Practice Test Des Ox27neill Compress

GAMSAT
PREPARATION
COURSES
DIRECTOR
DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed.
CONSULTANTS
J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc
Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons)
Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc.
GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES
Des O’Neill’s GAMSAT Preparation Courses
Thank you for your inquiry about our DIRECTOR

Gamsat Preparation Courses. DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed.
We have specialised in preparing candidates for GAMSAT in CONSULTANTS

Australia since 1996. From 2003, we have offered our full pre- J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc
Gamsat preparation program as a Home Study Course to Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons)
candidates world-wide. As the original providers of GAMSAT Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc.
preparation, we are, by far, the most popular, the most
respected and the most experienced means that candidates use
for GAMSAT preparation. PO Box 2017
Ashgrove QLD 4060
To help in your preparation for the forthcoming Gamsat, we Australia
recommend one of our discounted packages. Its resources are
huge by any comparison ─ more than 1700 pages, 390 concept- Ph 04 1966 7151
building questions in science, 2200 multiple-choice questions O/S Ph +614 1966 7151
arranged as full Gamsat tests or under their dominant thinking
skills, almost 5 kg in weight. www.gamsatprep.com.au
des@gamsatprep.com.au
Successful Candidature
We cannot give you truthful statistics on the success rate of our

candidates in obtaining places at medical schools because privacy
provisions since 2005 have precluded accurate collection of such
data. Success rates in the ten years prior to that were exceptional
and participation rates in our courses have risen by an average of
20% p.a. since then. We hope that you too will enjoy success.
However, we can give you the results of a recent survey done by

Paging Dr, an independent forum group, about which preparation
course would be recommended by students.
(Please note we have excluded the non-commercial companies from the results)
120
100
Des O'Neill's
Exam Crackers
80 Gamsat Guru
Gold Standard
60 Grad Med
Griffiths Gamsat
Review
40 Medired
Medprep
Ozimed
20
0
Section Section Section
1 2 3
What Packages, Products and Courses do we offer?
Green Series
Practising Writing Better Writing Better
Pre-Gamsat
Red Series Humanities Essays Home- Essays
Pre-Gamsat Science
Science MCQs and Based Home-Based
MCQ Courses Revision
Revision Book Practising (6 Essay (3 Essay
Courses
Science MCQs Tasks) Tasks)
Book
Titanium
Package
Gold Package
Platinum
Package
(avail Mid-Feb)
Ruby Package
(avail Mid-Feb)
Silver Home
Study
Bronze Home
Study
When will these courses or offers be available?
Science-Revision Home Study Course Available throughout the year.

For those sitting the Australian Gamsat, corrections are available from
15 December to mid‐March
Aim to send in your first essay
by 15 January to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or
by 15 February to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT.
Writing Better Essays Courses
For those sitting the UK September Gamsat, corrections are available from
15 of June to mid‐September.
Aim to send in your first essay
by 19 July to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or
by 18 August to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT.
Practising Humanities MCQs and
Available throughout the year.
Practising Science MCQs
Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide A weekend in January or early February
and Perth Pre‐Gamsat Science Revision Saturday and Sunday 9 am – 6pm.
Attendance Courses
Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide
A weekend in February or early March
and Perth Pre‐Gamsat MCQs & Exam
Saturday 8:15 am – 5 pm; Sunday 9 am – 5 pm.
Courses
Des O’Neill and his team
Des was the Multiple-choice Coordinator for the Queensland Core

Skills Test. He has been a test-developer since 1991 and is one of
a very small and elite group of test makers in Australia.
As the major advisor to a Queensland Government agency on the

purchase of test-materials from ACER, Des was privy to much of
ACER’s creative test-development work over many years, learnt
much from them and developed a respect and high regard for
their expertise in test-development and candidate assessment.
Des has a Bachelor of Science majoring in Physics and

Mathematics, a Bachelor of Arts majoring in English, and a
Masters in Education specialising in assessment. An author of eight
published books, he is the leader of a team of more than twenty
people, all specialists in their own areas, who will help you in
their various ways on your progress into a career in Medicine,
Dentistry, Optometry, Podiatry or Pharmacy.
The preparation materials provided by Des O’Neill and his

team are written in Australia specifically for Gamsat
methods of testing and prepare you well for the task
ahead.
Success of our candidates
We are very proud of the The historical record since 1996 shows that candidates who have
number of candidates who done our courses have consistently filled between one-third and
one-half of the relevant post-graduate places available at
do our courses and get Australian Universities. If those who have done our course are
scores sufficient for them to visualised separately from the rest of the total candidature, you
progress to interview and can easily see that those who neglect to do our courses have
then on to medical, considerably worse odds for gaining entry.
dentistry, optometry and We are very proud of the number of candidates who do our
courses and get scores sufficient for them to progress to interview
pharmacy schools.
and then on to medical, dentistry, optometry, podiatry and
pharmacy schools. 354 of our candidates commenced the
Graduate Medical Program in 2005. The total number of post-
graduate medical places available in 2005 was 903 at eight
participating universities. In the previous year 454 candidates
attended our MCQs & Exam Course.
Since then, privacy provisions no longer allow the collection of
data that would indicate which candidates actually commenced
the post-graduate medical program and any claims of more recent
success-rates are simply not relevant. However, many candidates
do let us know their results when they ask, soon after the results
are released to them in May, for our suggestions as to which
medical schools they should apply for.
Today twelve medical schools, two dental schools, one optometry
school, one podiatry school and one pharmacy school at Masters
level accept graduates as candidates via Gamsat. The published
number (May 2013) of places available to Australian/NZ
candidates for post-graduate medicine in 2014 is 1564. However,
only about 950 of those places are CSPs (Commonwealth
Supported Places – previously called HECS Places) that require the
standard student contribution of around $9,000 p.a.
The remainder are either full-fee domestic places or are BMPs
(Bonded Medical Places) which, in addition to the contribution of
around $9,000 p.a., bond the student for four years. The nature
of the bond restricts the bonded doctor’s practice of medicine at
some future time to hospitals in certain geographically-defined
locations. The conditions of the bond have changed over time and
candidates are advised to do an internet search to find, and then
read carefully, the current contract.
Candidates who are aiming at a CSP need to be aware from the
beginning that, with over 10,000 candidates now being reported
as sitting the Gamsat, the hunt for CSPs is fiercely competitive.
You should set your goals for a Gamsat score of 64 or better which
should put you into the top 15% of this reasonably exclusive
candidature.
Overall scores at Gamsat range from about 34 to about 84 with
the median around 56-58. They are not a percentage. The scores
are not out of 100 and there is no such concept as a “pass”.
Several of our candidates over the years have scored in the 90s
for Section 3 (Science) with two exceptional candidates reporting
scores in excess of 100.
Des O’Neill’s preparation courses for GAMSAT
Worldwide For Gamsat candidates worldwide including those in remote parts of

Australia, our Home Study Package (more than 1700 pages) consists of:
• our Prognostic Preparatory Test which is available for free
• Writing Better Essays - a course of six lessons on essay writing which
includes 6 tasks (12 of your essays are corrected) or 3 tasks (6 of your
essays are corrected)
• Science-Revision Course on Physical Chemistry, Organic
Chemistry, Biochemistry and Physics, with 390 concept-building
questions on Chemistry and Physics and 100 multiple-choice
questions on Biology with full solutions to same, to guide your
science revision
• Practising Humanities MCQs Course with 1140 statistically-stable
multiple-choice questions and five Humanities practice tests (75
questions in each)
• Practising Science MCQs Course with 970 statistically-stable
multiple-choice questions and four Science practice tests (110
questions in each). These are in addition to the 100 MCQs that
are in the Science-Revision Course.
Australian Capital Cities In Australia, in addition to the Home Study Courses above, we offer a
Science-Revision Attendance Course on Chemistry and Physics and a
MCQs & Exam Attendance Course which includes a full trial test.
These are held in Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne and Adelaide.

GAMSAT for Australian and Irish entry is held in March.
GAMSAT for UK entry is held in September.
Please check the official Gamsat Website to learn about your
eligibility to sit Gamsat, to register to sit Gamsat, the validity of your
Gamsat score for an application, and to make an application for
admission.
Our packages work like this
You can pay by Visa or MasterCard online on the shopping cart or

you can mail your order to us enclosing your Visa or MasterCard
details or an Australian money order (available at the Post Office)
or a cheque made out to Gamsat Preparation Courses.
When you pay for the Titanium, Gold, Platinum, Ruby,

Silver or Bronze package, you receive back by mail:
Our current Science‐Revision Course book
Our current Practising Humanities MCQs Course book
Our current Practising Science MCQs Course book
Other relevant materials
The lessons and appropriate tasks for Writing Better Essays,
together with peer essays for each task and the markers’ appraisals of
these essays, all are dispatched as soon as possible and
Tickets to those courses included in the package.

Subsequent Emails:
You send progressively your six essay tasks (Titanium, Platinum,Silver) or
three essay tasks (Gold, Ruby, Bronze) by email.
Our returns by email each time include corrections as well as constructive
criticism and advice on how to improve your essay writing skills.

