PW – AITS_NT-18

PHYSICS

1. What equal charges would to be placed on 4. The total flux associated with given cube will
earth and moon to neutralize their 1
be where 'a' is side of cube : ( = 4 × 9 ×
gravitational attraction (Use mass of earth = 0
1025 kg, mass of moon = 1023 kg) 109)
2C 1C
(A) 8.6 × 1013 C (B) 6.8 × 1026 C a
3 6
(C) 8.6 × 10 C (D) 9 × 10 C 4C 3C
6C
5C
2. In the half-wave rectifier circuit shown. a
8C a 7C
Which one of the following wave forms is
true for VCD, the output across C and D? (A) 162  × 104 Nm2/C
(B) 162  × 103 Nm2/C
A C
(C) 162  × 105 Nm2/C
VCD (D) 162  × 106 Nm2/C
~ P Q RL

5. If mass of the fissionable material is less than

B D
the critical mass, then
(A) fission and chain reactions both are
impossible
(A) (B) fission is possible but chain reaction is
impossible
(C) fission is impossible but chain reaction is
(B) possible
(D) fission and chain reaction both are
possible.

(C) 6. The electric potential in volt due to an electric

dipole of dipole moment 2 × 10–8 C-m at a
distance of 3m on a line making an angle of
600 with the axis of the dipole is :
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 40
(D)
7. The charge on each capacitors shown in
figure and the potential difference across
3. The linear charge density on upper half of a them will be respectively:
C2
segment of ring is  and at lower half, it is –. C1 2F
The direction of electric field at centre O of
3F C3
ring is : 4F
+ A
+
+
+
B 120V
– O
– D
–
– (A) 240C, 80C, 160C and 80V, 40V, 40V
C
(B) 300C, 75C, 150C and 40V, 80V, 60V
(A) along OA (B) along OB (C) 220C, 70C, 140C and 60V, 50V, 40V
(C) along OC (D) along OD (D) None of these
8. If potential difference across a capacitor is 13. An electron of kinetic energy of 7.2 × 10–18 J
changed from 15V to 30V, work done is W. is revolving on circular path in magnetic field
The work done when potential difference is 9 × 10–5 wb/m2, then radius of its circular
changed from 30V to 60V, will be : path is :
(A) W (B) 4 W (C) 3 W (D) 2 W (A) 1.25 cm. (B) 2.5 m.
(C) 2.5 cm. (D) 25.0 cm.

9. When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, 14. A coil of 100 turns is lying in a magnetic field
which of the following statements about the of 1T as shown in the figure. A current of 1A
current  in the resistor AB of the given is flowing in this coil. The torque acting on
circuit is true : the coil will be
A B
K 1000

0.2 m
2V
N S
1F C 1000

0.1 m
(A)  = 2 mA at all t (A) 1N–m (B) 2N–m (C) 3N–m (D) 4N–m
(B)  oscillates between 1 mA and 2mA
(C)  = 1 mA at all t 15. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic
moments 1.0 A-m2 each, placed at a
(D) At t = 0,  = 2 mA and with time it goes
separation of 2 m with their axes
to 1 mA
perpendicular to each other. The resultant
magnetic field at a point midway between the
10. A charge of 2 × 10–2 C moves at 30 dipole is:
revolution per second in a circle of diameter
0.80 m. The current linked with the circuit
will be -
2m
(A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0.4 A (D) 0.6 A

11. When a potential difference (V) is applied (A) 5 × 10–7 T (B) 5 × 10–7 T
across a conductor, the thermal speed of (C) 10–7 T (D) 2 × 10–7 T
electrons is -
16. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a
(A) zero (B) proportional to T
uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the
(C) proportional to T (D) proportional to V plane of the ring. If radius R varies as a
function of time ‘t’, as R = R0+ t. The e.m.f
12. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 induced in the loop is
 shows full scale deflection when a current
of 1.0 A passes through it. It can be converted
into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 A
by :
(A) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 
(B) putting in series a resistance of 15  (A) 2(R0 + t) B clockwise
(C) putting in series a resistance of 240  (B) (R0 + t) B clockwise
(C) 2(R0+t) B anticlockwise
(D) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 
(D) zero
17. The figure shows a part of a complete circuit.
The potential difference VB – VA when the
current I is 5A and is decreasing at a rate of
103 As–1 is given by
22. The diode used in the circuit shown in the
figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at
all currents and a maximum power rating of
100 milli watts. What should be the value of
the resistor R, connected in series with the
diode for obtaining maximum current -

R 0.5V
(A) 15 V (B) 10 V
(C) –15 V (D) 20 V 1.5V

18. A conducting rod moves with constant
velocity  perpendicular to the long, straight
wire carrying a current I as shown. The emf
generated between the ends of the rod is
(A) 1.5  (B) 5  (C) 6.67  (D) 200 
23. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle  as
shown in the figure. Light ray is incident
parallel to one of the mirrors. Light will start
retracing its path after third reflection if :

