 point)
b. The report is well-structured
3. Language: (1 point)
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a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures

b. Good use of grammatical structures
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (0,5 points)
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a. Intelligible handwriting
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
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-
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TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ THÁI TỔ
TỪ SƠN - BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN 1,
LỚP 12, NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Full name: .........................................
Thời gian làm bài: 180’
Class: 12A…
(Ghi chú: Đề thi gồm 08 trang. Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi).
A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1. A. compete B. impetus C. senior D. vehicle
2. A. agent B. inflation C. sabotage D. constipation
3. A. teenage B. dosage C. voyage D. carriage
4. A. rough B. tough C. hiccough D. trough
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5. A. commercial B. celestial C. presidential D. essential
Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B,
C or D. (0.5 p)
1. A. admirable B. advisable C. reliable D. desirable
2. A. bigoted B. perpetrate C. relativism D. picturesquely
c
3. A. innocent B. peninsula C. contents D. supermarket
4. A. language B. lyrical C. evidence D. disadvantage
h.
5. A. equivalent B. independent C. university D. entertainment
B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7 points)
Question I: Choose the best word from A, B, C, and D that fits each blank. (2p)
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1. Many road accidents occur because motorists cannot __________ the speed of approaching
vehicles.
A. assume B. count C. assess D. value
2. The judge imposed a light sentence in view of the ________ circumstances.
A. extenuating B. unfair C. extensive D. qualifying
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3. After the accident, there was considerable doubt __________ exactly what had happened.
A. for B. as to C. in the shape of D. qualifying
4. It’s a shame they didn’t pick you, but it doesn’t ________ out the possibility that you might get a
job in a different department.
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A. rule B. strike C. cancel D. draw

5. Fearing for his life, he ________ the mugger for mercy.
A. pleaded with B. petitioned C. urged D. begged
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6. The school _________ a system of monthly tests in place of an annual exam.

A. took B. gathered C. collected D. adopted
7. She .......... modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
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A. looks down on B. goes in for

C. fixes up with D. comes up against
8. In some parts of the world, the indigenous population has been completely ..........
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A. wiped up B. wiped away C. wiped out D. wiped off

9. Rumors going round, Mr. Long is ________ Head of the Department.
A. in the proximity of B. in line for C. in adjacent to D. in view of
10. The police are ________ certain who the culprit is.
A. in some ways B. more or less C. here and there D. by and by
11. The noise of the machinery ________ the words of the factory manager.
A. covered B. suppressed C. drowned D. deadened
12. What a _______!
A. new small nice car B. nice small new car
C. new nice car, that is small D. car new nice and small
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13. Advertisers often aim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending
_________.
A. power B. force C. energy D. ability
14. The police finally arrested the ________ criminal.
A. famous B. renowned C. respectable D. notorious
15. When the light _______, we couldn’t see a thing.
A. went out B. switched off C. put out D. extinguished
16. She is __________.
A. a well-known but not a widely-read poet.
B. a well-known poet but not read widely.
C. a well-known but not a poet which is read widely.
D. a well-known poet but who is not a widely-read.
17. Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a possible life span greater than
______.
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A. man B. the man C. the one of the man’s D. that of man
18. D.W. Griffith pioneered many of the stylistic features and filmmaking techniques ______ as the
Hollywood standard.
A. that establish B. that became established
C. what established D. what became established
c
19. Not only _______ visit Japan but they plan to stop off in the USA as well.
A. they plan to B. they must C. will they D. are they paying
h.
20. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plan for the new stadium had to be ____________.
A. stockpiled B. overthrown C. shelved D. disrupted
Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb to fit each gap. (1.5ps)
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- You should have been more careful. You (1.avoid) ______ having had this accident.
- Not until later did they discover that the picture (2. steal) ____________________.
- I waited under the clock! – So did I, but I didn’t see you! We (3. wait) _______ under different clocks.
- She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (4. run) _______.
- It is very cold. Mr. Taylor, who has been ill recently, is walking along the road without a coat. He
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_______ (5. wear) a warm coat.
- He got angry because he hadn’t been accustomed to (6. make) ________ fun like that before.
- The price of gold is said (7. go up) ______ now.
- A number of students (8. please) ________ to be given the rewards.
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- Don’t hesitate (9. ask) ________ me for the help when necessary.
- Most films are made (10. show) ________ in the theatre.
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Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4…………….. 5……………..

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6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10……………

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Question III: Supply the correct form of the word in brackets. (1.5ps)
1. One of the aims of the organization is to provide (human) .................................. aid to the refugees.
2. After the tsunami many people lost their families, friends, and (live) ......................
3. The doctor gave him an injection to ……………………... (die) the pain.
4. (Tyrant).......................... reacts upon tyrant himself.
5. As the sole (benefit) ..................................... of his uncle’s will, he inherited a huge fortune.
6. Good (sell) ............... is a partly about getting on well with the customers.
7. I was surprised by his (prepare) ............................... to break the law.
8. They’re (mind) ...........................people, so the bad language in that film is unlikely to offend them.
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9. This article is about people who claim to have …………. (normal) abilities such as mind-reading.
10. The United Nations will act as (guarantee)…………………….. of the peace settlement.
Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4…………….. 5…………….
6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10…………..
Question IV: In each of the following sentences, there is one mistake. Pick it out and correct it. (1.0
pt)
1. For such an experience and able teacher, discipline was not a problem.
2. They didn’t seem to take any notice of that the teacher said.
3. Tom is very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless.
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4. I watched the train to leave until it was out of sight.
5. Maria asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week.
Your answers:
c
Mistake Correction
1……………………………………. …………………………………….
h.
2……………………………………. …………………………………….
3……………………………………. …………………………………….
4…………………………………….
an …………………………………….
5……………………………………. …………………………………….
Question V: Put one suitable preposition or particle in the blank of each sentence. (1p)
1. The doctor thinks he will pull……(1)…….now. His temperature has gone down.
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2. The oral examination was difficult. The examiner tried to catch me ……(2)……..by asking some
tricking questions.
3. Compulsive eaters often can’t resist their cravings ……(3)……food, regardless of the time of day.
4. You can go and buy the tickets for us and I’ll see ……(4)….the luggage until you get back.
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5. Mr Jones has put ……(5)….. the proposal that all the staff should make a contribution to the
earthquake relief fund.
6. You can’t talk me ……(6)….giving you more money. I’ve given you enough already.
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7. Are you going to sit……(7)…….and let me do everything?

8. The students were slow to catch ……(8)……, but they began to understand.
9. There are several theories about why dinosaurs died ……(9)…….so suddenly.
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10. Over 3000 workers were laid……(10)…..when the company moved its factory abroad.
Your answers:
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1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4……………..5…………….
6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10…………….
C. READING (6 points)
Question I: Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2p)
During the teenage years, many young people can at (1) …………… be difficult to talk to. They
often seem to dislike (2) …………. questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work in
school. This is a normal (3) …………. at this age, though it can be very hard for parents to
understand. It is a part of becoming (4) …………… of teenagers trying to be adults while they are
3
(5) …………… growing up. Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that
questions are asked out of real interest and not (6) ………….. people are trying to check (7) ……….
on them.
Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school and future plan but not
push them to talk if they don’t want. Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some children
in (8) ………… to be adults may experiment (9) ………….. sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents
need to watch for any signs (10) ………….. unusual behavior which may be connected with these
and get help if necessary.
Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4…………….. 5…………….
6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10…………..
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Question II: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space.
(2pts)
Set in the red desert of central Australia is the mining town of Coober Pedy. At first sight, the town
looks similar to many other such communities, but Coober Pedy is different. Sixty per cent of its
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population of some 4,000 people lives underground. There are today about 800 underground houses as
well as shops, hotels and even churches in the town and the (1)______ hills. Once a site has been chosen,
h.
special tunneling machines are (2)______ in to create passages and rooms in the sandstone. Rock pillars
are left to (3)______ the roof, and doors and windows are cut into the front. Houses are of all shapes and
(4)______, the largest having twenty rooms, and some even have their own swimming pool.
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Living underground may sound strange but in fact it has a number of advantages. In summer, the
temperature outside can reach an astonishing 470C, and in winter the nights can be (5)______ cold.
However, inside the houses it remains a steady 250C all year (6)______. Many people say that living
underground makes them feel very secure. There is no problem with noise from the neighbors and the
houses are not (7)______. By the fierce dust storms that regularly (8)______ through the area. And of
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course, if your family (9)______ or lots of friends come to stay, you can (10)______ dig another room.
Question 1: A. near B. surrounding C. close D. enclosing

Question 2: A. brought B. placed C. entered D. worked
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Question 3: A. rise B. support C. lift D. push

Question 4: A. sizes B. areas C. volumes D. numbers
Question 5: A. heavily B. sharply C. extremely D. strongly
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Question 6: A. round B. wide C. across D. along

Question 7: A. influenced B. affected C. spoiled D. disturbed
Question 8: A. sweep B. pour C. hurry D. flood
Question 9: A. explodes B. stretches C. grows D. rises
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Question 10: A. only B. regularly C. ever D. always

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Question III: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (2pts)
The development of the horse has been recorded from the beginning through all of its evolutionary
stages to the modern form. It is, in fact, one of the most complete and well-documented chapters of
paleontological history. Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed information about the horse itself
but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds, and even evidence for speculation about the
climate conditions that could have instigated such migratory behavior.
Geologists believe that the first horses appeared on Earth about sixty million years ago as compared
with two million years ago for the appearance of human beings. There is evidence of early horses on both
the American and European continents, but it has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago
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at the beginning of the Pliocene Age, a horse about midway through its evolutionary development
crossed a land bridge where the Bering Strait is now located, from Alaska into the glasslands of Asia, and
traveled all the way to Europe. This early horse was a hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony
with three toes and a specialized cheek teeth for grazing. In Europe, the hipparion encountered another
less advanced horse called the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe by the same route,
probably during the Miocene Period. Less developed and smaller than the hipparion, the anchittheres was
eventually completely replaced by it.
By the end of the Pleistocene Age both the anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct in North
America, where they had originated, as fossil evidence clearly indicates. In Europe, they evolved into the
larger and stronger animal that is very similar to the horse as we know it today. For many years, the horse
was probably hunted for food by early tribes of human beings. Then the qualities of the horse that would
have made it a good servant were noted – mainly its strength and speed. It was time for the horse to be
tamed, used as a draft animal at the dawning of agriculture, and the ridden as the need for transportation
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increased. It was the descendant of this domesticated horse that was brought back to the Americas by
European colonists.
Question 1: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The migration of horses B. The modern-day pony
C. The evolution of the horse D. The replacement of the anchitheres by the hipparion
c
Question 2. According to the author, fossils are considered valuable for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT?
h.
A. They suggest how the climate may have been
B. They provide information about migration
C. They document the evolution of the horse
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D. They maintain a record of life prior to the Miocene Age
Question 3. The word instigated in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by?
A. Explained B. Caused C. Improved D. Influenced
Question 4. What does the author mean by the statement “Geologists believe that the first horses
appeared on Earth about sixty million years ago as compared with two million years ago for the
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appearance of human beings”?

A. Horses appeared long before human beings according to the theories of geologists.
B. Both horses and human beings appeared several million years ago, if we believe geologists.
C. The geological records for the appearance of horses and human beings are not very accurate.
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D. Horses and human beings cannot be compared by geologists because they appeared too long ago.
Question 5. Which of the following conclusions may be made on the basis of information in the
passage?
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A. The hipparions migrated to Europe to feed in developing grasslands.

B. There are no fossil remains of either the anchitheres or the hipparion.
C. There were horses in North America when the first European colonists arrived.
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D. Very little is known about the evolution of the horse.

Question 6. According to this passage, the hipparions were ______.
A. five-toed animals B. not as highly developed as the anchitheres
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C. larger than the anchitheres D. about the size of a small dog

Question 7. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. anchitheres B. hipparion C. Miocene period D. route
Question 8. The word extinct in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. familiar B. widespread C. nonexistent D. tame
Question 9. The word domesticated in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning ______.
A. tamed B. used C. ridden D. indicated
Question 10. It can be concluded from this passage that the______.
A. Miocene Period was prior to the Pleistocene B. Pleistocene Period was prior to the Miocene
C. Pleistocene Period was prior to the Pliocene D. Pliocene Period was prior to Miocene
D. WRITING (6 points)
Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence
preceded. (2pts)
1. Whenever you are on a bus, you hear someone talking about snobbery.
You can’t ...........................................................................................................................
2. He was so enthusiastic that he apparently ignored any warning signs.
Such ...................................................................................................................................
3. He sounds as if he’s spent all his life abroad.
He gives .............................................................................................................................
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4. Pop stars are corrupted by the adulation of their fans.
It’s the way ........................................................................................................................
5. What I understand from her words is that it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going to
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Japan.
Reading .............................................................................................................................
h.
6. The storm completely wiped out all my crops.
I have ................................................................................................................................
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7. The fire led to the setting up of a public enquiry.
As a ..................................................................................................................................
8. Vitamin intake and intelligence are not connected.
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There ................................................................................................................................
9. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.
It crossed ..........................................................................................................................
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10. His wife keeps telling him that he should get a better job.
His wife is pushing ...........................................................................................................
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Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that
each has a similar meaning as the original one. (2pts)
1. It is highly likely that the house will be pulled down. (LIKELIHOOD)
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The faculty library is located near the office. (WITHIN)
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. I suggested he phone his mother and he did it immediately. (THEN)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Kevin was always level-headed with a sensible and practical attitude towards life. (FEET)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. When the reasons behind the decision were explained, it all became easy to understand.
(PLACE)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. You can walk to the station easily from the hotel. (DISTANCE)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. The price was exorbitant! I’m afraid the advertising agency really overcharged you for the
commercial. (RIP)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. There was loud applause as he left the stage.
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(ACCOMPANIMENT)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Be careful not to waste water. (ECONOMICAL)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. We haven’t sold many cars this month. (DEMAND)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
h.
Question III: Composition writing (2 pts)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? The most important aspect of a job is the money
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a person earns. In about 200 words, write a composition expressing your point of view. Give reasons for
your answer.
Your answer:
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h.
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-------- THE END -------

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI HSG THANG 11 NAM 2015

A. PHONETICS (1 point)
Question I: Pronunciation(0.5p)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B
Question II: Stress (0.5p)
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1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A
B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7points)
Question I: Choose the best answer: (2p)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D
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6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
h.
11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. A
16. A 17. D an 18. B 19. C 20. C
Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb (1p)
1. Could have avoided 6. Being made
2. Had been stolen 7. To be growing up
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3. Must have waited 8. Were pleased
4. Had been running 9. To ask
5. Should have been wearing 10. To be shown
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Question III: Supply the correct form of the word in brackets (1pt)
1. humanitarian (a): nhân đạo 2. Livelihoods: kế sinh nhai

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3. Deaden: làm dịu (đau) 4. tyranny: sự chuyên chế
5. Beneficiary: người thừa kế 6. salesmanship: nghệ thuật bán hàng

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7. Preparedness: sự sẵn sang chiến đấu 8. broad-minded: rộng lượng

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9. Paranormal = supernatural 10. Guarantor: người bảo lãnh
Question IV: Your answers:
Mistake Correction
1. able ability
2. that what
3. when while
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4. to leave leaving
5. past previous
Question V: Put one suitable preposition or particle in the blank of each sentence. (1p)
1. Pull through: get better after a serious illness

2. Catch sb out: làm khó ai
3. cravings for: long for
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4. See to: deal with
5. Put forward: đề xuất
6. talk sb into doing st: thuyết phục ai làm gì
7. Sit back: relax
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8. Catch on: understand
h.
9. die out: stop existing
10. Lay sb off: tell sb to stop doing st/ stop employing sb because there is not enough work.
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C. READING (6 points)
Question I: Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2p)
1. times 6. because
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2. being 7. up
3. development 8. trying
4. independent 9. with
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5. still 10. of
Question II: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. (2p)
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1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D
Question III: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (2p)
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1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A
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D. WRITING (5 points)
Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence
preceded. (2p)
1. You can’t go on a bus without hearing someone talking about snobbery.
2. Such was his enthusiasm that he apparently ignored any warning signs.
3. He gives the impression of having spent all his life abroad.
4. It’s the way their fans adulate them that corrupts pop stars.
5. Reading between the lines, it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going to Japan.
10
6. → I have had all my crops completely wiped out by the storm.
7. → As a result of the fire, a public enquiry was set up.
8. → There is no connection between vitamin intake and intelligence.
9. → It crossed his mind that he might have misunderstood her.
10. → His wife is pushing him to get a better job..
Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that
each has a similar meaning as the original one. (2p)
1. There is a strong likelihood that the house will be pulled down.
2. The faculty library is located within a short distance of the office.
3. I suggested he phone his mother and he did it there and then/ then and there.
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4. Kevin was always level-headed with both feet on the ground.
5. When the reasons behind the decision were explained, it all fell into place.
6. The station is within easy walking distance of the hotel.
7. The price was exorbitant! I’m afraid the advertising agency really ripped you off for the
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commercial.
h.
8. He left the stage to the accompaniment of loud applause.
9. Be careful not to waste water. (ECONOMICAL)
→ Be economical with water
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We haven’t sold many cars this month. (DEMAND)
→ There has been little demand for cars this month.
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Question III: Composition writing (2 pts) (Model essay – 195)
The mark given to this part is based on the following criteria: Content: (35% of total mark)
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a. Providing all main ideas and details as required

1. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)
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b. The composition is well-structured
2. Language: (30% of total mark)
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a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of

English language gifted upper-secondary school students
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b. Good use and control of grammatical structures

3. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting
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Kỳ thi thứ hai - Năm học 2012 – 2013
Ngày thi 18/12/2012
(Thời gian 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 90 câu và 01 bài viết luận, trong 06 trang
Số phách
Điểm của bài thi Họ, tên và chữ ký của giám khảo (Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng
chấm ghi)
Bằng số:............................. Giám khảo 1:...................................................

Bằng chữ:.......................... Giám khảo 2:...................................................
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(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này)
PART A. LISTENING (2 points)

Lưu ý: Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh nghe 02 lần liên tiếp nhau.
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Part 1. Question 1- 5: Listen to a man talking about his hobbies and choose the best answer marked
h.
A, B, C or D for each question below. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. There are several things that the speaker likes to do _______ .
A. in his house B. in his free time C. in his weekends D. in his weekdays
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2. Who taught the speaker to play the guitar?
A. his uncle B. his friend C. his mother D. his classmates
3. He admires the person who taught him to play the guitar very much because that person _____ .
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A. can accompany singers with his guitar well B. is good at singing
C. is good at playing the guitar in the orchestra D. is good at teaching
4. In the talk, the speaker said that some of his fish _______ .
i. bought from the shop
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ii. collected from the field

A. i only B. ii only C. both i and ii
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5. What is the speaker’s third hobby?

A. collecting envelopes B. collecting stamps C. buying envelopes D. buying stamps
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
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Part 2. Question 6-10: Listen to Tony – a journalist talking about his experience with “What’s on”
magazine and decide whether the statements are True, False or Not given.
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6. “What’s on” was a weekly magazine.

7. People seem to think that “What’s on” was started by a bunch of idealistic amateurs.
8. Tony is a French journalist.
9. Tony used to spend three or four days going round about 200 newsagents.
10. Many people showed negative attitudes towards “What’s on”.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (8 points)

I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. Write your answer
in the numbered box.
11. We have a _______ future ahead with little comfort, food or hope.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
12. Don’t be late for the interview, _______ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
13. ______ the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more.
A. Nevertheless B. Meanwhile C. Despite D. Although
14. This meat is rather tough; you must chew it well before _______
A. swallow B. to swallow C. swallowed D. swallowing
15. The police have warned the tourists to look ________ for pickpockets in the shopping centre.
A. away B. down C. out D. forward.
16. At the language school, each student is assigned to his or her own ________.
A. tutor B. professor C. staff D. director
17. Many _______ are in danger of extinction.
A. plants B. animals C. species D. hippopotamus
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18. Do you ________ my turning the television on now?
A. disapprove B. mind C. want D. object
19. As soon as you buy a car, it starts falling in ________.
A. cost B. worth C. price D. value
20. I saw a thief take Norman’s wallet so I ran ________ him, but I couldn’t catch him.
A. after B. into C. over D. near
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11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
h.
II. Put the verb in each bracket into correct tense. Write the answer in the numbered box.
This time last year I (21. cycle) ___________in the rain along a country road in France with a friend
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of mine. We (22. decide) _________to go on a cycling holiday in Normandy. Neither of us had gone to
France before, but we (23. know) ___________ some French from our time at school and we had managed
to rush up on the basics. We (24. plan) _______ our route carefully in advance, but we had forgotten one
important thing, the weather. It (25. rain)_______ solidly since our arrival and that night we (26. end up)
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_________ sleeping in the waiting room at a railway station. Then the next morning as we (27. ride)
_______down a steep hill my bike skidded on the wet road and I (28. fall off)_________.I realised
immediately that my arm (29. break) ___________, and after a visit to the local hospital I caught the next
train to Calais for the ferry home. Unfortunately, my parents (30. not expect) _______ me home for a
fortnight, and had gone away on holiday. So I spent a miserable couple of weeks alone, reading Teach
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Yourself French.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

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26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
III. Give the correct form of the word in each bracket to best complete each sentence. Write the
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answer in the numbered box.