Refunds
There are no refunds for non-completed tasks of Writing Better

Essays or for any courses after you have received the course
materials. Because we experience an avalanche of essay tasks,
there are deadlines for acceptance of each task. Also, for any
candidate, our team will correct a maximum of one essay task per
week. As this is a personalised course on essay writing, materials
supplied and relevant feedback are only available as participants
complete each of the separate tasks within the available
time frame.
A condition of participating in our courses is an acceptance by

participants that Gamsat Preparation Courses accepts no legal
liability for personal injury, property damage or loss of any kind.
Despite the use of Gamsat in our trading name, our company is

not connected with any of the Universities or with ACER.
Some recent emails received
I just wanted to let you know my excellent result from Gamsat and I
am sure it’s all down to doing your course. This is my first time sitting
Gamsat. I got an overall score of 75 and 81 for Section 3 which was the
biggest surprise. I cannot praise your course highly enough and I will
certainly recommend your course far and wide. Thanks again for
sharing your insights.
Just wanted to say a big thank-you. 68 in Section II was much
higher than I expected and also 64 in Science, again higher than I
had expected.
I sat Gamsat last year as practice with virtually no preparation and got
63 overall. I enrolled in your Titanium Package in order to prepare for
the real thing this year and achieved an overall score of 72 with a big
improvement to 80 in the Science. I got 79 in the essays, my thanks to
your WBE markers.
I improved my written communication score by a massive 13
points and my Science by 7 points. The course you offered was
really valuable as were the resources and practice papers
provided.
Thank you for all your courses and the preparation material you
provided. It truly helped me achieve my best possible score (an overall
67 with 75 in Science).
Thank you for helping me so much with my preparation. I could
not have received 67 without your courses. Thanks for all the
effort you put into them.
Thank you for a great course. I believe it helped me greatly. I improved
my overall score by 11 points this year. I undertook your Titanium
Package and found it very helpful. I got a Gamsat score of 68.
I got an overall score of 67 and give credit to your weekend
courses and especially to your essay writing course (scored 72).
Your essay course was amazing, hence the better results. Your MCQs
are definitely Gamsat-level and thus I was not shocked by the degree of
difficulty of the questions. Thank you so much for all your help.
I found your course comprehensive and extremely helpful in
preparing for Gamsat. On the day, I found there were no surprises
which to me is a reflection of how well your course and practice
questions/essays mimic the real thing.
Some recent emails received
Thank you for your courses. I believe they were the key to boosting my
science score up to 74 from 62 the previous year.
This year my Science improved from 75 to 86 thanks to your
workbooks. I went through the Science section a number of times.
I appreciate your help with my studies.
Thank you for your assistance and the excellent courses you have
developed over the years. I attended the Science Revision and Exam
technique courses. I found them well prepared, professionally run and
most importantly, highly relevant and useful.
Thank you. Your course was invaluable to me and I believe it
provided a fantastic set of resources, skills and hints for
preparation. I doubt I could have passed without your inspired
teaching. I came to you by referral and will gladly sing your
praises too.
I wanted to say thanks for your excellent Gamsat programs in Science
Prep and Multi-choice questions. I really enjoyed your courses, the
way they were structured and the quality of the teaching.
The effort you (and I’m sure the many people involved behind the
scenes) put in is amazing and much appreciated by many people.
The past two times I have taken the test I got an overall score of
53. Jumping from this to 64 was amazing.
I was pleasantly surprised at my Gamsat results. Having not had a
science background not even in school, such a strong result in the
science section 64, was not really something I expected. I owe a big
thanks to your courses.
I only started to learn the basics of Science in May last year and I
would like to thank you for the invaluable assistance and teaching
that was provided in your course. I’m sure I would not have a
hope of applying for medical school if it was not for yourself and
your team.
Writing Better Essays
Preparing you for Section 2 of GAMSAT The level of advice relates

to the increasing ability of
Writing Better Essays is a six lesson/tasks Home-based /
Correspondence Course available from September to mid-
the candidate and opens
March for those whose GAMSAT is in March (AU & IE) and from new vistas on essay
April to mid-September for those whose GAMSAT is in writing to help improve
September (UK). performance.
We recommend that you start this home-based correspondence

course as soon as possible. You should complete, at the very
least, three of the six tasks.
Lessons in essay writing are an integral part of Writing Better

Essays. These lessons teach the specific skills required for success
in the Gamsat essay-writing section and help to hone skills that
will permanently improve your ability to write well.
This course is designed to give advice on essay writing at different

levels as the six tasks are progressively completed. Submitted
essays are marked and then the candidate is provided with
constructive and positive feedback on how to improve their
individual styles. The level of advice relates to the increasing
ability of the candidate and opens new vistas on essay writing to
help improve performance.
In addition, markers’ commentaries on essays on the same topics

by peers from previous years reinforce aspects of essay
organisation and style.
This home-based/correspondence course has become very

popular. Our team manages to keep up with the demand each
working day, marking, appraising and sending back the graded
essays, the correction and the advice.
Allocate at least 2 ½ hours per task to read our appraisal of your

essays, our corrections and advice, the peer essays on the
comments you chose, our next lesson on essay writing, and to
write your next two essays.
In GAMSAT, the two essays (Section 2) have the same overall

value in your overall GAMSAT score as the 75 multiple-choice
questions in Humanities (Section 1). Most Universities require that
you get above a defined score in each of the three Sections of
GAMSAT. Thus you need to do well on all three Sections of the
test.
We have a clear policy that we do not open attachments. For

each task, send your typed essays together in the same email and
in the body of that email. If possible, use medium size or 12-14
point Arial as the font in the email.
On our shopping cart the cost is given of Writing Better Essays for
For each task: six lessons and six tasks or for six lessons and three tasks.
• your essays are graded, Alternatively, you can incorporate these courses into a Titanium,
• constructive criticism Gold, Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package, or into a Silver or
and advice are given, Bronze Home Study Package at a discount.
• there is a further lesson
If you are very late joining our courses, please check the website
in essay writing, and as we may be able to offer you an Express Marking Service even
• peer essays and their though it is past the usual time to start our Writing Better Essays
marker’s appraisals course. There will be a small extra charge for this priority
(from previous cohorts) marking service.
are supplied.
You can purchase our writing better essays courses here:
Our aim in our Writing Better Essays Course is to enable you to

write two good essays within a single hour. These two essays are
worth one-quarter of your overall Gamsat mark. Our Complete
Writing Better Essays Course consists of 6 Lessons and 6 Tasks and
our Short Course has 6 Lessons and 3 Tasks. Essay tasks are
accepted for appraisal in the three months just prior to your
Gamsat (from 15 December onwards for Gamsat AU/IE and from
15 June onwards for Gamsat UK).
You will receive your first essay task and instructions on how to
complete it when the fee is paid. Here is a sample of the first
WRITING BETTER ESSAYS The criteria for marking:
Home Study Session 1 What does the task of writing

essays for Gamsat entail and
how much should you write?
Part A: Preliminary Ideas
WRITING BETTER ESSAYS What is an expository

essay?
Home Study Session 1
How to establish a point of
view
Part B: The Expository Essay
WRITING BETTER ESSAYS In regard to planning, a

minimal plan could be: …
Home Study Session 1
For those who like
mnemonics, maybe these will
Part C: Planning an expository essay help...
WRITING BETTER ESSAYS Step by step instruction on

how to write the first
Home Study Session 1 expository essay. Parts E, F
and G then take you through
the same steps to guide you
Part D: Writing an expository essay to write the first discursive
essay.
Finally there are 24 peer Comment:

essays written by past Loneliness — the most terrible poverty
students, comparable to Discursive, personal, reflective, somewhat pensive
the one below and on your
E1, all with markers’ The inherent capacity of human beings to receive and give love so
appraisals, which ensures selflessly never ceases to amaze me. It is ingrained within each
that you receive essays on and every one of us, and I certainly could not imagine passing
the comment(s) that you through life in loneliness, devoid of human companionship and the
have chosen. belief that my presence is unvalued amongst my loved ones.
I think it is quite easy in today’s high-octane, ambitious, career-
driven society to... (and so on)
Marker’s appraisal: Loneliness — the most terrible poverty is a
sensitive and moving piece of writing. Using a graphic description
drawn from her own experience of working in a home for the
abandoned, the writer is able to present her insights into the
devastating effects of loneliness on human beings. Her
compassion is evident as is the fact that she has more than a
superficial understanding of the topic. Her use of her current
experiences in working with the elderly forms a further
framework for her reflections.
Subsequent lessons teach you how to improve the first and final
paragraphs of your essay, how to unify the ideas in each of the
paragraphs, how to connect your paragraphs, how to vary your
sentence structures and the effects that this has, and so on.
After each lesson you do a task of writing two essays, a task
similar to what you will have to do in Section 2 of Gamsat. Each
essay will be marked and graded according to the criteria used at
Gamsat, any necessary corrections will be noted and positive
suggestions made.
At each task you will be provided with a similar quantity of peer
essays, all with markers’ appraisals.
We recommend that you send your first essay task to us for correction by email by 15 January for
Australian/Irish Gamsat or by 19 July if you are sitting for the UK Gamsat.
You must submit your tasks by the deadlines given below for your essay task to be marked. If you
miss a deadline, move to the next task.
Recommended date Deadline date

