DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

P3
HAGAJA

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions
will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
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5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is P3.
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Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
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13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

PHYSICS

5. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field

SECTION - A 
' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
1. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is
is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
(1) 4n (2) n
(ε0 = permittivity of free space)
(3) 2n (4) 3n
E 2 Ad 1
Answer (3) (1) (2) ε0 E 2
ε0 2
2. Polar molecules are the molecules
1
(1) Having a permanent electric dipole moment (3) ε0EAd (4) ε0 E 2 Ad
2
(2) Having zero dipole moment Answer (4)
(3) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of 6. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
electric field due to displacement of charges of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
(4) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
field is absent perpendicular distance between the electron and the
Answer (1) conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
3. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated
at that instant.
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. 5
Electron v = 10 m/s
Column-II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations. 20 cm
Column-I Column-II
m
(A) Drift Velocity (P) P 5A Q
ne 2 ρ
(1) 8 × 10–20 N (2) 4 × 10–20 N
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
(3) 8π × 10–20 N (4) 4π × 10–20 N
eE Answer (1)
(C) Relaxation Period (R) τ
m
7. If E and G respectively denote energy and
E E
(D) Current Density (S) gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
J G
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) of
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q) (1) [M2] [L–2] [T–1] (2) [M2] [L–1] [T0]

(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P) (3) [M] [L–1] [T–1] (4) [M] [L0] [T0]

(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) Answer (2)
8. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
Answer (2)
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
4. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
since
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
(1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is
visibility of the images.
R12 R1 (2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
(1) (2) R
R22 2 gathering power.
R2  R1  (3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
(3) R (4) R  (4) All of the above
1  2
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

9. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the (1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
correct match from the given choices. increase.
Column - I Column - II (2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
increase.
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2
3 (3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
speed of gas decrease.
molecules (4) Towards the left as its potential energy will
3 RT decrease.
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M Answer (3)
by ideal gas
12. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a
5 concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT
2 the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If
energy of a
a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a
molecule
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
3
(D) Total internal (S) kBT (1) 30 (2) 25
2
energy of 1 mole (3) 15 (4) 50
of a diatomic gas Answer (3)
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S) 13. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
same mass density is
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(1) 4v (2) v
Answer (4)
(3) 2v (4) 3v
10. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
Answer (1)
identify the correct answer.
A
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, 14. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous
when used as a voltage regulator. decay in the sequence
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
A
0.1 V to 0.3 V. Z X →Z −1 B →Z −3 C →Z −2 D , where Z is the atomic

(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(1) β–, α, β+ (2) α, β–, β+
(3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
(3) α, β+, β– (4) β+, α, β–
(4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
15. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
11. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In used to measure the diameter of a wire
which direction will it move?
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
E wire from the above data is
+q –q
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.52 cm
(3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.26 cm
Answer (1)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

16. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 19. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
connected in series to an ac source of potential hours would be
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. 2 1
(1) (2)
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 3 2 2
V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current 1 2
(3) (4)
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The 2 2 3
Answer (3)
impedance of the circuit is
20. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
in the figure is
C
40 V 10 V 40 V
C
~
V C
(1) 5 Ω 3C
(1) (2) 3C
2
(2) 4 2 Ω C
(3) 2C (4)
2
(3) 5 2 Ω Answer (3)
21. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
(4) 4 Ω
consists of four wires of equal length, eaual area of
Answer (1) cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What
17. A particle is released from height S from the surface will be the effective resistance if they are connected
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is in series?
three times its potential energy. The height from the (1) 4 Ω (2) 0.25 Ω
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that (3) 0.5 Ω (4) 1 Ω
instant are respectively
Answer (1)

S 3gS S 3gS 22. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
(1) , (2) , fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
4 2 4 2
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6
MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
S 3gS S 3gS gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
(3) , (4) ,
4 2 2 2
(1) 216 MeV (2) 0.9 MeV
Answer (1) (3) 9.4 MeV (4) 804 MeV
18. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined Answer (1)
plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
23. The electron concentration in an n-type
distance travelled by the block in the interval
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
Sn a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn +1 applied across each of them. Compare the currents
in them.