31. My teacher is very ______________ about the history of Vietnam. (KNOW)
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32. I’m sorry for my ______________, but I hate being kept waiting. (PATIENT)
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33. The American celebrate their ___________ on 4 July. (DEPEND)
34. She always listens ___________ to what she is told. (ATTENTION)
35. We always have a bed ready in the spare room in case visitors arrive _____. (EXPECT)
36. George is ________. He always plays with toys. (CHILD)
37. Where is ________ to this shopping center? (ENTER)
38. Do you often wear ________ costume in the New Year Celebration? (NATION)
39. She was ________ keen on the history of China. (EXTREME)
40. She studied ________ at university. (ECONOMY)
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
IV. Each sentence below has ONE mistake. Underline and correct it. Write your answer in the right
column. 0 is an example.
Sentences Correction
0. I am studying here since last January have been studying

41. As soon as I will graduate, I’m going to return to my hometown. 41. ____________
42. The more than sugar a person eats, the less likely he is to lose weight. 42. ____________
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43. By the end of the 21 century, scientists will had discovered the cure for the 43. ____________
common cold.
44. Aspirin is recommend to many patients for its effect to thin the blood. 44. ____________
45. Beethoven wrote and performance some of his greatest works while he was almost 45. ____________
totally deaf.
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46. She is no longer enough young to take part in a beauty contest. 46. ____________
47. ____________
47. Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule.
48. The governor sent the National Guard to assist the local habitants in the clean – up 48. ____________
operation because the torrential rain that had devastated the area.
49. Some studies show that young babies prefer the smell of milk to those of other liquids. 49. ____________
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50. Financial considerations play an important part in the choose of a college. 50. ____________
h.
PART C. READING (6 points)
I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
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Mr. Brown lived his entire life in a small town in the north of England. He never left the house
___________(51) he had been born, never married, never went on holiday and had no friends. He worked in
a local factory for _________(52) forty years but even the people who had worked with him for years
_________(53) very little about him. He wore the same clothes year in year out, and _________(54) he
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shopped regularly at the local store he bought only the most basic foodstuffs, never changing his purchases
from one week to the next. So when he died last month, neighbors and local people were _________(55) to
learn that Mr. Brown was not just a rich man, he was in fact __________(56) millionaire!
He had no bank, no account, no money invested anywhere but in the various drawers, cupboards
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and boxes in the house there were hundreds and thousands of bank _________(57) and coins.
It took police over two weeks to clear the house and the bank clerks took just as long to
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___________(58) all the money. “We had absolutely no ideas that he had been hiding his money over the
years”, one of his neighbors said. “In fact, we used to feel _________(59) for him, we thought he was a poor
old man unable to __________(60) anything better for himself”.
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51. A. which B. where C. who D. what

52. A. more B. above C. over than D. more than
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53. A. reminded B. held C. had D. knew

54. A. although B. but C. because D. however
55. A. astonishing B. astonished C. interested D. interesting
56. A. the B. this C. a D. one
57. A. papers B. money C. letters D. notes
58. A. number B. count C. guess D. make
59. A. sorry B. sad C. sorrow D. miserable
60. A. pay B. spend C. afford D. give
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
II. Read the passage carefully and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.
When we talk about the environment today, many people still think only of tree ________(61) and
keeping their surroundings clean. Although both activities are _________(62), they are only a small part of
the whole story.
The environment is __________(63) urban and rural. It ___________(64) the seashore, rivers,
mountains, cities, towns, villages and so on. The water we drink and the air we ________(65) are important
elements of the environment, so __________(66) the trees, plants and animals. The environment
___________(67) us with all our daily needs. This is true for both the urban and rural people. Rural people
________(68) directly on the natural environment for many of their daily needs. They use water from rivers,
streams and so on. For them, there is often no piped water available. They collect firewood from nearby
trees and forests for cooking and heating. They _________(69) the land around them for food. Their homes
are _________ (70) from local materials.
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61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
III. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
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Many people wrongly believe that when people reach old age, the families place them in nursing
homes. They are left there in the hands of strangers for the rest of their lives. Their grown children visit
h.
them only occasionally. The truth is that this idea is an unfortunate myth – a fictitious story. In fact, family
members provide over 80 percent of care that elderly people need.
Because Americans are living longer than ever, more psychologists and social workers have begun
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to study care giving to improve care of the elderly. They have found that all caregivers share a common
characteristic: All caregivers believe they are the best person for the job. One caregiver said that she had
always been closed to her mother. Another was the oldest child. Another was the youngest child. Social
workers interviewed caregivers to find out why they took on the responsibilities of caring for an elderly,
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dependent relative. They discovered three basic reasons. Many caregivers believed that they had an
obligation to help their relative. Some stated that helping others made them more useful. Others hoped that
by helping someone now, they would deserve care when they became old and dependent.
When people care for an elderly relative, they often do not use available community services, such
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as adult daycare centers. If the caregivers are adult children, they are more likely to use such services,
especially because they often have jobs and other responsibilities. In contrast, a spouse, usually the wife, is
much less likely to use support services or to put the dependent person in a nursing home. Social workers
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discovered that the reason for this difference was fear of poverty. All ill, elderly people may live years, and
medical care and nursing homes are very expensive. An elderly couple’s saving can disappear very quickly.
The surviving spouse, usually the wife, can be left poverty. As a result, she often tries to take care of her
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husband herself for as long as she can.

Researchers have found that caring for the elderly can be a very positive experience. The elderly
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appreciated the care and attention they received. They were affectionate and cooperative. However, even
when care giving is satisfying, it is hard work. Social workers and experts on aging offer caregivers and
potential caregivers help when arranging for the care of an elderly relative. One consideration is to ask
parents what they want before they become sick or dependent. Perhaps they prefer going into a nursing
homes and can select one in advance. On the other hand, they may want to live with their adult children.
Caregivers must also learn to be assertive and ask for help from others, especially siblings. Brothers and
sisters are willing to help, but they do not know what to do.
We can expect to live longer lives than ever before. Caring for the elderly and being taken care of
can be a mutual satisfying experience for everyone involved.
Questions 71-74: Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are true or false.
Write True/False in the numbered box.
71. Most of old people in the United States live in the care of their families.
72. All caregivers believe they can do the job better than anyone else.
73. There are at least three reasons why caregivers take on responsibilities for an elderly person.
74. Care giving is not too difficult when the elderly are affectionate and cooperative.
71. 72. 73. 74.
Question 75-77: Answer the following questions.

75. What is the unfortunate myth about care of the elderly in the United State?
…………………………………........................................…………………………………………………..
…………………………………........................................…………………………………………………..
76. Why are adult children more likely to use community services to help care for an elderly parent?
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………………………………………………......................................………………………………………
77. What advice do social workers give to people when they arrange for the care of elderly relative?
………………………………………………......................................………………………………………
Questions 78 - 80: Choose the best answer A, B or C for the following questions.
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78. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Most people are put into nursing homes by their families, who do not visit them regularly.
h.
B. Most old people live longer today than they did in the past.
C. Most elderly people are taken care of by their families, who often find the experience satisfying.
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79. What does “in the hands of” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. In the control of B. In the care of C. In the homes of
80. What does “siblings” in paragraph 4 mean?
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A. Care givers B. Brothers and sisters C. Mothers and fathers
78. 79. 80.
PART D. WRITING (4 points)

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I. Arrange the given words to make meaningful sentences. 0 is an example.

0. yet/ The/ finished/ football/ players/ training/ haven’t/ their.
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→ The football players haven’t finished their training yet.

81. how/ People/ would/ used/ to/ know/ or/ less/ their/ more/ children/ live.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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82. find/ do/ this/ you/ interesting/ What/ about/ city?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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83. at/ If/ only/ I/ studied/ had/ harder/ school.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
84. last/ because/ stayed/ up/ You/ are/ you/ tired/ late/ night.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
85. non-professionals/The/ star/ hates/ be/ film/ to/ criticized/ by.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
86. 'Shall I carry that bag for you, John?' said Pauline.
Pauline offered………………………………………………………………………………
87. I’ve forgotten that author’s name but he’s very well-known.
That author,..............................................................................................................................
88. It’s extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find…….………………………………………………………………………….……..
89. She prefers reading a book to watching TV.
She would .……………………………..……………………………...................................
90. Alice and Charles didn’t decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
Only when………………………………………………………………………………
III. Many people think that: “Television does harm to children.” Do you agree or disagree with their
idea? In about 160 words, write a paragraph to support your viewpoint.
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h.
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THE END
SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH HDC ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Kỳ thi thứ hai - Năm học 2012 – 2013
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi 18/12/2012
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang
A. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG

- Đề thi gồm 90 câu và bài viết luận: + Từ câu 1 đến câu 90: mỗi câu trả lời đúng cho 0,2 điểm
+ Bài viết luận: 2 điểm
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm
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B. ĐÁP ÁN
PART A. LISTENING:
Part 1.
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B
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Part 2.
h.
41. True 42. True 43. Not given 44. False 45. False
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR: 8 points

I. Choose the word or phrase A, B, C or D which best completes each sentence.
46. C 47.
an B 48. C 49. D 50. C
51. A 52. C 53. B 19. D 20. A
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

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21. was cycling 22. had decided 23. knew 24. had planned 25. had rained/ had been raining
26. ended up 27. were riding 28. fell off 29. had (been) broken 30. were not expecting
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to best complete each sentence.
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31. knowledgeable 32. impatience 33. independence 34. attentively 35. unexpectedly
36. childlike 37. entrance 38. national 39. extremely 40. economics
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IV. Each sentence below has ONE mistake. Underline and correct it.
Sentences Correction
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0. I am studying here since last January have been studying

41. As soon as I will graduate, I’m going to return to my hometown. 41. graduate
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42. The more than sugar a person eats, the less likely he is to lose weight. 42. more
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43. By the end of the 21 century, scientists will had discovered the cure for the common 43. have
cold.
44. Aspirin is recommend to many patients for its effect to thin the blood. 44. recommended
45. Beethoven wrote and performance some of his greatest works while he was almost 45. performed
totally deaf.
46. She is no longer enough young to take part in a beauty contest. 46. young enough
47. Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. 47. is
48. The governor sent the National Guard to assist the local habitants in the clean – up 48. because of
operation because the torrential rain that had devastated the area.
49. Some studies show that young babies prefer the smell of milk to those of other liquids. 49. that
50. Financial considerations play an important part in the choose of a college. 50. choice
PART C. READING (6 points)

I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
75. B 76. D 77. D 78. A 79. B
80. C 81. D 82. B 83. A 84. C
II. Read the passage carefully and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.
62. vital/important/ crucial/

61. planting 63. both 64. includes 65. breathe
significant/ necessary/....
66. are 67. provides/supplies 68. rely/depend/count 69. cultivate 70. made
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III. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Questions 71 – 74: True/False
71. T 72. T 73. T 74. F
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Question 75-77: Answer the following questions.
75. Old people are often placed in nursing homes and receive little care from their family members.
h.
76. Because they are busy with their jobs and other responsibilities.
77. They should ask their parents what they want before they became sick and dependent.
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Questions 78 - 80: Choose the best answer A, B or C for the following questions.
78. C 79. B 80. B
PART D. WRITING (4 points)

I. Arrange the given words to make meaningful sentences. 0 is an example.
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81. People used to know more or less how their children would live.
82. What do you find interesting about this city?
83. If only I had studied harder at school.
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84. You are tired because you stayed up late last night.
85. The film star hates to be criticized by non-professionals.
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II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it mean exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
86. Pauline offered to carry that/the bag for John.
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87. That author, whose name I have forgotten, is very well-known.

88. We find it extremely difficult to make ends meet these days.
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89. She would rather read a book than watch TV.

90. Only when Alice and Charles (had) had the second child did they decide to move to a bigger house.
III. Paragraph writing
1. Organization: 0,5 pts - 1 topic sentence
- At least TWO supporting sentences
- At least ONE supporting detail for each supporting sentence
- 1 concluding sentence
2. Cohesion devices and coherence: 1,0 pt
3. Language use: 0,5 pts (A variety of sentence structures and vocabulary)
THE END
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
BẮC GIANG NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Lớp 12)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 01 tháng 4 năm 2012
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Số phách
Bằng số: Chữ ký giám khảo
..........................
1: ..............................................................
ĐIỂM
BÀI THI Bằng
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chữ: ................................ Chữ ký giám khảo
2: ...............................................................
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.

LƯU Ý:
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.
c
h.
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. Opponent B. Compose C. Podium D. Advocate
2. A. Reserve
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B. Domestic C. Optimistic D. Nursery
3. A. Both B. Cloth C. Ghost D. Sold
4. A. Examine B. Determine C. Famine D. Dine
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5. A. Sacred B. Decided C. Contaminated D. Watered

Your answers: 1. ______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
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1. A. Counterpart B. Precede C. Nursery D. Compliment

2. A. Bewilder B. Audience C. Benefit D. Dedicate
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3. A. Pessimistic B. University C. Epidemic D. Particular

4. A. Tsunami B. Terrorist C. Involvement D. Disaster
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5. A. Processor B. Windsurfing C. Semester D. Challenger

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
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SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)

I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. According to the boss, John is the most ______ for the position of executive secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable
2. The children went _______ with excitement.
A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife
3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed
4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.
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A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe
5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing
6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
A. in B. for C. of D. out
7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
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9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design B. progress C. construction D. work
10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
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C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem
h.
Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______
II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
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1. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National
Military Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians,
(come) to Vietnam since yesterday. _________________________
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2. Up to now, nothing (do) to solve their problem.

_________________________
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3. He suggested that his son (be) on time for the interview.

_________________________

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4. Tom will come home as soon as he (finish) his test.

_________________________
5. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land.

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_________________________
6. In times of war, the Red Cross (dedicate) to reducing the

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sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war. _________________________
7. Hardly our teacher (enter) the classroom when it started to rain.

_________________________
8. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for
you here. _________________________
9 - 10. Living in a fast - paced and mobile society (create) family

stresses that (not imagine) by our great grandparents. _________________________

_________________________
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III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
1. The main goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations are to promote peace
and ___________________ in the region. (STABLE)
2. On my salary, we have to live as ___________________ as possible. (ECONOM)
3. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save ___________________ (DANGER)
species.
4. The security of the earth can be threatened by __________________ groups. (TERROR)
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5. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat
___________________. (DESTROY)
6. He resigned for a ___________________ of reasons. (VARIOUS)
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7. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night was (DEFEND)
__________________.
h.
8. Her son is always mischievous and ___________________, which annoys her very (OBEY)
much.
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9. The Americans are much more concerned than the Indians and the Chinese with
physical ___________________ when choosing a wife or a husband.
(ATTRACT)
(PREDICT)
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10. You can never be sure what my sister is going to do. She is so
___________________.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
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1. Although to some people reading is a favourite way to spend time, but others just do not like reading.
A B C D
2. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced
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A B C
disease can have severely effects on that species.
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D
3. I believe that only very self - confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of
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A B C
eye contact time.
D
4. It is likely that all people in Hanoi live in skyscrapers by 2050.
A B C D
5. In 1961, America’s first manned spacecraft launched.
A B C D
6. Do you really think that candidate is qualify to be President?
A B C D
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7. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A B C D
8. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful
A B C D
cure.
9. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was a three - hours journey.
A B C D
10. Married women are twice so likely as married men to be depressed.
A B C D
Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
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6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
Kim Jong - il (16th February 1941 –
17th December 2011) was the supreme leader of North Korea (1)
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_______________ 1994 to 2011.
Kim Jong - il died (2) ________________ a suspected heart (3) ________________ on 17th
h.
December 2011 while traveling by train to an area outside Pyongyang. He was succeeded by his
youngest son Kim Jong - un, (4) ________________ was considered by the Korean Central News
Agency (5) ________________ the "Great Successor". The Korean Central News Agency reported that
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during his death, a fierce snowstorm paused and the sky glowed red above the sacred Mount Paektu. The
ice on a famous lake also cracked so loud, it seemed to shake the Heavens and the Earth.
Kim Jong - il's funeral took (6) ________________ on December 28th in Pyongyang, with a
mourning period lasting until the (7) ________________ day. South Korea's military was immediately
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put on alert after the announcement. Asian stock markets fell soon after the announcement, due to
similar concerns.
(8) ________________ January 12th, 2012 North Korea called Kim Jong - il the "eternal leader" and
announced that his (9) _______________ will be preserved and displayed at Pyongyang's Kumsusan
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Memorial Palace. Officials will also install statues, portraits, and "towers to his immortality" across the
country. His (10) ________________ of February 16th has been declared "the greatest auspicious holiday of
the nation", and has been named the Day of the Shining Star.
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II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (15pts)
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ______ to be successful?
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Having someone around who always (2) ______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ______ – we all know
someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, ‘It looks (4) ______ rain.’ But if you catch
yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) ______ it.
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You can change your view of life, (6) ______ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you
will find life more rewarding as a (7) ______. Optimism, they say, is partly about self - respect and
confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) ______. Optimists are
more (9) ______ to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ______ to the world. Some people are
brought up to (11) ______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything
(12) ______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) ______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ______
failure as the end of the world - they just (15) ______ with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
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3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns
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13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over
Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
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6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______
h.
11. _______ 12. _______ 13. _______ 14. _______ 15. _______
III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts)
In the second half of each year, many powerful storms are born in the tropical Atlantic and
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Caribbean seas. Of these, only about half a dozen become the strong, circling winds of 74 miles per hour
or more that are called hurricanes, and several usually make their way to the coast. There they cause
millions of dollars of damage, and bring death to large numbers of people.
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The great storms that hit the coast start as soft circling wind hundreds - even thousands - of
miles out to sea. As they travel aimlessly over water warmed by the summer sun, they are carried
westward by the southeast winds. When conditions are just right, warm moist air flows in at the bottom
of such a wind, moves upward through it and comes out at the top. In the process, the moisture in this
warm air produces rain, and with it, the heat is changed to energy in the form of strong winds. As the
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heat increases, the young hurricane begins to move counter clockwise motion.
The life of a hurricane is only about nine days, but it contains almost more power than we can
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imagine. The energy in the heat released by a hurricane’s rainfall in a single day would satisfy the entire
electrical needs of the United States for more than six months. Water, not wind, is the main source of
death and destruction in a hurricane. A typical hurricane brings 6 to 12 inches downpour, causing
sudden floods. Worst of all is the powerful movement of the sea – the mountains of water moving
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toward the hurricane center. The water level rises as much as 15 feet above normal as it moves toward
shore.
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1. When is an ordinary tropical storm called a hurricane?

A. When it begins in the Atlantic and Caribbean seas.
B. When its winds reach 74 miles per hour.
C. When it is more than 74 miles wide.
D. When it hits the Coastline.
2. What is the worst thing about hurricanes?
A. The terrible effects of water. B. The heat they give off.
C. That they last about nine days. D. Their strong winds.
3. Here the underlined word “downpour” means______
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A. heavy rainfall B. dangerous waves
C. the progress of water to the hurricane center D. the increasing heat
4. Which of the following statements about a hurricane is NOT true?
A. It travels more than 75 miles per hour.
B. It usually stays about nine days.
C. It usually causes 6 to 12 inches downpour.
D. It sometimes brings the sea water level to the height of 15 feet.
5. Hurricanes often cause ______?
A. a lot of damage B. sudden floods
C. death to large numbers of people D. All are correct
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Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.
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Only ……………………………………………………….…………………………………………
h.
2. House prices have risen sharply this year.
There has ……………………………………………………….……………………………………
3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
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Had it not ……………………………………………………….……………………………………
4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?
I’d rather ……………………………………………………….……………………………………
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5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.

He broke ……………………………………………………….……………………………………
6. I write to him almost every day.
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Hardly ……………………………………………………….………………………………………
7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
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All dogs are ……………………………………………………….…………………………………

8. Don’t go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.
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Make sure you finish ……………………………………………………….………………………

9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
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The annual ……………………………………………………….…………………………………

10. Henry regretted buying the second - hand car.
Henry wishes ……………………………………………………….………………………………
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
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3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
4. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. NEITHER
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
5. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Mother/ take/ responsibility/ run/ household.
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
2. ASEAN / have/ population/ 575.5 million/ account/ 8.7 %/ the world’s population.
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………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
3. It/ not/ until/ Einstein/ eight/ he/ can/ speak.
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
4. Defensive players / not/ allow/ interfere/ opponent’s movements/ unless/ player/ hold/ ball.
c
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
h.
5. Never/ stop/ try/ you/ get/ right solution/ problem.
………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
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- THE END -
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

(Tổng điểm: 100 điểm)
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)

I. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
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1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D
II. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C
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SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
h.
I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. C 2. A 3. C
an 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B
II. 10 pts: (Mỗi động từ chia đúng 1 điểm)
1. has come 6. is dedicated
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2. has been done 7. had our teacher entered

3. (should) be 8. will be waiting
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4. has finished 9. has created

5. was founded 10. couldn’t have been imagined
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III. 10 pts (Mỗi từ đúng 1 điểm)

1. stability 6. variety
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2. economically 7. indefensible
3. endangered 8. disobedient
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4. terrorist 9. attractiveness
5. destruction 10. unpredictable
IV. 10 pts (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. 10 pts: (Mỗi từ điền đúng cho 1 điểm)
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1. from 2. of 3. attack 4. who 5. as 6. place
7. following/ next 8. On 9.body 10. birthday
II. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 1 điểm)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B
III. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 1 điểm)
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)
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1. Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax.
2. There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year.
3. Had it not been for the attendance / presence/ appearance of a famous film star the
party would not have been a success/ would have been a failure.
c
4. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in my house.
h.
5. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt.
6. Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/ when I
don’t write to him.
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7. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.
8. Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch.
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9. - The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in) the
southeast.
- The annual rainfall in/ for the southeast of Britain is lower/ less than (that in) the
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northwest.
10. Henry wishes (that) he hadn’t bought the second - hand car.
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II. (5pts): (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. The two theories (appear to) have (got) nothing in common.
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2. I can’t/ won’t put up with his rude behaviour.