to aim for for acceptance
AU/IE UK AU/IE UK
Task 1 15 January / 19 July 5 February / 5 Aug
Task 2 26 January / 29 July 13 February / 12 Aug
Task 3 6 February / 8 Aug 21 February / 19 Aug
Task 4 17 February / 18 Aug 1 March / 26 Aug
Task 5 28 February / 28 Aug 8 March / 2 Sept
Task 6 11 March / 7 Sept 15 March / 9 Sept
Science Revision Course
Providing you with a clear pathway through the maze of The contact time of the
concepts and terminology that you will need in order to Science-Revision
understand the materials in section 3 of GAMSAT Attendance Course is
16 hours (Saturday and
At GAMSAT, knowledge of certain areas of science is presumed. Sunday 9am to 6pm – not
Thus test developers can use appropriate terms and concepts and counting meal breaks/
expect that you will be able to understand them. They can write homework).
questions that use conceptualisations, structures, and jargon from The full cost of the Science-
First Year University courses in Chemistry and Biology as well as Revision Attendance Course is
from all the topics of Year 12 Physics. listed on our shopping cart.
Via the results of thousands of GAMSAT candidates on our trial The Science-Revision Home
tests from 1996 onwards, we have identified areas of science that Study Course price is listed
candidates need to relearn or revise. These major areas of on our shopping cart.
General and Human Biology, Physical & Organic Chemistry,
Alternatively, you can
Biochemistry and Physics are the basis of our Science-Revision
incorporate this Science
Course.
Revision Attendance Course
into a Titanium or Gold
Our Science Summary outlines in detail those areas of science
Attendance Package at a
that we consider are prerequisite knowledge for GAMSAT and that
discount, or this Science-
forms the basis of our Science-Revision Course. It also gives a list
Revision Home Study Course
of suitable reference books.
into a Platinum or Ruby
Attendance Package or a
GAMSAT Preparation Courses has condensed the study matter so
Silver or Bronze Home Study
that candidates can prepare at their own pace with all the
essential material at their disposal. Our teaching style makes Package at a discount.
science both interesting and memorable with illustrative The same Science-Revision
anecdotes and applications interspersed to ensure excellent recall book is used for the Science-
of complex concepts. Our specialist session leaders, for chemistry Revision Home Study Course
and physics, tie concepts together and relate them to applications and for the corresponding
and experiences in the real world. Our science teaching lives. Attendance Course. The book
The course will fill gaps in knowledge for some while refreshing is sent to you when you enrol
connections between topics for others. Des O’Neill’s Science- so that you can pre-study
Revision Course will supplement your own revision in areas that from it before attending the
are conceptually difficult. Science-Revision Course in
Australia in January or early
We provide a comprehensive book that will help you identify and February.
study the areas of science that we consider important in your
preparation for GAMSAT. These copyrighted materials form an
integral part of the attendance sessions. As well as 390 concept-
building questions on Chemistry and Physics, we offer you in this
book a collection of 100 statistically-stable multiple-choice
questions on Biology at GAMSAT standard. All of our questions
come with full solutions.
MCQs & Exam Course
The contact time is 14 hours Preparing you for GAMSAT-style multiple-choice questions
(8:15 am – 5 pm on Saturday in Sections 1 and 3 of GAMSAT
and 9 am to 5 pm on
Sunday). Des O’Neill’s Pre-Gamsat MCQs & Exam Course is the culminating
segment of your preparation for GAMSAT. It takes you through the
The full cost of the MCQs & final stage of your GAMSAT preparation. Candidates from previous
exam Attendance Course years insist that this is the course that all serious candidates
which includes both books should take and report that Des O’Neill’s MCQs & Exam Course
below is listed on our is “the best” preparation for the Gamsat experience.
shopping cart.
This course focuses on the thinking-skills that are the founda-
However each book can be tion of the GAMSAT testing process
bought separately: It provides you with our valuable and unique set of statistically-
stable humanities and science multiple-choice questions based
The Home Study Practicing around thinking skills. (A statistical process, based on perform-
Humanities MCQs Course cost ance on these questions by a population of peers, has been used
is given on our shopping cart. to eliminate all the confusing and non-working questions so that
what remains, as this unique set, is of exceptional quality)
The Home Study Practicing The attendance course infuses test-taking strategies and time-
Science MCQs Course cost is management skills into practice sessions and gives, via the trial
given on our shopping cart. test (Attendance) or the practice tests (Attendance and Home
Alternatively, you can Study), the experience of a full GAMSAT exam in a single day. Pat-
incorporate these courses terns of testing and pathways to tackle MCQs are clarified.
into a Titanium, Gold,
Platinum or Ruby Attendance From your results in the trial and practice tests, you will obtain a
Package, or into a Silver or personal profile of your strengths and derive, from that profile,
Bronze Home Study Package. your own Personal Strategy for Tackling GAMSAT. You will come
to understand how you should spend your remaining preparation
time and how you should personally prioritise your efforts within
the forthcoming GAMSAT in order to achieve at your competitive
best.
At the Attendance Course, you will access more than 2400 statis-
tically-stable Gamsat-style multiple-choice questions. 2200 of
these are in our Practicing Humanities and Science MCQs books
which have guides to their answers (humanities) and full solutions
(science).
Interview Workshops
Interview Workshops are held in prior to the Australian Medical The contact time is 5 hours.
School Interviews in August/September.
The full cost of the
Interview Workshop is listed
A choice of Interview-preparation Workshops will be offered to on our shopping cart.
those who take one of our Pre-Gamsat courses. The cost per
person of these five-hour small-groups Interview Workshops will
be listed on our shopping cart. Our mentoring thus continues over
a full year.
After you have received your Gamsat results in May and made
your application for Medical and/or Dentistry School by the due
date, you will be sent a reminder about our Interview Workshops.
Payment for the workshop can be made online at that time or
mailed to us.
In our five-hour Post-Gamsat Interview Workshop, every

participant has a full practice interview based on the criteria for
the university to which they have been called for interview. As
well, each takes on a role of interviewer to gain a perspective
from the other side of the table. There are group-learning
sessions as well as recommendations for a variety of preparatory
readings and personalised tasks.
For Information about GAMSAT

Between mid-October to January
• Visit the Gamsat website http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au

and download the GAMSAT Information Booklet
• Contact the Australian Council for Education Research

with any enquiries about the test itself.
E: gamsat@acer.edu.au
• By the date required (usually in January), enrol for GAMSAT via

http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au
On the Gamsat Saturday in March, sit GAMSAT.

APPENDIX
Prognostic Test
i
Des O’Neill’s
Prognostic
Preparatory Test
This test is designed to give you an indication of your current standard in answering multiple-
choice questions at the Gamsat standard. This collection will also give you an insight into the
diversity of the multiple-choice questions that are in our Practising Humanities and Science
MCQs books.
Do not open this test paper until you have 75 minutes or more to devote to working this test.
It will ruin its effectiveness if you sneak a peek at it before you start.
Directions
1 Time allowed: No perusal time but 75 minutes for recording your answers.
2 For each question there are four alternative responses represented by the
letters A, B, C, D. Choose one of these as your answer.
3 You may attempt the units in any order.
4 Towards the end of the test make sure you have an answer recorded for every
question even if you need to take more than 75 minutes. There are no
penalties for incorrect answers.
© Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au

Phone (+614) 1966 7151 des@gamsatprep.com.au
ii
Unit 1
A Small Reflection
(For My Daughter)
Each morning she constructs mosaics,

weaves words in a web to net the day.
We stitch stories, our small semantics.
‘Each question has an answer,’ I say.
5 I know, in truth, we make rough guesses:

there’s no finished map of the terrain.
All discovery is a function
of individual choice and pain.
For now, I watch her scatter puddles;

10 I reprove, urge, kiss, the common things,
dwell upon her daily adventures,
discuss why it is a magpie sings.
But what can I bequeath for later?

Hardly any justified belief,
15 a clutch of strongly held opinions,
a few theorems for comic relief.
She kicks water at the autumn sun,

as it arcs across this pristine day.
I know she will soon assume a world
20 beyond all that I can guess or say.
! Rod Moran
Question 1
When speaking of his daughter, the poet (stanza 1, line 4) says, ‘Each question has an answer’.
Yet in later stanzas uncertainty is evident in responding to the unknowns of life.
In which of the following stanzas is this uncertainty of the poet least evident?
A stanza 2 C stanza 4
B stanza 3 D stanza 5
Question 2
‘She kicks water at the autumn sun,
as it arcs across this pristine day.’ (lines 17–18)
The obvious meaning of these two lines is that of a young girl playing with water during the day.
Encrusted on this, however, is a deeper meaning.
Which of the following best encapsulates this deeper meaning?
A a disposition inclined towards play rather than grim reality
B a clear perception of innocence in the presence of unlimited power
C a majestic presence, soon to depart, of little influence on a child’s life
D a view of life unaware of the power of others or of forthcoming challenges
© Questions Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au

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Question 3
In lines 1–3, the poet marvels most at
A the increasing vocabulary of young children.
B his daughter’s ability to fit together wooden puzzles.
C his child’s encapsulation of experiences into language.
D the ability of humans to put words together to make speech.
Question 4
Consider the entire poem. Which of the following, as expressed or implied by the poet, best gives the
answer to his question: ‘But what can I bequeath for later?’
A ‘there’s no finished map of the terrain.
All discovery is a function
of individual choice and pain.’ (lines 6–8)
B ‘... her daily adventures’ (line 11)
C ‘Hardly any justified belief,
a clutch of strongly held opinions,
a few theorems for comic relief.’ (lines 14–16)
D ‘... a world
beyond all that I can guess or say.’ (lines 19–20)
Unit 2
Question 5
The cartoonist is
A in admiration of the suggestion to send the money back to where it came from.
B making fun of the level of initiative among the underprivileged.
C showing that luck is often the saviour of the less fortunate.
D contrasting the intelligence levels of the two men.

iv
Unit 3
Ethanol, a primary alcohol, in the presence of sulfuric acid reacts with itself to form diethyl ether.
A molecule of ethanol CH3CH2OH is first protonated by the sulfuric acid catalyst to form
H2O+CH2CH3 .
Dehydration and the reformation of the acid catalyst then takes place between this carbocation and
another ethanol molecule
CH3CH2OH + H2O+CH2CH3 ÷ CH3CH2OCH2CH3 + H3O+
Question 6
A mixture of ethanol CH3CH2OH and 1-propanol CH3CH2CH2OH is treated with sulfuric acid.
How many ethers are produced and how many of these are symmetrical?
Produced Symmetrical
A 2 2
B 3 1
C 3 2
D 4 2
The following additional information relates to questions 7 – 10.
While synthesis of symmetrical ethers can be achieved by dehydration of an appropriate alcohol, high
yield production of non-symmetrical ethers is often achieved from an alkoxide ion and an appropriate
halide. Methyl and primary halides work best. The complex segment of the ether can reside in the
alkoxide. For example, isopropoxide ion and iodomethane react to form isopropyl methyl ether.
(CH3)2CHO– + CH3I ÷ (CH3)2CHOCH3 + I–
If secondary or tertiary segments are attached to the reacting halide, an elimination reaction is likely
to occur and an alkene, rather than an ether, is likely to be produced.
Consider the following pairs of reactants.