2n 2n − 1 (1) No current will flow in p-type, current will only

(1) (2) flow in n-type
2n − 1 2n
(2) Current in n-type = current in p-type
2n − 1 2n + 1 (3) Current in p-type > current in n-type
(3) (4)
2n + 1 2n − 1
(4) Current in n-type > current in p-type.
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

24. The number of photons per second on an average 28. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of an ac source of voltage V, given by
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of V = V0sinωt
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
The displacement current between the plates of the
(1) 1015 (2) 1018 capacitor, would then be given by
(3) 1017 (4) 1016 (1) Id = V0ωCsinωt
Answer (4) (2) Id = V0ωCcosωt
25. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries
V0
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross- (3) Id = cos ωt
ωC
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the V0
(4) Id = sin ωt
cable is represented by ωC
Answer (2)
29. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
(1) B (2) B as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
dimensions of energy.
r r (1) [F][A–1][T] (2) [F][A][T]
(3) [F][A][T2] (4) [F][A][T–1]
Answer (3)
(3) B (4) B
30. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
r r
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
Answer (4)
length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
26. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
(1) 62 cm (2) 60 cm
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density of (3) 21.6 cm (4) 64 cm

d Answer (2)
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2 31. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
ball will be time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
Mg is suspended by it is
(1) 2Mg (2)
2 (1) 0.628 s (2) 0.0628 s
3 (3) 6.28 s (4) 3.14 s
(3) Mg (4) Mg
2 Answer (1)
Answer (2)
32. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
27. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the x-direction, which one of the following combination
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 . gives the correct possible directions for electric field
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

(1) − j + k, − j + k

(2) j + k, j + k

60° (3) − j + k , − j − k
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(4) j + k, − j − k
(3) 30° (4) 45°
Answer (2) Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

33. A cup coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, 37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis
at a room temperature same at 20°C is of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
final image would be formed at a distance of
5 13
(1) t (2) t
13 10

13 10
(3) t (4) t
5 13

Answer (3)
60 cm 40 cm
34. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength 'λ' is incident
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work (1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from image
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λd , then (2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
 2h  2
(1) λ =   λd (4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
 mc 
image
Answer (1)
 2m  2
(2) λ =   λd
 hc  38. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
 2mc  2 (Ve = escape velocity)
(3) λd =  λ
 h  The maximum height above the surface reached by
the particle is
 2mc  2
(4) λ =   λd Rk 2  k 
2
 h  (1) 2 (2) R  
1− k  1− k 
Answer (4) 2
 k  R 2k
35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 (3) R   (4)
 1+ k  1+ k
kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
Answer (1)
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine? 39. In the product
  
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 7.0 kW (2) 10.2 kW
(
F = q v ×B )

(3) 8.1 kW (4) 12.3 kW
(
= qv × Biˆ + Bjˆ + B0 kˆ )
Answer (3)

For q = 1 and v = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ and
SECTION - B 
F = 4iˆ – 20 ˆj + 12kˆ
36. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 
200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. What will be the complete expression for B ?
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(1) 6iˆ + 6 ˆj − 8kˆ (2) –8iˆ – 8 ˆj − 6kˆ
(1) 1980 V (2) 660 V
(3) 1320 V (4) 1520 V (3) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ − 8kˆ (4) 8iˆ + 8 ˆj − 6kˆ

Answer (1) Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

40. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are 42. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an
placed in the same plane with their centres arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
between them will be directly proportional to about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K'
R22 R1 times 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
(1) (2) R
R1 2
1
(1)
8
R2 R12
(3) R (4)
1 R2 3
(2)
4
Answer (1)
41. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 7
(3)
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would 8
be the output at the terminal y?
1
(4)
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 4
5
A Answer (2)
0
43. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
5 connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
B
0 i3
i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the
5 circuit is
C
0
i 2 r2
r1
A A i1 B
i3 r3

r2 r1
B (1) r + r (2) r + r
y 1 3 2 3

r2 r1
(3) r + r (4) r + r
2 3 1 2
C
Answer (3)
44. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
y person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
(1)
0V acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?