3. I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing
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4. He has neither money nor time to go on holiday.

5. A quiet holiday would do you good.
III. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)
1. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.
2. ASEAN has a population of 575.5 million, accounting for (about) 8.7 % of the world’s
population.
3. It was not until Einstein was eight that he could speak.
4. Defensive players aren’t allowed to interfere with the opponent’s movements unless
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the (that) player is holding the ball.
5. Never stop trying until/ till you get the right solution to the problem.
- THE END -
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
HẢI DƯƠNG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012- 2013
************************ Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A hoặc B, C, D.
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
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(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gì.)
_______________________________________________________________
A. LISTENING: (15 points)

I. Listen to the conversation and then choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D for each question:
c
1. How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?
h.
A. less than three weeks B. three weeks
C. more than three weeks D. more than four weeks
2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because………………………..
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A. it is the end of the academic year
B. Hannah is a new student
C. the area has lots of new technology companies
D. the town is small
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3. £400 a month for rent is………………………..
A. higher than Hannah has paid before B. lower than Hannah has paid before
C. cheap for the area D. not cheap for the area
4. At the moment Hannah is living………………………..
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A. in a hostel B. in a guest house C. in a hotel D. in a flat

5. Hannah's new flat………………………..
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A. is a bit noisy B. is on the second floor C. has two bedrooms D. has a large roof terrace
II. Listen to the conversation and fill in each blank with ONE word:
I attend English classes at a language program in my city because I want to improve my (6) ………… skills.
ic
English has become the international language around the world, and I might be able to get better (7) ………… and
make more friends if I learn to speak it fluently. I take four classes a day that all (8) ………… on different language skills
including reading, writing, listening, speaking, and grammar. I think that some people have a (9) …………ability to pick
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up a language and master it, but I don't think I fit that group. (10) …………, learning to speak English well requires a
great amount of effort, (11) ………… and practice. Too often, students speak English in their classes, but they go back to
using their (12) ………… language after school ends. In fact, if you want to (13) ………….to a new culture, you should
make it a point to study, (14) …………, and practice everything you are studying. (15) …………, you will never learn and
fit into any group.
B. PHONETICS: (5 points)
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group:
16. A. responsibility B. originality C. accommodation D. mischievousness
17. A. appliance B. conscientious C. independent D. confidential
18. A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography
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19. A. stimulate B. maximize C. interrupt D. register

20. A. appointment B. punishment C. publicity D. efficient
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence: (15 points)
21. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.”
Laura: “………………………..”
A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible.
B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.
D. No doubt!
22. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?”
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Girl: “………………………..”
A. I'm afraid not. B. Worms, definitely!
C. Probably people who smoke. D. I haven't made up my mind.
23. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”
c
Mr. Robinson: “………………………..”
A. You can say that again. B. I see.
h.
C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help.
24. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
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25. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt ………………………..
A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out
26. Most psychologists believe that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is………………………..
A. well established extremely by the age of five
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B. by the age of five it is extremely well established

C. by the age of five and well established extremely
D. extremely well established by the age of five
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27. In most ……………………….. developed countries, up to 50% of ………………………..population enters higher

education at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a
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28. I wish you ……………………….. me a new one instead of having it………………………..as you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
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29. Henry was really a silly boy when we were at high school. I still remember………………………..very stupid questions.
A. him asking B. him to ask C. asking him D. his being asked
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30. ………………………..the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to
31. No sooner ………………………..to marry Jack ………………………..to have serious doubts.
A. had Carol agreed / than she began
B. Carol has agreed / than she began
C. had Carol agreed / than she begins
D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun
32. Having been served dinner, ……………………...
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem.
C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem.
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D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.

33. The marathon runner ……………………...for nearly one hour and a half when she ……………………...to the pavement.
A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed
C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing
34. Son: “What is the process of ……………………..., Dad?”
Father: “Well, it involves the heating of liquid such as milk in order to kill harmful bacteria.”
A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization
35. An artist ……………………...will do his best to express innocence and inexperience in the child’s face.
A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10 points)
36. Deforestation and excessive farming have ……………………... the soil. (POOR)
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37. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was……………………... by the (ESTIMATE)
government. The real figures go up every minute.
38. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…... background. (RACE)
39. From the hotel there is a……………………...view across the canyon. (BREATH)
c
40. The policeman examined the parcel ……………………... as he had no idea what it could be. (SUSPECT)
41. It was very ……………………...of you to notice that. (OBSERVE)
h.
42. In his …………………….., Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen. (FURIOUS)
43. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been ……………………... by (VALID)
an officially recognized body.
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44. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular ……………………... (ATTEND)
45. The government has yet to make an official ……………………...on the issue. (PRONOUNCE)
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points):
46. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.
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A B C D
47. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
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48. Children subjected to violence, exploitation , abuse and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical and mental
A B C
health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems.
ht
D
49. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A B C D
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50. A ten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner.
A B C D
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D. READING:
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space: (10 points)
Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is (51)…………...
and real. You don’t show your secret personality when you are (52)…………..., because you can control yourself.
But when you are asleep, your feeling position (53)…………...the real you. In a normal (54)…………..., of course,
people often change their position. The important position is the one you go to sleep in.
If you go to sleep on your back, you are a very (55)…………...person. You usually believe people and you
accept new things or new ideas easily. You don’t like to make people sad, so you never express your (56)
…………... feeling. You are quite shy.
If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secretive person. You (57)…………...a lot and you always
easily become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that you (58)…………...having a good
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time.
If you sleep curled up, you are probably a very (59)…………...person. You have a low opinion of yourself. You
are shy and don’t like meeting people. You (60)………….....to be on your own. You are easily hurt.
51. A. important B. serious C. secret D. particular
52. A. awake B. active C. happy D. honest
53. A. makes B. understand C. changes D. shows
54. A. room B. bed C. night D. body
55. A. independent B. open C. talkative D. generous
56. A. real B. lonely C. cheerful D. gentle
57. A. talk B. sleep C. relax D. worry
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58. A. regret B. enjoy C. mind D. deny
59. A. strong B. healthy C. nervous D. careful
60. A. pretend B. oppose C. refuse D. prefer
II. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do not need to use: (5 points)
c
A. legal C. responsibility E. serve G. organizations
h.
B. community D. give back F. long-term H. rare
an
Volunteering has many intangible benefits. It can help you (61) ……………………...to society, break down
barriers of misunderstanding or fear, explore personal issues and even have fun. It also has a meaningful, positive
impact on your (62)…………………….... But did you know that it can have many benefits for you, too? You may
have heard that volunteering helps you get into college, but keep in mind they are not just looking for a list of
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(63)……………………... and dates. Colleges want to see a complete picture of you and real examples of your
commitment, dedication and interests.
Volunteering brings together a variety of people. Both the recipients of your volunteer efforts and your co-
workers can be rich sources of insight. For example, maybe you’ll learn about the
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(64)……………………...profession from a former lawyer you visit at a convalescent center. Colleges pay attention
to your life inside and outside the classroom. Your extracurricular activities reveal a great deal about you, such as
what your interests are, whether you can manage your priorities and maintain a (65)……………………... promise
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and how you’ve made an important contribution to something.

III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer: (10 points)
ic
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for
people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often
overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
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One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans
need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a
typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called
the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the
sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes
contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and
other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit
from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop
gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting
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gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated
engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred
dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without
taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with
nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the
summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce
cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly,
leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city
dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone
can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
om
66. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
67. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ..................................
c
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
h.
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
68. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ..................................
an
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. a. only B. a. and b. only C. b. and c. only D. a., b., and c.
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69. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between
parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
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B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.

C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
ht
70. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ..................................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
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C. better food for city dwellers

D. improved air quality
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71. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they ..................................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
72. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as..................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
73. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop gardens
are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop garden.
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74. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
75. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that ..................................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
E. WRITING:
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I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it: (5 points)
76. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.
Unlike………………………………….........................................…………………………………………………………..
c
77. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
Had….........................................................................................................................................................................
h.
78. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
The Board of Directors had ......................................................................................................................................
79. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
an
On..............................................................................................................................................................................
80. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only......................................................................................................................................................................
81. It is my opinion that you should spend more time practicing English.
ng
If.................................................................................................................................................................................
82. Everyone was surprised that the famous actor had very little money when he died.
The famous actor.......................................................................................................................................................
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83. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The more....................................................................................................................................................................
84. “Get out of my house or I will shoot you”, the woman shouted at the strange man.
ht
The woman threatened.............................................................................................................................................

85. What mainly distinguishes man from other animals is the power of speech.
Man…………..............................................................................................................................................................
ic
II. After having attended a course on computing at ABC Information Technology Center for two weeks, you
notice that many things are worse than what were advertised by the Center. Write a letter of complaint of
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about 150 words to the Director of the Center: (10 points)

Your letter should include:
- the reason for writing
- the problems you have encountered
- your suggestions and the actions you wish to be taken to resolve the problems
Trong bài viết thí sinh phải dùng tên và địa chỉ sau:
Pham Hai Nam
19 Ly Nam De Street, Hai Duong City
III. Violence among school students seems to be increasing. Write a passage of about 150 – 170 words to
suggest what should be done to help solve this problem: (10 points)
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Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................. Số báo danh..........................

Họ và Tên, chữ ký Giám thị 1: .............................................................................
Họ và Tên, chữ ký Giám thị 2: ............................................................................
c om
h.
an
ng
ie
ht
ic
th
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SỞ GD&ĐT H−íng dÉn chÊm ®Ò thi häc sinh giái tØnh

HẢI DƯƠNG M«n TiÕng Anh - n¨m häc 2012-2013
************************
A. LISTENING (15 points)

Part I. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
1. A 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.B
Part II. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
6. communication 7. employment 8. focus 9. natural 10. Actually
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11. patience 12. native 13. adjust 14. review 15. Otherwise
B. PHONETICS (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY.
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
c
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A
h.
26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. A
II. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct word)
36. impoverished
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37. underestimated 38. multiracial 39. breathtaking 40. suspiciously
41. observant 42. fury 43. validated 44. attendance 45.
pronouncement
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III. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
46. D 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
D. READING
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
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51. C 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B

56. A 57. D 58. B 59. C 60. D
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II. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)

61. D 62. B 63. G 64. A 65. F
III. 10 points (1.0 points for each correct answer)
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66. C 67. A 68. C 69. D 70. A

71. C 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. B
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E. WRITING
I. 5 points ( 0.5 point for each correct answer)
76. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
77. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have invested
into some computer companies.
78. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but come to / reached / made no
decision.
79. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
80. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children.
, but she manages to look after her five children (as well)
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, she also manages to look after her five children.

81. If I were you I would spend more time practicing English.
82. The famous actor had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
, which made everyone surprised
83. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more successful you become / are in the academic
field.
, the more success you can / will make / have in the academic
field.
84. The woman threatened to shoot the strange man if he did not get out of her house.
85. Man is mainly distinguished from other animals by the power of speech.
om
II. 10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: - Form of the letter: Formal letter (1 point)
c
2. Content: (4 points)
- the reasons for writing (1 point)
h.
- the problems the writer has encountered (2 points)
- suggestions for solutions (1 point)
3. Language: (4p)
an
- Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
- Correct grammar (2 points)
- Punctuating/ Spelling (1 point)
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III. 10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
ie
1. Form: passage (2 points)

- Easy to follow
ht
- Coherent
2. Content: (4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
ic
3. Language: (4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
th
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point)

+ Correct grammar (2 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (0.5 point)
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UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A, hoặc B, C, D.
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Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu gì.)
A. LISTENING
c
I. Listen to an interview on transportation and fill in each of the blanks with NO
h.
MORE THAN 3 WORDS / NUMBERS (5.0 points).
Questio
ns How do you
an How far is it How long Are you ever Suggestions
get to from your does it take late because for improving
school? home to you to get to of the
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school? school? transportation transportatio
Names problems? n?
(2)________ 15 or 20 (4)_________ need more
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By bus
Mike __ minutes _ buses
need
ht
(5)________
(1)_______
Liz 20 miles It depends No __
ic
__
subway
system
th
Tom By bike A few blocks (3)_________ No

_
II. Listen to a conversation between Daphne and her father. Decide whether the
following statements are true (T) or false (F) (5.0 points).
T F
Page 1 of 13
6. Daphne is playing a computer game at the moment.

7. Daphne’s dad doesn’t know what an e-mail is.
8. Daphne’s dad thinks emails are cheap to send.
9. Telephone rates are cheaper after 6:00 pm.
10. Daphne’s dad would like to send an e-mail.
III. Listen to an announcement at a school fête and choose the best answer for the
following statements and questions (5.0 points).
11. The money will be spent on__________
om
A. school computers B. a new building C. the fête D. a new swimming
pool
12. What starts at 2 o’clock?
A. The fête. B. The county gymnastics
c
competition.
h.
C. The gymnastics display D. Fun and games
13. You can have a coffee break__________
an
A. in classroom 6 B. in classroom 7 C. in the sports hall D. in the front
playground
14. You can enter the three-legged race if you are__________
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A. a child with an adult B. a mum and a dad C. an aunt and an uncle D. an
adults over 18
15. You should buy your raffle tickets __________
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A. by 4.30 pm B. at 5 pm
C. when you enter the fête D. anytime before 5pm
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B. PHONETICS - GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

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I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the groups
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(5.0 points)
16. A. individual B. entertainment C. introduction D.

environment
17. A. knowledge B. miserable C. reaction D. accident
18. A. political B. yesterday C. ambulance D.
furniture
19. A. confidence B. minimize C. complaint D. imitate
20. A. company B. atmosphere C. customer
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D. employment
II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15
points)
21. Peter: “ I’ve got to go, Betty. So long." Betty: ” So long, Peter. And __________”
A. be careful B. don’t hurry C. take care D. don’t take
22. John: “How lovely your house is!” Jack: “__________”
A. I love it, too. B. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so.
C. Can you say that again. D. Really? It is.
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23. Mr. Thomson is one of the most distinguished scientists in his __________ .
A. matter B. field C. part D. place
24. There has been a great __________ in her English.
A. escalation B. rise C. increase D. improvement
c
25. The __________ of the general election will be known today.
h.
A. result B. decision C. effect D. choice
26. Released in 1915, __________
an
A. D.W Griffith’s made an epic film about the Civil War, Birth of a Nation.
B. the Civil War was the subject of D.W. Griffith’s epic film, Birth of a Nation.
C. D.W. Griffith’s epic film Birth of a Nation was about the Civil War.
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D. the subject of D.W. Griffith’s epic film Birth of a Nation was the Civil War.
27. As soon as you buy a car, it starts falling in __________.
A. cost B. worth C. value D. price
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28. Boy: “Would you say that English is a global language?” Girl: "__________ "
A. Yes, it has. B. I like it.
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C. I don’t understand the difference. D. Oh, absolutely.

29. The couple decided to __________ every month for their retirement.
ic
A. put some money away B. put some money aside

C. take up some money D. take some money away
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30.The taxi was so late reaching the station that my father __________ missed his train.
A. rarely B. immediately C. entirely D. almost
31.__________an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will
32.The doctor gave the patient __________ examination to discover the cause of his
collapse.
A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole
33.On __________ she had passed the exam, she jumped for joy.
Page 3 of 13
A. having told B. he was told C. being told D. telling

34. Henry: " __________ " John: "Nothing."
A. What do you do? B. What's new? C. How are you? D. Are
you a newcomer?
35. Sarah: "I am terribly sorry, Mr. Johnson. I won't be able to come to the office
tomorrow."
Mr. Johnson: " __________ "
A. Oh, that's annoying. B. Sounds like fun. C. Well, never mind. D. Great, Sarah.
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III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. (MYSTERY), the light came on though no one was near the switch.
37. Excessive (EXPOSE) to direct sunlight should of course be avoided.
c
38. The complete (RELEVANT) of this answer shows that the student did not read the
h.
question carefully.
39. Most birds (MIGRATORY) in the winter.
an
40. When a boy, Bob was a very (ATTEND) student and seemed to spend most of the time
looking out of the window.
41. Travelling gives young people opportunities to (DEPTH) their understanding of the
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world.
42. The living-room is littered with (DISCARD) newspapers.
43. The boys took part in the competition with great (ENTHUSIAST).
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44. Most young Americans want to lead a / an (DEPEND) life at the age of twenty.
45. (NEW) energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free.
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IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting:
(5.0 points)
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46. Visitors may realize that even though they can’t make their homes in Venice city, they
can take away with
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A B
them memories of their beauty.
C D
47. The news of the negotiations for a peace treaty between the two Presidents were received
with mixed emotions by
A B
C
the citizens of both countries .
Page 4 of 13
D
48. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with
the locals now.
A B C
D
49. The Girls Scouts, found by Juliette Gordon Low in 1912, has grown to a current
membership of more than
A B
C
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three million girls.
D
50. Americans annually import more than $ 3 billion worthy of Italian clothing, jewelry, and
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shoes.
A B C D
h.
C. READING an
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each
space: (10 points)
These days in business, people have to face many challenging questions when
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designing and implementing new projects in undeveloped areas of the countryside. One
issue which has to be faced is whether it is possible to introduce new technology without
destroying the local environment.
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Economic (51) __________and environmental conservation are often seen as

natural enemies. It is unfortunate that in the past this has often been true, and it has been
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necessary to choose between (52) __________the project or protecting the environment.

However, by taking environmental considerations (53) __________at an early stage in a
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project, companies can significantly reduce any impacts on local plants and animals.
For example, in southern Africa, a company called CEL was asked to put up 410 km
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of a power transmission line without disturbing the rare birds which inhabit that area. The
project was carried out with (54) __________disturbance last summer. What may surprise
many business people is the fact that this consideration for local wildlife did not in any way
(55) __________down the project. Indeed, the necessary advance planning (56)
__________with local knowledge and advanced technology, (57) __________that the
project was actually completed ahead of schedule. CEL was contracted to finish the job by
October and (58) __________to do so two months earlier.
CEL is one of those companies which is (59) __________ to the
Page 5 of 13
principle of environmental conservation. Many other companies have yet to be (60)

__________ of the importance of balancing the needs of people with those of the
environment. However, it may be the only realistic way forward.
51. A. development B. progression C. rise D. increase
52. A. running B. dealing C. controlling D. leading
53. A. deeply B. gravely C. seriously D. severely
54. A. bare B. smallest C. least D. minimal
55. A. turn B. slow C. speed D. hold
56. A. tied B. combined C. added D. related
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57. A. led B. caused C. resulted D. meant
58. A. managed B. succeeded C. achieved D. fulfilled
59. A. promised B. persuaded C. convicted D. committed
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60. A. argued B. convinced C. urged D. impressed
II. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words provided in the box,
h.
choose the most suitable for each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do
not need to use (5 points).
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A. But C. bad E. help G. benefit
B. need D. true F. good H. Indeed
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In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year
than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this necessarily a (61) __________
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thing? For years, newspaper reports have been saying that children who spend too much
time playing computer games become unsociable, bad- tempered, even violent as a result.
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But new research, carried out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may
be (62) __________.
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(63) __________, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of
all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games make
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the brain work harder in certain ways, like imagining sounds and movements quickly and
identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly means that they
get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed.
Social skills may (64) __________, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of
first- person shooter games such as “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it
comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this helps them to make good friendships
and become strong members of their communities. So rather than giving up computer
games, perhaps young people (65) __________ to spend more time on them?
Page 6 of 13
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (10 points).
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new
ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a
second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “ Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in
blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food
restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is
wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and reuse cups
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and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality
appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more
resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys high-quality appliance that
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can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way,
if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important
h.
message to manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable
an
bottles. After customers empty the bottles, they can return them to the store. The
manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The
energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world,
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returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps
have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step is to recycle. Spent motor oil cans can be cleaned and used again.
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Aluminum cans are costly to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and
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recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
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A. what is involved in the recycling movement.

B. what people often understand about the term “recycle”.
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C. how to live sensitive to the environment.

D. how to reduce garbage disposal.
67. The word “sensitive” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________
A. responding B. logical C. cautious D. friendly
68. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT__________.
A. buy high-quality product
B. buy fewer hamburgers
C. buy simply-wrapped things
Page 7 of 13
D. reuse cups
69. Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because they have to be repaired many times
B. Because they produce less energy.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because people will soon throw them away
70. What is the best description of the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
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C. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
D. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
71. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic
because__________
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A. each returned bottle is paid. B. people are ordered to return bottles
h.
C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic D. returned bottles are few
72. The word “practice” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________
A. drill
an B. exercise C. deed D. belief
73. The energy used to make a can is __________the energy used to run a color TV set
for 3 hours.
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A. more than B. less than
C. as much as D. not worth being compared to
74. The word “precious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
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A. natural B. substantial C. first D. invaluable

75. Which statement is true according to the passage?
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A. It's imppossible to recycle aluminum.

B. Aluminum is one resource that needs to be saved.
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C. Aluminum is a lasting resource.