v
Question 7
How many of these three pairs of reactants are likely to give a high yield of an ether?
A 0 C 2
B 1 D 3
Question 8
How many of these three pairs of reactants will yield symmetrical ethers?
A 0 C 2
B 1 D 3
Question 9
How many ethers are produced as a result of this reaction in the presence of H2SO4 ?
CH3CH2CH2O– + CH3CH2Br + CH3CH2CH2Cl ÷
A 1 C 4
B 2 D 6
Question 10
Ethers can be broken back into an alcohol and a halide by reaction with aqueous HI by a process
which reverses the synthesis process.
Which of the following reactions are likely to achieve the highest yields?
A 1 and 3 C 2 and 3
B 1 and 4 D 2 and 4
Unit 4
Question 11
Both ends of the tube shown are sealed and the
density of the enclosed liquid is ñ . Arm M has
twice the cross-sectional area of arm N.
The pressure of the gas PM is given by
A PN + ½ñgy
B PN + 2ñgy
C PN – ñgy
D PN + ñgy

vi
Unit 5
Question 12
An amateur fisherman tests out the buoyancy of his runabout (boat) by floating it in a backyard
swimming pool. While sitting in the boat, he carefully lifts a heavy anchor out of the boat and gently
lowers it into the pool. Which of the following happens?
When he lifts the anchor, the When he puts the anchor in the pool,
water level relative to the boat the water level in the pool
A goes down. falls.
B goes down. rises.
C stays the same. rises.
D stays the same. falls.
Unit 6
Question 13
When all the ‘sand’ is in the bottom of a large ‘hour-glass type’ egg-timer, the egg-timer is inverted
and put onto the pan of a sensitive analytic balance. The balance has a digital readout to many
decimal places.
As the sand falls from the top of the egg-timer to the bottom, the hill of sand in the bottom gradually
gets bigger and the reservoir of sand in the top of the egg-timer is gradually depleted. While this is
happening, the value of the readout on the analytical balance changes.
Which of the following is least likely to affect the value of this readout?
A the distance the sand falls
B the mass of the sand that is falling
C the speed generated by the sand as it falls
D the mass of sand in the bottom of the egg-timer
Unit 7
A patient’s blood pressure is taken by wrapping an inflatable cuff around the upper arm of the patient
and increasing the pressure until the blood flow through the artery becomes turbulent. When a fluid
flow becomes turbulent, the fluid loses energy as sound as well as in other ways. On hearing the
sound, the doctor slowly increases the pressure until the sound ceases. This indicates that the blood
flow has stopped. The pressure required to stop the flow is called systolic pressure and corresponds
to the pressure during ventricular contraction.
The cuff is then gradually deflated until the blood begins to flow, without turbulence, through the
artery. The pressure in the cuff at this point is called the diastolic pressure and corresponds to the
residual pressure in the artery between ventricular contractions.
Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle of the heart
into the systemic circulation system. It is measured as the product of the pulse rate (number of beats
per minute) and the stroke volume (volume per contraction).

vii
During strenuous exercise, respiration in the muscles is initially aerobic. But as the oxygen in the
muscles becomes depleted, lactic acid builds up as a waste product of anaerobic respiration. The
removal of this lactic acid from the muscles is directly related to that person’s cardiac output. The
muscles also suffer temporary damage as a result of exercise. This damage can be assessed in terms
of a CK value that can be measured via a blood test.
Grant is a professional swimmer. Norm keeps a dog and gets his exercise by looking after it. Robin
is a sprightly old lady with no obvious circulation problems who gets her exercise by doing her
shopping. Grant, Norm and Robin each do 30 minutes of their own exercise. Grant is doing
repetitions of 100 m sprints followed by 20 second breaks. Norm is out for a stroll with his dog.
Robin is window shopping in a suburban shopping centre. Their changes in blood pressure, pulse rate
and CH value as a result of this exercise are shown in the figure.
Question 14
The ratio of the rise in systolic pressure of Norm to Grant is approximately
A 5:3 . C 11:8 .
B 5:4 . D 4:1 .
Question 15
In which of the following scenarios will the discharge of lactic acid from the muscles be most rapid?
A Grant immediately after his 30 minutes exercise.
B Grant 2 minutes after his 30 minutes exercise.
C Robin immediately after her 30 minutes exercise.
D Robin 2 minutes after her 30 minutes exercise.
Question 16
After his exercise with the dog, Norm then drops in for a swim interrupting Grant’s repetitions. Grant
and Norm swim together for four minutes. Norm is swimming as fast as he can; Grant swims along
with him at Norm’s pace. Which of the following graphs best indicates the change in CK values of
Grant and Norm during this four minutes and in the first two minutes following this swim.

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Unit 8
The three figures below show different sexual life cycles that apply to particular groups of life forms.
n represents a base number on which the number of chromosomes at each stage in the cycle can be
calculated.
During meiosis the 2n chromosomes split in a manner that results in genetic variability. There are 2n
possible random assortments of chromosomes that can result from meiosis.
Question 17
In each of the cycles shown, there are 2n chromosomes present
A in all cells as a result of mitosis. C in some cells as a result of meiosis.
B in all cells as a result of meiosis. D in some cells as a result of fertilisation.
Question 18
Which of the following describes a major benefit of sexual reproduction?
A Despite chromosomal variation, all organisms maintain their ecological status in a particular
environment.
B The variation resulting from meiosis underlies the adaptability of these organisms to
environmental change.
C Increasing dominance of a species is dependent on variability in the results of sexual activity.
D The number of chromosomes remains constant although their content is variable.
Question 19
A cell contains 3 pairs of chromosomes and undergoes meiosis.
How many possible combinations of chromosomes are there in each cell produced by meiosis?
A 3 C 8
B 6 D 9
Question 20
Cloning of plants has become common practice over the past twenty years. The growing part of a
plant is excised and placed in a ‘growing medium’ where it is vibrated randomly from time to time.
The growing point loses its sense of direction and an undifferentiated mass of growing tissue results.
This is shaved into tiny pieces each of which, given the right environment, can grow into a plant of
the same chromosomal nature as the original plant. The process being capitalised on here is
A meiosis.
B zygote formation.
C mitosis to form multicellular sporophytes.
D mitosis to form multicellular gametophytes.

ix
Unit 9
In Shakespeare’s play Macbeth, Macbeth and Lady Macbeth have planned to assassinate both King
Malcolm and his favourite, Duncan, while they are staying overnight in Macbeth’s castle. While the
Court are at supper, the conspirators meet in another room of the castle.
Passage 1
Enter Lady Macbeth
Macbeth How now! what news?
Lady M. He has alm ost supp’d. W hy have you left the cham ber?
Macbeth Hath he ask’d for m e?
Lady M. Know you not, he has. 5
Macbeth W e will proceed no further in this business:
He hath honour’d m e of late; and I have bought
Golden opinions from all sorts of people,
W hich would be worn now in their newest gloss,
Not cast aside so soon. 10
Lady M. W as the hope drunk,
W herein you dress’d yourself? Hath it slept since?
And wakes it now, to look so green and pale
At what it did so freely? From this tim e
Such I account thy love. Art thou afeard 15
To be the sam e in thine own act and valour,
As thou art in desire? W ould’st thou have that
W hich thou esteem ’st the ornam ent of life,
Or live a coward in thine own esteem ,
Letting ‘I dare not’ wait upon ‘I would’, 20
Like the poor cat in the adage?
Macbeth Pr’ythee, peace.
I dare do all that m ay becom e a m an;
W ho dares do m ore, is none.
Lady M. W hat beast was’t then, 25
That m ade you break this enterprise with m e?
W hen you durst do it, then you were a m an;
And, to be m ore than what you were, you would
Be so m uch m ore the m an. Nor tim e, nor place,
Did then adhere, and yet you would m ake both; 30
They have m ade them selves, and that their fitness now
Does unm ake you.
Macbeth If we should fail?
Lady M. W e fail?
But screw your courage to the sticking-place, 35
And we’ll not fail.
Macbeth I am then settled, and bend up
Each corporal agent to this terrible feat.
Away, and m ock the tim e with fairest show:
False face m ust hide what the false heart doth know. 40
Question 21
Which of the following is the most appropriate implication of ‘he has’ in line 5?
The King has
A requested that Macbeth return into his presence.
B finished his meal and may surprise their meeting.
C noticed Macbeth’s absence and become suspicious.
D uncovered their plot and they should conspire no more.

x
Question 22
In lines 7 – 10, Macbeth is concerned most about his
A honour. C destiny.
B loyalty. D reputation.
In the historical novel Macbeth the King by Nigel Tranter, Duncan poisoned Macbeth to clear
Duncan’s way to the throne of Scotland. But Macbeth recovered. During the following winter,
Duncan poisoned King Malcolm, summoned Macbeth, Mormaor of Moray, to the isolated island of
Iona for the King’s burial, did not go himself but instead called most of the other Mormaors (rulers
of various Scottish districts) to Scone. Passage 2 (from the novel) cites an exchange between
Macbeth and Gruoch (Lady Macbeth) immediately on Macbeth’s arrival home from the burial.
Passage 2
‘My dear’, she said, ‘Duncan has deceived and wronged you once m ore. He held his Council
of Morm aors at Scone, whilst you were at Iona, and was appointed and enthroned King of
Scots, on the Stone, the next day.
He looked away and away. ‘So-o-o!’ he said at length. ‘I should have guessed. That is
5 Duncan, yes. It was all a ruse. How does one deal with such a m an? Ah, well — it settles that
problem , at least!’
‘That crown should have been yours, m y heart!’
‘Scarcely that. Duncan is son of the elder sister. Could have been m ine, shall we say? Had
I desired it!’
10 ‘Should have been,’ she insisted. ‘through m e, your wife. I had m ore right to it than had
Malcolm . Certainly m ore than Duncan. I should be Queen. Not Queen Consort, but Queen.’
He looked at her searchingly. ‘And did you want that, m y dear?’
She flung herself into his arm s. ‘God knows!’ she sobbed. ‘God knows — for I do not! But,
but...that is what should have been. For you. To think of that Duncan, King! Yes — I wish it!
15 I wish it!’ she gulped. ‘Your dream . Do not forget your dream . They [the witches] said — I see
the Morm aor of Moray. I see the King!’
Troubled he sm oothed her dark hair. ‘It was but a dream , lass. And we are happy here, are
we not? Happier, I swear, than on any throne.’
‘Perhaps. Yes — we are. But ... can we deny our blood, our destiny?’
20 He did not answer.
‘You will accept it, then? Accept this wickedness? Do nothing?’
‘W hat could I do? Even if I desired it? It is too late. He is the King now, crowned and seated
on the Stone of Destiny. Nothing can change that. The thing is done!’
He brushed her hair. ‘Hush you, wom an. And forget Duncan the King and all others who
25 would com e between us. You have Macbeth, for better or worse. And I have Gruoch. And I,
for one, am content.’
Question 23
Gruoch claims to be the rightful heir because she
A was closer in succession than Malcolm.
B now has a husband and can claim the throne.
C was next in succession once Malcolm was dead.
D believes in witchcraft and the validity of Macbeth’s dream.
Question 24
An acceptance of natural order was prevalent in Shakespearean times. Natural order means that
people accept their place in life and live accordingly.
Which of the following lines is based most on this concept?
A Lines 1 – 3 Duncan ... Scots.
B Lines 8 – 9 Duncan ... it.
C Lines 15 – 16 Your ... King.
D Line 19 But ... destiny.
xi
Question 25
If passage 2 was rewritten as a stage-play, what gesture would best interpret ‘He looked away and
away. ‘So-o-o!’ ’ (line 4)?
A wander the stage and moan C turn aside from Gruoch and sigh
B stand and stare at the audience D draw sword and throw hands in the air
Question 26
In view of the content of both passages, what is the most likely meaning of ‘the ornament of life’
(line 18, passage 1)?
A courage C one’s own view of oneself
B the crown of Scotland D the assassination of a tyrant
Question 27
Which of the following best describes the difference in characterisation of Macbeth between the two
passages?
Macbeth is
A disloyal to Malcolm (passage 1) but (passage 2) loyal to Duncan.
B cowardly to act (passage 1) but (passage 2) cowardly in not acting.
C fickle in his self-image (passage 1) but (passage 2) constant to his self-image.
D still in command of his destiny (passage 1) but (passage 2) has lost control of his destiny.
Unit 10
The structure below represents one of several dozen known prostaglandins.
Question 28
How many chiral carbons are there in this prostaglandin?
A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6
Question 29
How many cis-trans isomers of this prostaglandin are possible?
A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16