µ0 I µ I 2µ I µ I (A)  = 45° (B)  = 30°

(A) (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 0
r 2r r 4r (C)  = 60° (D) all three

19. An AC voltage of V = 220 2 sin 24. A convex lens forms a real image 9 cm long
  on a screen. Without altering the position of
100t +  is applied across a DC the object and the screen, the lens is displaced
 2
voltmeter, its reading will be: and we get again a real image 4 cm long on
the screen. Then the length of the object is-
(A) 220 2 V (B) 2V
(A) 9 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 36 cm
(C) 220 V (D) zero

25. If refractive index of red, violet and yellow

20. A power (step up) transformer with an 1 : 8 lights are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for
turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the a medium, its dispersive power will be -
primary; the load in the secondary is 104 . (A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
The current in the secondary is
(A) 96 A (B) 0.96 A
26. A person can see clearly only upto a distance
(C) 9.6 A (D) 96 mA of 25cm. He wants to read a book placed at a
distance of 50cm. What kind of lens does he
21. Find the effective value of current i = 2 + 4 required for his spectacles and what must be
cos 100  t. its power ?
(A) 2 3 (B) 2 2 (A) concave, – 1.0 D (B) Convex, + 1. 5 D
(C) Concave, – 2.0 D (D) Convex, + 2.0 D
(C) 3 (D) 4 3
27. Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in 33. The energy of the reaction Li7 + p ⎯→ 2 He4
Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by is (the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and
monochromatic blue light of the same He4 nuclei are 5.60 and 7.06 MeV
intensity : respectively.)
(A) fringe width will decrease. (A) 17.3 MeV
(B) fringe width will increase. (B) 1.73 MeV
(C) fringe width will remain unchanged. (C) 1.46 MeV
(D) fringes will become less intense. (D) depends on binding energy of proton

28. The diameter of objective of a telescope is 34. Fusion reaction is possible at high
1m. Its resolving limit for the light of wave temperature because -
length 4538 Å, will be (A) atoms are ionised at high temperature
–7 –4
(A) 5.54 × 10 rad (B) 2.54 × 10 rad (B) molecules break-up at high temperature
–7
(C) 6.54 × 10 rad (D) None of these (C) nuclei break-up at high temperature
(D) kinetic energy is high enough to
th th
29. The distance of n bright fringe to the (n+1) overcome repulsion between nuclei.
dark fringe in Young's experiment is equal to:
nD nD D D 35. The half life of thorium (Th232) is 1.4 × 1010
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d 2d 2d d years. Then the fraction of thorium atoms
decaying per year is very nearly -
30. The slope of a graph drawn between (A) 1 × 10–11 (B) 4.95 × 10–11
thershold frequency and stopping potential is: (C) 0.69 × 10–11 (D) 7.14 × 10–11
(A) e (B) h (C) h/e (D) he

31. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of a

proton and an alpha particle moving with the
same velocity is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 0.25

32. An electron makes a transition from orbit n=

4 to the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The
wave number of the emitted radiation (R =
Rydberg’s constant) will be
16 2R 3R 4R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3R 16 16 16
36. Two charges are placed as shown in fig. 40. In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure,
Where should be a third charge be placed so the voltmeter and ammeter readings are :
that it remains in rest condition :–
9e 16e
70cm

(A) 30cm from 9e (B) 40cm from 16e

(C) 40cm from 9e (D) (A) or (B) (A) V = 100 volt,  = 2 amp
(B) V = 100 volt,  = 5 amp
37. The bulbs A, B and C are connected as shown (C) V = 1000 volt,  = 2 amp
in fig. The bulbs B and C are identical. If the
(D) V = 300 volt,  = 1 amp
bulb C is fused -

B 41. Pointing vector (which gives the direction of

A electromagnetic waves) is defined as:
C EB EB
(A) J = (B) J =
0 0

EB EB
(C) J = (D) J = + EB
(A) both A and B will glow more brightly 20 0
(B) both A and B will glow less brightly
(C) A will glow less brightly and B will glow 42. A prism having an apex angle of 40 and
more brightly refractive index of 1.50 is located in front of a
(D) A will glow more brightly and B will vertical plane mirror as shown. A horizontal
glow less brightly. ray of light is incident on the prism. The total
angle through which the ray is deviated is:
38. A current of 30 amp. is flowing in a P
conductor as shown in the fig. The magnetic
induction at point O will be-
M

(A) 4º clockwise (B) 178º clockwise

(C) 2º clockwise (D) 8º clockwise

43. The Young’s double slit experiment is

(A) 1.5 Tesla (B) 1.5 × 10–4 Tesla
performed with blue and with green light of
(C) zero (D) 0.15 Tesla wavelengths 4360 Å and 5460 Å respectively.
If X is the distance of 4th maximum from the
39. A power line lies along the east-west central one, then :
direction and carries a current of 10 ampere. (A) X(blue) = X(green)
The force per metre due to the earth's (B) X(blue) > X(green)
magnetic field of 10–4 T is
(C) X(blue) < X(green)
(A) 10–5 N (B) 10–4 N
X(blue) 5460
(C) 10–3 N (D) 10–2 N (D) =
X(green) 4360
44. When a certain metallic surface is illuminated
with monochromatic light of wavelength ,
the stopping potential for photo electric
current is 6 V0. When the same surface is
illuminated with light of wavelength 2, the
stopping potential is 2V0. The threshold
wavelength of this surface for photoelectric
effect is–
(A) 6  (B) 4/3 (C) 4 (D) 8