5V (1) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2

(2)
0V
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(3) 5V (3) 20 m/s, 0
5V
(4) (4) 20 2 m/s, 0
0V
Answer (1)
Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

45. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains 1

supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W (1) kg
12
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer,
what is the current in the primary circuit? 1
(2) kg
2
(1) 4 A
1
(2) 0.2 A (3) kg
3
(3) 0.4 A
1
(4) 2 A (4) kg
6
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
46. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
49. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the
revolution. If this particle were projected with the
ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly
same speed at an angle 'θ' to the horizontal, the
(1) 1.4 kg m/s maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The
(2) 0 kg m/s angle of projection, θ, is then given by :

(3) 4.2 kg m/s 1

2gT 2 
−1 
2
(4) 2.1 kg m/s (1) θ = sin  2 
 π R 
Answer (3)
47. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 1
 gT 2  2
80 μF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to (2) θ = cos−1  2 
230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular π R
frequencies of the source at which power transferred
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant 1
π2 R 
−1 
2
angular frequency are likely to be (3) θ = cos  2 
 gT 
(1) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 1
π2 R 
−1 
2
(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s (4) θ = sin  2 
 gT 
(4) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
50. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
48. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
in the shape of,
mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from (i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. (ii) a square of side 'a'.
Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)
case respectively are

0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm (1) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2

(2) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2

(3) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
(4) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2
2 kg m Answer (2)

8
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

51. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and

Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :

(bar)
(1) 12, 6 (3)

(2) 8, 4
Volume (V)
3
(3) 6, 12 (dm )

(4) 2, 1

K
0
K

20
Answer (1) 0
40
0K

Pressure (P)
52. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and 60

(bar)
ionic radii because of :
(4)
(1) Having similar chemical properties

(2) Belonging to same group Volume (V)

3
(dm )
(3) Diagonal relationship
Answer (1)
(4) Lanthanoid contraction 54. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
exhibited by", is :
Answer (4)
(1) Urea solution
53. Choose the correct option for graphical representation (2) NaCl solution
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
(3) Glucose solution
volume of a gas at different temperatures :
(4) Starch solution
Answer (4)
55. Which one among the following is the correct option
Pressure (P)

for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole

(bar)

600 K of ideal gas?

(1)
400 K
(1) CV = RCP
200 K
(2) CP + CV = R
Volume (V)
3 (3) CP – CV = R
(dm )
(4) CP = RCV
Answer (3)
56. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
Pressure (P)

vapour phase, are :

(bar)

(2) 200 K (1) Chain in both

400 K (2) Chain and dimer, respectively
600 K
(3) Linear in both

Volume (V) (4) Dimer and Linear, respectively

3
(dm ) Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

57. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits 63. The incorrect statement among the following is :
which of the following particles? (1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
(1) Neutron (n) (2) Beta (β–) when finely divided.
(3) Alpha (α) (4) Gamma (γ) (2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
Answer (2) element than lanthanoid contraction

58. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation (3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This colorless in the solid state
product formation is based on? (4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
(1) Huckel's Rule (2) Saytzeff's Rule electricity

(3) Hund's Rule (4) Hofmann Rule Answer (3)

Answer (2) 64. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order

given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
59. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
Hybridization and number of electrons around the Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,
central atom, respectively are : I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
(1) sp2 and 8 (2) sp3 and 4
increases.
(3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Answer (4) correct answer from the options given below.
60. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(i) C2H5MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
+ → Product (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(ii) H2O, H
(4) Statement I : correct but statement II is false
(1) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
Answer (2)
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
65. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
(3) pentan-2-ol
(4) pentan-3-ol
Answer (1)
61. The RBC efficiency is deficiency disease of : (1) (2)
(1) Vitamin B2
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Vitamin B6
(4) Vitamin B1 (3) (4)
Answer (2)
62. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa Answer (2)
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 66. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar is :
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer. (1) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I
(1) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1 (2) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I
(2) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1
(3) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
(3) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1 (4) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
Answer (3) Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

67. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi 72. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). –4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation 9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light the reaction is shown in option.
c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
(1) 21.92 cm (2) 219.3 m
(3) 219.2 m (4) 2192 m
Answer (2) B
PE A
(1)
68. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct Reaction Progress
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
(1) 6.25 (2) 8.50
(3) 5.50 (4) 7.75
Answer (4)
69. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving (2) PE B
A
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
Reaction Progress
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
pressure of these solutions is :
(1) P3 > P1 > P2
(2) P2 > P1 > P3 PE A
(3)
B
(3) P1 > P2 > P3
Reaction Progress
(4) P2 > P3 > P1
Answer (2)
70. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
is :
(1) 3 (4)
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 2
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
73. The compound which shows metamerism is :
71. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
blast furnace is : (1) C4H10O
(1) Upto 5000 K
(2) C5H12
(2) Upto 1200 K
(3) C3H8O
(3) Upto 2200 K
(4) Upto 1900 K (4) C3H6O

Answer (3) Answer (1)

11
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

74. The major product of the following chemical reaction 77. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
is : (1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
CH 3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
(2) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
CH CH CH2 + HBr ? donor atoms
CH 3
(3) Unidentate ligand
CH3 (4) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(1) CBr CH2 – CH3
CH3 Answer (2)
78. Which one of the following methods can be used to
CH3
CH CH2 CH2 Br obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
(2)
CH3 temperature?
(1) Zone refining

(3) (2) Electrolysis

(3) Chromatography
CH 3 (4) Distillation
CH CH CH 3
(4) CH Answer (4)
3
Br
79. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
Answer (2) reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

75. Which of the following reactions is the metal CH2 CH2

displacement reaction? Choose the right option. CH3 N CH 3
(1)
(1) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2↑ CH 3

Δ
(2) 2KClO3 ⎯⎯ → 2KCl + 3O2 CH2
(2) CH NO2
3

Δ
(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Al2O3 + 2Cr CH 2
CH3
(3) CH3 NH
(4) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2↑

Answer (3) CH2

(4) CH3 NH 2
76. Given below are two statements :
Answer (4)
Statement I :
80. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
narcotic analgesics. is :
Statement II : (1) Beryllium chloride

Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In (2) Calcium chloride

the light of the above statements, choose the correct (3) Strontium chloride
answer from the options given below.
(4) Magnesium chloride
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Answer (1)
true.
81. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (1) 0° (2) 120°
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false (3) 180° (4) 60°
Answer (3) Answer (1)

12
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

82. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon 87. Match List-I with List-II.
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
List-I List-II
option for the empirical formula of this compound is
: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM

(1) CH4 (2) CH (b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM

(3) CH2 (4) CH3 (c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM
Answer (4) (d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
83. Noble gases are named because of their inertness Choose the correct answer from the options given
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement below.
about them.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(1) Noble gases have large positive values of
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
electron gain enthalpy
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
points Answer (1)
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces 88. The product formed in the following chemical
Answer (3) reaction is:
84. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by
addition polymerisation? O O
NaBH4
(1) Dacron (2) Teflon CH3–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
(3) Nylon-66 (4) Novolac
CH2
Answer (2)
85. Match List-I with List-II.
OH O
List-I List-II
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(1)
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar CH 3
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal H
OH
Choose the correct answer from the options given
CH 2 –C–OCH3
below. (2)
OH
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) CH 3
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) O
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) CH 2 –CH 2–OH
(3)
Answer (2)
CH 3
SECTION - B
OH H
86. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is: CH 2 –C–CH3
(4)
(1) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0 (2) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0 OH
CH 3
(3) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0 (4) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
Answer (4) Answer (1)

13
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

89. In which one of the following arrangements the Choose the correct answer from the options given
given sequence is not strictly according to the below.
properties indicated against it? (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
< HBr < HI strength Answer (4)
(3) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
93. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
< H2Se < H2Te values S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
(4) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing acetic acid? Choose the correct option.

< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character

 Λ ° + = 350 S cm2 mol−1 
Answer (3)  H 
Λ° − = 50 S cm
2
mol −1 
NaOH, +?  CH3COO 
90. CH3CH3COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.