D. It's cheap to make aluminum cans.
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D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it (5 points).
Page 8 of 13
76. The cost of living has gone up considerably in the past few years.
- There
.................................................................................................................................................
............
77. Their chances of success are small.
- It is
.................................................................................................................................................
...............
78. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
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- It
.................................................................................................................................................
...................
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79. Most people can understand Tom when he speaks Vietnamese.
- Tom can make
h.
...............................................................................................................................................
80. We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for his contribution to the cause of the
national liberation.
an
- We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for what
...................................................................................
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II. Use the suggested words and phrases below to make complete sentences of a
passage(10 points).
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81. Come / enjoy / three hundred years / history / single day!

82. Highfield House / one / Britain's finest old buildings / attractive / well-kept gardens /
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good view / beautiful North Norfolk coast.

83. Until recently / it / home / members / Highfield family.
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84. Now / however / this classic 18th century hall / living museum / full /art / history.
85. There / so many attractions / from beautiful rooms / peaceful picnic places / by / lake.
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86. You can even / trip / water / if / weather / suitable.

87. Enjoy / guided tour / House / start / the grandeur of the entrance / carry on through /
various rooms.
88. tour / House / end / old kitchen / where valuable antique tools / display.
III. It is said that modern technology makes it easier for students to learn. Do you
agree or disagree with the statement? Write an essay of about 180 – 200 words to
support your opinion (10 points)
Page 9 of 13
---------THE END---------
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................Số báo

danh...........................
Họ và tên, chữ ký Giám thị
1:........................................................................................................
Họ và tên, chữ ký Giám thị
2:........................................................................................................
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h.
an
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Page 10 of 13
UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
A. LISTENING: (15 points)
I. (5.0 p): 1 point for each correct answer:
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1. by car / drive 2. five / 5 miles 3. fifteen / 15 minutes
4. Yes 5. a better
II. (5.0 p): 1 point for each correct answer:
c
6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. T
h.
III. (5.0 p): 1 point for each correct answer:
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A
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B. PHONETICS: (5.0 points)
1 point for each correct answer:
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D
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C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTION:

I. (15 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A
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26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D

31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C
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II. (10 points): 1 point for each correct answer:

36. MYSTERIOUSLY 37. EXPOSURE 38. IRRELEVANCE 39. MIGRATE
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40. INATTENTIVE 41. DEEPEN 42. DISCARDED 43. ENTHUSIASM.

44. INDEPENDENT 45. RENEWABLE
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III. (5.0 points): 1 point for each correct answer:

46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50.
C
D. READING:
51. A 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. B
56. B 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. B
II. (5 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
Page 11 of 13
61. C 62. F 63. H 64. G 65. B

III. (10 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
66. A 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. C 74. D 75. B
E. WRITING:
76. - There has been a considerable increase / rise in the cost of living in the past few
years.
77. - It is unlikely that they will succeed / will be successful.
om
- It is likely that they will not succeed / will not be successful.
78. - It has been suggested that income tax should be abolished.
79. - Tom can make himself understood when he speaks Vietnamese.
c
80. - We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for what he contributed to / what he did
for the cause of the national liberation.
h.
II. (10 points)
81. Come and enjoy three hundred years of history in a single day! (1.0 p)
an
82. Highfield House is one of Britain's finest old buildings (1.0 p) with attractive, well-kept
gardens and a good view of the beautiful North Norfolk coast. (1.0 p)
83. Until recently, it was the home of the members of the Highfield family. (1.0 p)
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84. Now, however, this classic 18th century hall is a living museum (which is) full of art and
history. (1.0 p)
85. There are so many attractions from the beautiful rooms to the peaceful picnic places /
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such as the beautiful rooms and the peaceful picnic places by the lake.(1.0 p)
86. You can even have / make / take a trip on the water if the weather is suitable. (1.0 p)
ht
87. Enjoy a guided tour of the House, starting with the grandeur of the entrance (1.0 p), and
carry on through the various rooms. (1.0 p)
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88. The tour of the House ends in the old kitchen where / in which valuable antique tools
are display. (1.0 p)
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III. (10 points):

1. Form: essay (1.0 points)
+ include 3 parts:
- introduction
- body
- conclusion
2. Organization: (10 points)
- easy to follow
Page 12 of 13
- coherent
3. Content: (4.0 points):
- successful fulfillment of the task with important ideas and relevant details
4. Language: (4.0 points)
- a variety of structures and sentences patterns
- appropriate vocabulary
- suitable connectors
- correct grammar
- correct punctuating / spelling
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---------THE END---------
c
h.
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Page 13 of 13
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015
Ngày thi: 24 tháng 9 năm 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
MÃ SỐ
ĐIỂM CHỮ KÍ CỦA GIÁM KHẢO
PHÁCH
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Bằng số Bằng chữ GIÁM KHẢO 1 GIÁM KHẢO 2
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h.
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề này có 09 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi)
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.....................................................................................
A. LISTENING (2M)
I. You will hear an interview with a scientist. For questions 1-5, complete the sentences.
Robert Jackson works with 1.................... to develop environmental programmes. Some
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pollution was caused by 2................ which no longer exist.
Burning 3.......in this area has added to global warming. They create 4............... after the soil
and water have been cleaned. The area should recover from the problem 5..................
1......................
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2.....................
3.....................
4.....................
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5.....................
II. Listen to the presentation. Match the ad with the technique it uses.
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1. Ben’s Diner A. links the product with positive ideas.

2. Seattle Security B. claims the product is very popular
3. Robertson’s Black C. gives key information over and over again
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4. Sparks Body Refresher D. focuses on feelings and emotions

5. Arizona Rodeo E. makes people laugh
1......................
2.....................
3.....................
4.....................
5.....................
B. READING (6M)
I. You are going to read a magazine article about friendship. Seven sentences have been
removed from the article.
Page 1
Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (1-6). There is one extra
sentence which you do not need to use.
A. They spent all their weekends together, and several evenings a week too .
B. There is much less time each day and each week to 'feed' the friendship, to prevent it from
dying.
C. For one production, she and another woman called Carol had to work very closely together
on the script.
D. It's actually very difficult to sustain this number of friends into adulthood.
E. Because of this, I'm now much more careful about the friends I choose.
F. They enjoy each other's company while they're working together, but they don't really
socialize outside of the working environment.
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G. Real friends are actually incredibly hard to find.
H. For this way of viewing friendship to be successful, it requires both people in the
relationship to feel the same way about the other person.
A FRIEND IN NEED...
It's fairly easy to define what a relative is. It's a person you're biologically related to, or who
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has married someone you are biologically related to, or has been adopted, for example, by
someone you're biologically related to. In short, it's someone in your family. It's not quite
h.
so easy to define what a friend is.
On an obvious level, our friends are people who are not family members whose company we
enjoy. However, what about two people who work closely together in an office? 0. ....F...
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Are they friends, or just colleagues? And consider two people who were best friends at
school, but haven't been in contact with each other for over twenty 'years. Are they still
friends? Or should we say they used to be friends but aren't any more?
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'So what?', you might say. 'Perhaps friendship is tricky to define, but that doesn't matter. If
you think you're friends with someone then you are, but if you don't then you're not.' In many
cases, that might be a good general rule, but there are potential problems with it. 1. .............
There are countless examples of relationships where that doesn't happen.
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Take Jane, for example. She joined an amateur dramatics club, which puts on plays two or
three times a year. 2............... They met several times a week, and frequently called each
other on the phone. As Jane says: 'I enjoyed working with Carol, and we got on well together.
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It was really difficult when we'd finished the play, though. Carol still wanted to meet up and
chat regularly. I didn't, mainly because I just didn't have time. I've got a family and a busy
social life, and I wasn't looking for any more close friends. How do you tell someone who
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thinks they're your close friend that really they're not?'

A further problem is the issue of 'fair-weather friends'. These are people who you consider to
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be your friends, but prove themselves not to be when things get tough. Jake, for example,
thought that Dave was a really close friend. 3......... They both shared an interest in movies,
and had the same sense of humour. 'Everything was great,' says Jake, 'until my mother
became ill. It was a troubling time for me, and I got a bit depressed. I needed Dave to
give me some support, but he wasn't interested. He just disappeared.' What Jake needed, and
what Dave was not, was the kind of friend referred to in the saying 'a friend in need is a
friend indeed'. The idea behind this is that if you are still the friend of someone when they are
'in need', when they need something such as help from you, then you are a real friend. You're
not a 'fair-weather friend'. 4...................... Most adults say that they only have two or three
real friends - people they can totally rely on in difficult times.
Page 2
At school, children and teenagers often have one or two 'best friends' I but they also have a
wide circle of other friends - twenty or thirty is not uncommon. 5. ...................... The main
reasons for this are time and shared experience. Children see their friends every day (during
term time) and have plenty of opportunity to 'feed' the friendship - in class, during the breaks,
after school. Also, of course, all the members of the group live close together, and have a
shared interest (the school and what happens there). With adults, this is rarely possible.
6......................
And, of course, people move apart geographically when they grow up, and lose the sense of a
shared interest when they start working in different fields, or spending their time in different
ways. Very few of our friends from school remain real, close friends twenty years later.
1.....................
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2.....................
3......................
4......................
5......................
6......................
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II. CLOZE-TEST
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
h.
CIVIL SERVANTS
In countries around the world, there are literally millions of people who work for the national
and (1)...................... government. From the post office to the office of the President, civil
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servants keep the government's (2)...................... running.
Many people would like to go for a civil service (3)......................, and for good reason.
Government (4)...................... usually enjoy a variety of (5)..................... including health
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insurance, paid holiday leave and (6)...................... funds. They have good annual
(7)..................... , are always paid extra for doing (8)...................... and are sometimes even
rewarded with bonuses for making useful (9)...................... !
Civil service jobs are usually permanent; rarely are workers (10)...................... redundant.
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Applicants who apply for a (11)...................... in the civil service must (12)...................... in
an application form and pass an examination before they can be selected and appointed to a
job.
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1. A. topical B. nearby C. local D. close

2. A. officers B. services C. franchises D. research
3. A. commission B. occupation C. accommodation D. career
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4. A. assistants B. employees C. applicants D. bosses

5. A. investments B. benefits C. debts D. experiences
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6. A. pension B. richness C. wealth D. fortune

7. A. winnings B. takings C. salaries D. gifts
8. A. gigs B. functions C. overtime D. work
9. A. suggestions B. profits C. performances D. ideas
10. A. made B. done C. taken D. forced
11. A. movement B. position C. motion D. location
12. A. write B. complete C. sign D. fill
1......................2......................3......................4......................5......................6......................
7.....................8......................9......................10.....................11.....................12.....................
III. OPEN-TEST
Page 3
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word
in each gap.
Ornithology
Ornithology, or the study of birds, attracts people from all kinds of background. It also
attracts a certain amount of ridicule. 'What can be (1)...................... exciting about going out
in all weathers looking at birds?' people tend (2) ......................say to me. Well, birds (3)
......................fascinated me since I was young and I would much (4)...................... go out in
the rain with my waterproofs and binoculars than sit at home watching television.
For those who are still sceptical, (5)...................... sole solution is to get a book on birds, have
a quick look, and get out there. Seeing birds in (6) ......................natural environment is so (7)
......................more enjoyable if you know what you are looking at. You don't have to be an
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expert in order to get pleasure (8)...................... identifying species. Try to avoid making too
much noise or the birds will (9) .....................disturbed and flyaway and you won't succeed
(10)...................... seeing anything.
Oh, and you (11) ......................better take a waterproof jacket - just in case the weather turns
bad. Don't worry, though. It'll soon clear (12) ...................... and you'll be able to get on with
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the fascinating hobby of bird-watching.
1......................2......................3......................4......................5......................6......................
h.
7.....................8......................9......................10.....................11.....................12.....................
C. USE OF ENGLISH(6M)
I. WORD FORM: Give the correct form of word given
an The Inventor of the Bar Code
Although you may never have heard of Joe Woodland,
you almost certainly use his invention on a (0) ......daily............ DAY
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basis. For Joe was the man who came up with the idea of
the bar code - that little box containing parallel lines of (1) REGULAR
...................... width and (2) ...................... that you find on LONG
the packaging of most products that are offered for sale at retail
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(3) ......................worldwide. Joe Woodland actually invented LET

the bar code way back in 1949, when the manager of a
supermarket in Philadelphia asked him to design an electronic
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(4) ......................system which would be both simple and CHECK

effective. The purpose of the bar code is to store (5) CODED
......................information about the product, which (6) POTENTIAL
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.....................speeds up the process of recording sales and

restocking the shelves.
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Joe's (7) ......................came from Morse code and he formed INSPIRE

his first barcode in the sand on the beach one day. The idea
was way ahead of its time however, and didn't find any
immediate practical (8) ......................Convinced that the APPLY
system was (9) .....................with further development, WORK
however, Woodland didn't give up. It was the (10) ARRIVE
......................of laser gun technology decades later which
allowed Joe's invention to come into everyday use.
1..........................2..........................3...........................4...........................5......................
Page 4
6..........................7..........................8...........................9...........................10.....................
II. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. I wonder if this dress fits. I'll try it....................... and see.
2. 'Did you enjoy the concert last night with Liz?' 'We didn't go. I waited an hour, but Liz
didn't turn ......................
3. Don't spend the money you won. Why don't you put it ...................... until you have
enough to buy something you really want?
4. I was ill for two weeks, so I've fallen ......................with my work.
5. This painting can't possibly be an original. I think we've been taken .......................
1......................2......................3......................4.....................5......................
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III. For questions 1-15, read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the
lines are correct and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct,
put a tick ( ) in the margin on the right. If a line has a word which should not be there,
underline the word and write it on the margin on the right. There are two examples at
the beginning (0 and 00).
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SCHOOL REUNIONS
0 . The idea of school reunions has always been popular in .................
h.
00. the United States, where people see their former classmates every ......every.....
1. once a year. Apparently, the idea has also caught it on in ....................
2. England since there are several them announced in the .....................
3.
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newspapers every day. From many people's point of view, school .....................
4. reunions are for those who like to show off or cannot .....................
5. make their friends easily. When a person leaves .....................
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6. from school, a new chapter in their life is about to . .....................
7. begin. It is much more better to keep a few school friends .....................
8. that you really like rather than it is to contact .....................
9. with those that you did not really care about .....................
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10. them. Of course, it is only natural to wonder what .....................

11. your old schoolmates have achieved and how they have .....................
12. changed but, in most cases, they are not just the same . .....................
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13. as they were at school. They are probably still .....................

14. tell the same awful jokes and stories. I have not .....................
15. seen most of my schoolmates again since I was at .....................
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school and I do not really want to.

IV. Choose the best answer to complete each sentences
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1. He believed that promotion should be awarded on ......................,not on length of service.

A. equality B. merit C. characteristics D. purpose
2. Many married woman in the survey said they lacked time to ...................... an interest.
A. chase B. conduct C. proceed D. pursue
3. Even at that early state the school felt that she ...................... a good chance of passing her
exams.
A. possessed B. gained C. stood D. took
4. The thief's girlfriend was ...................... with helping him.
A. accused B. blamed C. charged D. threatened
5. This is ...................... the most difficult job I have ever had to do.
A. by far B. by chance C. by heart D. by myself
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6. ...................... of the play introduces the cast of characters and hints at the plot.
A. The act first B. First act C. Act one D. Act first
7. They are happily married although, of course, they argue .....................
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion
8. There wasn't a ...................... of truth in what he said.
A. ray B. lump C. grain D. pinch
9. Oh bother, ...................... the bus I wanted to catch!
A. there goes B. it's left C. wherever D. owing to
10. I left at 5.30,......................they were still arguing.
A. at the time B. all the time C. just in time D. at which time
1......................2......................3......................4......................5......................
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6.....................7......................8......................9......................10.....................
D. WRITING (4M)
I. Write an essay describing the advantages and disadvantages of having a gap year
between leaving school and starting university to work or earn money. Write your essay
(200-250 words).
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II. The charts illustrate the results of a world online survey on optimism and happiness
conducted in 2005.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
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comparisons where necessary. Write at least 150 words.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH THPT
NĂM 2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Đề thi Nói)
Ngày thi: 24/9/2014
BẢNG TỔNG HỢP
Quy định chung cho các thí sinh trong phần thi Speaking:
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- Thí sinh không được đề cập đến các thông tin cá nhân (như, tên, lớp, trường, …) trong phần trả
lời, không được tạo ra các tiếng động nhằm đánh dấu phần thi của mình. Nếu vi phạm là phạm
quy.
- Thí sinh cần nói to, rõ ràng khi ghi âm bài thi.
c
- Khi hệ thống bắt đầu ghi âm, thí sinh phải đọc mã số đề thi, nội dung của câu hỏi trong
đề thi bằng tiếng Anh trước khi bắt đầu trả lời.
h.
CHỦ ĐỀ:
1. "Education is the best investment in children's future". Do you agree or disagree? Get
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ready to talk to an audience about this issue.
2. How do you study English skills? Get ready to talk to an audience about your methods of
studying English skills?
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3. "There is often a generation gap in an extended family". Get ready to talk to an audience
about the common conflicts in this kind of family.
4. What do your parents expect from you? Get ready to talk to an audience about their
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expectation and what you intend to do to satisfy them.

5. There is a saying: "Money can't buy happiness, but it can help!" Do you agree? Get ready
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to talk to an audience about this saying.

6. Some people believe that parents should use corporal punishment, others say parents
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should use loving guidance in educating their children. Get ready to talk about your
viewpoint.
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7. Which life do you prefer, the life in a big city or the life in the countyside? Get ready to
talk to an audience about your viewpoint.
8. It has been said, "Not all learning takes place in the classroom." In your opinion,
which source is more important? Why?
9. Some students prefer to attend a small university. Others prefer to attend a big
university. Which type of university do you prefer? Use specific reasons to support
your answer.
Page 10
10. Some people think that they can learn better by themselves than with a teacher. Others
think that it is always better to have a teacher. What is your viewpoint?
11. With the help of technology, students nowadays can learn better and more quickly. Do
you agree or disagree? Give reasons and examples to support your answer.
12. Some people like to do only what they already do well. Other people prefer to try
new things and take risks. Which do you prefer? Use specific reasons to support your
choice.
13. Many teachers assign homework to students every day. Do you think that daily
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homework is necessary for students? Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.
14. A foreign visitor has only one day to spend in your country. To you, where should
this visitor go on that day? Why? Use specific reasons to support your choice.
15. Many students have to live with roommates while going to school or university. What are
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the important qualities of a good roommate? Explain why these qualities are important.
h.
16. In your opinion, what is the most important characteristic that a person can have to be
successful in life? Use specific reasons to explain your answer.
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17. It is more important for students to study history and literature than it is for them
to study science and mathematics. Do you agree or disagree with the following
statement? Give specific reasons.
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18. Some young children spend a great amount of their time practicing sports. Discuss
the advantages and disadvantages of this. Use specific reasons to support your answer.
19. Children should be required to help with household chores as soon as they are able
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to do so. Do you agree or disagree ? Use specific reasons to support your answer.
20. Some people believe that students should be given one long vacation each year.
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Others believe that students should have several short vacations throughout the year.
Which viewpoint do you agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to support
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your choice.
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21. It is generally acknowledged that families are now not as close as they used to be.
Give possible reasons and your recommendations.
22. Millions of people every year move to English-speaking countries to study at
school, college or university. Why? Give reasons for your answer.
23. As computers are being used more and more in education, there will be soon no
role for teachers in the classroom. You should give reasons for your answer.
Page 11
24. Studying the English language in an English-speaking country is the best but not
the only way. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your
answer.
---Hết---
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH
A. LISTENING (2M)
0.2 M / 1 CORRECT ANSWER
c
I. You will hear an interview with a scientist. For questions 1-5, complete the sentences.
1. (local) councils/ councils all over the country
h.
2. factories
3. fossil fuels
4. nature reserves
5. within ten years
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II. Listen to the presentation. Match the ad with the technique it uses.
1. C
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2. D
3. A
4. E
5. B
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B. READING (6M)
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I. II. III.
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1. H 1. C 1. so
2. C 2. B 2. to
3. A 3. D 3. have
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4. G 4. B 4. rather
5. the
5. D 5. B
6. their
6. B 6. A
7. much
7. C
8. from
8. C 9. be
9. A 10. in
10. A 11. had
11. B 12. up
12. D
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C. USE OF ENGLISH
I.
1. irregular
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2. length
3. outlets
4. checkout
5. encoded
6. potentially
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7. inspiration
h.
8. application(s)
9. workable
10. arrival
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II.
l.on
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2. up
3. aside
4. behind
5. in
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III.
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SCHOOL REUNIONS
0. The idea of school reunions has always been popular in .................
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00. the United States, where people see their former classmates every ......every.....
1. once a year. Apparently, the idea has also caught it on in .......it...........
2. England since there are several them announced in the .....them.......
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3. newspapers every day. From many people's point of view, school ....... .........
4. reunions are for those who like to show off or cannot ....... .........
5. make their friends easily. When a person leaves .....their........
6. from school, a new chapter in their life is about to ......from......
7. begin. It is much more better to keep a few school friends ......more......
8. that you really like rather than it is to contact .......rather....
9. with those that you did not really care about .......with......
10. them. Of course, it is only natural to wonder what .......them......
11. your old schoolmates have achieved and how they have ....... .........
12. changed but, in most cases, they are not just the same ......not.........
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13. as they were at school. They are probably still ......are.........