45. In a common base amplifier, the phase

difference between the input signal voltage
and output voltage is
 
(A)  (B) (C) (D) 0
4 2
 CHEMISTRY

Section-A
46. The edge length of face centred cubic unit 52. For first order reaction the value of rate
cell is 508 pm. The nearest distance between constant for the reaction is
two atoms is : A(g) → 3B(g) + C(g)
(A) 360 pm (B) 288 pm If here P0 is initial pressure & Pt is the
(C) 618 pm (D) 398 pm pressure of reaction mixture at time ‘t’
2.303  3P0 
47. In a compound, atoms of element Y form (A) log  
t  3P0 − Pt 
ccp lattice and those of element X occupy
2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the 2.303  P0 
(B) log  
compound will be t  P0 − Pt 
(A) X2Y3 (B) X2Y
2.303  3P0 
(C) X3Y4 (D) X4Y3 (C) log  
t  4P0 − Pt 

48. Which of the following shows negative 2.303  2P0 

(D) log  
deviation from Raoult's law ? t  2P0 − Pt 
(A) CHCl3 and acetone
(B) CHCl3 and C2H5OH 53. W g of copper deposited in a copper
(C) C6H5CH3 and C6H6 voltameter when an electric current of 2
(D) C6H6 and CCl4 ampere is passed for 2 hours. If one ampere
of electric current is passed for 4 hours in
49. Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionised in the same voltameter, copper doposited will
0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence, Tb / be :
Kb is : (A) W (B) W/2 (C) W/4 (D) 2W
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.015
(C) 0.0175 (D) 0.02 54. Standard electrode potentials of three metals
A, B and C are + 0.5 V, – 3.0 V and – 1.2 V
50. ln the reaction; A + 2B ⎯⎯ → 3C + D, respectively. The reducing power of these
metals is in the order :
which of the following expression does not
describe changes in the concentration of (A) B > C > A (B) A > B > C
various species as a function of time : (C) C > B > A (D) A > C > B
(A) {d [C] / dt} = – {3d [A] / dt}
(B) {3d [D] / dt} = {d [C] / dt} 55. When an electric current is passed through
(C) {3d [B] / dt} = – {2d [C] / dt} an aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(D) {2d [B] / dt} = – {d [A] / dt} (A) H2 is evolved at the anode
(B) Oxygen is evolved at the cathode
51. In a first order reaction, the concentration of (C) Its pH progressively decreases
the reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M (D) Its pH progressively increases
in 15 minutes. The time taken for the
concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 56. Which of the following ions is most
M is : effective in the coagulation of an arsenious
(A) 30 minutes (B) 15 minutes sulphide solution ?
(C) 7.5 minutes (D) 60 minutes (A) K+ (B) Mg2+ (C) Al3+ (D) C
57. Which one of the following statements is 63. P4 (White) ⎯⎯⎯
NaOH
→ X (g)
inert medium
correct: of CO2

(A) Brownian movement is more Which of following is incorrect about 'X'?

pronounced for smaller particles than
(A) It is highly poisonous and has smell like
for bigger ones
rotten fish
(B) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic
(B) It's solution in water decomposes in the
(C) Schulze-Hardy law states, the bigger the
presence of light
size of the ion, the greater is its
coagulating power (C) It is more basic than NH3
(D) One would expect charcoal to adsorb (D) It is less basic than NH3
hydrogen gas more strongly than
chlorine. 64. Out of TiF62–, CoF63–, Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42–,
The colourless species are :
58. Which ore of the following ores is best (A) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42–
concentrated by floatation method?
(B) TiF62– and Cu2Cl2
(A) Magnetite (B) Cassiterite
(C) CoF63– and NiCl42–
(C) Galena (D) Malachite
(D) TiF63– and CoF63–

