COMPILATION OF QUIZZES

MODULE 3

1. As a student nurse, you are aware that medication safety protocol help prevent
medication error. To ensure that you are giving the right drug, you should read the label
three times.
2. While preparing the medication, you are asked by your clinical instructor on how do you
administer sublingual medication. Your best answer would be: Place it under the tongue
3. Parenteral forms are administered thru: Intraosseous, Intramuscular, Intradermal
4. One important goals of medication safety is to practice the “Five plus five Rights” of
medication administration. This includes: Right drug, Right education, Right time
5. The nurse is aware that all are considered an acceptable abbreviations of dug
administration except: q.d
6. What information is essential for the nurse to know related to right documentation?
- The correct site of injectable medication,
- The necessity to document immediately the appropriate information about the
drug administered,
- Patient response to an antiemetic
- Patient’s blood pressure prior to giving an antihypertensive,
- Date and time of dose
- Necessity for the nurse’s initials/signature
7. A patient refuses to take the prescribed medication. Which is the nurse’s best response to
this patient? Explain the risks of not taking the medication
8. Nurses should strongly adhere to drug administration medication safety to prevent
incidence of blood-borne related infections such as HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B. Which of
the following address this safety? Sharps safety

Module 4

Weight conversion: 1 kg = 2.2 lbs

1. Convert 12 kg to lbs. 26.40

2. Convert 75 kg to lbs. 165.00
3. Convert the 110 lbs to kg. 50.00
4. Convert the 35 lbs to kg. 15.90
5. Convert 15 lbs to kg. 6.81

Calculation by weight: Required dose = Weight in kg x Dose per kg

6. The doctor’s order is to give Tramadiol 1.5 mg/kg of body weight. The weight is 110 lbs.
75 mg
7. Give Acetaminophen 10.5 mg/kg every 4 hours for pediatric weighing 12 kg. 126 mg
8. Give Tamilfu 2.5 mg/kg/day divided into 2 doses for infant weighing 7.5 kg. 9.37 mg
 Clark’s Rule: Adult dose x (Weight in lbs/150)

9. Adult dose = 500 mg every 6 hours, Child weight = 28 kg. 205.33 mg

10. Adult dose = 500 mg every 9 hours, Child weight = 42 lbs. 140 mg

Fried’s Rule: Infant’s age (in months)/150 months x Average Adult dose

11. Adult dose = 500 mg every 6 hours, Infant’s age = 4 months. 13.33 mg

Young’s Rule: Adult dose x (Age/(Age + 12))

12. Adult dose = 500 mg every 6 hours, Child’s age = 7 y/o. 184.21 mg

Liquid: Dosage/Stock x Volume – Solid: Desired/Stock x Quantity

13. The doctor’s order is to give 200 mg Sulfisoxazole. The bottle contains 125 mg/5 ml.
How much liquid should you give? 8 ml
14. Give 150 Paracetamol syrup PO PRN for fever. Available stock is Paracetamol 125 mg/5
ml. How many teaspoon should the nurse give when patient has fever? 1.2 teaspoon
15. The doctor’s order is to give 5 grains of Aspirin. Available is 5 grains per tablet. How
may tablet will you give? 1 tablet