Consider the above reaction and identify the missing (1) 2.50 × 10−5 mol L−1
reagent/chemical.
(1) DIBAL-H (2) 1.75 × 10−4 mol L−1

(2) B2H6
(3) 2.50 × 10−4 mol L−1
(3) Red Phosphorus
(4) CaO (4) 1.75 × 10−5 mol L−1

Answer (4) Answer (4)

91. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in 94. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
nature? atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
(1) NO2 a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :

(2) POCl3 [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]

(1) 26.02
(3) CH2O
(2) 2.518
(4) SbCl5
(3) 2.602
Answer (4)
(4) 25.18
92. Match List - I with List - II.
Answer (4)
List - I List - II
95. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → (i) Acid rain
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
2SO3(g)
ratio 3 : 2 is :
(b) HOCl(g) hv (ii) Smog [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg

⋅ ⋅
OH+Cl
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(1) 350 mm of Hg
(c) CaCO3+H2SO4 → (iii) Ozone
(2) 160 mm of Hg
CaSO4+H2O+CO2 depletion
(3) 168 mm of Hg
(d) NO2 (g) hV (iv) Tropospheric (4) 336 mm of Hg
NO(g)+O(g) pollution Answer (4)

14
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

96. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an

 1
iso-electronic pair? 99. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T
(1) Fe2+, Mn2+
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the
(2) O2–, F– reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer.
(3) Na+, Mg2+
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
(4) Mn2+, Fe3+

Answer (1) (1) –83 kJ mol–1

97. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following (2) 41.5 kJ mol–1
chemical reaction is:
(3) 83.0 kJ mol–1

O (4) 166 kJ mol–1

CH3 C
CS2 H 3O
+
H Answer (2)
+ CrO 2Cl2 X

100. Match List-I with List-II

Cl List-I List-II
CH
H
(1)
CO, HCI
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
Anhyd. AlCl3/
CuCl
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2
reaction
(2)

O
CH(OCOCH 3 )2
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
(3)
NaOX
reaction
Cl
CH
Cl (c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction
(4) +R′ COOH
Conc. H2SO 4

Answer (2)

98. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical (d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification
reaction is: (I ) X2/Red P
I

– (ii) H 2O
NH2 N2 Cl –
–

Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R
Choose the correct answer from the options given
0.5°C
below.
Br Br Br
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(1) CuCN/KCN
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2) H2O
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) CH3CH2OH

(4) HI (4) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Answer (3) Answer (1)

15
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

BOTANY

106. Plants follow different pathways in response to

SECTION - A
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
101. Which of the following statements is not correct? of structures. This ability is called

(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem (1) Maturity (2) Elasticity

is upright. (3) Flexibility (4) Plasticity
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. Answer (4)
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. 107. Match List-I with List-II

(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.

List-I List-II
Answer (3) (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
102. Which of the following plants is monoecious? (b) (ii) Pomato
Plant tissue culture
(1) Cycas circinalis
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(2) Carica papaya
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
(3) Chara
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Marchantia polymorpha
below.
Answer (3)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
103. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Pyruvic acid (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Succinic acid Answer (3)
Answer (3) 108. In the equation GPP – R = NPP

104. Diadelphous stamens are found in R represents :

(1) China rose and citrus (1) Respiration losses

(2) China rose (2) Radiant energy

(3) Citrus (3) Retardation factor

(4) Environmental factor
(4) Pea
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
109. The production of gametes by the parents, formation
105. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
from a diagram called :
(1) Bright blue bands (1) Net square
(2) Yellow bands (2) Bullet square
(3) Bright orange bands (3) Punch square
(4) Dark red bands (4) Punnett square
Answer (3) Answer (4)

16
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

110. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
RNA molecules in both directions between
nucleus and cytoplasm
(2) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles
(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells
(4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
the materials present inside the nucleus and that
of the cytoplasm
Answer (2)
111. Match List-I with List-II.
114. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
(1) Telophase II
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Anaphase II
Answer (4)
115. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

List-I List-II
Answer (2)
116. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition it is known as :

(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases (1) Safety testing

(2) Biopiracy
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
(3) Gene therapy
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Molecular diagnosis
below.
Answer (3)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
117. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (3)
112. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
given time, is referred as :
(1) Standing crop (2) Climax
(3) Climax community (4) Standing state
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4) below.
113. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from (a) (b) (c) (d)
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
which, during pollination, brings genetically different (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
types of pollen grains to stigma, is : (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) Geitonogamy (4) Chasmogamy (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer (2) Answer (4)