14. tell the same awful jokes and stories. I have not ........ ........
15. seen most of my schoolmates again since I was at ......again......
school and I do not really want to.
IV. 0.2M/ 1 CORRECT ANSWER

1. B
2. D
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3. C
4. C
5. A
6. C
c
7. C
8. C
h.
9. A
10. D
D. WRITING
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I. 2M
FOR AGAINST
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Arguments Arguments
1. time to think about future 1. distracted from studies
2. have new experiences 2. delay completing education
3. earn money 3. ......................
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Justifications Justifications
1. make sure you are on right career path 1. problems applying yourself studies on
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2. improve confidence, broaden mind, learn return

new skills 2. delay starting career
3. pay towards education 3. ......................
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Find linkers in the model which:

• introduce/list advantages
To start with, Secondly, Finally......................
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• introduce/list disadvantages
Firstly, Secondly......................
• add points
In addition, what is more..
• show contrast
However, On the other hand
• conclude
Overall, all in all......................
MODEL:
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Many young people these days take a year off in between leaving school and starting
university. 'Gap years', as they have come to be known, are seen as a time out from studying
to gain life experience, reassess goals, broaden horizons, travel and perhaps earn some
money. However, is it worth taking a year off or is it a complete waste of time?
There are a number of advantages to taking a gap year. To start with, a break from studying
can give you time to think about your future and make sure you are on the right career path.
Secondly, having new experiences can improve your confidence and broaden your mind. In
addition, any work experience you gain will help your career prospects later and give you the
opportunity to learn new skills. Finally, any money you earn could go towards paying for
your education once you return to studying.
On the other hand, there are also some disadvantages to taking a year off studying. Firstly,
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the time away may have distracted you from your studies and you may have problems
applying yourself to your studies on your return to student life. Secondly, delaying
completing your education means that you delay starting your career and therefore delay
earning a living, which may put you at a disadvantage with your peers.
Overall, there are a number of strong points both for and against taking a gap year. However,
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I feel that the pros outweigh the cons and as long as you make the most of your time off you
will benefit greatly in terms of experience and skills.
h.
II. (2M)
Check the following:
• content - have students answered the question fully?
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• organization and cohesion - with the corrections, is their answer easy to read?
• range - have they used a wide range of vocabulary and grammar?
• accuracy - have they checked your spelling?
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th
Page 15
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h.
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The bar charts show the responses to a worldwide online questionnaire on how optimistic
people felt in 2005 and what was most important for their happiness.
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The most striking feature of the charts is that although the responses were fairly positive,
the results were less so than in 2004.
The first bar chart shows that the majority (nearly 50%) felt the same as the year before,
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though there was approximately a 5% drop in confidence. In comparison, only about 35% of
people felt better about the year ahead, (an approximate 10%drop from the year before) while
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nearly 20% were more pessimistic, an increment of 5%.

In the second bar chart, by far the most popular answer given was health. About 76% of
respondents said this was necessary for their happiness.
Next in popularity was the need for good family relations. Just over 60% of people specified
this.
People's job are obviously also important for their happiness as job satisfaction and security
received around 40% and 20% of the vote respectively.
Least popular, and both receiving about 15%of the vote, were material possessions and
leisure activities.
In conclusion, it is clear that people do not appear to connect money with happiness.
Page 16
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h.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH THPT
th
NĂM 2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Đề thi SPEAKING)
Ngày thi: 25/9/2014
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI
Tiêu chí đánh giá

1. Độ lưu loát, mạch lạc, chặt chẽ (30%, 0.6đ)
- Trình bày lưu loát (20%, 0.4đ)
+ Không dừng quá lâu (0.1đ)
Page 17
+ Không ngập ngừng quá nhiều (0.1đ)

+ Ngắt giọng hay tạm dừng đúng chỗ (0.1đ)
+ Ít lặp lại (0.1đ)
- Bố cục mạch lạc, chặt chẽ (10%, 0.2đ)
+ Sử dụng trôi chảy và đa dạng (0.1đ)
các liên từ, phản biện
+ Có đầy đủ 3 phần (0.1đ)
(mở bài, thân bài, kết luận)
2. Nội dung và độ chính xác (50%, 1đ)
- Nội dung (20%, 0.4đ)
+ Trả lời đúng trọng tâm câu hỏi,
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đi thẳng vào vấn đề. (0.2đ)
+ Phát triển câu trả lời đầy đủ
bằng cách cho ví dụ minh họa
hay giải thích để làm rõ ý. (0.2đ)
- Phát âm: (10%, 0.2đ)
c
+ Chuẩn, rõ ràng, nhấn đúng trọng âm (0.1đ)
+ Có ngữ điệu lên xuống phù hợp (0.1đ)
h.
- Từ vựng, ngữ pháp (20%, 0.4đ)
+ Từ vựng phong phú, chính xác,
phù hợp với chủ đề (0.2đ)
an
+ Ngữ pháp đa dạng (chia thì, dùng
câu phức thay vì quá nhiều câu đơn),
ít mắc lỗi. (0.2đ)
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3. Phong cách trình bày, diễn đạt (20%, 0.4đ)
- Trình bày tự nhiên, tự tin (0.2đ)
- Biết sử dụng kỹ năng diễn thuyết
thay vì kỹ năng đọc (0.2đ)
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Tổng số điểm nói: 2đ

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Lưu ý: Quy định chung cho các thí sinh trong phần thi Speaking:
- Thí sinh không được đề cập đến các thông tin cá nhân (như, tên, lớp, trường, …) trong
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phần trả lời, không được tạo ra các tiếng động nhằm đánh dấu phần thi của mình. Nếu vi
phạm là phạm quy.
th
Page 18
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
THÁI BÌNH
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
(Đề gồm 05 trang; Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm vào Phiếu TLTN,
Thí sinh làm phần viết vào giấy thi)
Mã đề: 135
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 POINTS)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
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the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. allegedly B. supposedly C. confusedly D. wickedly

Question 2: A. admiral B. adventure C. advocate D. advent
c
h.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. extravagant B. distinctively C. fundamental D. dilapidated

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Question 4: A. mysterious B. original C. elaborate D. necessary
Question 5: A. rental B. canal C. dental D. sandals
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
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Question 6: Ann: “Where’s Polly?” John: “She is in her room ______.”
A. studying B. is studying C. studies D. has studied

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Question 7: ______Everglades is a large, low, wet region in the southern part of the US state of Florida.
A. The B. θ C. An D. Some
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Question 8: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter.
A. to lose leaves B. when leaves have lost C. that the loss of leaves D. the leaves are lost
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Question 9: I called Jenny yesterday with a view ______ asking her about the project.
A. to B. of C. in D. for
Question 10: Pam broke her arm in the accident. It would have been much worse if she ______her seat belt at that time.
A. hadn’t worn B. hadn’t been for C. hadn’t been wearing D. had been wearing
Question 11: Having opened the bottle, ______ for everyone.
A. the drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink
C. Mike pouring the drink D. the drink was being poured
Trang 1/34 - Mã đề thi 135

Question 12: He said there was nothing that happened, but I began to _____ when he kept beating about the bush.
A. get cold feet B. smell a rat C. keep an eye on D. be off my head
Question 13: That he came up with all the ideas ______ a miracle to us.
A. were B. was C. to be D. have been
Question 14: My father gave me ______ as a birthday present on my birthday.
A. a digital useful alarm clock B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock D. a useful digital alarm clock
Question 15: It is a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She's very frail. I hope she______.
A. comes round B. gets away C. puts through D. pulls through
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Question 16: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ______ something terrible.
A. must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
c
Question 17: I don't suppose anyone will volunteer, ______?
h.
A. does he B. do I C. will they D. won’t they
Question 18: The knee is _______ most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury.
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A. to be damaged more than likely B. more likely to be damaged than
C. likely to be more than damaged D. more than likely to be damaged
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Question 19: He became a millionaire by ______ of hard work and a considerable amount of luck.
A. dint B. process C. cause D. effect
Question 20: Most whole milk undergoes homogenization, ______hot milk is pumped through valves to break up
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and permanently disperse the fat globules.
A. which process B. a process in which C. which is a process D. a process

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Question 21: He considers shares to be a good long- ______ investment.

A. length B. time C. term D. age
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Question 22: ______, the catfish is prized for its state.

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A. With ugly look B. As looking ugly C. As it is looking ugly D. Ugly looking as it is

Question 23: Lan: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
Mai: “______”
A. You are welcome. B. Mind your words.

C. You can say that again. D. Nothing more to say.
Question 24: Studies have shown that the elderly who are pet owners have lower blood pressure than ______ who
live without pets.
A. elderly B. do the elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correcting.
Question 25: Ducks are less susceptible to infection than another types of poultry.
A. another B. than C. to D. less
Question 26: Fiorello La Guadian made a speech to the United Nations Relief Administration, which he was the
director, stating that Europe experienced prosperity after the World War II.
A. he B. stating C. which D. made
Question 27: During our tour of the refinery, it was seen that both propane and gasoline were produced in large
volumes.
A. the refinery B. it was seen C. and D. in large volumes
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Question 28: The Concord can fly across the Atlantic without re-fueling and carrying 11 tons of freight.
A. The B. carrying C. freight D. across
Question 29: Televisions are now an every day feature of most households in the United States, and television
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viewing is the number one leisure activity.
h.
A. an every day feature B. leisure activity C. television viewing D. most households
Choose the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
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Question 30: Throughout history, the prevalent authority pattern in families has been patriarchy, in which males
are in control.
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A. extraordinary B. strange C. dominant D. uncommon
Question 31: I’d rather staying in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. conveniences B. honors C. privileges D. expense
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Question 32: Crime rates tend to fluctuate with the seasons, with much higher rates in the winter than in the summer.
A. accelerate B. decrease C. go up and down D. stay the same
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Choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Question 33: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
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A. thin B. significant C. obvious D. clear

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Question 34: Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.
A. impoverished B. wealthy C. well-off D. prosperous
Read the following passage taken from the Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary 8th, and mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 35 to 44.
SPORT AND FITNESS

The British are very fond of sport, but many people prefer to watch ___(35)___ take part. Many go to watch
football, cricket, etc. at the ground, but many more sit at home and watch sport on television. Most people today

take relatively___(36)___. Over the last 30 or 40 years lifestyles have changed considerably and many people now
travel even the shortest distances by car or bus. ___(37)___ exercise combined with eating too many ___(38)___
and sugary foods has meant that many people are becoming too fat. In recent years, however, there has been a
___(39)___ interest in fitness among young adults and many belong to a sports club or gym. In Britain most towns
have an/a ___(40)___ football and cricket team, and people also have opportunities to play sports such as tennis
and golf. Older people may play bowls. Some people go regularly to a sports center or leisure center. Some sports
centers ___(41)___ classes in aerobics, step and keep-fit. Some people ___(42)___ regularly at a local gym and do
weight training and circuit training. Others go running or jogging in their local area. For enthusiastic runners there
are opportunities to take part in ___(43)___ runs, such as the London marathon. Other people keep themselves fit
by walking or cycling. Many people go abroad on a skiing holiday each year. Membership of a sports club or gym
can be expensive and not everyone can afford the subscription. Local sports centers are generally cheaper. Some
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companies now provide sports facilities ___(44)___ their employees or contribute to the cost of joining a gym.
Question 35: A. to B. except for C. than D. rather than
c
Question 36: A. little general exercise B. a few general exercises
h.
C. a little general exercise D. few general exercises
Question 37: A. The lack of an B. Lack C. The lack D. Lack of
Question 38: A. fat B. rich C. fatty D. richly
Question 39: A. planting B. developing C. becoming D. growing
Question 40: A. professional B. well-known C. competent D. amateur
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Question 41: A. grow B. propose C. pass D. arrange

Question 42: A. work out B. full in C. cough up D. find out
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Question 43: A. distance away B. long-distance C. short-distance D. full distance

Question 44: A. to B. for C. with D. about
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Read the following passage taken from Baron’s The Leader In Test Preparation TOEFL iBT and mark the
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letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to
54.
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Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying in Central Asia. They
became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the sixteenth century onward, and, soon after,
part of European life as well. Holland, in particular, became famous for its cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown in the wild. The first
Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New Netherlands by the Dutch West India Company in
1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam (today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642
described the flowers that bravely colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-
life paintings of the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania

too, where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and Stately Palace”, its garden full of
tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots”. But the length of the
journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties. Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote
thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip bulbs from England, but his letter the following year grumbled
that they were all dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch immigrants who
quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch settlements, such as the one at Pella,
Iowa, they established a regular demand for European plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip
entrepreneur, the traveling salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick Van Der Schoot, spent six months in 1849
traveling through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were traveling from Europe to
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the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick English and Dutch settlers, North American plants
were traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips
dropped out of fashion in the gardens of the rich and famous.
c
Question 45: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
h.
A. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
B. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
an
C. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
D. How did tulips become popular in North America?
Question 46: The word "integral" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
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A. interesting B. overlooked C. fundamental D. ornamental

Question 47: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following regions?
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A. Western Europe B. India C. Central Asia D. North America

Question 48: The word "flourished" in line 8 is closest in meaning to ______.
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A. were marketed B. were discovered C. thrived D. combined

Question 49: The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland, Pennsylvania and Michigan in order to
ic
illustrate how ______.

A. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
th
B. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
C. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 50: The word "grumbled" in line 13 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. denied B. warned C. explained D. complained
Question 51: The passage mentions that one reason English and Dutch settlers planted tulips in their gardens was
that tulips ______.
A. were easy to grow B. made them appear fashionable

C. had become readily available D. reminded them of home
Question 52: The word "they" in line 17 refers to ______.
A. tulips B. immigrants C. plants D. plains
Question 53: According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English gardens during the
European settlement of North America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
B. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
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Question 54: The passage mentions which of the following as a problem associated with the importation of tulips
into North America?
A. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.
B. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
c
C. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.
h.
D. They often failed to survive the journey.
Read the following passage taken from Baron’s How to prepare for the TOEFL and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
an
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
According to the controversial sunspot theory, great storms on the surface of the sun hurl streams of solar
ng
particles into the atmosphere, causing a shift in the weather on earth.

A typical sunspot consists of a dark center umbra surrounded by a lighter penumbra of light and dark threads
extending out from the center like a spoke a wheel. Actually the sunspots are cooler than the rest of the
ie
photosphere, which may account for their color. Typically, the temperature in a sunspot umbra is about 4000 K.
Sunspots range in size from tiny granules to complex structures with areas stretching for billions of square
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miles. About 5% of the pots are large enough so that they can be seen without instruments: consequently,
observations of sunspots have been recorded for several thousand years.
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Sunspots have been observed in arrangements of one to more than one hundred spots, but they tend to occur in
pairs. There is also a marked tendency for the two spots of a pair to have opposite magnetic field associated with
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any given sunspots is closely related to the spot’s size.

Although there is no theory that completely explains the nature and function of sunspots, several models attempt
to relate the phenomenon to magnetic fields along the lines of longitude from the north and south poles of the sun.
Question 55: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?

A. To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots
B. To describe the nature of sunspots
C. To propose a theory to explain sunspots
D. To compare the umbra and the penumbra

Question 56: The word controversial in line 1 is closest to ______.
A. open to debate B. very complicated C. widely accepted D. just in traduce
Question 57: Solar particles are hurled into space by ______.
A. small rivers on the surface of the sun B. underdetermined causes
C. changes the earth’s atmosphere D. disturbances of wind
Question 58: The word particles in line 2 refers to ______.
A. gas explosions in the atmosphere B. small pieces
C. liquid streams on the sun D. light ray from the sun
Question 59: How can we describe matter from the sun that enters the earth’s atmosphere?
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A. Very small B. Very bright C. Very hard D. Very hot
Question 60: The sunspot theory is ______.
A. relatively new B. widely accepted
C. subject to disagreement D. not considered important
c
Question 61: The word they in line 7 refers to ______.
h.
A. pots B. miles C. granules D. Structures
Question 62: The word consequently in line 7 could best be replaced by ______.
A. Nevertheless
anB. In this way C. Without doubt D. As a result
Question 63: In which configuration do sunspots usually occur?
A. In a configuration of two spots B. In groups of several thousand spots
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C. In one spot of varying size D. In arrangements of one hundred or more spots

Question 64: How are sunspots explained?
A. Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.
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B. Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.

C. Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.
ht
D. Sunspots appear to be related to magnetic fields on the earth.

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SECTION B: WRITING (4 POINTS)

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Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
Question 65. I rarely sleep in the afternoon.
I’m not in …………………………………………………………………………………
Question 66. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night.
My grandfather didn’t have ………………………………………………………………
Question 67. My brother-in-law is the most exasperating person I’ve ever met.
I’ve yet ……………………………………………………………………......................

Question 68. Tim spoke to his lawyer before signing the contract.
Tim didn’t ………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 69. His love increases with his admiration for her.
The more …………………………………………………………………………………
Part II. Students should have freedom to choose their own subjects in the National examination
for Upper Secondary Education. Do you agree or disagree? Write a paragraph of about
140 words to support your answer.
_____ THE END_____
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
THÁI BÌNH
c
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
h.
an
Mã đề: 213

ng
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Question 1: A. allegedly B. confusedly C. wickedly D. supposedly

Question 2: A. admiral B. advent C. adventure D. advocate
ht
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Question 3: A. original B. elaborate C. mysterious D. necessary

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Question 4: A. extravagant B. fundamental C. distinctively D. dilapidated

Question 5: A. dental B. canal C. rental D. sandals
questions.
A. that the loss of leaves B. when leaves have lost C. the leaves are lost D. to lose leaves

A. to be damaged more than likely B. more than likely to be damaged
C. likely to be more than damaged D. more likely to be damaged than
A. had been wearing B. hadn’t been wearing C. hadn’t worn D. hadn’t been for
live without pets.
A. elderly B. do the elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly

A. a digital useful alarm clock B. a useful alarm digital clock
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C. an alarm useful digital clock D. a useful digital alarm clock
A. will they B. do I C. does he D. won’t they
c
h.
A. were B. was C. to be D. have been
A. keep an eye on
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B. get cold feet C. be off my head D. smell a rat
A. As looking ugly B. As it is looking ugly C. Ugly looking as it is D. With ugly look
ng
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C. should have experienced D. must have experienced

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A. which is a process B. a process C. a process in which D. which process

ic
th
Mai: “______”
A. You are welcome. B. Mind your words.

C. You can say that again. D. Nothing more to say.
A. for B. of C. to D. in

A. length B. time C. term D. age
A. Mike poured the drink B. Mike pouring the drink
C. the drink was poured D. the drink was being poured
A. An B. Some C. The D. θ
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A. studying B. has studied C. is studying D. studies
c
h.
an
A. which B. he C. made D. stating
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A. leisure activity B. an every day feature C. most households D. television viewing
A. The B. carrying C. freight D. across
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A. less B. to C. than D. another
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volumes.
ic

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are in control.
A. uncommon B. dominant C. extraordinary D. strange

A. accelerate B. decrease C. stay the same D. go up and down

A. conveniences B. honors C. privileges D. expense
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. significant
A. well-off B. wealthy C. impoverished D. prosperous
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SPORT AND FITNESS
c
h.
an
ng
ie
ht
Question 35: A. except for B. than C. rather than D. to

ic
Question 36: A. few general exercises B. a few general exercises
C. a little general exercise D. little general exercise

th
Question 37: A. Lack of B. Lack C. The lack of D. The lack

Question 38: A. rich B. fat C. fatty D. richly
Question 39: A. developing B. becoming C. planting D. growing
Question 40: A. competent B. amateur C. professional D. well-known
Question 41: A. propose B. pass C. grow D. arrange
Question 42: A. full in B. cough up C. work out D. find out
Question 43: A. long-distance B. short-distance C. distance away D. full distance

Question 44: A. for B. to C. with D. about
54.
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c
tulips.
h.
an
ng
ie
ht

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A. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
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B. How did tulips become popular in North America?

C. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
D. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
A. overlooked B. ornamental C. interesting D. fundamental
A. North America B. India C. Central Asia D. Western Europe

A. thrived B. combined C. were discovered D. were marketed
A. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
B. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
C. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
D. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
A. complained B. warned C. denied D. explained
om
that tulips ______.
A. reminded them of home B. were easy to grow
c
C. had become readily available D. made them appear fashionable
h.
A. plains B. plants
an C. immigrants D. tulips
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
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B. They contained many new types of North American plants.
C. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
D. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
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into North America?
ht
A. They often failed to survive the journey.

B. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.
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C. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.

D. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
th

om
A. To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots
B. To propose a theory to explain sunspots
C. To describe the nature of sunspots
D. To compare the umbra and the penumbra
c
h.
A. widely accepted B. very complicated C. just in traduce D. open to debate
an
A. small rivers on the surface of the sun B. changes the earth’s atmosphere
C. underdetermined causes D. disturbances of wind
ng
A. liquid streams on the sun B. small pieces

C. light ray from the sun D. gas explosions in the atmosphere
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A. Very bright B. Very hard C. Very small D. Very hot

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A. relatively new B. not considered important

C. widely accepted D. subject to disagreement
ic

th
A. pots B. miles C. Structures D. granules

A. As a result B. Without doubt C. In this way D. Nevertheless
A. In groups of several thousand spots B. In a configuration of two spots
C. In one spot of varying size D. In arrangements of one hundred or more spots
A. Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.

B. Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.
C. Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.
om
I’m not in …………………………………………………………………………………
c
I’ve yet ……………………………………………………………………......................
h.
Tim didn’t ………………………………………………………………………………...
an
The more …………………………………………………………………………………
ng
ie
_____ THE END_____

ht
ic
THÁI BÌNH
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
th
Mã đề: 358

Question 1: A. wickedly B. allegedly C. confusedly D. supposedly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. canal B. dental C. sandals D. rental

Question 4: A. dilapidated B. fundamental C. distinctively D. extravagant
Question 5: A. original B. mysterious C. elaborate D. necessary
om
questions.