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Unit 11
NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) include a variety of different agents of different
chemical classes. Most of these drugs have three major types of effects:
• Anti-inflammatory effects: modification of the inflammatory reaction

• Analgesic effect: reduction of certain sorts of pains
• Antipyretic effect: lowering a raised temperature
In general, all of these effects are related to the primary action of the drugs — irreversible inhibition
of arachidonate cyclo-oxygenase and thus inhibition of the production of prostaglandins and
thromboxanes.
There are two types of cyclo-oxygenase (COX), namely COX-1 and COX-2.
COX-1 is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissues, including blood platelets (involved in
blood clotting), and is involved in cell-cell signalling and in tissue homeostasis.
COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated and is believed to be the enzyme that
produces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation.
Most NSAIDs in current use are inhibitors of both of these isoenzymes, though they vary in the
degree of inhibition of each.
The diagram below illustrates the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.
Question 30
In which of the following instances would an NSAID be useful?
A in the event of a fever C in the event of hypothermia
B in the event of numbness D in the event of haemorrhage

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Question 31
What is the mechanism of action of the NSAID indomethacin?
A to inhibit arachidonic acid C to inhibit blood platelets
B to inhibit cyclo-oxygenase D to inhibit arachidonate
Question 32
Which of the following cannot be deduced from the information given?
A Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to a reduction in oedema.
B Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase does not affect blood clotting ability.
C Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to changes in blood pressure.
D Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to impaired blood clotting ability.
Question 33
Piroxicam inhibits COX-2 exclusively. Which of the following might be expected if piroxicam is
administered?
A diminished inflammation
B activation of inflammatory cells
C a rise in prostaglandin production
D a rise in the production of prostanoid inflammatory mediators
Question 34
Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase. What might be expected if he takes the NSAID
ibuprofen?
A a reduction in prostacyclin-induced vasodilation
B an increase in prostacyclin-induced vasodilation
C an increase in thromboxane A2 induced vasoconstriction
D no change in prostaglandin-induced blood vessel diameter
Unit 12
Question 35
‘She has lost the art of conversation, but not, unfortunately, the power of speech.’ ! GB Shaw
Which of the following quotations is most alike in meaning to that above of GB Shaw?
A ‘Some persons talk simply because they think sound is more manageable than silence’
! M Halsey
B ‘The really important things are said over cocktails and are never done’ ! PF Drucker
C ‘That is the happiest conversation where there is no competition, no vanity, but a calm
exchange of sentiments’ ! S Johnson
D ‘He has occasional flashes of silence that make his conversation perfectly delightful’ ! S Smith
Question 36
Which two of the following quotations are most alike in meaning?
I ‘Nothing has a stronger influence on their environment, and especially on their children, than
the unlived lives of the parents’ ! C Jung
II ‘Do not mistake a child for his symptom’ ! E Erikson
III ‘Children have more need of models than of critics’ ! J Joubert
IV ‘Children have never been very good at listening to their elders, but they have never failed
to imitate them’ ! J Baldwin
A I & II C I & IV
B III & IV D II & III

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Unit 13
The following extract is from an article by Geoffrey Wheatcroft.
Although only a small, and steadily decreasing, minority of Zionist1 settlers or

Israelis2 ever lived on one, “kibbutz” or “collective” in Hebrew was the essence of the
socialist-Zionist ideal of collectivism and egalitarianism. Its appeal extended far
beyond the Zionist movement. Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive
5 home, Jewish or not, will remember the aura surrounding the very name.
For young people from western countries, a summer on a kibbutz was a rite of
passage, and even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism revered the
kibbutz ideal. With all his mixed feelings about Israel, Noam Chomsky continues to
speak affectionately of the kibbutz, and EJ Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as
10 well as presumably with some degree of admiration, that the kibbutz was a purer form
of collective society than anything ever achieved in Soviet Russia.
Such fondness always involved a degree of evasion.
Those who live in kibbutzim always denied they were colonial, insisting they were
progressive, socialist and indeed anti-colonial. That is not how it seemed to
15 Palestinians, or to a radical like Israel Shahak, a “non-Zionist Israeli”. He says the
official left of Labour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there need
be no conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first to
discriminate against Arabs.
Those who live in the kibbutz today are less enthusiastic about the old principles of
20 communal living and payment according to need rather than status. Shalom Nakar,
an Iraqi-born member of the Mishmar David kibbutz, complains that “there is more
ego and less togetherness, less and less social life together, fewer people come to
committees to discuss important things. They prefer to watch television.” That is a
pretty good description of society anywhere in the industrial or post-industrial west
25 of which Israel is a part.
And yet this goes way beyond the triumph of television, consumer society or capitalist
greed... Such collectives are passing out of fashion across the world. Equality and
fraternity have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment. Maybe
in a generation’s time there will be a few kibbutzim. But they will be relics of another
30 age, and of an idea whose time has come and gone.
1
Notes: Zionist: A movement aimed at the reestablishment of a Jewish nation in Palestine
2
Israelis: Citizens of the nation Israel, founded in Palestine in 1948
Question 37
Wheatcroft claims that the word kibbutz had a mystical character among
A all enlightened people.
B those seeking a permanent Jewish State.
C the offspring of a particular generation of forward-looking parents.
D native-born Israelis brought up in enlightened family environments.

xv
Question 38
EJ Hobsbawm’s statement that ‘the kibbutz was a purer form of collective society than anything ever
achieved in Soviet Russia’ (lines 10–11) is regarded by the author as
A an accurate representation of the situation.
B a judgement spurred on by zeal for the cause.
C backing for the author’s own high regard of these collectives.
D an example of unqualified support for the kibbutz movement.
Question 39
Wheatcroft’s use of the word ‘colonial’ in line 13 implies a colony
A that is spawned by a mother country.
B destined to regain their true status in their homeland.
C where all who live in the area share the same egalitarian ideals.
D whose adherents enforced their rights over the native inhabitants.
Question 40
Wheatcroft implies that the kibbutz movement was an offshoot of
A right wing Zionism. C the politically ambivalent.
B left wing Zionism. D socialists, Jewish or not.
Question 41
Of the following, who was least fond of kibbutzism?
A Noam Chomsky C EJ Hobsbawm
B Israel Shahak D Shalom Nakar
Question 42
Wheatcroft’s summing up of modern western life implies that
A consumerism and capitalism have paved the way for the dominance of TV in our lives.
B selfishness has become fashionable and acceptable.
C equality and fraternity will rise as ideals again.
D personal achievement is the current ideal.
Unit 14
In designing traffic signals, it is necessary to allow the orange light (between green and red) to remain
on long enough so that the driver who is too close to the intersection to stop when the lights change
from green to orange can pass completely through the intersection before the light turns red.
Where
u is the speed of the vehicle (m/s)
D is the width of the intersection,
t is the driver’s reaction time, and
a is a reasonable rate of deceleration for a vehicle in such circumstances (a is negative)
it can be shown that the light should remain on orange for a total time of t – u/2a + D/u .
Question 43
The speed limit near an intersection is 60 kph and the width of the intersection is 15 m.
A reasonable value for t is 0.5 sec and for a is –4 m/s2.
The time that the light should remain orange is closest to
A 0.6 sec . B 3.4 sec . C 5.2 sec . D 8.3 sec .

xvi
Question 44
A car is approaching an intersection and is a distance d from the intersection when the light changes
from green to orange. It is able to stop before entering the intersection. In terms of u, t and a as
defined above, which of the following is the expression for the smallest value of d?
A ut – ½ at 2 B ut + ½ at 2 C ut – ½ u 2/a D ut + ½ u 2/a
Question 45
In time, development overtakes the region around a 15 m wide intersection and an old people’s home
and a primary school open in the immediate area. The old people have restricted licences to drive
vehicles between 9:30 am and 3:30 pm only; their reaction times are longer than average. The
intersection is within the ‘school zone’ where the speed limit drops from 60 kph to 40 kph between
8:30 am and 9:30 am and between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pm.
The following symbols are allocated to the total time that the orange light should remain on:
w between 8:30 am and 9:30 am
x between 9:30 am and 2:30 pm
y between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pm
z at all other times.
Which of the following must be true?
A x > y and w > z C y > w and x > z
B y > z and w > x D y>x>w>z
Unit 15
[C]c[D]d
For the equation aA + bB º cC + dD a reaction quotient (Q) is defined Q =
[A]a[B]b
where [A], [B], [C] and [D] are the concentrations of A, B, C and D respectively at any time during
the reaction and a, b, c and d are appropriate constants.
If G represents the free energy of the system at any stage during a reaction, ÄG represents the change
that has occurred from their initial states to this stage during the reaction.
If the reactants are completely converted into products ÄG is written as ÄGE. However, this rarely
occurs and an equilibrium of products and reactants is often the outcome of a reaction. This
equilibrium depends on the temperature (T) in Kelvin.
These quantities are related to the Gas Constant (R) by the equation
ÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQ
This change in free energy ÄG can also be expressed in terms of the change in enthalpy ÄH and the
change in entropy ÄS at any particular temperature T by
ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS
If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0, they
are already at the concentrations required for equilibrium and Q is given the symbol K where K is
called the equilibrium constant.
xvii
Question 46
If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0,
A T will change.
B ÄS will increase causing ÄH to increase.
C ÄS will decrease causing ÄH to decrease.
D ÄH and ÄS will be zero and T will remain constant.
Question 47
If only the reactants, A and B, are supplied for a reaction and their total free energy, as supplied, is
greater than the total free energy of the resultant amounts of product C and D if the reaction proceeds
to conclusion,
A ÄGE will be negative and initially Q < K .
B ÄGE will be negative and initially Q > K .
C ÄGE will be positive and initially Q < K .
D ÄGE will be positive and initially Q > K .
The following additional information relates to questions 48 – 49.
Conceptually if ÄG = 0 , the equation

ÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQ
implies that ÄGE = –RT.lnK
This equation relates the equilibrium constant of any reaction to the difference in free energy of total
reactants and total products.
Question 48
For a reaction between C2H2 and oxygen at 25 EC, Kp = 10429. This implies that
A ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants.
B ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products.
C ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants.
D ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products.
Question 49
In the reaction C2H4 + H2 º C2H6 Kp = 5 x 1017 at 25 EC.
17
Given that R = 8.314 and that ln(5 x 10 ) = 40.761, which of the following is closest to the value
of ÄGE for this reaction at 25 EC?
A –8 kJ/mole B –100 kJ/mole C 80000 kJ/mole D 100000 kJ/mole
The following additional information relates to question 50.
Since ÄGE = –RT.lnK it is clear that K depends on T as well as on the value and sign of ÄGE.
If KT1 at temperature T1 is known and the standard change in enthalpy ÄHE is also known, the
equilibrium constant KT2 at any other temperature T2 can be calculated using the van’t Hoff equation
K ÄHE 1 1
ln( T2) = ( – )
KT1 R T1 T2
Question 50
When a reaction is exothermic, ÄHE < 0. When endothermic, ÄHE > 0.
If T1 > T2 , the van’t Hoff equation implies that if endothermic
A or exothermic KT2 > KT1 C KT2 > KT1 and if exothermic KT2 < KT1
B or exothermic KT2 < KT1 D KT2 < KT1 and if exothermic KT2 > KT1

xviii
Try to get this test done in 75 minutes but, by all means, allow yourself as much time
as you need to answer all the questions.
Nonetheless, note the time you take and make allowance for this when you interpret
your results.
Time taken: minutes
Apart from the ‘thinking skills’ that are tested in Gamsat,

there are four recognisable practical skills that help you
achieve good marks in MCQs. These are
• the rate of uptake of text
• recognition of what the question is actually asking
• relating the question to segments of the passage
• choosing as the answer that option which neither
overstates nor understates the desired response.
The last three of these can be improved by practising

trialed units from which all the statistically unreliable/
ambiguous questions have been thrown away. Apart from
ACER, we are the only group that has developed a bank
of such questions at this level but you have to do our
courses to gain access to them.
Nonetheless, you can improve your rate of uptake of text,

that is the amount of time and effort it takes you to read
and absorb the stimulus material, by yourself.
Because of the complexity of the material in Gamsat, this

skill is not ‘speed-reading’. Improving your uptake of text
requires that you read somewhat complex text on a
regular basis, and develop the ability to absorb it
efficiently.
We recommend that you read each day the opinion

(feature) articles in one of the better newspapers. These
articles are usually found on the page/e-tab entitled
Opinion. Each of the newspapers caters for a segment of
the community and has its own level of language. For
this purpose, we recommend The Times and The
Guardian in UK and The Age, The Australian and The
Sydney Morning Herald in Australia. When, after a
while, you have had enough of the same writers and their
opinions, switch to another paper.
Reading opinion articles on a regular basis will enliven

you to the implications of current affairs, will confront
you with alternative opinions, improve your level of
vocabulary and help you understand the implications of
the ways in which words can be used.

APPENDIX
Solutions to the Prognostic Test

Des O’Neill’s Prognostic Preparatory Test
Answers (H for Humanities; S for Science)
1–H B 11–S D 21–H A 31–S B 41–H B

2–H D 12–S D 22–H D 32–S B 42–H D
3–H C 13–S D 23–H A 33–S A 43–S B
4–H A 14–S A 24–H D 34–S D 44–S C
5–H B 15–S A 25–H C 35–H A 45–S C
6–S C 16–S B 26–H B 36–H B 46–S D
7–S C 17–S D 27–H C 37–H C 47–S A
8–S A 18–S B 28–S C 38–H A 48–S C
9–S B 19–S C 29–S B 39–H D 49–S B
10–S A 20–S C 30–S A 40–H B 50–S D
Guides to the Answers

1 In stanza three — For now... — the author is positive about the smaller things of daily life,
the interchanges, the adventures, the seeking of answers. Uncertainty is least evident in stanza
three and B is the key.
2 The girl does not appreciate the importance of the sun or how wonderful is the day. Nor can
she see the events that will bring her to a consideration of matters currently beyond the reach
of the poet. D is the best of the options and is the key.
3 A, C and D are all possible answers but the poet marvels most at the child’s growing ability
to translate experience into words. The key is C.
4 The poet realises that there is little that he can bequeath to his daughter — little by way of
philosophy or ethics and that she will encounter a world beyond his experience. It is a world
that she needs to navigate herself. The key is A.
5 The cartoonist wrote the captions and drew the figures. The willingness of one of the
characters to take a chance with the money in the hope of receiving more without having to
work for it indicates a level of behaviour that is often associated with deprivation caused by
such a lack of initiative. The key is B.
6 As a result of intermediate carbocations, the following products are formed:

CH3CH2OCH2CH3
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH2CH3
The first and fourth of these are symmetrical. The second and third are identical.
Thus, only three products are formed of which two are symmetrical. The key is C.

7 The stimulus says that, to obtain a high yield of an ether, the halide needs to be methyl or
primary. The first and third pair of reactants fit this requirement. In the second pair, the halide
is tertiary and an alkene is the likely result. C is the key.
8 None of the pairs will yield a symmetrical ether. A is the key.
9 The alkoxide will react with each of the primary halides. Dipropyl ether and ethyl propyl
ether will be formed. The presence of H2SO4 will not cause any further reaction. B is the key.
10 The reversion of the synthesis process should yield the reactants of that process. In that
process, the halide was methyl or primary and the alcohol possibly more complex.
Equation 1 yields a primary halide and equation 3 a methyl halide. These are the more likely
yields. The key is A.
11 Pressure is force per unit area. If the area is doubled, the force is doubled but the pressure
remains the same. The cross-sectional area of the tube is irrelevant in this question. The
pressure (along the lower horizontal line) at any depth in a fluid is constant. Thus, the
pressure PM is the pressure PN plus the pressure ñgy from the height y of the liquid.
The key is D.
12 When he lifts the anchor, there is no change in the downward force of the boat on the water.
The weight of the anchor in now acting through the fisherman onto the boat instead of
directly onto the boat. So the water level relative to the boat stays the same.
When the anchor was in the boat, the boat had to displace an amount of water equal to the
weight of the anchor. However, when the anchor is put into the water, it will displace only
an amount of water equal to the volume of the anchor. As the density of water is less than the
density of the anchor (an anchor sinks), the boat will rise. This will cause the level of the
water in the pool to fall. Thus, D is the key.
13 The mass of the egg-timer and its ‘sand’ remains unchanged throughout. However, as the
‘sand’ falls, it gains energy from the gravitational field. When the sand lands in the lower
container, the release of this energy will provide an extra force on the pan which will register
as an increase in mass.
This force depends on the energy (½mv2) that the sand gets from the gravitational field. It
thus depends on the mass of the sand that is falling, B, and its speed, C. But the speed
generated depends on the distance that the sand falls, A. Thus A, B and C are all directly
involved.
Although the configuration (shape) of the sand in the bottom of the egg-timer will have an
effect on the distance the sand falls, the actual mass of the sand will not. The key is D.
14 Norm’s rise in systolic pressure is 50 corresponding to a rise from 170 to 220. Grant’s
corresponding rise in systolic pressure is 160 – 130 = 30. The ratio is 5:3. A is the key.
15 Robin has no obvious circulation problems and Robin’s exercise is such that lactic acid
buildup is unlikely. On the other hand, Grant will have built up some lactic acid during his
30 minutes exercise. He can also be expected to have a high cardiac output. His pulse rate is
highest at 30 minutes and at that time his cardiac output will be at its highest and the
discharge of lactic acid will be most rapid. The key is A.
16 Grant has a higher value for CK than Norm because Grant exercises more frequently and
more strenuously. However, as shown in the initial graph, the rate of build up in CK values
(the slope of the graph) in Norm’s muscles is greater than in Grant’s. On the other hand,
Grant’s rate of recovery is faster than Norm’s. The key to this question is the option that
shows Norm’s graph with a greater positive slope during exercise and Grant’s graph with the
greater negative slope during recovery. B is the key.

17 In all cases zygotes containing 2n chromosomes form as a result of fertilisation. ‘Some’ is
part of ‘all’; thus D is the key.
18 A is in conflict with evolutionary theory. In C, there is no guarantee that variability in a single

species will increase its dominance over other species. D is true but is not a benefit. B is a
benefit and is the key.
19 There are 2n combinations. In this case n = 3 and 23 = 8. C is the key.
20 The process at all stages is the production of identical plant cells which is mitosis to form
multicellular sporophytes as shown in the third figure. The key is C.
21 ‘He has’ is in reply to Macbeth’s ‘Hath he ask’d for me?’. The key is A.
22 ‘I have bought golden opinions from all sorts of people’ (lines 7–8) indicate that Macbeth is
happy with his current reputation. The key is D.
23 Lines 10–11: ‘I had more right to it than had Malcolm’ points to A as the key.
24 ‘Can we deny...our destiny’ in line 19 calls in the natural order that Macbeth through Gruoch
should have been King. The key is D.
25 Macbeth needed time to absorb the news of Duncan’s ruse and his own disadvantage. He
needed to be alone with his thoughts for that moment. The key is C.
26 Given the sense of natural order and the right of Macbeth (passage 2) to the throne, the
answer of being crowned King of Scotland (B) is the key.
27 In passage 1, Macbeth vacillates between murdering Malcolm and Duncan and his current
reputation and status. In passage 2, Macbeth is more content in himself and in his relationship
with his wife. The key is C.
28 A chiral centre needs four different attachments. There are five chiral centres. The key is C.
29 There are two double bonds. Each double bond is capable of cis-trans isomerism. The number
of isomers is thus 22. The key is B.
30 NSAIDs are antipyretics (they reduce temperature). Therefore, in the event of a fever, an
NSAID would be useful as it would aid in lowering the body temperature. The key is A.
31 We are told in the question that indomethacin is an NSAID. The passage states, within the
third paragraph (In general...), that NSAIDs work through the “...irreversible inhibition of
arachidonate cyclo-oxygenase...”. The key is B.