17
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
118. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a 123. The site of perception of light in plants during
population is : photoperiodism is
(1) Genetic drift (1) Leaf
(2) Natural selection
(2) Shoot apex
(3) Genetic recombination
(3) Stem
(4) Mutation
(4) Axillary bud
Answer (1)
119. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two Answer (1)
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is 124. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
referred as :
(1) IBA
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
(2) IAA
(3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric
Answer (2) (3) NAA

120. Gemmae are present in (4) 2, 4-D

(1) Some Liverworts Answer (4)
(2) Mosses 125. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
(3) Pteridophytes
(1) Blue-green algae
(4) Some Gymnosperms
(2) Green algae
Answer (1)
(3) Brown algae
121. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates (4) Red algae
out : Answer (4)
(1) Polysaccharides
126. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(2) RNA
(b) (c)
(3) DNA (a)DNA ⎯⎯⎯
→ mRNA ⎯⎯⎯
→(d)
(4) Histones
(1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;
Answer (3)
(d)-Protein
122. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
(4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
(d)-Protein
Answer (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
127. Which of the following are not secondary
below.
metabolites in plants?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Rubber, gums
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Morphine, codeine
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) Amino acids, glucose

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) Vinblastin, curcumin

Answer (2) Answer (3)

18
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

128. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which 132. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
mechanism the competing species might have reserve food material?
evolved for their survival?
(1) Ulothrix
(1) Predation
(2) Ectocarpus
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Gracilaria
(3) Competitive release
(4) Volvox
(4) Mutualism
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
133. Genera like Selaginella and salvinia produce two
129. Which of the following is not an application of PCR kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Heterosporous
(1) Detection of gene mutation
(2) Homosorus
(2) Molecular diagnosis
(3) Heterosorus
(3) Gene amplification
(4) Homosporous
(4) Purification of isolated protein
Answer (1)
Answer (4)

130. Match List-I with List-II. 134. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

(1) Zeatin

(2) Kinetin

(3) Infrared rays

(4) Gamma rays

Answer (4)

135. Amensalism can be represented as:

Select the correct answer from the options given (1) Species A (+); Species B (0)
below.
(2) Species A (–); Species B (0)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Species A (+); Species B (+)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Species A (–); Species B (–)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (2)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) SECTION - B

Answer (2) 136. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
131. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is: process of transcription in eukaryotes?

(1) 8-nucleate and 8-celled (1) Transcribes only snRNAs

(2) 8-nucleate and 7-celled (2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

(3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA

(4) 7-nucleate and 7-celled (4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA

Answer (2) Answer (3)

19
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

137. Select the correct pair. 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
and PS II
and forming a lens shaped
opening in bark (2) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
(2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
cells in the epidermis
(3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
of grass leaves
reductase
(3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
bundles are surrounded tissue (4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
by large thick-walled cells
Answer (1)
(4) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium 142. Which of the following statements is correct ?
cambial ring
Answer (4) (1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
138. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. (2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
β-galactoside production and the recombinant (3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy

(1) It will be able to produce a novel protein with (4) Organisms that depend on living plants are
dual ability called saprophytes
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Answer (3)
to the host cell
(3) The transformed cells will have the ability to 143. Match Column-I with Column-II.
resist ampicillin as well as produce
β-galactoside
Column-I Column-II
(4) It will lead to lysis of host cell (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
Answer (2) (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
139. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in to nitrite

some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

(1) Polymorphic DNA (d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric

nitrogen to ammonia
(2) Satellite DNA
(3) Repetitive DNA Choose the correct answer from options given
(4) Single nucleotides below.
Answer (3)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
140. In the exponential growth equation Nt = No ert, e
represents (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) The base of geometric logarithms (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) The base of number logarithms
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) The base of exponential logarithms
(4) The base of natural logarithms (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer (4) Answer (2)

20
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

144. Which of the following statements of incorrect? 148. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton
List-I List-II
gradient in respiration
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(2) During aerobic respiration, role is oxygen is
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
limited to the terminal state fatty acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, (d) Polsyaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) ATP is synthesized through complex V
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer (3)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
145. In some members of which of the following pairs of
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
after release? (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae Answer (2)
(2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
149. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
List-I List-II
(4) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
Answer (1) synthesized
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
146. Identify the correct statement.
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
(1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of stage and initiation of
prokaryotes DNA replication
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
(2) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3' end of hnRNA (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
copied to an mRNA
Answer (3) (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