59. The slag obtained during the extraction of

𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ ℎ𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
copper pyrites is composed mainly of : 65. Ln (Lanthanide) → (X)
(A) MgSiO3 (B) CuSiO3 𝐵𝑢𝑟𝑛 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑂2
Ln (Lanthanide) → (Y)
(C) FeSiO3 (D) CuFeS2
𝛥 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑁2
Ln (Lanthanide) → (Z)
60. Which of the following heating does not X, Y and Z are respectively :
give nitrogen gas? (A) LnX3, Ln2O3, Ln3N
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4NO2 (B) LnX3, Ln2O3, LnN
(C) Ba(N3)2 (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(C) LnX2, LnO, LnN
(D) LnX2, Ln2O3, Ln3N
61. Zn + conc. HNO3 ⎯→ Zn(NO3)2 + x +H2O
Zn + Dil. HNO3 ⎯→ Zn(NO3)2+ y +H2O 66. The increasing order of the crystal field
In these reactions X and Y are respectively? spilitting power of ligand is -
(A) NO2 & N2O (B) NO2 & NO2 (A) H2O < OH– < Cl– < F– < CN–
(C) NO & NO2 (D) NO2 & NH4NO3 (B) CN– < H2O < OH– < F– < Cl–
(C) F– < CN– < OH– < Cl– < H2O
62. When Cl2 gas react with hot and (D) Cl– < F– < OH– < H2O < CN–
concentrated NaOH solution, then obtained
solution will –
67. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– is 8000
(A) Not have bleaching action due to
cm–1 then CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4–
formation of (ClO)–
would be -
(B) Not have bleaching action due to
formation of (ClO3)– (A) 18,000 cm–1 (B) 16,000 cm–1
(C) Have bleaching action due to formation (C) 8,000 cm–1 (D) 20,000 cm–1
of (ClO)–
68. Cis-trans isomerism is exhibited by:
(D) Have bleaching action due to formation
of (ClO3)– (A) [PtCl(NH3)3]+ (B) [Pt(NH3)4]+2
(C) [PtCl4]–2 (D) [PtCl2(NH3)2]
 73. Which one of the following compound is
69. Ph–CHO + CH3–CHO Product most reactive for E1 reaction ?
is:
(A) Ph –CH =CH– CHO (A)
(B)

(B)
(C)

(D) (C)

70. In the following reaction sequence product (D)

Y is
74. Which of the following compound is used as
→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y
C2H5Br ⎯⎯⎯ KCN Dil.H2SO4
halide component in Williamson synthesis ?
Boil
(A) CH3CH2Br (B) (CH3)3C Br
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethanal (C) C6H5Br (D) CH2=CHBr
(C) Propanoic acid (D) Ethanenitrile
75. Which of the following react faster with
Lucas Reagent?
(A) CH2 = CH – OH (B) OH
71. ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ (A) ; Product
H2 O/Acetone
(C) (CH3)3 C – OH (D) CH3 – CH2 – OH

76. A chemical reaction that proceeds by

(A) is : heating sodium phenoxide with carbon
OH dioxide under pressure then treating the
|
product with sulfuric acid, the final product
is an aromatic hydroxy acid, this reaction is
(A) (B)
named as:-
(A) Reimer tiemann reaction
OH
(B) Kolbe-schmitt reaction
(C) Gattermann Koch reaction
(D) Carbyl amine reaction
(C) (D)
77. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then
treated with dimethylaniline, gives a
coloured product. Its structure would be
(A)
72. Ethanol when reacted with PCl5 gives A,
CH3NH N=N NHCH3
POCl3 and HCl. A reacts with silver nitrite
to form B ( major product) and AgCl. A and (B)
B respectively are : N=N
CH3 NH2
(A) C2H5 Cl and C2H5OC2 H5
(B) C2H6 and C2H5OC2 H5 (C) (CH3)2N N=N
(C)C2H5 Cl and C2H5NO2
(D) C2H6 and C2H5NO2 (D)
(CH3)2N N=N CH3
78. Cellulose is an polymer of 80. Which of the following can be used as
(A) -D-glucose, Straight chain disinfectants?
(B) -D-glucose, branched (A) Chlorine (B) Sulphur dioxide

(C) -D-glucose, Straight chain (C) Phenol (D) All.

(D) -D-glucose, branched

79. Which of the following polymer is

biodegradable?
⎯
( CH2–C=CH–CH2⎯
)n
(A)
Cl
CN
(B)
⎯
( CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH⎯
)n
⎯( O–CH–CH2–C–O–CH–CH2–C⎯
)n
(C)
CH3 O CH2CH3 O
H H O O
(D)
⎯N– (CH2)6–N–C–(CH2)4–C ⎯n
81. As a result of schottky defect, 87. In hypophosphoric acid no. of P–P bonds &
(A) there is no effect on the density no. of P–H bonds are respectively –
(B) density of the crystal increases (A) 2& 0 (B) 1 & 0 (C) 1 & 1 (D) 1 & 2
(C) density of the crystal decreases
(D) any of the above three can happen.
𝑂2
88. MnO2 + KOH → X.X must be:
82. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution at (A) KMnO4 (B) K2MnO4
temperature T. When the total vapour
(C) MnO (D) Mn3O4
pressure above the solution is 400 torr, the
mol fraction of A in the vapour phase is 0.4
and in the liquid phase 0.75. What are the 89. Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2– are
vapour pressure of pure A ? diamagnetic. The hybridisations of nickel in
(A) PA0 = 213.33 torr (B) PA0 = 216.32 torr these complexes, respectively, are
(C) PA0 = 219.35 torr (D) PA0 = 209.33 torr (A) sp3, sp3 (B) sp3, dsp2
(C) dsp2, sp3 (D) dsp2, sp2
83. The rate constant, the activation energy and
the frequency factor of a chemical reaction at 90. The Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by :
25°C are 3.0 × 10–4 s–1, 104.4 KJ mol–1 and
(A) C6H5CHO (B) HCHO
6.0 × 1014 s–1 respectively. The value of the
rate constant as T →  is : (C) CH3CHO (D) (CH3)3C–CHO
(A) 2.0 × 1018 s–1 (B) 6.0 × 1014 s–1
(C)  (D) 3.6 × 1030 s–1