A. length B. term C. time D. age
c
h.
A. had been wearing B. hadn’t been wearing C. hadn’t worn D. hadn’t been for
A. were
an
B. was C. to be D. have been
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A. for B. of C. to D. in
A. Mike poured the drink B. Mike pouring the drink
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C. the drink was poured D. the drink was being poured

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live without pets.
A. for the elderly to do B. to the elderly C. elderly D. do the elderly

ic

th
A. do I B. will they C. won’t they D. does he

A. an alarm useful digital clock B. a digital useful alarm clock
C. a useful digital alarm clock D. a useful alarm digital clock
A. As looking ugly B. Ugly looking as it is C. As it is looking ugly D. With ugly look

A. a process in which B. which process C. which is a process D. a process

A. keep an eye on B. be off my head C. get cold feet D. smell a rat
om
A. more likely to be damaged than B. likely to be more than damaged
C. to be damaged more than likely D. more than likely to be damaged
c
h.
A. An B. Some C. The D. θ
A. must experience
an B. can have experienced
C. must have experienced D. should have experienced
ng
A. to lose leaves B. the leaves are lost C. when leaves have lost D. that the loss of leaves
ie
Mai: “______”
A. Mind your words. B. You are welcome.

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C. Nothing more to say. D. You can say that again.

ic
th

A. leisure activity B. an every day feature C. most households D. television viewing
A. less B. to C. than D. another
volumes.

A. across B. freight C. carrying D. The
A. stating B. made C. he D. which
A. expense B. honors C. conveniences D. privileges
om
are in control.
A. dominant B. uncommon C. extraordinary D. strange
A. stay the same B. decrease C. accelerate D. go up and down
c
h.
A. well-off B. wealthy C. impoverished D. prosperous
an
A. thin B. clear C. significant D. obvious
ng
ie
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44.
ht
SPORT AND FITNESS

ic
th

Question 35: A. rather than B. to C. than D. except for

Question 36: A. little general exercise B. a few general exercises
C. few general exercises D. a little general exercise
Question 37: A. Lack B. The lack C. The lack of D. Lack of
Question 38: A. richly B. fatty C. fat D. rich
Question 39: A. planting B. growing C. developing D. becoming
om
Question 40: A. competent B. professional C. amateur D. well-known
Question 41: A. grow B. pass C. propose D. arrange
Question 42: A. full in B. cough up C. find out D. work out
c
Question 43: A. distance away B. long-distance C. full distance D. short-distance
h.
Question 44: A. about B. with C. to D. for
an
54.
ng
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th
tulips.

Question 45: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer? Tài liệu được chia sẻ tại
thichtienganh.com
A. How did tulips become popular in North America?
B. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
C. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
om
A. fundamental B. interesting C. ornamental D. overlooked
c
A. North America B. Western Europe C. Central Asia D. India
h.
A. thrived B. combined C. were discovered D. were marketed
an
A. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
B. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
ng
C. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America

D. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
ie

A. warned B. complained C. explained D. denied
ht
that tulips ______.
ic
A. made them appear fashionable B. were easy to grow

C. had become readily available D. reminded them of home
th

A. plants B. tulips C. plains D. immigrants
A. They contained many new types of North American plants.
B. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
C. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
D. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.

into North America?
A. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.
B. They often failed to survive the journey.
C. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.
D. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 55 to 64.
om
c
h.
an
ng
ie

A. To propose a theory to explain sunspots
ht
B. To describe the nature of sunspots

C. To compare the umbra and the penumbra
ic
D. To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots

th
A. very complicated B. just in traduce C. open to debate D. widely accepted

A. small rivers on the surface of the sun B. changes the earth’s atmosphere
C. disturbances of wind D. underdetermined causes
A. light ray from the sun B. gas explosions in the atmosphere
C. liquid streams on the sun D. small pieces

A. Very hot B. Very hard C. Very small D. Very bright
A. subject to disagreement B. relatively new
C. not considered important D. widely accepted
A. miles B. Structures C. pots D. granules
A. As a result B. Without doubt C. Nevertheless D. In this way
om
A. In a configuration of two spots B. In arrangements of one hundred or more spots
C. In groups of several thousand spots D. In one spot of varying size
A. Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.
c
B. Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.
h.
C. Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.
an
ng
ie
I’m not in …………………………………………………………………………………

ht

ic
I’ve yet ……………………………………………………………………......................

th
Tim didn’t ………………………………………………………………………………...

The more …………………………………………………………………………………
_____ THE END_____

THÁI BÌNH
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề: 486
om
c
h.
Question 2: A. wickedly an B. allegedly C. supposedly D. confusedly
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Question 3: A. fundamental B. dilapidated C. extravagant D. distinctively
Question 4: A. dental B. rental C. sandals D. canal
Question 5: A. necessary B. elaborate C. mysterious D. original
ie
ht
questions.
ic
Mai: “______”
A. You are welcome. B. You can say that again.

th
C. Mind your words. D. Nothing more to say.

A. a useful digital alarm clock B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock D. a digital useful alarm clock
A. hadn’t been for B. hadn’t been wearing C. hadn’t worn D. had been wearing

A. pulls through B. gets away C. puts through D. comes round
A. were B. have been C. was D. to be
A. do I B. will they C. won’t they D. does he

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C. must have experienced D. should have experienced
A. As looking ugly B. Ugly looking as it is C. As it is looking ugly D. With ugly look
c
h.
A. the drink was being poured B. the drink was poured
C. Mike poured the drink D. Mike pouring the drink
an
ng
A. more likely to be damaged than B. likely to be more than damaged

C. to be damaged more than likely D. more than likely to be damaged
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A. for B. in C. to D. of
ht
live without pets.
ic
A. for the elderly to do B. to the elderly C. do the elderly D. elderly

th
A. which is a process B. which process C. a process in which D. a process

A. The B. θ C. An D. Some
A. get cold feet B. smell a rat C. keep an eye on D. be off my head

A. to lose leaves B. the leaves are lost C. when leaves have lost D. that the loss of leaves
A. age B. term C. time D. length
A. than B. less C. to D. another
om
A. leisure activity B. television viewing C. most households D. an every day feature
c
A. across B. freight C. carrying D. The
h.
A. stating
an B. made C. he D. which
volumes.
ng
A. in large volumes B. the refinery C. and D. it was seen
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Question 30: Crime rates tend to fluctuate with the seasons, with much higher rates in the winter than in the
summer.
ht
A. stay the same B. decrease C. accelerate D. go up and down

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A. privileges B. conveniences C. expense D. honors

th
are in control.
A. dominant B. uncommon C. strange D. extraordinary
A. wealthy B. prosperous C. impoverished D. well-off

A. obvious B. clear C. significant D. thin
SPORT AND FITNESS

om
c
h.
an
ng
Question 35: A. except for B. than C. rather than D. to

Question 36: A. few general exercises B. a little general exercise
C. little general exercise D. a few general exercises
ie
Question 37: A. The lack B. Lack of C. Lack D. The lack of

ht
Question 38: A. fatty B. richly C. rich D. fat

Question 39: A. planting B. growing C. developing D. becoming
ic
Question 40: A. professional B. competent C. amateur D. well-known

Question 41: A. pass B. propose C. grow D. arrange
th
Question 42: A. find out B. work out C. full in D. cough up

Question 43: A. distance away B. long-distance C. short-distance D. full distance
Question 44: A. about B. with C. to D. for
54.

tulips.
om
c
h.
an
ng
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A. How did tulips become popular in North America?

B. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
ht
C. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
ic

A. fundamental B. ornamental C. overlooked D. interesting
th
A. India B. Western Europe C. Central Asia D. North America
A. were discovered B. were marketed C. combined D. thrived
A. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
B. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America

C. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
D. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
A. complained B. explained C. warned D. denied
that tulips ______.
A. had become readily available B. made them appear fashionable
C. were easy to grow D. reminded them of home
om
A. immigrants B. plants C. plains D. tulips
A. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
c
B. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
h.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
an
into North America?
A. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.
ng
B. They often failed to survive the journey.
C. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
D. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.
ie
ht
ic

th


A. To describe the nature of sunspots
B. To compare the umbra and the penumbra
C. To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots
D. To propose a theory to explain sunspots
A. widely accepted B. very complicated C. just in traduce D. open to debate
om
A. changes the earth’s atmosphere B. underdetermined causes
C. disturbances of wind D. small rivers on the surface of the sun
c
h.
A. gas explosions in the atmosphere B. light ray from the sun
C. small pieces an D. liquid streams on the sun
A. Very hard B. Very bright C. Very hot D. Very small
ng
A. relatively new B. subject to disagreement
C. not considered important D. widely accepted
ie
A. Structures B. granules C. miles D. pots

ht
A. Nevertheless B. Without doubt C. In this way D. As a result

ic
A. In arrangements of one hundred or more spots B. In a configuration of two spots

C. In groups of several thousand spots D. In one spot of varying size
th

A. Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.
B. Sunspots appear to be related to magnetic fields on the earth.
C. Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.
D. Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.

I’m not in …………………………………………………………………………………
I’ve yet ……………………………………………………………………......................
om
Tim didn’t ………………………………………………………………………………...
The more …………………………………………………………………………………
c
h.
an
_____ THE END_____
ng
ie
ht
ic
th

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 TỈNH THÁI BÌNH

Năm học 2015 - 2016
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
I - Phần trắc nghiệm: mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm
Mã Câu Đáp Mã Câu Đáp Mã Câu Đáp Mã Câu Đáp
om
đề hỏi án đề hỏi án đề hỏi án đề hỏi án
135 1 C 213 1 B 358 1 C 486 1 B
135 2 B 213 2 C 358 2 B 486 2 D
c
135 3 C 213 3 D 358 3 A 486 3 A
h.
135 4 D 213 4 B 358 4 B 486 4 D
135 5 B 213 5 B 358 5 D 486 5 A
135 6 A
an
213 6 A 358 6 B 486 6 B
135 7 A 213 7 D 358 7 B 486 7 A
135 8 C 213 8 B 358 8 B 486 8 B
ng
135 9 A 213 9 B 358 9 C 486 9 A

135 10 C 213 10 D 358 10 A 486 10 C
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135 11 B 213 11 A 358 11 D 486 11 B

135 12 B 213 12 B 358 12 B 486 12 A
ht
135 13 B 213 13 D 358 13 C 486 13 C

135 14 D 213 14 C 358 14 A 486 14 B
ic
135 15 D 213 15 D 358 15 B 486 15 C

135 16 D 213 16 C 358 16 A 486 16 A
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135 17 C 213 17 C 358 17 D 486 17 C

135 18 B 213 18 A 358 18 D 486 18 C
135 19 A 213 19 C 358 19 A 486 19 C
135 20 B 213 20 C 358 20 A 486 20 A
135 21 C 213 21 A 358 21 C 486 21 B
135 22 D 213 22 C 358 22 C 486 22 D
135 23 C 213 23 D 358 23 D 486 23 B

135 24 B 213 24 A 358 24 D 486 24 A
135 25 A 213 25 A 358 25 B 486 25 D
135 26 C 213 26 B 358 26 D 486 26 D
135 27 B 213 27 B 358 27 B 486 27 C
135 28 B 213 28 D 358 28 C 486 28 D
135 29 A 213 29 B 358 29 D 486 29 D
135 30 C 213 30 B 358 30 C 486 30 D
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135 31 A 213 31 D 358 31 A 486 31 B
135 32 C 213 32 A 358 32 D 486 32 A
135 33 B 213 33 D 358 33 C 486 33 C
c
135 34 A 213 34 C 358 34 C 486 34 C
h.
135 35 D 213 35 C 358 35 A 486 35 C
135 36 A 213an 36 D 358 36 A 486 36 C
135 37 D 213 37 A 358 37 D 486 37 B
135 38 C 213 38 C 358 38 B 486 38 A
135 39 D 213 39 D 358 39 B 486 39 B
ng
135 40 D 213 40 B 358 40 C 486 40 C

135 41 D 213 41 D 358 41 D 486 41 D
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135 42 A 213 42 C 358 42 D 486 42 B

135 43 B 213 43 A 358 43 B 486 43 B
ht
135 44 B 213 44 A 358 44 D 486 44 D

135 45 D 213 45 B 358 45 A 486 45 A
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135 46 C 213 46 D 358 46 A 486 46 A

135 47 C 213 47 C 358 47 C 486 47 C
th
135 48 C 213 48 A 358 48 A 486 48 D

135 49 A 213 49 B 358 49 C 486 49 B
135 50 D 213 50 A 358 50 B 486 50 A
135 51 D 213 51 A 358 51 D 486 51 D
135 52 B 213 52 C 358 52 D 486 52 A
135 53 C 213 53 B 358 53 A 486 53 C
135 54 D 213 54 A 358 54 B 486 54 B

135 55 B 213 55 C 358 55 B 486 55 A
135 56 A 213 56 D 358 56 C 486 56 D
135 57 D 213 57 D 358 57 C 486 57 C
135 58 B 213 58 B 358 58 D 486 58 C
135 59 A 213 59 C 358 59 C 486 59 D
135 60 C 213 60 D 358 60 A 486 60 B
135 61 A 213 61 A 358 61 C 486 61 D
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135 62 D 213 62 A 358 62 A 486 62 D
135 63 A 213 63 B 358 63 A 486 63 B
135 64 A 213 64 C 358 64 B 486 64 A
c
h.
II - Phần viết luận:
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
an
printed before it.
(0,2 điểm x 5 câu = 1,0 điểm)

ng
I’m not in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.
ie
I’ve yet to meet a more exasperating person than my brother-in-law.
ht
I’ve yet to meet such an exasperating person as my brother-in-law.

ic
Tim didn’t sign the contract until he had spoken to his lawyer.
th
The more he admires her, the more he loves her.

Part II. Students should have freedom to choose their own subjects in the graduation exam for Upper
Secondary education. Do you agree or disagree? Write a paragraph of about 140 words to
support your answer. (3 điểm)
MÔ TẢ TIÊU CHÍ ĐÁNH GIÁ ĐIỂM TỐI ĐA CHO PHẦN VIẾT LUẬN (PART II)

1. Bố cục 0,80 đ

- Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
- Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
- Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
2. Phát triển ý 0,50 đ
- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
- Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình
3. Sử dụng ngôn từ 0,60 đ
- Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
om
- Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại
- Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
c
4. Nội dung 0,60 đ
h.
- Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
- Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

an
- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chinh tả: 0,50 đ

ng
- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
- Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch: sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
ie
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
ht
- Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp (lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý
sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết).
ic
th

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
THANH HÓA Năm học: 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Lớp 12 THPT
Số báo danh Ngày thi: 20 tháng 3 năm 2014
…...............…… Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
om
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (2 pts)
1. A. controlled B. returned C. formed D. convinced
c
2. A. suggestion B. devotion C. congestion D. digestion
h.
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in
each question. (3 pts)
3. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. certificate D. secondary
4. A. hospital
an B. different C. supportive D. special
5. A. compliment B. apologize C. tradition D. develop
Part B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
ng
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. He felt ______when he failed the exams the second time.
A. discouraged B. discouraging C. encouraged D. encourage
ie
7. David learned to play ______ violin when he was at ______ university.

A. -/- B. the/- C. the/the D. -/the
ht
8. The workers ______ cement for the patio when it began to rain.
A. lay B. were lying C. laid D. were laying
ic
9. American students agree that a husband is______ to tell his wife where he has been if he comes
home late.
A. obsessed B. obliged C. obtained D. observed
th
10. -"Let's have a pizza." -"______"

A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. Not really D. It’s a good idea
11. Nam: “ You are a great dancer, Huong.”
Huong: “_________”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. You shouldn’t have said that.
C. You must be kidding. D. Yes. Congratulations
1
12. In most social situations where some ______ is allowed, a brief raise of the hand and a small wave
is fine to attract someone's attention.
A. informality B. friendship C. familiarity D. introduction
13. Sperm Whales and sharks are carnivores. Carnivores mean ______
A. animals that live in the sea B. animals that only eat plants
C. fish that aren’t born from eggs D. animals that eat meat
14. Will we be ______ the storm if we shelter under a tree?
A. happy about B. safe from C. depended on D. cared for
15. Michael was ______ with anger when he saw his car had been scratched.
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A. stored B. fixed C. loaded D. filled
16. He ______ his life to helping the poor.
A. spent B. experienced C. dedicated D. used
17. I am not really ______ this kind of music. I prefer music that we can dance to.
c
A. in B. for C. into D. with
h.
18. ______ I had nothing for breakfast but an apple, I had lunch early.
A. However B. Since C. Due to D. Therefore
an
19. Military is ______ in this country. Every man who reaches the age of 18 has to serve in the army for
two years.
A. compulsory B. optional C. illegal D. unnecessary
ng
20. All ______ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. that is needed B. which is needed C. what is needed D. the thing needed
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts)
(Questions 21-30)
ie
Line
1. In 2001, the British Association for the Advancement of Science went on search of
ht
the world’s funniest joke. The experiment involved people from all over the world
posted their jokes on to a website and rating the submissions of their. Among the
jokes entered was the following: ‘There were two cows in a field. One said ‘Moo.’
ic
5. The other one said ‘I was going to say that.’

The joke was then entered into the archive several times, using different animals and
noises. Two tigers said ‘Grr,’ two dogs said ‘Woof’ and so on. You would imagine
th
that one animal and noise would be much the same like another. However, the joke
rated the funniest was: ‘Two ducks were sitting on a pond. One of the duck said
‘Quack.’ The other duck said, ‘I was going to say that.’
10.
The research supported the wide held theory that some words and sounds are
distinctly funnier than others. The ‘k’ sound (or the ‘hard c’) as heard in ‘quack’ and
‘duck’ have always been regarded in the comedy world as specially funny. Why? It
15. may be down to a rather odd facial phenomenon known for ‘facial feedback’. When
people feel happy they smile but some evidence suggests that the mechanism also
works in reverse. The hard letter ‘k’ often forces the face to smile, which may explain
why the sound is associated with happiness.
2
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It was a boring show. I would rather (not/go) ______ there.
32. I’m sure they (complete) ______ the new road by June.
33. (Bite) ______ twice, the postman refused to deliver our letters unless we chained our dog up.
34. His (take) ______ ill was quite unexpected.
35. It (not/be) ______ for you, I would come home late.
36. His roommate (always enter) ______ the room without knocking first, which annoys him a
lot.
37. The curricula of American public schools (not determine) ______ by the federal government.
om
38. He (not wear) ______ uniform when you see him, because he’ll be on leave then, and they
don’t wear uniform when they are on leave.
39. It is essential that every student (know) ______ how to use a computer.
40. A shape with four equal sides and one right angle (call) ______ a square.
c
h.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
People are often put off meditation by what they see as its many mystical associations. Yet meditation
is a (41. STRAIGHT) _____ technique which merely involves sitting and resting the mind. In addition
an
to its (42. SIMPLE) ______, meditation offers powerful help in the battle against stress. Hundreds of
studies have shown that meditation, when undertaken in a principled way, can (43. REDUCTION)
______ hypertension which is related to stress in the body. Research has proved that certain types of
meditation can (44. SUBSTANCE) ______ decrease key stress symptoms such as (45. ANXIOUS)
ng
______and irritability. In fact, those who practise meditation with any (46. REGULAR) ______ see
their doctors less and spend, on average, seventy per cent fewer days in hospital. They are said to have
more stamina, a happier (47. DISPOSE)______ and even enjoy better relationships.
When you learn to meditate, your teacher will give you a personal 'mantra' or word which you use
ie
every time you practise the technique and which is (48. SUPPOSE) ______ chosen according to your
needs. Initial classes are taught (49. INDIVIDUAL) ______ but subsequent classes usually consist of a
group of students and take place over a period of about four days. The aim is to learn how to slip into
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a deeper state of (50.CONSCIOUS) ______ for twenty minutes a day. The rewards speak for
themselves.
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PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
th
space. (10 pts)
English spelling
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when
Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (51) ______ .They used the 23 letters of Latin to
write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon speech as they heard it. However, English has a (52)
______ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of
letters were needed to (53) ______ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the
way that letters were combined.
3
With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put (54) ______ risk.
English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French patterns, and many
French words were (55) ______ into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (56) ______ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English texts
spoke other first languages. They (57) ______ little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of
the short-term effects of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it
created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (58)
______ and dictionaries were put together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken
English was not fixed and continued to change slowly - just as it still does now. Letters that were
sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the 'k' in 'knife', now became (59) ______. Also, the
pronunciation of vowels then had (60) _____ in common with how they sound now, but the way they
are spelt hasn't changed.
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51. A. ages B. centuries C. times D. years
52. A. deeper B. longer C. thicker D. wider
c
53. A. explain B. express C. perform D. tell
54. A. at B. in C. on D. under
h.
55. A. announced B. found C. introduced D. started
56. A. discovered B. invented C. made up D. taken up
57. A. brought
an B. did C. made D. put
58. A. drawn up B. filled in C. got across D. handed out
59. A. dump B. quiet C. silent D. speechless
ng
60. A. much B. many C. few D. little
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
ie
Because of the recent growth in air travel, airports have become more than ever before symbols of
international importance. They therefore have (61.______) look good and are frequently designed
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by well-known architects. In (62.______) to this, competition and customer demand mean that (63.
______) generally have to have impressive facilities nowadays. For instance, there are (64. ______)
lounges, where passengers can wait before their (65. ______) takes off, luxurious restaurants,
ic
shopping areas and banks. Good road and rail connections (66. ______) nearby towns and cities are
also essential, with large (67. _____) of people needing to get to and from the airport quickly and
effectively.
th
However, it is becoming increasingly difficult to find land on which to build airports. One reason
for this is that aircraft, (68. ______) improvements in engine design, are still very noisy, and need a
considerable amount of space in which to (69. ______) and take off. This of course means that
crowded residential areas need to be avoided, so, unluckily, travellers often find that the airport they
need to use might be located (70. ______) an inconvenient distance from the city.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere
in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution
4
requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws
were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that
could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As
technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased,
the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air
pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was
altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These
serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or
soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human
activities.
om
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of
the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The
concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the
c
pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be
large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how
h.
much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area.
For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is
about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is
not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
an
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
ng
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.