147. Match Column-I with Column-II Answer (4)

(a) % K(5) C1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae 150. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
+ 2 + (2) A (9) + 1
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G2 (ii) Liliaceae hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
followed by its detection using autoradiography
(c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae because :
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
(d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae film as the probe has complementarity with it
Select the correct answer from the options given (2) mutated gene partially appears on a
below. photographic film
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) a photographic film
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) mutated gene does not appear on a
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) photographic film as the probe has no
complementarity with it
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

ZOOLOGY

156. Match the following:

SECTION - A
List-I List-II
151. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
formation is produced by: (a) Physalia (I ) Pearl oyster

(1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney Limulus Portuguese Man of

(b) (ii)
War
(2) Alpha cells of pancreas
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
(4) The cells of bone marrow
Answer (1) Choose the correct answer from the options given
152. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect below.
with respect to cockroach? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
pair of anal cerci
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
of midgut and hind gut
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
the mouth parts Answer (4)
(4) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital 157. During the process of gene amplification using PCR,
pouch if very high temperature is not maintained in the
Answer (2) beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
will be affected first?
153. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(1) Ligation (2) Annealing
(1) Chyme
(2) Pancreatic juice (3) Extension (4) Denaturation

(3) Intestinal juice Answer (4)

(4) Gastric juice 158. Match List-I with List-II

Answer (3) List-I List-II
154. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows Aspergillus
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid
(1) Pachytene aceti
(2) Leptotene (c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
butylicum
(3) Zygotene
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid
(4) Diakinesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4)
below
155. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
(a) (b) (c) (d)
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
are: (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3 (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40 Answer (2)
Answer (2)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

159. Which of the following statements wrongly 164. Which one of the following belongs to the family
represents the nature of smooth muscle? Muscidae?
(1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood (1) House fly (2) Fire fly
vessels
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach
(2) These muscle have no striations
(3) They are involuntary muscles Answer (1)

(4) Communication among the cells is performed by 165. Identify the incorrect pair
intercalated discs
(1) Drugs – Ricin
Answer (4)
(2) Alkaloids – Codeine
160. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and (3) Toxin – Abrin
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
(4) Lectins – Concanavalin A
(1) Gout
Answer (1)
(2) Arthritis
166. Veneral diseases can spread through :
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Myasthenia gravis (a) Using sterile needles

Answer (4) (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

161. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as (c) Infected mother to foetus
"Universal recipients". This is due to :
(d) Kissing
(1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
plasma (e) Inheritance
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of Choose the correct answer from the option given
RBCs below
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(1) (a) and (c) only
(4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
RBCs
Answer (1) (3) (b), (c) and (d) only

162. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. (4) (b) and (c) only
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
Answer (4)
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase? 167. The organelles that are included in the
(1) 32 (2) 8 endomembrane system are

(3) 16 (4) 4 (1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,

Answer (2) Mitochondria and Lysosomes

163. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
on : Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(1) Zona pellucida (3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
(2) Corona radiata Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(3) Vitelline membrane (4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and

(4) Perivitelline space Lysosomes

Answer (1) Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

168. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis 172. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
and understanding its pathophysiology is very and pneumatic long bones?
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic (1) Ornithorhynchus
techniques is very useful for early detection?
(2) Neophron
(1) Hybridization Technique
(3) Hemidactylus
(2) Western Blotting Technique
(4) Macropus
(3) Southern Blotting Technique Answer (2)
(4) ELISA Technique 173. Read the following statements
Answer (3/4*) (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
169. With regard to insulin choose correct options. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
organization.
peptide.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide digestion.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
interconnected by disulphide bridges. Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the option given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below below.
(1) (a) and (d) only (1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) only (2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) only (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
174. Match List-I with List-II.
170. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions List-I List-II
within the DNA is:
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences Cervix is blocked
(2) Degenerate primer sequence (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
(3) Okazaki sequences deferens

(4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of

sperms within the Uterus
Answer (4)
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
171. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the Choose the correct answer from the option given
process of transcription in prokaryotes? below
(1) DNase (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iiii)
(4) DNA Ligase (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer (3) (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

175. Sphincter of oddi is present at: 179. Which of the following is not an objective of
(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum Biofortification in crops?