84. For the following cell with hydrogen

electrodes at two different pressure p1and p2,
Pt | H2(g) | H+(aq) | H2 (g) | Pt
p1 1M p2
emf is given by :
RT p RT p
(A) log e 1 (B) log e 1
F p2 2F p2
RT p RT p
(C) log e 2 (D) log e 2
F p1 2F p1

85. Graph between log x/m and log p is a straight

line inclined at an angle of 45º. When
pressure is 0.5 atm and ln k = 0.693, the
amount of solute adsorbed per gram of
adsorbent will be
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 2.5

86. Which of the following is not correctly

matched ?
(A) Electrolytic reduction - Extraction of Al
(B) Cyanide process - reduction of Pb
(C) Leaching - Extraction of Au
(D) Zone refining -Ultra pure Ge
 BOTANY

91 . In majority of sexually reproducing 99 . In Antirrhinum, two plants with pink flowers

organisms, the gametes produced are of two were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red,
morphologically distinct types called pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1
(A) Antherozoids (B) Heterosomes red 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the
genotype of the two plants used for
(C) Heterogametes (D) Homogametes
hybridization? Red flower colour is
determined by RR and white by rr genes.
92 . Syngamy means (A) RR (B) Rr (C) rr (D) rrrr
(A) Fusion of gametes
(B) Fusion of cytoplasms 100. Recombination and variations in eukaryotic
(C) Fusion of similar spores organisms are due to
(D) Fusion of two dissimilar spores (A) Mitosis and meiosis
(B) Fertilization and mitosis
93 . Anemophily is pollination through – (C) Meiosis and fertilization
(A) Animals (B) Air (C) Meiosis and amitosis
(C) Birds (D) Insects
101. In Nicotiana, if 4-alleles S1, S2, S3, and S4
governed self-sterility, how many theoretical
94 . The process whereby a perfect flower is
genotypes are possible in progenies?
pollinated by its pollen is called –
(A) 21 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D)
(A) Allogamy (B) Autogamy
(C) Xenogamy (D) Hydrogamy
102. ABO incompatibility is due to
(A) Specific distribution of antigen and
95 . One meiosis produces how many pollen antibody
grains ?
(B) Specific distribution of antigens only
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 8
(C) Specific distribution of antibody only
(D) Random distribution of antigen and
96 . Ovule integument gets transformed into – antibody.
(A) Seed (B) Pericarp
(C) Seed coat (D) Cotyledons 103. In Morgan's cross in Drosophila, 37.2%
recombinants were obtained between.
97 . Which one is larger nucleus in pollen grain ? (A) Body colour and eye colour
(A) Generative nucleus (B) wing shape and wing size
(B) Vegetative nucleus (C) Eye colour and wing size
(C) Male gamete nucleus (D) Eye colour and body size
(D) Prothallial nucleus
104. Which feature is not related to Drosophila?
98 . If a full dark man marries with white woman, (A) Can be grown easily on a simple
how many different types of phenotypes will synthetic medium
be obtained? (B) Clear differentiation of sexes
(A) One (B) Three (C) Easily selfing possible
(C) Five (D) Seven (D) Short life cycle of about 2 weeks
105. The process of translation requires the 112. Organisms restricted to a narrow range of
transfer of genetic information from temperature are known as –
(A) A polymer of amino acids to a polymer (A) Eurythalaline (B) Eurythermal
of carbohydrates (C) Steno thermal (D) Stenohaline
(B) A polymer of deoxy nucleotides to a
polymer of nucleotides
113. Maximum number of individuals of a
(C) A polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of population which can be supported with
amino acids. optimum resources for their survival is
(D) a polymer of amino acids to proteins. called?
(A) Biotic potential
106. If both strands of DNA in a given segment of (B) Carrying capacity
DNA are transcribed then the two RNA (C) Environmental resistance
molecules formed must be
(D) Natality
(A) Parallel and identical
(B) Anti-parallel and complementary
114. Which of the following biogeochemical cycle
(C) Parallel and complementary
lacks gaseous state :
(D) anti-parallel and identical
(A) Carbon cycle (B) Nitrogen cycl
(C) phosphorus cycle (D) Oxygen cycle
107. Which of the following is not a common
feature of DNA and RNA.
115. Sparrow eating seeds and insects together
(A) Ability to act as genetic material
represents.
(B) possibility of mutation
(A) Food chain (B) Food web
(C) ability to replicate itself
(C) DFC (D) Carnivory
(D) ability to act as enzyme.