32 The diagram indicates that cyclo-oxygenase potentiates oedema, therefore without cyclo-
oxygenase, oedema would be expected to decline. Therefore A is a satisfactory deduction.
The diagram states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclins and
thromboxanes, each of which, though in different ways, impacts on blood clotting. Therefore
D is true and B is false.
The diagram also states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclin and
thromboxanes, which cause vasodilation and vasoconstriction. Since changing the diameter
of blood vessels causes a change in blood pressure, option C would also be true. The key is
B.
33 The passage states that “COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated and
is believed to be the enzyme that produces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation.”
Piroxicam inhibits COX-2. Therefore, it would be expected that prostanoid mediators of
inflammation would not be produced and thus inflammation would be diminished. The key
is A.
B and D would be incorrect because each opposes this line of reasoning. C would be incorrect
because piroxicam inhibits cyclo-oxygenase; consequently, prostaglandin production would
be reduced.
34 If Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase, then the pathway cannot proceed
beyond the arachidonic acid step. Administering an NSAID would be pointless because there
is no cyclo-oxygenase to inhibit. Thus, there would be no change in blood vessel diameter
that is prostaglandin-induced. The key is D.
35 The point of the quotation from Shaw is that the lady does not communicate with others but
talks to the point of monopolising the interchange. This is often the case when people
perceive that gaps in dialogue are difficult and that it is obligatory to continue talking even
if there is little interchange taking place. The key is A.
36 Both III and IV concentrate on the fact that children model their behaviour on that of adults.
No other pair given in the options are as alike in meaning. The key is B.
37 Lines 4–5: ‘Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive home, Jewish or not, will
remember the aura surrounding the very name.’ C is the key.
38 The author says (lines 9–10) ‘Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as well as presumably with
some degree of admiration’ (but not ‘zeal’). A is the key.
39 Wheatcroft claims that the Palestinians were discriminated against (line 18) by the
colonialists who, by implication, enjoyed more privileges than the native Arabs. D is the key.
40 ‘Even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism’ (line 7) and ‘the official left of
Labour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there need be no conflict between
a Zionist state and Palestinians’ (lines 15–17) indicate B as the key.
41 Shahak (lines 15–18) claims kibbutzniks ‘excelled in the pretence that there need be no
conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first to discriminate against
Arabs’. The others speak affectionately (line 9), show admiration (line 10), or complain (line
21) about the people but not about the kibbutz itself. B is the key.
42 Line 28: ‘have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment’ points to D as
the key.
43 To get to the correct units, we need to change kilometres per hour (kph) to metres per second
(m/s). Substituting t = ½ , u = 60 x 1000/3600, a = –4, D = 15 in the formula t – u/2a + D/u
yields a time of 3.48 sec. The key is B.

44 The car travels for time t at speed u before the driver reacts and travels a distance of ut in this
time. It then comes to rest according to the equation v2 = 0 = u2 + 2as. The distance it travels
while decelerating is thus – u 2/2a.
So the total distance travelled is ut – u 2/2a. The key is C. (Note that a is negative.)
45 The presence of the terms u/a and D/u make the relationship of w, x, y, and z with u not
linear. The best that can be said to be true is that when (a) the speed limit is 40 kph and (b)
the old people, with longer reaction times, are driving cars, namely 2:30 pm to 3:30 pm, the
‘orange light time’ should be longer. That is, y > w.
Similarly, when the speed limit is 60 kph, the ‘orange light time’ needs to be greater when
the old people are driving than when they are not. So x > z. Thus, C is the key.
46 Mixing increases the entropy but the question implies that A, B, C and D are at their
equilibrium concentrations for ÄG to be zero AFTER MIXING. So, the entropy does not
change anymore and ÄS = 0.
The stimulus states that the formula ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS is applicable only at constant T.
So ÄG = 0 and ÄS = 0 implies that ÄH = 0 and D is the key.
47 The graph indicates that G for the reactants is greater than G for the products. Thus ÄGE is
negative.
Initially Q is zero because [C] and [D] are zero. K is always positive because the
concentrations at equilibrium, small or large, are always positive.
Therefore, initially Q < K and A is the key.
48 From the negative sign in the equation ÄGE = –RT.lnK

ÄGE < 0 for this reaction because K is positive.
[C]c[D]d
If K is very large (10429), at equilibrium the numerator in Q = K =
[A]a[B]b
must be very large compared to [A] and [B]. So products are favoured over reactants.
C is the key.
49 ÄGE = –RT.lnK
= – 8.314 x 298 x ln(5 x 1017)
. – 8 x 300 x 40
= – 96000
Although the units are not specified in the question, a negative sign is required in the answer.
Thus, the answer must be chosen from A and B.
–100 kJ is closest to –96 kJ or even numerically to –96000 and B is the key.
50 Because T1 > T2 ,
1 1 1 1
– is certainly negative, just as – is negative.
T1 T2 60 5
So if ÄHE is negative (exothermic), then
K
ln( T2) = some positive value
KT1
and KT2 > KT1 .
Similarly, if ÄHE is positive (endothermic), then

K
ln( T2) = some negative value
KT1
and KT2 < KT1 .
D is the key.

Interpreting your scores
Add up the total correct out of 20 for those questions designated as H for Humanities.
Add up the total correct out of 30 for those questions designated as S for Science.
Use the following table to establish your grades in Humanities and Science.
Humanities Science
19–20 A2 28–30 A2
18 A1 25–27 A1
17 B5 23–24 B5
16 B4 22 B4
15 B3 21 B3
14 B2 20 B2
13 B1 19 B1
12 C1 17–18 C1
11 C2 16 C2
10 C3 14–15 C3
9 C4 13 C4
8 C5 11–12 C5
5–7 D1 6–10 D1
0–4 D2 0–5 D2
Our interpretation of the grades for candidates to Australian Universities is as follows:

A or B4 or B5 If your result at GAMSAT matches this result in all three sections, granted a
reasonable interview, you should get in.
B1 to B3 If you are still in this group in all three sections after you and everyone else
who takes our courses have prepared for and sat GAMSAT, you are likely to
get to interview.
C Those at the very top of this group at GAMSAT are likely to get to interview.
D You have to work hard if you are to make it.
The scores you have achieved on this test do give a reasonable prognosis but don’t try to invent firm
predictions, good or bad, of your score at GAMSAT. You really do need to prepare. So choose from
our offerings those courses you think you will benefit from. We will give you on-going help and
direction and powerful resources but you have to be self-motivated and proactive enough to do a heap
of preparation yourself as well.

Science Summary
Phone 04 1966 7151 des@gamsatprep.com.au
Science Summary for our Pre-Gamsat Science-Revision Course

It is expected that candidates for GAMSAT will have familiarity with the subject
matter at First Year equivalent for Chemistry and Biology and at A-Level or Year 12
equivalent for Physics. The following list is not intended to be exhaustive, nor
definitive; however, it is indicative of the topics around which questions for the
science-based paper of GAMSAT have been based. Candidates should ensure that the
terminology, concepts and procedures within the topics listed are familiar and that
processes, both mental and physical, and formulae are thoroughly conceptualised.
****************************************************************
Physical Chemistry
Bonding
Ions and ionic bonding, lattice enthalpies, hydrogen bonding, covalent bonds, octet rule, shared electrons, double and triple bonds
Addition equations; resonance structures, substitution equations
Solution chemistry
Ions in solution, molarity, molality, mole fraction, solubility, concentration, saturation, solubility product Ks p
Effect of temperature on solubility of solids and of pressure on solubility of gases
Raoult’s law, BP & MP elevation/depression, osmosis & osmotic pressure, colloids
Reactions
Oxidation/reduction, activity series, balancing equations, use of half-reactions
Gases
Boyle’s, Charles’ and ideal gas laws, Avogadro’s law, STP, Dalton’s law of partial pressures, diffusion and effusion of gases, Graham’s law
Van der Waals forces and the real gas equation, kinetic theory of gases, Maxwell’s distribution of gaseous molecular speeds
Phases and phase equilibria

Melting, vaporising, subliming, phase diagrams, triple point, latent heat
Ion and dipole interaction and effects on MP & BP, vapour pressure, distillation, surface tension, capillary action
Reaction rates
First order and second order reactions, half-life of reactions, rate effects of catalysts/enzymes
Activation energy, Arrhenius behaviour and rate dependence on temperature, reaction paths and rate-determining steps
Chemical equilibrium
Equilibrium constant in terms of concentrations or partial pressures, reaction quotient, Le Chatelier’s principle
Effects of changes in concentration on equilibria, effects of pressure and temperature on equilibria
Acids and bases

Arrhenius acids and bases, Brønsted!Lowry acids and bases, conjugate bases, conjugate acids, pH, pOH, pKw , pKa , pKb
Titrations, indicators, pH curves, titrations between strong/weak acids and strong/weak bases
Common ion effect, buffer solutions, Henderson!Hasselbalch equation, buffer capacity
Thermodynamics and thermochemistry

Enthalpy and the first law of thermodynamics, endothermic and exothermic reactions, Hess’s law
Entropy, Boltzmann’s constant, standard molar entropies, the second law of thermodynamics
Standard free energies of formation and reaction
Electrochemistry
Galvanic cells, standard reduction potentials and the electrochemical series, standard cell potential, Faraday’s constant, Nernst equation
Electrolysis, electroplating, electrochemical corrosion
Nuclear chemistry
Quanta, photons, Planck’s constant, Balmerÿ series, Rydberg constant
Radioactivity, decay and half-life, á and ß particles, ã rays, use of radioactive isotopes, isotopic dating
Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion, nuclear reactions, nuclear binding energy
Organic Chemistry & Biochemistry
IUPAC system
Rules for naming organic compounds (leading to interpreting names in order to determine structures)
Alkanes and cycloalkanes, alkenes and alkynes