(2) Ileo-caecal junction (1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content

(3) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and (2) Improve protein content

duodenum (3) Improve resistance to diseases
(4) Gastro-oesophageal junction (4) Improve vitamin content
Answer (3) Answer (3)
176. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what 180. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it? (1) Troposphere (2) CFCs
(3) Stratosphere (4) Ozone
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
Answer (4)
(2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
181. Which one of the following is an example of
(3) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
Hormone releasing IUD?
(4) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
(1) Multiload 375 (2) CuT
Answer (4) (3) LNG 20 (4) Cu 7
177. Match List - I with List - II Answer (3)
182. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
(1) G2 phase (2) S-phase
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
Answer (2)
183. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
synthesis of protein?
(1) siRNA (2) mRNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) tRNA (4) rRNA
below.
Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
184. In a cross between a male and female, both
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) 100% (2) 50%

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) 75% (4) 25%

Answer (4) Answer (4)

185. Select the favourable conditions required for the
178. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
inactive fibrinogens to fibrinns?
(1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(1) Thrombokiase
(2) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(2) Thrombin
(3) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher
(3) Renin
temperature
(4) Epinephrine (4) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
Answer (2) temperature
Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

186. Match List-I with List - II 188. Which of these is not an important component of
initiation of parturition in humans ?
List - I List - II
(1) Release of Prolactin
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
adaptation (3) Synthesis of prostaglandins

(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish (4) Release of Oxytocin

adaptation at depth Answer (1)

(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal 189. Which one of the following statements about
adaptation Histones is wrong ?
(1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (2) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Arginine
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) Answer (3)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 190. During muscular contraction which of the following
events occur ?
Answer (4)
(a) 'H' zone disappears
187. Match List - I with List - II
(b) 'A' band widens
List - I List - II
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
radiation resistant varieties Pi
due to excessive
use of herbicides (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
and pesticides Choose the correct answer from the options given
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs beloow
evolution in Man and Whale
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
evolution and Bird (2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches (3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
anthropogenic
action (4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
Answer (2)
Choose the correct anser from the options given
below. 191. Match List-I with List-II

(a) (b) (c) (d) List -I List -II

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) Cartilaginous
(a) Scapula (i)
joints
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Vertebral Triangular flat
Answer (2) (d) (iv)
column bone

26
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

Choose the correct answer from the options given 195. Match List-I with List-II
below
List -I List -II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) influenzae
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Wuchereria
(c) Pneumonia (iii)
bancrofti
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Entamoeba
(d) Ringworm (iv)
Answer (1) histolytica

192. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and Choose the correct answer from the options given
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like below
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
high altitude, the body does not get sufficent
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
oxygen.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true Answer (3)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 196. Following are the statements with reference to
explanation of (A) 'lipids'.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
correct explanation of (A) unsaturated fatty acids
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Answer (2) (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
193. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(1) Addison's disease carboxyl carbon.

(2) Dysfunction of Immune system Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(3) Parkinson's disease
(1) (b) and (e) only
(4) Digestive disorder
(2) (a) and (b) only
Answer (2)
(3) (c) and (d) only
194. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)? (4) (b) and (c) only

(1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate Answer (4)

mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like
activity for super ovulation
(3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
(4) Cow is fertilized by artifical insemination
Answer (2)
197. Following are the statements about prostomium of
earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.

(d) It is the first body segment.

27
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)

Choose the correct answer from the options given In the light of the above statements, choose the
below. correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (b) and (c) are correct (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
198. Which of the following secrets the hormone, relaxin,
200. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
during the later phase of pregnancy?
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(1) Uterus facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
(2) Graafian follicle via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(3) Corpus luteum (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,

respectively
(4) Foetus
(2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
Answer (3) respectively
199. Statement I: The condon 'AUG' codes for (3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
methionine and phenylalanine. (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code respectively.
for the amino acid lysine. Answer (3)

  

28