116. Which of the following property is not

108. Term 'Nucleic acid' was given by
attributed to humus?
(A) Kossel (B) Altman
(A) Slightly Acidic
(C) Meischer (D) Watson and crick
(B) Rate of decomposition is very high
(C) It is the reservoir of nutrients
109. The bond present between nitrogen base and
(D) Colloidal in Nature
sugar is a
(A) hydrogen bond (B) ester bond
117. Which of the following pyramid is always
(C) glycosidic bond (D)Phosphodies bond
upright
(A) Number (B) Biomass
110. Lactic and bacteria convert milk into curd and
improves its nutritional quality by enhancing (C) Energy (D) All
vitamin
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 118. What would be the trophic level of a man
feeding on curd?
111. Methanogens growing anaerobically on (A) T2 (B) T3 (C) T5 (D) T4
cellulosic material produce
119. Best way to preserve the wild life is
(A) Methane
(A) to kill the predators.
(B) Methane and hydrogen
(B) vaccinate the animals.
(C) Methane and carbon dioxide (C) to preserve natural habitat.
(D) Methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen (D) optimize the breeding habit.
120. Match the animals given in column A with
their location in column B:
Choose the correct match from the following:
(A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d (B) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
123. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
measure of –
(A) Industrial wastes poured into water
bodies
(B) Extent to which water is polluted with
organic compound
(C) Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably
combined with haemaglobin
(D) Amount of oxygen needed by microbes

121. Which one is used in automobiles? 124. Which of the following is most widely used
(A) E.S.P. for removing particulate matter from
(B) Cyclonic separator industrial emissions
(C) Catalytic converter (A) Electrostatics precipitator
(D) Arresters (B) Scrubber
(C) Large hot fans
122. CFCs are responsible for – (D) Absorbers
(A) Ozone layer depletion
(B) Global warming 125. Aims of plant breeding are to produce
(C) Acid rain (A) Disease-free varieties
(D) Global warming & ozone layer deletion. (B) High yielding varieties
(C) Early maturing varieties
(D) All of the above
126. The sequential events in the sexual 130. A eukaryotic gene was introduced into
reproduction may grouped into bacteria along with suitable promoter but it
(A) Two stages – Gametogenesis and gamete was found that this gene did not form similar
protein in bacteria. It is due to the
transfer
(A) absence of RNA polymerase
(B) Three stages – Gametogenesis, gamete
(B) absence origin of replication
transfer and fertilisation
(C) Absence of splicing mechanism
(C) Two stages – Gametogenesis and
(D) absence of 80 S ribosomes in bacteria.
embryogenesis
(D) Three stages – Pre-fertilisation,
131. Latest trend in plant disease control is
fertilisation and post-fertilisation events
(A) Chemical control
(B) Biological control
127. Emasculation is –
(C) Good manure and fertiliser
(A) Pollination between flowers of different
(D) Breeding for disease resistance
plants
(B) Pollination between flowers of the same
132. The given figure shows response of different
plants types of organisms in changing environmental
(C) Removal of the anthers from the flower conditions. Organisms showing which type of
bud response curve are regarded as most
(D) Artificial pollination before opening of successful organisms.
flower

128. In the given diagram name the parts A, B, C,

D and E.

(A) Curve-A
(B) Curve-B
(A) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C- (C) Curve-C
Intine, D - Exine, E- Vegetative cell
(D) Success or organisms in their
(B) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C- environment is not related to their
Exine, D - Intine, E- Vegetative cell response.
(C) A - Intine, B - Exine, C- Germ pore, D -
Generative cell, E- Vegetative cell 133. Which of the following animal can survive
(D) A - Exine, B - Intine, C- Vegetative cell, without drinking water?
D - Germ pore, E- Generative cell (A) Seal (B) Antarctic Fish
(C) Camel (D) Kangaroo rat
129. The offspring of mating between two pure
breeding strains are called 134. Which of the following match is not correct?
(A) Hybrid (B) Progeny (A) Ammensalism : [–], [0]
(C) Cybrid (D) Heterosis (B) Commensalism : [+] [+]
(C) Predation : [+] [–]
(D) Parasitism : [+] [–]
135. Find the incorrect match
(A) Primary productivity – Varies is different
ecosystems
(B) GPP – Available biomass for
consumption at T2 level.
(C) NPP of Oceanic Biome – 55 Billion Tons
(D) Secondary productivity – Rate of
formation of new organic matter by
consumers
 ZOOLOGY