Module 5

gtt/min = amount of solution in ml x gtt factor / time in hours x 60 minutes

1. At 8 am you received a doctors order that you have to infuse 1,500 ml of D5W in 12
hours to Mr. Dela Cruz. What is the correct rate of this isotonic solution when the drop
factor is 15 gtt/1 ml? 31.249 qtts/min
2. A patient is to receive a microdrip infusion of 1,000 ml of normal (0.9%) saline solution
over 24 hours. The drop factor is 60 mcgtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow rate? 41.67
mcqtts/min
3. At 3 pm, a patient must receive 1 g of Cefazolin (Ancef) intravenous piggyback
(I.V.P.B.) in 150 ml of Dextrose 5% in water (D5W), to be infused over 30 minutes. The
drop factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow rate of this antibiotic solution?
4. At 9 am, a patient has 500 ml of a D5W solution remaining in an infusion bag. The
infusion must end at 1 pm, and the drop factor is 20 gtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow
rate? 41.67 qtts/ml
5. At 10 am you received a doctors order that you have to infuse 1,000 ml of PNSS in 10
hours to Mr. Dela Cruz. What is the correct rate of this isotonic solution when the drop
factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml? 16.67 qtts/min
6. A patient is to receive a microdrip infusion of 500 ml of normal (0.9%) saline solution
over 12 hours. The drop factor is 60 mcgtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow rate? 41.67
qtts/min
 7. At 5 pm, a patient must receive 500 mg of Cefazolin (Ancef) intravenous piggyback
(I.V.P.B.) in 100 ml of Dextrose 5% in D5W, to be infused over 45 minutes. The drop
factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow rate of this antibiotic solution?
8. At 8 am, a patient has 500 ml of D5W solution remaining in an infusion bag. The
infusion must end at 3 pm, and the drop factor is 20 gtt = 1 ml. What is the correct flow
rate? 23.81 qtts/min
9. The drop factor is 15 and the amount of solution to be infused each hour is 100 ml. Using
the formula, determine the number of drops to infuse each minute. 24.99 qtts/min
10. The drop factor is 20 and the amount of solution to be infused each hour is 70 ml. Using
the formula, determine the number of drops to infuse each minute. 23.33 qtts/min

Module 6

- A patient has liver and kidney disease. He is given a medication with a half-life of 30 hours.
The nurse expects the duration of this medication to? Increase

- When assessing older adults and those with renal dysfunction, the nurse knows that creatinine
clearance is usually decreased

- A patient sustains significant burns to the skin and is experiencing fluid shift associated with
edema in the fluid overload phase. The nurse would anticipate that this will interfere most with
which phase of pharmacokinetics. Distribution

- Most drugs are metabolized in which body organ? Liver

- why are some drugs administered with food? Some drugs irritate the gastric mucosa

- why are some drugs taken on an empty stomach? Food in the GI tract may interfere with the
dissolution anti absorption of certain drugs

- why are some drugs not administered by mouth? they are destroyed in the small intestine by
digestive enzymes

- lidocaine and some nitroglycerines have extensive first-pass metabolism. What happens when
drugs undergo first pass metabolism? Most of the dose would be destroyed in the liver

- why is the dose of an oral medication more than the dose of the same medication administered
via the intravenous route? The percentage of bioavailability for the oral route is always less
than 100%

- given the lidocaine and some nitroglycerines have extensive first-pass metabolism, which is the
best way to administer these drugs? Intravenous
Module 7

- a patient felt drowsy after taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). How would you classify
drowsiness as an effect? Secondary

- a patient receives an opioid drug that depresses the patient’s respiratory rate. The nurse
administers an antidote. This is an example of what type of drug effect? Antagonistic

- what type of serum blood screen would allow for the health care provider to know if the patient
is getting the right amount of the medication? Peak & trough drug level

- …safety with a medication that has a low therapeutic index? Monitoring serum peak and
trough levels

- what signifies the pharmacodynamic phase when taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a
headache? Relief of headache

- which statement describes a drug agonist? Drugs that occupy receptors and activates them

- Mrs. hemson is taking mepiprazole (psigodal), an antidepressant. It acts by blocking 5-HT2A

and a1-adrenergic receptors and has also been shown to inhibit the reuptake. What kind of drug
is mepiprazole? Antagonist

- mr. Jackson is ordered bethanecol (Urecholine) to relieve post-operative urinary retention.

Knowing that bethanecol has non-specific drug effect, which would be your best action?
Monitor vital signs

- which statement is true about non-selective drugs? Drugs that affect alpha1, beta1, and beta2
receptors

- this is used when immediate drug response is desired. Large initial dose of drug is given to
achieve a rapid minimum effective concentration in the plasma. Loading dose

Module 8

- the doctor prescribed the following medication as follows: give diclofenac Na 250mg PO PRN
for pain. What should prompt you to give this medication? Pain scale of 8

- a hypertensive patient who was prescribed with losartan (anti-hypertensive) talks to you and
asks if she taking her medications correctly because she thinks it is not working well on lowering
her BP. What is the most relevant and priority nursing diagnosis given this situation? Readiness
for enhanced knowledge
- which of the following objectives is considered psychomotor domain relevant to medication
administration? Checks the medication to be presented to the doctor during follow-up
check-up

- which component of the nursing process is it when the nurse compares the current BP and the
BP 15 minutes after taking a SL HPN drug. Evaluation