D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
72. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
ie
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably

73. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______.
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A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
ic
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change

D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
th
74. The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. the various chemical reactions
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
75. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air
pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
5
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.

C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
76. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _______.
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
77. The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
78. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if _______.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
c
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
h.
79. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. beneficial an B. special C. measurable D. separable
80. The word "noxious" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. poisonous B. natural C. known D. essential
ng
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. The man was not able to go on an expedition to the Middle East because of his age.
ie
The man was too ___________________________________________

82. Your silly questions distracted me.
ht
You drove ________________________________________________

83. Go to the international ticket desk immediately on arrival.
ic
As ______________________________________________________
84. His second attempt on the world record was successful.
th
He broke _________________________________________________
85. This problem cannot be solved instantly.
There is ___________________________________________________
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON
___________________________________________
6
87. Although we were impressed by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive. AS
___________________________________________
88. The accident victim was having increasing difficulty in breathing. DIFFICULT
___________________________________________
89. Teams of experts are examining the damage to the building. EXAMINED
___________________________________________
90. You didn't think carefully enough before you decided. OUGHT
___________________________________________
om
III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “Studying the English language in an
English speaking country is the best but not the only way to learn the language”. Write an essay
(about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal points of view.
c
h.
----------THE END ---------
an
ng
ie
ht
ic
th
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HOÁ Năm học: 2013-2014
HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Lớp 12 THPT
Ngày thi: 20/03/2014
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang.
7
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
Part A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1D 2B 3D 4C 5A
Part B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm – mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu
tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
I.
6A 7B 8D 9B 10D 11C 12A 13D 14B 15D
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16C 17C 18B 19A 20A
II.
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
c
21. on (line 1) in 26. (One of) the duck (One of) the
(line 10) ducks
h.
22. posted (line 3) posting 27. wide (line 12) widely
23. their (line 4) theirs 28. have (line 14) has
24. like (line 8) as 29. specially (line 15) especially
25 on (line 9) in
an 30. for (line 16) as
III.
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31. not have gone 32. will have completed 33. Having been bitten 34. being taken
35. were it not 36. is always entering 37. are not determined 38. will not be wearing
39. (should) know 40. is called
IV.
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41. straightforward 42. simplicity 43. reduce 44. substantially 45. anxiety
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46. regularity 47. disposition 48. supposedly 49. individually 50. consciousness
Part C: READING (30 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

ic
I.
th
51C 52D 53B 54A 55C 56B 57C 58A 59C 60D
II.
61. to 62. addition 63. airports 64. departure 65. flight/plane

66. with 67. numbers 68. despite 69. land 70. at
III.
8
71B 72A 73C 74D 75A 76B 77A 78C 79C 80A
Part D: WRITING (20 điểm)
I. (05 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

81. The man was too old to go on an expedition to the Middle East.
82. You drove me to distraction with your silly questions.
83. As soon as you arrive, go to the international ticket desk.
84. He broke the world record at/on his second attempt.
85. There is no instant solution to this problem.
II. (05 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
om
86. The two theories appear to have (got) nothing in common.
87. Much as we were impressed by the new cinema, we found/did find it rather expensive.
Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found/did find it rather expensive.
88. The accident victim was finding it increasingly difficult to breath.
89. The damage to the building is being examined by teams of experts.
c
90. You ought to have thought more carefully before you decided.
h.
III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria: an
- Task completion – 4 điểm
Tùy mức độ hoàn thành các yêu cầu, giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
- Grammatical accuracy and spelling – 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 3 lỗi ngữ
ng
pháp được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
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B - HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20

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Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25

Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
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5
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9
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HSG CẤP TRƯỜNG LẦN 2

TRƯỜNG THPT HÀN THUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
==============
Điểm bài kiểm tra Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách
Bằng số: Họ tên: Họ tên
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Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:
* Ghi chú: Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
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PART I: PHONETICS (1 point)
I: Find a word in each line whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
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three by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1. A. Vintage B. massage
an C. Luggage D. Passage
2. A. Considerate B. Candidate C. Associate D. Adequate
3. A. Chronicle B. Chorus C. Orchard D. Orchid
4. A. Foul B. Frown C. Sprout D. Dough
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5. A. Houses B. Faces C. Horses D. Sources
II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question
by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
6. A. Majority B. Ceremony C. Photography D. Astronomy
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7. A. Telegraph B. Telegraphy C. Diplomat D. Competent

8. A. Particular B. Carefully C. Muscular D. Applicant
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9. A. Imaginary B. Popularity C. Investigate D. Magnetic

10. A. Guarantee B. Circumstance C. Discipline D. Eloquence
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PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D
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next to the correct word or phrase. (1 point)

1. Not only was there no tea, ………………….there was no food either.
A. and B. nor C. but D. so
2. The restaurant is popular with film stars and the …………………..
A. like B. same C. similar D. such
3. It’s much more expensive if you use the phone at………………….rate.
A. high B. busy C. peak D. heavy
4. Politicians often promise to solve all problems…………………….
A. thick and fast B. on the whole C. of set purpose D. at a stroke
5. Karen was terribly nervous before the interview, but she managed to pull herself……………and act
confidently.
A. through B. over C. together D. off
6. …………to the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. Akin B. Prior C. In addition D. With reference
7. The truant was………………………from school for unbecoming behavior.
A. dispelled B. repelled C. expelled D. compelled
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8. ………………it or not, I’ve just been given a totally unexpected pay rise.
A. Believe B. Accept C. Presume D. Allow
9. During the war, the black market in luxury goods ………………………………….
A. flourished B. flowered C. bloomed D. blossomed
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10. It’s expected that all members will……………………to the rules of the club.
A. comply B. concede C. conform D. compromise
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11. I’m afraid I’m rather……………….about the existence of ghosts.
A. skeptical B. partial C. adaptable D. incapable
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12. Nothing was arranged, it was all very ………………….
A. taken away B. worn out C. slapdash D. slap up
13. He gambled ……………………………his life’s savings before starting on his wife’s.
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A. across B. around C. out D. away
14. Employees who have a ………………… are encouraged to discuss it with the management.
A. hindrance B. grievance C. disadvantage D. disturbance
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15. Global warming has progressed ………………….glaciers everywhere are shrinking.

A. too much that B. enough to cause C. to such an extent that D. so great an extent that
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16. Mr. Average was just a run-of-the-………………….worker.

A. road B. Mill C. week D. wheel
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17. The police …………………..a good deal of criticism over the handling of the demonstration.
A. came in for B. brought about C. opened up D. went down with
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18. They can’t ……………………on the name for the baby

A. conclude B. consent C. assent D. decide
19. It’s a shame they didn’t pick you, but it doesn’t .................. out the possibility that you might get a job
in a different department.
A. rule B. strike C. cancel D. draw
20. Jane wasn't in when I arrived. I suppose she _______ I was coming.
A. must have forgotten B. must forget C. may forget D. can't have forgotten
Part 2: Complete the sentences with suitable preposition. (1 point)
1. We were lucky that the floodwater didn’t get…………………………..the second floor.
2. These steps have ice on them, so hang…………………………to my arm.

3. It’s important to start your day……………….with a good breakfast.
4. Ann cut her hair in the bathroom, and she clogged the sink…………….with hair.
5. Don’t let the baby get……………….the table- he might fall off.
6. Throwing……………………all that junk in the garage made a lot more soon
7. As Jerry was getting……………..the train, he realized that he had forgotten his ticket.
8. The trail to the top of the mountain starts………………level, but then it gets steeper and steeper
9. That stock I bought really paid…………….. It went up nearly 100 percent in only three months.
10. After the new manager takes………………….next month, you can expect a lot of changes.
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11. Will you keep your voices……………….., please? I’m on the phone.
12. I told you to stop. If you keep……………..doing that, I’m going to get pissed off.
13. If you go outside to play, keep ………………..from that pile of junk- it’s full of broken glass
14. I need to talk to Jerry about his bad breath, but I’m nervous about bringing it …………….
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15. Dan is so sad about what happened that he can’t keep……………..crying
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16. When I went to the car rental office, they had already rented all the good cars, and they stuck
me …………………….a beat – up piece of junk
17. The legislature passed a tough new law designed to keep drunken drivers……………..the streets.
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18. When you’re depressed you should talk to people about what’s troubling you, not keep
it ……………..yourself
19. I’m broke - Do you think you could help me………………………..till payday?
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20. I can’t believe that my daughter would steal money from me. That awful boyfriend of hers must
have put her up ……………………………it.
Part 3: The following paragraph has 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes in the lines and correct them.
Write your answer in the space provided. (1 point)
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Who were the people responsible for collection and sending plants from one country to another?
And why did they do it? Initially they were travelers with other purposes: traders, colonists, pilgrims and
missionaries have all been important in providing new plants for English gardens. They sent back
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indigenous wild plants, or sometimes, as in the cases of visitors to China and Japan, plants which have been
cultivated and improved for hundreds of years. This worked, of course, in both directions: English gardens
were making in the most unlikely places. Travelers did not always recognize an interesting plant on seen it
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– interesting, that is, to the collector at home. So in the 16th and 17th century, attempts were made to collect
on a most professional basis, either by patrons sending collections into the field, or by subscriptions to
finance local enthusiasts in the most promised areas. By 1611 John Tradescant was traveling and collecting
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in France and other parts of Europe. Lately, Peter Collinson, a London merchant, who had seen the richness
of the plant material sending back by Tradescant, organized a syndicate to finance the amateur botanist
John Bartram. Before long, special collectors were being dispatched to all parts of the world by institutions
such as the Chelsea Physic Garden.
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 4: Give correct forms of verbs in brackets (1 point)

1. The matter (discuss) ………………..and (look) …………….at from angles. I (suggest) …………..
we (take) ………………a vote on what is to be done.
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2. Before I go to church, I (meet) ……………..and (interview) ……………..ten applicants for the job.
3. It’s very cold. Mr. Taylor, who (be)……………………ill recently, is walking along the road without a
raincoat. He (wear)………………….a coat in fact.
4. I know she really (forget)……………………(lend)………………..me the money; anyway I
(return)………… ……………it to her tomorrow.
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5. Although he (go)…………………to the doctor for three months, he didn’t feel better.
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6. Hoa wishes that she (work)…………………harder, but it (be)………………..too late now.
7. “Do you like frog’s eggs?” – (Never/try)………………………….them, I don’t really know.
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8. I (visit)…………………………you sooner had someone told me you were in hospital.
9. I hope it (not/rain)…………………………..when the bride and the groom (leave)……………….the
church.
10. I could tell from the (frighten)……………………….look on her face that something terrible
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(happen)……………………………….
ANSWER:
1………………………………………………….. 2………………………………………………
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3………………………………………………….. 4………………………………………………
5…………………………………………………. 6………………………………………………
7…………………………………………………. 8………………………………………………
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9…………………………………………………. 10……………………………………………..
Part 5: Give correct forms of the verbs in brackets to complete the paragraph (1 point)
The statistics on the safety of flying (1. BE) ………immensely comforting. It seems that the
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chances of being involved in an accident (2. BE) ……………………………a million to one – the
equivalent of flying safely everyday for 95 years. Try telling that to the white-faced, petrified aero-phobic,
who (3. SEE) ………….every frown on a stewardess’s face as a portent of disaster. For some years now,
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psychologist Henry Jones (4. TRY)…………… to tell them, and he (5. DO)……………………………. a
lot more besides. He has developed both a theory and practice for treating air travel anxiety. Apparently, it
is a widespread phobia. One American survey puts it as the fourth most common fear, preceded only by
snakes, heights and storms. Jones has had nearly 500 clients during the last decade. Before they came to
him, some of his clients (6. NEVER FLY)…………………, others had just one bad experience after years
of flying. One man (7. TAKE)………………. over 200 flights a year for 5 years and (8. NEVER
WORRY) …………….up till then. Then, one day on a flight to Chicago the pilot (9.
ANNOUNCE) …………. that they (10. GO) ………………. to turn back because of an engine fault. The
man had a panic attack and tried to get off the plane in mid-air. After Jones’s course, the man overcame his
fears and managed to fly again.
ANSWER:
1………………………………………………….. 2………………………………………………
3………………………………………………….. 4………………………………………………
5…………………………………………………. 6………………………………………………
7…………………………………………………. 8………………………………………………
9…………………………………………………. 10……………………………………………..
Part 6: Use correct form of the words in brackets (1 point)
1. If you want to (social)………………………, you must not be shy.
2. There is no (likely)……………………………of that happening.
3. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behavior last night was quite
defend) ……………………
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4. Tom has toy soldiers with (move)………………………arms and legs.
5. The Mekong River’s delta is the greatest rice (produce)…………………………region of Vietnam.
6. Due to (electric)…………………………..the difference between urban life and rural life is more and
more reduced.
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7. You should go on a diet if you are (weigh)…………………………..
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8. If you eat too much rich food, you often get (digest)………………………….
9. A doctor may prescribe (biotic)……………………………if the patient has an infection.
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10. I think it a bit (real)……………………….to hope that the world peace can be gained so easily.
11. Religious (tolerate)……………………………..forced them to leave their country.
12. He’s the most (please)…………………………., ill-mannered person I’ve ever met.
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13. Despite his failure, the inventor was not (courage)………………………
14. Don’s father wrinkled his brow in (please)……………………………..when he heard that Don had
failed the examination.
15. This man is wanted in many countries for having committed many law)………………………….acts.
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16. Many people donated money to help the people in Africa who are starving as a
result of (scarce)………………………of food.
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17. The government said that it would ensure that basic health care remained (afford)………………….
18. You should work hard but don’t (do)…………………….it and make yourself ill.
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19. Take a deep breath and see how long you can stay (water)………………………………..
20. We’ve (spend)…………………………….our budget this year.
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Part 7: From one of the words listed in the box, form a new word that fits each of the blank in the text
(1 point)
Apply Converse Courage Educate Employ
Global Graduation Instruct Interest Productive
With the (1)…………………….of information technology (IT) and worldwide access to the
internet, people from all areas of learning are finding themselves using some form of IT in the workplace.
The corporate world has seen a boom in the use of IT tools, but (2)…………………………, not enough
people with IT skills that can enter the workplace and be (3)…………………..with minimal on-the-jog
training.
A recent issue of the New York Times reports that many companies are looking for smart students
who may have a building interest in IT. Some companies, trying to (4)…………….students to attend
interviews, provide good salary packages and challenging work environments. For example, one American
IT consulting company offers high salaries, annual bonuses, and immediate stock options to potential
students. It also brings in 25 to 40 prospective (5)……………..at a time for a two-day visit to the company.
This time includes interviews, team exercises and social events. The idea behind the team exercises is that
the applicants get to see that they will be working with other smart people doing really
(6)……………………….things, rather than sitting alone writing code.
In the past ten years, (7)………………………..have seen marked benefits from collaborative
projects in product development. Apart from the work environment, there is also a similar body of research
indicating that small team-based (8)……………………….can lead to different kinds of desirable
educational results. In order to prepare IT (9)…………………………to meet these workplace
requirements, colleges and universities are also beginning to include team-based (10)…………..models.
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ANSWER:
1………………………………………………….. 2………………………………………………
3………………………………………………….. 4………………………………………………
5…………………………………………………. 6………………………………………………
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7…………………………………………………. 8………………………………………………
9…………………………………………………. 10……………………………………………..
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PART III. READING (7 points)
Part 1: For questions 1 – 15, read the advertisement and decide which word best fits each space(0.9
an
point)
Save money on the book that aims to save animals
Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s wildlife? Animal Watch is a book which
will (1) ………… you in the fight for survival that (2) ………… many of our endangered animals and show
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how they struggle on the (3) ………… of extinction.
As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 colour photographs, you will have the
(4) ………… of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to (5) ………… animals
(6) ………… . From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world’s animals close-up
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and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human (7) ………… for land, flesh
and skins.
Animal Watch is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black
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noses (8) ………… their (9) ………… so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for
example? Or that (10) ………… each orang-utan which is captured, one has to die?
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This superb (11) ………… has so (12) ………… Britain’s leading wildlife charity that it has been
chosen as Book of the Year, a (13) ………… awarded to books which are considered to have made a major
contribution to wildlife conservation. You will find Animal Watch at a special low (14) …………price at all
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good bookshops, but hurry while (15) ………… last.

1. A. combine B. involve C. bring D. lead
2. A. meets B. opposes C. forces D. faces
3. A. edge B. start C. limit D. end
4. A. satisfaction B. enjoyment C. virtue D. value
5. A. enable B. help C. allow D. assist
6. A. preserve B. conserve C. revive D. survive
7. A. greed B. interest C. care D. concern
8. A. with B. by C. for D. from
9. A. feet B. claws C. paws D. toes

10. A. with B. by C. for D. from
11. A. publicity B. periodical C. publication D. reference
12. A. imposed B. impressed C. persuaded D. admired
13. A. symbol B. title C. trademark D. nickname
14. A. beginning B. preparatory C. original D. introductory
15. A. stores B. stocks C. goods D. funds
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Part 2: Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word 3.1 points)
A. Throughout the ages, the (1)………………………….of the earth has been built up in some
places and worn down in other places. The wearing down of the land is called erosion.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all help to (2)…………….erosion. As the wind
(3)……………….over the land, it often picks up small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike
(4)………………..solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away later, the wind many pick up these new rock
particles and with them wear other rocks. In this way, even very (5)………………………rocks are worn
away by the wind. When articles of rock or soil become loosened in any way, running
(6)…………………..carries them down the hillsides. Some rock and soil particles are carried into streams.
The streams may then carry them into rivers, and the rivers many carry them into the
(7)………………………….
Land that is (8)……………….with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly,
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and so (9)……………………..very little of its soil. The (10)……………..of plants help to (11)………..
the rocks and soil in place.
B. Men have lived in groups and societies (1) ________ all times and in all places , as (2)
________ as we know. They do not seem ( 3) _______ to survive as human beings ( 4) ________ they live
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in (5) ________ cooperation with one (6) ________ . The most basic of (7) __________ human groups is
the family in (8) ________ various forms. The most important reason for this is the simple (9)_________
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that human beings take many years to (10) _________. In (11) _________ they are the most helpless of all
earthly creatures. For several years after (12) ______, a child has to be (13 ) _______, clothed and protected
day and night. In all societies such duties normally fall ( 14) _________ a family group of some ( 15)
________.
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Men (16) ________ groups for countless (17) _______ reasons. For instance, it is ( 18) ______ by
cooperating that they are able to (19) ________ their environment and defend (20) _______.
Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions (1 point)
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It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group
of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like
vultures to a dying animal. Researchers with the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened
sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the
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scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-kilohertz range. (The unaided human
ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different
sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood. The scientists think that the vibrations are
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created when the water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break, a result of too little water
flowing through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some
insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’ vibrations and attack the
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weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see
if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and
they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound,” one
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scientist said.
1: Which of the following in the main topic of the passage?
A. the vibrations produced by insets. B. the mission of the U.S. Forest Service
C. the effect of insects on stress D. the sounds made by trees
2: The word “them” in line 2 refers to
A. trees B. scientists C. insects D. vultures
3: The word “ parched” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. burned B. dehydrated C. recovered D. damaged
4: The word “plight” is closest in meaning to
A. cry B. condition C. need D. agony
5: It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees
A. serve as a form of communication among trees.
B. are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
C. cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
D. fall into the 1 - 20-kilohertz range
6: The word “fractured” is closest in meaning to
A. long B. blocked C. hollow D. broken
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7: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A. torn roots B. attacks by insects
C. experiments by scientists D. lack of water
8: The phrase “pick up” could best be replaced by which of the following?
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A. perceive B. lift C. transmit D. attack
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9: All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT
A. thermal changes B. smells C. sounds D. changes in color
10: It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees.
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A. was conducted many years ago B. has been unproductive up to now
C. is continuing D. is no longer sponsored by the government
Part 4 Read the following passage and answer the questions (2 points)
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1. ………………..
Telephone, television, radio, and the telegraph all help people communicate with each other.
Because of these devices, ideas and news of events spread quickly all over the world. For example, within
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seconds, people can know the results of an election in Japan or Argentina. An international soccer match
comes into the home of everyone with a television set. News of a disaster such as an earthquake or a flood
can bring help from distant countries. Within hours, help is on the way.
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2. ………………..
How has speed of communication changed the world? To many people, the world has become
smaller. Of course, this does not mean that the world is physically smaller. Two hundred years ago,
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communication between the continents took a long time. All news was carried on ships that took weeks or
even months to cross the oceans. In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, it took six weeks for news
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from Europe to reach the Americas. This time difference influenced people's actions. For example, one
battle in the war of 1812 between the English and the United States armies could have been avoided if the
warring sides had known that a peace agreement had already been signed. Peace was made in England, but
the news of peace took six weeks to reach America. During those six weeks, the large and serious Battle of
New Orleans was fought and many lives were lost.
3. ………………..
An important part of the history of the world is the history of communication. In prehistoric times,
people had limited knowledge of the world. They had little information about geography, the study of the
Earth. People knew very little beyond their small groups except what was happening near their homes.
Later, people were organized into villages, and verbal communication between small towns was possible.
Still, the people's knowledge was limited because they had no outside information. Kingdoms and small
countries then developed, with a king directing the people. Cities developed, too, but still communication
was limited to the small geographical area of the country. Much later in history, after the invention of the
printing press, many more people learned to read, and communication was improved.
4. ………………..
In this modern age, communication is so fast that it is almost instant. People's lives have been
changed because of the immediate spread of news. Sometimes the speed is so great that it does not allow
people time to think. For example, leaders of countries have only minutes, or, at most, hours to consider all
the parts of a problem. They are expected to answer immediately. Once they had days and weeks to think
before making decisions.
5. ………………..
The speed of communication demands a new responsibility from all people of the world. People in
different countries must try harder to understand each other. An example is that people with different
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religions must try to understand each other's beliefs and values, even if they do not accept them. Sometimes
their cultures are quite different. What one group considers a normal part of life is strange to another
culture. In some cases, a normal part of one culture might be bad or impolite to people of another culture.
That kind of difference is a possible basis for misunderstanding. People must learn not to judge others, but
to accept them as they are. As the world grows smaller, people must learn to talk to each other more
effectively as well as communicate more rapidly.
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Match the headings given in the box below with their appropriate numbers (101 -105) that lead the five
h.
paragraphs and write the letters A-H in the corresponding numbered boxes. (The headings outnumber
the paragraphs, so you will not use all of them).
A. A disadvantage of fast communication
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B. High speed of communication and its benefits
C. Our shrinking world
D. Communication devices
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E. A brief history of communication development
F. Modern communication and a change in thinking pattern
G. The changing world resulting from fast communication
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H. Modern communication and expected responsibility

Then choose the correct answer to each of the following questions by circling A, B, C, or D.
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6. Modem communications have ………….