136. Which of the following accessory 142. In human, which phase of menstrual cycle
reproductive gland secretions makes the lasts for 7-8 days?
major part of semen ? (A) Follicular phase (B) Ovulatory phase
(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Prostate gland (C) Luteal phase (D) Menstruation
(C) Cowper's gland (D) Bartholin's gland
143. Which society might be called reproductively
137. In mammals, Testes are situated outside the healthy ?
abdominal cavity within scrotum for : (A) Society with people having physically
(A) Spermatogenesis normal reproductive organs
(B) Fertilization (B) Society with people having functionally
(C) Development of sex organs normal reproductive organs
(D) Development of visceral organs (C) People having normal emotional and
behavioural interactions among them in
all sex-related aspects
138. If both ovary of human female are removed
then ___________ level is decreased in (D) All of the above
blood.
(A) Oxytocin (B) Prolactin 144. Select the correct statement regarding oral
(C) Estrogen (D) GnRH contraceptive pill :
(A) have to be taken daily for a period of 15
days
139. In Spermiogenesis process :
(B) starting preferably within the first five
(A) Spermatids change into spermatozoa
days of menstrual cycle
(B) Spermatogonia produce a spermatid
(C) after a gap of 21 days it has to be
(C) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa
repeated in the same pattern
(D) Dormant spermatozoa become active just (D) all of the above
before ejaculation