- the client expressed her satisfaction with the prescribed medication and the affordability of the
medication. This is a process evaluation that reflects: adequacy

- who will the nurse collaborate with within the hospital personnel if the nurse needs orange juice
to go with the iron medication to increase absorption? Dietitian

- which component of the nursing process is it when the nurse approaches the doctor to clarify
written prescription. Implementation

- which component of the nursing process is it when the nurse identifies which size of syringe to
be used for IV drug administration. Planning

- which component of the nursing process is it when the nurse asks about the frequency of
vomiting in the last 24 hours during the endorsement of a patient who has been admitted in the
last 3 days. Evaluation

- which component of the nursing process is it when the nurse identifies risks for fall as relevant
to clients receiving anti-histamine medication due to its dizziness as side effect. Diagnosis

- DRUG STUDY. Generic name, pharmacologic class, adverse effect, route, therapeutic
class

MODULE 9

1. GCQ, a 53-year-old woman, has a diabetic wound infection. The culture report states
that the infection is due to pseudomonas aeruginosa, and GCQ’s temperature has risen to
104F (40C). Amikacin sulfate was order to treat the existing infection. What is the
ANSWER: Aminoglycosides (Amikacin is considered aminoglycosides)

2. When would a wound culture and sensitivity test be obtained to determine the appropriate
antibacterial agent?
ANSWER: Before initiating antibiotics
 3. Amantadine hydrochloride is not recommended anymore as prophylaxis to influenza A
virus. As a student nurse you know that it is because of:
ANSWER: Resistance to the circulating influenza

4. A patient is taking a cephalosporin. The nurse anticipates which appropriate nursing

intervention(s) for this medication? (Select all that apply)
ANSWERS: Monitoring renal function studies

Monitoring liver function studies

Infusing intravenous medication over 30 minutes

Monitoring the patient for mouth ulcers

5. After receiving the wound culture and sensitivity test of patient GCQ, you have noticed
that the pathogen is sensitive to Amikacin but is resistant to Oxacillin. As a student nurse
the antibacterial you will give is/are:
ANSWER: Amikacin

6. Metronidazole, an example of antiprotozoal/antibiotic is indicated to patient with? (Select

all that apply)
ANSWERS: Amebiasis

Trichomoniasis

7. A school nurse asks you the drug classification of Praziquantel. Your response is:
ANSWER: Anthelmintic

8. A patient is diagnosed with malaria and is prescribed Atovaquone. The nurse anticipates
that which lab test will be ordered?
ANSWER: Liver enzymes (Liver enzymes should be monitored because this is one side effects
of the drug. Thus, Atovaquone is contraindicated in patient with liver/hepatic disease)
 9. Acyclovir had been ordered for patient with viral infection. While preparing the
medication, you double check the action of this drug. This drug is intended for what type
of viral infection? (Select all that apply)
ANSWER: Herpes simplex

Chicken pox

Shingles

10. The type of parasitic worms that enter to the intestine via contaminated food (pork, beef,
fish, and dwarf) Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), T. saginata (beef tapeworm),
Diphylloborthrium (fish tapeworm), and Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm) is:
ANSWER: Cestodes

Module 10

1. Which immune stimulant is usually used for treatment of blood-related cancers?

- colony-stimulating factors

2. All of the following complaints will alert the nurse of colony stimulating factor adverse
effect, except:

- coughing

3. Proteins formed when cells are exposed to the viral foreign agents that are capable of
activating other components of the immune system are referred as:

- interferons

4. When the nurse administers interferons to a patient, which of the following is the major
side-effect of this drug?

- flulike syndrome

5. All of the following are not true about immune modulators, except:

- Infection control is an integral part of drug therapy.

6. Immune modulators have the following therapeutic actions, except:

- Increasing the release of various cytokines involved in the inflammatory response

7. This is a substance released from cells in response to cytotoxic T-cell activity

- Interferons

8. Cytotoxic T cells is best described as:

- lyse cells infected with virus

9. Which of the following responses identifies a role of T-lymphocytes?

-Transplant rejection

10. How do interleukins exert its therapeutic benefits inside the body

- By increasing the number of natural killer cells and lymphocytes.