Physical and chemical properties of each group, Addition polymers
Aromatic compounds
Nitration, sulfonation, halogenation, benzene derivatives, fused rings
Resonance
Resonance forms, resonance hybrids, stability, contribution of resonance forms to the resonance hybrid
Reaction mechanisms
Addition reactions, Markovnikov’s rule
Substitution reactions, SN 1 and SN 2 reactions, suitable targets and neucleophiles
E1 and E2 elimination reactions, Aldol condensation
Alcohols
Dehydration to give an alkene, dehydration to give an ether
Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde to carboxylic acid, oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketone
Acidic nature of phenols, physical properties of alcohols and phenols
Ethers, thiols (mercaptans), thioethers (sulfides), disulfides, alkyl and aryl halides
Aldehydes & ketones — linking to carbohydrates

Intermolecular hydrogen bonding, polarity, bonding with water, Tollen’s and Benedict’s tests for aldehydes
Substitution reactions to form acetals, ketals, reduction to alcohols, keto-enol tautomerism
Carboxylic acids
Hydrogen bonding, carboxylic acid salts, acetic acid, oxalic acid, lactic acid, citric acid
Carboxylic esters — linking to lipids

Hydrogen bonding, esterification from acid and alcohol by dehydration
Hydrolysis of carboxylic esters by acid or base catalysts, esters and anhydrides of phosphoric acid
Amines
Bonding of hydrogen to nitrogen, dissolve to form ions, separation of amine salts via low pH solutions
Amides & amino acids — linking to proteins as polyamino acids

Hydrolysis of amides by acid or base catalysts, hydrolysis of amides by enzymes catalysts
Amino acids: 19 common L-forms and glycine; ionic nature (zwitterions), act as buffers
Isomers
Constitutional isomers: Different carbon skeletons, different functional groups, different positions of the same functional group
Stereoisomers: Fischer projections, chirality, both R & S and D & L enantiomers
cis & trans diastereoisomers in alkenes and in cyclic compounds, E & Z configurations
Spectrometry and spectroscopy

Mass spectrometry, infra-red spectroscopy, ultra-violet & visible-light spectroscopy, NMR spectroscopy
Carbohydrates — linking to aldehydes and ketones

Monosaccharides: á & â, D-glucose
á & â, D-mannose, D-galactose
â-D-ribose, á-D-fructose
Disaccharides: maltose — two á-D-glucose rings
lactose — â-D-galactose & â-D-glucose
sucrose — á-D-glucose & â-D-fructose
Polysaccharides: starch — á-D-glucose
glycogen — á-D-glucose
cellulose — â-D-glucose
Proteins — linking to amino acids

Polyaminoacids: peptides, polypeptides, proteins
Proteins: solubility, isoelectric points, zwitterions; primary structure (disulfide linkages), secondary structure (á-helix, â-pleated sheet,
triple helix of collagen, hydrogen bonding between CO and NH groups), tertiary structure (disulfide bridges, hydrogen bond bridges, salt
bridges, hydrophobic interactions), quaternary structure
Enzymes: rate of enzymic activity—enzyme and substrate concentrations, temperature, pH, action of inhibitors; mechanisms of enzyme
activity; cofactors, regulatory sites, feedback inhibition
Lipids — linking to carboxylic esters

Fats: esters based on glycerol; triglycerides, saturated/unsaturated fats; hydrogenation; saponification; lipid bilayers
Complex lipids: phosphoglycerides, particularly lecithin, sphingolipids, glycolipids, particularly the cerebrosides
Steroids: HDL and LDL cholesterol; aldosterone; cortisol and cortisone; testosterone, oestradiol and progesterone
Physics
Translational motion
F=ma, velocity equations, circular motion, friction, motion under gravity alone, projectile motion, gravitational force
Equilibrium
Addition of vectors and components of vectors, forces in statics, forces in pulley systems/muscles, mechanical advantage
Momentum, work, energy, power

Impulse, change in momentum, work, change in energy, kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy
Hooke’s law and elastic potential energy, power as the rate of doing work
Waves and periodic motion

Transverse and longitudinal waves, v = f.ë , refection of waves, Huygens’s principle, phase, refraction, diffraction, interference
Periodic motion and, in particular, simple harmonic motion, relationship between simple harmonic motion and circular motion
Light
Laws of reflection, plane and curved mirrors, mirror equation
Refraction, refractive index, Snell’s law, total internal reflection, optical fibres, concave and convex lenses, lens equation, optical instruments
Overlapping diffraction and interference patterns
Sound
Transmission and relative speed of sound in solids/liquids/gases
Two source interference, Doppler effect, harmonics and resonance in pipes and strings
Solids, liquids and gases

Density and specific gravity, Archimedes principle
Hydrostatic pressure, continuity equation, Bernoulli’s equation, viscosity, elasticity
Electrostatics
Charges on insulators, electric fields and field strength
Coulomb’s law, electric potential energy, potential difference
Electric current
Batteries, resistors, current, voltage, resistance, power, Ohm’s law, Kirchoff’s laws
Parallel plate capacitors, series and parallel connections of cells, resistors and capacitors
Electromagnetism
Magnets and magnetic fields, magnetic effects of electricity, solenoids, force on a conductor in a magnetic field, electric motors, electric meters
Coils moving in magnetic fields, Faraday’s law, transformers, electric generators
Electromagnetic radiation, atomic and nuclear physics

Photoelectric effect, X-rays, photon movement and Compton scattering, wave/particle duality, quantum energy levels
Radioactive decay, á and ß particles, ã rays, half-life, isotopes
Biology
Note: Biology is a diverse area of knowledge and ‘First Year Biology’ is not necessarily a meaningful set. However, one semester of cell biology,
including some appropriate biochemistry, is usual; many students then continue with genetics or with human anatomy/physiology.
The key areas are cell biology, with its associated biochemistry, cellular reproduction and genetics, and homeostasis.
Cell Biology and Biochemistry

Structure of animal and plant cells
Plasma membrane, nuclear envelope, chromatin, nucleolus, ribosomes, rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria,
microfilaments, microtubules, peroxisome (or microbody), as well as cell wall, plasmodesmata, plastids, chloroplasts, vacuole, tonoplast, centrioles,
lysosome, cilia and flagella
Fluid mosaic model of membranes

Selective permeability, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, active transport, the sodium-potassium pump, the proton pump
Exocytosis, endocytosis
Nucleic acids, genetic codes & protein synthesis

RNA and DNA, bases, nucleotides, primary and secondary structure of DNA, DNA replication, mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
Transcription and translation of genetic codes, genes and gene regulation
Cellular respiration (biochemical approach)

Glycolysis, â-oxidation of fatty acids, citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis
ATP synthesis: AMP, ADP, ATP, NAD+ , FAD, NADH, FADH2 , acetal CoA
Pentose phosphate pathway, ascorbic acid pathway, gluconeogenesis
Glycogen metabolism, formation of ketone bodies, oxidation of amino acids, urea cycle
Photosynthesis
Chloroplasts, light reactions, Calvin-Benson cycle, photooxidation of chlorophyll, cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation
Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria, C3 , C4 and CAM pathways
Cellular Reproduction and Genetics
Cellular reproduction and embyrogenesis
Eukaryotic chromosomes, the cell cycle, comparison between mitosis and meiosis, fertilisation, cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis
Inheritance and genetic codes

Mendel’s laws, dominance, recessiveness, chromosomes and genetic variation, incomplete dominance in genes
Codominance, multiple alleles, inheritance of traits and disorders, genotypes and phenotypes, pleiotropy, epistasis, pedigree analysis
Linked genes, crossing-over, sex linked traits, mutations of genes
Human Biology
Musculoskeletal system
Skeletal system, bone tissue and formation, cartilage, calcium regulation, axial and appendicular skeleton, joints and movement, disorders/diseases
Muscular system and muscle tissue, functions and properties, disorders/diseases
Human digestive system

Nutrition and nutritional disorders, digestion in mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, disorders/diseases
Structure and functions of pancreas, liver and gall bladder, disorders/diseases
Circulatory system
Components of blood including erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, plasma, haemoglobin and their functions
Blood groups, antigens and antibodies, blood vessels, blood flow, materials transported including carriage of O2 and CO2 , disorders/diseases
Structure and action of the heart, blood pressure, circulation, disorders/diseases
Respiratory system
Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
Structure and function of lungs, the control of respiratory gases, gas exchange to circulatory system, disorders/diseases
Urinary system
Homeostasis, structure and functions of kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, disorders/diseases
Glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption of solutes, reabsorption and regulation of water, regulation of salt
Nervous system
Central nervous system, structure and properties of neurones, neuroglia, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid
Brain, spinal cord, visceral nerves, disorders/diseases
Peripheral, autonomic, sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, disorders/diseases
Reproductive system
Female reproductive system, disorders/diseases, male reproductive system, disorders/diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases, methods of birth control
Endocrine system
Hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pineal and thymus glands, disorders/diseases
Major hormones, stress reactions, growth regulation
Disease prevention and the immune system

Non-specific and specific defence mechanisms, antibodies, immunity, allergies, lymphatic system, lymph nodes, effector cells, disorders/diseases
Homeostasis
Positive and negative feedback
References
You may wish to refer Google or to textbooks to round out some of the topics of our 556 page book of science notes.
The references with which you are most familiar are probably the best for you. Nonetheless, for those who have been
away from science studies for some time, the books on the following list are recommended. You may wish to view the
asterisked texts first.
Organic Chemistry *McMurry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/Cole

Brown, Foote & Iverson Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/Cole
Physical Chemistry *Zumdahl Chemical Principles Houghton Mifflin Co
Silverberg Chemistry McGraw-Hill
Biochemistry *Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry WH Freeman & Co
Berg, Tymoczko & Stryer Biochemistry WH Freeman & Co
Physics *Giancoli Physics Pearson Prentice Hall
General Biology *Campbell and Reece Biology Benjamin/Cummings
Knox, Ladiges, Evans, Saint Biology McGraw-Hill
Human Biology *Tortora and Grabowski Principles of Anatomy and Physiology John Wiley and Sons Inc
Phillips and Chilton A-Level Biology Oxford University Press

Phone 04 1966 7151 des@gamsatprep.com.au

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GAMSAT

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Each morning she constructs mosaics,

5 I know, in truth, we make rough guesses:

For now, I watch her scatter puddles;

But what can I bequeath for later?

She kicks water at the autumn sun,

© Questions Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au

© Questions Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au

The following additional information relates to questions 7 – 10.

(CH3)2CHO– + CH3I ÷ (CH3)2CHOCH3 + I–

Consider the following pairs of reactants.

© Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au

© Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™ www.gamsatprep.com.au