145. Why sterilization procedures are very

140. The mature sperm head contains :
(A) Elongated nucleus and
material
(B) Mitochondria, cytoplasm & nucleus
(C) Two centriole & the axial filament
(D) All of the above
141. At puberty only______are left in each ovary.
(A) 60,000-80,000 Secondary follicles
(B) 30,000-50,000 primary follicles
(C) 60,000-80,000 primary follicles
(D) 20,000-40,000 Secondary follicles
effective?
acrosomal
(A) They block gamete transport and hence
prevent fertilization
(B) They prevent gametogenesis
(C) They prevent release of gonadotropic
hormones
(D) Their reversibility is high
146. Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs,
their incidences are reported to be very high
among persons in the age group of ________.
(A) 35-50 years (B) 40-60 years
(C) 15-24 years (D) 25-40 years
147. Which of the following causes are responsible
for the population growth?
I. Decline in death rate
II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR
III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
IV. Increase in the number of people in the
reproductive age group
V. Rapid increase in the death rate
(A) I, II, III, IV and V (B) I, II and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) III, IV and V
148. Find out the incorrectly matched pair ?
(A) IUI– Semen introduced artificially into
uterus
(B) ICSI– Sperm introduced artificially into
ovum
(C) GIFT–Embryo with more than 8
blastomeres transferred into fallopian
tube
(D) IVF–Fertilization occurs outside the body
149. Primitive atmosphere on earth was made up
of the mixture of :
(A) Oxygen, ammonia, methane, water
(B) Hydrogen, ammonia, methane, oxygen
(C) Hydrogen, water vapour, methane, ammonia
(D) Oxygen, methane, water, helium
150. Oparin of __(i)__ and Haldane of __(ii)__
proposed that the first form of life could have
come from pre existing __(iii)__ molecules
and that form of life was preceded by
chemical evolution.
Fill in the blanks and choose the correct
option.
(A) (i)-Russia, (ii)-England, (iii)-Non-living
organic
(B) (i)-Russia, (ii)-England, (iii)-Non-living
inorganic
(C) (i)-England, (ii)-Russia, (iii)-Non-living
organic
(D) (i)- England, (ii)-Russia, (iii)-Non-living
inorganic
151. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding paleontological evidence for
evolution?
(A) Fossil study showed that life forms varied
over time
(B) Certain life forms restricted to certain
geological time-spans
(C) Diversity was same since creation and
will be same in future also
(D) New life forms have arisen at different
times in the history of earth
152. Which of the following are not homologous
organs?
(A) Forelimbs of mammals
(B) Wings of butterfly and birds
(C) Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and
Cucurbita
(D) Heart in all vertebrates
153. Which of the below evidence of evolution is
related to Darwin’s finches?
(A) Biogeographical distribution
(B) Vestigeal organs
(C) Embryology
(D) Palaeontology
154. Which of the below statement is correct
regarding Alfred Wallace?
(i) Was a naturalist
(ii) Worked in Malay Archepelago
(iii) Had come to completely dissmilar
conclusion around the same time of
Darwin
(A) ii and iii (B) i and iii
(C) i and ii (D) Only iii
155. Match the column-I and column-II and
choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
1. Modern (a) Between 1,00,000 -
Homo sapiens 40,000 years back
2. Homo (b) Between 75,000 -
erectus 10,000 years ago
3. Neanderthal
(c) 18,000 years ago
man
4. Pre-historic (d) 1.5 million years
cave art ago
(A) 1 – (b), 2 – (d), 3 – (a), 4 – (c)
(B) 1 – (a), 2 – (d), 3 – (c), 4 – (b)
(C) 1 – (c), 2 – (a), 3 – (b), 4 – (d)
(D) 1 – (b), 2 – (a), 3 – (d), 4 – (c)
156. Agriculture & Human settlements started about:
(A) 10,000 years back (B) 20,000 years back
(C) 30,000 years back (D) 40,000 years back
157. Find out the correct statement :-
(a) Yoga has been practised to achieve
physical and mental health
(b) Infectious diseases are very common
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease
(d) Cancer is non-infectious disease
(e) Health decreases longevity of people
(A) a, b and e (B) b, c, d and e
(C) a, c and e (D) a, b, c and d
158. Which of the following is not a mode of
transmission of HIV?
(A) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(B) Sharing the infected needles
(C) Shaking hands with infected persons
(D) Sexual contact with infected persons
159. Select the incorrect option :-
(A) Elephantiasis - Wuchereria bancrofti
(B) Amoebic dysentery - Entamoeba
histolytica
(C) Ringworms - Fungi belongs to
microsporum
(D) Pneumonia - Salmonella typhi
160. Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of :
(A) giving rise to tumors
(B) metastasis
(C) contact inhibition
(D) continue to divide
161. Acid in the stomach and tears from eye
belong to which type of barriers ?
(A) Physiological barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cytokine barriers
(D) Cellular barriers
162. Which of the following combination is not a
cannabinoids ?
(A) Charas, Ganja (B) Datura, Smack
(C) Charas, Hashish (D) Marijuana, Ganja
163. ________ actively participate during allergy.
(A) B-lymphocytes (B) Liver cells
(C) Mast cells (D) Red blood cells
164. Which of the following are air borne
diseases?
(A) Pneumonia and Typhoid
(B) AIDS and cancer
(C) Amoebiasis and Ascariasis
(D) Pneumonia and common cold
165. The Primary lymphoid organs are_____
where immature lymphocytes differentiate
into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
(A) Bone marrow and spleen
(B) Spleen and thymus
(C) Bone marrow and tonsils
(D) Thymus and bone marrow
166. Select the incorrect statements regarding
inbreeding :
(i) Inbreeding allows the desirable qualities
of two different breeds to be combined.
(ii) It increases homozygosity.
(iii) It also helps in elimination of less
desirable genes.
(iv) Continued inbreeding increases fertility
and productivity.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
167. Which of the following procedures are 169. ‘Toddy’ a traditional drink of some parts of
followed in dairy farm management ? southern India is made by fermenting
(i) Regular inspections and visits by (A) Maltose (B) Sap from palms
veterinary doctors (C) Sap from papaya (D) Sucrose
(ii) Usage of manure to increase crop yields
(iii) Adequate environmental condition is 170. Strategy used to prevent nematode infection
provided of tobacco roots is
(iv) Catching and hiving of swarms (A) Use of agrochemicals
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (B) Bt toxin gene
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) All of these (C) Gene mutation
(D) RNA interference
168. What is not true for Ti-plasmid ?
(A) Host bacteria for Ti-plasmid is
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(B) This plasmid is disarmed before being
used as vector
(C) It is suitable for creating genetic
recombinants in monocot plants.
(D) This plasmid has the property of
integration with plant chromosome.
171. Find out the correct statement regarding 176. Who did an experiment to prove that "The
Epididymis : organic compounds were the basis of life" ?
(A) Network of sinuses between seminiferous
(A) Darwin
tubules and vasa efferentia
(B) Intermediate structure between rete testis (B) Stanley Miller and Harold C.Urey
and vasa efferentia (C) Huxley and Harvey
(C) A long coiled tube between vasa (D) Alfred wallace
efferentia and vas deferens
(D) Connection between vas deferens and
seminal vesicle 177. Which of the following are key concepts of
Darwinian theory of evolution?
172. Find out the incorrect statement from below I. Use and disuse of organs
options : II. inheritance of acquired characters
(A) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is
III. Branching descent
called a morula
(B) Cleavage in zygote results in morula than IV. Natural selection
blastula V. Mutation
(C) Fusion of sperm and ovum occurs in VI. Reproductive isolation
fallopian tube
(A) I and II (B) III and IV
(D) Cleavage is rapid meiotic cell divisions
(C) V and VI (D) IV and VI
173. Which of the following statement is not
related with parturition process? 178. The figure shown below representing the
(A) Oxytocin Hormone is secreted by
maternal pituitary
(B) Relaxin hormone responsible for
narrowing of pelvic cavity
(C) Stronger uterine contraction stimulates
further oxytocin release
(D) After parturition, placenta is also expelled
out (A) Stabilisation (B) Directional change
(C) Disruption (D) Saltation
174. Emergency contraceptives are effective if
used within : 179. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
(A) 72 hrs of coitus
evolution while working on :
(B) 72 hrs of ovulation
(C) 72 hrs of menstruation (A) Oenothera lamarckiana
(D) 72 hrs of implantation (B) White-winged mouth
(C) Pisum sativum
175. Which of the following contraception method
(D) Bandicoot
is natural?
I. Periodic abstinence
II. Condoms 180. Most cancers are treated by combination of:-
III. Lactational amenorrhea (a) Surgery
IV. Vasectomy (b) Radiotherapy
V. Tubectomy
VI. Sterilisation (c) Chemotherapy
(A) I and III (B) III and IV (A) a and b (B) a and c
(C) V and VI (D) Only II (C) b and c (D) a, b and c