Module 11

1. The doctor admitted a 34-year-old, female client with depression and is writing a
prescription for this client. Which of the following medication will probably be prescribed
to this patient? Select three medication that applies:

- Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI)

- Tricyclic Anti-depressant

- Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)

2. A patient with end-stage prostate cancer is in severe pain. Which of the following
medications would be prescribed to this patient? Select two drug classifications indicated
for the client:

- Narcotic agonist

- Narcotic agonist-antagonist

3. Prior to your duty at the Neuro ward, you are studying drugs that are given to patients
with seizure. Select three drugs which are classified as anti-epileptics:

- Barbiturates

- Benzodiazepine

- Hydantoins
4. The anesthesiologists would like to control the amount of secretions (from mouth, nose,
etc) to prevent aspiration while patient is sedated (unawake) during operation. Which of
the following drug should be given to the client for this purpose? Choose one for two
points.

-Anti-cholinergic drug

5. Which of the following drug classifications can be given to hypersensitive patients?

Choose five.

-Beta adrenergic blocking agents

-Alpha1 selective adrenergic blocking agents

-Alpha-specific adrenergic agonists

-Beta1 selective adrenergic blocking agents

-Alpha- and beta-adrenergic blocking agents

Module 12

1. The nurse is aware that folic acid deficiency in pregnancy may result in any of the
following except. Placenta previa
2. An RN on orientation is working with a patient with gestational hypertension. Which
action by the orienting nurse necessitates intervention by the supervising RN? When the
orienting nurse – Places the patient in the right lateral recumbent position.
3. A pregnant patient who is prescribed a liquid iron supplement complains that her teeth
have become discolored. “This is a normal reaction to liquid iron supplementation.
You can minimize it by drinking the supplement through a straw”
4. The nurse identifies which as a clinical manifestation of maternal magnesium sulfate
toxicity? Nasal congestion
5. A patient has a serum magnesium level of 10mg/dL. The nurse anticipates administration
of calcium gluconate
6. A woman in her 24th month of pregnancy who has elevated BP tells you, “I am very
scared of what may happen to me and my baby with this elevated BP.” What is the best
response to this statement? Most women still can deliver a healthy baby if
hypertension is detected and treated early.
7. When asked by a new nurse how is Preeclampsia managed, your response should be:
Delivery of infant and placenta is the only cure.
8. In pregnant woman prescribed acetaminophen, which information should cause concern?
Chronic alcohol use
9. Which among the following drugs is classified as a pregnancy category C drug (which
changes to category D if used in the third trimester) and if taken late in pregnancy, may
cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus? Ibuprofen
 10. Which among the following is a bulk-forming fiber laxative? Metamucil

Module 13

1. Nursing consideration in giving Anti-Anginal Agents: “give sublingual preparations

under the tongue and instruct not to swallow to ensure that therapeutic level is achieved”
2. It is a hollow muscular organ that has a cone-shape, pumps blood for body’s circulation.
Heart
3. Drug classification that causes decrease in blood pressure and decrease aldosterone
secretion. ACE Inhibitor
4. Irregular rhythm and rate of heart beat. Includes bradycardia, tachycardia, premature
ventricular contraction (PACs), premature ventricular contraction (PVCs), atrial flutter,
atrial fibrillation. Cardiac Arrhythmias
5. One of heart characteristics that each cell has ability to conduct impulses to the next cell.
Conductivity
6. Amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle with each heartbeat. Stroke Volume
7. Cardiotonic Drugs (Inotropic) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
8. Action potential of the heart it occurs when the cell reaches a point of stimulation, the
sodium channel opens and rushes into the cell, this positive flow of electrons into the cell
results to an electrical potential. Phase 0
9. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. Captopril

Module 14

1. Structural and basic functional unit of the lung. Alveoli

2. drug classification which increase productive cough to clear the airways. Expectorant
3. Mast cell stabilizer: Nedocromil
4. Drug classification which decrease inflammatory response in the airway & increase
airflow and facilitates respiration. Inhaled Steroids
5. Anti-asthmatic / Bronchodilator (Xantines) Theophylline
6. Systems of organs functioning in respiration. Respiratory System
7. Anti-cholinergic / Bronchodilator. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchi dilates bronchi.
Ipratropium
8. Enhances the output of respiratory tract fluids by reducing the adhesiveness and surface
tension of these fluids. Expectorant
9. Drug classification that acts directly on the medullary cough center of the brain to depress
the cough reflex. Antitussive
10. Breaks down mucus in order to aid the risk of coughing up thick, tenacious secretions.
Mucolytics