A. affected the results of elections and news of disasters
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B. only allowed people to see world sports events at home

C. kept people better Informed of their world and beyond
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D. made people happier, busier, but less informed

7. Before the Invention of communication devices, …………….
A. people gave better care to their local affairs
B. there was no transportation between countries
C. people were much interested in world affairs
D. people were mostly kept in the dark about the world
7. A negative aspect of fast communication is that it …………….
A. makes people think too fast B. will push governments into dead ends
C. deprives decision makers of correct information D. may rush governments into decisions
9. There were instances in which lives could have been saved if …………..
A. Intercommunication had been established B. there had not been a delay in communication
C. officers' demands of information had been met D. carrier pigeons had arrived in time
10. The speed of communication has helped create opportunity for ……………
A. mutual understanding and cultural tolerance B. better understanding and freer trade
C. the expansion of cultural differences D. the growth of the physical world
PART 4: WRITING (6 points)
Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
one printed above.(2 points)
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1. Nobody can deny that she has a beautiful voice.
It…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. We have been able to increase our exports every year although we have some economic difficulties.
No…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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3. She had no cause to ask for a higher salary.
She was……………………………………………………………………………………………….
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4. We will not delay our voyage whether there is a rain or not.
Regardless……………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Considering your position, we won’t press charges.
Under………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Gary is proud of the fact that he is never late.
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Gary………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. There is absolutely no truth in that rumour.
That………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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8. The students didn’t take to their new lecturer.

The new lecturer…………………………………………………………………………………….
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9. Their problems are all self-inflicted.

Their problems……………………………………………………………………………………….
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10. She never seems to succeed, even though she works hard.
Hard………………………………………………………………………………………………….
th
Part 2: For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.(2 points)
1. If interest rates are cut, the economic situation may improve. (REDUCTION)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The architect’s new design was heavily criticized. (CRITICISM)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Very little money was raised by the charity appeal. (RESPONSE)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I choose very carefully who I discuss my private life with. (PARTICULAR)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. I made sure that I didn’t offend them. (CAREFUL)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. She chooses the kind of hotels she stays in very carefully. (FUSSY)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. He always makes everything look so difficult. (WEATHER)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. I don’t feel like going to the party. (MOOD)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (REFERENCE)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher. (STRIKES)
c
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h.
Part 3: Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce, from the cues given below, a
complete letter.(1 point)
Dear David,
an
1. My husband/ just/ lose job/ ten years before/ he / due/ retire.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. He/ be/ very upset/ not know/ what/ do.
ng
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. He / not have/ much chance/ find/ another job/ his age.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ie
4. He/ work/ 20 years/ same firm.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. When/ he/ start/ they be/ only/ small firm/ employ/ only ten men.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ic
6. Since then/ they/ expand/ and/ become/ largest employer/ in area.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
th
7. Now because/ sales/ drop/ and they/ introduce/ automation, /his job/ no longer/ exist.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. He/ get/ redundancy pay/ but/ he/ miss/ work/ as/ he enjoy/ company/ of workmates.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. We/ have/ more time together/ but/ he/ already/ start/ get bored/ do nothing.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. What/ you/ think/he/ ought/ do?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Love,
Best regards,
-The end-
c om
h.
an
ng
ie
ht
ic
th
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

TRƯỜNG THPT HÀN THUYÊN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HSG CẤP TRƯỜNG LẦN 2
NĂM HỌC 2014-2015

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
==============
PART I: PHONETICS (1 point)
Part 1: Find a word in each line whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
other three by circling A, B, C or D. (0.2 p each correct answer)
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A
Part 2: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each
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question by circling A, B, C or D. (0.2 p each correct answer)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A
c
PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7points)
h.
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D
next to the correct word or phrase. (1 point)
0.05 point for each correct answer
an
1. C 6. B 11. A 16. B
2. A 7. C 12. C 17. A
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3. A 8. A 13. D 18. D
4. D 9. A 14. B 19. A
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5. C 10. C 15. C 20. A

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Part 2: Fill in the blank with one suitable preposition or a particle (1 point) 0.05 point for each
correct answer
ic
1. to 6. away 11. down 16. with
2. on 7.on 12. on 17. off

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3.off/ up 8. off 13. away 18. to
4. up 9. off 14. up 19. out
5. on 10. over 15. from 20. to
Part 3: Finding mistakes and correct them (1 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. collection collecting 6. most more
2. cases case 7. collections collectors
3. have had 8. promised promising
4. making made 9. Lately Later
5. seen seeing 10. sending sent
om
Part 4: Give correct form of the verbs (1 point)
0.05 point for each correct verb
1. has been discussed/ looked/ suggest/ should take
c
2. will have met/ interviewed
3. has been/ should be wearing
h.
4. forgets/ lending/ will return
5. had been going
6. had worked/ is
an
7. Never having tried
8. would have visited
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9. will not be raining/ leave
10. frightened/ had happened
Part 5: Give correct form of verbs (1 point)
ie
0.1 point for each correct answer

1. is 2. are 3. sees 4. has been trying 5. has done
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6. had never flown 7. had taken 8. had never worried 9. announced 10. were going
Part 6 (1 point) 0.05 point for each correct answer
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1. socialize 6. electrification 11. intolerance 16. scarcity
2. likelihood 7. overweight 12. unpleasant 17. affordable

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3. indefensible 8. indigestion 13. discouraged 18. overdo
4. moveable 9. antibiotics 14. displeasure 19. underwater
5. producing 10. unrealistic 15. unlawful 20. overspent
Part 7: From one of the words listed in the box, form a new word that fits each of the blank in the text (1
point) 0.1 for each correct anser
1. globalization 2. conversely 3. productive
4. encourage 5. applicants 6. interesting 7. employers
8. instruction 9. graduates 10. educational
PART III. READING

Part 1: For questions 1 – 15, read the advertisement and decide which word best fits each space (0.9
point) 0.06 point for each
16. B 21. D 26. C
17. D 22. A 27. B
18. A 23. A 28. B
19. A 24. C 29. D
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20. B 25. C 30. B
Part 2: Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word (3.1) points)
A (1.1 points) 0.01 points for each
1. surface 2. cause 3. blows 4. against 5. had
c
6. water 7. ocean 8. covered 9. loses 10. roots
11. hold
h.
B (2 points) 0.1 points for each
1. ……at……………. 6.……another…………. 11……infancy……. 16.……form…….
2.………far…….
an
7.……these…. 12.…birth…………. 17.……other…….
3.………able……. 8.…its…………. 13.…fed…………. 18.……only…….
4.……unless……. 9.……fact………. 14.……to…………. 19.……control….
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5.……close……. 10.……develop……. 15.…kind/sort/ type 20.……themselves….
Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions (1 point) 0.1
point for each
ie
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. C
Part 4 Read the following passage and answer the questions (2 points) 0.2 point for each
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1. B 2. G 3. E 4. F 5. H
6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A
ic
PART 4: WRITING
Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
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one printed above. (2 points) 0.2 point for each

1. It is a fact that she has a beautiful voice.
2. No matter what economic difficulties we have, we have been able to increase our exports every year.
3. She was unreasonable to ask for a higher salary.
4. Regardless of raining, we will not delay our voyage.
5. Under the (any) circumstances, we wont press charges.
6. Gary prides himself on very being late.
7. That rumor is absolutely false.
8. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.
9. Their problems are of their own making.

10. Hard as she works, she never seems to succeed.
Part 2: For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.(2 points) 0.2
point for each
1. A reduction of/in interest rates may improve the economic situation/ may cause/lead to an
improvement in/of the economic situation.
2. There was strong/heavy/ a lot of/ much/ great criticism of the architect’s new design.
om
3. There was very little/a weak/ only a small response to the charity appeal.
The response to the charity appeal was very poor/ terrible.
Very little money was raised in response to the charity appeal
4. I am very particular about who I discuss my private life with.
c
5. I was careful not to offend them.
h.
6. She is very fussy about the kind of hotels she stays in.
7. He always makes heavy weather of everything.
an
8. I am not on the right mood for going to the party.
9. He made no reference to our previous conversation.
10. What strikes me about her is that she is a very effective teacher.
It strikes me that she is a very effective teacher
ng
She strikes me as (being) a very effective teacher.

Part 3: Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce, from the cues given below, a
complete letter (1 point) 0.1 point for each
ie
1. My husband has just lost his jobs ten years before he was due to retire.
2. He’s very upset and doesn’t know what to do
ht
3. He doesn’t have much chance to find another job at his age.

4. He has been working for 20 years with the same firm.
ic
5. When he started they were only a small firm which employed only ten men
6. Since then they have expanded and have become the largest employer in the area.
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7. Now, because sales have dropped and they introduced automation, his job no longer exists.
8. He got his redundancy pay but he misses work as he enjoyed the company of his workmates.
9. We have more time together but he’s already starting to get bored with doing nothing.
10. What do you think he ought to do?
Best regards,
- THE END -
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRƯỜNG
Trường THPT Xuyên Mộc LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015

I. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct tenses and forms. (1.5 marks)
1. I knew he (cry) 1 when I saw him because his eyes were red.
2. Her head felt as if it (burst) 2.
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3. I (consider) 3 buying a house but now I (change) 4 my mind.
4. They were fortunate (rescure) 5 from the fire before the building collapsed.
5. John (complete) 6 this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owes me a thank-you.
Your answers:
c
1. 2. 3.
h.
4. 5. 6.
II. Choose ONE word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (3ps)
an
1. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as
wood
2. I must take this watch to be repaired; it____ over 20 minutes a day.
ng
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
3. Since they aren't answering the phone, they __________.
A. need have left B. can’t have left C. must have left D. should have
left
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4. I'd sooner they _________ deliver the new furniture tomorrow.

A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. didn't D. wouldn't
5. John's got very ______ feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment.
ht
A. puzzled B. mixed C. jumbled D. muddled

6. The college will soon be ready to ______ candidates for new courses.
A. enrol B. involve C. call D. recall
ic
7. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.

A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have
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been
8. I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry.
A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have got
home dry
9. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ________.
A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory
10. To the best of my _______ , he married an Irish girl .
A. retention B. recall C. memory D. recollection
11. ________ to the big city, I have got lost many times.
A. Useless B. Unused C. Unfamiliar D.
Unacquainted
12. He never………….. his word

A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down
with
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (2ps)
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles
in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become
extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused
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almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but
in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of
extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the
world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival
and the survival of our planet.
c
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries,
h.
in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They
then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to
an
protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of
products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals
from being hunted and killed.
ng
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
ie
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing

3. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
ht
4. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______.

A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
ic
5. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refers to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
th
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
6. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
7. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
8. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
IV: Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank by circling the letter A,
B, C or D (2p).
United Parcel Service (UPS) believes that its employees should give the firm a fair day’s work for
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a fair’s day pay. The package delivery firm seems willing to give more than a fair’s day pay. But in (1)
____, UPS expects maximum output from its employees.
Since 1920s, the firm’s industrial engineers have been studying every detail of every task (2) ____ by
most UPS employees. From their studies have come time and motion standards that govern how those
c
tasks are performed and how long they should take. Drivers, for example, are expected to walk to a
customer’s door at a speed of exactly three feet per second. They are told to knock as soon as they get
h.
there, rather than (3) ____ time looking for a doorbell.
Work engineers are (4) ____ riding with drivers, timing everything from stops at traffic lights, to
wait at customers’ doorway, to stairway climbs, to coffee break. And they are not (5) ____ to pointing out
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the occasional inefficiency. Additionally, supervisors ride with the least good drivers, noting how they
work and constantly (6) ____ them until their work is up to standard.
The (7) ____of all this work engineering is efficiency, and UPS has been called one of the most
efficient companies anywhere. It's also a highly profitable company. Most drivers take the regimentation
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in stride: many show (8) ____ in meeting the UPS standards each day. Others, however, feel that they are
constantly being pushed, that it is impossible for them to relax at work. UPS officials claim that the
standards provide accountability. And, they say, employees who work according to UPS standards should
feel less tired at the end of the day.
ie
1: A. fact B. exchange C. return D. short

2: A. hold B. performed C. accepted D. under
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3: A. wasting B. spend C. spending D. waste

4: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically
5: A. impolite B. brave C. intimate D. averse
ic
6: A. scolding B. criticizing C. encouraging D. correcting

7: A. task B. reason C. object D. target
8: A. pride B. passion C. interest D. pleasure
th
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
V. The passage below contains 7 mistakes. (0) has been done for you as an example.
IDENTIFY and CORRECT the other six. (1.5 p)
0. all complete completely
Things started to go wrong as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all complete exhausted after
our long journey and looking forward to a shower and a rest. However, we found that our room was not
ready, which was very annoy, although the manager was extremely apologetic. While we were waiting,
we asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we had read about in brochure. Imagine how
we felt when we were told they had all cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organising them
had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the restaurant,
saying it was closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was empty. When we
eventually got to our room we were horrified find that it was at the back of the hotel, and we had a view of
a car park, which seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously began to wonder whether or not to
stay.
om
Your answers:
1…………...……… . ………………........ 2. ………………… . ……....……………

3. ……..…………... . ………….…........ 4.. ……………….. . ……………...…....
5. ……………..….. .. ………….…........ 6.………...……… . ………………........
c
VI. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it
h.
has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (2 Ps)
1. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
an
Not only ……………………………………………………………………………….………
2. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed. (decline)
There ……………………………………………………………………………….…………
3. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)
ng
My changing ……………………………………………………………………………….……
4. As a result of the bad weather, there may be delay to some international flights. (subject)
Due to the bad weather ……………………………………………………………possible delay.
ie
VII: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (1.5 p).
In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting for news. Two of fishing-boats had
been caught in the storm which had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbor Page
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people stood by their doors (1)______ worried to talk.

The rest of the fishing fleet had (2)______ the harbor before dark, and the men from these ships
waited and watched with the wives and families of the missing men. Some had (3)______ thick blankets
ic
and some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men would be cold and tired. When dawn began to break
over in the east, a small point of light was (4) ______ in the darkness of the water and a few minutes later,
th
there was a shout.

(5) ________ long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbor.
The men were helped out of their boats, and although they were stiff (6)______ cold and tiredness, they
were all safe.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
VIII. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill
in each blank. (1.5ps)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has
led to certain (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most venomous
species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects
such as amount of venom by comparison that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, (2. FATAL) are rare.
om
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female
is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black
widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is (3. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known
c
to kill and eat the male after mating. Such occurences are rare, but they explain how the spider got its
name – and its reputation.
h.
Nevertheless, the unpleasant effects of this spider’s bite should not be (4. ESTIMATE), and if you live in
a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take (5. CAUTION). Black
an
widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore,
since black widow spiders are (6. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely
hiding places.
ng
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
ie
IX: In some countries, teenagers have jobs while they are still students. Do you think
it is a good idea? Support your opinion by using specific reasons and details. (in about
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100 to 150 words) (You can write in this page)

ic
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
th
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
om
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
c
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
h.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
an
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ng
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ie
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ic
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
th
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
-------The end-------
KEYS
I. 1. had been crying 2. would burst 3. was considering(had been considering)

4. have changed 5. to have been rescused 6. Should have completed
II. 1.C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. A
III.
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A
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5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B
IV. 1C 2B 3D 4B 5D 6D 7C 8A
c
V. 1. Annoy annoying 2. an interest interest 3. in brochure the brochure
h.
4. cancelled been cancelled 5. Pinning pinned 6. horrified find horrified to
find an
VI. 1. does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children...
2. has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.……
3. my mind about resigning is out of question.
ng
4. some international flights are/will be subject to
VII: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (1.5 p).
ie
1. too 2. reached/entered 3. brought/got 4. seen/ visible

5. Before 6. with/ from
ht
VIII. 1.Misconception 2. fatalities 3. solitary 4. underestimated 5. precautions 6.

ic
Resistant
x. LISTENING :
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(2 PS)
You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best
answer(A, B or C).
1.You overhear a young man talking about his first job. How did he feel in his first job?
A. bored
B. confused
C. enthusiastic
2. You hear a radio announcement about a dance company. What are listeners being invited to?
A. a show
B. a talk
C. a party
3. You overhear a woman talking to a man about something that happened to her. Who was she?
A. a pedestrian
B. a driver
C. a passenger
om
4. You hear a woman talking on the radio about her work making wildlife films. What is her main
point?
A. Being in the right place at the right time is a matter of luck.
B. More time is spent planning than actually filming.
c
C. It is worthwhile spending time preparing.
h.
5. You hear part of a travel programme on the radio. Where is the speaker?
A. outside a cafe’
B. by the sea
C. on a lake
an
6. You overhear a woman talking about a table-tennis table in a sports shop. What does she want the
ng
shop
assistant to do about her table-tennis table?
A. provide her with a new one
B. have it put together for her
ie
C. give her the money back

ht
7. You hear part of an interview with a businesswoman. What is her business?

A. hiring out boats
B. hirring out caravans
ic
C. building boats
th
8. You hear a man talking on the radio. Who is talking?

A. an actor
B. a journalist
C. a theatre-goer

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(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)

A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE)

Address: (2)___________________ Road, Woodside 4032

Start time (5)____________________am

Childcare group The (6)____________________ group

Which meal(s) are required each day? (7)____________________

Medical conditions Needs (8)____________________

Emergency contact Jenny Ball

Relationship to child (9)____________________

Fees Will pay each (10)____________________

Part 2.Questions 1-5

with him on the trip.

answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.

1. A.September B. government C. primary D. separate

A. Let’s sleep on it and make our decision tomorrow.

C. Let sleeping dogs lie, will you?

6. Marriage, the American students believe, is essentially a partnership of _________.

A. correctly B. with difficulty C. truly D. with flying colors

Example: Line 1: to => on

1. What is the passage mainly about?

B. The impressive salt rocks in Death Valley.

D. The damaging effects of salt on roads and highways.

A. salty water B. groundwater table C. capillary action D. sediment

A. put B. reduce C. replace D. control

B. explain how some rocks are not affected by salt

circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.

1.A. looks B. comes C. becomes D. seems

up till I arrived. I rode on.

Part2. Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic.

“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication such as letters, e-

Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)

Part 1.(10pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

Part 3.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

C. LEXICO -GRAMMAR. (25pts)

Part 1.(10pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

Part 2.(10pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. endangered 2. existence 3.becoming 4. overpopulation 5. diversity

3. Line 4: times time

Part 1.(10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

E. WRITING. (20 pts)

Part 1.(5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (2p)

PART A: PHONETICS (1 point)

3. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thanks ..............”

A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable

A. graduate B. postgraduate C. undergraduate D. lower-graduate

6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________

III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)

IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points )

V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points)

PART C: READING (6 points)

C. Creating works of literature is very similar to dreaming.

A. He was a literary theorist.

5. The author uses the phrases formal fantasy in order to

1. A. home B. accommodation C. house D. landlady

1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________

PART D: WRITING (4 points)

XII. Writing an essay (2 points)

What is your opinion? Write an essay discussing the matter.

Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm.

(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points)

a. Demonstration of a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures

6_ 7 8 9 10__

1 2 3 4 5

6_ 7 8 9

18_ 19 20 21 22__

1_ 2 3 4 5__

1_______ 2 _ 3__________ _

deposits always (9)(discover), (10)_(guarantee) a rich link to the past.

6_ 7 8 9 10__

1 2 3 4 5